Important MCQs of Physics XII

1 By method of mixture we can find:

(a) Specific heat (b) Molar sp: heat
(c) Temperature (d) No: of moles
2 Which of the following process is isothermal compression?
(a) ∆Q = ∆W (b) −∆Q = ∆W
(c) −∆Q = −∆W (d) ∆Q = ∆U
3 Which of the thermodynamic process is ideal?
(a) Adiabatic (b) Isothermal
(c) Isobaric (d) Isochoric
4 First law of thermodynamics is modified form of law of conservation of ______.
(a) Mass (b) Momentum
(c) Force (d) Energy
5 If the Vrms of gas molecules becomes 3 times then temperature becomes:
(a) √3 times (b) 9 times
(c) 6 times (d) 3 times
6 The product of Bottzmann constant and Avogadro’s number is equal to:
(a) Universal gas constant (b) Specific heat
(c) No: of moles (d) Molar mass
7 According to isochoric process:
(a) ∆Q = ∆U (b) ∆V= O
(c) ∆W = O (d) A.O.T
2 –2 o –
8 m s ( C) is the unit of:
(a) Heat capacity (b) Specific heat
(c) Molar specific heat (d) Latent heat
9 Pressure is directly proportional to density of a gas at constant temperature. This is
the statement of ______.
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charles law
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) N.O.T
10 Which of the following quantity remains constant during Isothermal process?
(a) Average K.E (b) Internal energy
(c) Temperature (d) A.O.T
11 J/mol. k is the unit of _______.
(a) Molar specific heat (b) Universal gas constant
(c) Both a & b (d) Specific heat capacity
12 The specific heat of a material is C when it has mass m. What will be specific heat if
the mass of same material becomes 3m?
(a) C (b) 3C (c) (d) 2C
13 The K.E per mole of gas molecules is 450R where R is universal gas constant. The
temperature of that gas is _____.
(a) 300oC (b) 450oC
(c) 127oC (d) 27oC
14 The mathematical expression for Isobaric process is ______.
∆ ∆ ∆ ∆
(a) 𝑃 = (b) 𝑃 =
∆ ∆
∆ ∆
(c) 𝑃 = ∆ (d) N.O.T
15 During adiabatic expansion temperature of the system.
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains same (d) Becomes zero
16 Two ends A and B of a metallic rod are at temperature −15oC and −20oC. The heat
will flow from ______.
(a) −20oC to −15oC (b) −15oC to −20oC
(c) Does not flow (d) N.O.T
17 The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 Kg water through 1 K is
______.
(a) 420J (b) 4200J
(c) 4.2J (d) 42J
18 An air gun pellet, mass m and specific heat capacity C, hits a steel plate at speed V.
During the impact 50% of the pellet’s Kinetic energy is converted to thermal energy
in the pellet. What is the rise in temperature of the pellet?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
19 A metal ball has specific heat capacity C, moving with speed V, is brought to rest.
All its Kinetic energy is converted into heat energy which it absorbs, causing a
temperature rise ∆T. What is the value of V?
(a) 𝐶∆𝑇 (b) 2𝐶∆𝑇
(c) √𝐶∆𝑇 (d) √2𝐶∆𝑇
20 The molar specific heat at constant volume of a diatomic gas is 500J/mol.K. The
molar specific heat at constant pressure of that gas is ______.
(a) 900J/mol.K (b) 600J/mol.K
(c) 700J/mol.K (d) 1500J/mol.K
21 In which process inspite of changing pressure and temperature the volume does not
change.
(a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric
(c) Isothermal (d) N.O.T
22 The internal energy of perfect gas is _____.
(a) Wholly K.E (b) Wholly P.E
(c) P.E + K.E (d) P.E – K.E
23 During Isothermal expansion the internal energy of the system ______.
(a) Increases (b) Remains same
(c) Decreases (d) N.O.T
24 During Isothermal process the volume of system changes ____.
(a) Quickly (b) Slowly
(c) In normal time (d) N.O.T
25 During Adiabatic expansion _______.
(i) Cooling produces (ii) Heating produces
(iii) Internal energy decreases (iv) Internal energy increases
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv (d) only i
26 An ideal gas is compressed at constant temperature. Which option of the table is
correct?
Work Done Heat energy
(a) Work is done by gas Heat energy goes into gas
(b) Work is done by gas Heat energy goes out of gas
(c) Work is done on gas Heat energy goes into gas
(d) Work is done on gas Heat energy goes out of gas
𝑸
27 Let Q is heat absorbed by working material of a heat engine and is heat rejected to
𝟑
cold reservoir. The output of heat engine is _____.
(a) 𝑄 (b) 𝑄
(c) 𝑄 (d) 𝑄
28 The efficiency of heat engine is 100% if the temperature of sink is:
(a) 0oC (b) 0oF
(c) 0K (d) A.O.T
29 If the temperature of source and sink are equal then efficiency of heat engine will be
_______.
(a) 100% (b) zero
(c) Infinite (d) 1%
30 A heat engine takes 2000J of heat from a reservoir at 500K does some work and
discards some heat to a reservoir at 350K. The efficiency of heat engine is ________.
(a) 45% (b) 50%
(c) 30% (d) 75%
31 Thermodynamic system returns to initial state. Which of the following is/are
possible?
(a) The work done is zero (b) The work done is +ve
(c) The work done is –ve (d) A.O.T
32 Select incorrect relation.
(a) ∆Q = ∆𝑢 + P∆V ⟶ Isobaric process (b) ∆Q = ∆𝑢 ⟶ Isochoric process
(c) ∆Q = ∆W ⟶ Isothermal process (d) ∆𝑢 = ∆W ⟶ Adiabatic process
33 The maximum work is done in _____ process.
(a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic
(c) Isobaric (d) Isochoric
34 During Isothermal expansion the internal energy of the system ______.
(a) Increases (b) Remains same
(c) Decreases (d) N.O.T
35 During Isothermal process the volume of system changes ____.
(a) Quickly (b) Slowly
(c) In normal time (d) N.O.T
36 The efficiency of heat engine is 100% if the temperature of sink is ______.
(a) 0oC (b) 0oF
(c) 0K (d) A.O.T
37 It is impossible to cause heat to flow from a cold body to a hot body without the
expenditure of energy. It is ______ of second law of Thermodynamics.
(a) Kelvin’s statement (b) Joule’s statement
(c) Clausius’ statement (d) Rumford statement
38 Which statement of 2nd law of Thermodynamics is known as heat engine statement?
(a) Kelvin’s statement (b) Joule’s statement
(c) Clausius’ statement (d) Carnot’s statement
39 The device which conveys heat from cold body to hot body with expenditure of
energy is called _______.
(a) Air conditioner (b) Heat engine
(c) Heat pump (d) Refrigerator
40 An isolated system undergoes a change, the entropy of the system ______.
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Becomes zero (d) Becomes infinite
41 The total entropy change in one cycle of any Carnot engine is _______.
(a) Infinite (b) zero
(c) Positive (d) Negative
42 The ratio of heat removed from cold reservoir to the work done by refrigerator is
called _______.
(a) Efficiency (b) Performance
(c) Coefficient of efficiency (d) Coefficient of performance
43 Let TH is temperature of hot body and TC is temperature of cold body. The
efficiency of heat engine is ______.
(a) Eff = 1 − × 100% (b) Eff = 1 − × 100%
(c) Eff = × 100% (d) Eff = × 100%
44 If 30J of work is done in compressing a gas adiabatically, the change in internal
energy is equal to:
(a) Decreased by 30J (b) Increased by 30J
(c) No change (d) N.O.T
45 A Carnot engine with its cold body at 17oC has 50% efficiency. If the temperature of
its hot body is now increased by 145oC, the efficiency becomes ______.
(a) 55% (b) 60%
(c) 40% (d) 45%
46 A system is in the thermodynamic equilibrium if ______.
(a) No external force acts on it. (b) No chemical reaction takes place.
(c) No heat exchange with the surrounding. (d) A.O.T
𝑸
47 Let Q is heat absorbed by working material of a heat engine and is heat rejected to
𝟑
cold reservoir. The output of heat engine is _____.
(a) 𝑄 (b) 𝑄
(c) 𝑄 (d) 𝑄
48 A Carnot engine is ______.
(a) A real reversible heat engine. (b) An ideal reversible heat engine.
(c) A real irreversible heat engine. (d) An ideal irreversible heat engine.
49 Which of the following temperature is considered as absolute zero?
(a) −273oC (b) −460oF
(c) 0K (d) A.O.T
50 The normal human body temperature is:
(a) 98.4oF (b) 96.6oF
o
(c) 95.4 F (d) 94.8oF
51 The diameter of gas molecules is ______.
(a) 5Ao (b) 3Ao (c) 6Ao (d) 2Ao
3
52 At standard condition 1 m volume contains ______ molecules.
(a) 4×1023 (b) 6×1023
(c) 3×1025 (d) 5×1025
53 The concept of heat was introduced by _____.
(a) Joseph black (b) Count Rumford
(c) Issac Newton (d) Sadi Carnot
54 During isochoric process which quantity is zero?
(a) Pressure (b) Internal energy
(c) Temperature (d) Work done
55 Kinetic energy per mole of gas molecules is given by ______.
(a) 𝐾𝑇 (b) 𝑅𝑇
(c) 𝐾𝑇 (d) 𝑅𝑇
56 The expression for Boltzman Constant is _____.
(a) RNA (b) NA/R
(c) R/NA (d) N.O.T
57 105 cal of heat are required to raise the temperature of 3 moles of an ideal gas at
constant pressure from 25oC to 30oC. Calculate the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of the same gas through the same range of temperature at constant
volume (R = 2)
(a) 75 cal (b) 80 cal
(c) 85 cal (d) 82 cal
58 The heat reservoir of an ideal Carnot engine is at 800K and the sink is at 400K. The
amount of heat taken it in one second to produce useful mechanical work at the rate
of 750J is ______.
(a) 2250J (b) 1125J
(c) 1500J (d) 750J
59 The efficiency of a Carnot’s engine is 10%. The temperature of source is 127oC. The
temperature of sink is ______.
(a) 87oC (b) 360oC
o
(c) 170 C (d) 340oC
60 For which combination of temperatures the efficiency of Carnot’s engine is highest?
(a) 80K, 60K (b) 100K, 80K
(c) 60K, 40K (d) 40K, 20K
61 A charged particle is projected into a uniform magnetic field with its velocity
perpendicular to the direction of the field. Which of the following quantities of the
particle will not change?
(a) Momentum (b) Velocity
(c) Speed (d) Acceleration
62 A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic field and current flows in
the wire. Then ______.
(a) The wire will experience a torque.
(b) The wire will experience a force parallel to field
(c) The wire will experience a force perpendicular to field
(d) The wire will not experience a force.
63 The time rate of work done by the magnetic field on a charged particle moving in a
magnetic field is _______.
(a) qB (b)
(c) Zero (d) qBV2
64 The streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction ______.
(a) Attract each other (b) Repel each other
(c) Cancel the effect of electric field of each other
(d) Cancel the effect of magnetic of field each other.
65 Magnetic field is not associated with:
(a) A charge is uniform motion (b) An accelerated charge
(c) A decelerated charge (d) A stationary charge
66 One weber/m2 is equal to ______.
(a) 104gauss (b) 102gauss
–4
(c) 10 gauss (d) 10–2 gauss
67 The S.I unit of magnetic permeability is _______.
(a) Wb m–2 A–1 (b) Wb m–1 A–1
(c) Wb mA (d) Wb m–1 A
68 Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance r are carrying a current I amp
each. The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
______.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
69 The number of turns and radius of cross section of a coil are doubled. If current
remain same, then magnetic field at the centre of coil is _______.
(a) Double (b) Halved
(c) Remains same (d) Zero
70 A charged particle is projected into a magnetic field 𝑩⃗ = (𝟑 ̂ + 𝟒 ̂) × 𝟏𝟎 𝟐 Wb/m2.
The acceleration of the particle is 𝒂 = (𝒙 ̂ − 𝟐 ̂) m/s2. Find 𝒙:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
71 A power line 10m high carries a current of 200 A. Find the magnetic field of the
wire at the ground.
(a) 4×10–2 G (b) 4×10–4 G
–3
(c) 4×10 G (d) 4×10–6 G
72 The concept of electromagnetic induction was given by:
(a) Ampere (b) Oersted
(c) Henry (d) Faraday
73 Isolated moving charges create ______.
(a) Only magnetic field (b) Only electric field
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) N.O.T
74 Which of the following is analogous to mass in electricity?
(a) Charge (b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance (d) Potential
75 Volt. Second is equivalent to ________.
(a) Tesla (b) Henry
(c) Weber (d) Ohm
76 When electric charges are at rest they exert ______ force.
(a) Magnetic (b) Electrostatic
(c) Gravitational (d) A.O.T
77 Stationary charge produces:
(a) Electric and Magnetic (b) Only magnetic
(c) Only Electric (d) N.O.T
78 If the charge is moving opposite to direction of magnetic field of induction then
magnetic force will be _____.
(a) F = qvB (b) F = −qvB
(c) F = 0 (d) N.O.T
79 One Newton force is acting on a charge of 1C when it is moving with a velocity of
100cm/s at an angle of 30o to the direction of magnetic field. The strength of field is
______.
(a) 1 Tesla (b) 0.5 Tesla
(c) 50 Tesla (d) 2 Tesla
80 The smaller unit of magnetic field of induction is ______.
(a) Gauss (b) Tesla
(c) Henry (d) Ampere
81 If the number of turns of a rectangular coil increases four times and current flowing
through it becomes half than torque experienced by that coil.
(a) Becomes half (b) Becomes one fourth
(c) Becomes twice (d) Becomes 4 times
82 The unit weber/m2 is equivalent to _______.
(a) NA–1m–1 (b) N.m.c–1
–1
(c) N.S.c (d) Nc–1m–1
83 The force on a moving electron with a velocity of 104 m/s in the field of 10–4 Tesla in
the direction perpendicular to field is ______.
(a) 1.6×10–15 N (b) 1.6×10–17 N
(c) 1.6×10–13 N (d) 1.6×10–19 N
84 Charge to mass ratio of an electron was determined by _____.
(a) J.J Thomson (b) A.H Compton
(c) Faraday (d) Joseph Henry
85 If a charge particle is moving in uniform magnetic field its magnetic force is
balanced by _____ force.
(a) Gravitational (b) Electrostatic
(c) Centripetal (d) A.O.T
 86 When a tungsten filament is heated it produces.
(a) Electrons (b) Protons
(c) Neutrons (d) Positrons
87 An electron of charge “e” is moving with velocity “V” in a magnetic field. Its e/m
ratio is given by ______.
(a) = (b) =
(c) = 𝑉𝑟𝐵 (d) =
88 By using Ampere’s law we can determine.
(a) Magnetic flux (b) Magnetic flux density
(c) Magnetic force (d) A.O.T
89 The value of permeability of free space is _____.
(a) 4𝜋 ×10–6 web–1 A–1 (b) 4𝜋 ×10–7 web–1 A–1
–12 –1 –1
(c) 8.85𝜋 ×10 web A (d) N.O.T
90 A coil of insulated copper wire wound on a circular core with close turns is called
_____.
(a) Toroid (b) Circular solenoid
(c) Both a & b (d) N.O.T
91 There is a current of 25 A in a long straight wire. What is the flux density at a point
5cm from the wire?
(a) 1×10–3T (b) 1×10–4T
–2
(c) 1×10 T (d) 1×10–5T
92 The number of turns of a toroid increases four times and radius increases 8 times
then flux density.
(a) Increases 2 times (b) Increases four times
(c) Becomes half (d) N.O.T
93 What happens to flux through a coil if emf is setup in it in a magnetic field?
(a) Remains same (b) Changes
(c) Becomes zero (d) N.O.T
94 The concept of electromagnetic induction was given by _____
(a) Henry (b) Ampere
(c) Faraday (d) Gauss
95 The magnitude of emf depends on _____.
(a) Rate of change of flux (b) Number of turns of coil
(c) Rate of change of current (d) A.O.T
96 The laws of electromagnetic induction were stated by _____.
(a) Faraday (b) Henry
(c) Ampere (d) Michelson
97 The magnitude of induced emf is given by ______.
∆∅
(a) 𝐸 = −𝑁 (b) 𝐸 = −𝑁∆∅
∆
∆
(c) 𝐸 = −𝑁 (d) N.O.T
∆
98 A coil of 600 turns is threaded by a flux of 8×10–5 webers. If this flux is reduced to
3×10–5 webers in 1.5×10–2 seconds. Emf induced is _____.
(a) −2 volts (b) −4 volts
(c) −6 volts (d) −10 volts
99 If rate of change of current increases than self-inductance.
(a) Increase (b) Remains same
(c) Decreases (d) N.O.T
100 The unit of self-inductance is ______.
(a) Henry (b) Tesla
(c) Weber (d) Weber/m