Last Leap for NEET Part - I Chemistry Botany

LAST IEAP for NEEI
IPart-ll
ICHEIVIISTRY & BOTANY)
Aakash
Medical I I lT-IEE I Foundations
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ntenJs
S. NO. PARTICULARS PAGE NO.
1. Preface (, - (i)
3. Botany 113 - 288
4. Answers 289 - 304

Preface
Dear NEET Aspirants,
I am pleased to release this package "Lastl*ap" for NEET 2018' This package
contains selected and important questions which has been prepared and
compiled by our expert faculties who have been teaching AIPMT/NEET since
decades. This package is available in 2 parts viz.Patt (I) and Part (II).
When a student will try to solve these questions, he/she can have a real feel
of the examination. These questions will open the different layers of the brain
and will stimulate the deepest neryous tissue to think and recall as well as
analyze the trick in the questions. I am very confident that if a student
sincerely solves these questions independently, there is no reason why he,/she
carurot be among the top rankers in the country in the NEET. The "Last Leap"
is going to be the winning tcap for every student who puts his heart and mind
on the questions grven in this package.
Wishing you a brighter career.
I.C. CHAUDHRY
Chairman
Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd.
(i)
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER NO. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. Structure of Atom .. ..... 01 - 16
2. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 17 -34
3. Equilibrium........... 35-54
4. Electrochemistry......... .55-66
5. p-Block Elements (GrouP 15 - 18) 67 -74
6. Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles

and Techniques ... ..75 - 92
7. Hydrocarbons ...93 - 112

Chapter 1
Structure of Atom
5. Radius of the second orbit of an element is
0.070 nm. The energy associated for this orbit will
Objective Type Questions be
1 lf the uncertainty in position, momentum, energy, ('l) 2952 J/atom
time, angular momentum and angular displacement (2) 52 x 10-1s J/atom
are ax, AP, AE, At, A0 and A0 respectively. Which
(3) 4.9 x 10-18 J/atom
of the following is correct about Heisenberg's
uncertainty principle? (4) 5.45 x 10-1s J/atom
6. Splitting of spectral line in the magnetic field is
1r1 r-xoetrfi 121 toexo,)=fi called
(1) Stark effect (2) Zeeman effect
(3) Photoelectric effect (4) All of these
ta) rooxot).fi (4) All of these
7. Choose the orbital having two nodal planes
2 lf 'x'is the radius of first Bohr's orbit of the (1) py (21 p,

hydrogen atom. Then the ratio of radius of 2'd, 4h (3) dv. (\ p,
and 6h orbit is 8. Total number of electrons that can be
(1) 1 :2: 3 (21 1:4:9 accommodated in the sub-shell (l -- 2l are
(3) 3:2:1 (41 2:4:8
(1) 6 (2\ 1o
(3) 14 (4\ 2
3 lf the velocity of an electron in a Bohr's orbit (n)
of hydrogen is given by'V', then the value of n is 9. lf the ionization energy of hydrogen atom is
equal to 160 eV Find the shell having energy - 40 eV.
1
(1) n = (2) n=2
,'r, 2*' .^. Zfie'
ttl (3) n=a (a) n=3
Vh
10. Select the correct statement
Vh nt' (1) The number of maxima in radial probability
(3) ,,te'?
,o\
' 2Vh distribution curue of 2s orbitral are two
(2) At the node, the value of the radial function
4 For energy of the orbitals in same subshell, which changes from positive to negative
is correct?
(3) 3dl has 3 angular nodes
(1) Ers (H) > E2" (Li) > E2" (Na) > E2" (K)
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Ers (K) > E2" (Na) > E2" (Li) > E2" (H) '11 . Electronic configuration of Palladium (Z = 46) is
(3) E2s (H) = Er" (Li) = Er" (Na) = Er" (K) (1) tKrl 4d sd (2) tKrl 4d 5s1
(4) E2s (K) > E2" (Li) > E2" (Na) > E2" (H) (3) [Kr.] 4do 5d (4) tKd 4d 5d
2 Structure ofAtom Last Leap for NEET (Pan-l)
12. Wavelength of third spectral line in Balmer series 20. The frequency of the spectral line emitted when
for hydrogen is the electron in n = 3 in H-atom de€xcites to ground
state
100 21R
(1) (2) (1) 2.92 x 101ss-1 (21 1.62x 10-15s-1
21 R ioo
(3) 13.6 x 1012s 1 (4) 3.90 x 10-12s-1
(3) 5R
75
(4)
7s 5R 21 . fhe momentum of radiations of wavelength 0.33 nm
13. lf kinetic energy of electron is increased I times, is
the de Broglie wavelength associated with it
becomes (11 2.01 x 1024 kg ms-1 (2) 2.O1 x l0-2a kg ms-t
(1) 9 times (2) 3 times (3) 6.63 x 10-s kg ms-1 (41 6.63 x 10s kg ms-l
22. Which of the following is the incorrect set of
;J times
1
(3) (4) 81 times
quantum number? lwhere x is positive integer]
14. The ratio of the difference in energy of electron
between the first and second Bohr's orbits to that (1) n = x. 1= 1x- 1), m = (x- 1), s = *1
between second and third Bohr's orbits is
127 (2) n=(x -'t). t= (x - 2). m =(x-21,s=-)
(1)
5 (2) 5
(3)
94 (4) (3) n=(x+ 1), /=r, r=r,.=*1
Z e
15. How many electrons in an element with atomic
number 28 have (n + l) = 42
(4) n=(x -2\. l=x,m=(x-1),.=-;
(1) 6 (2) 8 23. lt the threshold wavelength of a metal and l.
Xo is
(3) 7 (4) 10 is the wavelength of the incident radiation. The
16. The wave number of first line of Balmer series of maximum velocity of the ejected electrons from the
hydrogen is 15200 cm-1. The wave number of the metal would be
first Balmer line of Li2. ion is
('l) 1
15200 cm (2) 136800 cm-l
1t2
(3) 60800 cm-l (4) 78000 cm

'17. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and
1
an
(1)
[*[r*)]"' -, [+[Hll
cr-particle is 1t2 112
m
(1'12:1 (2)1:2 -). -t
(3) 1:4 (4)1:1
(3)
hc
L (4\
[+t ), 0
18. Which of the following is incorrect about Bohr's 24. lf v and K.E are the frequency of incident light and
model of an atom? kinetic energy of photo electrons in the given
graph. The slope of the line will be
nh
('l ) Orbit angular momentum = Znt
(2) lt is applicable for H- and H-like species 0
(3) lt is defined for hydrogen molecule only

(4) All of these K.E
19. lf the kinetic energy of an electron in the nth shell (1)

is x kJ/atom then its potential energy in the same ;
shell will be
x e\+
(1) x kJ / atom (2) t atom
,kJ (3) h
(3) -2x kJ / atom 1+1 -)rulatom (4) vo
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Structure of Atom 3
25. lf the angular momentum of an electron in a Bohr's 32. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way lhat
orbit of the hydrogen atom is 3.164 x 1tr3 kg nfls.
The energy of the electron in the same orbit is its kinetic energy changes trom x to ! . fne
eV (21 3.4 ev change in potential energy will be
(1 ) -3.4
(3) -1 .5 eV (4) -13.6 eV
26. The probability distribution curve for 2 s electron
o1, @ -1,
appears like
,q f,, tq -!x
2
R R,
33 Line spectra is characteristic of
(1) (2\
(1) Atoms (2) Compounds
r r
(3) Molecules (4) All of these
R, R, 34 The magnetic quantum number for valence electron
of Ba (atomic number 56) is
(3) (4)
r
(1) 0 (2) ! 1
r
27. Which of the following d-orbital will have only two
(3) t2 (4) All of these
lobes? The ratio of the number of lines obtained in Paschen
series to Pfund series when eledron jumps from sixth
(1\ d*y (2) d_
excited state to first excited state is
(3\ d,z-rz $) d,, (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) s (4) 2
28. Which of the following line in hydrogen spectrum
Jt' lf one orbital can accommodate maximum of three
is obtained corresponding to second line of
eleclrons then last electron of calcium will be filled in
Brackett s€ries in He* ion spectrum having same
wavelength? (1) s-orbital (2) porbital
(1) First line of Lyman series (3) d-orbital (4) f-orbital
37 Which of the following has minimum number of
(2) Second line of Lyman series
angular nodes?
(3) First line of Balmer series
(1) 2p, (2) 3py
(4) Second line of Balmer series
(3) 3d,z_rz (4) 3d,2
29. The ratio of number of revolutions of electron per
38 Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is ao. Then
second in 2nd and 3rd orbit of H-atom is
the wavelength associated with electron in the 3d
tzYz Vz r:
orbit will be
(1) (2) trv,
%r3
r, r. v" v" (1.zao el2?
(3)
%% (4\ ii (3) 4nao (4) 6rrao
30. The total number of exchanges of electrons in d 39. Which of the following statements about spectral
system (degenerate orbitals) ls series is incorrect?
(1) 7 (2) I (1) The lines in the Balmer series corresponds to
(3) e (4) 10 electron transitions from energy levels higher
thann=2energylevel
31. The electronic transition from n = 2to n = 1 will
produce shortest wavelength in (2) Paschen series appears in the infrared region
(1) H (3) The lines of Lyman series appear in the visible
region
(2) l-le.
(4) Transitions from higher energy levels to Sth
(3) Lr2 energy level produce Pfund series which falls
(4) H- in the infrared [egion
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4 Structure ofAtom Last Leap for NEET (PartJ)
40. To which electronic transition of hydrogen, the 47. One unpaired electron in an atom confibutes a
second line in the Balmer seriesbelongs? magnetic moment of .1 BM. The magnetic
1
('l) 3 -+ 2 (2) 4 --> 2 moment for Mn (Z = 25) is
(3) s -+ 2 (41 6 -+ 2 (1 ) 4'4 BM (2) 1'1 BM

41. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of .(3) 5'5BM (4) 6.68M
an electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen like 48. The nuclear radius of an atom whose mass
sPecies is number is 125 is
(1) ;
1 (21 -;
I Il) '1.4 x 10-15 m (2) 5 x 10-15 m
z z (3) 7.0 x 1o-ls m (4) 12s x 10-15 m
(3) 1 l4l -1 49. lf the energy of an electron in 3d Bohr orbit is
42. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground stiate is -E, what is the energy of the electron in 2nd Bohr
0.53 A. The radius of Be3* ion in a similar state is orbit?
(1) 0.17 A (2) 1.06 A (D _2.25 E (2) _s E
(3) 0.132 A (4) 0.26s A p) 4.7s E (4) _ E
43. Potential energy of Be3* electron is 50. Which of the following statement is correct for
orbital angular momentum ot 2p and 3pelec{ron?
(1) ^z
"
\
" - E{ (1) Orbital angular momentum of 2p-electron is
more than that of 3p-electron
3ez
(2) - 4fiEot (2) Orbital angular momentum of 3p-electron is
more than that of 2pelectron
/?r -e2 (3) Orbital angular momentum of 2p-electron is

\"' 4teor same as that of 3p-electron
-3e2 (4) Orbital angular momentum of 2p electron is
(4) 4trlot equal to 2s electron and 3p electron is equal
to 3s electron
44. lf threshold wavelength (1.0) for ejection of electron
from metal is 330 nm, then work function for the 51. The distance of separation between the second
photoelectric emission is and third orbits of hydrogen atom is
(1) 1.2 x 10-18 J \21 1.2 t 10-20 J (1) 2.M5 A (2) 3.156 A
(3) 6 x 10-1e J (4) 6 ,, 10-12 J (3) 0.529 A $) 1.12 A
45. Which of the following has no angular node? 52. Which state of Be3* has the same orbit radius as
(l d? that of the ground state of hydrogen atom?
(21 p, (1) First orbit (2) Second orbit
(31 d (3) Third orbit (4) Fourth orbit
,z_rz
(4) d,v 53. A species having only one electron has ionization
46. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is energy of 11810 kJ mol-l. The number of protons
conect? in its nucleus will be
(1) n=7 /=o m=+1 "=-: lli I

(2)n=3 ,=3 m=-2 54. Which of the following match is inconect?
"=*+' (1) spx orbital
(3) n=2 /=0 m=-1 s=*1 (2) 3dry orbital
"ii"
(4 radial
(2 nodal
nodes)
planes)
1 t3) 4sorbital (3 radiat nodes)

(4) n=5 t=1 m=0 (o) uro*,o, (maximum 2 etectrons)
"=-;
55. Among the species given below which one is 61. The number of possible lines obtained in Balmer
isoster of N2? series when electron jumps from 5h excited state
(1) Co (21 oz to ground state in H-atom are
(3) ot (4) co+ (1) 3 (21 4
56. The correct set of quantum numbers for last filled (3) 5 (4) 6
electron of cr-atom is given by 62. The total amount of energy released when electron
(1) n=4,=4 m=0 "=.; tJH#:,ilr"#":1",i1':f,S:.Ti:1fl";;

(1) 34NêV (2) 121 Nêv
(2) n=3 l=0 m=0 .=*l
' (3) 127.5 Na ev (4) 1so NA ev
(3) n=3 l=2 m=0 "=*; 63. lf the energy given by photons to a metal is20%
- higher than its work function, then the kinetic
(4) n=3 l=2 m=+2
"=*;
energy will be
(1) 6 times of work function
57. The ratio of spectrat tines in Balmer series and
total number of lines produced when an electron .-. 1 times of work function
jumps to 1"1 excited state form 5th excited state in
(2) .
6
H-atom will be (3) 6 times of energy of photons
(1)
23 (2)
; i 1+1 J timesof energyof photons
(3)
o (,t Its 64. No shielding effect is observed in
G
58. The electron in Liz* ion transit from an excited (1) l-le (2) He-
state to ground state. Then its (3) Lf (4) O-2
(1) Kinetic energy decreases but potential and 65. Which have the same number of s-electrons as the
total energy remains same d-electrons in Fe*2?
(2) Kinetic energy increases but potential and total (1) Ca (2) M
energy decreases (3) N (4) P
(3) Kinetic energy and total energy
-' decreases and
potential energy increases 66. Which orbital is represented by yo, r, o ?
(4) Kinetic, potential and total energy decreases () 4d/ (2) 4d

rz_rz
59. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is equal Q\ 4dxv (4) 4s
to 2s orbital of lithium 67. The ratio between K.E. and total energy of the
(2) The net positive charge experienced by the electrons of hydrogen atom according to Bohr's
electron from the nucleus is known as effective model is
nuclear charge (1) 1:-1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) For hydrogen atom, the energy of orbital is in (3) I : 2 (4\ 2:1
the order 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d
(4) rhe totar number or no6gs = (n - 1) tt moment
60. The total exchange of electron in ds system is

fl,:liJ; !1r. fiL[i5massnetic
(1) 3
(1) s
(2) 6 Q)4
(3) 7 (3) 2
(4) 10 (4) 5
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6 Structure of Atom Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
69. An electron in an atom undergoes transition in 76. For electron the ratio of number of revolution per
such a way that its K.E. changes from x to x/4. second and time taken for one revolution in the
The change in PE. will be third orbit is
3 3 (1) 1 :3 (2) 2:3
(1) -x
4
(21 -i* (3)3;1 (4) 'l :1
c J
(3) -8x (4) +-x 77. Radiations of wavelength 253.7 nm strikes the
2 plate of a metal and energy required to stop the
70. The ratio of slopes of maximum kinetic energy e.iection of electron from the plate is 0.40 eV then
versus frequency and stopping potential (Vo) vs work function of metal is
frequency, in photoelectric effect gives
(1) 0.40 eV (2\ 4.49 ev
(1) Charge of rectron (2) Planck's constant (3) 6.2s eV (4) 0.7s eV
(3) Work function (4) Threshold frequency 78. The incorrect statement regarding photoelectrons
71. The value wave numbef in terms of is
Rydberg's constant, when transition of electrons (1) Kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends upon
takes place between two levels of He* ion whose
the frequency of the radiation
sum is 4 and difference is 2
8R 32R
(2) Kinetic energy of photoelectrons is
independent to the intensity of radiation
(1)
T (2)
I (3) Photoelectrons will be ejected when energy of
3R 4R
(3) 4 (4) 3
the radiation is greater than threshold energy
72. How many times does light travels faster in

(4) Number of photoelectrons emitted *
Frequency of radiation
vacuum than an electron in Bohr's first orbit of
hydrogen atom? 79. Number of spectral lines produced in Lyman series
when an electron jumps from 4m excited state to
('l ) times
1 3.7 (2) 67 times 'l st excited state is
(3) 137 times (4) 97 times
(1) 6 (2) 15
73. An excited electron of H-atoms emits photon of
(3) 3 (.4\ Zero
wavelength ). and returns in the ground state. The
principal quantum number of excited state is given 80. Which ot the following radiat probabitity density
by curve is correct representation?
,.'(R-1) iR
(1) (21 1s 2s
IR i(R - 1) \, ,lt'
(1) (2)
AR
(3) ),R(rR - 1) (4)
(^R-1) r r
74. lf it is assumed that the electron exist within the

nucleus then the minimum uncertainty in the velocity tl, 3s
of electron is approximately
(3) (4) All of these
('1) 3 m/s
x 1014 (2) 4.8 x 108 m/s
(3) 5 7 x 1010 m/s (4) 6 1012 m/s
^ 81. An erectron iJ roring in an orbit of He* having
75. The number of peaks obtained for 3d and 4s
orbital respectively when a graph plotted radial angular momentu, i" !. tte velocity of electron
probability function versus distance from the
nucleus (r) is n this orbit is
(11 1,4 (2) 2,3 (1) a.36,, 108 cm/s (2) 1.9 x 108 cm/s
(3\ 2,4 (4) 3,4 (3) 2.18 x 108 cm/s (4) 13.6 x 106 cm/s
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82 The wavelength of an electron moving in the 3d 88. How many lines in the spectrum conesponds to
shell of hydrogen is Paschen, Brackett, Pfund and Humphery senes will
(1) nA (2) 3rA be observed when an electron returns from 6th
excited state to 1st excited state of a hydrogen
(3) 6n A (41 3.174n A
atom?
83 The first emission line of Lyman series for
hydrogen spectrum has the wave number equal to (1) 20 (2) 13
41 (3) 15 (4) 10
(1) (2)
3R R 89. The ratio of velocity of an electron present in 1sr
Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom to 2nd Bohr's orbit
(3)
T (4) R
of Heo ion
84 lf we plot a graph between radial probability (1)1:1 (21 1:2
function and radial distance for 2p subshell, then
number of peaks obtained will be (3)2:1 $\1:a
(1) 2 90. A ball has a mass of 40 g and a speed of
(2) 1 45 m/s. lf the speed can be measured within
accuracy of 2%, then uncertainty in the position
(3) 0
(1) 1.46 x 10-33 m (2) 1.46 x '10-m m
(4) 3
(3) 1.7 x 10-31 m (4) 2.5 x 10{3 m
1s 2s 2p 3s
85 91. For d orbital which of the following statement is
1' 1t 1' 1 1 correct about radial and angular nodes?
The above electronic configuration of an atom (1) (n - 3) radial nodes (2) 2 angular nodes
violates (3) (n - 2) radial nodes (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Hund's rule
92. The number of orbitals in a shell n is given by
(2) Pauli's exclusion principle
(3) Autuau principle
(1) n2 (2) 2n2
(3) n (4\ 2n
(4) All of these
86. Total number of revolutions per second possessed 93. When a ce(ain metial was irradiated with light of
by an electron in a Bohr's orbit is directly wavelength l| the photoelectrons emitted had
proportional to thrice the K.E. as did the photoelectrons emitted
when same metal was irradiated with light of
22 n3 wavelength lr. Then which of the following relation
\/ )
('t
nr
^ (2t
v is true, if ).0 is the threshold wavelength?
(1) 311(lo - ir) = lr(lo - l,)
Z z2
(3) @\.n- (2) Ir0.o - ).r) = 3).r(i.o - l,)
;
(3) ).1(),0 - lr) = trr(lo - l,)
87. Find the correct statement about Bohr's theory
(4) 3(lr - lr) = (lo - i.,)
(1) The stationary orbits are arranged around the
nucleus concentrically 94. Choose the incorrect stalement among the
following
(2) When the electron move from a lower energy
state to higher energy state energy is emitted ('1) y2 represents an atomic orbital
(3) The angular momentum of electron in 3'd (2) A node is a point in 3-dimensional regron
h where wave function v is zero
Bohr orbit is 3,T
(3) A d orbital contains 10 e-
(4) Electron becomes stationary in orbit so these
(41 3d, 4d and 5d orbitals differ in energy
orbits are called stationary orbits
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I Structure of Atom Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
95. The change in orbit angular momentum 101. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p orbitals
corresponding to an electron transition from 4rh are respectively
excited state to ground state of a hydrogen atom
can be given by
(1) 2, o (21 o, 2
(3) 1,2 (4) 2. 1
h 3h 102. For d electron, the orbital angular momentum is

(1)
; 2
t^ll
(1) -hJ6+
zn
/6h
et .lL
Y'l
h 2h
(3)
' :- A\
'7t
zlt (3) G!11 @ 2\ IC
96. For hydrogen atom which sequence is correct for
103. The atomic spectrum of Li2* arises due to the
energy?
transition of an electron from n2 to nl level. lf
('l)1s<2s<3s (21 1s<2s<2p [r + nz is 4 and n2- nl is 2, then wave number of
(3) 2s<2p<3s (4) 3s<3p<3d this transition is (R, = 19s
(1) 105 cmr
"r-t1
97. The correct outer electronic configuration of Cr'3 (2) 8 x 105 cm-1
is (3) 2.7 x 1Q5 66-t (4) 5 x 10s cm-1
3d 4s '104. Find the set of quantum numbers which are
(1) t t t ,t possible
3d
+l2
II
4s (1) n=0, 1=0, m=O,s=
(2) t t t
3d 4s (2)n=1,1 =O,m=O,s= +1
2
(3) 1 J t
3d (3) n=1, t=1,m=O,s=+]
III
4s
(41 t t t
98. Which of the following configuration is associated
(a)n=1,1=0,m=+t,s=+1
2
with maximum exchange energy? 105. The size of isoelectronic species O2-, F-, Ne, Na*,
(1\ do (2) d5 Mg2' is afiected by
(3) de (4) d1o (1) Nuclear charge
99. The ratio of velocity of CHo and 02 molecules so (2) Principal quantum number
that they are associated with de Broglie waves of (3) Number of electrons in the outermost shell
equal wavelengths, is (4) Penetration effect
(1) 2: 1 (2) 1 :2 106. Which pair of orbitals given below for H atom are
(3) 1:a @)4:1 degenerate?
100. Which of the following correctly represents (1) ls,2s (2) 2s, 3s
Heisenberg's uncertainity principle? (3) 3s, 3p (a) as,3d
107. The permissible values of azimuthal quantum
(1) AE.At>I number (l) for electron belonging to fourth energy
4n
level are
(2) AO.Ae > -.L (for angular motion) 1

(1) 0, 2
,
(2) t1, !2, t3
(3) ax.ap >
oI (3) 0, 1, 2, 3
(4) All of these (4) Any value between 0 and 3
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108. Which of the following electron transitions in a 115. Number of electrons in Mg(Z = 12), having t = O
hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of 1
energy? and s=+- are equal to

(1) From n = l ton=2 (2) From n=2lon=3 (1) 6 (2) 3
(3) Fromn=-ton= 1(4) Fromn=3ton=5 (3) 4 (4) 2
109. lf ),0 and ), be the threshold wavelength and the
wavelength of incident light, the velocity of
116. An electron has a spin quantum number +]2 and
photoelectrons ejected will be a magnetic quantum number -1, it cannot be
present in
2h 2hc .-
_(Io
(1)
.-
_ A) (1) s-orbital (2) p-orbitat
m- - A)
-(An
(2)
m-
(3) d-orbital (4) f-orbitat
2hc (t i (t 117. Sum of total lines which are present in UV and
(3)
m lr ro
)
J
(4)
2h
m l^.
-il1) visible region during transition fiom 8m energy state
to llnd energy state
110. Kinetic energy of electron of H-atom is maximum (1) 6 (2) 13
in (s) 15 (4) zerc
(1) First orbit 118. Total number of electrons with clockwise spin, for
(2) Second orbit Mn in the orbitals with n + / = 3,
(3) Third orbit

(1) 2 (2\ 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
(4) lnlinite orbit
119. Which has maximum energy for H-atom?
1'11. Sequence of increasing screening effect in a (1) as
particular shell is Q) 4p
(3) 4 d (4) Al Ine same energy
(1) s<pcdcf (21 s<p>d<f 120. Which of the following set of quantum number is
(3) s>p>d>f (4) s>p>d<f not-possible?
112. ln the hydrogen atom if the total number of nlms
spectral lines produced by nth excited state to
+1
ground state are six, then energy of the nh shell (1)2 1 0
z
is
3 -1
(1) -13.6 eV/atom (2) -10.2 ev/atom (2) 0 0
T
(3) -{.85 ev/atom (4) -3.4 eV/atom -1
113. Which of the following statement is inconect?
(3) 3 2 -1 z
(1) lf uncertainty in momentum of electron is zero (4)4 +1
then uncertainty in position will be infinite
0 -l
z
121 . Orbital angular momentum for the electron present
(2) The number of angular nodes in dz2 orbital is
in 4p orbital is
zero
(3) The uncertainty in position and uncertainty in (1)
2hh (2)
momentum can be equal in magnitude ; 2*
.h" t h
(4) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle has no (3) J2 $t
significance in everyday life o;
122. Which is true regarding e/m for electron?
'114. Which value of n, l, m, s are not permissible?
('1) lt is 1.76 x 1011 C/kg
(1) 3,3, 1, -1 (2) 3,2,-2, -; (2) lt is 1 .6 x 10-1s C/g
(3) lt is 2.5 , 1011 C/g
<tl t,z,o, *) (4) 3,2,1, -: (4) lt js 9.1 x 10 1s C/kg
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10 Slructure of Atom Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
123. The conect electronic configuration of Pd (z = 46) 131. lnformation conveyed by principal quantum
numbers
(1) KrFd85s2 (2) Krl4dess1
(1) Energy of orbit
(3) [Kr]4d'osso (4) [K44d85s14f1
(2) Number of angular nodes
124. ln which of the following arrangement, filling of e-
(3) Orbital angular momentum
in orbital, obey's Aubau principle, Hund's rule and
Pauli's principle? (4) All of these
(1) ,t EE (2) @ N II 132. Correct graph between radial probability
V)
(3) E ,t EI (4) E tlfoTl distribution @rP
is shown by
and radial distance (r) for 2s
125. lf the kinetic energy for hydrogen in a given energy

state is 1.50 ev, then the potential energy for
hydrogen in the same energy state will be
4niy'
(1) -1.51 eV (2) 3 eV (1)
(3) - 3 eV (4) -0.75 eV
I
126 Number of revolution per second for electron in a
unielectron atom according to Bohr's theory is
given by 4tri,4r'
(2)
(1) 2nr
v
(2) 21tt
I
(3) 2rcN (4) 21tt +V
127. Maximum wavelength for transition in visible region 4nr' \u
2
for He* will be given by (3)
(1)R @!R I
(3) 5R9
s (4)
sR 4nf ,il'
128. Correct order of energy in visible region is shown (4)
by
I
('l) Violet < Blue < Yellow < Red 133. Value of all quantum numbers for 20h electron of
(2) Red < Yellow < Blue < Violet zinc (at number 30) will be
(3) Yellow < Red < Blue < Violet nlms
(4) Yellow < Red < Violet < Blue +1
'129. Which of the following is incorrect match? (1) 3 2
z
(1) u3:'&rhif - lsodiaphers -1
(2) 016 & cl4 - lsotones
(2) 3 2
z
-1
(a) cali & Aqaj - lsobar
(3) 4 o o 2
(4) CO2 & N2O - lsoelectronic
(4)4 o 1 -l
2
130. de Broglie wavelength of an electron, having
kinetic energy of 0.35 J 134. lf the radius for the 2nd Bohr's orbit is given by
0.529 A, the unielectron species having above
6.6 x 10-e _......-m
h
radius is
' ) ----------------
('l
0.8 x 10-'"
m (2)
0.8 x 10-'5
(1) H (2) He-
1s
0.8 x '10 h
(3) Lr'z (4) Be'r
(3) (4) ---------------- tn
h 0.4 x 10-'"
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135. Circumference of the orbit depends upon 144. Which of the following radiation is of highest wave
(1) Energy of orbit (2) No. of the orbit length?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Neither (1)nor (2) (1) X-ravs
(2) Uv-rays
136. Which is the first shett to have 7 fotd degenerate
orbital? (3) Red tight of visibte part
(1 ) K-shell (2) L-shell (4) Violet light of visible part
(3) M-she1 (4)' N-shelt 145. Which of the following spectral line of H-atom
having same wavelength as second line of He.
137. The energy of electron in the 2nd Bohr orbit of H spectrum of Balmer series?
atom is _E, the energy in the first shell of Her ,"
(r) First line of Lyman series
(1) -16 E (2) 4 E
(2) First tine of Balmer series
(3) 2 E (4\ 4 E (3) Second tine of Lyman series
'138. The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of
(4) second line of paschen series
electron In the 2d shell of He* is
146. Maximum number of electron in a suFshell is
(1) -1 (4 -: () $t + 2l (2\ (41- 2l
' (3) (4n + 2) (4) (4n + 1)
B\ _? 1
(4\ 1
''
147. Which of the following electronic transition occurs
i.n H-spectrum having same wavelength as in He.
13s. rhe votume or the nucteus is abour :ffTjx:jl}:iHlectron
iumps from 3d excited
(1) 10{ times to that of atom (1) n=3ton=1 (2) n=4ton=1

(2) 10-15 times to that of atom (3) n=2ton= 1 (4) n=4ton=2
(3) 10-5 times to that of atom 14g. Spin angular momentum of valence electron of
(4) 10 10 times to that of atom copper is
140. Which of the following line is of largest () 2h Ql Ji n

wavelength? ti t;
(1) First line of Lyman series (3) @ ;h
;fr
(2) First line of Balmer series 149. According to Bohr's theory which is not the conect
formula?
(3) First line of paschen series
(4) First line of pfund series
(1) Potential energy of e- in 1st shell for
H = -27.2 eV
141. The pair in which both species have equal (2) Kinetic energy of electron of H-atom in first
magnetic moment is orbit is maximum
(1) Fe2*, ynz' (2) Cu2*, Ni2. (3) Radius of lsrorbit for H = 0.529 A
(3) Fe3', Ni2* (4) Fe3*, Mn2r (4) Vetocity of e- in 1d orbit for H = 4 x 108 m/s
'142. Possible set of quantum number n, l, m and s 150. lncorrect match is
respectivelyi" (t) +p _ 3 nodes
(1) 3. 2. 3. - 1 (2\ 3.2. -2. -1

(21 3d - 2 angutar nodes
2 (3) d orbitral - Accommodates 1 0
electrons
(3) -3,2, -2, +,1 (41 3.2, -2, +,1 (4) 2s orbital - I radiar node
'151 . lf Aufbau rule is not obeyed, 19th electron in
143. Aufbau principle is violated in Sc(Z = 21) will have
(1) [Nel 3s1,3p3 (2) [Ar] 4*,3d, ap3 (1) n=3,/=0 (21 n=3, l=1
(3) [Ne] 3$,3p5 (4) All of these (3) n=3, /=2 (a) n=4,/=O
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152. The maximum number of sub-shells, orbitals and 160. The magnetic quantum number spocifies
electmns in N-shell of an atom are respectively (1) Size of orbitals
(1\ 4, 12,32 (2) 4, 16, 30 (2) Shape of orbitals
(3) 4, 16,32 (4) 4,32,U (3) Orientation of orbitals
153. The energy required to dislodge electron from Li2* (4) Nuclear stability
is sufficient lo ionize how many H-atoms?
(1) 3 (2) 6
161. When any nucleus has
n
ratio greater than that
(3) e (4) 12 ,
in stability zone. Which of the following nuclear
154. The energy of an electron in the 3rd orbit of an
change will be expected?
atom (H) is -E. The energy of an electron in the
first orbit will be (1) d-emission (2) o-emission
(3) Positron emission (4) K-electron capture
(1) -3E (2)
+ 162. The number of waves made by an electron during
E one complete revolution in fourth orbit is
(3) +I (4) -eE
(1) 3 (2) 4
155. Number of neutron in NI ion (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) Equals to e- 163. Potential energy of electron of H-atom in an orbit
(2) Three less than e- is -x eV then kinetic energy of electron in the
same orbit would be
(3) Three more than e-
(4) Three less than protons
(1) -x eV (2) +xev
156. V42o denotes which of the following orbital? x

(a)
|ev (4) -, ev
(1) 4s el 3dt
164. The atomic orbital is
(31 4d,, @) 4d,,-y, (1) The circular path of the electron
157. A metal surface when exposed to solar radiations (2) Elliptical path of the electron
(1) The emitted electrons have energy less than (3) Two dimensional field around the nucleus
a maximum value of energy depending upon (4) Maximum probability region of an electron
the frequency of the incident radiation
165. Which energy level in Li2* has same energy as the
(2) The emitted electrons have energy less than fou(h energy level of H-atom?
the maximum value of energy depending upon
the intensity of incident radiation (1\ 12 (2) 6
i3t The emifted electrons have zero energy (3) 4 (4) 3
(4) The emitted electrons have energy equal to 166. Photoelectric effect is the phenomena in which
energy of photons of incident light (1) Photon comes out of the nucleus of an atom
'158. The most probable radius for finding electron in under the action of an electric field
He* is (2) Photon comes out of a metal when it is hit by
(1) 0.0 (2) 0.52e A a beam of electrons
(3) 0.265 A (4) 0.105 A (3) Electrons are ejected from the metal with a
'159. Four quantum numbers of highest energy occupied constant velocity which depends on the
frequency and intensity of incident radiation
1
electron is n= 4, I = 1, m = 0, s = ; The orbital (4) Electrons are ejected from the metal with
occupied by the electron is different velocities which depends only on the
(l ap, Ql 4py frequency of the incident radiation, not on its
intensity
(3\ 4p, (4) Any one of these
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Structure ofAtom 13
'167. Among the following have most stable electronic 1 1
configuration is 174. The quantum numbers + and for the

,
(1) rezt 12\ v2- electron spin represents
(3) rest (4) Fe- (1) Two quantum mechanical states which have no
168. ln an atom two electrons move around the classical analogue
nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The (2) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up
ratio of the time taken by them to complete one and down respectively
revolution is
(3) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and
(1) 8:7 (2) 1 :8 clockwise direction respectively
(3) 4:1 (4\1:4 (4) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and
anticlockwise direction respectively
169. lonisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV
Hydrogen atom in the ground state are excited by 175. Which of the following statement is wrong?
monochromatic light of energy 12.1 eV. The
(1) lf the value of / = 0, the electron distribution
number of spectral lines emitted by hydrogen
is spherical
according to Bohr's theory will be
(2) Orbital angular momentum of 'ls, 2s and
(1) 2 (2) 4
3s electrons are equal
(3) 1 (4) 3
(3) The shape of the orbital is given by Azimuthal
'170. Which value is closest to the wavelength in quanfum number
nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of
8x 1015 S-1?
(4) ln an atom, all electrons travel with the same
velocitY
(11 2x 10-25 (2) 5 x 10-18
176. Which of the following stiatement does not form a
(3) 4 ,. 'lO1 (4) 3 x 107 part of'Bohr's model of hydrogen atom?
171. The number of electrons with the Azimuthal (1) Energy of electron in the orbit is quantEed
quantum number / = 1 and I = 2 in ground state
of Cu are respectively (2) The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus
has the lower energy
(1) 10
12, (2\ 12,7
(3) Angular momentum of the electron in the orbit
(3) 10, 12 (41 7,12
is quantized
172.The number of radial nodes of 4s and 3p orbitals (4) The position and velocity of the electrcn in the
are respectively orbit cannot be determined simultianeously
(1) 3
1, (2\ 3, 1
177. Which of the following is valid representation of
(31 4,2 (4) 3,2 electron?
173. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (1) v::g

represent the highest energy of subshell of an (21 ,{ pe
atom?
(3) Vazr
1
(1) n=3, l--1,m= 1, s-+- (4) v:rz
178. An ion Mnat has the magnetic moment equal to
1
(2) n=4,t=0,m-- 0, s=+- 4.9 B.M. The value of 'a' is
(1) 2
1
(3) n=S, l=0,m-- 0, s=+- (2) s
(3) 3
(4) n=4,t=2,m=-2, s=+!2 (4\ 4
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179. Which of the following is the correct '184. Select the incorrect statement about the wave
representation of plot of the radial function against function V
the radial distance'r'from the nucleus for an (1) \, must be continuous
electron of 3s orbital?
R
(2) V has physical signiricance
(3) y has no physical significance
(4) v2 gives the probability of finding the electrons
(1) 185. Which of the following statement is not correct?
( 1 ) Magnetic quantum number may have +ve and
R -ve values including zero

(2) For Ag, Z = 47, spin quantum number for 24
(2\ electrons is +,
1
while for other 23 electrons
.1-,
,a
R
(3) For H-atom energy of electron in different
subshell of same shell is in the order of
(3) s<p<d<f
(4) For H-atom and hydrogen like species, the
R order of energy is
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s= 3p = 3d. 4s = 4p = 4d
= 4f.....
(41 186. The number of spectral lines obtained in visible
region in hydrogen spectrum if electron jumps from
sixth excited state to second excited state is
180. lf the shortest wavelength of H-atom in Lyman
series is l, then longest wavelength in Balmer (1) 4 (2) 10
series of He* ion is (3) 15 (4) Zero
(1) 361. (2) I 187. The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy of
5 4 electron of H-atom is
(3) 5).
(4) 9T
(1\ 1:2 (21 -1 :2
e 5 (3) 1:1 (4)-i:1
181 . Which of the following d-orbitals has electron
188. Which of the following orbital has no angular node?
density along all the three axes?
(1) 3cly, (2) 3dD<
(1) 3dt el ut t
(3) 3d,y @) 3d
? (3) 3d,y (4) Att of these
182. The respective value of orbital angular momentum
189. The correct energy order of orbitials for H-atom is
of an electron in 1s, 2s, 3d and 3p orbitials are
(1) 1s<2s<2p<3s<3p<3d
(1) 0,1,.i5*,J5* et o,o,Jn*,J6* (2) 1s=2s.2p=3s<3p<3d
(3) 1s<2s=2p<3s=3p=3d
(3) 1,1,J-4*,J2* @,) o.o,J6*,A* (4) ls = 2s = 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d
190 which of the following statemenb is incorrect?
1g3. which among the following is/are correct about (1) Kinetic energy of electron is maximum in first
chromium? orbit
(1) lts electronic conflguration is 3d4s1
(2) Total spin of chromium = 3 (2) velocity of electron is minimum in first orbit
(3) Magnetic moment of chromium = G8 (3) Radius of first orbit of H-atom is minimum
(4) All of these (4) The region of maximum electron density is
called antinode
ffi
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Structure ofAtom 15
191. lf the velocity of el6ctron becomes equal to the 199. lflEl of He atom is 24.5 eV then its lE2 will be
velocity of light then mass of electron will be (1) 24.5 eV (2) UA eY
(1) Zero (3) 108.8 eV (4) 100 eV
(2) lnfinity 200. ln the conversion of Cu2* from Cu* electron is lost
x from
(3) Lower than the rest mass (9.1 10-31 kg) of
electron (1 ) 4s orbital (2) 4p orbital
(4) Remains same (3) 4f orbital (4) 3d orbital
201 . Consider the following statement :
192. lf the magnitude of uncertainties in position (Ax)
and momentum (Ap) are equal then which of the l. porbital can accommodate maximum of two
following relation is correct? electrons.
ll. d-subshell has five orbitals.
(.,) o"=*\H rrr o,=,fl lll. Energy of electron decreases as it goes away
from nucleus in an atom
I [h 1 /h
(3) av = -:1-::- (4) = Choose the conect statements.
^v 2m {2,t (1) r&il (2)ll &lll
193. The shortest wavelength in hydrogen atom (3) r & ilr (4) I, ll & lll
spectrum of Lyman series is
202 Orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is
(1) 1050.75A (2) s25.1oA
(3) 911.7 A (+) 1510.22 A (l J2a @ Jaa
194. Which transition of electron in H-atom spectrum (g) J5 r (r) Jg t
occurs if electron iumps from sth excited state to 203 Maximum number of electrons which can be
first excited state in He* ion spectrum having same accommodated in 4h shell is
wavelength?
(1) 4 (2) I
(1) n=4ton=2 (21 n=3lon=1 (3) 16 (4) 32
(3) n=4ton= 1 (4) n=3ton=2
204 The possible sets of quantum numbers of electron
195. Photoelectric effect can be caused by prcsent in second shell is
(1) Visible light but not bY X-rays I
(1) n=2, l=O,m= 0, s= t ,
(2) Gamma rays but not X-rays
1
(3) Ultraviolet light only (2) n = 2, / = 0, /n = 1, s = 1
1
(4) Visible light, uhaviolet rays, X-rays and gamma
1
rays (3ln=2,,=1,m=0,s=t ;
196. Which spectral line may appear in both emission (4) All of these
and absorption spectrum of hydrogen?
205. Which of the following graphs plotted between
(1) Lyman (2) Balmer frequency of incident radiation and KE of
(3) Paschen (4) Humphery photoelectrons is correct for photoelectric effect?
197. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbit€,l

is respectively
l1l 2, o (2) o,2 ,,,"1 (2')
(3) 1, 2 (4) 2, I
KE KE
198. A gas absorb a photon of 355 nm and emit two
wavelengths, if one of the emissions is at 680 nm'
the other is at
('l) nm
1035 (2) 325 nm ,r,'l (4)
(3) 743 nm (4) 518 nm KE KE
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Structure ofAtom
Last Leap for NEET (Paru)
206. Number of waves made bv electron in 4h orbit of R : The total number of spectral line
H atom obtjained is
determined by :An.
,|
(1) 2 (2) Kinetic energy of electron decreases with

4 increase in orbit number in H-atom.
(3) (41 4 R : Total energy of electron increases with
; increase in orbit number.
207. lYlz at any point in an atom gives the value oF
(1) Radius of the orbitat 7, A First line of Lyman series of H-spectrum and
second line of Balmer series of He* spectrum
(2) Probability density of electron at that point
have same wavelength.
(3) Total energy of the electron
(4) Shape of the orbital R First line of Lyman series of H-spectrum and
third line of Paschen series of Li*2 ion
SECTION - B spectrum have same wavelength.
Assertion - Reason Type euestions 8.A The energy level of atomic orbitals for H-atom
ln the following questions, a statement of assertion is 1s<2s=2p<3s=3p=3d.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R The energy of H-atom orbitals depends upon
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the n value only.
reason is the correct explanation of the 9,A The energy of the electron in the nh shell is
assertion, then mark (1). 22
(2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the -13.6n-2 eV / mole .
reason is not the correct explanation of the

R The jonisation energy of the electron in the
assertion, then mark (2).
hydrogen atom is equal to +'13.6 ev/mole.
(3) lf Assertion is lrue statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
10. A The ground state electronic conflgurataon of
nitrogen is 1* 2* 2p3.
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
R Electrons are filled in orbitals according to
Pauli exclusion principle, Aufbau principle and
1. A: 3dyz has two nodal planes xy and xz. Hund's rule for maximum multiplicity.
R : d-orbitals have four lobes.
2. A: Electronic configuration
11. A: The radius of 2nd orbit of He alom
of chromium ls
.2
[Ar] 3d 4s1. = 0.529x4=1.058A
R : Chromium can show +6 oxidation number in
its compound. R: Bohr's model can be applied to any electron
3. A: We cannot overcome the uncertainty system.
predicted by Heisenberg's principte by 12. A: Splitting of spectral line in electric field is
building more precise devices to reduce the called stark effect.
error in the measurement below the

R: It is explained by Bohr's theory.
,,rn,,.
f 13. A: 4s orbital is more penetrated than 3d orbital.
R : The principle is not due to limitation of the
measuring devices. lt is on account of the fact
R: Second shell contatns 6 orbital.
that subatomic particles cannot be seen even 14. A. A spectral line is not observed for 2p > 2n
under a microscope. transition for H as both 2p, and 2ff, havl
4. A: All d orbitals are tetralobed structure same energy.
having
two nodal plane. R: A spectral line is observed for 2p,-tzp"
transition for multielectron atoms as both 2pi
R : Out of five only four d-orbitals are degenerate
and 2py have different energy.
orbitals.
5. A: The number of spectral Iine obtaaned in 15. A: lsotopes of an element show identical
Lyman Series is zero when electron jumps chemical behaviour.
from sixth excited state to first excited state in R: lsotopes of an element have same mass
H-atom. numbers.
:l tr tr
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Chapter 2
Chemical Bonding and
Molecular Structure
SECTION.A 7 Select the correct increasing order of dipole
momenl
Objective Type Questions
A chemical bond is possible only if CI ct CI
CH.
(1) The net result is repulsion and the total
(1)
energy of the system increases
CH.
(2) The net result is attraction and the total CH.
energy of the system decreases
(3) The net result is attraction and the total CI CI cr
energy of the system increases cH,
(4) All of these (2)
CH.
2 Which of the following compound as most covalent
in nature? CH,
(1) CaF2 (21 CaCt,

CI ct CI
(3) CaBr, (4) Cal2 CH.
3 The hybridisation of 'N' in N(S|H.)1 is (3)
(1) sp3 (21 sp2 CH,
(3) sp (4) sp3d CH 3
4 NHr, NH3 and NH; do not show similarity in the

cl CI ct
(1) Hybridization state of nitrogen CH.
(2) Atomic number of N (4)
CH.
(3) Number of lone pair of electrons
utt 3
(4) Type of orbital overlapping in N - H
5 Effective overlapping will be shown by

8 Which is incorrect regarding dipole moment?
(1) CH2C|2 > CHC|3
(1) @ + (2) + (2) PCl2Br3 = PBrrCl.
(3) @+ (4) All of these (3) MeO OMe*0

6. Which of the following ion shows a bond order of
1.75? CI
(1) NOr (2) CO3'

(41 =0
(3) PO4, (4) CtO.4
CI
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18 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
9. Hypervalent @mpound is 17 The bond angle in hydrogen bonding of HF is

(1) SO32- (2) NH3 (1) e0' (2) 120"
(3) BeF2 (4) CH4 (3) 10e.5" (4) 180'
10. Which of the following shows a change in 18 The hybridisation and shape of lC12- is
hybridisation? respectively
(1) NH3 combines with H*

('l ) sp3d linear
(2) AlH. mmbines with H- (2) sp3& octahedral

(3) sp2 linear
(3) ln both (1) & (2)
(4) sp3 linear
(4) H2O combines with H*
19 Which of the following species has highest bond
11 . KF combines with HF to form KHF2, the compound
order?
contains the species
(1) Oz (2) Nz
(1) K., F- and H' (2) Kt, F- and HF
(3) Cz (4) CO-
(3) K'and [HFr- (4) [KHFI'and F-
20 Which of the following combination of atoms
12. Which are true statements among the following? A and B forms anti-bonding molecular orbital?
(a) PHs and BiClu do not exist 2
(b) pr - dr bonds are present in SO, vA

(1)
'vB , (z) Va YVe
(c) Electrons travel with speed of light
(d) SeFo and CH4 have same shape (3) vn + vs (4) vn - ve
(e) 13* has bent geometry 21 ln which of the following molecule lone pair of
electrons do not take part in the resonance?
(1) a, c (2) a, b, e
(3) a, c, e (4) a, b, d
13. Select the correct covalent bond character
the following compounds
among (1)
[J ", Q
(1) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
(2) LiCt < BeCt2 < BCr3 < CCr4 o, (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) LiCl > BeCl, < BCl. < CClo w
(4) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCll 22. The most stable covalent compound in the
14. Select the compound with highest lattice energy following molecule is
(1) Licl (2) Nacl (1) Becl2

(3) KCt (4) RbCl (2) MsCl'
(3) CaCl,
15. Which of the following is correct about bond
energy? (4) SrCl2
(1) F2 > Cl2 Br2
> 12> 23. The favourable conditions for the formation of
ionic bond is
(2) cl2> Fr> Brr> r,
(3) Cl2 > Brz> F2> r,
l" cation + small anion + low charge on
l;T:"
(41 l"> Brr> Clz> F2 (2) Large cation + small anion + high charge on
16. The dipole moment of LiH is 5.75 D and its bond ions
length is 1.596 A. The percentage of ionic (3) Small cation + large anion + low charge on
character in LiH is ions
(1) 90% (2) 20o/o (4) Small cation + small anion + high ctarge on
(3) 75olo (4) 33.33% ions
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 19
24. Which of the following pair having same bond 30. Maximum bond angle has been found in
order?
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(1) B, and C, (2) C2 and 02
(3) AsH. (4) SbH3
(3) N2 and 02 (4) Oj and O: 31. The hybridisation of the star marked carbon in the
25. The molecule with zero dipole moment is

compound
(1) CH2C|2 (2) PClrBr,
IS
OCH 3 (1) sp (z) si

(3) PCl2Br3 (41
(3) sp3 g) dsf
32. Which of the following represent positive overlap,
3 negative overlap and zero overlap respectively?
26. The correct decreasing order of bond angles of
+ + +
NOr, NO; and NO2 is (1)
+
(1) NO, >NO; >NO, (2) NO, >NO, >NO;
(3) NO, >No; >No; (4) NO; >NO, >NO,

(21
27. The expected order of the strength of o-bond is
(1\ p-p >p-s >s-s
(2) s-s > p-p> p-s
(3) s-s >p-s >p-p
(3)
(4) p-s >s-s>p-p
28. Ovedapping of orbital that does not produce 6 bond
is (Assume z is the internuclear axis)
(11 p,- p, (2) s - p,
(3) s-s 14) p,-p, (4)
29. Which of the following molecules shows maximum
dipole moment?
33. The conect statement is
Br
( 1) Fe3* ion has greater polarizing power than Fd'
Br
ion
(1)
(2) The maximum number of covalent bond
formed between two atoms is never greater
Br than three
(3) The acidic nature order of boron halides is in
(21 the order Bl. > BBr. > BCl3 > BF3
Br (4) All of these
34. Which of the following set have same bond order
Br value?
(3) (1) CO, CN- and NO*

(2) CN-, CO* and N,
Br (3) NO , CO and CN-
(4) All have the sanre values (4) Nr, CO.'? and CN-
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35. The ratio of percentage of 'p'and 'd'character in 41 . ln the conversion of N2 into N2' the electron will be
the hybrid orbital of central atom in a molecule is lost from which of the following molecular orbital?
3 : 1. The hybridisation of central atom may be (1) c'2p, (2) c 2p,
(1) sp3d2 (2\ sp3d (3) nzp, (4) n'2p,
(3) sp3d3 (4) sp3 42. Which of the following is conect statement?
36. Hybridisation of nitrogen I and ll in the following (1) The bond present in KCI is non{irectional
compound is
(2) The bond angle of It is more than H2O
(3) NH4CI contains ionic as well as covalent bonds
(4) All of these
I
H 43. The increasing order of dipole moments for
I
so"_ H"o. co" .

(1) sd, sp3 (2) sp, sd t, t'' 1!1 111'
ls
(3) sf, spz (a) sd, sp z<x<y

(1) (2)z<y<x
37. The d orbitals involved in the hybridisation of (3) y<z<x (4\ z<y=a
central atom in XeOFo molecule is
44. ln 4 molecule phosphorus atoms are
P
(1) dz,,dxy (21 d,, and d,,-r, tetrahedrally arranged. The bond angle in the
molecule is
(31 d,y, dy, (4) d,,-r, and d,, (1) 108' (21 120"
(3) 60' (4) 180'
38. lf the dipole moment of C-Cl bond is 1.2 D, then
the resulting value of dipole moment in 45. Which of the following combination of orbitals are
associated with the lowest bond energy?
(1) sp3-s (2) sp3-sp2
CI
and are (3) sd-s (4) sp3-sp3
cr 46. The hybridization of P in solid PClu is
(1\ 1.2 and 0.6 respectively (1 sp3d
) (2) sp3 & sp3d
(2) 0.6 and 1.2 respectively (3) sp3 & sp (4\ sf & sp3&
(3) Less than '1.2 D and more than 1.2 D 47. Which of the following combinations gives the
respectively probability of finding of electrons in anti-bonding
molecular orbitals?
(4) More than 1.2 D an both
39. A molecule which contains same number of sigma ('l ) vA2 + tyB2
and fi bonds is (2) v^2 - \yB2

(1) HNo, (2) HcN (3) ryA2 + ve2 + 2 vevs
(3) (CN), (4\ Cz (4) vA2 + ve' - 2 vovu
40. When two isomeric aromatic liquid compounds A 48. Which of the following molecular orbitals contains
and B having hydrogen bond, are heated. maximum number of nodal planes?
Compound A boils at lower temperature than B. (1) oz" e) 6;,
Which statement is correct?
(1) lntermolecular H bonding present in A (3) rrr, (41 fi;r,
(2) lntramolecular H bonding present in A and B 49. ln CO* the highest occupied molecular orbital is
both
(1) oze' (2) o'"
(3) lntramotecutar H bondrng present in ,
(4) lntramolecular H bonding present in A (3) T;p, (41 nr,,
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50. ln which of the following Fe,p > Ar,.oreticar? 57. The correct order of bond length of N-H in NH3
and bond length of N-F in NF3 is
H H!
(1) N-H = N-F (2) N-F < N-H
F CH.
(1) (2\ (3) N-F > N-H (4) N-H <<< N-F
58. cu2cl2 is more covalent than CuCl2. This can be
justified on the basis of
CI H
CI (1) VSEPR theory (2) Hybridization
(3) (4)
(3) Fajan's rule (4) Hydration energy
59. The geometry of the molecule having 20%
s-character in hybrid orbitals of central atom will
oo
51. ln cH3COoH both the carbon atoms are present
be
(1) Trigonal planar (2) Square ptanar
in and respectively (3) Trigonal bipyramidat (4) square bipyramidat
hybrid state
(1) sp' sd (2) sp2' sp3
60. The pair of molecures having same structure is
(3) spz, spz (4) sp3, sp3
(1) tct2*, t3- (2) tcl4,, sF4
52. C2 exist in vapour phase. Which type
' of bonds are (3) CO2' SO2
t. (4) BCl3' PCl3
present in C2 molecule?
6'1. The total number of nodes in o,,, and nrr,
(1) One o and one fi bond
orbitals will be respectively
(2) one o and three fi bond
('l) o and 1 (2\ 1 and 1
(3) Two r bonds
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 1
(4) Two o bonds
62. which of the forrowing has zero dipole moment?
53. The minimum angle around the central atom is ('1) Pcl2Br3 (2) PBr2cl3
present in
(3) cHCl3 (4) cH3cl
(1) oe Q) lz-
(3) No; (4) H2s tt of xeo2F2 and xeF4 are
*;J;:iletrv
54. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of (1) see-saw and square planar
1.2 D. lf its bond length r.o Ai *n"t t ot
" atom?
an electronic charge, exist on each
""tion (2) Square pyramidal and see-saw
(1) 12% ot e (2\ 18o/o ol e (3) See-saw and see-saw
(3) 25o of e (4) 29o/o ol e (4) Tetrahedral and tetrahedral
55. Which of the following sequence represents the 64. Which among the following is diamagnetic?
increasing order of polarising power of the (1) NO (2) NO2
cations? (3) cro2 (4) cro2-
K*,
I ca2*,
rl Mg2*, Be2* 65. of the following molecules sF4, xeF4, cF4 which
rrt lv has square planer geometry?
(l)tv<t<ll <lll (2) l<lV<ll < lll (1) SF4 (2) XeF4
(3) l< ll <lll <lV (4) lll <l<ll <lV (3) CF4 (4) All of these
56. ln which of the following reaction hybrid state of 66. The mrrect order of increasing dipole moment is
central atom changes? (1) cF4 < NH3 < NF3 < H2o
(2) CF 4 < NH3 < H2O < NF3
(1 ) H2O111--gL-a (2) NH3(s) --I4--,
(3) CF4 < NF3 < H2O < NH3
(3) Pcl5(r)--!p-+ (4) BF3(s)--!4--, (4) CF4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
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22 Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
67 XeOrF, molecule has sp3d hybridisation 75. Which of the following contains maximum number
containing one lone pair. For most stable structure of covalent bonds?
the two fluorine atoms should be present at (1) 2.8 g C2H4
(1) Equatorial position only (2) 3 g C2H6
(2) Axial position only (3) 2.6 g C2H2
(3) One fluorine at axial and other fluorine atom at (4) Same in all of these
equatorial position
76. The number of bond angles equal to 90o in lF7
(4) Unpredictable molecule are
68 The number of 90o and '180o angles found in sp3l (1) 5 (2) 2
hybridisation respectively are
(3) 10 (41 14
(1) 6, 3 (2) 8,4 77. Pair of iso-structural molecules among following is
(3) 8, 3 (4) 12,3 (1) CO, and SO,
69 Which of the following pair have different bond (2) BF, and NF.
order?
(3) ClO3 and NH3
(1) N2, CO (2) oi-, N, (4) XeF, and SFo
78. ln the formation of CO. from CO, one electron is
(3) C2, O' (4) Ni-, O' - removed from
70. The shape of XeO.F. molecule is (1) nzp, (2) nip,
(1) Square pyramidal
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal (3) ozp, (n) oi"
(3) See-Saw 79. Which type of bond is not present in HNO.
(4) Octahedral molecule?
7'1. Which of the following molecule is having a net (1) Covalent (2) tonic
dipole moment? (3) Dative (4\ w pn
(1)xeF. (2\ lF,
-
80. The species for which dipole moment is not equal
(3) XeO,F, (4) XeOi to zero is
72. The hybridisation of N in trisilyl amine and Si in SiQ (1) SiF4 (2) XeF4
are (3) XeF,- (4) TeCt6
(1) sl, sl (2) sf, sp3d 81. ln XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6, the number of lone pairs
(3) sfi, sp3 on Xe is respectively
(4) sp3, sl
(1) 2, 3, 1 (2) 1, 2, 3
73. What is the hybridization of P in solid PBrs ?
(3\ 4, 1, 2 (41 3, 2,
(1) sp3d (2) sp, 1
(3) sp3d
82. The number and type of bonds between two
(a) Both (2) & (3)
carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
74. The conect sequence of increasing bond angles (1) Two sigma, two pi
among the following molecules is
(2) Two sigma, one pi
L C,H4 ll. NH3
(3) One sigma, two pi
t. sF6 tv. crH,
(4) One sigma, one pi
(1) < <
t < tv t
83. ln which of the following moleculesiions all the

(2) nt <[<t<tv bonds around the central atoms are not equal?
(3) lv<t< t < (1) SF4 (2) SiF4
(4) <t<tv< t (3) XeFo (4) BF4
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Last Leap lor NEET (Part-l) Chemical Bonding and lr.4olecular Structure 23
84. The type of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O is/are 91. Which of the following does not apply to resonating
(1) Only co-ordinate structures?
(2) Only covalent and co-ordinate (1) The contributing structures should have much
difference in energies
(3) Covalent, co-ordinate, ionic and H-bonds
(2) The structure having negative charge residing
(4) Only ionic and co-ordinate on less electronegative element is less
85. Carbon dioxide molecule is isostructural with significant.
which of the following? (3) The number of unpaired electrons in different
(1) HsCl2 (21 H2o resonating structures should be equal
(4) Similar charges should not reside on adjacent
(3) SnCl, (4) NO, atoms
86. Consider the species NOa , NOi and NO, . Pick 92. Which of the following process involves cleavage
of hydrogen bonds?
up the conect statement
(1) Sublimation of dry ice
('l) The hybrid state of N in all the species is
same
(2) Melting of ice
(3) Dissociation of H2 molecules
(2) The shapes of both NOj and NO, is bent
(4) Condensation of ammonia
while NOt is planar
93. Among the species given below the largest angle
(3) The hybrid state of N in NO, and NO, is around the central atom is in
same (1) lt (2) 13-
(4) The hybrid state of N in NOj is sl (3) NO2- (4) H2O
87. Of the following sets which one does not contain 94. The bond order of NO molecule is
isoelectronic species? (1) 1.s (2\ 2
(1) BO33-, CO32-' NO3- (3) 2.5 (4) 3.0
(2) SOsr-, CO32-, NO3- 95. which of the following molecule the dipole
(3) CN-, N2, C22- rnoment is largest?
(4) PO4!' SO42-' CtO4-

(1) CH2C!2 (2) CHC|3
(3) CCr4 (4) CO2
88. The species amongst the following, having one
unpaired electron, is
(1) No 96. ln piperidine, H, the hybrid state of N is
(2) CaO2
(3) cN-
(1) sp (21 sd
(3) sp3 $) dsf
(4) ru
97. Which of the following option is correct?
89. A certain diatomic molecule AB has dipole moment
1.6 D and the internuclear distance is '100 pm. (1) Bond dissociation energy c bond order *
The fraction of electronic charge existing on each 1
atom is bond length

(1) 33% (21 25%
I
(3) 50% (4\ 10% (2) Bond length * bond energy < bond ord6r
90. The number of n electrons present in 2.6 g of
(3) Bond length - bond energy e bond order
ethyne is
(1) 0.1 mol (2) 0.2 mol 11
(4) * - bond order
(3) 0.3 mol (4) 0.4 mol bond energy bond length
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98. A diatomic molecule AB has a dipole moment of 104. Which of the following option is true regarding
0.816 debye. lf its bond length is 100 pm. then H-bonding?
what percentage of an electronic charge will exist
(1) Orthonitrophenol is steam volatile due to
on each atom?
intermolecular H-bonding
(1) 830/o (21 37o/o
(2) Alcohols are soluble in water due to
(3) 10% (41 17v. intramolecular hydrogen bonding
99. ln order to conve( N2 into N2* the electron will be (3) lce is lighter than liquid water due to
removed from intermolecular H-bonding
(1) ,r--orbital (2) n--orbital (4) Ether in general form efiective H-bonding
(3) o-orbital (4) o.-orbital 105. Mixing of two or more than two orbital of same
100. Deduce the bond order of NO and CN-, energy level or approximately same and forming a
respectively new orbital is called hybridization and new orbital
is called hybridized orbital. What will be the
(1 ) 2.5, 3 decreasing order of bond length?
(2) 3.2.5 ('t) sp3- sp3 > sf- sd , sp- sp
(3) 2.5, 2.5 (2) sP- sP , sd- sf > sP3- sp3
(4) 3, 3 (3) sp3- sp3 > sp- sp > sp2- sf
101. Which of the following sketch for orbital (4) sp - sp > sp3 - sp3 > sp, - sp,
configuration (considering boundry surface only) is
conect for orbital type rt 2px ? 106. Lattice Enthalpy can be easily calculated by
(1) Born-Haber cycle (2) Kirchofls law
---'-- (3) Hess's law (4) Laplace law
(1)
107. The dipole moment of LiH is '1.96 x 10-2e C m and
the inter atomic distance between Li and H in the
molecule is 1.59 A. The percentage ionic character
in the molecule is
(2)
(1) 77o/o (21 27o/o
(3) 50% (41 19o/o
(3) 108. Find the incorrect match

(1) 38 molecule - 16 lone pair
(2) PCls molecule - Different bond length
(4)
(3) NO - Odd electron molecule
102. The shape of lo2F2- is (4) crF3 - Tetrahedrar morecure
(1) Linear 1Og. ln which of the following pair hybridisation of
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal central atom are different?
(3) T-shaped ('l) NH4.

NH3, (2) BF3, BF4
(4) Seesaw (3) H2O, H3Ot (4) SO2' SO3
103. Which of the following molecule contains only 110. Which is paramagnetic in nature?
20o/o character?
d (1) Bz e) C,
(1) cH4 (3) o, (a) Both (1 ) & (3)
(2) SO, 1.11 . The molecule which is not of pyramidal shape is
(3) CrF3 (1) NF3 (2) H"O.
(4) CO, (3) BF3 (4) NH3
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'------
112. Which of the following is inconect match? 120 The hybrid state of C in CO, is same as in
(1) HCHO
(1) co3- ---------r Planar
e\ co|-
(2) SOs sp2 hybridization (3) Second carbon of propadiene
-) Bond order = 2
(3) Ctt- --------+ (4) Carbon 3 of propadiene
121 The linear structure is not possessed by
(4) xeoFz --------+T shape (1) SnCl, (2) C2H2
'113. When the species, H2O, Cl2O and F2O are (3) No' (4) cs2
arranged in order of increasing X-O-X bond
angles, then the conect order is 122 Which of the following is not isostructural with
sic14?
(1) F2O < Ct2O < H2O
(2) F2O < H2O < Cl2O
(1) so;2 (2) Po;3
(3) H2O < F2O < Ct2O (3) NHi (4) scr4
(4) H2O < Cl2O < F2O 't23 The shape of XeOF2, XeO3 and XeOF4 is
f4. fhe ratio of fi bonds in benzene and naphthalene respectively
is (1) Square planar, trigonal pyramidal, square
pyramidal
:1
(1)'l (2) 3:s (2) Square pyramidal, trigonal pyramidal, square
(3)5:3 (41 3:2 planar
115. Among the following, the compound having (3) T-shaped, pyramidal, square pyramidal
highest lattice energy is (4) Square planar, T-shaped, pentagonal
pyramidal
(1) CaF" (2\ BeFz
124 ln blue vitriol, the number of H2O molecule forming
(3) MgF2 (4) SrF2
H-bond is
116. Which of the following species is diamagnetic (1) 5 (2) 4
in nature? (3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Hi (2) oz 125 Which of the following is the conect order of dipole
(3) Ni (4) co moment?
117. Which is not the conect order of dipole moment?

OH OH OH
NO,
(1) HF > HCI > HBr > Hl (1)
(2) PC\F2 < PF3C|2 Nq
(3) CHC|3 < CH2C|2 < CH3C| NO,
OH OH OH
(4) CH3F > CH3C|
Not
118. Name the different bonds present in calcium (21
carbide NO,
(1) lonic bond only NO,
(2) Covalent bond only OH OH OH
NO,
(3) Both ionic and covalent bond (3)
(4) Neither ionic nor covalent NO,
NO,
119. The conect order of hybridization of central atom
in the following species NH3, [PtCl4]2-, PCls, BCl3 OH OH OH
is respectively NO,
(4)
(1) sp3, dsp3, sf, dsi el sp3,dsf , sp34 sd
NO,
(3) dsd, sd, sp3, dsd $l dsf , sp3, sd, dsp3 NO,
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126. ldentify the false statement

(1) Bond length in H2* is longer than that in H2
(2) A r-moleorlar orbital forms weaker bond than
o-molecular orbital
a
133. The hybridisation of N-atom in
O IS
(3) Hr- and H2- are diamagnetic

(1) sp3d (2) sp38
(4) The number of electrons in antibonding

(3) sps l\ sf
molecular orbitals of N22- is six 134. Which of the following pair is having same bond
order?
127. Pola.izing power is given by expression
(1) NO'& CO- (2) CN-& NO-
charoe cha rge
2
(3) N, & CO' (4) NO- & 02
(1) ---;- (2')
r 135. The relative strength of r bonds follows the order
(11 2pn- 2W > 2W - 3d1t > 2g,t > 3pn
.^. charge ,,, (charge) 2
(r, r
(+l (2) 2pn - 2pn > 2pn - 3ye > 2pn > 3dn
(3) 2pr - 3dn > 2pn - 2pn > 2pn - 3ptr
128. Which of the following is a set of isoelectronic
species?
- (41 2W - 3dn > 2pn - 3gn > 2pn > 2pn
136 The formal charge on c-atom 1n coi2

(1) CO, N2, CN- (2) Nr' O;' NO
molecule is
(3) CO, cN , Of (4) NOt, NrO, 03 (1) +4 (21 -2
(3) +s (4\ zerc
129. ln the formation of F; molecule, the extra electron
enters into '137. Which of the following has maximum number of
lone pairs on central atom?
(1) ,t,0. (21 n,o, (1) xeo3 (21 xeo4
(3) n,o, $) c),. (3) XeorF, (4\ xeF 2
138. Which of the following is a true statement?

130. ln which of the following pair trans isomer has
higher dipole moment than cis isomer? ('l) Bond order of N2 and Co are same
(2) With increase in bond order bond length also
(.1) Trans-.l -chtoropropene and cis-1-
lncrease
chloropropene
(2) Trans-1,z-dichloroethene and cis-1,2- 1S1 tn Rn. covalency of N = 3
dichloroethene (4) All of these
(3) Trans-bu!2-ene and cis-but-2-ene 139. which of the foflowing is paramagnetic according
(4) All of these to molecular orbital theory?
(1) oz (21 Ko?
131. The hybridisation of carbon atom in CFrand f g.
(g) *o (4) All of these
respectively ,.
(1) spr, sp, l40 Correct sequence of indicated property is
(2) sp3, sp3 (1) Oz'O2- > O22- (Bond order )
(3) sp2, sp3 (2) Oz" 02* > 02 (Bond energy)
'
(a) sp3, sd (3) C - C > C = C > C = C (Bond length)
'132. Which of the following molecules contain only ,r (4) All of these
bond? 141. lnmrrect matching of hybridisation is
(1) Nz Q) oz (1) Diamond (sp3) 121 Xeo. (sr3)
(3) cz (4) co (3) xeo4 (sp3) (4) xeF2 (sp)
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142. Which of the following has maximum dipole '148. Correct match in the following is
moment? (1) CO2 - Zero dipole moment
NO. (2) XeF2- 3 lone pair
(1) PC|3F2 (2\
(3) o;* - Bond order 3
NO
(4) All of these
(3) NH3 (4) NF3
'149. Conect match in the following is
143. Find out the correct statement
(1) PCls - Trigonal planar geometry
(1) Boiling point of HF is greater than H2O, as F
is more electronegative than oxygen
(2) SF4 - CH4 like geometry
(2) Bond angle of PH3 is greater than NH3, as (3) NHi - Tetrahedral geometry
lone pair-bond pair repulsion is less than
lone pair-lone pair repulsion (4) ClF3 - sl hybridisation of Ct
(3) o-nitrophenol has lower boiling point than 150. The hybridisation of HgCl, and H.O' is
p-nitrophenol respectively
5(+) 5(-)
(1) sp3
sp3, (2) sp, sd
(4) Strength of F- H -- F bond is less than (3) sp, sp3 $l sf , sd
6(,) 5(-)
'151. The
O- lotal number of 90o bond angle in PCls and
H --O bond
SF6 is respectively
144. Which of the following is mismatch regarding
shape? ('t) 2, 4 (2\ 2, 6
XeF4 (3) 6, 6 (4) 6, 12
(1) - Octahedral
(2) PCl3 152. The d-orbital involved in the structure of ClF3 is
- Trigonal planar
(3) SO2 - Linear (1\ d, (2) d,z-,2
(4) All of these (3\ d,z $) dy,
145. For CO*, which is inmnect? 153. When there is subtractive overlapping between
2p, alomic orbitals, the total number of nodes
(1) lt is isoelectronic with N,
present in the molecular orbital formed is
(2) lt is paramagnetic in nature like N, (consider z is the internuclear axis)
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) lts bond order is same as that of N,
(31 2 (4) Can't predicted
(4) Both (2) & (3)
154. During overlapping of atomic orbitals, which of the
146. Which is conect for carbonate ion? following will result in zero overlap? (consider z as
(1) Formal charge on carbon is -1 the internuclear axis)
A (1) s - p, (2) p,- py
(2) lts bond order is
5 (3) py - s (4) All of these
(3) lts shape is pyramidal 155. According to valence bond theory total number of
(4) Covalency of carbon is 2 attractive and repulsive forces resulted in the
formation of H2 from hydrogen atom is respectively
147. Which one of the following does not have H-
bonding? (1) 2, 1 (2\ 2,2
(1) Phenol (3) 4, 2 (4) 5, 4
(2) Liquid NH. 156. The incorrect order of polarity is shown by
(3) Water (1) H2S

H2O > (2) NH3 > H2O
(4) HCr (3) NH3 > NF3 (4) PF3C|2 > PCI3F2
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2A Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
157 The intermolecular forcesthat is present when 165. The different types of bonds present in
sodium chloride dissolves in water and when ammonium chloride is
orygen gas present in water is respectively (1) lonic bond (2) Covalent bond
(1) Dipole - dipole interaction, hydrogen - bonding (3) Coordinate bond (4) All of these
(2) lon - dipole interaction, hydrogen - bonding '166. Carbon atoms in C2(CN)4 are
(3) Dipole - dipole interaction, dipole-induced sphybridized
dipole interaction
(1 )
(2) sfi-hybridised
(4) lon - dipole interaction, dipole-induced dipole
interaction (3) sp and sd hybridised
158 Total number of sigma, pi bonds, lone pair of (4) sp, sd and sp3 hybridised
electron present in urea is 167. According to M.O.T. for 02.
(1) 6o,1n,3/p (2) 8o,0t,3/P (1) B.O. is less than that of 02 and Or* is
(3) 7c, 1n, Slp (4'1 7c, 1n, 4lP paramagnetic
159 To explain the carbon - oxygen bond length in case (2) B.O. is more than that of 02 and Or* is
of carbon dioxide, out of the following structures, paramagnetic
which structure is used as contributing structure? (3) B.O. is less than that of 02 and Or* is
A. :ij::C::ci: a :bfc:::6: diamagnetic
(4) B.O. is more than that of 02 and Or' is
diamagnetic
C. :6:::C:oY
168. The cyanide ion, CN- and N2 are isoelectronic but
(1) A only (2) B&Conly in contrast to CN-, N2 is almost inert, because of
(3) A&Bonly (4)A,B&c (1) Low bond energy
160. S.l. unit of dipole moment is (2) Absence of bond polarity
(1) debye (2) Cm
(3) Unsymmetrical electron distribution
(3) esu<rn (4) All of these
(4) Presence of more number of electron in
16'1. Formal charge on nitrogen in nitrate ion is bonding orbitals
(1) 0 (2\ +1 169. The hydration of ionic compound involves
(3) -1 (41 +2 (1) Evolution of heat
162. Total number of shared electron around central (2) Weakening of attractive forces in ionic
atom in sulphuric acid in Lewis structure is compound
(1\ 2 (2\ 4 (3) Dissociation into ions
(3) 6 (4\ 12 (4) All of these
163. Correct order of bond length is shown 170. Which of the following does not have pyramidal
shape?
(1) o, <oi <o;.o,' (2\ o22 <o2.or.o;
(1) sot'z (2) No3
(3) Or, < O; . O, . Oi (4) O, < O, .O; <Oi'
(3) NH3 (4) EH.
'15,4. Strength of hydrogen bond in terms of magnitude
is given by 171. Number of nodes present in r4r, antibonding
(1) 1000 - 10000 kJ/mol molecular orbital is (consider z as the intemuclear
(2) 100 - 1000 kJ/mol axis)
(3) 10 - 100 kJ/mol (1) 0 (2) 1
(4) 10 - 100 J/mol (3) 2 (4) 3
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Chemical Bonding and l\.4olecular Structure 29
172. ldentify the correct order of solubility of NiS, CUS CI
and ZnS in aqueous medium
(1) CuS > ZnS > NiS (2) ZnS > NiS > CUS 179. The dipole moment of is pro. The diPole
(3) NiS > CuS > ZnS (4) NiS > ZnS > CuS
moment of
173. Among KO2, AlO, , BaO2 and NOj , unpaired
electron is present in
CI
(1) Noi BaO2and (2) KO2 and AlOt CI CI

(1) is 6po
(3) KO2 only (4) BaO, onlY
CI
174. Which of the following hydrogen bond (shown by
dotted line) has highest average bond energy?
(1) F - H-----F (2\ F - H-----o CI
(3) O-H-----o (4) o-H-----s CI
2lto
175. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
(1) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of
(2) IS
6
CI
electrons on the central atom respectively
(2) The same with 1, 'l and 1 lone pair of
electrons on the central atoms respectively CI
CI
(3) Different with 0, 1 and 2lone pairs of
(3) rs lro
electrons on the central atom respectively
CI
(4) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of
electrons on the central atom resp€ctively
CI
176. The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygen
atoms ln H3BO3 are respectively .llo
ls --=
(4)
Je
(1) sd and sd cl cl
(2) sd and sP3
'180. ln which one of the following triplets, all the
(3) sp3 and sl members are diamagnetic?
(4) sp3 and sP3
(1) 82, CO' NO-
177 . The arrangement of electron pairs around central
atom in lcl, ion is (2) cu., oZ- , 02
(1) Trigonal
(3) N?-,oi'z, No-
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Square Planar (4) 03, M* ' N2O
(4) Trigonal biPYramidal
181. The Xenon compound(s) that are isostructural
'178. The percentage ionic character of a bond having
1.275 A bond length and 1.03 D dipole moment with lBrt and Bro! respectively are
't (1) Linear xeF2 and pyramidal Xeo.

(1\ 10%
(2) Bent xeF2 and pyramidal Xeo.
(2\ 15o/.
(3) Bent XeF? and planar Xeo3
(3) 16.83%
(4) Linear XeF2 and square planar XeO''
(4) 18.8%
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'182. Consider the Born-Haber cycle for the formation 188. Which of the following is correct about XeOF4?
of an ionic compound given below and identify the
(1) sp3d hybridisation
compound (Z) formed.
(2) Zero polarity
(3) Square planar shape
tr,,t,", JIt* u,n,-11. rr,1;,
(4) Contain only o bond
lH.
------:--+ Z
f xorJrr-x,.,51;, 189. Which gets stabilization by removal of electron?

(1) oz (2) N,
(3) Hz () Hz-
(1) Mx (s) (2) M-x- (s) 190. The correct order of strength of H-bond in the
following compound is
(3) Mtx 0) (4) M-x- (s)
(1) HF > H2O > H2O2 > H2S
183. The lattice enthalpy and hydration enthalpy of four
compounds are given below (2) HF > H2O2 > H2O > H2S
Compound Hydration Lattice (3) H2O > H2O2 > HF > H2S
enthalpy enthalpy (4) HF > H2O > H2S > H2O2
P +780 -920 191. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that
Q +1012 -A12 can be formed by one molecule of HrO
R +828 (1) 1 (2\ 2

-878
(3) 3
S +632 -600
@)4
'192. lntramolecular hydrogen bonding
The pair of compound which is soluble in water is is formed in
(1) Salicytatdehyde (2) Warer
(1) P and R (2) p and e
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) phenot
(3) R and S (4) e and S '193. Which of the following have both polar and non_
184. ln which of the halides, there is maximum polar bonds?
polarisation?
(1) C2H6 (2) NH4C|
(1) AtF3 (2) AtCt3
(3) HCt (4) AtCt3
(3) AIBr. (4) A[3 194. XeF 2 anvolves hybridisation
185. The correcl order of decreasing polarity is
(1)sp3 (2) sp3d
(1) NH3 > H2O > HF (2) HF > H2O > NH3 (3) sp3d @l sp2
(3) HF > NH3 > H2O (4) H2O > NH3 > HF 195. Which of the following is in the increasing order
'186. Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent but AlCl.. 6HrO is of the ionic character?
ionic because (1) PbCI4 < PbCl2 < CaCl, < NaCl
(1) AlCl3 has a planar triangular structure (2\ PbCl2 < PbCt4 < CaCt, < NaCt
(2) The ionisation energy of Al is very low (3) PbCl, < PbCt4 < NaCt < CaCt,
(3) The hydration energy of AlCl3 is very low (4) PbCt4 < PbCt2 < NaCt < CaCt,
(4) The hydration energy of AlCl3 compensates 196. Which has the least bond angle?
for the high ionisation energy of Aluminium (l) NH3 e) H2o
187. Among LiCl, BeC12, MgCt, and RbCt the (3) BeF2 (4) CH4
compounds with greatest and least ionic character
'197. Number of 90. and .180o
respectively are angles in SFu
respectively are
(1) LiCl and RbCt (2) RbCt and BeCt2 (1) 12 and 3 (2) 6 and 3
(3) RbCl and MgCt2 (4) MgCt, and BeCt2 (3) 12 and 2 (41 6 and 2
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Last Leap for NEET ( Partl ) Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 31
207. lntramolecular H-bonding is absent in
198. Bond order of Ni and CO. are respectively
(1 ) o-methylbenzaldehYde
(1) 2.5 and 2.5 (2) 3 and 2.5
(2) p-methoxybenzaldehyde
(3) 3.5 and 2.5 (4) 2.5 and 3.5
(3) Water
199. Which of the following pair contains isoelectronic
(4) All of these
and isostructural ions?
208. Which of the following compound has lowest
(1) No3-, co32- (2) clot, Not melting Point?
(3) ClO3-, CO32- (4) CO32-' ClO4-
(1) RbCt (2) RbF
200. d orbital involved in hybridisa$on of SF4 is (3) Rbl (4) RbBr
(1) d,, (2\ dv.
209. ldentify the inconect statement
(3'1 d
,z -rz F) d * (1) ln ClF. molecule, lone pairs occupy axial
positions
2O1.ln BrF3 molecule, the lone pair occupy equatorial
position to minimize
(2) ln lt, bond pairs occupy equatorial positions
(3) ln lFr, only one type of bond angle is present
(1) Lone pak - bond pair repulsion only
(4) All are inconect
(2) Bond pair - bond pair repulsion only
210. The species not having all the bonds identical is
(3) Lone pair - lone pair repulsion and
lone pair - bond Pair repulsion (1) SiF4 (2) CO2
(4) Lone pair - lone Pair repulsion (3) BF3 (4) PCls
202. The hybridisation of carbon in diamond, graphite 211. Highest lattice energy is shown by
and fullerene is respectively (1) BeCl2 (2) Bact2
(1) sp3, sp3 and sP3 (2) sl, sP3 and sP3 (3) MgCl2 (4) CaCl,
(3) sp3, sl and sd (l) sd' sd and sd 212. Tne maximum bond angle is present tn
203. Among the following groups, which represents the (1) NH3 (2) PCl3
collection of isoelectronic species?
(3) CH4 (4) CO,
(1) NO-, Cr'-, O, , CO (2) N2, C22-' CO' NO
213. The correct order of increasing polarising power
(3) CO, NO-, CN-, C22- (4) NO' CN-' N2, Or- is
204. fhe pair of species having identical shape is (1) Cs, Rb, Na, K (2) Be' Mg, Ca, Sr
(1) NH3, BF3 (2) CO2, SO2 (3) Ba, Sr, Ca, Mg (4) Li' Na, K' Rb
(3) SO., BrF. (4) H2O, H2S 214.The fraction of s-character in the orbitals forming
205. The hybridization of phosphorus in H3PO4 and S-S bond in Ss is
H.PO. resPectivelY is
(1) sp3, sp3 (1)
1
5 Q)l
(2) sp3, sd 1
(3) sd, sp
(3)
5 @;
(4) sf, sp3d 215. Which of the following pair has same bond order?
(1) F,
Or2- and (2) r2andBz
206. Hybridization of nitrogen in pyrrole IS
(3) 82 and O22- (4) All of these
I 216. ln which of the following species the hybridization
H of central atom is not same like other species?
(1) sp3 (2) sp (1) H3O. (2) NH4.

(3) sp2 (4) sp3d (3) PCt3 (4) C2H4
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32 Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure Last Leap for NEET (PartJ)
217. Which of the following is correct statement 223. ln the Lewis structure of acetic acid, CH3COOH,
regarding PCls? the bondang pairs and lone pairs of electrons
('l) Hybridisation of P-atom is sp3d in gaseous present are respectively.
state and sp3 in solid pcl5 (1) 7, 2 (2\ 6, 4
(2) All P-Cl bonds are having same bond length (3) 8, 4 (4) s, 3
(3) Coordination number of P-atom is 5 in solid 224. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Elu
(1) lonic compounds are good conductor in
(4) All of these molten state
218. The correct order of stabitity is (2) Rate of ionic reactions are very slow
(1) o;- >oi >C,2>or>or- (3) Covalent bond is rigid and directional
(4) lonic compounds have high m.p. and b.p.
(2) oa- >o, >02 >oi >oi*
225. Which of the following pair is having same
hybridisation?
(3) o, >o, >o2 >o, >or*
(1) SnCta
SFa and (2) CO2 and SO2
(4) oi >oi. >o2>or>o,
(3) la and Na (4) t3 and pcts
219. (i) ArF3
226. The bonding present between CH3OH molecules
(ii) At2o3 are
(iii) ArN (1) Dipole-dipote
The correct increasing order of lattice energy of (2) H-bonding
the above compounds is
(3) London forces
(1) (i) < (i,) < (iii) (2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(4) lon-dipole
(3) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (4) (iii) < (i) < (ii)
227 . Which combination is best explained by the
220. Higher mvalent character in ionic bond is favoured coordinate covalent bond?
by
(1) H2 + 12
(1) Large cation + small anion + low charge on ions
1
(2) Small cation + small anion + high charge on (2) Ms+
ions
ro2
(3) ct' + cr
(3) ions
Large cation + larcB anion + low charge on
(4) Small cation + large anion + high charge on (4) H+ +HrO
bns
228' Whidl of the following has fractional bond orden
221. Which of the follo\ ing are having same shape?
(1) co, and so, (2) so, and Noj () o;2 (2) o22
(3) co2 and Nol (4) Att of these (3) Fl @ tl

229. Which are isostructural speci6s?
222.1n which mol€cule does the chlorine have the
most positive partial charge? (1) CH: and CHI
(1) Scl2 (2) co2 and NH3
(2) OCt2
(3) SnCl+ and clo;
(3) Hcl
(4) BrCI (4) AlCl3 and SO2
Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Chemical Bonding and l\,lolecular Structure 33
230. ln which of the following, weakest hydrogen Choose the correct statement(s)
bonding is present ? (1) only (i) (2) (i) & (ii)
(1) HrO (2) HF (3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iii)
(3) HCr (4) HNO3 239. Choose the incorrect statement
231. Which of the following is the correct order of (1) The bond order of C2 is 2
dipole moments?
(2) C2 is diamagnetic molecule
('l ) NF3
BF3 > NH3 > (2) NH3 > NF3 > BF3
(3) Double bond of C2 consists of one o and one
(3) NH3 > BF3 > NF3 (4) NF3 > NH3 > BF3 fi-bonds
232. ln which of the following reaction hybrid state of (4) 4 electrons are present in two n-MO in C,
underlined atom is changed in the product?
240. Which of the following has maximum triple bond
(1) Sg2 + H2O --------, (2) NH3 + HrO---+ energy?
(1) N=N (2) c=o
(3) XeFu + 3HrO---------r (a) Both (1) & (3) (3) C=C (4) C=N
233. The shape of CH.NCS is
SECTION . B
('l) Trigonal pyramidal (2) Trigonal Planar
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(3) Linear (4) Bent
ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
234. Which of the molecule is non-polar?
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) PCl3Br2 (2) PC|3F2
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) XeOrF, (4) All of these reason is the correct explanation of the
235. The given orbital is (consider z as the intemuclear assertion, then mark (1).
axis) (2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
I
reason ls not the correct explanation of the
q assertion, then mark (2).
(3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
(11 6zp, Ql "),, statements, then mark (4).
1 . A : The melting point of NaCl is more than LiCl.
(3) n,^ (41 nzp,
R : LiCl is more covalent than NaCl.
236. The formal charge over 'Cl' atom in SOCI, is 2. A : PCl2Br3 has zero dipole moment.
('l +1) (2) *g R : PBrrCl. has non zero dipole moment.

(3) 0 (4\ -1 3. A: BF. is non-polar molecule.
237. Which of the following is having highest dipole- R: BF3 behave as a Lewis base.
moment (p)? 4. A : Bond order of CO* is more lhan CO.
(1) CH3C| (2) CH2CI2 R: Bond order of N; is also 3.5 because CO*
(3) CHC|3 (4) CCr4
and N; are isoelectronic.
238. Consider the following statements about
resonance:
5. A : NaNO. is an ionic compound.
R : There is no covalent bond in NaNO3,
(i) The canonical forms have no real existence.
(ii) There is equilibrium between the canonical
6. A : The order of lattice energy of lithium halide is
LiF > LiCl > LiBr> Lil
forms.
R: Smaller the size of cation more will be
(iii) Resonance hybrid of a compound cannot be polarising power and more ionic nature of
depicted by a single Lewis structure. bond formed by cation.
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34 Chemical Bondinq and Molecular Structure Last Leap for NEET (Part- r)
7. A: The hybridisation of PCls is sp3d. '15. A Bond angle in PF. is less than that of PCl3.
R: PCls consists of three equatorial bonds and R Lone pair - bond pair repulsion is greater than
two axial bonds. bond pair-bond pair repulsion.
8. A: N(CH3)3 is pyramidal but N(SiH3L is planar. 16. A lonic compounds are generally soluble in
R: Hybrid state of nitrogen in both the polar solvents.
compounds is sp3.
R lonic compounds are directional in nature.
9. A: The melting point of CaO is higher than NaCI.
17. A Order of ionic character of chlorides is
R: NaCl is 100% pure ionic compound while
NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3.
CaO is 20o/o covalent.
10. A: Both H2O and SO2 having same shape. R Higher is the charge on the cation, lesser will
be the ionic character.
R: Central atom in H2O and SO, are sp3
hybridised. 18. A ln solid PCls hybridisation of P is sp3 and
'11. A: N(S|H3)3 is weaker base than N(CH,).. sp3# both.
R: N(S|H3)3 and N(CH3)3 do not have any pn - R ln solid state PCls exist in ionic form as
dr bond. lPcr4l.IPCr6r.
12. A. Lattice energy is the energy required to 19. A KHF, exists but KHCI2 does not exist.
separate 1 mole of solid ionic substance
R F is smaller in size than Cl.
completely into gaseous ions.
R: Higher the lattice energy more is the stability 20. A Hybridisation of central atoms in both NH3 and
of ionic compound. HrO is sp3.
13. A: 3d and 4d can easily undergo hybridisation R N has 'llone pair electron and O has 2 lone
among themselves. pair electron in NH. and H2O respectively.
R: Hybridisation is mixing of atomic orbitals having
21. A: COa and Nf have same bond-order
large difference in energies.
14. A. PCI.F, has zero dipole moment. R: CO* has 15 electrons whereas N9 has 13
R: F-atom is present at axial position. electrons.
trtr tr
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Chapter 3
Equilibrium
(1) Favour backward reactjon
,'-..:i,:ffi-,
obiective rvp" o*"tir" - (2) Favour forward reac{ion
(3) lncreases the reaction rate
1. .
For the equilibrium, PQi-
(s)
. P+
(e)
Q
(s)
at 300 K. The (4) Has no effect
pressure at which 50% of PQ is dissociated is 6. The pure water has [H.o.1 = 19'6 M at 90"c The
numericallyequaltovalueofp(atthesametemperatureis
(1) 6 (2) 14
(1) 3 Ke Ql 4\
(3) Kp (4) Can't be predicted (3) 1014 (4) 12
2. K. for pcls(g): pcl3(s) + cl2(g) is o.o4 at 7' solution'

O'40 g of NaOH was added to one libe of a buffer
lts buffer capacity is found to b€ 0'06' its
25.c. The number of motes ot pc'iieouireo to a pH change will be
3.0 titre flask to obtain cr, i *"""irril;.1;;
is (1) 0.33 (2) 0.17
(1) 1.5 mole (2) 2.1 mole (3) 1.0 (4) 0.01
(3) 6.0 mole (4) 0.45 mde 8. Calculate the degree of hydrolysis of salt which is
3. Which of the following is conect for the reaction? prepared by the mixing of 10 ml, acetic acid
fi
3H2(s):2NH3(g)
N2(g) + n"on
(1) S= K"
and 10 mt or
rol
ff soturion. [tq of cH3CooH
=
(2) Kp K"< (1) 4.4 r 1O-s (2) 1O-7
(3) Ke > Kc (3) 1.4 x 10{ (4) 1.69 x 1Os
(4) Pressure is required to predict the conelation g. The solubility product of chalk is 9.3 x 10-s.
4. What will be effecl on the state of equilibriumfor Solubility of chalk in g/L is
the following reaction H2(g) + US)i- 2Hl(S) at (1) 3.5 x 103 (2) 1.6 x 10-s
250"C, on doubling the volume of the system? (3) 9.1 x 102 (4) 3.0a x 10_2
(1) shift to reactant side
ro. which of the folowing is correct about buffer
(2) Shift to product side solution?
(3) No efiect on state of equilibrium (t tts pH does not change on standing for long
)
(4) Liquefication of Hl time
5. Density of diamond and graphite are 2.5 and (2) lts pH does not change on dilution
1.3 g/ml respectively. with decrease in pressure
(3) pH is stighty changed by the addition of sma
equilibrium will quantity of an acid or a base
\, vdiamond vslaphite (4) All of these
-
36 Equilibrium Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
11 lf AgCl, PbCl2 and Ca3(PO4)2 have same value of 17. 40% N2Oa molecules are dissociated in a sample
solubility product, which of the following has of gas at 27"C and 760 mm Hg. Calculate the
minimum solubility in mol/litre? density of the equilibrium mixture
(1) Ascl (1) 13.11 g/L (2) 2.66 stL
(2) PbCt2 (3) 6.2 g/L (4\ 20.02 stt
(3) Ca3(PO4)2 18. pKh for a salt of weak acid and weak base is
(4) All have same solubility given by the formula
When 0.4 mole of HCI is added to one litre of (1) pKr = pq - pK"
solution containing 0.2 M each of HCN and CN (2) pKn = pK, - pK" + pKo
ion. pH of solution bemme (Ka = 1 .8 x 10-s)
(3) pKr, = 14 + logKa - pKu
(1) 3.5 (2) 1
(4) pKn = 14 - logK, + logKo
(3) 0.7 (4\ 4
19. On reducing the concentration of base to one half,
13 A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant in the buffer solution of NHaOH and NH4C|, the pH
1.0 x 10 s. The equilibrium constiant for its reaction observed was 7.82. What was the pH of the
with a strong base is original solution?
('l) 1.0 x 10 5 (2) 1.0 x 10-s (1) 4.6 (2) 10.34
(3) 1.0 x 10e (4) 1 .0 x 10 14 (3) 8.12 (41 7.52
14 For the reaction, 20. ln a reaction,
caco.(s) r- cao(s) + coz(g), K, = 1 .1 6
&(s) + 4Br(s) ;- 2ABo(s), AH > 0
atm
the formation of ABa(g) will be favoured by
at 800'C. lf 40 g of CaCO, were kept in a 5 L
vessel at 800'C, the moles of CaCO3 remained at (1) Low temperature and low pressure
equilibrium is (2) Low temperature and high pressure
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.4s (3) High temperature and low pressure
(3) 0.63 (4) 0.21 (4) High temperature and high pressure
'15 Review the pK" data of the following equilibria and 2'1. Which of the following cannot act as buffer?
point out which buffer is to be used to study the
hydrolysis of methyl acetate at pH 9.25
(1) NaH2PO4 + H3PO4
(2) NH4OH + NH4CI
(1) HSO;;- SOo2 + H. (pK" = 1.92)
(3) NaOH + CH3COONa
(21 H2Poi i- HPo42- + H+ (pKa = 7.21\
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) COr(aq)+H2O r- HCO; + H'(pK" = 6.37) 22. lf solubility product of Ca(OH)2 is 10-11, the pH at
which Ca(OH)2 precipitate from a solulion
(4) HCOt ;- CO.'- + H' (PK" = 10.25) containing decimolar concentration of Ca2t is
16. For the reaction (i) and (ii) (1).s (2) 9<PH>5
Ai- B+C (i) (3) rg (4) 9<pH>7
D ;- 2E ... (ii)
23. What will be the pOH when 20 ml of 0.2 M HCN
(pK" = 5.0) is titrated with 20 ml of 0.2 M
Given Kpl : Kp, :: 16 : 1 ammonia solution (Plq = 5.0)?
lf the degree of dissociation of A and D be same (1) 7
then the total pressure at equilibria (i) and (ii)
(2) 5
would be in the ratio
(3) e
(1) 32: 1 (2) 1 :64
(3) 64:1 (41 1:4 (4) 12
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Last Leap lor NEET ( Part-l)
Equilibrlum J/
24. For the reaction, 31. What is the pOH of a buffer solution containing
0.04 moles of acetic acid and 0.4 moles of
CuSOo.5HrO(s) ;- CuSOo'3H2O(s) + 2H2O(g) Potassium acetate? (Ka = 10-5)
Which one is conecl representation?

(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 11 (4) e
(1) \ = pi,o (2) K" = [HrO]2
32. pH of 0.1 M NaCN solution is 11, then the
percentage hydrolysis is
(3) Ko = 11" 13112 (4) All of these
25 pH of water is 7.0 at 25'C. lf water is heated to (1) 0.1% (2\ 1%
70'c, the (3) 0.01% (4) 1oo/o
(1) pH will decrease and solution becomes acidic 33. Equilibrium constant (K") for the following reaction
(2) pH will increase ,|
2Hl i-..... H2 + 12 is . Then, percentage of Hl

(3) pH will remain constant as 7 36
(4) pH will decrease but solution will be neutral left at equilibrium will be
26 The conjugate base of [A|(H2O)3(OHU is (1\ 2s% (21 SoYo
(1) tAt(H2o)3(oH)rr (2) [Al(HrO)3(OH)2o] (3) 75% (4\ 12.5o/o
(3) tAt(Hro)3(oH)3r (4) tAl(HrO)r(OH)J- 34. Which of the following can act as Buffer solution?
27 The solubility of PbCl2 in water is 0.01 M at 25'C.

(1) NH4OH + NH4CI (2) Boric acid + Borax
Maximum concentration of [Pb2*] in 0.1 M NaCl will (3) Na2HPo4 + NasPor (4) All of these
be 35. What will be the resulting pH, when equal volume
(1) 2x10-3M (2) 1x10{M each of monobasic acid solution with pH 2, 3, 4
(4) 4 x10r M are mixed in a vessel ? (log 3.7 = 0.56)
(3) '1.6 x 10-2 M
(1) 3 el 2.44
28 pH of a solution of salt undergoing anionic
hydrolysis (say CH3COONa) is given by (3) l.e (4) 3.40
1 36. H3PO4+nJ-B.LC, what can be

(1) pH = ; [pKw + pKa + log C]
predicted about Kl, K2, K3 ?
1 (t) Kl >K2>lq (2) K3>lq>Kt

(2) PH =
2
lpK* + pK" - log Cl
(3) K., =Kr=K. (4) K, =Q<K.
37. lncreasing pressure will move the reaction in
(3) pH = . prq - los cl foMard direction for
] forS"
(1) N, (s)+ o? (s)t-zNolsi

(a) pH=
] f-o(-pKo-loscl (2) PCrs (s):PCl, (s)+ Cl, (s)
29. For the reaction : N2O3 NO + NO2 total
(3) water:lce
pressure is P and degree--of dissociation i; 50%.
Then, Kp would be
14) N, (s)+ 3H, (s):2NH3 (g)
(1)3P Q\ 2P
o ,P 38 H,(g) l,(s):2Hl(g)' tl 29 H2' 63'5 g 12 25'6

13)d @'2 '
g Hl are present at equilibrium for the reaction in
30. which of the following aqueous solution of sodium
2 litre flask value of Ko =
acetate will show minrmum t";
(1) 016 (2) 00256
(1) 001 M (2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.0001 I\,'l (4) 0.1 M (3) 1 65 (4) 0 08
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39. K* for zinc phosphate is mnectly represented as 46. ln the system,
(1) * (2) 8sp MgCl, (s) + HrO(o) + Heat=:ysg(s) + 2t-tct(g)
(3) 27 * (4) 108 S equilibrium is established. More water vapour is
40. lf Ka for HCN is 10-5 and concentration of CN- is added to re-establish the equilibrium. The pressure
thrice than that of HCN. The pH of buffer is of water vapour is tripled. The factor by which
pressure of HCI is changed
(1)5 (21 s.477
(3) 4.s23 (4\ 6.2
(1) 3 (2\ Ji
41. For NHaCl, correct expression for degree of (3) 6 (4) J2
hydrolysis (h), (h < < 1) is
47. The equilibrium constant K, for the reaction
(1)h=!E (r) h=lm 2AO + 02 i-2AO2 at a particular temperature is

5. The partial pressure of oxygen gas if equal
moles of AO and AO, is present at equilibrium
(3) h=lm Idt h=

K
--I
(1) 0.49 atm (2) S atm
(3) 0.2 atm (4) 1.87 atm
42. lf pH of 0.'1 M (NHo)rCOq solution is x then pH of 48. The expression pKn - pK* + pKo = 0 is not
0.01 M solution of (NH4)2CO3 is suitable for the salt
x
(1) FeCl3 (2) fiacN
(11 (2)
^ ; (3) AgrSOl (4) A of these
(3) 10x (4) x 49. A- + H2O + HA + oH represents the hydrolysis
43. Which of the following mixture act as buffer reaction. This indicates that the salt is made up of
solution? (i ) weak acid and weak base
(1) 100 ml of 1 M CH3COOH + 25 mt 5 M NaOH
(2) strong acid and weak base
(2) i50 mr o..l M HCooH + 20 mr 1 M KoH
(3) strong base and weak acid
(3) 200 H2so4
mr 0.5 M NH4oH + 50 mr 2 M
(4) strong acid and strong base
(4) 100 ml 1 M NH4oH + 40 ml 1 M HCt
44 ,,+r<=,. u'
H:J,[T],::lTl:il#"$Î"",J:::"';
This reaction is set up in aqueous medium. We What is the concentration of sulphate ions required
start with 1 mol of 12 and 0.5 mol of l- in 1L flask. to reduce the concentration of Pb*2 to
After equilibrium ii reached, excess of RgNO. 4 x 10 5 moles per litre? [K*PbSOa = 1.8 x 1O-s]
gave 0.25 mol of yellow precipitate, equilibrium (1) 4.5 x 10r
constant is
(2) 9 x 1or
1.30
(1) (2r 2.66
(3) 6 x 1o-s
(3) 2.oo (4) 3.oo
(4) 5 x 1o-s
45. For the reaction
A(s)+2a(s)+3c(s),K"=10'z. rrat t' I3i:,1i3'?,ti.il':ffi;
equilibrium one mole of A is added and 1 mole of
C is removed then the value of K" will be The pressure required for the 50% dissociation is
(1) 10, (2) 103 (1 ) 3 Ke Qt 4 Ke

(3) 104 (4) 10 (3) 2 Kp (4) Ko
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Equilibrium 39
52. Which of the following mixture of solution act as 58. The pressure necessary to obtained 50%
buffer? dissociation of AXr(O) as AX2(9) 1> AX(g) +
(1) 150 ml of 0.1 M HCI and 5 ml of 3 M NH4OH X(g) at 250"C is numerically equal to
(2) 200 ml of 1 M CH3COOH and 40 ml of 5 M (1) Three times of Kp (2) Four times of Kp
NaOH (3) Eight times of K, (4) Six times of Kp
(3) 100 ml of 1.5 M HCOOH and 20 ml 4 M KOH 59. For the equilibrium reaction
(4) All of these
2NOBr(g) <-s 2NO(g) + Brz(g) if PB,. =;,
53. pH of which of the following salt solution does not
where P is totial pressure then PNss, will be
depend on concentration?
(1) CH3COONa (2) NH4CI (1)
3P (2) 6P
(3) NH4NO3 (4) NH4CN
T 9
54. What volume of water is added to 400 ml of HCI (3)

P
s
(4) 2P
e
solution so the pH of the solution increases by one
uniP
60. At temperature T K, PCls is 50% dissociated at an
equilibrium pressure of 4 atm. At what pressure it
(1) 360 ml (2) 1000 ml would dissociates to 80% at the same
(3) 600 ml (4) 3600 ml temperature?
(1) 0.75 atm (2) 0.50 atm
55. The equilibrium constant ke for the reaction
A 28 is related to degree of dissociation of (3) 0.60 atm (4) 2 atm
=
A is a and total pressure P is 61. Vapour density of N2O4 when heated to 100"C
becomes 24.5. lts degree of dissociation at this
(1) k"
. 4rl.P
k" is independent of pressure temperature is
=
t7, (1) 80% (21 87.75o/o
2c^2 .P (3) 40.34% (4) 60%
(2) kp = k, is directly proportional to
pressure -' 62. ll K1 and K2 are respective equilibrium constant
for the two reaction
(3) kp = kp is directly proportional to xeF6(g) + Hro(g) <:
f*, xeoF4(g)+2HF(g); K1
pressure
xeo4(g) + xeFu(g) <: xeoF4(g)+xeo3F2(g); lq
(4) kp = P' kp is directly proportional to The equilibrium constant for the reaction
#
pressure Xeo4(g) + zHr(g) <-: Xeo.F2(9) + Hzo(g) will
56. pH of 0.1 M CH3COONa solution is 12. Then the be
percentage hydrolysis will be K1
(1\ 1% (2) o.1o/o (l Ktr (2) K1K2
(3) 10% (4) 0.01% K1 K2

(3) l! (4)
57. An etement 'X'(s) melts at 271"c and has density C
of 9.73 g/ml as solid and 10.05 g/ml as a liquid at 63. For the equitibrium SOrCtr(g) <= SO2(S) +
this temperature for the equilibrium X(s) <= X(/) Cl2(g) volume is increased. When the equilibrium is
the melting point is favoured either by reestablished
(1) pressure
lncreasing temperature, decreasing (1) Amount of SOlg) will decrease
(2) Decreasing temperature, decreasing pressure (2) Amount of SOrCl2(g) will increase
(3) lncreasing temperature, increasing pressure (3) Amount of Clr(g) will increase
'\.(4) There is no effect of pressure on melting point (4) Amount of Cl2(g) will remain unchanged
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64 AGo for the reaction X + Y <-s Z is -4.606 kcal. 72. A white salt is readily soluble in water and gives
The equilibrium constant for the rcaction at 227oC a colourless solution with a pH of about 9. The salt
is nearly would be
(1) 100 (21 10 (1) NH4NO3 (2) CH.COONa

(3) 2 (4) 0.01 CH3COONH4
(3) (4) CaCOs
65 Which of the following is true at chemical 73. When CO2 is dissolved in water following
equilibrium? equilibrium is established COr+21"9 <+ H3O* +
(1) (AG)r HCO.- for which equilibrium constant is 3.8x'10-7

p is minimum and (AS)u, V is minimum
and pH = 6.0. The ratio [Hco3-ylcor] woutd be
(2) (AG)r v is minimum and (AS)u, V is maximum
('l) 3.8 x 10-13 (2) 3.8 x 10r
(3) (AG)r v is maximum and (AS)u, V is zero
(3) 6.0 (4) 13.4
(4) (AG)r , is zero and (AS)v, V is zero
74. The pH of a buffer solution containing equal molar
66 When the re.ritanls A and B are mixed to give concentration of a weak base and its chloride will
products C and D, the reaction quotient Q at the be (Kb for weak base = 2 x 10-5)
initial stage of reaction is
(1) 5 (2) e
('t) Zerc
(3\ 4.7 (4) s.3
(2) lndependent of time
75. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm the
(3) lncrease with time collected rain water will have a pH value
(4) Decrease with time (1) Slightly lower than that of rain water without
o/ At infinite dilution, the percentage ionisation for thunder storm
both strong and weak electrolytes is (2) Slightly higher than that when the thunder
(1) 1% (2) 20o/o storm is not there
(3) 50% (4) 100% (3) Uninfluenced by occunence of thunder storm
68 Which of the following can act both as Bronsted (4) Depend on the amount of dust in air
acid and Bronsted base in aqueous solution? 76. Mass loss of 1.0 g of the AgCl on repeated
(1) Na2CO. (2) OH- washing with 10L of water is (K", of AgCl = 1 .0
x 10-10 and Ag = tOa, Cl = 35.5)
(3) HCO3- (4) NH3
(1) 1.43 x 10 2 g (2) 1.23 x 1Q-t g
69 A compound NH2CH2COOH may behave
(3) 1 x 10{ S (4) 1.34 x 1O-3 g
(1) Only as an acid
77. pH oI a solution obtained on mixing 50 ml of
(2) Only as a base 0.'l M NaCN and 50 ml of 0.2 M HCt witt be (pKa
(3) Both as an acid and base for HCN = 9.40)
(4) Neither acid nor base (1) 1.00 (2) 9.40
70 To Ag2Croa solution over its own precipitate (3) 9.10 (4) 1.30
CrOl- ion are added. This results in 78. Equal volume of two solution having pH = 2 and
(1) lncrease in Ag* concentration pH = 10 are mixed together at 90oC then pH of
resulting solution [q at 90o = tg-tz1
(2) Decrease in Ag' concentration
(1)2+log2 (2) 10-log2
(3) lncrease in solubility
(3) 7 (4) 6
(4) lncrease in solubility product
79. The mrrect order of increasing solubility of AgCl
71 The K", of AgCl is 4.0 x 10-10 at 298 K. lts in A = water, B = 0.1 M NaCl, C = 0.'l M BaCl2
solubility in 0.04 M CaCl, will be and D = 0.1 M NH3 is
(1) 2.0 x 10{M (2) 1.0 x 10r M ('t) D>A>B>C (2) D>C>B>A
(3) 5 x 10-s M (4) 2.2 x 104 M (3) B>A>D>C (4) A>D>B>C
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80. A monoprotic acid undergo 40% dissociation in its 86. Which of the following reaction has minimum value
0.2 M aqueous solution. The approx. pH of solution of Kr/K"?
will be (1) Nr(s) + 3Hr(s) + 2NH3(s)
(11 2 (2) 1.7
(2) Pcls(g) PCl3 + Cl2(g)
(3) 1.53 (4) 1.1
(3) 2Hl(s)
=
H2(s) + lr(s)
81. ln the reaction =
(4) N2O4 (g) + 2NO2(g)
N2O4 + 2NO2
87. ln the reaction A(g) + 2B(9) * 2C(g) + 9191.
16"
On reducing the pressure the reaction shifts in initial concentration of B is twice of A and at
fon ard direction. This is because on reducing equilibrium the concentration of A and D are equal
pressure then the value of equilibrium constant is
(1) Q" increases while Kc remains constant (1) 4 (2) 16
(2) Qc decreases while lt remains constant (3\ 2 (41 1
(3) Qc remains constiant while lt decreases 88. When 100 ml 1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 50 ml of
(4) Qc remains constant while Kc increases 4 M NaOH solution. pH of resulting solution would
be
82. Which of the following aqueous solution will have
maximum value of \? (1) 6.05 (2) 8.10
(1) 1N Nacl (3) 7 (4) 6.20
(2) 1 M MsCl, 89. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.2 M NH4CI solution
will be (Ko for NH4OH is 1.8 x 10{)
(3) 1.5 N Arcrr
(4) All will have same value
(1) 5.27 x 10-s (2) 3.'10 x 10{
(3) 3.65 x 10-6 (4) 5.15 x 104
83. ln an aqueous solution of 1 L, when the reaction
2As-(aq) + cu(s) cu2t(aq1 + 2Ag(s) reaches
90. The value of equilibrium constant depends on
=-s
equilibrium [Cuz.1 = *y
and [Ag-] = yM. lf volume
(1) Pressure (2) Concentration
of solution is doubled by adding water then at (3) Temperature (4) All of these
equilibdum 91. When the volume of container is doubled then
which of the following equilibrium shifrs in the right
(1) tcu'z-l=;M; ton.t =I, direction?
(2) tcu'z.l>;M; Ion.l ,I* (1) 2SO,(S) + Oz(g) <l 2SOr(S)
(2) Nr(s) + 3H.(g) <=: 2NH,(s)

(3) tcu'ztl <;M; tAs-1 ,;
(3) N,O.(s) <----s 2NOr(s)
(4) tcu'z-l<;M; ton.t.l, (a) 2Ht(g) <:-s H,(s) + t,(s)
84. The molecular mass of PCl5 is 208.32 when it is 92. ln the following equilibrium
heated to 230oC it dissociates to extent of 68%.
The molecular mass of PCls at this temperature ^"lH.Hs (s) <- NH, (s) + Hrs (s)
willbe some more NH3 is added at constant temperature
(1) 100 (21 124 so that pa(ial pressure of NH3 at new equilibrium
becomes equal to the initial total pressure. Ratio
(3) 60 (4) 62
of Kp at new equilibrium and initial equilibrium is
85. Two solutions of equal volume
-in" of pH = 3 and (1) 2:1
pH = 5 are mixeo togetner. ptr'"i r'"*,i""i
solution will be nearly log 3 = 0.48, log 5 = 0.71 (21 4:1
(1' 4 (2) 2.7 (3) 1 : I
(3) 3 (4) 3.3 (4) 3:1
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99. l$ and Kc at equilibrium

The relation between
93. The pH at the equivalence point, when SO mr
S (1) K, = 11" 1P11-o" (2) l(c = Kp (RT)4"
HCOOH is neutralised uv so mt NaoH is (pK" K- K^
O =(nr)& (
-,,oq (a) (+) =(Rr[n
of HCOOH = 3.70)
100. The nature of 10-7 M HCI solution is
(1) 7.5 (2) 8.1e
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(3) 8.60 (4) e.26
(3) Neutral (4) Cannot define
94. Find the change in pH value of bufier solution when
101.25 ml of H, and 2O ml ol lrwas heated in a one
M litre vessel and at equilibrium 30 ml of Hl was
50 ml
, HCI is added to a buffer containing found. K" is
MM (1) 1.8
100 ml * CH3COOH and 100 ml , (2) 0.18
CH,COONa (9K. = 4.74, log 3 = 0.4771 )
(3) 18 (4) 0.018
(1) pH increases by 0.47 102. Which pair will show common ion efiect?
(2) pH decreases by 0.47 (1) BaCl2 +Ba(NOa)z (2) NaCl + HCI

(3) NH4OH + NH4CI (4) NaCN + KCN
(3) pH remain constant
'103. A 1 M monoprotic acid is 0.001% ionised. The
(4) pH increases by 1
dissociation constant of acid is
95. ln Ca(OH). solution (aqueous), the molar
concenlration of [OH-l is found to be x, the (1) t.OxtO' (2) 1.0x10{
solubility of Ca(OH). in moles/litre is (3) 1.0x10{ (4) 1.0x10-10
l1l (2) x
^x 104 Conjugate acid of 0H base is
(3) ;z (4) 4x
(1) Hz (21 H2O
(3) Fr (4) H3O.
96. Hydrolysis constant (l(l') of salt of weak acid and
105 The dissociation constant of acids HA, HB, HC and
weak base is given by
HD are 1.3x10'3, 1.8x10', 6.23x10' and
8.5x'10-8 respectively. The weakest acid among
rrl x, =* these
(1) HA (2) HB
(3) K. =
"
K*
K".Ku
t+r xn=# (3) rc (4) FD
106 On increasing temperature the value of Kw
97 ln the given equilibrium
(1) lncreases (2) Decreases
H2O(r) H2O (V)
= (3) Not affected (a) Both (1)& (2)
At 100oC the vapour pressure is 'l atm. lf the
107 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
volume of container is halved, after sometime the
vapour pressure becomes (assuming constant (1) pH of pure water at 50'C is non-zero
temperature) (2) pH of 1013 M HCI is less than 7 al25"C
(1 ) atm
1 .5 (2\ 2.5 atm (3) Addition of one drop of conc. HCI in NH4OH
(3) 2 atm (4) 'l atm solution decreases pH of the solution
(4) Equimolar mixture of HCN and NaOH solution
98. 0.01 M NH4OH is 50% neutralised by using HCI
has pH of 7
solution. The pH value of final solution will be
108 The nature of solution for salt of weak acid and
(PKnx- = 9 26)
strong base is
(1) 7.26 (2\ 6.74 (1) Acidic (2) Basic
(3) 4.74 (4\ 8.74 (3) Neutral (4) Both (1)& (2)
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) EqLrilibrium 43
109. Correct representation for the solubility product of 117. At 300 K, the degree of dissociation of 0.066 M
Hg2Cl2? solution of an acid HA is 0.0145. What would be
(1) IHgr'ltct-], the degree of dissociation of 0.02 M solution of the
(2) tHgrr-ltcl-12
(3) tHs.rt"'r, (4) rHs:rtcr-, :::1jj,::";"#:,fffi'g$::,:t'#J'"n
110. Which of the fo owing is nota buffer? (1) 0.026 (2) 0.42
(1) MCN/HCN (3) o.o1 (4) 0.85
(2) C6H5NH, /crHrrul.Cl i18. which sotution acts as buffer solution?
(3) Na.Poo/NarHPo. (1) 50 mr 0.1 M cH3cooH + 20 mr 0.1 M NaoH
(4) NH4oH/NaoH
e) zo mt o..t M cH3cooH + 50 mt 0.1 M NaoH
111. The solubility of AzB3 is x mol dm-3. lts solubility
(3) NH4CI + HCI
product is
(1) 61 Mxa (4) 20 ml 01 M NH4OH + 50 ml 0.1 M HCI
Q)
(3) 361 (4) 108xs 119. AB2(s) <- ee(S) + B(g). tf the initiat pressure
112. NaOH (aq), HCI (aq) and NaCt (aq) have is 500 mm Hg and total pressure at equilibrium is
conc€ntration of 1O-3 M each. Their pH will be 700 mm Hg. Kp for the reaction is
respectively (1) 500.25 (2) 200.65
(1) 10,6, 2 (21 11,3,7 (3) 133.3 (4) 100.50
(3) 10' 3' 7 (4) 10' 4' 7
120. tf pH of 0.1 M (NHo)rco3 sorution is x then pH of
113. ln the reactlon O.O1 M solution would be
lz + l- --> It the Lewis base is (1) More than x (2) Less than x
(1) l: (21 r (3) Equat to x (4) Data is not sufiicient
(3) 13 (4) Mixture of l, + 1- 121 The solubility product constants of Ag2cro4 and
sorubiritvof their
114. rhe v.D. of pcts is 104.25 bur when rreateo ro l:,::r?::ilJ:;li"tn"'ut'oof
230'C, its VD. is reduced to 62. The degree of
dissociation of PCI' at this temperature will be (1 ) 90 (2) 50
(1)6.8% (2) 680/0 (3) 60 (4) 70
(3) 46% (4) 64yo 122. A mixlure containing 100 ml of each 0.2 M
-56 kcal mol-1

'115. C2H4 + H2 C2H6, AH = H2SO4, 0.2 M HCI and 0.6 M NaOH, then pH of
= resulting solution would be
The equilibrium concentration of CrHu can be
increased by (1)6.5 (2) 7.5
(l ) temperature
lncreasing the (3) 7 (4) 5.60
(2) Decreasing the pressure 123. Fot three hypothetical reactions, equilibrium
(3) Addition of catalyst constants (K)
(4) Addition of CrHo A+B ; Kt=2

116.A+B=C B+C ; Kz=3
lf concentration of A increases 10 fold, then and D := C ; Kt=2
equilibrium constant K becomes Then a equilibrium constiant for D + A is
(1) 1oK tzr' *x

10
(1)3 (21 12
(3) 1oo K (4) K (3) o o83 (4) 0 33

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124. Which of the following is correct? 131. lq for the reaction A(g) + B(g) + C(g) is 3 at 400
(1) plq increases with increase in temperature K. ln an experiment x mol of A is mixed with
same number of mole of B in a I L vessel. At
(2) pK* does not depend on temperature
equilibrium 3 mol of C is formed. The value of x
(3) On adding an acid, Pl(* decreases will be
(4) On increasing temperature, pH of neutral (1) 2.5 (2) 3.s
water decreases
(3) 4.0 (4\ 4.5
'125. For KAI(SO4)2, the solubility is x, then K* is given
132. 3 ml of a strong acid solution of pH = 3 is mixed
by
with 2 ml of a strong base of pH = 11. What is
(1) 4t' (2'1 2x2 the pH of new solution? (log2 = 0.3010, log5 =
(3) x2 (4) 4x3 0.6990)
126. Following reaction mixtures are given (1) 7.0 (21 2.0
a. 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3coOH + 100 ml of (3) 3.7 (4) 4.5

0.1 M NaOH 133. ln the decomposition reaction of ammonia
b. 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 ml of 2NH3 + Nr(g)+ 3H2(g)
0.1 M NaOH
c. 100 ml of 0.1 M HCI + 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH 2 moles of NH3 are introduced in the vessel of
1 litre. At equilibrium, 1 mole NH3 was left. The
Select the mixtures which are the cases of value of Kc will be
hydrolysis of salt and buffer solution respectively
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.70
(1) a, b (2) b, a
(3) 2.6e (4\ 1.70
(3) a, c (4) c, a
134. The solubility of CaF, (K., = 3.4 x 10-11) in
127. Aweak acid HOx (K" = 10-s) forms a salt NaOX 0.1 M solution of NaF would be
(0.1 M) on reacting with caustic soda. The
degree of hydrolysis of NaOX is ('l) 3.4 x1011 (2) 3.4 x 10-14
(1) 0.01% (2) o.o0o1% (3) 3.4 x 1015 (4) 3.4 x 10-s
(3) 0.1% (4) O.svo 135. When 0.1 M, 100 ml of acetic acid is titrated
against 0.1 M, 50 ml of NaOH. The correct
128. lf Ag- + 2NH3+ [Ag(NH3)2]-, K = 6.06 x 10{ statement about the titration is
lAs(NH3)l' * NH: + [ns(NH3)21.'
the equilibrium constant = 1.7 x 10-3 then what [Given that pKa(CH.COOH) = 4.74 ]
would be equilibrium constant of following? (1) At the mid point of titration the pH of the
solution is 4.74
Ag' + NH3 tAg(NH3)].
=> (2) At the end of titration pH of the solution is less
(1)3.56 x 10-3 (2) 5.3 x 10-3
than 7
(3) 3.5 x 103 (4) 6.08 x 10-3
(3) lf 100 ml of NaOH is taken then solution will
129. The solubility of a salt A2B3 is 1x10-3 M. lts be basic
solubility product is
(4) All of these
(1)1.08 x 10-13 (2) 1.08 x 10-15
136. When 0.2 M, 100 ml of NH4OH and 0.2 M, 100
(3) 1 .08 x 'l0ro (4) 1 .08 x 10 17 ml of HCI is titrated. The pH of the solution at
130. One litre of water contains 10-7 mole of H* ions. 90'C is [Assuming that pK* at 90'C is 12 and
Degree of ionization of water is given that pKb(NH3) = 3.741?
(1) 1.8 x 10-7% (1) 4.63

(2) 0.8 x 10-e% (2) 5.63
(3) 3.6 x 10-s% (3) s.13
(4) 3.6 x 10-7% (4) 7
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Equ librlum 45
137. N2(g) + O2(S) -r 2NO(g) '145. Which of the following mixture will act as bufier
solution?
one mole of N2(s) and 1 mole of o2(g) is
allowed to react in a closed container. lf the (1) 100 ml of 1 M CH3COOH + 200 ml of 1 M NaOH
value of l(, is 5 x 10-31 at 25'C then the value (2) 100 ml of 'l M HCOOH + 100 ml of I M KOH
of Kp at 25'C will be
(3) 100 ml of 1 M HCN + 50 ml of I M NaOH
(1)2x 1030 (2) 5x 1031 (4) 100 ml of 'l M CH3COOH + 150 ml of 1 M
(3) 2 x 10-so (4) 5x l0r3l KOH
138. Equal volume of an acid (pH = 2) is mixed with 146. The solubility of Pb(OH)2 in water is 4 x 10-6 M,
a base (pH = 9). The pH of the resulting solution then solubility of Pb(OH)2 in the buffer solution of
will be pH=9
(1) 5.s (2) 11.7 (1) 2.56 x 10{ M (2) 1.25 t 10{ M
(3) 2.3 (4) 8.5 (3) 2.45 x 'l O-3 M (4) 5.6 x 10+ M
139. Number of [OH-l in 1 ml of solution having pH = 147. The vapour density of PCls at 200'C is found to
4 are be 60. The approx. percentage dissociation of
PCl" at this temperature would be (approx)
(1) 10-4 (2) 10ro
(1125% (2\ 45o/o
(3) 6.02 x 1023 (4) 6.02 x 1010
(3) 65% (4) 74o/o
140. The solubility of AgCl in 0.'l M NaCl solution is
(Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 x 10-10) 1a8. flra(5);-H2o(l)
(1) 2.5 x 10{ (2) 1.34 x 10i The above system is in equilibrium at certain
(3) 1.34 x 10{ (4) 1.8 x 10-e f#".sT#LH:;:ffi*,-:"ri#;ffi:;
141. The numerical value of equilibrium constant the following statement is conect?
changes with change in (1) Melting of ice decreases
(1) Concentration of reactants (2) Equilibrium wilt shifi towards teft
(2) Pressure (3) Formation of H2o(l) decreases
(3) Temperature (4) Metting of ice increases
(4) All of these 149. Which of the following reaction has Kp > Kc and
142. Solubility of Agcl is maximum in the value of equilibrium constant increases with
increase in temperature?
(1) Water (2) Ammonia
(3) Ho (4) AgNo3 (1 ) H2(g) + l2(g)i-2Hl(s)
143. ln the hydrolysis of CH3COONH4, which of the (2) PCts(S).-PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)
following statement is conect?
(1) only anion undergoes hydrolysis (3) 2No2(g)i- N2o4(g)
(2) Only cation undergoes hydrolysis (4) N2(S) + 3H2(S)r- A'lHs(S)

(3) Both cation and anion undergoes hydrolysis 150. The conect statement among the following is
(a) pH of solution increases with increase in (1) Buffer capacity of acidic buffer is minimum
dilution when [Acid] = [Salt]
144. 4 g NaOH is dissotved in 1oo ml water and (2) The degree of hydrolysis of salt of weak acid
resulting
treated with 20 ml of 1 M HCI then pH of and weak base depends on concentration
solution is (log 2 = 0.301, log 3 = 0.477) (3) At certain temperature pH of water is 6 and
(1)9.56(2)ll.2satthistemperaturewaterisacidicinnature
(3)6.50(4)13.9s(4)pHofwateristemperaturedependent
156. For which of the following solution pH will be less
151. CH3COCH3('):CH3CH3(') +CO(s) than 7?
lnitial pressure of CH3COCH3 is 100 mm. When (1) 0.5 M (NH4 )2SO4
(2) 0 1 r\4 HCt

equilibrium is set up mole fraction of CO(g) is
I ,
(3) 100 ml 0.1 l!4 CH3COOH and 50 mt of 0.1 M
hence
\ is NaOH
(1) 100mm (2) 50 mm (4) All of these
(3) 25 mm (4) 150 mm 157. Which of the following anion is lhe weakest base?
152. Hg"Clr(s) forms a saturated aq. solution hence
solubility product expression for solution is
(1) c2H50 (2) NO3
(1) Ksp =[Hs+]2[cr-]2 (2) K,p = tHsS+lrcr ,' ,,uu. i?Ji'"r" o" ,"".,.o,1,?.?ft"oo
(3) Ksp = [Hg+]2tclrl (4) K"p = tHsrnltcl, j2 (1) Distilled water (2) 0 1 M Hcl
(3) 0.1 M CaCl2 (4) 0.1 M NaCt
153. some solid NHaHS is placed in a flask containing i59.
0.5 atm of NH3. Upon heating following equilibrium The solubility of A(oH). is x mol L_r. lts Ksp
vatue is
is attained and the pressure of HrS found to be
0.2 atm (1)gx3 e) 31
(3\27f (4) et'
NH4HS(s):NHslsy H2S1ry
+ 160. At 25"C, the dissociation constant of base BOH
then totar pressure deveroped at equiribrium i"
i" 1 0 x '10-10 The concentration of oH- in
0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be
(1) 0.9 atm (2) 0.67 atm (t) 1 x L-1
10-5 mot (2) 1.0 x 10a mot L_j
(3) 0.17 atm (4) 0.50 atm (3) 2.0 x 10{ mot Lj (4) 1.0 x .t0_7 mot L_l
'154. 6 moles of A were mixed with 4 moles of B in a
161. pH of which of the following salt solution does not
5 litre container. At equilibrium, the reaction depend on concentration?
mixture was found to contain 4 moles of C
(1) NH4CI
according to the reaction
(2) (NH4)2CO3
2A1ny + Blny -- -----r 2c(s) * D(s)
(3) (NH4)2so4
The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction is (a) All of these
(1)0.2 j62. A buffer solution of pH 9 can be prepared by
(21 4.0 mixing
(3) 0.5 (1) CH.COONa & CH3COOH

(4) 5.0 (2) NaCl & NaOH
155. The oxidation of SO2 to SO. is an exothermic (3) NH4CI & NH4OH
reaction. The yield to SO3 will be maximum it (a) KH2PO4 & K2HPO4
(1) Temperature is increased and pressure is kept 163. At 90'C, pure water has
constant (1) Kw > 10-14
(2) Temperature is reduced and pressure is
increased (2) [H3o+] > 1o-7mot L l
(3) Both temperature and pressure are increased
(3) [H3o]+ = [oH-]
(4) Both temperature and pressure are
decreased (4) All of these
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164. To make a solution oI pH = 12, the amount of 173. CO2 forms carbonic acid with water, which is a
NaOH dissolved in one litre of the solution should weak dibasic acid and dissociates in two steps :
be
(1) 0.1 g (2) 0.2 s
H2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) <+
HCO3 (aq) + H3O+ (aq).. ...K"r
(3) 0.a g (4) 1.2 s
165. The equilibrium constant of reaction is afiected by HCO3 (aq) +HrO(l) 1i
(1) Temperature (2) Catalyst co32-(aq) + H3o
*(aq) ....K":
Pressure
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
The correct relationship [stween K., and K.,
'166. N, + 3H,
= 2NH. Kr = x
(1) Ka, > Ka, (2) K", . K",
uu. = + 1n" Kz= ?
]n. 2' (3) K", = K", (4) Ka, < < < Ka,
(1) K. =1 @ K"=+ fi4. Tne numerical value of equilibrium constant

depends on
(3) K2 = x2 (4) K, =+ (1) Temperature
167. For whose ionisation, equilibrium constant is (2) Pressure
highest? (3) Concentration of reactant
(1) Hl (2) HBr (4) All of these
(3) Hcr (4) HF
175. For the reaction
168. 2Hl i-H2+1, lor 22% dissociation what Fe+3 + SCN-(aq).- tFe(ScN)12+(aq)
Yellow colourless deep red
would be value of equilibnum constiant?
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.0198 lf oxalic acid is added to above equilibrium
reaction then
(3) 0.5 (4) 1.2527
(1) Equilibrium remains undisturbed' no change in
169. Which does not form conjugate base? the intensity of colour
(1) HS- (2) HPO32- (2) lntensity of red colour increases
(3) H3PO2 (4) H3O. (3) lntensity of red colour decreases
2NH3 the production of NH3 can (4) lt becomes colourless

170. f.,1, 1 lH, .-
be lowered by 176. Solubility (S) of the PbCl2 is given by if the
solubility Product is Kse
(1) High temperature and low pressure
(2) Low temperature and high pressure 1/3
(3) Low temperature and low pressure (1)S=vk; ,r, t=[?)

(4) High temperature and high pressure
171. O.o1 M (HA) is 2% ionised the OH- ion
'-'-s=f[,"]"u s=f!1]"'
concentration (3) (o)
(1)2 x 10.4 (2) 5 x 10-11 [ 108.J 6e12
\ J
(3) 5 ,. t0-rz (4) 10-8 177. Degree of hydrolysis of which of the following salt
172. Which of the following is bufier? is independent of concentration of solution?
(1) NH4OH + NH4CI (1) NHIC|
(2) HCN + NaCN (2) NH4CN
(3) CH3COOH (aq) + CH3COO- (aq) (3) (NH4)2SO4
(4) All of these (4) All of these
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178. Which of the following is basic buffer? 185. The value of the reaction quotient before any
reaction occurs is
(1) CH3COO- + CH3COOH
(1) - (2) 0
(2) NHi + NHs (aq) (3) -1 (4) 1
'186. Calculate the number of Ho present in 1 ml of

(3) cN- + HcN a solution whose pH is 4 (No = Avogadro's
(4) All of these number)
179. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid? (1) 10-7NA (2) 1O-8NA
(1) BF3 (3) '10-16 NA (4) 1Or4 NA
(2) AtCt3
(3) CCl4 (4) 187. A certain buffer solulion contains equal
BeCl2
concentrations of X- and HX the lq for X- is 10-8.
180. The value of Kp varies with The pOH of the bufier is
(1)P e) r (1) 8 (2) 6
(3) c (4) Both (i ) & (2) (3) 14 (4) e
181.
N.N 188. pH of 10 M HCI (aq) is
, 200 cc CH3COOH was mixed with
10 * ,
(1)-1 (2) 10
100 cc NaOH. What would be pH of the solution? (3) 0 (4) 6
(1) pK" of CH.COOH '189. What is the pH of 0.2 M HrS if the Ka vatues of
(2) pKb of CH3COONa HrS to HSr and HS 1 to S-2 are 10{ and 10-12
respectively? (log 2 = 0.301)
1
(3) pK" of CH3COOH (1) 1.85
, (2) 2.85
,| (3) 4 (4\ 2
(4) pKo of CH.COONa
, 190. At equilibrium, K, = 1 then the value of AG" will
182. 4Oo/o N2Oa molecules are dissociated in a sample be equal to
of gas at 27"C and 1 atm pressure, the density (1) 10 (2) 100
of the equilibrium mixture is
(3) 0 (4) 1
(1) 3.1 s/L (2) 6.2 gtL
'191 . The following equilibrium constant are given
(3) 2.67 gtt (4) 18.6 s/L
183. The dissociation of solid NH4HS in a closed
N2 + 3H2:2NH3, Kj
container produces a pressure of 4 atm at gS.C, N2 + 02 ::f 2NO, K2
then Ko for the reaction is 1
H2 + -02 i-H2O, K3
NHaHS(s)i- NH: (g) * HzS(g)
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of
(1)4 (2\ I 2 mole NH, by oxygen to NO is
(3) 16 (4) 5
K.K. K"KI
184. The rate of the elementary reaction at 25.C (1)ta (2) -7:
Nz + 3Hz -- r2NH. is given by ,^, KrK3 . _. K3K3
(3) K (4)
tate = 4 ' 10'" [Nz][Hz] the rate of K
decomposition of gaseous NH3 to N2 and H2 at 192. Which of the following is Lewis acid?
25'C is given by rate = 8 x 10 20 [NH3]2. Then (t ) CO,
equilibrium constant for the formation of
-. .NH. ".
.. .r at
(2) SjCt4
25"C is
(1)5 x 1oa (2) 105 G) znz.
(4) All of these
(3) 7 x 1oa (4) 1oo
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193. For the reaction in equilibrium, 200. MX(sh- M* (aq) + X-(aq); AG" = 57 kJ
2NOCI(g):2NO(g)+Clr(g) Ksp for the reaction is

(1) 10-5 (2) 10-6
ll P", =29 atm, when inilial pressure of NOCI is (3) to,ro (4) to_re
80 atm, then total pressure at equilibriumi" 201. How many mol of HCI in iO L water would
('l) 70 atm (2) 90 atm produce solution having pH = 1?
(3) loo atm (4) 85 atm (1) I (2) 10

194. CusO4solution is acidic due to (3) 0'1 (4) 0'01
(1) Anionic hydrolysis 202. What is pOH of a buffer solution containing
0'04 moles of acetic acid and 0-4 moles of
(2) Cationic hydrorysis potassium acetate? Ka for acetic acid is 10{
(3) Both cationic and anionic hydrolysis (1) 6 (2) 8
(4) No hydrolysis (3) 11 (4) 3
195. Aqueous solution contains SCN-, Br, l- and Cl- 203. A is an aqueous weak acid, B is an aqueous
ions of equimolar concentration. On adding weak base. They are diluted separately, then
AgNO3 we shourd first expect precipitation of
(1) pH of A and B decreases
Given: G of AgCt -- 1.2 , 10-io (2) pH of A and B increases
K* of AgBr = 3.5 x 10-13 (3) pH ofA increases and B decreases
K* of Agl = 1.7 x 10-16 (4) pH of A decreases and B increases
K* of AgSCN = 7.1 10-13
x 2M. NaHCOs decomposes as:
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr hbFtco. (s) < - NE@3 (s) + co, (S) * Ft O (S)
(3) Agl (4) AgScN The totat pressure is 2.04 atm. The Kp for the
196. M(OH), has Kse = 2.56 x 10-13 and solubility in reaction is
water is 10-3 mol/1. Calculate the value of x. (1) .04 atm
1 (2) 4.08 atm
(1) 3 (21 4 (3) 0.52 atm (4) 6.86 atm
(3) 2 (4) 1 205. At some elevated temperature value of Kw is
.197. pH of 0.005 M HCOOH (Ka 2 x 10d) is equal '10-10 if any solution has [H'] = 16-z ,, ,n,.
=
to ' temperature, solution is
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(1) 3 .(2) 4
(3) Neutral (4) Can't be predicted
(3) 2 (4) 5
206. lf Nr+3H, +2NH3, K. = K, then value of
1s8. For co2(s)+c(s)i-2co(s) th6 ratio or
equilibrium -':ilt:fi,:xT:"
I
= ,r, ,a. (2) 1tK2
(1) Rr (2) (Rr)-l (3) 1/K3 (4) ltK
(3) RT-l (4) RT2 207. The solubilaty products of Al(oH)3 and zn(oH)2
are 8.5 x 10-23 and 1.8 x10-14 respectively. lf
199. H, r-2Hl ; K" = 4. lf 2 mol of each
+12 NH4OH is added to a solution containing Al3* and
reactant are anested in a vessel of one dm3 then Zn2* ions, the substance precipitated first is
how many mol of Hl are expected at equilibrium? (1) A(OH)3
(1) 2 mol (2) 'l mol (21zn(OHl2
1
/?l - mol
1
Ial - mol
(3) Both together
'-' 2 " 4 (4) No one can precipitate
m*
208. A 0.1 N solution of an acid at room temperature 215 When Ss is heated to 950 K, at equilibrium the
has a degree of ionisation 0.1. The concentration pressure of S, falls by 30% form 1 atm because
of OH- would be some of the S, is converted to 52. The value of
M
(1) 10-12 (2) 1Q-tr y equilibrium constant kp for this reaction is
(3) 10-s M (4) 10, M (1) 2.6 (2) 3.45

209. The pH of 'lF M aqueous solution of HCI is (3) 2.e6 (4) 1.57
(1) s (2) 8 2',t6 What concentration of HCOO- is present in a

solution of 0.02 M HCOOH and 0.04 M HCt?
(3)Between6&7 (4) Between 7 & 8
[K" for HCOOH is 2.4x1F]
210. How much sodium acetate should be added to a
0.1 M solution of CH3COOH to give a solution of (112.4x10'5 (21 1.2x1f
pH = 5.5?(pK" of CH.COOH = 4.5) (3) 2.8 x 10r (4) 1.2 x 1O-5
(1)0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
217 co (s) + H,o (s)rcq (g) + H, (s) at
(3) 1 .0 M (4) 10.0 M
800 K.
211. The principal buffer present in human blood
The value of K" is 4.41. The equilibrium
(1) NaH2POa + Na2HPO4 concentrations of CO2 and CO will be (if reaction
(2) H3PO4 + NaHzPOn is started with 0.1 M of each reactant)
(3) Na2HPO4 + NarPOr (1) tCOrl = 0.067 M, [Col = 9.s33 ,

(4) H2CO3 + HCOt (2) [Cor] = 0.033 M, [co1 = g.sra ,
(3) [co2] = 0.067 M, [Co1 = s.s67 ,
212. How much volume of !5 f.laOH are required to (4) [corl = 0.0s M, [co1 = 9.s5 ,
neutralise CH3COOH which is obtained from the 218 The species HrO, HCO;, HSO4- and NH, can
hydrolysis of 4.4 g CH.COOCTHT? (Degree of act both as Bronsted acids and bases. Find the
hydrolysis of salt is 'l ) incorrect match of conjugate acid and conjugate
base
('l ) 1000 ml (2) 7s0 ml
(3) 500 ml (4) 250 ml
Species Conjugate acid Conjugate
base
213. 2oo mt 1! 661 is mixed with t sO mt ! NaoH

(1) H2O H3O * OH-
10 5 (2) HCO3- H2CO3CO32-
and the resulting solution is made upto 1 litre. The
(3) HSO' SO42- H2SO4
pH of the solution will be
(4) NH3 NH4. NHt
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 6 (4\ 2 219. The ionisation constant of nitrous acid is
4.0 x 10r. The pH of 0.04 M sodium nitrite
214. 7 moles H2, 3 moles 12 and 'l mole of Hl are solution is
taken in 1 litre container. At equilibrium, 3 moles
of Hl are present. The value of K" for the (1) 7 (2) 9.5
reaction, (3) 4.5 (4) 8.0
220. Which of the following salt solution will have
H2(g)+ 12(g).- 2Hl(g) is lowest pH?
(1) CH3COONa
o+ (2) 0.s
(2) NaCl
(3) Na2CO3
(3) l:4) 1 (4) NH4NO3
a
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221. l1 CO2@) is added to the following reaction at 227. Kse of AgCl = 1.8 x 10 10. lt will be most soluble
equilibrium in aqueous solution of
CaCO.(s) i- Caqs) + COz(g) then (1) AgNo3 (2) NaCl

(3) H2O (4) CaCl2
(1) Pressure of CO2 will increase
228. ln which of the salt, cation and anion both will
(2) Ke increases
undergo hydrolysis?
(3) Partial pressure of CO2 remains same
(1) CH3COONa (2) NaCl
(a) Both (1) & (2)
(3) NH4C| (4) CH3COONH4
222. Fot a reaction in equilibrium A(S) i- 2B(S), 229. Equilibrium constants of following reactions are
initial pressure of A(g) = 1 atm, and the pressure given below
of A(g) is equal to that of B(g) at equilibrium. The
value of K, will be A+8.-C; K,
,|
2
(1) 2 c. -D; K2
5 a
4 The equilibrium constant of following reaction
(3) 1 4
5
223. lf pH of pure water is 6, then it may ln*1a .- is K3 and it is equal to
be
22 1o
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral at 25oC (1)K' x q (2)
1
K1"K2
(3) Neutrat at higher temperature
(4) Basic
(3) JKl x K2 (4)
K
224. whicn of the following can act as Bronsted acid {G
H2so4
and base both?
(1)
*' ilTff#;lii,lill'"h?fl^'":"i#Hffil:
(2) sol- 2Brcl(g). -Br2(s)+ct2(s); Kc = 32
(3) HPo:- 5',:':f'yi#.';f;1:',1ffi:L"J;#ffiHfi1

the mixture at equilibrium
(4) H2PO;
(1) 1.1 10Jmol
'( Lr (2) 3, 10.4 mol L-i
225. Which of the following mixture will have pH = (3) 2 2 x 10r mol
pKa? (consider the volume is same for all
L-1 (4) 2 x 1fi5 mol 1-t
belo\,\r)
solutions given 231. Fot the following three reactions 1 , 2 and 3
equilibrium constanb are given
(1) 3 M Hcl + 3 M cH3cooH
(2) 2 M cH3CooH + 2 M CH3CooNa (a) co(s)+H2o(S);-Co2(g)+Hr(g);Kt
(3) 4 M CH3COOH + 2 M CH3COONa (b) CH4(g)+H2O(s)i-CO(g)+3Hz(s);q
(4) 1 M cH3cooH + 2 M cH3cooNa (c) cHl(s)+ 2H2o(o). K3
-cor1g1+4H2(g);
226- gH of an acidic bufier is 5.7 and pKa is 5 then the which of the following relations is conect?
. _ [Salt] is
ratio of (1) K,K.K, =
ffi 1
(1) 3 (2) K$12 =Ks

(2\ 4
(3) K. = K, x t<,
(3) 5
(4) 6 $) \=Ktr({2
232 Le Chatelier's principle is not applicable to 239. Which of the following is considered as Bronsted
acid but not as Lewis acid ?
(1) Fe(s)+ S(s):FeS(s)
Ar3o
('r ) (2) BF3
(2) Hz(s)+ lz(s).- 2Hl(g)
(3) NH4e (q zn2o
(3) Nz(s) + 3Hz(s)r-zNHr1g1
240. The dipole moment of HBr is 1.6 x 1N Cm and
(a) N2(s) + 02(s):2No(s) bond-length is 14. The percentage ionic
character of HBr is
IJJ A solution with pH-2.0 is more acidic than the one
with pH-6.0 by a factor of (1) s% (2) loyo
(1) 3 (2\ 4 (31 1o/o (41 2oo/o
(3) 10,00 (4) 10,000 241. On adding NHaCI to NH4OH solution the pH of
234 The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic due to the solution will
(1) Acidic impurities (2) lonisation (1 ) lncrease

(3) Hydrolysis (4) Dissociation (2) Decrease
235 For the reaction, (3) Remains same
CO(g) + Clr(g)i- COC12(g) (4) Either increase or decrease

242. Whal will be the pH of 10-2 M CH3COONH4
Kc is equal to
V solution, if Ka(CH3COOH) = Kb(NH4OH) ?
(1) I (2) Rr
(1].2 (2\ 12
(3) 7
1
(3) JRr (4) (41 4
Rr
236 lf 1 M CH3COONa is added to 1 M CH3COOH 243. Consider the following two reaclions :
(1) pH of the solution increases

(2) pH decreases
No(s) +
;or(s) i- No2(s); K1 = 4 x 1o-3
(3) pH does not change 2Nor(g) i- 2No(g) + o2(s); K2 = ?

(4) Cannot be predicted lf K1 and K2 are equilibrium constants, what will
lf kc for the reactions are given as be the value of K2 ?
A+B : C; Kl (1) 6.25 104 x (2) 2.5 x 102

(3) 4 x tO-e (4) 1.6 x 102
C+D i-' 2E; K2 244. 2 mol CO, is passed over red hot charcoal. Find
the number of moles of gaseous product and
then kc of the reaction reactant at equilibrium il 25%, COz is reduced in
the reaclion
E
1A*18*1D
222 (1) '1.5 mole CO, and '1 mole CO
will be (2) 'l mole CO, and 1 mole CO

(3) 1 mole CO, and 1.5 mole CO
(1) .,kr x& (2) (K, x K, )2
(4) 1.5 mole CO2 and 1.5 mole CO
IK; 245. Lewis acid among the following is
(3)
K, xK,
(4)
{G o
NH,
238. For a weak acid degree of dissociation is 0.5,
then find its 'Ka' if concentration is 0.1 M
(1) 2.5 , x 10 \21 1
(1) cr ,r,
@
(3) SiCl. (4 r CH .COOH
(3\1.25,102 (4)5x102 e
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246. Pbl2 has maximum solubility in 253. Which of the following cannot form its conjugate
base in aqueous medium?
(1) 0.1 M PbCl2 (2) 0.1 M Kl
(3) 0.01 M Cal2 (4) 0.01 M Nal (1) H2PO; (2) HrPO,
247. ll K.of the reaction, X(g)+Y(g):Z(g) is'3'.
lf 'a' mole of X and Y each are taken in a 1 L
(3) H, PO, (4) All of these
vessel initially and at equilibrium number of moles 254. 50 mL of 0.2 N HCI solution is added to 50 mL of
ol Z are '3' . The value of 'a' should be 0.1 N NaOH solution, pH of mixture will be
(1) 4.0 (2) 4.5 (1) 1.3
(3) 2.s (4) 3.s (2) 2.7
248. For the equilibrium, PCl.,n,:PCl.,n, +Clr,r, (3) 11.7
lf D is the molar vapour density before (4) 11.2

dissociation and d is the observed vapour density
255. Which of the following will favour the formation of
at equilibrium, and the plot of degree of ammonia in Haber's process?
o and the ratio D/d is given below.
dissociation
The value of D/d at A is (o = degree of l. lncrease in temperature
dissociation) ll. lncrease in pressure
lll. Addition of catalyst
(I lV. lncrease in concentration of N, gas
(1) r& [ (2) ll & lll
(3) r, il & lll (4) ll, lll & lv
----5/d-
(1)o sEcnoN - B
el; Assertion - Reason TYPe Questions
3 ..
(4) ln tt, l following questions, a statement of assertion
1zt i 1

249. The solubility of calcium fluoride in saturated
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are lrue and the
solution, if its solubility product is 3.2 ' l0-11, is
reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)2.0 x 1f M (2) 12.0 x 10r M assertion, then mark (1).
(3) 0.2 x 10r M (4) 2.0 x 10-3 M (2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
250. lf the solubility of Zr.(POo)a (s) is S, then the reason is not the correct explanation of the
expression for solubility product will be assertion, then mark (2).
(1) 12 57 (2) 108 35 (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) 576 57 (4) 6912 57 false. then mark (3).
251. Which of the following is mismatched? (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
(l)Milk : PH =6.8
(2) Gastric .iuice : PH = 11.2
1. A : Aqueous solution of CH3COOH and
CH3COONa shows PH > 7.
(3) Human blood : PH = 7.4
(4) Human saliva : R: The phenomenon is attributed to cationic
PH = 6 4
hydrolysis.
252. 1OO ml of 0.2 N HCI is added to 100 ml of
0.18 N NaOH and the whole volume is made one 2. A: pK^ value of acetic acid is lower than that of
litre. The pH of resulting solution is phenol.
(1\ 2.2 (2) 1.3 R : Resonance stabilization of phenoxide is more

(3\ 2.7 (4) 4.50 than acetate ion.
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${ Equilibrium Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
3 A : lf an inert gas is added to a dissociation rncreases.
equilibrium keeping pressure constant the 't2. A For a reaction, concentration quotient (Q) is
dissociation increases.
equal to K when the reaction is in equilibrium.
R: lnert gas exerts its own pressure in the R lf a catalyst is added to the reaction at
vessel.
equilibrium, lhe value of Q remains no longer
4 A : pH of boiling water is 6.6. This means that equal to K.
boiling water is not neutral.
13. A Equilibrium constant of a reaction changes on
R : H* ion conc in boiling water decreases changing the stoichiometric mefflcients of the
because some water boils off. reaction.
5 A : pH of a buffer solution changes with change in
temperature. R : The reaction, 2NO2(g)i- N2Oa (g)
R: K*, of water and dissociation constant

1
(Ka & Kb) change with change in temperature. and Noz(9)r-
iNroo(s) have same
6 A : HrO,",
-- H2O(t): the increase in pressure
equilibrium @nstant.
decreases the melting point of ice.
14. A The aqueous solution of CH3COONa is alkaline
R : The above equilibrium exist only at melting
point of ice. in nature.
7 A: A catalyst does not influence the values of R Sodium acetate undergoes cationic hydrolysis.
equilibrium constant.
15. A H2SOa mainly dissociates into He and HSO| )
R : Catalyst influence the rate of both foMard and in aqueous solution.

backward reaction equally.
R K,, of HrSOo is very large than Karof H2SO4.
8 A: pH value of 1L, lM H2SO4 + 1L, 1M NaOH
would be equal to 7. 16. A At equilibrium Kc = Q".
R : N of H2SOa would be lesser than NaOH. R When Kc > Qc, the reaction mainly goes In
forward direction.
9 A: pH of salt solution of weak acid and weak
17. A pH of NH4CN solution is independent of
base is independent of concentration of
concentration.
solution.
R It is anionic hydrolysis.
R Oegree of hydrolysis of such salt solution is
independent of concenlration. 18. A A buffer solution has a capacity to resist the
change in pH value on addition of small amount
10. A The reaction for which An = 0 no effect of
of acid or base to it.
pressure on equilibrium.
R pH value of buffer solution does not change on
R Change of pressure results in no change in the
value of equilibrium constant. dilution or on keeping for long.
11. A pH of solution of CHTCOOH increases upon 19. A H- acts as both Bronsted Lowry base as well
addition of CH3COONa. as Lewis base.
R On dilution, degree of ionisation of CH.COOH R It acts as both Ho acceptor and lone pair
donor.
D tr o
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Chapter 4
Electrochemistry
SECTION . A
6. lf for cell, AH of reaction is - 285.8 kJ/mol,
ELrr = 1.zs V. Thermodynamic efficiency of fuel
cell is (n = 2)
10 g of a fairly conc. solution of CuSOo is (1) 50% (2) 83%
electrolysed using 0.0'l landay ot electricity. The
(31 41vo (4) 75%
weight of solution after electrolysis
7. Product of electrolysis of aqueous CuCl, using
(1) e.6 s (2) 10 s
platinum electrode at anode and cathode
(3) 9.75 s (4) 0.39 s respectively is
2 A half cell consist of a strip of cobalt dipped into (1) Cl, and Cu
a 1 M solution of Co2'. lf ammonium hydroxide is (2) O, and Cu
added to the half cell, then what will be effect on (3) 02 and H2
the emf of the cell? (E!o:.,"" = -0.277 Vl
(4) Cu2. comes into solution and Cu at cathode
(1) lncreases
8. Which of the following solution can be safely
(2) Decreases stored in copper vessel?
(3) Remains unchanged 11) ZnSOo (2) A9NO3
(4) Cannot be predicted (3) FeSoo (4) Both (1) & (3)
3 The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be 9. A galvanic cell is conslructed by chromium
negative if electrode dipped in 0.1 M Cr2(SO4)3 and silver
electrode dipped in 0.1 M AgNO.. lf resulting cell
(1) Px, ='l atm and tH.l = 1 M is feasible, then its emf would be approximately
(21 Pa, = 2 atm and IH.l = 2 M
lE!,,,,". = -0'74 V, Ein-,on = O.a V1
(3) Pn, = 6 atm and tH-l = 3 u
(1) 1.s0 v (2) 3.09 v
(a) Px, = 1 atm and tHtl = 2 M (3) 0.2s v (4) 4.70 V
4 The value of equilibrium constant for a feasible 10. ln the electrolysis of H2O, 11.2 litre of H2 was
reaction is liberated at cathode at NTP How much 02 will be
(1).1 (2\ Zero liberated at anode under the same condition?
(3)=t (4)>1 (1) 11.2L (2) 5.6 L
5 The ionisation constant of a weak electrolyte (HA) (3) 22.4 t (4) 16.8 L
is 36 x 10j while the equivalent conductance of 11. lf the pressure of hydrogen gas is increased
its 100 M solution is 20.4 Q-1cm2eq-1. The from 1 atm to 100 atm, keeping the hydrogen ion
equivalent conductance of the electrolyte at infinite concentration constant at 1 M, the voltage of the
dilution will be hydrogen half cell at 25'C will be
(1) 3.4 x '103 (21 3.4 x 102 (1) 0.0295 v (2) -O.029s V
(3) 10OO (4) 5 x 10-2 (3) -0.059 v (4) 0.059 V
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56 Electrochemistry Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
12. The correct order of equivalent conductance at 20. 4 moles of electrons were transfened from anode
infinite dilution of NaCl, KCl, RbCl is to cathode in an experiment on electrolysis of
(1) NaCl > KCI > RbCl (2) RbCl > KCI > NaCl water. The total volume of the pure gases (at
STP) produced will be approximately
(3) NaCl > RbCl > KCI (4) KCI > NaCl > RbCl
(1\ 22.4 t (2) %.8 L
13 I g aluminium (Atomic weaght 27) is deposited
(3) 56.2 L (41 67.2 L
from aq. solution of its salt at cathode by passing
certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of 21. The volume of H2 gas at NTP obtained by passing
chlorine produced at S.T.P by the same quantity 4 A through acidified H2O for 1930 second is
of charge will be (1) 0.896 L (2) 89.6 L
(11 22.4 L (21 11.2 L (3) 214.8 L (4) 0.0448 L
(3) 5.6 L (4) 44.8 L 22. Chemically, rust of iron is
14 lf standard reduction potential of Cu2*/Cu and (1) Hydrated fenous oxide
Cu2*/Cu*1 is x and y respectively, then standard
(2) Hydrated ferric oxide
electrode potential of Cu'/Cu becomes
(3) Only ferric oxide
(1) x-y (21 2(x-y)
(4) A mixture of fenic oxide with a litfle of Fe(OH).
(3) 2x-y (41 2x+y
23. ff E, 0.34 . (i)
A.2/A =
lf Afl for BaClr, NaOH and NaCl are p, q and
B.3/B = -1.66 (ii)
r C) 1cm2 mol-l respectively, the equivalent
conductivity of Ba(OH), at infinite dilution is ctc- = 2.87 ... (iii)
Dt2lD -- 4.44 ...(iv)

(1)p+q-r (2\ o+q_r
2 Conect order of reactivity is
o+2o-2r (1) (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i) (2) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(3) ---;- (4) p + 2q - zr
(3) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (4) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv)
16. Number of Faraday's required for conversion of 24. 1 mole of following solutions are electrolysed
one mole of KMnOo according to the following completely
reaction
Alr(SO.)3 (molten), Bi,(SOr)3 (molten), CuSq (aq),
KMnO4 , K2MnOa +MnO2 +O2 AgrSO. (aq)
(1)8F - (2) 6F Ratio of charge required is
(3) 4F (4\ 2r (1) 3F:3F:2F:2F (2) 6F:6F :2F:2F
17. Passage of 3F of charge through aqueous solution (3) 3F : 3F : 4F :4F (4) 6F : 6F :1F :1F
of AgNO3, CuSOo, Al(NO.). and NaCl respectively 25. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode at
will deposite the metals in the ratio (molar) pH = 10 and PH, = I ,.
(1) 1 :2:3:
1 6:3:2:6 "1,
(2) (1) 0.50 v (2) 0.00 v
(3)6:3:0:0 (4)3:2:1:O (3) + 0.59 v (4) 0.059 v
'18. For which of the following electrolyte the value of 26. When 96500 coulomb of electricity is passed
Am and Aeq are same? through acidified water during electrolysis then
(1) KNo3 (2) Ba(oH), which of the following is correct?
(3) FeCl. (4) Alr(SO4)3 (1)

1
mole of Hz at cathode
19. A solution of NarSOo ts electrolysed using Pt
Z
electrodes. The products at the cathode and (2) 5.6 litre 02 at anode at STP
anode are respectively 1
(3) mole of O,
(1) 02, H2 (2') H2, 02 A
(3) Na, SO, (4) H2, SO2 (4) All of these
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Last Leap for NEET (PartJ) Electrochemistry 57
27. 1 mole of AgrSOl solution is electrolysed by 34. ln the electrolysis of copper chloride solution using
passing a current of 1 amp for 965 s Moles of Ag- copper electrodes, the mass of cathode increases
left after electrolysis is by 3.175 g. At the anode,
(1) 0.99 (2) 1.98 (1) 560 ml of O, at STP witt be liberated
(3) 1.99 (4) 1.50 (2) 112 ml of Cl2 will liberate
28. The resistance of solution A is 100 O and (3) 3.2 mol of copper metal will dissolve
resistance of solution I is 200 Q in same
(4) 0.05 mole of Cu wilt dissolve
conductivity cell. Equal volume of solution A and B
are mixed and taken in same cell. The resistance 35. A cell contains two hydrogen electrodes. Anode is
of mixture is in contact with a solution of 1f
M Hr ions. E.M.F.
(1) 133.s3 o (2) 166.66 () of cell is 0.118 V at 25'C. pH of sotution at
cathode is
(3) 150 c, (4) 17s o
(1) 1 (2) 2
29. The specific conductance of saturated solution of
AgCl is 1.24 x 1O5 Q-i cm-r. Molar conductance
(3) 0 (4\ -1
at infinite dilution of AgCl is 119 Cfr crn, mol-1. The 36. When electric current is passed through
a cell
solubility of AgCl in moleil is having an electrolyte, the positive ions move
(1) 0.5 x 10i M (2) 1.04 x 10{ M towards the cathode and negative ions towards
the anode. lf the cathode is pulled out of this
(3) 1.5 x 10i M (4) 2 x 10j M solution
30. Emf of a cell Ni I Ni,'(1M) ll Au3' (1M) lAu is .... ('l) The positive ion and negative ions both wi
if E'for Ni&/Ni is -O.25 V E'forAuryAu is 1.50 V move towards the anode
(1) + 1.25 v (2) The positive ions will start moving towards the
(2) - 1.75 V anode, the negative ions will stop moving
(3) + 1.75 V (3) The negative ions will continue to move
towards the anode; the positive ion will stop
(4) - 1.25V moving
31. ln order to get greater value of emf of a cell
(4) The positive ions and negative ions will start
(1) Concentration of anode solution should be
moving randomly
lower than cathode solution
37. Four colourless salt solutions are placed in
(2) Concentration of anode solution should be
separate test tubes and a strip of copper is placed
higher than cathode solution
in each, which solution finally tums blue?
(3) Concentration of anode and cathode solution
should be 2 M and 1 M respectively
(1 ) Pb(NO3)2
(2) zn(No3),
(4) None of these
(3) AgNo3
32. ll Ei" is standard electrode potential for Fe/Fe.z
and E.' is tor Fe'zlFe'3 and E3' for FelFet3 then (4) Cd(NO3)2
which of the following relation is correct? 38. What will be Eqrinor,yc,one at pH = 2 if
+El E quinonycrone = 1 30 V?
(1) E3 _2Eo, (2') E\ =zEl +EZ
3
OH
(3) E3 = E? +E! (4) E3 = 2E3 +3E?
33. A cell is constructed as follows + 2H', + 2e-
Pt : H, (1 atm) lHA, ll H&lH, (1 atm), if the pH
of two acid solution HA1 and HA2 are 5 and 3 OH o
respectively. The e.m.f. of the cell is
(1) 0.0se v (2) 0.029s v v
(1) 136 (2) 1.30 v
(3) 0.118 v (4) -0.118 v p) 1.42v (4) 1.2ov
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39. Blocks of magnesium metal are often strapped to 44. The e.m f of the cell
the steel walls of ocean going ships in order to pt, H2(1atm) I HA(O.O1M) ll HC(1.0M) | H2(1atm),
(1 ) protection
provide cathodic Pt is 0.295 V The dissociation constant of the acid
HA is
(2) Provide sacrificial protection
(1) 1t 10{
o (2) 1 0 x 10-6
(3) Provide banier protection
(3) 10 x 10+ (4) 1 0 x 10-5
(4) All of these
40. when an aqueous sorution of tithium chtoride ,. ou :lin of the following is zero for concentration
electrolysed using graphite electrodes
(1) pH ofthe resulting solution increases (1) Ec"rr (2) E"c"rr
(2) pH of the resulting solution decreases

(3) As the cunent flows, pH of the solution around (3) Both Ecerr and E'"",, (4) AGo
the cathode increases 46. The maximum work that can be obtained from a
(4) pH of solution increases till it becomes neutral
cell having E'cerl + 1 10 volt and two electrons
4'1 . certain quantity of electricity is passed through two
voltameters connected in series and containing are involved in the cell reaction would be
XSO4 (aq) and Y2SO4 (aq) respectively. lf the (1) 45.75 kJ (2) 190 kJ
atomic masses of x and Y are in the ratio of 2 : 1, (3) 212 3 kJ
,,
(4) 119 s0 kJ
i
the ratio of the masses or riu"r"t"Jl tn"t oi
is 47. Vvhen 5F of charge is passed ttrrough CaSq (aq),
X
(1)1:1
(3)2:1
(2t
(41
1 2
3:2
fil?"1,,ii,#11'.,?t$"jili#"l3ii,:,,T:1":l
cathode are
42. fhe standard EMF ofthe cell reaction: (1\ 1:1:2:3 (21 1:2:3:4
|c("1*]crr1s1 -fcu'. *ct (3) 3:3:2:6 (41 2:3:4:5
is 1.02 V. The maximum work which can be 43 charge

Electrolysis of water is done by passing 4F of
Total volume of gases obtained are
obtained by this cell
() 22'4 tite (2\ 44 8 titre
(1 kJ
) -98.43
(3) 67 2 litre (4) 50 litre
(2) -196.86 kJ
49. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode in
(3) -198.43 kJ o.o1 M H2So4 sotution at 1 atm and 25oc wilt be
(4) -205.0 kJ equal to
43. civen (1) 0 V (2) 0.1 V

A2'+2e- -+ A(s); E" = 0.10 v (3) -0591 v (4) -0.0791 v
B* + e -+ B(s); Eo = -2.71 V 50. The ratio of volumes at NTP of 1 equivalent of
02 gases formed bv electrolvsis of
x2(g) + 2e- --s 2x- , Eo = 1.08 v i]3,1"ô
The incorrect statement among the following ir 1t1 t , Z (Zl Z: 1
(1) Xr(S) wi oxidize bothA& B (3)1:16 (a) 8:i

B
(2) A2' will oxidize 51. which of the foflowing expressions is conect?
(3) The reaction (1) Ac. = _2.303 RT n FE.
2r (1.0 M) + A2' (1.0 M) -+ X, (1 atm) + A(s) (2) Ac. = +n FE"
spontaneou"
will be
(3) AG" = _n FE"
(4)TheoxidisingpowerofA2,.B-andx2(g)isin
(4) AG'= -n F log Kc
order B. . iri . x,
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52 Out of Cu, Ag, Fe and Zn the metal which can 58 For the cell of type
displace all other atoms from their salt solutions is
H2lHt ll H-lH'
(1) As (2) or
P, C, C,PZ
(3) zn (4) Fe
Which of the following is nol true?
The electronic conductance depends upon
(1) Strandard electrode potential is always zero
(1) Temperature
(2) lf the [H+] becomes same and partial pressure
(2) Nature of the metal becomes equal in two half cells, then cell
(3) Number of valence electron per atom stops working
(4) All of these (3) To have maximum cell potential C2 < Cr and
P't Pz
54 When a graph is plotted between molar '
conductivity and (conc)1z for a strong electrolyte, (4) To have feasible cell reaction, oxidation takes
then which of the following is observed mnectly? place on electrode with lower concentration if
partial pressure is same
(1) lntercept equal to
^; 59 During electrolysis of H2SO4 at higher
(2) Slope equal to A
concentration the reaction which is preferred at
(3) The value ofA (constant) depend upon type of anode is
electrolyte, i.e. CaCl", CaSOa are 1-2 and
1-1 electrolyte (1) 2SOi -+ S,O!-+ 2e-
taq) (aq)
(4) All of these (21 2H2O(l\ -r 02 + 4H* + 4e-
55 Which of the following is mismatched? (3) 2H. -+ H,
(1) Charge on I mole - 96487 C mol-1 (4) All of these
electron
60. Which of the following is mismatched regarding
(2) Reduction of 1 mole - 1 mole of e- number of faradays of electricity required for
required deposition of 1 mole of respective substance?
of Ag* ion
(1) Nikobenzene -+ Aniline -+ 6F
eo. wt. of substance
(J) Erecrocnemrcar - (21 Al2O3 -+ Al --+ 3F
,6500
equivalent (3) FeO -+ FerO, -+ 1F
(4) 1 F of electricity liberate-'l g equivalent of (4) MnO4- -+ -+ 5F
Mn*2
any substance
always 61 Correci statemenus with respect to the mercury
cell is/are
56 lf Een is greater than the Ecelt then
(1) Zinc-mercury amalgam is used as anode
(1) Electron flow from zinc to copper
(2) lts cell potential remains constant as reaction
(2) Electron flow from copper to zinc
does not involved any ion in solution
(3) The reaction stops
(3) During oxidation at anode ZnO is produced
(4) All of the above can occur
(4) All of these
57 lf the potential of hydrcgen electrode in contact
with a solution is nearly -{.6 V then the hydroxide 62 What will happen if no salt bridge is used in
ion concentration of the solution is electrochemical cell?
(1) 104 M (1) lnner circuit is not completed

(2) 1010 M (2) Current stops flowing
(3) 1r M (3) Outer circuit is not completed
(4) 10 10 I\4 (4) Both (1)& (2)
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63. Which statement is correct for equivalent 70 ln the electrolytic cell, the f,ow of elec'tron is from
conductance? (1) Cathode to anode in solution
(1) lt decreases for both strong and weak (2) Cathode to anode through extemal supply
electrolytes on dilution
(2) lt increases for strong electrolyte on dilution (3) Cathode to anode through intemal supply
but decreases for weak electrolyte on dilution (4) Anode to cathode through extemal supply
(3) Remains unaffected on dilution 71 A91.1lAgNOqooo1 r..r1 I I AONO.,o.or u1 I A91",. The
(4) lt increases with dilution for strong and weak EMF of the cell will be
electrolyte (1) s9.00 v (2) 5.90 v
64. What amount of current should be passed in the
(3) 0.0s9 v (4) 0.s9 v
electrolysis of acidulated water, if hydrogen gas
is required at the rate of 1cc per second at NTP 72 1.08 g of an element was displaced when a
condition? cunent of one ampere was passed through the
(1) 8.6A (2) 104 salt solution of the element for 16 minutes and
five seconds. The equivalent weight of the
(3\ 24 A (4) 12 A element is
65. ln which electrolysis pH of solution increases (1) 108 (2\ 5.4
using inert electrodes?
(3) 1.08 (4) 10.8
(1 ) AgNO3 solution (2) CUSO4 solution
(3) NaCl solution (4) Na2SO4 solution Which is mismatched?
66. lf 6 faraday of electricityis passed through

Al2O3 (molten), cuso4(aq), Nacl (molten), (1) Efficiency o11r"1
""11
= -ffi
separately. Amount of Al, Cu, Na deposited at
cathodes will be in molar ratio of (2) At equilibrium + E".,, = 0
(11 1:2:3 (2\ 3:2: 1
(3) 2:3:6 (4) 6:3:2 (3) At equilabrium
= e|,, = 3$bgr
67. lf pressure of hydrogen gas is increased from
10 atm to 1000 atm keeping hydrogen ion (4) Galvanic cell + lf Een < Ecs , cunenl
concentration constant at 1 M, the voltage of flow from anode to cathode
hydrogen half cell at 25'C will be 74 During the electrolysis of highly concentrated
(1) 0.118 v (2) 0.059 V H2SO4 solution, which is released at anode?
(3) 0.59 v (4) 0.0295 v (1) r-r,
68. On passing a current through A9NO3 solution, (2) oz

5.4 g Ag is deposited at cathode (assume 100%
(3) SrO82-
current efficiency). lf same current is passed
through CUSO4 for same time, only 0.8 g Cu is (4) Both (1) & (3)
deposited, then current efficiency in second For the reaction
experiment is
25o/o
(1\ (2) SOvo Pt, H2 H* H* lHz'fr
(pq) pHz
(3)75v. (41 100vo
(P,) (Pz )
69. The standard reduction potential at 25"C of the Standard cell potential will be maximum when
reaction, 2H2O + 2e- <= H2 + 2OH- is (1)pHr > pH2, P1> P2
4.8277, lne equilibrium constant for the above
reaction is approximately? (2\ pHz, pH,, P, > P,
(1) 10-20 (21 10-14 (3) pHr , pqr, Pr> P,

(3) 10 12 (4) 10 28 (4) lt is always zero
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Electrochemistry 61
76. From the following facts 82 During the process of electrolysis of brine
solution using inert electrode, which of the half
(i) 2f + Y2----+ 2Y- + X2
cell reaction will take place at anode?
(ii) 2W- + Y, ----+ No reac{ion
(1 ) Nao (aq) + e(-) -------+Na(s)
(iiilzz- + X2---) 2X- + 22 ,|
Ho (aq ) + e(-)
----------r H, (g)
Which of the following is true? 12) 7
(t) E*r,*-'Evrtv-'E*"tr'Ezrtr 1 ..
(3) Cl(-)(aq)---r, Cl,(g) + e'-'
(2) E*r,*- uE*r,*
'Errtr- 'Er",a 1+1 H,O(l)
-+ + fie(aq)+ 2e( )
(3) Ewzlw-
]o,(g)
'er,,lr 'Er"l"- 'E*r,* OJ The charge present on tin (Sn) if 7.42 g ot
(4) E*rr*- uE*r,* metallic tin is deposited by passage of 24125 C'
'Err,r-'Err,T through a salt of tin in molten state [At wt of Sn
77. Which of the following is conect statement about
= 1181
concentration cell?
(1) +1 (2) *Z
(1) Eh=o (3) *3 (4) +4
(2) Ecdr +0 84 Which of the following option is true for galvanic
cell?
(3) E""rr = o.ossrooft fi c2> cl (1) Anode is positive electrode
(4) All of these (2) Salt bridge completes the electrical circuit
through metallic conductance
78. The equivalent condu@nce of 0.05 N monoprotic
acid is 7.40 O-1 cm2 eq-l at a given (3) There is flow of current from anode to
temperature. lf the equivalent conductance at cathode through outer circuit
infinite dilution is 390.0 o-l cm2 eq-1 then, the (4) The elecrolyte present in the salt bridge
dissociation constant of the acid will be should have same ioniGmobility
(1) 1.8 x '10-5 (2) 1.8 x 10-7 85 Which of the following statement regarding redox
(3) 1.8 x 1O-3 (4) 1.8 x10-6 reaction is correct?
79. Thermodynamic efficiency of a cell is given by (1) Oxidant is a substance undergoing increase in
oxidation number by loss of electrons
(1)-# (2) -H (2) EMF of cell is the difference in the electrode
potentials of two electrodes in a cell when
cunent flows through the cell
131 -!IE
AH
(4) -nFEo
(3) Reduction involves loss of electrons
80. For completely reducing 20 ml of 0.5 M MnO4
(4) Galvanic cell is a device in which redox
to Mn2*(aq). The charge required is
change occurs decreases the free energy that
(1) 482s C appears as electrical energY
(2\ 48250 C
86 Ef,,a.,o, =-1.66V and E],:*,r, =+1'26V
(3) 48.25 C
On the basis of above data which statement is
(4)sF incorrect?
81. Electrolysis product of aqueous NaF using (1)Tl3- is unstable in solution while Al3* ion is
graphite electrodes
stable
(1) Anode : H2 ; Cathode : 02 (2) Aluminium has high tendency to make Al3*
(2) Anode : F2 ; Cathode : H2 ions
(3) Anode : O, ; Cathode : H2 (3) Aluminium is less electropositive than thallium

(4) Anode : F, ; Cathode : Na (4) Tl3- is powerful oxidising agent
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62 Electrochem istry
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
87 . The stiandard emf of the cell 93 For the galvanic cell
znlzn2t (M) ll Cu2.(1M)lCu As I Ascr(s), Kcl(0.2 M) ll KB(0.001 M);
E" fd Zfi-lzn = -{.76 V E" for Cu2./Cu = + 0.34 V AsB(s) | As.
(1) v
*t.to (2) -1.i0 v Calculate the emf generated and assign correct
(3) -0.76 V polarity to each electrode for the spontaneous
(4) 4.42 v
process after taking into account the cell reaction
88. The feasible cell reaction, if E0 of Ni/Ni-2 = 0.25
al 25'C.
V and Mg/Mg*2 = 2.37 V is
Given k"o(AgCl) = 2.8 x 10-10
(1) Mg+Ni-)Mg*2 +Ni*2 kse(AgBQ=3.3x'10-13
(2) Mg+Ni+2- --+Mg+2 +Ni

(1)0.0371 volt (2) - 0.0371 vott
(3) 0.37'l volt (4) - O.3Zl vott
(3) Ni+ Mg+2 --+Mg + Ni+2 94 Given the following information, rank the ,activity,
-- of the metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with
(4) Mg+2 + Ni+2 ------r Mg + Ni Ni8r2 and CdBrr, but not with ZnBr2. Cd reacts
with NiBr2 but not with ZnBr, or CrBrr.
89 Standard electrode potential can be calculated
from (l)Zn>Cr >Cd>Ni (2) Ni >Cr>Cd>Zn
(3) Zn>Cr>Ni >Cd (41 Zn>Cd >Cr>Ni
(1) E3" = E3atnooe - E3nooe
95 Which of the following statements is correct?
(redn. pot.) (redn. pot.)
(1) Both conductance and molar conductance

(2) ELr = ELtnoo" - Elnoo"
(redn. pot.) (oxidn. pot.)
increase on increasing concentration
(2) Both conductance and molar conductance
(3) EL1 = Eltnooe + E|nooe decrease on increasing concentration
(redn. pot.) (oxidn. pot.)
(3) Conductance increases but molar conductance
(4) Both (1) & (3)
decreases on increasing concentrafion
90. Reducing power for alkali metals decided by (4) Conductance decreases but molar
Eo value. Eo value does not depend upon
conductance increases on increasing
(1) lonization energy (2) lnternat energy concentration
(3) Hydration energy (4) Heat of sublimation 96 The equation for one of lhe half reactions in a
91. Given that lead storage battery is
lz + 2e
---+
2t- ; E" = 0.54 V PbO, +4H* +SOo 2
+ 2e- -------+pbSO4 +2H2O
Br, + 2s- ----- ,r. , E' = '1.09 V What happens to the properties of the electrolyte
Predict which of the following statement ls true? as this cell discharge?
(1) l- ions will be able to reduce bromine Density pH
(2) Br ions will be able to reduce iodine (1)lncrease lncrease
(3) lodine will be able to reduce bromine (2) lncrease Decrease
(4) Bromine will be able to reduce iodide ions (3) Decrease Decrease
92. The reaction occurring at the cathode during (4) Decrease lncrease
charging of lead storage battery is
o'1 lonic conductance of H* and SO4-2 at infinite
(1) Pb2. + 2e- -+ Pb
dilution are x and y s cfir2 eq-1. Hence the
(2) Pbz' + SOo2- -+ pbSOo equivalent conductance of H2SO4 at
- dilution is
(3) Pb --; Pb2' + 2e- (1)x+y (Z) 2x+y
(4) PbSO4 + 2H2O ) 2pbo2 + 4Ht + So42- + 2e- (3)x + 2y (4) x + O.sy
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Electrochemistry 63
Last Leap for NEET Partl )
98. Which of the following statement is inconect? 104. The El,r.,rz' values for A, B, C and D are
-0.41 V, +'1.57 V, + 0.77 V and
+1 97 V
(1) lncrease in temperature increases electrolyte
conductivity but decreases metallic respectively. For which one of these metals the
conductivity change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiesP
(2) lncreases in temperature increases reduction

(1)A (2) B
electrode Polential (3) c (4) D
(3) lncreasing temperature increases rate of 105. lf the reduction potential of x, y and z are in the
exothermic reactions orderz>Y>x,then
(4) lncreasing temperature increases defects in (1) y can oxidise r r
and not
NaCl (2) y can oxidise r and not r
99. Which of the following are @nect? (3) y can oxidise both r and T
(1) Electrolysis of dil. NaOH solution gives H2 at (4) y. can reduce both x and z
cathode and 02 at anode
106. ln a galvanic cell, flow of electrons is from
(2) Electrolysis of molten CaH2 produces H2 at (1) Cathode to anode in solution
anode and calcium at cathode
(2) Cathode to anode through extemal wire
(3) Electrolysis of CuSOo solution using copper
(3) Cathode to anode through internal supply
electrode do not show any change in molarity
of solution (4) Anode to cathode through external wire
(4) All of these 107. The standard oxidation potential E' for the half
reactions are as
100. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution
containing a mixture of 1 M Y- and 1 M Z- at Zn -___) Zn2* + 2e- E. = + 0.76 V
25"C. lf the reduction potential of z > Y > X; then
Fe ______+ Fe2* + 2e- E. = + 0.41 V
(1) Y will oxidize X but not Z The standard EMF for cell reaction
(2) Y will oxidize Z but not X Fe2* + Zn ----) Zn2* + Fe is
(3) Y will oxidize both X and Z (1) - v
o.3s el + 0.35 V
(4) Y will reduce both X and Z (3) + 1.17 V (4) - 1.17 V
101. Which process occurs in the electrolysis of an 108. What cunent is to be passed for 0 25 second, for
aqueous solution of nickel chloride at nickel deposition of certain weight of metal which is
anode? equal to its electrochemical equivalent?
(1) Ni ------; Ni*2 + 2e- (2) Nit'z + 2e- -----+ Ni (1)4A (2) 5A
(3) 2cr cl" + 2a- (4) 2H. + 2e- --'---+ H, (3)6A @) 2A
--) 109. Which ion has highest conductivity in aqueous
102. A4.O molar aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared
and 500 mL of this solution is electrolyzed Find solution?
out number of moles of Cl2 gas evolved is (1) Lr (2) Nat
(1) 1.0 mole (2) 2.0 mole (3) MS2- (4) Be2-
(3) 0.5 mole (4) 3.0 mole

103. x, y, z are the equivalent conductance at infinite 110 cu, -ryi E:
cu'El={15v,c,
dilution for BaClr, HrSOo and HCI respectively'
The equivalent conductance of BaSOo would be F: will be
(1)x+y-z (1) 0.45 v
(2)x-2Y+7 (2) 0.225 v
(3\x+y-22 (3) 0.15 v
(4\x-v -z (4) 4.22s v
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64 Electrochemistry
Last Leap for NEET (Parl-l
111 The molar conductivity of O..l M NH4CI is 20 s
117. The value of E
cm2 mol-l. The molar conductivity of NHI and 2H* lH2
Cl- at infinite dilution are 74 and 26 s cm2 mol-i (1) ls zero

respectively. The dissociation constant of NHaCI (2) Depends on concentration
will be
(3) ls +ve always
(1)10-2 e) 2x 1O-3 (4) ls -ve always
(3)4 x 10-s (4) 5 x1O-3
118. For the ce], Znlzn2* (C )llZn2. (Cz)lZn to show
112 Find the conect statement positive e.m.f., the relationship between C1 and
(1) KCI is used as satt bridge in AglAg*llAu3.lAu C2 should be
(2) 1 g equivalent of copper deposited by 2 (1) C1 _Cr<0

Faraday
(2) C2_ C1 < 0
(3) Molar conductivity of 0.1 M HCN increases if
(3) C,C, =
one litre water is added to it 1
(4) Fuel cells are galvanic cells in which heat c^

energy is direcfly converted into electrical @;=1
energy
113. Standard electrode potentials of some metals are 119 An electrochemical cell can behave like an
given below electrolytic cell when
K'lK = -2.93 V (1) E",r > E".rr (2) E",r < E""rr
Ag-/Ag = 9.39 Y (3) E"", = 0 (4) Eex = Ecerr
Hg2.lHg = 9.79 Y 120 On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using
Pt electrode
Mg2.ltug = - 2.37 v
(1 ) pH of the solution wilt decrease
Cf'/Cr = -0.74 V
(2) pH of the solution will increase
Correct order of reducing power of these
metals is (3) pH of the solution will remain constant
(1) Mg t K > Cr > Hg > Ag (4) pH of solution may increase or decrease
(2) K> Mg >Cr> Hg >Ag 121 Given :
(3)Ag>Hg>Mg>Cr>K Mn2o + 2ee -r Mn; E. = -1.18

(4)K>Mg>Cr>Ag>Hg
-
Mn3o + eo Mn2s; E" = 1.5j
114. How much Faraday is required to produce 40 g -r
Al from molten Al2O3?
What is the E' value for Mn3e + 3ee _- yn2
(1)4.4F (43F
(1) +2.8 V e) -2.sv
(3) -0.28 V (4) +0.28 V
(3) 2.9 F (4) 1.5 F
122 Consider the following statements regarding
115. Which have highest E!,, in the following? electrochemical cell
(1) M el r-
Zn(s)lzn2{-)(aq1 1l Cu2{.)(aq)lCu(s)
l. Electrons move from Zn to Cu
(3) Li (4) cr ll. Concentration ot 2n21.) will increase and that
116. lf Cu strip is put in the solution of AgNO.(aq) then of Cu2(*) will decrease when cell operates
(1 ) Nothing wi happen lll. When cetl becomes dead, E; = O
(2) Ag. witt be reduced Choose the correct statement(s)
(3) Cu will become Cu2* (1)r,il&ilt (2)I&ilt
(4) Both (2) & (3) (3)r&il (4)il&ilt
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Electrochemistry 65
123. Choose the conect statement(s) 129. The products of electrolysis of AgNO3(aq) using
Ag electrodes are
(1) E;, is zero for concentration cell
(2) E""rr = 0, when cell reaction approaches Cathode Anode
equilibrium
(1)As' Ast
(3) Specific conductance of all electrolytes
decreases on dilution (2) As 02
(4) All are correct (3) As Ag-
124. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe, (4) As. As
FeOi( ) 2_20 V
Fe3(+) 0.77v ) Fe2(+) 130. Four faraday of electricity were passed through
aqueous solutions of AgNO., CuSOo and PbClo
the value for E:eo2c)/Fe2(*) will be connected in series, using inert electrode. The
ratio of number of moles of Ag, Cu and Pb
(1)7.37 v (2) 3.685 V deposited will be
(3) 2.456 V (4) 1.843 V (1)1:2:4
125. The amount of electricity required to obtain 10
mole of Al from molten AlCl3 is
(2)4:3:1
(1) 10 F (2) 60 F (3)4:2:1
(3) 20 F (4) 30 F (4) 1 :2 :3
126. During rusting following redox reaclion takes 131 . Cathodic and anodic product when dilute
place:
aqueous solution of NqSOo is electrolysed using
inert electrode are respectively
ztl@ +1o,+ Fe----------lH,o + Fe2(+)' E' = 1.67 V
2' (1) H2, 02
What is AG' of the reaction? (2) Na, 02
(1)-322.31 kJ (2) -161.15s kJ
(3) 02, H2O
(3) 322.31 kJ (4) +161.155 kJ
(4) Na, So,
127. Oxide that can be reduce by hydrogen
(1) Na2O 132. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at
5atmandpH=2is
(2) Mgo
(3) At2O3
(1) - 0.14 volt
(4) Cuo (2) -0.047 volt
128. The rusting of iron takes place by these two half (3) + 0.39 volt
reactions
(4) + o.o8 volt
z1r +2e' *lor-------nro1t;, E" = 1.23y 133. ff En"ou"tion of 12 < Bt2 < Clr, then Brr(l) can
Fe*2 + 2e- -_+Fe(s); E" = _ 0.214 V (1) Oxidise l- to 12 and Cl- to Cl2
(2) Oxidise only Cl- to Cl2

The AG' for the net process is
(1) - kJ/mol
322 (2) - 161 kJ/mol (3) Oxidise only l- to 12
(3) - 1s2 kJ/mol (4) - 76 kJ/mol (4) Cannot oxidise (l-) and (Cl-)
4. A: ln electrolysis, the amount of charge required

to deposit 1 mole of Ag and Zn are different.
R: Atomic weights of Ag and Zn are different.
5. A: A correct electrochemical cell can be set up
only if redox reaction is spontaneous in
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the forward direction.
reason is lhe correct explanation of the
R: A reaction is spontaneous In forward direction
if Ecer is positive.
(2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the 6. A: The half cell potential of hydrogen electrode at
pH = 10 is 0.59 V.
(3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is R: Half cell potential do not depend upon
false, then mark (3). temperature.
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false 7. A: For the reaction, r"=Ei +E! is not always
statements, then mark (4). valid.
'1. A : Corrosion of metals is essentially an R: For the reaction AG' = AG; + AG; is always
electrochemical phenomenon. valid.
R : Corrosion of iron metal can be prevented by 8. A: Electrolysis of aqueous FeSO4 gives Fe at
galvanization.
cathode in preference to H2.
2. A : E|, is zero for concentration cell. R: Ei,F, < EL"F"
R : AG is zero for working concentration cell. 9. A: Specific conductivity decreases on dilution.
3. A: ln galvanic cell anode is negative electrode. R: Number of ions per unit volume decreases on
R : Anode is the source of eleckon. dilution.
ootr
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Chapter 5
p-Block Elements (Group 15-18)

*,, *s :*rffi 7. oxidation of l- with Mnot in acidic medium gives
obJective Type Questions (1) toi- (2) tz

'1. Which of the foflowing compound is a tribasic (3) tO; (4) tO
acid? 8. select the conect stiatement
(1) HrEz (2) H3Po4 (1) H3po4 is tribasic and reducing
(3) H3Po3 (4) H4Pzol (2) H3Po3 is dibasic and reducing
2. The corr€ct increasing order of €nthalpy of (3) H3po3 is dibasic and non-reducing
vaporisation
'"AsHs (o) H3po4 is dibasic and non-reducing
(1) NH3, PH3, NH3 9. Thermat stabitity of hydrides of 156 group folows
(2) AsH3, PH3,
(3) NH3, AsH3, PH3 (4) PH3, AsH3, NH3 the order
3. Which of the following is the strongest acid? (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(1) HCIO (2) HCIO2 (2) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3
(3) HCIO3 (4) HCIO4 (3) NH. < AsH, < PH3 < SbH3
4. Which of the following cannot be hydrolysed? (4) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
(1)NFe(2)PCl3l0.Whichofthefollowingcannotbehydrolysed?
(1) Pcl3 (2) sicl4
(3) sbcl3 (4) Ncl3- (3) NF3 (4) All of these
5. Find the conect statement
(1) rcrismorereactiverhan12 " ;;'i:H."*jnl'#*n",
(2) Ar hydrolysis of xeF6 ar€ redox reactions (2) rn making fertirizers
(3) HCI reacG with finely powdered iron and fenic (3) As a dehydrating agent
formed
chloride is
(4) AI of these
(4) Kq >> Ka, for HrSoo 12. which of the following is responsible for turning
6. Which is incorrect? moist starch iodide paper blue when it is brought in
(1) HC|O > HBrO > HIO contact with 03?
- Acidic
strength (1) Liberation of iodine (2) Liberation of 02
(2) HC|O > HC|O2 > HC|O3 > HC|O4- Oxidising (3) Formation of alkali (4) All of these
pouer 13. The conect acidic nafure order is
(3) Cl2 > Fz> Bt2> 12 - Enthalpy of (1) HCIO2 < HCIO3 < HCIO.
dissociation (2) H3PO4 < H3pO3 < H3pO2
(4) H2O>H2Te>H2Se>H2S - Boiling (3) CH4<NH3< H2O<HF
point (4) Al of these
68 Block Elements Group 15-18) Last Lea for NEET Part-l
14. SO2 acts as an oxidant when reacts with 23. The oxide of nitrogen formed when Zn reacts with
hot and conc. HNO" is
(1) Acidic lqCr2OT (2) Acidic KMnO4
() Nzo
(3) H2S (4) All of these
(2) NO,
15. Colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking
(3) r',ro
it with an aqueous solution of
(4) N2O5
(1) H2SO4 (2) KrS
(3) NarSrO. (4) NarSOo
(l) N2 diffuses faster than 02
16 The halogen which gives 02 with hot conc. NaOH (2) Solid PCls exist as tetrahedral cation and
is octahedral anion
(1) Fz e) o2 (3) NO2 has the tendency to dimerise
(3) B% (4\ tz (4) HNO3 exists as non-planar molecule in
gaseous state
17 Which is incorrect?
25. The inconect statement is
(1) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (Boiling point)
(1) (CH3)3N is pyramidal but (S|H.).N is planar
(2) BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(2) Both N2O and N2O5 are neutral oxides
(Reducing) character
(3) White phosphorus consists of discrete
(3) PH. > AsH. > SbH3 > NH3 > BiH3 (Volatility)
tetrahedml molecule, Po
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (HEH angle (')) (4) Fluorine does not show disproportionation
18 xeF4 + H2o --------+ A [Complete hydrolysisl reaction
26. Which of the following is mixed anhydride?
Hybridisation and shape of xenon product A is
NO2
(1) (2) N2Os
(1) sp34 T-shaped
SO2
(3) (4) SO3
(2) sp3d, see-saw
27. Which of the following has maximum
(3) sp3d, square pyramidal electronegative nature?
(4) sp3, pyramidal (1) F- (21 Ct
19 Total number of P - O - P bonds and o bonds in (3) Br. (4) r

P4O1o is 28. BF3 is Lewis acid while NH3 is Lewis base. lf they
combine, the hybrid state of B and N atom in
(1) 6, 14 (21 8, 14
adduct is
(3) 6, 16 (4) 4, 16 (1) N is sp3, tetrahedral, B is sp3 tetrahedral
20 Select the correct statement (2) N is sl, planar, B is sp3 tetrahedral
(1) H3PO2 is tribasic and non-reducing (3) N is sp3, tetrahedral, B is sf planar
(2) H3PO3 can form two type of salts (a) N is sd, pyramidal, B is sp3 tetrahedral
(3) ln solid state, PCl" exists as an ionic solid 29. The mnect order of boiling points of noble gases is
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) He<Ne<Ar<Kr<Xe

(2) He>Ne>Ar>Kr>Xe
21 Which of the following oxide of nitrogen is
coloured? (3) He<Ne<Kr<Ar<Xe
(1) NO2 (2) N2Os
(4) He<Ne<Ar<Xe<Kr
(3) N2O4 (4) All of these 30. Xe+F, --111M[-+2
(Xe in excess)
22 Which of the following compound does not have Number of lone pairs on the central element of 'Z'
dn-prr bonding? is
(1) H3PO4 (2) HCIO4 (1) One (2) T\,'o
(3) H2SO4 (4) H2CO3 (3) Thlee (41 Zqo
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) p-Block Elements ( croup 15-18) 69
31 . During etching of glass by hydrofluoric acid, which 40. Which of the following is conect structure ol S2Cl2?
chemical compound is formed?
32.
lll X;ij' :,':"
NO2 is released on heating
|il
t'r
(3)
'='(" "' ",''e,{
(4) cl =S=S=Cl
(1) Pb(NO3)' (2) KNO3
(3) NaNO, (4) NaNO3 41. The number of P-O*l links in orthophosphoic acid
33. The correct statement about the oxoacids of is

halogens is (1) 2 @ 4
agents
(1) All of them are good reducing (3) 3 (4) 1
(2) All of them are monobasic 42. Which of the following hydride is best reducing
(3) They may be monobasic and polybasic hydrile?
(4) They have general formuh Hxo (1) NHs (2) PH3
(3) SbH3 (4) BiH3
34. ln which of the following properties, white
phosphorus resembles red phosphorus? 43. A white precipitate is obtained on hydrolysis of
(1) Reaction with caustic alkali (1) PCl5 (2) NCl"
(2) Buming in air (3) BiCl3 (4) AsCl3
(3) Dissolution in CS2 44. ln the solid state, SOi exist as
(4) Chemiluminescence (1) Cyclic tetramet (2) Cyclic trimer
35. Which of the following is formed when phosphoric (3) Discrete molecule (4) Dimer
acid is heated to 600'C? 45. xeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives
(1) HPO3 (2) H4P2O1 (1) XeOF, (2) XeOF.
(3) pH, and PrOu (4) P2O5 and H2O (3) XeOr (4) XeF,
36. Among chalcogen, the highest tendency to form 46. yclo S. exist in the
r(g) ion is exhibited by (1) Boat form
(2) chair form
(3) Te urium setenium
(n)
(3) Puckered ring structure
37. Iryhen dropleb of concenfated H,SO, fall on cotbn
'
(4) oclahedral arangerrent
fabric, the spots blacken with tf,e Jppearance of
hole. This is because 47. The starting material for the preparation of
cross-linked silimnes is
(1) H2SO4 bums the cotton
(2) Causes cotton to form respective sulphates (1) R Sicl'z (2) Rlsicl
(3) Rsiclr (4) siRr
(3) Removes water from the fabric
(4)Heatsupthecotton,t8.whichamongthefollowingoxidesisbasicin
natuie?
38. The halogen having live vacant orbitals in the
(1) P1o. (2) Astq
outermost shell belongs to
(1) 3d peri:d (2) 4h perio<l (3) Sbp' (4) Bip!
(3) 2d period (4) 5h period 49' Which of the following halogen does not
disproportionate with hot and concentrated NaOH
39. Which halogen acid has highest percentage ionic solution?
charactea (1) o. (z) Brz
(1) H (2) HF
(3) HCI (4) HBr
70 p-Block Elements (Group 15-'18
50. Which of the following is the correct sequence of 59. Which of the following compound of Xe is
increasing electron affinity among oxygen family isostructural with lCf and BrO3- respectively?
elements?
(1) XeFo, XeO. (2) XeO3, XeFl
(1) Te<Se<O<S (2) O<Te<Se<S
(3) XeO., XeF, (4) XeF a, XeF2
(3) Se<Te<O<S (4) O<Se<Te<S 60. Which of the following are not conecfly arranged
51. Conect statement about NCl3 is that as per the property given in ftont of it?
(1) lts hydrolysis produces HNO. and HCt (1) H2Te > HrSe ....... acidic character
(2) lts hydrolysis produces NH3 and HCt (2) Br2> F2 ...... enthalpy of dissociation
(3) lts hydrolysis produces NH3 and HOC| (3) NH3 >PH3 ......... basic nalure
(4) lt can't be hydrotysed (4) TlCl3 > 1nct3..... stabitity
52. The basicity of hypophosphorus acid and 61. Most acidic oxide among the following is
hybridisation of 'P -atom in it, is (1) N,Os (2) P,q
(1) 3, spj (2) 3, sp2 (3) N,O. (4) As,O3
(3) 2, sp2 (4) 1, sp3 62. What is the crystalline form of pBr5?
53. Correct order of acidity of some hydrides is

(1) [PBr4]'[PBrJ- (2) [pBrJ.[Br,]-
(1) NH3 < PH3 < H2O < H2S
(3) [PBr4].[Br] (a) tpBrJ.tpBr,l
63. The number of dn-pn bonds in SO3 is
(2) PH3 < NH3 < H2S < H2O
(1) 2 (21 3
(3) PH3 < NH3 < H2O < H2 S
(3) 4 (4) 5
(4) NH3 < PH3 < H2S < H2O
64. Very pure nitrogen gas is prepared by heafing
54. SCl2 111sp-- t'c!--'X' + SFa + NaCl (1) NH4NO2 (2) (NH4)rCr2q
350X
The product 'X' will be

(3) Ba(N.), (4) N2H4
65. Which of the fottowing is a mixed anhydride?
(1) s (2) scl.
(1) Ct2Os (2) N2O5
(3) S,Ct, (4) S,Ctl
(3) Ct2O7 (4) NO2
55. The reaction which produces a green coloured
product is
66. lncorrect statement about poOro molecule is
(1) lt has six P-O-p bonds
(1) (NH+ )zCrzOz -A, e) NH4NO3 __4__+ (2) lt is hydrolysed to H3pO4 and HoprO,
(3) egruoe ^ , (a) p51x9.;, --a---; (3) lt does not contain p-p bond
56. BiCl3 hydrolysis to give a white ctoudy precipitate (4) All of these
d 67. Which of the following have non-linear shape?
(1) BiCt3 (2) HBiO3 (1) XeF, (2) KrF,
(3) BiOCt (4) Bi
(3) lt (4) oF2
57. Hypophosphorus acid is also known as 68. Which one of the following is not a pseudo halide?
(l) Phosphonicacid (2) Phosphinic acid

(1) cNc (2) RCOG
(3) Dlphosphoric acid (4) Diphosphonic acid (3) ocN- (4) N,
58. Chlorine on reaction with cold water gives 69. The number of o and r bonds in pao6 is
(1) Chlorous acid (11 12c,3n (21 12c, Otr
(2) Chloric acid (3) 12o, 5n (4) 1Sc, t2n

(3) Hypochlorous acid 70. Most polar among the following is
(4) Perchloric acid (1) HF (2) HCt

(3) HBr (4) Ht
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) p-B lock Elements ( Group 15-18) 71
71. Ammonia on reaction with hypochlorite ion 80. On heating, orthophosphorous acid
produces disproportionates to give
(1) r.D (2) N2O (1) H2O

H3PO4 and (2) H.PO, and PH.
(3) N2H4 (4) Mz (3) H.PO, and HrO (4) H.PO, and PH.
72. Which of the following reaction would result in the 81. When XeF4 react with SbFs the ions formed are
liberation of Cl2 gas? (1) txeFle (2) txeFJo, tSbFJe
tsbFJo
,
(i) Mnoa + cl- + H+ --------> (3) txeF.l., [sbFr]e (4) [xeF.l', [sbF,]e
(ii) ct- + lz --------+ 82. Conect acidic nature order is

('l) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4
(iii) C|OS + t2 --------r (2) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
(3) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3

(w) NaCl+ H2SO. ----;
(4) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii
83. Which of the following metal forms NH1NO3 when
(3) i, iii, iv (4) ii, iv react with very dil. HNO3?
73. Which one of the following species is likely to (1) Ni (2) qr
have a linear struclure?
(3) Ms (4) Fe
(1) SOz (2) NOr.
(3) CO3r- (4) so42- u. The number of S = O bonds in H2S2Og is
74. Which of the following on heating would give (1) 1 (2) 2

laughing gas? (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) NaNO2 + NH4CI (2) (NH4LSO4
85. The correct order of Lewis base is
(3) NHdllo3 (4) Cu + HNO3 (conc.)
('1) NF3 > NCl. > NBr. > Nl.
75. Hypo on treatment with 12 forms
.ll NCl3 > NF3 > NBr3 > Nl3
('l) S
Na2SO4 + (2) Na2S4O6
(3) NF3 > NBr3 > NCl3 > Nl3
(3) Na2SO3 (4) Na2S
(4) Nl3 > NBr3 > NCl3 > NF3
76. Which of the follorving is used for the preparation of
fluorine by Whyttaw Gray electrolytic method? 86. The prcduct fonned when Cl, is treated with excess
(1) KF (aq.) (2) HF (aq.) of NH3
(3) KHF2 (molten) (4) NH4F (1) HCI
N2 and (2) HCIO3 and N2
77. NH3 reacts with excess of Cl2 to give (3) N2 and NH4CI (4) NCl3 and HCI
(1) NH4CI (2) q 87 PCl" in solid state exists as
(3) NCr3 6) NCl5
(1) IPCU tctrl (2) tPcl4r [crl
78. The van der Waals forces are greatest in
(3) IPCU- lPcl6l- (4) All of these
(1) f{eon (2) Argon
The basicity of pyrophosphorus acid (HoPrOu) is
88
(3) Krypton (4) Xendr
(1) 4 (21 3
453-473 K
79. 2NH, +CO, 22O atm
X+H2O;X is
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Ammonium carbonate g9. The strongest oxidizing agent among the following
(2) tJrca is
(3) Biurate (1) ClO4- (2) lo4

(4) N2O' (3) HrS (4) Bro4
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72 lock Elements Grou 15-18 Last for NEET Part-l
90. Which of the following acid has S-S bond? 100. Which molecule has minimum bond angle?
(1) H2S2O8 (2) H2S2O7 (1) NH3 el H2o
(3) H2S2O6 (4) Alt of these (3) AsH3 (4) CH4
91 The conect bond energy order of halogen is 10'l. The shape of XeF6 is
(1) Cl2 > Brr> Fr> 12 e\ CJ2> F2> Bt2> 12
(1) Octahedral
(3) F2> Cl2 >Brr>1, (4) F2> Cl2> 12>Bt2 (2) Pentagonal bipyramidal
92 The correct statement is (3) Distorted octahedrat
(1) SO, bleaches by reduction (4) Square pyramidal
(2) Cl2 bleaches by oxidation 102. From which compound iodine displaces chlorine?
(3) O. bleaches by oxidation

(1) Kcl (2) Msct2
(3) Nacl (4) KCto3
(4) All of these
o't 103. ldentify the incorrect statements among the
Which of the following is incorrect?
following
(1) PB15 contains [PBra.] cation
(1) PH3 is a colourless gas with roften fish smell
(2) Dipole moment of SO3 gas = O
(2) Cl2 reacts with excess of NH3 to give N2 and
(3) 02, NO2 are paramagnetic molecule NH4CI
(4) H3PO4 is stronger acid than H3pO2 (3) Br, reacts with hot and conc. NaOH to give
94 Species having same hybridization and same NaBr, NaBO2 and H2O
geometry as
(4) Ozone oxidises SO, to SO.
(1) XeF2, CO2 Q\ XeFo, IN(CO)J 104. ln ring test of nitrate ion, charge of Fe and NO in
(3) CrF3, NH3 (4) NH3, PCt3 brown ring complex is respectively
95 Heating ammonium dichromate and ammonium (1) +2 ana O e) +1 and +1
carbonate produces [espectively
(3) +1 and 0 (4) +2 and -1
(1) NH3
N2, (2) N2, N2 105. Find the correct match
(3) NH3, NH3 NO'(4) N2,
(1) Yellow P4 - Bond angte - 109"28"
96 Among the given oxo acids, the acid having
(2) Cl2 - D isproportionates with hot
highest K" is
conc. NaOH
(1) HC|O3 (2) HBro3 (3) HOCI - Weaker acid than HOBr
(3) HlO3 (4) A[ have equat K, (4) ClF3 - sde hybridization
97 Select the incorrect statement about N2Os
106. One mole of calcium phosphide on treatment with
(1) lt is anhydride of HNO. excess of water gives
(2) lt is a powerful oxidizing agent (1) One mote of phosphine
(3) lt contains one [N --i O] bond (2) Two moles of phosphoric acid
(4) All of these (3) Two moles of phosphine
98 Colour of iodine solution is disappeared by shaking (4) One mole of phosphorus pentoxide
it with aqueous solution of
107. Which of the following pairs of species react with
H2SO4
(1) (2) PbSO4 water to produce colourless gas that gives white
NarSrO.
(3) (4) Na2SO4 tumes with HCI?
99 The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic (1) Calcium chloride and calcium cyanamide
metaphosphoric acid is (2) Calcium carbide and aluminium carbide
(1) Zerc (2) T'rc (3) Magnesium nitride and calcium nitride
(3) Three (4) Four (4) Calcium carbide and calcium nitride
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108. Which of the following is correct about Contact 116. Most volatile halogen acid is
process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid? (1) Hcl (2) HBr
a. V2O5 is used for catalytic oxidation of SO2 to (3) Hr (4) HF
s. 117. Least bond angle is possesed by
b. SO2 is produced which is absorbed in water
(1) ruo
c. SO3 is directly absorbed in water
(2) NH3
d. SO3 is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid
(3) CH4
(1) Onlyc (2) c&d (4) CO2
(3) a&d (4) a&o 118. Conec{ order of boiling point is
-
109. How many P - H and O H bonds respectively (1) H2O < HrS < HrSe < HrTe
are present in H4P2O7 molecule?
(2) H2S < HrO < HrSe < HrTe
(1) 1&3 (21 0&4 (3) H2S < HrSe < HrO < HrTe
(3) 440 (4) 2&3
(4) H2S < HrSe < HrTe < HrO
1'10. Hl cannot be prepared by the action of Kl and 119. Which of the following cannot be used for drying
HrSOo because
NH3?
(1) Hl is much weaker acid than H2SO4 (1) HCr (2) H2SO4
(2) Hl gets oxidised by H2SO4 to 12 (3) P4Olo (4) All of these
(3) H2SO4 is a dehydrating reagent '120. Choose the incorrect match :
(4) Hl is less volatile than H2SO4

Molecule Hybridisation Shape
111. Which of the following reaction is not feasible? sfe
(1 XeF6 Octahedral
(1) 2NaBr + Clz ----r 2NaCl + Br2 XeO3 sp3 Pyramidal
12
(2) ClF. + HrO -, ----+ HCIO, + HP (3 XeF4 sf* Square planar
(3) 2KlO3 + Clz ---+ 2KC|O3 + 12 (4) XeOF4 sdP Square pyramidal
(4) All are feasible 121. Which of the following match is incorrect?
112. Which of the following is the anhydride of HCIO4? Molecule/lon Shape Bond angle
(1) Cr2O (21 CtO2
(3) Ct2O7 (4)
(1) Nl-t Tet"ahedral 1@"28'
Ct2O6
113. Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 forms a compound 'A (2) CtO; Tetrahedral 109'28'
which explodes violently in dry state. 'A is
(1) XeO3 el x&2Fz (3) ClOt Pyramidal 1@"28'
(3) XeOF4 (4) xeF4
114. XeF 2 reacts with PFs to form
(4) NOt Trigonal planarl2o'
(1) txeflttPF'f (2) txeF31'tPFJ 122. Conect order among the given below ls
(3) txeFl-tPF6l' (4) xeF4 l. H* < H < H- (AtomicJionic radii)
115. The strongest oxidizing agent among the following ll. O<N<F (First ionization energy)
is
lll. Br, < Cl, < F, (Oxidilng poiver)
(1) B]o; lV. 8.2 < Cl2 < F2 (Bond energy)
(2) to; (1) r, il
(2) [, il
(3) clo; (3) r, il, m
(4) All har€ sam€ oxidizing power (4) r, il, ilr, rv
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74 lock Elements 15-18 Last Lea for NEET Part-l
123. Which of the following is not a component of

bleadring po,vder?
Asserdon - Reason Type Quedons
(1) caocl
ln th6,ollowlng questlons, a 3tatemer of asaerdon
(2\ C*tz (A) ls followed by a statem€nt of roason (R)
(3) ca(clo), (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) caocl, reason is the correct explanation of the
124. Catalyst used in preparation of HNO. by Ostwald
process is (2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) Pr
ass€rtion, ten mark (2).
(2) Fe (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) Fe2O3 fals€, then mark (3).
(4) V2Os (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
125. For the trihalides of phosphorus the order of bond
angle would be 1. A : Fluorine is more reac{fue than chlorine.
(1) F>Cl >Br>l R : F - F bond has low bond dissociation energy
(2) l>Br>Cl >F than Cl - Cl.
(3) Cl >F>Br>l 2. A : PFs and lF5 have similar shapes.
(4) Cl >Br>F>l R : PFu and lFs are interhalogen compounds.
126. ln which of the following bond angle is minimum? 3. A: Helium does not form clathrates.
(1) H2S R : Helium has the smallest atomic size among all
(2) It the elements of group 18 & can escape from
the cavities.
(3) No;
4. A : When PCl. is hydrolysed then tribasic acid of
(4) H2O phosphorous is formed.
127 . Find the inconect match R : H.PO. as a tribasic acad.
(1) N2os(s) - lonic compound
5. A : Oxidzing power are in order
(2) NO(g) at low temperature - Paramagnetic
nafure Broo->lO;>ClO;
(3) - lonic compound
PClu(s) R : Standard rcduction potential for pefialates will
(4) XeOFI - Polar molecule be in same order-
128. Which of the following is the corr€ct order of the 6.A N cannot form NClu.
melting point of hydrogen halides?
R P cannot form PHs.
(1) HF > HCI > HBr > Hl
7. A Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 is not a redox
(2) HF > Hl > HBr > HCI reaction.
(3) Hl > HF > HBr > HCI R Complete hydrolysis of XeF. is a redox
(4) Hl > HF > HCI > HBr reaction.
tr tr o
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Chapter 6
Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Prineiples
and Techniques
5 The C - Cl bond in chlorobenzene as compared

with C - Cl bond in ethyl chloride is
(1) Shorter and stronger
1 ln which of the following compounds, hydrogen
(2) Shorter and weaker
shown is most acidic?
(3) Longer and weaker
o (4) Longer and sfonger
(1)
6 Which alkene will show maximum
QI hyperconjugation?
H
(1) CH.-CH=CH,
(2) CH3CH, - CH = CHz
NO,
(3) (4)
H H
H I
(3) CH,-C-CH=CH,
2 Which of the following is most acidic?
cH,
cooH cooH
?*.
(4) CHr-C-CH=CH,
(1) (21
cH,
7 The correct order of acidic strength is
CH,
OH OH OH
(3) HCOOH (4) CH3CH2COOH
3 Which of th€ following has highest value of pKa?
(1) C6H5CH2NH2 ocH3 NH,
t[ilt
(2) C6H5NHC6H5 (1) >t> t (2) I> t >t
(3) C6H5CONH2 (3) I>ilt >il (4) t>r>il
(4) (C6HJ3N 8 The conect increasing order of stability is
4 The number of chiral carbon in mannose and N
fructose in open chain struclures are respectively
(1) 4 and 3
(2) 3 and 3 t.
(3) 4 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
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@ '12. lf the rear carbon atom in the given conformer is

I. C rotated by 60' then the mnformer obtained would be
H3
@ H H
t.
H H
H
e (1) Staggered (2) Eclipsed
tv. cH3 - C- CH.
I
(3) Skew (a) Both (2) & (3)
CH.
13. Select the correct order of basic strength in
(1)t< <It <tv (2) lv< lll <ll <l aqueous solution
(3) < t <t<tv (4) lll <l<ll <lv (1) NH3 < (C2HJ2NH < C2H5Ntt < (C2H5)3N
9 Lowest and highest acidic character is associated (2) C2H5NH2 < NH3 < (C2H5)SN < (C2HsLNH
respectively with the compounds
(3) NH3 < C2H5NH2 < (C2HJ3N < (C2H5)2NH
OH OH COOH OH
(4) NH3 < (C2H5)2NH < (C2H5)3N < C2H5NH2
14. Which among the following compounds behave
both as an electrophile as well as nucleophile?
Iililt lv
(1) r, lll a. CH, = Q11, b. CHr=cn-8n,
(2) rv, il c. CH3-C-CH3 d. cH3-c-ct
(3) il, ilr
o o
(4) il, r
(1) Both a& b (2) Both b &c
'10. The following pair of structure represents
(3) Both c&d (4) Only c
MeH 15. 0.3 g of organic compound contain 40% bromine in
H HH H
silver bromide determined by Carius method, the
mass of silver bromide is
(1) 0.12 g (2) 0.28 s
H BrH Br (3) 0.18 s (4) 0.021 g
'16. C-atoms in C2(CN)4
HMe are
(1) Enantiomers (2) Conformers (1) sp hybndised
(3) Position isomers (4) Homologues (2) sd hybridised
'11. Which of the following carbanion is most stable? (3) sp and sl hybridised
o o (4) sp, sd and sp3 hybridised
CH H,
17. The total number of optically active isomers for
X - CH2 - (CH - X). - CHO are
(1) (2)
(1) 16 (2) I
NO, CN (3) 4 (4) 2
o o 18. ln which of the following bond angles on sp3
H, H,
hybridised are not contracted due to lone pair of
electron?
(3) (4)
(1) oFz @ \o
oH cH. (3) cH3ocH3 (4) cH3oH
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques 77
19. Which of the following has most acidic proton? 26. Which of the following statements is inconect?
(1) CH"COCH3 (1) But-2-ene can exhibit geometrical isomerism
(2) (CH3)rc = cH, (2) Propyl amine and isopropyl amine are position
isomers
(3) CH3COCH2COCH3
(3) Methyl propyl amine and diethylamine are
(4) CH3CH2OH
metamer
20. m-Dihydroxybenzene is also called
(4) CH3-CH=CH2+HBr-#J
(1) Catechol (2) Resorcinol
Br
(3) Quinol (4) Pyrogallol I
21. Which of the following carbanion is most stable?

cH3 -cH-cH3
'Major'
e
(1) (2\ CHr= cH - CH2
27. Which of the following exhibit geometrical
isomerism?
(3) cH3cficH3 (4) 8H3 (1) 1-phenyl-1-butene (2) &phenyl-1-butene
22. Which of the following has minimum plq value? (3) But-1-ene (4) 2-methyl-but-2-ene
NH, 28. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
OH
(1) 12)
(1) Cis-2-butene (21
N (CHa)z H
(3) Trans,2-butene (4) 2-methyl propene

(3) (4)
29. The dihedral angle HCH in eclipsed conformaton of
C2H6 is
23. The optical inactivity of meso-tartaric acid is
because of (1) 120' e) 60'
(1) Absence of chiral carbon (3) o' (4) eo'
(2) Extemal @mpensation 30. The most stable carbanion among the following is
(3) lntemal compensation o
(1) cH3o CH,
(4) Presence of asymmetric carbon atoms
o
24. The violet crlour in the Lassaigne's test of sulphur (2) o,N CH.-
is due to
o
(1) Na,tFe(CN)J (3) o-l- crLcH,
(2) FeJFe(cN)J3
(3) Nao[Fe(CN)uNOS] (4) CH2CH'
(4) FeCl.
31. The hybridization of carbon atom in the following
25. Which of the following possess highest plt value? @mpound from left to right is
(1)
o NH
o,(') NH
(1)
OHC-C:rz:"*
sd, sd, sp
sp'z, sp3,
oI
(3)
O a,w (21 sf, sf, sd, sd, sp
(3) spt, sd, sd, sd
"p',
H
I
(4) sp3, sd, sf, sd, sp
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78 Organic Chemi stry Some Basic Principles and Techniques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l
39 Which of the following is not a pair of resonating
32. The degree of unsaturation in IS structure?
(1) 2 (2) 3 o o I
(3) 4 (4) 5 c
33. The number of isomers exhibited by C2BrClFl is
(1)
o- o- lt"\
o o-
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 o
OH OH
34. Two volatile tiquids A and B differ in their boiling
e
point by 10 K. The process which can be used to
(2)
separate them is
(1) Steam distillation e
(2) Distillation under reduced pressure o

(s) cH,-3=ii, CH.-C=O
(3) Fractionat distiltation ,
(4) Any one of these

(4) cH3-C-CH3 cH3-c=cH2
35. ln paper chromatography '
(1) Mobile phase is solid and stationary phase o OH

is
liquid
H
(2) Mobile phase is liquid and stationary phase is
H H
solitl
40
(3) Both phases are tiquids
H H
(4) Both phases are sotids
36. ln the Lassaigne's test the sulphur present in the H
organic compound lirst changes into lf the rear carbon atom is rotated by 1g0., then the
conformation obtained would be
(1) Na2SO3
(2) cs,
(1) Staggered (2) Ectipsed
(3) Skew (4) Both (1)& (3)
(3) NarS
(4) NarSOo 41 Stability of tertiary butyl carbocation can be
explained by
oo o (1) Both inductive and resonance effect
37. (a)
OH
(b)
o-< (2) Both inductive and electromeric effect
OH (3) Both inductive and no bond resonance
Principal functional group present in the (4) Both electromeric and resonance effect
mmpounds (a) and (b) respectively are
42 Among the following the most stable carbanion is
(1) Ketone, Alcohol
H
(2) Ketone, Ketone
(3) Carboxylic acid, Ester
(4) Carboxylic acid, Ether (1)
A.
38. Cl-l3cllrcFtcHrcfi,
-+cx.
(cn, ), cfi CH.
Whicfi is not occuning in the above process?
('l) Proton shift
(2t
fr
o
I
H
(2) Allqy' shm

(3) Hydride shift
(4) Botr (1) & (2)
(3)
NO
(4)
o CH. _ CH
nax"sn ror",,, ,;;". *]*'o",nll,t ooo. ph.o.l .r-476234s6

Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Princip les and Techniques 79
43. ln the given compound (1) Single bond resonance
(2) No bond resonance
H,C lI CH CH,
(r
(tv) (3) Doubl€ bond resonanca
( )
(4) Triple bond resonance
The most reactive hydrogen towards free radical
substitution is 49. Which carbanion is most stable?
(1) | (2) ll (1) cHtcH,€H, (2) cnr-cn=8H
(3) il (4) lv
ee
44. Which of the following is a conect statement? (3) CHr-C=e (+) cH3-fuH3
(1) lf there is conjugation, resonance is certiainly CH.
Possible
50. The energy required to dissociate C-H bond of
(2) Conjugation is not always necessary for fiollowing compound for the formation of carbocation
resonance is given below
(3) Resonating structures differ only in position of _1
,r-electrons not atoms l. cH3cHrcHrcH AH1
(4) Both (2) & (3)

ll. CH3CHTQHCHT+ aHz
45. The given @mpounds
cHo cN cHo
ale l ---* or,
CN ].,
(1) Position isomers (2) Chain isomers cH,
(3) Functional isomers (4) Metamers tv. cH3 Ji",-|--* +aH.
46. Geometrical isomerism is shown by Cr, I
Minimum heat is associated with
CH,
(1) AHr Ql Mz
(1) (2\
(3) (4)
^H3 ^H4
51. Which of the following compound is having
CHCI maximum unsaturation?
(3)
CHCI
(4)
(1) lV (2) E
(3) 6)o
47. cH360 (CH.).6 CH, =66- dr. 52. Most stable carbocation among the following
(r) (D (rD
o
H2
cH3 cH'
(rv) (1) (2\
The conect stability order is

(1) l>ll >lll >lv (2) lv>lll >ll >l
(3) ll >lll >l>lv (4) lll >ll >l>lv 2
48. Hyperconjugation is very important phenomenon for (3) (4)

stability of carbocation and free radicals of carbon.
It is also called
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80 Organic Chemist ry Some Basic Principles and Techn rques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l
53. The nudeophile in RMgBr is
59. CH3CH2OH--E!--+CH, = 6g,
(1) Br- (2) R- 170.C
(3) MsBr- (a) RMs- The stability of the intermediate of this rcaclicn can
be explained by
54. The priority order of the following groups in IUPAC
naming of organic compounds is (1) Resonance
lt
-OH, -C=C-, -C=C-, -NH,
(2) Hyperconiugation
(3) Resonance or hyperconjugation
(1) lt (4) Resonance and hyperconjugation
-Nl-12 > -C = C- > -C = C- > -OH 60. Which of the following H is most acidic?
lt
12) -NH2>-C=C->-OH>-C=C
oo
(3) -o H>-C=C->-C=C->-NHz CH"_C H=C
t' I
H
I
Hr-CH 2
H H
(4) ll @ 1o
-OH > -NH2 >-C=C->-C=C-
o
(1) O (2) O
(3) O (4) O
CH
55. The IUPAC name for the compound, (J
61.
H-C Which of the following compound exisl in two
enantiomeric pair?
o
will be F
(1) Methanoic-ethanoic anhydride (1) lpsl ct-

Br
(2) Ethanoic-methanoic anhydride Lr)l (2)
CI
(3) I methyl-2 formyt-propanoic acid N

(3) I (4) All of these
(4) 1 methyt -2, 3-propane{i-at D H
56. Which of the following compound can show 62. The intermediates of reac{ions of paraffins are
keto€nol tautomerism? (1) Carbene
(2) Carbocation
(1) (2) (3) Carbon free radical
CH, (4) Carbanion
63. The compound having maximum type of
CH hybridisation is
(1tN (2) , ..,^
57. The Kjeldahl's method cannot be used for
(1) Compounds having nitro group (3)
|-E (+) .A,Ac= ru
(2) Compounds having azo group
(3) Compounds having nitrogen in the ring
o
(4) All of these 6,4. Characteristic reactions ot CX,-8-CH, is
58. The hybridisation of C* in the compound is (1) Nucleophitic substitution
CH.-CH=C'=CH, (2) Electrophitic addition
(1) sp, (2) sp (3) Nucleophilicaddition
(3) sp3 (4) sp3d (4) Eleclrophilic substitution
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Or.ganic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques 81
65. ln which of the following reaction hybridisatjon of 72. Which of the following pair of resonating structure
carbon is changed? is incorrect?
(1) R - CHO
-lgr--rR - COOH (1) R-8 = 6: +-+ R-C = o':
(21 ,a\,/ -""r---, ry' .e H3
ct
(2\ <1-----|
(3) R-cN--$g:--rR-COOH
(4) R-O--!9-I9[-+R-OH
CP
66. The compound having maximum number of 1' (3) cH <-----+CH.-c_(
carbon atom is QLH
(1) 2, 2dimethylpropane
(2) 2,2, 3,3-tetramethyl butane (4) <----+
13) 2, 2, 3, 3, 4-pentamethyl pentane

(4) | -propyl cyclohexane
67. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms in
d\
73. Which of the following species is not aromatic?
cH2oHcHoHcl-to
(11 2 (2) 3
O6
(3) I (4) 0 (1) (2)
68. Most stable form of cyclohexane is

e +
(1) (21 (3) 6)o
69.
(3) (4)
Which compound is non-aromatic compound?

VJ 74- ]-he number of struc{ural isomers found in CoH, is
(1) 4
(3) 6
(21 5
(4\ 7
75. IUPAC name of (CH3)IW C(CHJ, is
=
(1) (2')
O I
cH(cH3)'
(1) 2, 3, 4-Trimethyl-3-(1-Methyl ethyl) pent-2-ene
(3)
w
fi
(4) (2) 2, 3, $TrimethyL1(1-Methyl propyl) but-2-ene
(3) 2, 3, +Trimethyl-2-(1-Mehyl ethyl) pent-2+ne
70. The €rbon in glucose can be estimated by

(4) 2, 4, 4-Ttimethyl-&(1-Metrryl ethyl) pent-2-ene
(1) Liebeig method 76. The most stable @nformation of ethyleneglycol is
(2) Victor Meye/s method (1) Partially eclipsed

(3) Carius method (2) Fully eclipsed
(4) Kjeldahl method (3) Gauche
o (4) Anti-staggered
il
71. CH,-CH.-C-CH,-CH,4H" 77. Which of the following can exhibit geometrical
and
isomerism?
o (1) 1, 2-Dimethyl cyclopropane
il
cH3-c-cH'-cH'-cH'-cH' are (2) But-2-ene
(1) Chain isomers (2) Metamers (3) Pent-2€ne
(3) Position isomers (4) Functional isomers (4) All of these
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82 Organic Chemist ry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
78. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3NFrcHO is 86 IUPAC name of CH"-CH-CH. is
(1) N-methylaminomethanal l'tt'
CN CN CN
(2) N-ficrmylmethanamine ('l)Propane-1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile
(3) N-methylmethanamide (2) 3-cyano pentane-1, Hinitrile
(4) N-methylaminocarbaldehyde (3) 1, 2, +Tricyanopropane
79. The isomerism exhibited by the molecules (4) Propan+-l, 2, 3-trinitrile
CH3-CH2-CHr-OH and CH3-CH-OH is/are g7 Which among the following is non-aromatic?
CH.
(1) Chain isomerism (2) Position isomerism
(1) (2)
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Metamerism
80. Lassaigne's test is performed for qualitative
estimation of (3) (4)
(1) C, H and PO.F (2) N, P and S
(3) N, P and X (4) N, S and X 88 Which among the following pairs is not resonating
structures?
81. Which of the following show pair of aromatic
molecules? (1) CH3-COCHTCOOC,H5'
o o CH.-C(OH)=CHCOOC.H.
o o
(1)
O I
H
and
A (21
O I
H
and
A (2)
o
H+d , Frc-O
oe
I
H
I o, .ar\,tr\
tt
(3) and
wI
(4)
o
and U o
H (41
82. Tautomerism will be shown by
(1) Primary nitroalkanes only
(2) Secondary nitroalkanes only
89. Which of the following compound is most pola2
(3) Li
Both Primary and secondary nitroalkanes
(4) Primary, secondary and tertiary nitroalkanes (1) Ag (2)
83. Which of the following carbocation is most stable?
o
(1) cH3 -co (2) cH3 _ CH,
(3) (4) All are equally polar
(3) Cn. -cnr$H 2 @) Cu, = 6H Ag
84 Which of the following halogen cannot be tested 90. ln the given conformer of 2-chlorobutane
by Lassaigne test?
CH H
(1) Br (21 Ct
(3) | (4) F
85 0.,14 gm of an organic compound on Kjeldahlised
gave NH. which required 17.25 ml of 1N HrSOo for CI
complete neutralisation. The approx. percentage of H H
nitrogen in the compound is CH.
(1) 25 (2) 3s After dehydrohalogenation by using alcoholic KOH,
(3) 54 (4) 30 the major producl formed is
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques 8it
(1) cis-2-butene 97. Which of the following is non-benzenoid aromatic
compound or species?
(2) trans-2-butene
(3) 1-butene o
NH
(4) No elimination is possible
(1) (21
91. Which of the following is most reactive when
treated with Na metal?
('l)Methanol (2) Ethyne (3) (4) All of these
(3) Phenol (4) Acetic acid 98. Which of the following is not a pair of homologues?
92. Which of the following is most stable carbocation? (1) Methanol and isopropyl alcohol
H2 CH, (2) Ethene, hexene
(1) (2)
(3) Haxane and cyclobutane
(4) Propanal and butanal
(3) CH, (4) CH, 99. IUPAC name of COBr
93. The IUPAC name of the complex formed in (l) Cyclohexanol bromide
Lassaigne's test for detection of 'N' is
(2) Bromoformyl cyclohexane
(l) lron hexacyanofenate (lll) (3) Cyclohexane carbonyl bromide
(2) lron (lll) hexacyanoferrate (ll) (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Fenic hexacyanoferrate (lll) 100. lmproper matching of IUPAC name
(4) Fenic hexacyanofenate (ll)
./C,H,
94. The ratio of o and ,r bond is maximum in (1) CH \cH,--cH,--oH
(1) Benzene
3-phenyl pentan-1-ol
(2) Tetracyanoethene
(2) CH"--C|€H"
(3) Carbon dioxide "l'tt'
(4) Toluene CN CN CN
Propane 1,2,3
95. The electron cloud ofr bond lies Carbonitrile
(1) ln molecular plane ct-t-{--cH"
(3) ll ll
(2) At angle of 120" from bonding plane oo2-oxopropanal
(3) Parallel to bonding plane
(4) Above and below the plane of bonding atoms
(4)
96. Which of the following is inappropriate matching of
species and shape? Bicyclo [4, 3, 2] nonane
(1) CH2O - Trigonal planar '101. Number of isomer of CoHrBr having a chiral carbon
is
(2) H-Cll - Linear
(1) 4
(3) CH3 Tetrahedral (21 1
(3) 3
+
(4) CH3 Trigonal planar (4) 0
u Organic Chem istry : Some Basic Principles and Techn iques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
102. Which of the following exists in the form of 109. Which of the following pairs of structures do not
tautomers? constitute resonance structure?
(1) CH3--+{O2 (2) NH,--C--+''IH, (1) CH"-N:O
-l and CH.--0--l.| =O
o o
(3) CH,--C--{H,--CH, (4) All of these
I
o " \b-- " \o
(2) CH"--€-=O anA CH.--C(o
103. Which of the following is purified by sublimation? (3) CH3CH = CH - CHo and CH.CHT- CH = CH,
(1) Acetone (2) Benzoic acid (4) Both (1)& (3)
(3) Ethanoic acid (4) Both (2) & (3) 110. Conect order of stability of following species is
1M. Sodium extract of which of the following compound O cx, = CH--CH = o
does not form blood red ppt with aqueous FeCl3? (l) -CHr--€H
= CH--O-
(1) NH2CSNH2 (2) NH,--C--+.1H, (lD -CHr--CH = CH --O-
o (1) l= ll = lll (2) l> ll = lll
(3) CH,--C|+--CH,NH, (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) t> > t (4) t<[< t
I
11',t. Which of the following is most acidic compound?
SH
105.0.2 g of organic compound is digested with HH
conc. HrSOo in the presence of QSO, and trace NO,
of Cu, the resulting compound was heated which (1) (21
gave a gas, the gas needs, 20 mL of 0.1 N H2SO4

for complete neutralizition. What would be % of N cH,--+t
in this compound? (3) (4) CH3--+r
(1\ 14% (2\ 21%
112. The compound which does not exhibit geometrical
(3\ 28o/o (4) 35o/o
isomerism is
106. Phosphorus is estimated in the form of
(1) CH3--CH = CH--4HzBr
(1) (NH4)2PO4 . 12 MoO3
(2) (NH4)3PO4 . 12 MoO4 "l
(2) CH.--CFrcH = Cl-|--€H,
(3) (NH4)3PO4 . '12 MoO, OH
(4) (NH4)2HPO4 . 12 MoO3

(3) CH = CH-
'107. Which of the following has maximum number of
hyperconjugative structure?
(4) N = N---Cl
(1) CH (2\ CH,CH.
1'13. Which of the following is not planar species?
(1) 3"-butyl free radical
(3) n, c(cH,).
"*(3X. (2) 3'-butyl carbocation
108. Most stable carbocation among the following is (3) 3'+utyl carbanion
(1) (CH3)3Co (4) Vinyl benzene
114. Which of the following is neither a nucleophile nor
(2) CH, eleclrophile?
@
0) rcz-
(3) (CH!ICH (2) o-
(3) cN-
o
(4) CH, = CH - CH, (4) (CH3LN'
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Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Orqanic Chem Some Basic Principles and Techniques 85
115. Tautomerism is not exhibited by o
(2) is non-aromatic compound
(1) o o
(3) cH. - 6H is more slable than CH.6H2
I
(2) CH = NOH CH.

(4) Benzoic acid does not sublime on heating
o
120. 0.25 g of an organic compound containing N on
(3)
Kjeldahlising required 30 ml of to,
o lnrsOo
complete neutralization of NH3. The percentage of
(4) o o N in the compound is
(11 83.7% (2) Wo
116. Which of the following carbocation is most strable?
(CH3)3C€ (2) (3) 20.5o/o (4) 33.6%
(1) (CH3LCXo
(3) (cD3tc€ (4) (CDJTCFI@ 121. The correct IUPAC name of the following
compound is
117. Which of the following exist in maximum form of
enol contenp
o OH
(1) cH -o-cH"
o
(1) 2-Hydrorycyclohex-5-enone
(2) cH3-fi--cH'ffr.
(2) GHydroxycYclohex-2-enone
o o
(3) &Hydroxycyclohex-2€nol
(3) C _C H (4) 2-Hydroxycyclohexane carborylic acid
il
o 122. ln an estimation of sulphur by Carius method,
0.468 g of an organic compound gave 0.678 g of
CH=O o/o of sulphur in the
(4) barium sulphate. The
compound is aPProximatelY
118. The most reactive species towards H* ions is
(1) 2ovo (2) tr/"
= CHz
(1)
(3) 10% (41 l0Do/o
H.C - '123. Which of the following alkene is least stable?
CH = CHz (1) Ethylene

(2) o,N
(2) Cis-2{utene
(3) H,N CH = CHz (3) Trane2{utene
(4) 2,&Dimethyl-2+utene
(4) H3C CH = CHu
124. Mosl stable carbocation is
119. Which of the following is correct? 0) (c6H5)3ce

CH
(2) (CH3)3Co
(1) CH3-CH -CH. + Cl.-9 CH. -c- CH.
(3) (C,HstCo
CH CH,
(4) All are equally stable
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86 Organic Ch emistry : Some Basic Princi ples and Techn rques Last Leap for NEET (Paru)
125. For the @mpounds given below 129. ln Lassaigne's test sodium metal is used because
cooH (l) lt is very reactive
Clr 1H H-C-OH
I
(2) lts melting point is low
A. C=C=C B I
ct/ \ 11 HO-C-H (3) lts compound are soluble in water
I (4) All of these
cooH
'130. Which of the foltowing is opticafly
Hs
active?
Br Br
(1) H.'C=C=c'.cH.
,H
H H
D.
Br H
cH{
H (2) CHCI = CHCI
Optical activity is observed in
CH
(1) Bonly (2) B&D H
(3) A, B & D (4) A[ of these (3)
126. The name of organic compound IS

(4) No one is optically active
131. ln the following carbocation, the stability order is
(1) Cyclopropyl pentane
CH
(2) Bicyclo [2, 4] heptane I
L cH" . Cs
(3) Spiro [2,4] heptane o' I
C H.
(4) Bicyclo [4, 2l heptane
127. Among the following structures which one is called
erythro isomer? 6
BB
t
lv RCH2 CH2
X X
{
(i) (ii) x (1) >tV> >t (2)tv> > t >t
A X A
(3) t> > >tv (4) t > >t>tv
Y Y
132. Optical isomerism is shown by
B
(1) ButanoFl
A A'
(2) Butanol-2
(iii) x A (3) 3-pentanol
Y (4) +heptanol
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) onty (ii)
133. tn which of the following free radical, carbon atom
(3) only (i) (4) onty (iii) is sp3 hybridised ?
'128. The IUPAC name including the stereochemical (l).CFs (2) .CCts
notation (for the chiral C) is (3) .CBra (4) All of these
o 134. Which has a z-bond formed by overlapping of
hybrid orbitals?
Br
HH (1) (2\
(1 ) (Sf2-bromo-(Zfhex-3-€n4-one
CH = CHz
(2) (R!2+romo(Ef hex-3-en4-one
(3) (Rf$bromo-(Zlhex-3-ene-2-one
(4) (S)-Sbromo-(Efhex-3-en-2-one
(3) (4) CHr=Q = 611,
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Organi c Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques 87
135. Which of the following molecule will be planan A1. fhe most stable carbocation in the following
compounds is
(1) HCHo (2) CH, = s = 6H,
eo
(3) CH3COOH
136. IUPAC
(4) All of these
name of the following compound
[(crHu)rc].c - cH, is
(1) 2, 2, 2-Triethylpropane
(1)
o
o,
oo
(2) 3, 3, 5, 5-Tetraethyl4-(1 , 1'-diethylpropyl)'4-
methylheptane
(3)
A (o)o
142. Which of the following is an anti-aromatic ion?
(3) 4-lsopropyF3, 3, 5, $tetraethylheptane
e
(4) 3, $Tetraethylmethylpentane e
(1) (2)
137. IUPAC name of
CH3-CH=CH-CHz-C=CHis
@
(1) Hex-4-en-1-yne (3) (4) All of these
@
(2) Hex-5-yn-2-ene
143. Nitrogen can be detected by
(3) Hex-I -yn-4-ene
(1) Soda lime test
(4) Hex-2-en-5-yne
(2) Lassaigne's test
138. Which of the following statement is conect about
(3) Beilstein test
the tautomerism?
(4) Both (1)& (2)
(1) ln phenol, enol form is more stable than keto
fum CH" OH
t' .+ I
c{' cH
144, CH,_C_CH,_OH
"l
CH._ c
I
- crHs
(2) cH3-lc-lil # ')c=ru-o-n CH. CH.

c,r
HO ln the above reaction most stable intermediate
both tautomers exist in equilibrium formed is
(3) Tautomerism can trake place in acidic medium cH"

t- e
or basic medium () CH. -c- CH, (2) CH3 -c-cH ,- CH.
(4) All of these CH, CH,
139. Which of the following will not exhibit geometrical
isomerism? (3) H3o' (4) cH, = c - Ex- cn"
CH,
,Et
145. Resonance stabilised free radicals are essentially
Ph
?*,
(1) (2) CH3-C=CH-CH: (1) Unear (2) Tebahedral
(3) Planar (4) Pyramidal
(3) CH2 = CH2 (4) All of these 146. The hybridisation of 'N' in pylrole (C4H5N) is
140. Which of the following will have greatest - I effect? (1) sp (2\ sp2
@ (3) sp3 (41 dspz
(1) -NR3
147. The hybridisation of carbon in dichloro carbene
(2) -CF3 (singlet) is
(3) -No, (1) sp (2) sp2
(4) - COOH (3) sp3 (4) sdd
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88 nic Chemi Some Basic Principles and Techniques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
148. Find the inconect order 155. Which of the following is conect about methyl tree
(1) -CH3 < -CH2CH3 < -CH(CH3)2 (+t effect) radica'l?
(2) -NO2 > -CN > -COOH (-t effect) (1) Carbon is sp2 hybridised
e@e (2) Unused p-orbitat is at right angte to the plane
(3) CH3 > CH,CH" > CH(CH,), (Hyperconjugatjon) of hybrid orbitals
(3) lt is paramagnetic in nature
6)E.o.o (Resonance) (4) All of these
156. The conect statement about hyperconjugation is
149. The most stable carbocation will be produced by
(1) lt is a permanent effect
heterolysis of which of the following C - Br bond?
(2) lt operates through o-n electrons
(1) CrH5-N-CH,-Br
I delocalisation
H
(3) lt is weaker than resonance effect
(2) C2Hs-O-CH2-Br
(4) All of these
(3) CH.CH, - Br
157. Which of the follo\,ving is conect about fiee radical?
(4) All have equal stability
('l) lt is formed by homotytic cleavage
150. Stability of carbocations cannot be explained by
(2) Carbon ftee radical generally have one unpaired
(1) lnductive effed (2) Resonance effect electron
(3) Hyperconiugation (4) Etectromeric effect (3) They do not show hyperconjugative effect for
151. Which of the following is a nucleophile? stabitity
(1) DzO (2) CH3OH (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) CN- (4) Ail of these 158. The hybrid state oi fourth carbon atom in the
following compound
152. Which of the following is corect about aromaticity
of the compound? CH3 - CH = CH CH COOH
I
(1) Molecule should be planar CH.

(2) Molecule should have (4n + 2)r electrons (1) sp3 e) si
(3) Molecule should have complete continuous (3) sp (4) sdd
conjugation 159. Which of the following is an etectrophile?
(4) All of these (1) SO3
153. Which of the following compounds possess the (2) C6H5N2*

C - H bond with the lowest bond dissociation (3) HCHO
energy?
(4) All of these
(1) Toluene
160. Which of the following is most stable carbanion?
(2) Benzene
e
(3) n+entane ('l) cH3cH'
(4) 2,2 - Dimethyt propane e
(2) cx, = cH
154. Find the conect match A
(3) CH
= C"
(4) All are equally stabte
(1) (Chain isomers)
161. The IUPAC name of neo-pentylalcohol
(2) (Metamers) (1) 3,&Dimethyl propanoFl
ô-r (2) 2,3dimethylpropanot-1
(3) (Position isomers)
(3) 2,2{imethylbutanot-2
(4) All of these (4) 2,2{imethytpropanot-1
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techn rques 89
162. Which pair show functional isomer? 170. Which of the following has neither secondary nor
tertiary hydrogen?
OH
I (1) lsobutane (2) lsopentane
(1) CH3-CH2---CH2-OH ; CH3--CH--€H3
(3) Pentane (4) Neopentane
(2) CH3CH2NH2 ; CH3---|IFHH3 171. A cyclo alkane with a formula C1oH,, has how
(3) CH3--€H2OH ; CH.--O--CH. many rings?
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) 1 (21 2
163. Which is temporary effect? (s) 4 (4) 0
(1) lnductive effect (2) Mesomeric efiect 172. Angle strain in cyclobutane is
(3) Electromeric effect (4) Att of these 44"
11) + 24" (2) + 9" 44'
+
1Bl. Among H2O, NH4*, Cl-, NO2 , NH3 nucleophites (3) -9" 44" (4) + o" 44,
are 173. Which of the following statement is conect?
(1) CH3COOH will show metamerism
(1) NH4r
H2O, (2) Ct-, NH3, NH4'
(2) Stability of carbanions increases in order
(3) H2O, NH3, NO2. (4) H2O, Ct-, NH3
165. Which of the following compound show only sp3
CH=C>CH,=tgrCn,-8n,
hybridized carbons? (3) Singlet carbene is less reactive than triplet
carbene
(1) Cycloalkane (2) Benzene
(4) C4H6 has only two isomers
(3) Straight chain alkene (4) Ethenal
166. Which of the following cannot exhibit resonance? 174. The compound which cannot be detected with the
help of Lassaigne's test for N is
e@
(1) CH2 = 611- 19, (2) CH, = C11- gt{, (1) C6H5NHCONHC6H5HO
o (2) NH2CONHNH2HC|
(3) CH, - NO, (4) All of these
(3)
'167. The given two molecules are related to each other
NH2 - NH2HC|
AS
(4) NH2CONH2
175. Before testing halogens, Lassaigne's extract is
boiled with HNO3 acid because
(1) NaCN is soluble in dil. HNO3
OH (2) NarS is soluble in dil. HNO,
(1) Geometrical isomers (2) Structural isomers
(3) Silver halides are soluble in dil. HNO3
(3) Enantiomers (4) ldentical
(4) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by dit. HNO.
176. Alkyl groups when attached to ,r system behaves
(1) Conjugation is essential for resonance
AS
(2) r-bond is not necessary for resonance
(1) Electron donor due to inductive effect
(3) lf there is conjugation resonan@ is not always
necessary (2) Electron donor due to hyperconiugation
(4)
ICH, - NH, exhibit resonance (3) Elechon acceptor due to inductive efiect
(4) Electron withdrawl due to resonance effect
177. Most acidic position in the given compound
169. The IUPAC name of IS
HO (d)
H(b)
H =C-H(")
(1) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane
(c)
(2) 1,'l-Dimethyl-3-hydrorycyclohexane H
(3) 3,3-Dimethyl cyclohexan-1-ol (1) a (2) b
(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-cyclohexanot (3) c (4) d
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90 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
178. Among the following, the least stable resonance 184. Tautomerism is not exhibited by
stucture is
(1)
(1) (2\
I I
o6 eo o
(2\
(3) (4)
I
oo oo
179. Cyclic hydrocarbon molecule has all the C and H (3) CH:CH-OH
atoms in single plane. All the C-C bonds have
same bond length, less than 1.9 A but more than
1.34 A. The angle C-C-C is
(1) 109'28', (2) 180" (4)
(3) 60' (4\ 120'

185. Which of the following conformers of n-butane has
CHO torsional strain?
I
180. The configuration of H lllllrx,,,C ts CH
7\"
OH
H,OH H CH.
CH
(1) R (2) S (1) H H (2) H

H H
H
(3) Either R or S (4) z H
(Staggered) (Fully eclipsed)
18'1. The IUPAC name of the structure is
CH
H.N_CH _CH
'tt -CHO
HOOC COOH
(1) 3-Amino-2-formylbutane-1, 4{ioic acid
(3) cH, (4) Both (2) & (3)
H
(2) $Amino-2, 3dicarboxypropanal (Partially Edipsed)
(3) 2-Amino-3-formylbutane-1, 4iioic acid 186. In which of the following positive charge is not
(4) involved in resonance?
1-Amino-2-formylsuccinic acid
o
182. The number of geometrical isomers in case of a CH 2 H
@mpound with the structure le
N-H
CH3-CH=CH-CH =CH-CaH7 is (1) (2\ I
H
(1) 4 (2\ 3
(3) s (41 2 (3) (41
183. The molecule 3-Hexen-2-ol can exhibit o
(i) Optical isomerism 187. Which of the following molecules has longest
(ii) Geometical isomerism
'C:C' bond length?
CH"
(iii) Tautomerism t"
(1) CH3-C-CH-CH' (2) CH3-C-CH2
(v) Metamerism
The conect answer is CH. CH.
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (i) & (iv) O'O (4)
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques 91
188. Which of the following is non-aromatic? '194. Mixture of ether and toluene is separated by
('l) Distillation
(1) (21
(2) Distillation under reduced pressure
e @ (3) Sublimation
(4) Chromatography
(3) (4)
195. How many chiral centres are present in 2,4-
o diphenyl-3-chlorohexane?
189. Find oul correct representation of triplet carbene
(11 4 (2) 3
H (3) 2 (4) 1
\,
(1) H-C-H c@ 196. Acetone (b.p. = SZS K) and methanol (b.p. = 338 K)
7\
(2)
H can be separated trom their mixture by
(1) Azeotropic distillation
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) H-C H (4) All of these (3) Steam distillation
(4) Vacuum distillation
190. Find out correct statement regarding resonance 197 The different resonating structures of
p-nitrophenoxide ion is given below, which of the
energy
following resonating structures is not conect?
(1) lt is equal to energy of resonance hybrid e-
(2) lt is equal to the difference in energies of the "-ffi7o oo
most stable canonical structure and resonance
o-R-o
hybrid
(3) lt is energy absorbed by the molecule (1) (2)
(4) lt is equal to the energy of least stable

eO
canonical structure o._:fr7o o-Rzo
191. Which of the following represents the conect order
regarding the '-l' effect of the substituentst (r) (4)
(1) -NR2 > -OR <
-F e
(2) -NR2 < -OR > -F oo o
(3) -l < -Cl < -Br > -F
SECTION - B
(4) -NR, < -oR < -F
Assertion - Reason Typ€ euestions
192. Blood red colour compound^formed
::..h"rli19
sodium fusion extract with Fesoa when. 'N' and 's' ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
both are present in organic compound
't (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(1) Fe(CNS), Fe(CNS)4
(2) reason is the correct exptanation of the
(3) Fe(SCN). (4) FeCNS assertion' then mark (1)'
193. An organic compound weighing 0.62 g gave
rodson is not the correct explanation of the
0.222 g of magnesium pyrophosphate (Mg2p2o7) in
assertion' then mark (2)
the estimation of phosphorus by carius method.
The % of 'P' in the compound is (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false' then mark (3)'
(1) 30 (21 10
(3) 20 (41 40 statements, then mark (4).
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92 Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
1 A: lnductive effect is a permanent effect. R Benzene and naphthalene contain same

number of delocalised ,l electrons.
R : -CHrrQroup shows +l effect.
'10. A Cis-1, 3-d imethylcyclohexane has higher
2 A: Resonating structures should have same
number of unpaired electrons.
boiling point than trans-1, 3-
dimethylcyclohexane.
R : The energy content of all resonating structures
R Cis-1, 3{imethylcyclohexane has lower mefting
is same.
point than trans-1, 3-dimethylcyclohexane.
3. A: is an anti-aromatic molecule
11. A Alkyl groups show +l effect.
I
H
R Halogens are -l and +R groups.
R : The numb€r of ,r-elec{rons is 6 e e

12. A ion is less stable than ton
qH,
4 A : CEHsa@ carbocation is less stable than o
CuHu R ion is an aromatic anion while
ion is not an aromatic anion.

Y 13. A Cyclohexane is more stable than
>-C@ carbocation
I R
cyclopentane.
Bond angle of cyclohexane is equivalent to
CH, ideal angle 109' 28'(chair form).
l"
: CH,-+e is more stable than
o
R C6H5 aH2 14. A Cyclobutane is less stable than cyclopentane.
I
CH, R Angle strain in cyclobutane is more than that
carbocation. of cyclopentane.
A : Tropylium carbocation is more stable than 15. A All resonating structures contribute equally in
benzyl carbocation.
R: Tropylium carbocation is more resonance
stabilised than benzyl carbocation.
o
6.A A is a weaker base than A : ,/-\ is antiaromatic.

R
16. A : Phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide
R: On increasing lone pair availability, basic ion.
characler increases. R : Ethoxide ion is stabilised by resonance.
7 A : Cyclopentadienyl anion is much more stable
H3
than allyl anion.
17. A = {"^' is the most stable alkene
R : Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic while allyl H3
'"*.
anion is only resonance stabilised.
due to '12-a hydrogen atoms
I A : (CH.).C9 is more stable than (CDr).Co. R 'H' is more electronegative than carbon.
R : Bond energy of C - D bond is higher than 18. A A Compound having non-superimposable minor
C - H bond. image is optically active.
9 A: Benzene and naphthalene are aromatic R Optically active compound must contain chiral
hydrocarbons. carbon.
tr tr tr
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Chapter 7
Hydrocarbons
SECTION - A
Ob,ective Type Questions
4
c.H" H
I
c,H, - N- C.H, A *;\e,o I B. ldentry B

1
-!sL-+ Which of the following reaction or reagent can be
used as best reagent for above transformation?
(1) cH4 Q) CHr=CH" (1) Clemmensen reduclion
CH3 (4) CH3CH = CHCHa
(3) CH, = CH - (2) Wotff-Kishner reduclion
ct.
2. CHr=Qll-6H3 -.#c-M+"r. What is A? (3) Red P/Hl
(4) All of these
('t ) cHr-cH-cH3
cr cl
5. ln which of the following, El elimination is most
hvourable?
(2) CHCI2-CH2-CH3
(3) CHr=gH-6Hr61 (21
(1)
Br
14) CHr= CCI - CH3
Br
3. Which of the following reaction is not conect?
COC H3
Anhyd..
Br
(1) +CH3cocl Alcr3
6 CrHuCl-1ffi;+ product.
O:C- c(cH3)3 The producvs formed in the reaclion isi/are
Anhyd.. (1) Ethane, ethene and butane
(2) +(CH3)3C-COCI Atcls
(2) Ethene and butane
(maior)
(3) Only butane
CH.L (4) Only ethane
7 lncreasing rate of dehydrohalogenation follottts the
(3) + CH3cH(CH3)cH.offi order
('l) RF < RCI < RBr < Rl
), (2) Rl < RBr < RCI < RF
4 (3) RCI < RF < RBr < Rl
(4) +CHr=CH-CH,
(4) RF < Rl < RCI < RBr
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94 Hydrocarbons
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l
H'/A 12. The number of moles of Hl required for the following
8 cH - CH3
----------> A conversion is
Ph (Major)
OH
The compound 'A is I
R-C-OH -illE--+ n-CH.,
(1) CH = CH^ (1)2 Ql 3
Ph (3) 4 (4) 6
(2) CH = CHz Decarboxylation of CH3CH, - CH - COONa (aq)

I
Ph cH,
by electrolysis and with soda lime respectively
H3
gives
Ph
(3) (1) 2,3dimethyl bulane and propane
(2) lsopentane and butane
C H3 (3) 3,4-dimethyl hexane and butane
Ph
(4) Butane and 3,4-dimethyl hexane
(4)
14 + Cl, water -- ----+ A

9. CH3-C=CH (i NaNH
(ii)cH3cHO (A). ldentify A
ldentify A
(1) CH3 C=C-CHCH 3
OH UI
(1) OH (2)
OH OH
CI OH UI
(2) CH3 \ /. cHCH3
*rt =' tH HO
(3) CH2OH -C =CH (3) (4) OH

CI CI CI
(4) HC=C-CH2-CHCH3
OH
15. Product of ozonolysis of ortho-xylene is
10. The reaction used for ascending homologous (1) Glyoxal, methylgtyoxal
series is (2) 1,2-dimethyt gtyoxat, gtyoxat
(l) Decarboxytation (2) Cracking (3) Glyoxat onty
(3) Pyrolysis (4) Wurtz reaction (4) Methyt gtyoxat, gtyoxat, 1,2{imethyl gtyoxal
11. Select the correct chain propagation step
(1) ctt, ct, cHrct* Hcl

to + (cH3),-cHctlcr 335 a
+
-
(2) iH. +ir Product A is
- cH,ct
(1) lsopropyl benzene
(3) cH.ct+ ct -+ iH,ct * HCt (2) lsobutyl benzene
(3) 3" butyl benzene
(4) cHrct+ ct, -+ cHCt, + i (4) n-butyl benzene
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Hydrocarbons 95
Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
22. Rale of electrophilic substitution (chlorination) of
OH NA benzene and hexadeuterobenzene are 11 and 12
17. ------+ respectively, then
Br (Maior)
(1\ r, > r, (2) t1 < 12
The compound A will be (3) r, = r, (4) Unpredicted

ONa OH 23. A compound of formula CoH, does not decolourise
(1) (2) bromine water then the comPound is
OH
Br (1) But-1-ene (2) But 2-ene
OH (3) Cyclobutane (4) 2-methyl propene
(3) (4)
24. An organic compound on ozonolysis gives 1 mole
Br
acetaldehyde and 1 mole acetone then the
OH
compound will be
18. Addition of Br2 to 1,3-butadiene gives
(1) Pentene
(1) 1,2-addition Product only
(2) Cyclopentene
(2) 1,4-addition Product only
(3) Pent-2€ne
(3) Both 1,2- and 1,4-addition products
(4) 2-methyl+ut-2-en
(4) No reaction
25. The treatment of RMgBr with R'C = CH produces
cHroH (1) Rr-r e) R'H
19
_--->H@
P . Then, P will be (3) R'-c=cR (4) R'- R'
(Majo0
26. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis yields
CH-CH 3 (1) CH3CH2CHO (2 moles)
(2)
(1) (2) cH. -? = O (2 moles)
C H3 o
I
(4)
(3) CH.CHTCHO + CH. - c -cH3
(3)
(4) OHC - (CH2)4 - cHo
20. An alkane of formula C.H,o form only two 27. :ihe correct order of reactivity of halogens when
monobromo alkane' the alkane is reacts with alkane
(1) Hexane (1) Brz> Cl2> F2 \2\ F"> Clr> Br,
(2) 2-methyl Pentane (3) Br2 > F2 > Cl2 (\ Clr' g'r",
(3) 2, Himethyl butane 28. When 2-butyne is treated with dil H2SO4 and
HgSOo, the Produci formed is
(4) 2, 2dimethyl butane
(1) 2-butanol (2) 2-butanone
21. From the following reaction
(3) Butanol (4) Butene
OH 29. When mixture of two alkyl halide reacts with
P(Major) sodium metal in dry ether, mixture of 2-methyl
(r)NBS alc.KOH
propane, ethane and 2, 3-dimethyl butane was
The compound P will be obtained. The alkyl halides are
(1) 2-chloropropane and chloroethane
(1) (2\
(2) Chloromethane and chloroethane
(3)
tr (4)
A (3) 2+hloropropane and methyl chloride
(4) 1-chloropropane and chloromethane
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96 Hydrocarbons
30. A hydrocarbon on reductive ozonolysis gives An alkyne on oxidation with KMnO4 gives
formaldehyde, glyoxat and acetaldehyd;. tnen tfre
hydrocarbon is
(1) CH3CH = CH cH,cooH +
- CH = CHz
""1
(2) CH3CH=C=CH-CH:
The alkyne should be
(3) CH2 = CH - CH2 - CH = CH2
(4) CH3CH2-CH=C=CHz (1) cHrc= cH
31. Propene when treated with chlorine at about
SOo.C
forms
(21 C=CH
(1) Cn, = CH - CH2C| (2) C|CH, _CH_CH3
ct
(3) C
=C-CH3
CI
(3) CCI-LCFLCTLO (4)
cH. _CH_CH, (4) CH2 C
=CCH3
32. Propane on heterolytic cleavage produces
36. The total number of structural isomeric dihalo
Oo dedvatives possible in n-pentane are
(t; 6H.anocH.dH. (2) cHrBH, Eu.
"no (1)5 €)6
(3) 6x. ano cn.6n. (4) EH. ano cH.iH, (3) 8 (4) s
37. A chiral centre is generated when 2_methyl _ 2-
(cH3)3co
butene is treated with
33. cH3-cHr-CH-CH3 (1) Dit. Hrsq
Alc. KOH
B
(2) B2H6 I H2O2t oH-
ct
(3) (ACO)2Hg / NaBH, _ HrO
A and B respectively is
(4) HCt
('l)CH3-CH2-CH= CHr, CH.-CH= CH_CH.
(2) CHr-CH = CH-CH3, CH2-CH2-CH CHz H CH,
= -
(3) CH3CH2-CH=CHr, CH._CHr_CH=CH, + Reagent + catalyst -
38. -r)
(4) CH.-CH=CH-CH3, CH3-CH
=CH_CH3
CH ln the above reaction, reagent / catalyst will
be
(1) CH3CH,
u HNO
H2SOa(conc) A (major) - Ct / Anhyd.Atct3
(2) CH2= CH2, Conc. H2SO4
H3
(3) CH3CH2_ oH, BF3
The product 'A in this reaction (4) All of these
CH CH 3 39. Correct order of given four alkenes for
NO, hydrogenation reaction will be
(1) (2) CH2:CH2 CH3-CH:CH2
CH Itt-
NO, CH.
CH 3
NO, CH 3 )c:CH.- CH3-CH:CH-CH3
orN No, CH.
IV
ilr
(3) (4\
CH,
CH
(1) >tv> >t (2) t> >tv> t
NO,
Nq (3) t> >l >tv (4) [>t> >tv
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40. Acetylene when lreated separately with N|(CN), in cH"
THF and passed in red hot iron tube gives two ACI' ,
product A and B. The correct information about 46. * cn.J-cH--cH.
"l
products A and B is
ct
(1) Both A and B are aromatic The major product of this reaction
(2) A is antFaromatic and B is aromatic
CH, CH
(3) A is non-aromatic and B is antFaromatic
(1) HH,-CH3
(4) A is non-aromatic and B is aromatic
41. Which of the following is most reactive towards
electrophilic substilution? CH"
('l)Toluene ?'.
(2) tsopropyt benzene
(3) Neobutyl benzene (4) o-nitrotoluene (2) c- c--{H
I I
H H
42. + CHgCI Alcl. r A &cr,o'/Ho)

B,
H-{H.
(3)
H3
t'
then B is CH3
HroH CH ,cl CH
(4)
(1) (2)
OH COOH 47. Which compound in the following will give only one
monochlorination product in presence of light?
(3) (4) (1) (CH3LC (2) (CH3)3CH
43. What is the product formed when acetylene reacts

with two moles of hypochlorus acid? (3) (CH3)rCH2 (4)
(1) CT2CHCHO (2) C|CH2COOH

(3) CTCH2CHO (4) CH3COC|
,14. Toluene reacts with excess of Cl2 in the presence 48 Cl"/Fecl"
-+Majorproduct
of sunlight to give a product which on hydrolysis NO,
Sile
Major product of the reaction is
CH .oH CH.
(1) (2t (1)

NO,
COOH CHO
(2)
(3) (4) CI
45. The order ol o/o

P characler in Alkane, Alkene and
Alkyne (3)
NO,
('l) Alkane > Atkene > Atkyne
(2) Alkyne > Alkene > Alkane H
CI
(3) Alkane > Alkyne > Atkene (4)
(4) Alkyne > Atkane > Alkene
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98 Hydrocarbons Last LeaD for NEET (Part-l)
54. CH.-CH._CH_CH, "I".KOH' A

I
H F
(mslor)
49 "on".
conc. HrSO.
H What is 'A?
(1) CH3-CH = CFKHg
o (2) CH.-CH,-CH = CH,
D
(3) CH.-C = CH,
conc. HNO. D
- CH.
conc. H2SO.
D D
(4) CH3-C = C-CH.
@ 55. cH3-cHr-cH2-cH2-cH3 cH3-cH-cH2-cH3
CH.
T conc. HNO3 - T T tll
conc. HrSO. CH.
T T T T t'
cH.-c-cH3
"l
o CH.
Conect statement about the above reaction ilr
The correct decreasing order of melting point of
('l) Rate of reaction is maximum for O above alkanes is
(2) Rate of reaction is maximum for @ (1)t>[>l (2) lr >l>lll
(3) Rate of reaction is maximum for O (3) t >t> (4) lll >ll >l
56. Which of the following alkyl benzene having highest
(4) Rate of reaction is equal in 6, O, O electron density?
CHTCH, Brzlr ,6
50.
(1) (2)
The major product E is
H,CH3 H,CH,BT
(1) (21
(4)
Br (3)
Br
I
57. The coneci increasing order of bond energy of given
H-CH3 CH,CH3 bonds undergoing homolytic fission is
(3) (4)
H
51. The electrophiles in nitration and sulphonation of

benzene are respectively
,Y+P,
(1) NO', SOr' (2) NO2., SO3
(1) b<c<d<a (2) dca<b<c
(3) NO2. SO2. (4) NO2.' SO3
(3) a<b<c<d (4) c<b<dca
52. Bond angle in benzene will be
(1) 90p (2\ 72' sa nff6'a$ft-+c Na/Liq NH3 - D
(3) 12tr (4) 18oo A is(Only alkyne which on hydration produces

53. 2-Methyl pentane reacts with 1 equivalent of Cl2 aldehyde)
then major product formed would be The isomer of D is
(1) 2chloro4-methyl Pentane
u, (
(2) 3thloro-2-methyl Pentane .tr (2)
(3) 1-chloro-2-methYl Pentane (3) (4) (

(4) 1+hloro-4-methyl Pentane
L
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59. Which of the follotrying alkene does not give positi\re 64. Which of the following statement is inconect?
test of unsaturation with Baeye/s reagent? (1) Among isomeric alkanes, boiling point
(1) Propene decreases with increase in branching
(2) 2, S.Dimethyl but-2-ene (2) Melting point of alkanes depends on symmetry
(3) 2-Methyl-but2-ene (3) Melting point of octane is lower than that of
nonane
(4) But-2-ene
(4) Each carbon atom in alkane is sp3 hybridised
60. Which of the following has highest degree of
unsaturation? 65. Alkane which undergoes sulphonation is
(1) CH.-C = G€H, (1) Ethane (2) Butane

(3) Hexane (4) All of these
(2)
66. y''^. a$g,-ift;",,
(3) The product 'y' is
cHrcl
(1) (2) cr
(4) CFrcH = CH2
CHz =
61. ln the pfolysis of alkanes which bonds break?
(1) C-C bond
(3)
cHrcl
(41
K",
(2) C+l bond Anhyd
67 + CH3CHTCHTCI
(3) C=Cbond
(4) C=C bond What is product 'A?
CH.L C H2CH2CH3
Zn.Hg/HCl
x (1) (2')
62. CH
KOH
v CH.t
(3) (4)
x and y respectively are
H 68. Benzene hexachlonde is used as a powerful
I
insecticide under the name of
(1) CH3-C-CH3, CH3CH2CH3
OH
(1) Lindane (2) Gammexane
H (3) 666 (4) All of these
I
(2) CH3CH2CH3, cHr{,-cHr 69. Which of the following statement is conect?
OH (1) Alkyne is more reactive towards electrophilic
OH
tt OH addition than alkene
(3) CH3-C-CH3, CH!-C-CH!, (2) Addition to HBr in unsymmetrical alkene takes
tt
HH place according to anti-Markownikoff s rule
(4) CH3CH2CH3, CH3CH2CH3 (3) CH3 CHCH3 is more stable than

63. Which of the following alkanes gives alcohol on cH3cH2 6HCH3
oxidation with KMnOo? (4) All of these
(1) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane 70. Which of the following alkane cannot be prepared
(2) Propane by WurE's reaction?
(3) 2-Methyl propane (1) CH4 (2) CH3CH3
(4) All of these (3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) CH3CH2CI-|2CH3

100 Hydrocarbons Last Leap for NEET (Part-l
71. The rnost appropriate method for the preparation of 75. Reduction of butyn+.2 produces difierent produc-ts
both symmetrical and unsymmetrical alkanes is
(1) Frankland reaclion as siven cH.-c = c-cH, I-......% o
I c.rltytt -
Lrndt.r
(2) Corey-house synthesis @
(3) Wurts's reaction The product @ and @ are respectively
(4) All of these (1) cis and trans butene-2
cl,(1 mole)
(2) trans and cis butene-2
(3) Both are cis 2-butene
72. CH,=Qf{-{lJ=6P.
Cl,(1 mol6)
(4) Both are trans 2-butene
B
high temp.ratube 76. Gases produced at cathode and anode on Kolbe's
A and B respectively are electrolysis of HCOONa will be respectively
CH ,-QH-CH=CH,, CH,-CH=CH-CH, (1) C2H6 and CO2
'l
I
CI ct ct ct
I
(2) H2 and H2
(3) CO, and H,
(2) CH,-CH=CH-CH., CH,-CH-CH=CH.
CI ct ct cr
(4) C2H6 and H2
77. Reductive ozonolysis of an alkene produces
(3) CH,-CH-CH=CH,, CH --CH-CH=CH- acetaldehyde and formaldehyde, its oxidative
'l
ct ct ct ct ozonolysis will produce
(1) CH3COOH and HCOOH
(4) H.-CH=CH -tH,, CH.-CH=CH-CH,
?
(- I cl cr cr
(2) CH3COOH, CO, and HrO
(3) HCOOH, CO2 and H2O
Alkaline
KMnoa (1%)
(4) CH3COOH, HCOOH, CO, and HrO
73.cH"-c-H
'[ 78. Best yield of propane can be obtained from CH3CI
cH3-c+l OsO. and CrH.Cl using the
H"oz B
The product A and B respectively are (1) WurE reaction
(1) Meso form, meso form (2) Frankland reaction
(3) Ullmann reaction
(2) Racemic mixture, racemic mixture
(4) Corey-House synthesis
(3) Meso form, racemic mixture
79. The major product on monochlorination of 2-methyl
(4) Racemic mixture, meso form butane will be
74. An hydrocarbon on ozonolysis followed by (1) l rhloro-2-methyl butane
reductive hydrolysis gives 1 molecule of each (2) 2-chloro-2-methyt butane
acetone, CO2 and acetaldehyde, The slructure of
hydrocarbon is
(3) 2-chloro-3-methyt butane
(4) 1-chloro-&methyt butane
(1) CH2=C=CH-CH=CF€Hg
(2) CH.-C=C=CH-CH.
I
CH" *o Gl; CH.CH"
' Cl^/hv
(X) and (Y) in this reaction are respectivety

(3) CH3CH=C=C
'j*,
CH. CH,CH"CI CH ,CH.
(4) CH.-C-CH=C=CH. (1)

CHt
O- and
CI
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CI c"')c=c,a, t')o'
I
CHC H3 CH, u. CH( I'i) H2o
r?
(2) and What is the product formed in this reaction?

OD OH
H,CH,CI
CI
CH. trl
cH'\LcH. rzl
cH')l-cH,
ct cH( cH{
(3) and
OH OD
CH, I cH. I
(3) c-cH,D (4\ c-cH,D
cr-cHCH. ut-l CH
(4)
o and
85
CH,OH
Conc H"SO,
160.C
^
The major product of above reaction may be

81 The reaction C|-CH2CH2CH2CHT-O -mi E CH. CH,
ts (1) (21
(1) WurE reaction

(2) Fittig reaction
(3) Freund's reaclion (3) (4)
(4) WurE-Fittig reaction CH"
H3C\,,H 86. ln the reaction sequence

t'""u
82. fic ' ,o,. CHl-C=C-H-+CH.+(A)
CH"MoBr ri) co"
€(B)
(ii) H,o/Hv
H/ \cH. (B) will be

(1) CH3-C=C-CH3
Product (A) in this reaction will be
(2) CH3-Q=C-MgBr
(1) Meso compound
(3) CH3-C=C-COOH
(2) Dextrorotatory mixture (4) CH3 - CH = CH - COOH
(3) Laevo-rotatory mixture 87. Primary amine does not undergo E-2 elimination,
(4) Racemic mixture because
(1) lt has maximum basic nature
3
(2) Alkene obtained will be less stable
*"**, , (A)
83 Liq. NH3 (Maior prcduct) (3) NHI is poor leaving group
(4) Nitrogen has Lewis basic character
The product (A) is
H3 3
CH.
NH, 88. Vvhen ^l
,cH,cH;r$cH.cH" OFf is heated
(1) (2) I
cH,
NH, F-
('l) Propene is the maior Product
3
(2) Ethene and C.HrN(CH.), are the products
(4) Mixture of (1) & (3) (3) Ethene and propene are obtiained with ethene
(3)
as the maior product
(4) Equimolar amounts of ethene and propene are
NH,
obtained
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102 Hydrocarbons Last Leap for NEET (Parl-l)
89. Anange the following in increasing order of heat of 93. ldentify the end product in the following reaction
hydrogenation
CHg-C=CH H o/H
H' @
(1) CH3-CH'-CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(r) ([) (ilr) (rv) H
(1) t< t <tv< (2) t<tv<[<l (3) cH;cH=cHoH (4) SH,J=cx,

(3) It <tv<[<t (4) It < <t<tv Ar'
90. A hydrocarbon with molecular formula CuH1, on 94. Which of the following alkene is most reactive
monochlorination can give four optically active towards electrophilic addition?
product, the structure of the hydrocarbon is
(1) Ethene (2) Buta-1, 3{iene
(1) CH3{CHr)3-CH3
(3) Propene (4) 2-butene
(2) (CHJ3C-CF.|3
95. C-H bond length is minimum in
(3) CHJ-CH-CH,-CH, (1) Ethene (2) Ethyne
I
CH, (3) Ethane (4) Methane
(4) All structure witt gave optically active product on 96. Compound having carbon of maximum p character
monochlorination
(1) Methane (2) Ethene
91. The product of acid catalfzed reanangement in the
(3) Ethyne
following reaction is
(4) Carbon dioxide
97. Which of the following represents the given mode
CH, of hybridisation sp - sp3 - sf - sd starting from
first carbon atom?
H'-
(1) .-\2\./ (2\ .y'\/cN
CH H
(3) 4..../.cHo (4)
o
CH. 98. During nikation of an organic compound with HNO.
CH
and HrSOr, HNO3 acts as
(1) (21
H C
(1) Acid (2) Base
CH CH (3) Neutral
CH, (4) Satt
99. Monochloro derivative of which carbon are formed
CH ,cH. o/o
1234
C H3 in maximum
"l
CH"-€H--CH,--CH.
(3) H.C CH, cH.
(4)
(1) 1"t e) 2,n
CH, (3) 3d (4) 4t,
92. Which of the following alkanes give only 100. Among the paraffins it is generally found that with
one
monochloro substitution product in chlorinafion? an increase in the molecular weight
(1) 2-Methyl butane (1) The freezing point decreases

(2) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane (2) The boiling point decreases
(3) Pentane (3) The boiling poinl increases
(4) Hexane (4) The vapour density decreases
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101 . Alkene of highest heat of hydrogenation 106. The major product of the reaction
(1) (2')
H3CO =CH - CH
'@to,-!9lt
(1)
H3 cH-cHr-cH, NO,
(3) CH, = CH, O >< Br
cHr-cH-cH, No.
102. Whid process is not govemed by peroxide efiecl? (21
Br
(1) CH3--CH = CH--CH3 + HBr
(3) H3C - CH=CH-CHz Br
(2) CH3--CH = CH2 + HCI
(3) CH.-CH, + Br, cH(80 - cH(80 o2
(4) H3C -
(4) All of these
Br, (hv)
CH. CH, 1eqv. 6
107.
BLl^ r(P) Br, / AlCl3
103. l equivalent ' ' 1eqv.
@
Product (P) in the above reaction is Product @ and @ are resPectivelY

H5 H5
cH, - cH,Br CH(BOCH,
(1)
(1) (2) Br
Br I
Br (2\
cH -cH3 CH, - CH,BT
Br
Br
C H,CH,BT CH -C H3 I
CH cH. CH,CH.
(3)
(3) (4)
Br
Br
104. Friedel Craft alkylation reaction is most easily I
shown by cH - cH" in both cases
(4)
(1) CH, F
I
cH3o-/cH3oH ) (A)
108. , '/\
(2) NO.
cH. cH.
ldentify the compound (A) in the reaction
(3) COOH
(1). Qt /\
(3),,A,/\ (4) .,,^.
(4) NH. 109. Which of the following compounds can form only
two chloro derivatives upon monocfi lorinations?
105. The treatment of methanol with ethylmagnesium
(1)
iodide liberates a gas at STP The gas is
(1) CHn (2) CH3CH3 (21 CH,
(3) CqONr (4) CH3-CH-OH (3) (CH3)2 - CH2
CH, (4) (cH3Lc

104 Hydrocarbons
(1) cis-2-butene
110 cH3 -cH- cH, - cH3cH = cH -c H3
ji.* (2) trans-2-butene
CH, iCH - (3) n-Butane
CH, - CH3
A and B are (4) A mixture of cis and trans-2-butene

1'16. The correct statement about bromination of
(1) Atc. KoH, *oc1cH,y, benzene is
+- ('l) r - complex
lt form
(2) KOC(CH3 )3 , alc. KOH
(2) lt form o - complex
(3) Na in NH., alc. KOH
(3) lt neither form ,r - complex nor o _ mmplex
(4) Alc. KOH in both will give maior product (a) Both (1) & (2)
111.
O,
ti) --
@+H,O-----|@ (ii)ZTVCH,COoH H2
CI
A
I - 117 H.C-C=C-CH-C=C
I /H Pd, BaSOa
Reacts with Na 1n,
",
l(ii)oH 'n, I Na, NH3(l)
cH3cH2CH3 H3 B
H
@ can be
(1) 'A' is opt,ca y active while ,B'is optically
(1) ecz inaclive
(2) At4C3 (2) 'A' is optica y inactive while ,B' is optically
(3) Mg2C3 active
(4) Nic, (3) Both 'A and 'B' are optically active
112. Which of the following is most reactive towards (4) Both 'A and 'B' are opticafiy inactive
electrophilic substitution?
118. To prepare a pure sample of n-hexane using Na
(1) Toluene metal as one reactant, the other reaclant or
(2) Ethyl benzene reactants will be
(3) Benzene (1) Ethyl chtoride and n-butyl chloride
(4) 3' butyl benzene (2) Methyl bromide and n-pentyt bromide
113. When cyclohexane is poured in water it floats (3) Ethyl bromide and n-butyl bromide
because
(4) n-propyt bromide
(1) lt is in boat form
'119. Acetylene may be obtained
(2) Water is more denser than cyclohexane by the electrolysis of
aqueous solution of
(3) lt is in chair form
(1) Sodium formate
(4) lt is in crown form
(2) Sodium tumerate
1'14. Which species as given below will undergo
electrophilic attack most readily on the ring? (3) Sodium acetate
OH (4) Sodium succinate
{1) (2) '120. Which of the following groups
aclivate the benzene
ring when direcfly aftached?
(1) -NO2
(3) (4)
(2) -cooH
115. Dehalogenation of meso-2,3{ibromobutane with Zn (3) -oH
in ether gives
(4) Both -OH and -COOH
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CrHu Br
I
121. cH3 -C-CH=CH ,-tiL.4, A is (1) cH, : cH-cH-cH2 -Br I
Ph (21 Br
- CH, - CH:CH - CH, - Br
CrHu (3) CH, CH CH = CHz
(1) CH3
I
- c-cH-cH3 lt
Br
-
Br
-
Br C6H5
(4)
(2) CH3-C- cH -
CuH
I
cH3
CH3
- CH'
- CH
Br
tt
- CH'
Br
Br CrHu 125. The addition of Hl in the presence of organic

peroxide does not follow anti-markovnikov's rule
C.Hu because
I
(3) C,Hs-C-CH-CH3 (1) Hl bond is too strong to be broken
homolytically
CH3 Br
(2) lodine free radical formed but readily combine
CuHu with each other to form 12 molecule rather than
I
to attack the double bond
(4) CrH5 - c-cH-cH3
Br CH. (3) lodine combines with H to give back Hl
(4) Hl is a reducing agent
Zn dust
122. CH,-cH, CH + ZnBtz
Br Br
126. + CHsCHzCH,O
#s product
Major product of the above reaction is

The above reaction is an example of
cHrcH2cH3
(1) d-elimination
(1)
(2) Ct, Felimination
(3) 0, y-elimination CH.
CH
(4) Condensation reaction (2) CH.
123. Which of the following compound is heterocyclic
aromatic compound? CI
CHzCH'CH3
(1)o (2)
(3)
,CH,CH3
(4)
(3) (4)
w ,i
ct
127. During the preparation of ethene by Kolbe's
electrolytic method using inert elecfodes the pH of
124. ldentiry the end prcduct the resulting solution
(1) lncreases progressively as the reaction
2cH-cHffia# t proceeds
(2) Decreases progressively as the reaction
Br,
C proceeds
lonising
major
solvent and (3) Remains constant through out the reaction
high temperature
(4) May decrease if the concentration of the
The product C of reaction is electrolyte is not very high
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'128. Electrophilic as well as nucleophilic addition (3) CH3 (CH2)2 CH3
reaclions are shown by
- -
(4) cH3 cH
(1) Alkane (2) Alkene - I
-cH3
CH.
(3) Alkyne (4) All of these
129. The compound CH.CHTC- CH can be 133. The mnect order of nitration of following compound
distinguished from alkane and alkene using HDT
(1) Bromine in CCla (2) Ammonical CurCl, H H D D T T
(3) Ammonical AgNO3 (a) Both (2) & (3)
H H D D T T
130. CH2: CH-CN Hx >product. HDT
The major product of the reaction is
tIilt
(1) t>[> t (2) I< <
(1) CH, : CH CN (3) l= ll = lll
I
- (4) lt > t> ttt
X 134. Of the five isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can

give two monochlorinated compounds is
(2) X-CH2-CH2-CN
(1) n-hexane (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
(3) Both (1)and (2) in equal ratio
(3) 2,2{imethylbutane (4) 2-methyl pentane
(4) CH, : 611 x
- 135. Which of the following compounds does not form
HBr benzoic acid by the oxidation with KMnOo?
A
131. CH2=CH-CHz-C=CH C H3
H,
'1 mole B
(1)
A and B respectively is
(1) CH3-CH-CH,-C=CH and H, - CH3
Br (21
CHr=66-CHr-CH=CH,
(2) CH2= CH - CH2 - CH = CH - Br and CH, _CH_CH
CH3-CH2-CH2-C=CH
(3) CHr-CH, -CHr-C= CH and
Br
(3)
0
?',
CH3-CH2-CH2-C=CH CH. - - CH.
(4) CH3-CH, -CH2-C = CH2 and (4)
Br
136. How many moles of H, would be required to
CH, = 611 -CHr-CH=CH, produce saturated hydrocarbon from given
compound?
132. CH3-CH2-C=CH
H'oEllso' ra Zn HCI
B
The product B is
o
I
lt
(1) cH3
- - C- CH3
CH2
(1) 1 (2) 4
(2) CH3 CH2 CH3 (3) 8 (4) s
- -
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137. ln which of the following, dipole moment is not 145. The correct order of reactivity towards nitration
ze/o? reaction
H\ /cl CH 3\/ H
H
C C
il il
(1) (21
C t. .
C
\cH.
H/ \cr H/
CI N o,
CI
t.
(3) (4) NO.
CI
CI cr (1)t> > t >tv (2) ll >t> >tv
138. Alkanes can be obtained by the hydrolysis of (3) >t>tv> t (4) >tv>t>
(1) CaC, (2) MgzC: BrJCCl. NaNH"
146
(3) Be2Ca (4) Al4C3
139. The end product in the given reaction ---r(x)__+(y)

Compounds x and y are respectively
(i)Ms/ether
+Bt2--Y-+ A B.Bis (1) C=CH
--.r,/ (ii)Dro
?*-?,,.
(1\ .2...../o (2)-o Br Br
D
(3),,\t (21 CH = CH- Br C=CH
(4)
D
140. Mesitylene is a polymerisation product of (3) C = CH,. CH,
(1) Acetylene (2) Propyne
I
Br
(3) Ethylene (4) Vinylacetylene
(4) c=cH, cH, - cH3
141. Ethane gives_different substitution product on
reaction with chlorine 147. An alkene'A contains three C - C o bond, eight
(1) 1 (2) 6 C - H o bond and one C - C n bond.'A' on
(3) 7 (4) e ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde of
molar mass 44 u. IUPAC name of 'A is
142. Which of the following alkane is liquid at room
temperature?
(1) Propene (2) But-2-ene
(1) Propane (2) Butane
(3) 2{ethyFbut-2-ene (4) Pen!3-ene
(3) Nonane (4) Ethane 148. ldentify the alkyne in the following sequence of
reactions
143. ln which of the following polysubstitution may
takes place? Bssoo
AtkynB --H'---1 4-939!9!:5 onry
B<
H2SO.
cH = cH
(1) Acylation of benzene
(2) Methylation of benzene (1) HsC - C = C - CHs
(3) NiFation of benzene (2) H.C - CH, - C = CH
(3) HC = C - CH' - C = CH
(4) Sulphonation of benzene
(4) H'c = cH - c = cH
144. 1+uten€ ard 2-bubne can be differenliated bv
'
(1) Hydrogenation
149. Addition of water to CH. - C = CH is
(1) Etectrophitic addition
(2) oxidation by acidic KMnoo (Hot) (2) Nucreophiric additirn
(3) Baeye'',s reagent test (3) Erectrophiric substihition
(4) Both (1) A (2) (4) tsomerisarion
108 Hydrocarbons Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
150. The reagent which is most appropriate for the 154. Which of the following on dehatogenation will give
following conversion, trans alkene?
Br
"\4",'--'-+ H--E-H (1)
CHs CHs
CH: H
isi/are
Br
(1) Alcoholic KOH Br
(2) Alc. KOH followed by NaNH2 CH: H
(2)
CH: H
(3) Aq. KOH followed by NaNH2
Br
(4) All of these
Br
151. I - Bromo - 3-chlorocyclobutane will react with two CHs CHa
moles of Na in ether producing (3) cHg CH:
Br
(1) Br
H H
(4) cH3 CHa
CI
(21 Br
Br
Mo
155 > Product
Br dry ether (Final)
Br
(3)
What is product?
(1) CH.CH:CH,
(4)
(21
(3) Br Mo
- Br
152. But2-yne
o3
2. H2OlZn
Product \,-\,/
Product is (4)
(1) Glyoxal
156
"r,-o, ;ffi1o1
Major Producr.
(2) Methylglyoxal )
(3) What is A?
Dimethylglyoxal
(4) Acetone (1) CH,
153. Benzene can be converted to BHC when
(1) Cl2 is bubbled through benzene (2) CH.
(2) Benzene and Cl2 mixture is kept in dark

(3)
(3) Cl2 is shaken with benzene
(41
(4) Cl2 and benzene is exposed to tight
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160. cH,-cx:cH, + Hcl @I!et Major Product
157 1aq1 -E]-l-lv\, 1P1 Yajor Product.

The interm€diate of reaction is
Coo.Nae
(1) cH3-cH-CH3
What is P?
o
(2) CH3CHT-CH,
(1)
e
(3) CH3-CH-CH3
(2)
e
(4) CH3-CH-CH3
161. Whicfi of the following will give aceton6?
(3)
(a) c[-c-cH 4F
B,H6/THF
(4) (b) CH3-C=CH
ox? H,o,
158. 4$prc6us1.
c)x KMnO,
Cold & dil.
The product is
(o> Hot
KMnO.. OHo
,
(1)
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a) & (d)
(3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (a) & (c)
(2\
Br Br
Product
162 ---!3-+
Dryether (Majo0
Br Br
The major product is

(3) Both (1)& (2)
(1)
(4)
(21
1ss.2'O *-",o> (e) ---%, (a)

(3)
The compound 'A and 'B' respectively are
(1) (4)
'163. Mg2Ca and CaC, react with H2O to produce

(2) Both respectively
(1) Propyne and ethane
(3) (2) Propane and ethane
(3) Propyne and ethyne
(4) CH CH, (4) Ethene and ethyne
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CH, 169. Product of reaction will be
164. CH, - Jr- - CH3+ pohss'um terrbubxiie -i (y) CH.- CH = CH CH, --1CH.N"
)
f,H (cis form) N gas, hv
(Y) as a major product, is CH, CH.

(1) C_C
CH, CH, CH,
trl - CH-CH
cH, - JH
I
OH (21 "1)v( CH.
Hr .,CH-
tzl cH"-Xl'cx-crr, (3)
cH,2vc-c(H
cH. (4) Mixture of (2) & (3)
I
(3) cH, - CH - cH = cH,
1 70. When trans-1 -bromo-2-phenyl cyclohexane react
(4) CH3 - CH = CH - CH: with alcoholic KOH, it mainly gives
165. Elimination reaction by alc. KOH will be fastest in ('l) l-Phenytcyclohexene
CI (2) 3-Phenylcyclohexene
(1) (3) 2-Phenytcyctohexene
(4) Phenol
'171. Conect order of melting point
(2) is
(1) n-pentane > Neopentane > lsopentane
(2) Neopentane > n-pentane > lsopentane
(3) (3) Neopentane > lsopentane > n-pentjane
(4) lsopentane > Neopentiane > n_pentjane
172. -CC\ is deactivating if aftached to the benzene
(4t ring. The most appropriate factor for this is
(1) Resonance
166. Tertiary butyl bromide undergoes elimination
reaction through (2) Electromeric effect
(1) E, mechanism (2) E2 mechanism (3) Hyperconjugation
(3) E,cB mechanism (4) Borh (1) & (2) (4) Revers€ hyperconjugation
167. Fehling's solution test is given by
173. The cyclic compound having minimum angle strain
(1) Benzatdehyde
(1) C3H6 (2) C4H8
(2) Acetone
(3) CsHlo (4) C6H12
(3) Acetatdehyde
174. Which of the following does not decolourise
(a) Both (1) & (3)
Baeye/s reagent?
168. Maior product of the reaction is
(1) CH3-C=C-CHg
(21 CH2= CH -
[6)*ocr,.-s!*,
\-/' - oarK, cold
CH =CH - CH = CH2
(3)
(1) CsHsCt (2) C6H6C|6
(3) C6Ct6 (4) C6Ct12 (4) HrC=C=CH,
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Hydrocarbons 111
175. The (major product) of monobromination 3. A: Monochlorination of isopentane generates two

chiral carbon atoms.
of HO IS R : 1', 2' as well as 3" carbon free radicals are
formed during the reaction.
cH.
4. A: Alkynes give some nucleophilic addition
OH reactions but alkenes do not.
Br
(1)
R : The carbanion formed in reaction of alkynes is
more stable than carbanion formed in alkenes.
CH.
5. A: Acetylene may undergo dimerisation or
trimerisation in the presence of CurCl, and
NH4Cl.
(2)
CH, R : Propyne on heating in presence of Cu-tube
t forms mesitYlene.
H
6. A : NBS gives benzylic substitution on reaction
with toluene.
(3) R : But-2-yne has acidic hydrogen.
Br cH" 7. A : Lower the heat of hydrogenation of an alkene,
the more stable it is.
OH
R : Diels-Alder reaction may take place between
(4) buta-1, 3iiene and ethylene.
CH.
8. A: Hydration of ethene and ethyne proceeds via
same mechanism.
SECTION . B
R: Ethyne is more reactive than ethene towards
Assertion - Reason TYPe Questions chlorination reaction.
ln the following questions, a statement of assertion 9. A : Buta-l. 3diene is more stable than but-2-ene
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R: Buta-1, 3-diene is resonance stabilised
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the molecule.
reason is the correct explanation of the 10. A : WurE reaction is not given by t-butyl chloride'
R : t-butyl chloride cannol form a free radical.
(2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the 11. A : Bu!1-yne and But-2-yne can be distinguished
reason is not the correct explanation of the by ammonical silver nitrate solution.
R : But-2-yne will react but but-l-yne does not.
12. A: Alkenes are more reactive than alkynes
false, then mark (3). towards electrophilic addition reactions.
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false R: Alkenes form more stable carbocation than
statements, then mark (4). alkyne in electrophilic addition reaction.
1. A : Aniline does not undergo Friedal Craft's 13. A: During pyrolysis of alkanes, C C bond is
-
broken in Preference to C H bonds.
reaction. -
R : Bond energy of C C bond is lower than that
R : -NH, group is strongly deactivating.
ofC-Hbonds.
-
2. A: Acetylene on reaction with sodium gives
14. A : Cis-2-butene has higher boiling point than the
hydrogen.
trans isomer.
R : sp hybridised carbon atoms of acetylene are
sd hybridised carbon
R: Cis-isomer is more closely packed in the
less electronegative than
crystal lattice structure.
atoms.
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15. A: Tert-butyl benzene on nitration gives ortho and 18. A: Alkenes show nucleophilic addition reactions.
para nitro-lbutyl benzene.
R: Alkenes are the rich source of n-electrons
R: Tert-butyl group is ortho, para directing group. which attract nucleophile.
16. A: Neopentane forms only one monochlorinated 19. A: l,ldichloro ethane on reaction with sodium in
product upon free radical chlorination. presence of dry ether gives but-2-ene.
R: Neopentane has four identical methyl groups R: Wurtz reaction is more efficient in the
preparation of alkenes.
attached to a quaternary carbon.
20. A: Hydroxylation of cis-but-2-ene with osmium
17. A: Both alkanes and alkenes can be prepared by
tetroxide and NaOH gives meso compound.
Kolbe's electrolysis method.
R: Hydroxylation of alkene with osmium oxide and
R: But-1-yne is more acidic than but-2-yne.
NaOH is syn in nature.
tr tr tr
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BOTANY
CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. Biological Classification ... 113 - 148
2. Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants .......-.. 149 - 180
3. Molecular Basis of lnheritance 18'l - 200
4. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 201 -216
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants ztt - 230
6. Principles of lnheritance and Variation 237 -2s6
7. Cell : The Unit of Life .... 257 -272
8. Ecosystem... 273 - 280
9. Environmental lssues .29 -2AA

Chapter 1
Biological Classification
SECTIOi{ -A 7. Members of actinomycetes are considered as
intermediate form between bacteria and fungi.
Objective Type Questions These actinomycetes
1 . Heterocyst in blue green algae (l ) Are chemo-organoheterotrophs
(1) Lacks photosystem-l (2) Reproduce by oidia onty
(2) Are specialised cells for photosynthesis
(3) Are unbranched and filamentous
(3) May perform reproouction
(4) Lack peptidoglycan in cell wall
(4) performs nilrogen fixation in aerobic condition
2. MarK the incorrect statement S Members of the chrysophytes
(1) C he moheterotroph ic nutrition occurs in (1) Ale macroscopic planktons

Halobacterium (2) Are present in fresh water as well as in marine
(2) Species of Mycoplasma are mostly parasitic water
(3) Gramicidin antibiotic is eubacterial in origin (3) Have stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface
(4) Black leg, tetanus and anthrax-diseases are (4) Cause psp in human beings
caused by same bacterial genus
3. Holophytic protistans are similar in the presence of 9' Mark the odd one (wtl Euglena)
('l ) Primordial utricle (2) ChlorophylFa (1) Bears long tinsel type flagellum
(3) p-carotene (4) Cell wall (2) Shows dual mode of nutrition
4. According to three klngdom classification, the (3) Sexual reproduction involves zygotic meiosis
eukaryotic members are present in
(4) Paraflagellar body is a photosensitive structure
onty
(.1 ) protista
(2) Fungi and plantae

'l0 Somatic phase of the acellular slime moulds is
(3) Animalia and monera (1) Naked, multinucleate and diploid
(4) All three kingdoms (2) Walled, uninucleate and haploid

5. Gram positive bacterial cell wall is different from (3) walled, multinucleate and diploid
Gram negative bacterial wall in presence of
Naked, uninucleate (4) and haploid
(1)L-alanine (2) D-glutamic acid
(3)L]ysine(4)D.alanine,ll.Whichofthefollowingfeatureisnotconc€rned
' with communal slime moulds?
6. Cytoplasm of the eubacterial cell
(1) 80's'ribosomes (1) Anisogamous type of sexual reproduction
ls granular due to presence of
(2)Lackssapvacuoles(2)Holocarpicandmonocentric
(3) Shows streaming movements (3) Spores have cellulosic wall
(4) Lacks gas vacuoles always (4) Peridium is present in sporangia
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12. ln basidiocarp ol Agaicus campestris, each gill 19. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
has
(1) Two zones of monokaryotic hyphae
(1 ) Play a great role in recycling nutrients
(2) oxidises various organic substances
(2) Three zones of monokaryotic and diploid
hyphae (3) Release 02 due to involvement of OEC
(3) Three zones of dikaryotic hyphae (4) Are most abundant in nature
(4) Two zones of dikaryotic and diploid hyphae
20. Myxomycetes show
13. There are five types of spores in the life cycle of
Puccinia graminis t tbi. Which one of the foilowing (1) Prokaryotic, pigmented, mycelial bacteria
spore?
is not dikaryotic (2) pigmented, stimy body, photosynthetic fungi
(1) Uredospores and Aeciospores bacteria
(2) Teleutospores and Pycnidiospores (3) Eukaryotic, non-pigmented, saprophytic
(3) Basidiospores and Aeciospores (4) Slimy body, prokaryotic. oxygenic
(4) Pycnidiospores and Basidiospores 21. Fruiting bodies are edible for which of the fungi?
14. ln which of the foflowing statement afl risted fungi (1) zygomycetes, oomycetes
belong to the same class?
(2) Basidiomycetes only
(1) puff balls, honey mushroom, stinkhorn,
toadstools (3) Ascomycetes, basidiomycetes
(2) Deathcup, sponge mushroom, sacred (4) Phycomycetes, basidiomycetes
mushroom, shelf fungi 22. Bacteria differs from BGA in
(3) Morels, truffles, pink mould, pin moutd
(1) Being prokaryotic in nature
(4) Ergot fungi, Baker's yeast, stinkhorn, dung
moutd (2) Performing oxygenic photosynthesis
15. fungi?
What is incorrect for ray (3) Having peptidoglycan in cell wall
(1 ) Acid fast positive (4) Presence of flagella in some forms
(2) Source ofseveral antibiotics 23. All given features are characteristic to
(3) chemo-organotrophicandfacultativeanaerobic dinoflagellates,except
(4) Cell wall non-peptidoglycan and non-cellulosic (1) Pectocellulosic plates covering the body
16. A Gram negalive bacteria differs from a Gram (2) Presence of chlorophyll a and c as
positive bacteria in presence of photosynthetic pigments
(1) Mesosomes and 2 rings in basal body (3) Bioluminiscent nature of cerlain members
(2) Teichoic acid and pili (4) Their frustules can be used as bacterial filters
(3) Pili only 24. Croziet formation as a method of dikaryotisation,
(4) DAPA and LpS a short dikaryotic phase with septa having central
as rruitins bodv are
17. which or the foilowins is incorrecfly matched? i""#r:Jl"iJ,Hlihecium
(1) PSP - Dinoflagellates
() penicillium (21 peziza
(2) statospores - Diatoms
(3) Neurospora (4) ctaviceps
(3) Pseudoplasmodium - Aceltular slime moulds
25. Archaebacteria can survive in extremes of
(4) Diplanetism - Saprolegnia condations due to
18. Lomasomes are smal vesicurar bodies present in (t) presence of antrons in DNA
funga. These structures help in
(2) Branched chain lipid with phytanyl side group
(1) Cell wall synthesis in cell membrane
(2) Endocytosis (3) presence of more than one type of RNA
(3) lncreasing surface area for diffusion polymerase
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Absence of muramic acid in cell wall
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26. Acellular slime moulds 33. Gram positive bacteria have
(1 ) sporangium
Do not possess €pillitia in (1) Only proximal set of rings as L and P
(2) Have isogamous sexual reproduction and (2) Both proximal and distal set of rings
zygotic meiosis (3) proximal set with S and M rings present in
(3) Produce holocarpic and polycentric plasmodia plasma membrane
(4) Aggregate to form pseudoplasmodium (4) Two rings present in LPS layer of cell wall
27. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. edible 34. Cell envelope in bacteria consists of
mushrooms (1) Plasma membrane only
(1) Rhizomorph do not have root cap like structure (2) plasma membrane and mesosome
(2) Spawn is used for their culture (3) Glycocalyx only
(3) Edible part is actually basidiocarp (4) Gtycocalyx, ce wall and plasma membrane
(4) Dikaryotisation occurs by crozier formation 35. Find odd one out w.r.t. mode of nutrition in
28. Which of the following feature is associated with bacteria
cellular slime mould? (i ) purple sulphur bacteria
(1) Solidification of vacuoles in sporangia forms a (2) Sulphur bacteria
branching system of calcified threads called
(3) Green sulphur bacteria
capillitia
(4) Purple non sulphur bacteria
(2) Fusion product of two myxamoeba secrets a
microcyst
thick wall and becomes a 36. Which one of the following groups of bacteria
obtain energy by oxidizing nitrite into nitrate?
(3) shows division of labour and sporangia without
acoveringofperidium(1)NltrosomonasandPenicillium
(4) Contains branched veins which are pathways (2) N,lrosococcus and N,lrocysfis
of both way cytoplasmic streaming (3) N,trocystis and Nitrobacter
29. The causal agent of the disease responsible for F\ Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas
great lrish famine spreads by the formation and
release of
37. ,en the plasmid integrates with bacterial
cmosome, it is called as
(1) Chlamydospores (2) Blastospores
(1) F. (2) Super femate
(3) Conidiosporangia (4) Oidia (3) Super mate (4) F_
30. sexduction phenomenon occurs due to conjugation
3g. Find the correct match wrt. role of bacteria
between
(1) F- x F- (2) F- x F.
(a) Sewage disposal (i) Acetobacter
aerogens
(3) F x F- (4) Hfr x F- (b) Curing of tobacco (ttl ctostidium
31. Gram negative bacteria differs from Gram positive leaves butylicum
bacteria in (c) Decomposition of (iii)Bac,Ius
('l ) Presence of more muramic acid and less lipid DDT megatherium
content (d) Riboflavin production (iY\ Escheichia coli
(2) Absence of phospholipid in cell wall (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Absence of L-Lvsine (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Formation of protoplast after lysozymal 39. Monerans showing oxygenic photosynthesis
treatment
both (l ) Are photolithotrophs
32. Bacteria with two or more flagella attached at
-
ends are called as (2) Have nonpeptidoglycan nature of cell wall
(1) Amphitrichous (2) Lophotrichous (3) Have photoorganotrophic mode of nutrition
(3) Cephalotrichous (4) Peritrichous (4) Are Gram positive bacteria
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40. Obligate anaerobic monerans with pseudomurein 46. Bacillariophycean members have
in their cell wall
(1) Diplontic life cycle
(1) Have exonic ss-DNA without histone
(2) Haplontic life cycte
(2) Show photoautotrophic nutrition
(3) Haplo-diplontic tife cycle
(3) Show presence of introns
(4) Diplohaplontic life cycte
(4) Have unbranched chain of lipids in cell
membrane 47. Holophytic spindle-shaped protistan with blunt
anterior end and pointed posterior end shows
41. Unicellular, simplest, free living prokaryotes which which one of the following features ?
are also said to be "Bacteria with their coats off',
show one of the following features ('l) Have heterokont acronematic flagella
(1) Colonies give fried egg like appearance in

(2) Photosensitive paraflagellar body is present on
cullure medium the outer surface of reservoir.
(2) Mycolic .,,.id is present in their cell wall (3) Stigma is attached to the membrane of the
reservoir
(3) Pleomorphic nature with sculptured cell wall
(4) Paramylon as reserve food material is stored
(4) Reproduce by binary fission only in the matrix of chloroplast.
42. Organisms showing great diversity in the mode of 48. Vegetative stage or plant body of physarum is
nutrition are included in called _ and its ploidy is _
(1) Monera (1) Pseudoplasmodium, N
(2) Protista (2) Plasmodium, 2N
(3) Fungi
(3) Mla(amoebae, N
(4) Plantae
(4) Microcyst,2N
43. A group of protist is known as 'whirling whips'
because of the
49. Acellular slime moulds differ from cellular slime
moulds in
(1) Presence of pecto-cellulosic cell wall
(1) Being holocarpic and monocentric nature
(2) Spinning movement of flagella
(2) Having peptidoglycan type of sporangial wall
(3) Presence of contractile and noncontractile
vacuole (3) Presence of peridium around sporangium
(4) Emission of light during night (4) Presence of anisogamous type sexual
reproduction
zl4. Which one of the following is incorrect for the
members of chrysophyta? 50. ln the life cycle of communal slime moulds, which
one of the following stiatement is incorrect?
(1) These are nonmotile, bivalved organisms
(1) Complete absence of flagellated cells during
(2) Presence of primordial utricle around a central life cycle
vacuole
(2) Spores with cettulosic wa :
(3) Reserve food materials are paramylon and
volutin granules (3) Chemotropic movement of myxamoebae
(4) Movement occurs by mucilage propulsion (4) Primitive form of multicellularity and division of
labour is exhibited by pseudoplasmodia
45. Auxospores are formed in the life cycle of diatoms,
these structures are 51. Select odd one out w.r.t. mode of nutrition
(1) Vegetative cells with ptoidy tevet N (1) Paranema
(2) Asexual spores with ploidy level N (2) Rhabdomonas
(3) Statospores with 2N ptoidy tevet (3) Dictyostelium
(4) Sexual spores with ploidy level 2N (4) Physaretta
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52. Which one of the following statements is 58. Plasmogamy or sexual reproduction in the
incorrect w.r.t. fungi? members of class zygomycetes takes place by
(1) Mostly terrestrial and prefer to grow in shady (1) Planogametic copulation
places at optimum pH (5 - 6) (2) Gametangiat contact
(2) Fungi growing on burnt wood are epixylic (3) cametangiat coputation
moutd - is water
(3) Salmon disease causing pathogen t,
(4) Somatogamy
(4) Thalloid plant body is nonvascular 59 ln the life cycle of bread mould' trisporic acid
induces the formation of
gametophyte
(1) Rhizoidal hyphae
53. ln the members of class oomycetes, cell wall s
made up of (2) Stoloniferous hyphae
(1) Chitin (2) Cellulose (3) Sporangiophore hypha
(3) Suberin (4) Lignin (4) Zygophore hypha
Y. Hard resting body resistant to unfavourable 60. Which one of the following structure is associated
is
conditions and formed by LSD producing fungi with the end of dikaryon stage into diploid
called structure in pigmented moulds?
(1 ) Appressorium (2) Rhizomorph
(1) Uttimate ce
(2) penultimate ce
(3) sclerotium (4) snare (3) Antipenultimate ce (4) sperm mother cel
55. Dikaryotic mycelium or hyphae is a short-lived
structure in 61. Diplohaplontic life cycle is exhibited by
(.1) Asexuat stage ofphycomycetes (1) Fission yeast (2) Budding yeast
(2) Asexual stage of deuteromycetes (3) Helobial yeast (4) False yeast
(3) Sexual and vegetative stage of 62. Fertile layer of gill in mushroom fungi is
basidiomycetes (1) Trama as prosenchymatous structure
(4) sexual stage of ascomycetes
12) prectenchymatous subhymenium
56. Select unicellular group of fungi out of the
genera
following ,li; Hymenium with tubular epibasidium and
(a\ Saprolegnia diploid basidiospores
(b\ saccharomycoides (4) Hymenium with club-shaped basidia and

sterile diploid paraphyses
(c) schizosaccharomyces
(dl pythium 63. Dikaryotic spore formed on alternate host in the
life cycle of Puccinia is
(e) synchytrium
(1) Teleutospore (2) Pycniospore
(f) Morchetla
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) (3) Uredospore (4) Aeciospore
(2) (b), (c) and (e) 64. Find odd one out w.r.t. pathogens of same group
(3) (b), (c), (e) and (0 (1) Tlkka disease in ground nut
(4) (a), (d), (e) and (0 (2) Red rot of sugarcane
57. Select an incorectly matched pair (3) Black rot of cabbage
(1) Diplanetism - Saprolegnia (4) Earty blight of potato
(2) Endogenous asexual - sac fungi
65. which one of the following tungicides was used to
spore control downy mildew disease of grapevine?
(3) Torulating spore -
?ldia
(4) Thallospore as thick - Chlamydospore
(1) Burgandy mixture (2) chestnut mixture
walled structure (3) Soda bordeaux (4) Bordeaux mixture
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66. Select the correct statement w.r.t. mycorrhiza 72. Bacteriochlorophyll is not found in which of the
following group of bacteria?
(1) Ectomycorrhiza forms hartig net in the
cells
intracellular spaces of cortex (1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(2) Endotrophic mycorrhiza are mosfly (2) purple non-sulphur bacteria
basidiomycetes members
(3) Sulphur bacteria
(3) vAM is a special type of endomyconhiza and
(4) More than one option is conect
absorbs phosphate
(4) Mycorrhizal or fungal roots have root cap and T3 During coniugation in E'coli' plasmid gets
integrated with main bacterial chromosome to
root hairs convert it into
6T rnwhichoneof the speciar stru,cture of richens,.the
(1) Super mare (2) Super femare
fungal partne ,s same as in the thallus but algal
partner is different from the thallus? (3) F. (4) Pathogenic form
(1 CypF,
) 74. Which of the following statement is correct?
(2) Cephalodia (1) Beijerinckia and Clostridium are symbiotic
(3) ls jia N2 - fixing bacteria
(4) Soredia (2) Nocardia and Mycobacterium are mycelial

bacteria
68. except
Bacteriophages are related to all features,
(3) cyanobacteria growing endozoically in
(1) Naked viruses with binat symmetry poriferans are called cyanellae
(2) Double stranded linear DNA as genetic
materiat - (4) Thermoacidophiles develop bacteriorhodopsin
in their membranes to trap sunlight for ATp
(3) Lysozyme secretion by capsid synthesis
(4) Long and contractile tail in T€ven phages 75. ln which of the following group of organisms,
69. Find correct match between column I and ll chromosomes do not have histone proteins but
I
Column ll
Column nuclear membrane and nucleolus remain present
(a) Red tide (il rrichodesmium even during cell division?
efihraeum () Ceratium and Gymnodinium
(b) Red sea (ii\ Chlamydomonas (Z) Navicuta and Metosira
nivalis
(3\ Dictyoste ium and Physarum
(c) Red snow (iiil cymnodinium sp.
(4) xanthomonas and Pseudomonas
(d) Red rust (ivl cephateuros sp.
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 76. Which of the following feature is not possessed by
diatoms?
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) t+i
"iiii
ofii
"(iiit,
ofi"i (1) Formation of statospores
70. An acidic polymer consisting of a carbohydrate,
phosphate and an alcohol found in cell wall of (2) Presence of chl. a and c
Gram positive bacteria is/are
(3) Presence of pusule' a non-contractile vacuole
(1) peptidogrycans 1zl tr,luramic acio
(4) Movement by mucilage propulsion
(3) Teichoic acid 1l; oglutamic acid
7'1. Gram negative bacteria differ from Gram positive 77 The oblique and parallely ananged strips which are
responsible for metaboly are present in
bacteria inhaving
(1) Teichoic acid (1) Flagella
(2) Abundant mesosomes (2) Paraflagellar body

(3) Thick and single layered cell wall (3) Cytoplasm
(4) Porins and diaminopimelic acid (4) Pellicle
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78. ln case of communal slime cells 83. ln Puccinia graminis frlfici, teleutospores and
moulds many
come close together to form pseudoplasmodium pycniospores are produced on plants respectively
stage. Which of the following factor is responsible (1) Wheat and barberry (2) Barberry and wheat
for it?
(3) wheat and Bartey (4) Barberry and Bartey
a. Exhausted food supply 84. The tife cycte in budding yeast is _
b. Stimulation by cAMP (1) Diptohaptontic (2) Diptontic
c. A chemical called acrasin (3) Haplontic (4) Triphasic
(1) Both (a) & (b) (2) only (c) 85. The superticial outgromhs of the tichens which are
(3) Both (b) & (c) (4) All of these primarily meant for increasing surface area and
photosynthetic activity and also help in
79. Match the following *""0
corumn - r corumn -, ilTil[:# ,r,
a. Cytopharynx (i) Slime moulds (3) lsidia (4) "o.."0,"
Cyphe ae
b. Kieselguhr (ii) Dinoflagellates g6. Whirling whips inctuded in kingdom protista of
c. Sporocarp (iii) Euglenoids Haeckel
d. Cingulum (iv) Diatoms (a) Possess heterokont flagella with distinct 9 + 2

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) ('l rll:]
"1::], :1]ll :11
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (a) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
,r, ;:tfl""":tfi"us reproduction and diprontic rife
cycte
80. Which of the following is/are the features of (c) Synthesise 50% of organic matter in the
phycomycetes? biosphere
a. Coenocytic hyphae (d) Do not have histones in DNA
b. Hyphal wall contains cellulose (1) (a) and (c) are mrrect
c. Septa of hyphae possess simple pores (2) (a) and (d) are correct
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) (4) Only (a) (4) (b) and (d) are correct
8l . Match the following 87. Photosynthetic protists which resemble like a soap
column I column ll box
(1) Produce saxitoxin which impairs Na*
a. Mucor mucedo (i) oeath cup metabolism in human beings
b Amanita phalloides (ii) Dung mould (2) Form rejuvenescent spore called statospore
c. Armillaria mellea (iii) Predator fung, (a) possess siliceous frustule with fine pores
d. Dactylaria (iv) Honey mushroom (4) Cannot be a good indicator of water po ution
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) Bg. Futigo and physarum are characterised by all,
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) except
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) Capillitia in sporangium
(a)a(i),b(i),c(iv)'d(iii)(2)Absenceofcellwallinvegetativephase
82. Under favourable conditions, hyphae of secondary (3) Non-motile swarm cells
mycelium ol Agaricus collect at places and give (4) polycentric plasmodium
rise to rounded or pyriform compact mass i.e.. g9. cellular slime moulds
(1) spawn
(1) Produce naked sporangia
(2) Buttons
(2) Have dominant diploid phase
(3) sterigmata
(3) Form haploid macrocyst by mitosis
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) possess saprobic nutrition only
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90. Kingdom which includes only heterotrophs with 97. Find the correct match between column-l and
extracellular digestion is classified into various column-ll
classes on the basis of all except
Column-l Column-ll
(1) Morphology of vegetative structure a. Lamellasome (i) Dipicolinic acid
(2) Types of meiospores
b. Elementary bodies (ii) Mycolic acid
(3) Structure of sex organs and fusion product c. Ray fungi (iii) PPLO
(4) Life cycle and cell wall d. Endospore (iv) Cyanobacteria
91. Which is known as squirting fungi? (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Saprolegnia (21 Pilobolus (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (a) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3'1 Rhizopus (4) Anhrobotrys 98. Find the incorrectly matched pair with respect to
92. True yeasts with diplohaplontic life cycle different classes of fungi
(1) Multiply vegetatively by flssion (1) Zygomycetes - Plasmogamy by
cfozlet
(2) Form ascocarp as fruiting body
(3) Produce larger diploid cells than the haploid
(2) Ascomycetes - Endogenous
ascospores
(4) Do not have bud scar and birth scar (3) Basidiomycetes - Clamp connection
93. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. club fungi
(4) Deuteromycetes - Bengal famine
(1) Presence of dolipore septum in majority of
members
99. Archaebacteria ditrer ftom eubacteria in presence of
(2) Secondary mycelium is long - lived (1) Peptidoglycan in their cell membrane
(3) Sex organ is called basidium (2) Well defined nucleus
(4) Basidiospores are produced exogenously (3) Branched chain lipids in their celt wall
94. Find the incorrect statement (4) lntrons in their DNA
(1) NAM and DAPA are present in Gram positive 100. ln methanogens, the pseudomurein is made up of
bacterial cell wall NAG and
(2) NAM and NAG are linked by g-1, 4 glycosidic (1) NAM
bonds in bacterial cell wall (2) D-amino acids
(3) Pili are very common in Gram negative
(3) Branched chain lipids
bacteria
(4) Murein is not the part of glycocalyx (4) N-acetyltalo samiuronic acid
95. Holophytic protistans as whirling whips show one 101. All of the following features are possible in
of the following features oomycetes, except
(1) Movement by mucilage propulsion (1) Coenocytic mycelium

(2) Walls are embedded with silica (2) Gametangial contact
(3) A non-contractile vacuole is present 1a1 iaotite stage
(4) The reserve food is oils and leucosin (4) Clamp connection
96. When plasmogamy in fungi is brought about by 102. Which one of the following is incorrect for eight
fusion of female and amoeboid male gamete by ascospores per ascus producing yeast?
fertilization tube formation, it is called as
(1) Haplobiontic life cycle
(1) Gametangial copulation
(2) Fission yeast
(2) Gametic copulation
(3) Haploid stage is represented by the
(3) Gametangial contact ascospores only
(4) Spermatization (4) Exhibited by Schizosaccharomyces
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'103. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. cellular slime 109 Anticoagulant substance in endospore of bacteria
moulds is found in
(1) Sporangium mntains capillitia (1) Exosporium and spore coat
(2) Somatic body is free living diploid plasmodium (2) Spore coat and cortex
(3) Sexual reproduction is isogamous (3) Cortex and core wall
(4) Cortex and cytoplasm
(4) Absence of swarm cells in the life cycle
1'10 Gram negative monerans lacking cell wall show
104. Select an incorrect statement with regard to reproduction by
different nutritional categories
(1) Elementary bodies
(1) Photo-organotrophs use organic compounds
as electron donor (2) Binary fission
(2) Methanogenic archaebacteria are chemo- (3) Conidia formation

organo-heterotrophs (4) Endospore formation
(3) Chemolithotrophs use inorganic electron donor 111. Ray fungi as diazotrophs are
alongwith chemical energy (1) Streplomyces and Mycoplasma
(4) Facultative autotrophs can grow autotrophically (2) Gram negative monerans and symbiotically
and heteroEophically and are called mixotophs associated wilh Xanthomonas
105. Dinoflagellates have a mesokaryotic cell (3) Gram positive monerans and symbiotically
organisation. Which of the following features is not
associated with A/nus
related to such cellular organisation?
(4) Chemoautotrophic N2-fixer
(1) Single nuclear membrane
112 Self feeders bacteria utilising light energy and
(2) No spindle formation
aliphatic organic compounds as e- and H-donor in
(3) Presence of histones their mode of nutrition are called
(4) Permanently condensed chromosomes (1) Photolithotrophs (2) Chemolithtrophs
106. ln which fungal group monokaryotic mycelium is (3) Photoheterotrophs (4) Chemoheterotrophs
long lived while dikaryotic mycelium is short lived?
113 Maximum possibility of transfer of nucleoid genes
(1)Ascomycetes (2)Deuteromycetes from donor to recipient bacteria is expected when
(3)Basidiomycetes (4)zygomycetes coniugation occurs in between strains
107. Plant taxon like Convolvulaceae andSolanaceae (1) F- x F- (2) Hfr x F-

can be included together in which one of the (3) Hfr,. Hfr (4) Hf x F-
following categories?
114. what is true for photosynthetic protistans having
(1) Family -.
(2) class siticified, bivatved frustutes?
(3) Genus (4) order (1) contrac{ile vacuoles are usuatly absent
'108. Find the correct match
(2) Movement is brought about by mucilage
Column I Column ll propulsion
a. Acetobac.ter (i) Ammonification (3) Movement by heterokont flagella
aet9gens (4) Reserve food is carbohydrate and oil
b' tucillus megatherium contolnDDT 115. Reduced size of one of the daughter cell in diatom
(iD
brmed during dMsion is restor€d by which
c. Pseudomonas (iii) Curing of tobacco has _ ploidy
fluorescence leaves (1) Statospore, N -
d. kcillus ramosus (iv) Retting of flbre (2) Reiuvenescent ce[, N
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) Starospore, 2N
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Auxospore, 2N
I 1 22 Biological Classification Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
116. Theca is replaced by pellicle in 124. Tough and hard perennating structure formed by
compact mass of hyphae in sac fungi is
(1) Zooflagellates
(2) Zooxanthellae
(,1) Rhizomorph (2) Sclerotium
(31 Gymnodinium and Noctiluca

(3) Appressorium (4) snares
125 Fungi differs from bacteria in
(41 Navicuta and Melosira
('l) Nature of cell wall
117. Dinoflagellates show
(2) Mode of nutrition
(1) Ribbon shaped chtoropla"t
(3) Nature of reserye food materials
(2) Prokaryotic organisation
(4) Type of cell division
(3) Spiral movement
126 Aserual reproduction by conidia formation is quite
(4) Spinning movement
118. Photoreceptive structure in Euglena contains (1) oomycetes (2) zygomycetes
pigment and
't '" chloroplast (3) Ascomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
(1 ) carotenoids; present in
127. which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(2) Astaxanthin; attached to the membrane of
reservoir (1) Fire blight of appte
(3) Astaxanthin; found in cytoplasm (2) wart disease of potato
(4) Haematochrome; attached to cell wall (3) Salmon disease of gills In lishes
(4) Downy mildew of cereals
'119. Somatic body of acellular slime mould is
(1) Free living, multinucleate and walled 128 Find the correct match
protoplasmic mass Column-l Column-ll
(2) Multinucleate, diploid, freeliving and naked a. Sponge mushroom (i) Agancus
protoplasmic mass b. Button mushroom (iil Dermatocarpon
(3) Coenocytic, naked haploid protoplasmic mass
c. Oyster mushroom (iii) Morchella
(4) coenocytic, walled myxamoebae d. Stone mushroom (iv) pleurotus
120. The sporangium of Dlctyostellum shows (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Absence or capillitium (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ti) (a) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) Peridium as sporangial covering 129. How many types of dikaryotic spores are formed
(3) Holocarpic and polycentric condition on primary host in Pucc,nla life cycle?
(4) Formation from plasmodium Two(1) (2) Three
'121. Asexual reproduction by the formation of palmella (3) Four (4) One
stage is reported in some species of 130. Gills are found in
(1 Diatoms
) (2) Dinoflage ates (1) Fruiting bodies of Aspe4gl//us
(3) Euglena (4\ spirogyra (2) Fruiting bodies or peziza
122. Myonemes are found in the Eugrena (3) Fruiting bodies of Agarcus
of
(.1) Epiptasm (2) Endoptasm (4) Rhizomorph of Agaricus
(3) contractile vacuole (4)-Eye spot 131. select the correct statement w.r.t. the life cycle of
123. A noncontractile vacuole called pusule is found in helobial yeast
(1) Euglena (1) Commonly shows diplohaplontic life cycle
(2) Navicula (2) lt is obligate anaerobes
(31 Gonyaulax (3) lt reproduces asexually by budding only
(4) Melosira (4) lt produces four ascospores per ascus
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132. Percentage amount of protein in T4 '139. Match the following column
bacteriophage is I
Column Column ll
(1) e5 (2) 70 a. Diplanetism (il Tuber aestivum
(3) 60 (4) e2.5 b. Cleistothecium (ii) Penicillium
133. Special struclure present on the upper surface of c. Trufiel liiil L|coPerdon
lichen thallus for assimilation and reproduction is
d. Puffballs (iv) SaProlegnia
(1) Cyphellae
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i)' d(iii)
(2) Cephalodia
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (a) a(iii), b(iv)' c(ii), d(i)
(3) Soredia
140. The phycobiont in lichens is mostly from
(4) lsidia chlorophyceae. Select the most common chloro
134. Group of algae with non sulphated phycocolloidal phycobiont among the following
substance in their cell wall are also characterised (1) Trebouxia (2) Chloreila
by
(3) Palme a (4\ Ptotococcus
(1) Absence of unicellular forms
141. Short peptide portion of cell wall of gram positive
(2) Dominating heterotrichous thallus organisation bacteria does not contain
(3) Gametophytic plant body in all of the (1) LPS (2) Diaminopimelic acid
members
(3) D{lutamine (4) L-alanine
(4) Absence of vegetative reproduction by
fragmentation 142. Thick walled sexual spore formed by gametangial
copulation in a group of fungi is
135. Choose the incorrect statement
and it is quite common in the members of class
(1) Cell wall is absent in mycoplasma
(2) lwanowsky discovered virus (1) Oospore, Oomycetes
(3) VAM is related to pollution indication (2) Zygospore, Zygomycetes
(4) 'Black leg' is a bacterial disease (3) zygote, Ascomycetes
136. Which of the following amino acid is present in the (4) Basidiospore, Basidiomycetes
cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?
143. Select an incorroct match
(1) L{lutamic acid (1) Ascomycetes - Morchella
(2) D-lysine (2) Deuteromycetes - Altemaria
(3) Diaminopimelic acid (3) Basidiomycetes - Puccinia
(4) L-alanine (4) Phycomycetes - ErysiPhe
137. Choose the incorrecl statement for Mycoplasma 144 Find out the character associated with
cyanobacteria but not with eubacteria
(1) Unicellular and Prokaryotic
(1) Nucleoid representing genetic material
(2) Non-motile and Pleomorphic
(2) Histone absent
(3) Lack cell wall and resistant to penicillin
(3) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(4) Circular and single stranded DNA
(4) Cyst formation
138. Select the correctly matched pair
145 Peptidoglycan forms several layers in the cell wall
(1) Primordial utricle
- Dinoflagellate of
(2) 0-carotenes
- Diatoms (1\ Bacillus
(3) Paramylon - ft1' 3 glucan (21 Salmonella
(4) Acrasin - Chemotropic (3) BGA
movement (4) Escherichia
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146. Siliceous shells of diatoms do not decay hence (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
pile up and form heaps called
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) Cystoliths (2) Kiesutguhr
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Nummulites (4) Sratotiths
(a) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
147. Dolipore septum and lateral clamp connections
are related to 153. Distal set of rings in basal body of flagellum are
present in
(1) Cup fungi (2) Sac fungi
(1) Gram positive bacteria
(3) Club fungi (4) Atgat fungi
(2) Both Gram positive and negative bacteria
148. Choose the incorrect match
(3) Gram negative bacteria
(1) Litmus - Roce a
(4) Coccus and Chlamydomonas
(2) VAM - Orchid
154. Capsule differs from slime layer in
(3) Tikka disease - Groundnut
(4) Helotism -
(1 ) Having polysaccharides
Ectomycorrhiza
(2) Presence of D{lutamic acid
149. Eubacteria may be Gram positive or Gram
negative depending on the nature of cell wall, (3) Presence of L-lysine
where (4) Absence of levan and dextran
a. Lipids are more in Gram negative cell wall 155. Which one of the following acts as receptor site for
b. Peptidoglycans are more in Gram positive some viruses in Gram positive bacteria?
forms (1) LPS (2) DAPA
c. Diaminopimellic acid is characteristic of Gram (3) Porins (4) Teichoic acid
negative forms '156. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Gram
(1) All are correct positive bacteria
(2) Only c is incorrect (1) The walls contain very little amount of lipids
(3) Only a is correct (2) Cell wall is more rigid
(4) Only a and c are corect (3) Mesosomes are rare
150. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Monera (4) Flagellation less common
(1) All unicellular and Gram negative 157. Which one of lhe following bacteria will form
(2) Very simpte in behaviour sphaeroplast after lysozyme treatment?
(3) Show the most extensive metrabolic diversity

(1) Leuconostoc (21 Clostidium
(4) Show intracellular transport by cyclosis

(3) Salmonella
(4) &aphytococcus
158. ln bacteria, DNA has no free ends and not
151 . Corynebacteium diphtheriae is associated with
(1) Gram '+' sphorical bacteria (1) Polyamines
(2) Gram '+' bacillus bacteria (2) Histone
(3) Gram '-' bacillus bacteria (3) RNA
(4) cram '-' spiral bacteria (4) More than one option is conect
152. Find the correct match 159. Bacteria which are capable of switching over to
anaerobic mode to get energy for their survival,
Column I Column ll ate
a. Monotrichous (il pseudomonas (1) Obligate anaerobes
b. Cephalotrichous (ii) Spin um (2) Facultative anaerobes
c. Amphitrichous (iii) Thiobaci us (3) Facultative aerobes
d. Lophotrichous (iv) Nltrosomonas (4) Obligate aerobes
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160. Purple sulphur bacteria 167. Match Column I with Column ll
('l) Use H2S as e- and H* donor Column I Column ll
(2) Possess bacterioviridin pigment a. Cobalamine (i\ Bacillus brevis

(3) Use inorganic sulphur b. Riboflavin (ii\ Rhodopseudomonas
capsulata
(4) Are Photoorganotrophs
c. SCP (iii) Clostridium butylicum
161. Find odd one out w.rt. chemolithotrophs
d. Gramicidin (iv) Bacirrus megatherium
(1) Nitrococcus and N,IrocYstis
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii)' c(i), d(ii)
(2) kggiatoa and Thiobacillus
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii)' b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Feiobaci us and Leqtothtix
168. Which of the following group of monerans are
(4\ Methanomonas and Azotobacter connecting link between eubacteria and fungi?
'162. Which one of the following pairs of monerans are (1\ Chlam|dia (2) Actinomycetes
able to reduce carbon and nitrogen both?
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) MLOS
(1) Ch@matium and Mvcoqlasma
169. Gram negative monerans with 4-layered cell wall
(2) Nostoc and Frankia show
(31 Azotobacter and Closttidium (1) Unicellular or multicellular thallus structure
(4) Anabaena and Tolqqothix (2) AnoxYgenic Photosynthesis
163. Anticoagulant nature of endospore is due to the (3) Nitrogen reduction but no carbon reduction
presence of (4) Alternation of generation
(1 ) acid
Dipicolinic (2) Diaminopimelic acid 170. Due to formation of necridia, the filament of
(3) D{lutamic acid (4) PHB cyanobacteria breaks into
1 . Bacterial cell divides every two minutes' lt takes

(1) Elementary bodies (2) Akinetes
20 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How much (3) Hormogonia (4) Heterocysts
time it will take to fill the cup?
'171. Archaebacteria differs from eubacteria in
(1) 24 minutes
(1) Presence of D-amino acids in cell wall
(2) 60 minutes
(2) Presence of introns
(3) 40 minutes (3) Absence of branched chain lipids in cell
(4) 50 minutes membrane
165. Sterile male method of coniugation is present in (4) Absence of chemolithotrophic nutrition
between the 172. Thermoacidoph iles are able to withstand at
(1) F- and F- e)dremely low pH and high temperature due to
(2) F- and F- (1) Presence of Pseudomurein

(3) Hfr and F- (2) Branched chain liPids
(4) Hfr and Hfr (3) Absence of cell wall

(4) Presence of sap vacuoles
166. The mode of genetic recombination in Salmonella
typhimuium was demonstrated bY 173. Bacteria with their coats off
(1 ) F.Griffith (1) Are highly pleomorphic and saprophytic only
(2) Avery et.al. (2) Give fried egg appearance ,n v'tro
(3) Zinder and Lederberg (3) Have only one type of nucleic acid
(4) Lederberg and Tatum (4) Are infectants of animals only
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126 Biological Classiftcation
174. Cotk screw like heterotrophic monerans are (1) a,d,e&f (2) b,c,d&e
) Spirochaetes (2) Rickettsia
('l
(3) c,d,e&f (4) c,e&f
(3) Halobacterium (4\ Chlamydia
183. Select the correct match
175. Holophytic protistans with armoured nature are
l
Column - Column.ll
('1)Diatoms (2) Dinoflagelates
a. Red tide (i) Gymnodinium
(3) Euglenoids (4) Stime moutds
176. Life cycle involves zygotic meiosis in
b. Red sea (ii) Tichodesmium
(1) Gymnodinium (2) Noctituca
c. PSP (iiil Noctiluca
(3\ Lyngbya (41 Melosta
d. Bioluminescence (iv) Gonyaulax catenetta
177. Flagella are heterokont in (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Dinoflage ates (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Diatoms 184. Select the incorect statement w.r.t. slime moulds
(3) Euglena (1) Vegetative stage resembles protozoa
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Have holophytic as well as saprobic mode of
nutdtion
178. Photosynthetic protists as whirling whips show
(1) Silicified ce wa (2) Contractile vacuote (3) All members are holocarpic
(3) Paraflagellar body (4) crooves in theca (4) Spores have cellulosic wall
185. Anisogamous sexual reproduction with zygotic
179. Mesokaryon type nucleus is associated with the
meiosis is characteristic of
members of
(1) Pyrrophyta (2) Chrysophyta (1) Cellular slime moulds
(3) Bacillariophyceae (4) Eugtenophyta (2) Acellutar slime moutds
180. Reserve food material in wall-less photosynthetic (3) Archaebacteria
protists is (4) Diatoms and desmids
(1) Leucosin (2) paramyton 186. Which one of the following structure is formed
(3) Chrysotaminarin (4) clycogen chemotactically in slime moulds?
18'1. The common mode of asexual reproduction in (1) Myxamoebae

Euglena is by (2) Plasmodium
('l ) Longitudinal binary fission in favourable (3) Pseudoplasmodium
condition (4) Macrocyst
(2) Longitudinal binary fission in unfavourable '187. Sporocarp formed in asexual life cycle of
cellular
condition slime mould, is
(3) Palmella stage (1) Stalked and tacks peridium
(4) Cyst formation (2) Developed from pseudoplasmodium as diploid
182. Consider the following and choose correct structure
features w.r.t. bacillariophycean members. (3) Sessile and developed in wet condition
(a) Girdle (4) More than one option is conect
(b) Cnidobtast
188. Polycentric and holocarpic member is
(c) Sewage pollution indicator (1\ Dictyostetium
(d) Zygotic meiosis
(21 Polysphondylium
(e) Auxospores
(3) Physarum
(0 Diplontic tife cycle
14) Penicittium
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Last Leap for NEET (PartJ) Biological Classificataon
189. Motile stage is present in 196. Which one of the following statement is incorrect
for beer yeast?
(11 physarella and Anabaena
(2) Diatoms and celular slime moulds (1) Vegetative cells are both haploid and diploid
and (2) Common mode of asexual reproduction by
-
(3) Acellular slime moulds, cyanobacteria
dinoflagellates fission
(4) Spirochaetes, plasmodial slime moulds and (3) Produces four ascospores in €ach ascus
pyrrophytes (4) Have diplohaplontic life cycle
'190. Choose odd one out wr.t. Ascomycetes
i97. Type of fruiting body in Crayiceps is
(1) Sponge mushroom (1) cleistothecium (2) Apothecium
(2) Pigmented moulds (3) perithecium (4) Hysterothecium
(3) Toadstool
198. Most advanced and most commonly seen fungi
(4) Cup fungi that decompose cellulose and lignin are the
191. common type of asexual spore in a group of fungi
members of
having shorter dikaryophase in their sexual life (1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
cycle is
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
(1) sporangiospore (2) conidia
199. which one of the fofiowing is corecfly matched
(3) Zygospore (4) Zoospore w.r.t. all columns?
'192. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. plasmogamy. Column I Column ll Column lll
(1) Spermatization - Puccinia (1 ) Smut fungi - Club fungi - Clamp
(2) Gametangial copulation - Pythium connection
(3) Gametangial contact - cystopus ::ror"*

(4) Somatogamy - Agaicus septa
present
193. A class of fungi with cellulosic cell wall shows
(2) Trufiel - Sac fungi - Edible
(a) Primary mycelium ascocarp
(b) Secondary mycelium (3) Fairy rings - Gametangial - Basidiocarp
(c) Coenocytic mycelium contact
(d) Conidiosporangia (4) Black rust - Heteroecious - Dikaryon
pycnro
(e) Ascogonium (f) Oogonium
spores
(1) a' b' d' e (21 b' d' e' f
200. Dotipore septa and bikaryotic nature is found in
(3) c, d, f (4) b, d, f
(1) primary mycetium
194. Great lrish famine was caused by the fungus
(2) secondary mycetium
(1) Synchytrium endobioticum
(3) Coenocytic mycelium
(2) canctida
Albugo
(4) More than one option is conecl
(3) Altemaia solani
201. ln the life cycte oI Agaicus, secondary mycetium
(4) Phytophthora infosfans develops when
195. The structure which separates the spore bearing (1) Hyphae of two matting types showing
is
part from rest of sporangiophote in Rhizopus plasmogamy
(1) Sporiferous zone (2) primary mycelium shows plasmogamy with
(2) Stoloniferous hyphae spermatia
(3) Columella (3) Basidiospore germinates

(4) Sporangium wall (4) Gametangial contact occurs
128 Biological Classificatron Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
202. The fertile structure of fruiting body in common 211 SO, pollution indicator is
field mushroom is
(1) Fungi (2) Diatoms
(1) Peridium (2) Annulus
(3) Lichen (4) Mycorrhiza
(3) Stipe (4) Gill
212 ln most of the lichens, phycobionts are
203. ln basidiomycetes, sexual spores are discharged
through (1) Blue green algae (2) Green algae
(1) Catapult mechanism (3) Golden algae (4) Brown algae
(2) Water droplet mechanism 2 3 ln which one of the following members,
(3) Chemotactic mechanism basidiocarp send puffs of spores on ripening?
(4) Ants ('l)Polyporus (2) Lycoperdon
204. Dikaryon spore formed on alternate host in (31 Amanita (4) Fomes
Pucc,nla life cycle is
214 Thallus is attached to the substratum with the help
(1) Uredospore
of rhizines in
(2) Teleutospore
(1) Crustose lichens (2) Foliose lichens
(3) Aeciospore
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Fruticose lichens (4) Reindeer moss
205. Which one of the following group of fungi 215 Pinocytic reproduction occurs in
represents similar sexual spore? (1) phage
T4 (2) ), phage
(1) Puffballs, shelf fungi, Caeser's mushroom
(3) Hepatitis B virus (4) T2 phage
(2) Gill fungi, wood fungi, cup fungi
(3) Yeast, laboratory mould, dung mould 216 Microscopic lichen propagules produced inside
pustules as a most efficient means, of asexual
(4) Black mould, water mould, powdery mildew reproduction are
206. Bengal famine was caused by a fungal member
(1) lsidia (2) Soredia
which belongs to the class
(3) Cyphellae (4) Cephalodia
) Oomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
('l
(3)Basidiomycetes (4)Deuteromycetes 217 Septate mycelium and asexual reproduction by
207. Cell wall shows complex chemical nature with conidia are major features of artificial class of
glucan and mannan also in fungi known as
(1\ Saccharomyces (2) Armillaria (1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
(3\ Ustilago (41 Penicillium (3) Oomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
208. Bordeaux mixture 218 Basidiomycetes members commonly form a
(1) ls inorganic fungicide network of mycelium in the intercellular spaces of
(2) ls organic fungicide the cortex of Pinus root, known as
(3) Was first used to control downy mildew of traps
(1) Hyphal (2) Haustoria
grapevine disease
(3) Snares (4) Hartig net
(a) Both (1) & (3)
219 Find the set of correct statements w.r.t. life cycle
209. The ultimate branches of conidiophores in ol Puccinia graminis tritici
Penicillium
(1) Possess sterigmata a. Uredospores are bikaryotic and stalked
(2) Are sterigmata b. Teleutospores are unicelled and monokaryotic
(3) Cut-otr conidia in basipetal order c. Spermatization occurs towards upper
(4) Are rami epidermal surtace ol Triticum
210. Harlig net as network of intercellular hyphae is d. Aeciospores are produced towards lower
present in epidermis of secondary host
(1) All mycorrhiza (2) Ectomycorrhiza ('l) c
a, (2) b, c
(3) Endomycorrhiza (4) VAM (3) a, d (4) c, d
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220. Hymenium is the fertile layer of gill in Agaricus 227. Photosynthetic protists having soap box like
basidiocarp and includes structure are not related to
(1) Paraphyses and subhymenium (1) Chlorophyll a and c
(2) Basidium and subhymenium (2) Chrysolaminarin as reserve food
(3) Basidiospores and trama (3) Heterokont flagellation in grooves
(4) Basidium and paraphyses (4) Longitudinal binary flssion

228. Mark the incorrect option (w.r.t. Mycoplasma)
221. Malch the following
(1) Wall-less organism
Column-l Column-ll
(2) Having ss-DNA and RNA in same cell
a. Fly agaric (i) Armillaria
(3) Producing elementary bodies as major means
b. Puff ball (ii) Psilocybe
of reproduction
c. Honey mushroom (iii) Amanita (4) lnsensitive against penicillin
d. mushroom (ivl Lycoperdon
Sacred
229. Read the following statements carefully and select
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) the correct one w.r.t. archaebacteria
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (a) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) a. Presence of histones
222. ln Penicillium, bottle like conidia bearing structures b. Branched chain lipids in plasma membrane
are present at the tip of
c. Found in extremes of habitats
('1 Rami
) (2) Metulae
(3) Sterigmata (4) Phialides
d. Pseudomurein absent in cell wall
(1) All except d (2) Only c
223. Cleistothecium is a closed fiuiting body sunounded
by a wall called peridium. Such a fruiting body is (3) b, c and d (4) a, b and d
found in 230. Due to the formation of biconcave, mucilage filled,
(11 Claviceps (2) Neurosqora dead cells called necridia in between living cells of
(3) Penicilliun (4) Peziza trichome of BGA, the filament breaks into
224. A. Oidia can be produced in amino acid rich (1) Akinetes (2) Cyst
medium. (3) Heterocyst (4) Hormogonia
B. Dikaryophase is dominant in life cycle of club 231. Select an incorrect match
tungi
(1) Tolypothrix - Rice fields
C. Flagellated cells are found in class
zygomycetes (2) Anabaena - Sago Palm
(1) All are conect l3l Microcystis - Anthoceros
(2) Only A is correct (4) Spirulina - SCP

(3) Both A and B are correct 232. Which mycelial bacteria can fix N2 symbiotically by
(4) Both A and C are incorrect root nodule formation in non legume plants?
225. Find odd one out w.r.t. plasmodial slime moulds (1) Casuaina (2) Nocardia
(1) Physarum (2) Fuligo (3) Frankia (4) Corynebacteium
(3\ Physarella (4) DictYostelium 233. When Hfr conjugates with an F- bacterium, the
226. Gonyaulax catenella and Noctiluca are specific (1) F- cell will convert to F* but always a
examples of respectivelY. recombinant
(1) Bioluminescence and mesokaryotic nature (2) F- cell will convert to F* but is never a
(2) Red sea and bioluminescence recombinant
(3) Red tide -and bioluminescence (3) F- will remain F- and may or may not be a
recombinant
(4) Red stripe and diatomaceous earth
(4) F- will convert to Hfr without recombinations
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234. Matk the odd one (w.r.t. photolithotrophs) 240. Some dinoflagellates like Gonyaulax catenella
(1\ Chloronema, undergo such rapid multiplication that they make
Chlorotlexus
the red appearance of sea. Toxins released by
(21 Chlorobium, Thiospiillum such large number
(31 Chromatium, Chlorobium (1) May kill shell fishes
(4) Thiospirillum, Chromatium (2) Cause PSP in fishes
235. Gram positive bacteria are different from Gram (3) Are poisonous to vertebrates
negative forms in having (4) Cannot enter in food chain
(1) Diaminopimelic acid in cell wall 241. Toad stools, puff balls and morels are similar in
(2) High lipid content ie., 20-30% the presence of
(3) High muramic acid content i.e., 70-95% (1) Basidiocarp
(4) Dipicolinic acid in cell wall (2) Coenocytic mycelium

236. Cocci divide in three planes at right angles to form (3) Ascocarp
a three dimensional geometrical figure during (4) Dikaryophase
formation of
242. Lichens are dual organisms which contain a
(1) Staphylococcus (2) Streptococcus permanent association of a mycobiont and a
(3) Caulobacter (41 Sarcina phycobiont. These organisms
237.Find the correct set of the given kingdoms (1) Can tolerate air pollution
proposed by Whittaker which perform (2) Are perennial
decomposition.
(3) Show rapid growth
(1) Monera, protista and plantae
(2) (4) Show asexual reproduction only
Fungi, monera and protista
243. Pathogen of potato spindle tuber disease
(3) Protista, plantae and animalia
(4) Plantae, monera and fungi
(1) ls infectious RNA with high motecutar weight
238. A. Consciousness is the most obvious and (2) ls infectious to both plants and animals
technically complicated property of living (3) ls a tightly folded RNA with tow motecutar
beings weight
B. Metabolic reactions cannol be performed ,n (4) Has protein coat as well as genetic material
vitro
244. Choose the correct statement w.r.t.
C. Paratype is a specimen described alongwith phycomycetes
holotype
(1) Gametes are always similar in morphology
(1) All are correct
(2) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Produce non-motile asexual spores, not
(3) Only A is correct zoospores
(4) Both B and C are correct (4) Presence of dikaryophase
239. Gram positive bacterial cell wall is different from 245. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. eubacteria
Gram negative bacterial cell wall in the (1) Cocci are nonflagellated and Gram positive
(1) Presence of very little amount of lipids (2) They have crystal violet stainable property
(2) Absence of porins and NAM and become bluish purple
(3) Presence of teichoic acid and LPS

(3) Pseudomonas is a photoheterotroph
(4) Chemolithotrophs play important rote in
(4) Absence of NAG and L-lysine
minerals cycling
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246. plasmodial slime moulds difier from cellular slime 251. Neurospora, Ustilago and Agaricus are similar in
moulds in the presen@ of _during sexual life cycle
(1 ) nature
Sporic wall chemical (1) Endogenous meiospore
(2) Mode of nutrition (2) Dikaryophase
(3) Presence of wall-less vegetative stage with (3) Exogenous meiospore
holocarpic nature (4) Basidiocarp
(4) Presence of isogamous type reproduction
252. which of the foflowing bacteria is used to remove
247. Choose the correct set of characters for sac fungi bitterness of tobacco leaves?
from given features
a. Coenocytic mycelium with chitinous wall
(1 ) Bacilus megatherium
(2) Baci us subtilis
b. primary mycelium with cellulosic wall
(3)
Frankia
c. woronin bodies
(4\ Lactobaci us
d. Exogenousry formed meiospore
253 Some dinoflagellates produce a toxin that causes
e. Exogenously formed asexual spore severe illness in man. This toxin
f Ascocarp (1) Causes PSP in mussel
(1) b' c' d' f (21 c' e' f
(2) Enters in man by consumption of an organism
(3) c, d, e, t (4) a, d, e, f which is unaffected by the toxin
248. Which one of the following statement is incorrect (3) ls highly poisonous to invertebrates only
for lichens?
(4) Does not interfere with neuromuscular
(1) Mycobiont is dominant partner transmission in humans
(2) Rhizines are associated with fruticose lichens 2 . What is the site of meiosis in 'Ray fungi'?
(3) Sex organs and frutifications are offungalorigin (1) Ascus mothercell (2) Ascus
(4) lsidia are photosynthetic as well as reproductive (3) Ascospore (4) No meiosis
vegetative structure
255. Neurospora, Penicitlium, Polyporus, ctaviceps
249. Select an incorrect match and Agaicus
(1) Frankia - Actinomycetes - Root nodules (1) Produce predominant dikaryophase in life cycle
(21 Mycoplasma - Wall less - Obligate aerobic (2) Possess aseptate mycelium
(3\ Anabaena - BGA - Heterocyst (3) Develop ftuiting body in sexual life cycle
(41 Xanthomonas - Bacteria - citrus canker (4) Produce exogenous meiospores
250. Match the following 256. T2 bacteriophage and tobacco mosaic virus
Cotumn-t Column-tl (1 ) Lack RNA and DNA respectively
(2) Have capsid around the ds-DNA

a. Claviceps (i) Smut disease
(ii) Red rot disease (3) Have ss-DNA and ss-RNA respectively
b. Albugo
(4) Lack tail fibres
c. cottetotichum (iii) Ergot disease
257 Choose the odd one out w r't' slime moulds
d. ustilago (iv) white rust disease
(1) Spores possess true cellulosic walls
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
o' twiss and
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) H","t"":lrXffi::J:H1",?'#
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) Can grow and spread over several feets
(a) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) Spores are dispersed by water currents
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258. Diploid sporophyte as dominant phase and single 265. Trichoderma, bracket lungi, Neurospora,
to few celled haploid gametophyte are present in Colletotrichum and Aspergillus are similar in
the life cycle of all presence of
(1)Algae (2) Bryophytes (1) Dolipore septa in mycelium
(3) Fungi (4) Spermatophytes (2) Cross wall in their hyphae
259. Cell wall of Gram positive bacteria resembles with (3) Sexual reproduction
Gram negative bacteria in all characters, except (4) Simple septa in mycelium
(1) Presence of D-alanine 266. Beijerinckia, Frankia, Anabaena, Nitrobacter and
(2) Presence of muramic acid Rhizobium
(3) Absence of L-glutamic acid (1) Are nitrogen fixers
(4) Presence of F1, 4-linkages between the NAG (2) Produce nitrogenase enzyme
and amino acids
(3) Take part in nitrogen metabolism
260. Monerans having peptidoglycan and mycolic acid
in their cell wall
Are facultative anaerobes 267. Oscillatoria, Myconhiza and Azospirillum
('l )
(2) Are motile and important decomposers (1) lncrease nitrogen content only
(3) Reproduce commonly by endospore (2) Enrich the nutrient quality of soil
formation (3) Are used in organic farming
(4) Are connecting link between bacteria and (4) More than one option is conect
viruses
268. Amitotic cell division, absence of 9+2 organisation
261 . Acellular slime moulds are characterised by
in flagella and peptidoglycan cell wall are features
(1) Free living multinucleate, haploid, naked related to kingdom
somatic body
(1) Prorista (2) Ptantae
(2) lsogamous sexual reproduction
(3) Monera (4) Fungi
(3) Zygotic meiosis
269. Photosynthetic protists showing movement by
(4) Formation of single fructification from somatic mucilage propulsion are
body
(1) Bioluminescent in nature
262. Plasmogamy in wheat rust fungi occurs by
(2) Jewels of the plant kingdom
(1) Gametangial contact
(2) Somatogamy (3) Ray fungi
(3) Spermatization (4) Coenocyte with naked protoplasmic body
(4) Gametangial copulation 270. Select an incorrect match
263. Absence of sex organs, general absence of (1) Lophotrichous - Spiillum volutans
asexual spores and plasmogamy by means of (2) Cephalotrichous
somatogamy are features characteristic to - Pseudomonas
fluorcscence
(1) Ascomycetes
(3) Amphitrichous - E. coli
(2) Deuteromycetes
(4) Monotrichous - Vibrio
(3) Basidiomycetes
271.Ihe peculiar amino acid present in cell wall of
(4) Phycomycetes gram negative bacteria only is
264. According to five kingdom classification system,
(1) L - lysine
which of the following kingdom has multicellular/
loose tissue level body organisation? (2) D - glutamic acid
('l ) Protista (2) Plantae (3) D - alanine
(3) Animalia (4) Fungi (4) Diaminopimelic acid
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Biological Classification 1 33
272. All given features are related to cell wall of gram 279. Binary fission in a bacterial cell
positive bacteria, except a. Occurs during most unfavourable conditions
('t ) Muramic acid content is 70-95% b. Requires replication of DNA using Cairns
(2) Presence of teichoic acid model
(3) Low lipid content (24%) c. ls helped by mesosomes
(4) Low peptidoglycan content (1) All are conect (2) Only'a'is incorrect
273. Polysome refers to (3) Only 'b' is incorrect (4) Only 'c' is inconect
(1) Chain of volutin granules found in bacterial 280. Putrefaction is specific for
cytoplasm (1) Anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates
(2) PHB granules
(2) Anaerobic breakdown of proteins
(3) Chain of ribosomes attached to mRNA (3) Aerobic breakdown of organic compounds
(4) Free ribosomes in bacterial cytoplasm (4) More than one option is correct
274. Plasmid of which bacterium has the quality to
281. Which wall layer of endospore contains Ca-DPA
degrade hydrocarbons/oil spills?
complex working as anticoagulant?
(11 Pseudomonas putida (1) Exosporium (2) Spore coat
(2\ Agrobacteium tumefaciens (3) Cortex (4) Core wall
(3) E. coli 282. Resting asexual spore stataspore is formed in
(4) Acetobacter aerogens (1) Navicula (2) Physarum
275. Rhodopseudomonas and Rhodospirillum ate (31 Melosira (4) Slime moulds
photosynthetic forms belonging to
category. 283. Select the incorrect match
(1) Purple sulphut (2) Purplenon€ulphur (1) Photolithotroph - Chlotobium
(3) Green non-sulphur (4) Green sulphur (2) Chemolithotroph - N'frocysfis
2T6.Readlhestatementscarefully(3)Photoheterotroph_Pseudomonas
a. Use of ATP and NADPH (4) Chemoorganotroph - Methanomonas
b. Anorygenic process 284. Astaxanthin pigment is found in of
Euglena
c. No splitting of water (1) Paraflagellar body
d. H2o as a source of e- and H. -
(2) Reservoir
e. pigment
chtorophyll a as photosynthetic
(3) contractile vacuote & ptastid
Find the correct statements for photosynthesis in .
(4) stigma
eubacteria
(1)a'b'c&d(2)b&c2S5.WhatocdJrswhenaF*bacGriumconjugateswith
(3) a, b, c &. e (4) a, b &
" (1).F. ____=_+ F
277.The reaction H2S + O ------+ H2O + S + Ene(ly i I(2) F- --------+ F*
is canied out by '-
(3) F- ------+ Hfr
('ll Ferrobacillus (2) kggiatoa
(4) Hfr ----+ F-
(3) Hydrogenomonas (41 Leptothrix
286' slime moulds with sporic meiosis show
278. select the lncoEec{ statement wr.t. dinoflagellates
zooxanthellae (1) Diploid somatic stage
(1) Theca is absent in
(2) Ribbon like flagellum is present in the girdle (2) Motile stage in life cycle
(3) Have condensed chromosomes with histones (3) Chemotaclic movement
(4) Have noncontractile vacuole (4) Sporangia with capillitja
1 34 Biological Classifi cation Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
287. Match the following 292. Mycoplasma differs from eubacteria in
Column I Column ll (1) Not having 70 S ribosome
a. Retting of fibres (i\ Bdellovibio (2) Having cell wall
bacteivorus (3) Having linear dsDNA
b. curing of tea reaves (iil crostridium (4) Showing penicilin sensitivity
0.":.n''nntn" 293. All given are characters of archaebacteria, except
..
c. Vitamin 812 (iii) Micrococcus
cendisans ('l ) Pseudomurein cell wall
d. purity of Ganges (iv) Bac,Trls (2) Bacteriorhodopsin to perform photosynthesis

water megatherium (3) Habitat in extremes of environment
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Presence of branched chain tipids as
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (a) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) monolaver
288. The stage of karyogamy in communal slime moulds 294 Unicelled' flagellate' wall-less protista having
pigments similar plants
to higher have/shows
is
(1) Sexual reproduction by isogamous method
(1) plasmodium
(2) Two stichonematic flagella
(2) small myxamoebae
(3) Mixotrophic nutrition
(3) Pseudoplasmodium
(4) Transverse binary fission
(4) Large myxamoebae
295 Celular slime moulds are similar to acellular slime
2gg. The mycelial bacterium which can symbiotically fix
N2 in non-leguminous plants is
(1) Having true wall around spores
(1) Eradyrhizobium (21 Frankia
(2) Presence of pseudoplasmodium
(3) Nocardia Mycobacterium
(4)
(3) Being true multicelled organisms
z9o. a. Fragefla are absent throughout the life in BGA
(4) Lacking wall around sporangium
b. Hormogonia are commonry absent in
osciltatoria 296. Select the correct match
c. Helerocyst are thick walled N2 fixing cells ;n (1) Cymbella - Dinoflagellate

Anabaena and Nostoc (2\ paranema - Euglenoid
(1) Both b & c are correct (3) cymnodinium - Diatom
(2) Both a & b are incorrect (4\ Dictyostelium - Acellutar mould
(3) Both b & c are incorrect 297. Organisms as sewage pollution indicators, soap
(4) only b is incorrect box lake structure with chlorophyll a and c are
included in
291. Which of the given characters are not associated
with BGA? (1) chrysophyta (2) pyrrophyta
a. Anoxygenic photosynthesis (3) Euglenophyta (4) Myxomycetes
298. Bioluminiscence is shown by all, except
b. sea
Red
c. Red snow (\ Navicula (2) pyrodinium
d. Lamellasome (3) Pyrocystis (41 Noctituca
e. Mucilage cover 299. Organism which is responsible for paralytic shell
f.Algalbloomfishpoisoningisassociatedwith
(1) a & c (2) a, b & f (1) Red sea (2) Red rust
(3) a, b & e (4) a & d (3) Red tide (4) Red rot
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300. Consider the following statements 306. The process of plasmogamy where a fertilisation
tube develops to facilitate the migration of male
a. Naked protoplast is called plasmodium
nucleus into female gametangium, is known as
b. Spore dispersed by air cunents
(1) Spermatization
c. Position in class myxophyceae
(2) Gametangial copulation
d. Mode of reproduction is isogamy and
(3) Planogametic fusion
anisogamy
(4) Gametangial contact
Find inconect w.r.t. slime moulds
(1) c&d (2) a&b 307. The set of vegetative hypha in Rhizopus is
represented by
(3) b&c (4) Only c
('l) Rhizoidal and zygospore hypha
30 1. Aseptate, multinucleate condition called'coenocyte'
is characteristically found in
(2) Srtoloniferous and rhizoidal hypha
(1) Zygomycetes and Ascomycetes (3) Sporangiophore and rhizoidal hypha

(2) Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes (4) Sporangiophore and stoloniferous hypha
(3) Oomycetes and Deuteromycetes 308. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Rhzopus
(4) Zygomycetes and Oomycetes a. Presence of coenogametes

302. Chitinous cell wall is commonly found in fungi but b. Flagellated zoospores
some members may have cellulosic cell wall like c. Zygospore as sexual spore
(11 Claviceps and Puccinia d. Ascospore formation
(2\ Neurospora and Phytophthon (1) All are correct (2) b & c are inconect
(3) Albugo and Pythium (3) b &d are incorrect (4) a&darecorrect
(4) Saccharomyces and Fuligo
309. Absence of motile forms, asexual reproduction
303. Terminal swollen structure in fungi for absorption of through conidia and endogenous sexual spore is a
nutrients from host cell is known as character of class
(1) Snares (2) APPresorium (1) Zygomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(3) Haustoria (4) Rhizomorph (3) Oomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
304. Match the following 310. Select the incorrect match
I Column Column ll -
(1) Cleistothecium Penicillium
a. Conidia (i) Saqrolegnia (2) Apothecium - Neurospora
b. Sporangiospore (ii) Rhizoqus (3) Perithecium - Claviceps
c. Budding (iii) SaccharomYces (4) Ascostroma - Pleosqora
d. Zoospore (iv) Asperg/,Zus 3'11 . Select a set of edible members of ascomycetes
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
\1) Morchella and Agaicus
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Pleurotus and Tuber
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3\ Morchella and Tuber
(a) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) Agaricus and Pleurctus
305. Torula stage appears when form
continuous buds in sugar rich medium
312.lPP-1 and SM-'l are examples of
('l Conidia
) (2) Zoospore (1) Mycophages (2) Coliphages
(3) Ojdia (4) Sporangiospores (3) Zymophages (4) Cyanophages
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313. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? 3'19. A dakaryotic spore in life cycle ol Puccinia graminis
tritici having bicelled structure
(1) Diptontic tife - ceratium
cycte
(1) lnfects the secondary host
(2) Mesokaryon - pyrocystis
(2) Gives rise to pycniospores directly
(3) wriggling movement - Euglena
(3) ts involved in karyogamy and meiosis
(4) Silicified protists - Leucosin (4) tnfects the primary host
3'14. All given statements stand true w.r.t. Lichens, 320. Spawn, fairy rings, pileus and stipe are terms
excePt related to the life cycle of
(1 ) These are indicators of SO2 pollution, as tungi
(.1) Btack rust (2) Gill fungi
shown by there abundance in these areas (3) Blue mould (4) smut tungi
(2) Breathing pores help in qas exchanqe. these
are round ro*r,0" upp"iJr-rll"
-- t" and asexuar spores is a
inJrrr'
"i 1ff18,:fi;:1T'
(3) This association is also termed ashelotism (1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
(4) crustose lichens are pioneers of rock (3) Deuteromycetes (4) oomycetes
succession
322. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus presists during
315. Most efficient structure for asexual reproduction in division in
lichens is
(1) Diatoms
(1) tsidia (2) cyphe ae
(2) stime moutds
(3) Cephatodia (4) Soredia (3) Eugtenoids
316. Select the incorrect match (4) More than one option is correct
(1) Edible lichen - Letharia 323. Which of the given antibiotics is not produced by
(2) Litmus - Rocella an actinomycetes member?
(3) Antibiotic _ usnea (1) Polymixin (2) chloramphenicol

(3) streptomycin (4) Novobiocin
(4) Forest fires - ltsnea
3lT.Mymrrhizaare arso cailed funsar roots, commonry
t" ,jiy:;;:;,;I:*ffi1,j[ j'1"?t"#ffitj o,u*t
a. plnus
Ectomycorrhiza are associated with (1) Rami
b.
Endomycorrhizal fungi are members of (2) Sterigmata
zygomycetes (3) Metulae
c. Basidiomycetes members are found t
i4) More than one option is correct
associated with orchids
and Mvcoderma are
d. rhese herps to absorb phosphorus 't l*iJ:*".,::: ""'o'o'
(1) All are correct except c (1) Deuteromycetes
(2) a & c are incorrect (2) Ascomycetes
(3) b & c are incorrect (3) Zygomycetes
(4) c & d are correct (4) Oomycetes
318. Deuteromycetes are differenl from asmmycetes 1n 326. Haplodiplontic life cycle is shown by and
it produce
(1) Formation of conidia
(1) Baker,s yeast, 4 ascospores
(2) Having septate mycelium -
(2) Budding yeast, g ascospores
(3) Crozier formation
(3) Hetobial yeast, 4 ascospore
(4) Absence of sexuar reproduction (4) Fission yeast, 4 ascospores
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327. Match the following (3) They reduce sulphur to H2S under anaerobic
mnditions
column I column ll
to' membrane contains branched chain
a. Honey mushroom (i) Lycoperdon Ili""""
b. Puff ball (iil Amanita 334. Select the incorrect match/statement
c. Stink horn (iii) Armilana (1) Chrysophytes - Statospores
d. Toad stool (iv\ Pha us (2) Plasmodium of acellular slime moulds creeps
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) over the substratum bv means of pseudopodia
(3) Pvrrhophvta - Fire alsae
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (a) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Euglenoids have pellicle in place of cell
328. select the incorrect statement
membrane
(1) conidia are asexual structure in Penicillium 335. During the life cycle of communal slime moulds
(2) Zoospores are formed during favourabl" (t Meiosis results in haploid and true walted
condition )
spores
(3) Oospores are diploid asexual spores (2) Somatic phase is represented by uninucleate
(4) ln asexual reproduction, a single parent and diploid myxamoebae
produces offspring with or without the (3) Capillitium as well as pseudoplasmodium are
formation of gametes not formed
329. lnstead of L-lysine the amino acid present in the (4) Sporangium is not covered by peridium
cell wall of Gram negative bacteria is 336. Mycorrhizal fungi
('r ) L-alanine (2) Teichoic acid (1) rncrease uptake of minerars by prant root
(3) D-alanine (4) Diaminopimelic acid (2) Do not produce growth promoting hormones
330. Calcium dipicolinic acid (Ca - DPA) is present in (3) Obtain their shelter and nutrients from root of
of bacterial endospore host plant
(1) Core wall (2) Spore coat (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Cortex (4) Exosporium 337. The zygospore ol Rhizopus is five layered in which
331. Curing of leaves in tobacco is brought about by (1) Exosporium is three layered and endosporium
is two layered
(1\ clostridium perfringens
(2\ Methytophitus methytotropus t') two lavered and endosporium is
i#::tlJflf
(3) Bac,Ius subtl/,s (3) Exosporium is single layered and endosporium
(4) Bacillus megatheium is four layered
332. Heterocysts are large sized, pale coloured, (4) Exosporium is four layered and endosporium is
mucilage free, specialiied cells that single layered
as well as diplophase
(1) Are universatty present in all members of 338. Haplophase, dikaryophase
myxophyceaearepresentinthelifecycleoffollowingmembers,
except
(2) Have oxidising environment which is ideal for () Mucor (2\ Ustilago
nitrogen fixation
(3) Agaricus (4) Puccinia
(3) Do not occll- in oscillatoria
(4) Lack ps]aswer as ps-r '* :#T5""[til,::iffi::::r::lli;flt:":ffi
333. Which of the following statement is wrong about in lichen thallus are called
thermoacidophiles? (j ) Cyphe[ae
(1) They have resistant enzymes which can (2) Cephalodia
operate under acidicconditions (3) tsidia
(2) They are photosynthetic in nature (4) Soradium
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340 How many types of vegetative hyphae are present 347. Match the following
in the life cycle of Rhizopus?
Column I Column ll
(1) 1 (2) 3
a. Ustilago nuda t ici (i\ Brown leaf spot of
(3\ 2 (41 4 rice
341 Vibrio cholerae, Xanthomonas citri, Lactobacillus, b. Albugo candida (ii) Ergot of rye
Clostridium tetani and Rhizobium
c. Claviceps (iii) Loose smut of
(1) Are pathogens wheat
(2) Are chemo-organoheterotrophs d. Helminthosporium (iv) White rust of
(3) Play a greal role in recycling nutrients crucifers
(4) Can survive in some of the most harsh habitats (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
342 Euglenoids arc Euglena like unicellular flagellates (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (a) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
that belong to division euglenophyta. These 348. Examine the figure given below and select the
organisms
right option giving all the three parts (A, B and C)
(1) Are usually found in running fresh water correctly identified
(2) Have pellicle which makes their flagella flexible
(3) Have pigments identical to higher plants B
(4) Cannot behave like predator
C
343 Mark the fungal classes in which plasmogamy is
immediately followed by karyogamy to form diploid
cells.
(1) A - Dikaryotic mycetium
(1) Oomycetes, Zygomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes - Hymenium
B
(3) Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes C - Pileus
(4) Basidiomycetes, Ascomycetes (2) A - Trama

344 Lichens are symbiotic associations between algae B - Stipe
and fungi. These organisms C - Sub.hymenium
(1) Can tolerate extreme desiccation and air (3) A - Basidiocarp
pollution
B - Asci
(2) Have various colouralion and slow groMh
- Stipe
C
(3) Commonly have a basidiomycete as mycobiont
(4) A - Rhizomorph
(4) Can multiply by soredia only
B - Pileus
345. Select the character which is specific to members
C - Stipe
of chrysophyta
349. Albugo, morcls, Aftemaia and Vibio arc
(1) Mostly marine habitat
(1) Autotrophic organisms
(2) Mixotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Heterotrophic organisms
(3) lndeskuctible siliceous wall
(3) Saprophytic fungi
(4) Parasitic fungi
346. Septate mycelium, fragmentation as common
mode of reproduction, with generally absence of
350. Cell type - Eukaryotic
asexual spores are features of Cell wall - Present in some
members
(1) Deuteromycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
Mode of nutrition - Autotrophic and
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Phycomycetes heterotrophic
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According to five kingdom classification, these 357. Select the wrong statement
characters belong to kingdom(s) (1) Dinoftagellates are mostly present in fresh
(1 ) Protista
Monera and water
(2)Monera(2)Maiorityofeuglenoidsarefreshwater
organlsms
(3) Protista .-
(3) Spores possess true walls in slime moulds
(4) Protista and Animalia
to' slime moulds are dispersed bv air
351. vast malority of bacteria are :#::l'"
(1 ) Photosynthetic autotrophic 35g. Select the sexual spores w.r.t. fungus
(2) Heterotrophic (1) Oospores, conidiospores, basidiospores,
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic ascospores
(4) Photolithotrophic (2) Oospores, basidiospores, ascospores

352. Halophilic and thermoacidophilic archaebacteria are (3) Basidiospores, as@spores, sporangiospores
similar in the presence of (4) Conidia, sporangiospores, zoospores
(1) Cyclosis 359. Sexual life cycle of bracket fungi is different from
(2) Branched chain lipids in cell wall Rhizopus in the presence of
(3) Linear ssDNA (1) Diplophase (2) Dikaryophase

(4) Non-cellulosic cell wall (3) Meiosis (4) Karyogamy
353. Which of the following organisms are helpful in 360 Which

of the following statements for
Methanobacterium is tue?
making curd form milk, proiuction of streptomycin
and nitrogen fixation in legumes? (1) Presence of histone proteins and 80S type
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Eubacteria ribosomes
(3) Archaebacteria (4) Cyanobacteria (2) Absence of membrane bound organelles

(3) Presence of nuclear membrane
354. consider the following statements w.r't.
Mycoplasma (4) Absence of cell wall and RNA
a. They lack cell wall. 361. Members of which group of fungi can belong to
b.TheyarethelargestlivingCell.aquatichabitatsandhavecoenocyticmycelium?
c. They can survive without oxygen (1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes
d.Theyarepathogenictoanimalsonly.(3)Deuteromycetes(4)Basidiomycetes
The correct statements are 362. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
option for two correct statements
(1) b & d (2) b & c
;:ff'#;*'
(3) a&c (4) a&d
are/ a Mycelium is aseptate
3ss. chrysophytes, euglenoids and dinoflagellates
'
have b Aplanospores are motile and exogenous in
ongln
('l ) Chemosynthetic in nutrition
(2) Chlorphyll a and b
c Zygospores are formed by fusion of gametes
in sexual reproduction.
(3) single celled eukaryotes
d. lt is the parasitrc fungi on mustard'
(4) silicified cell wall
The correct statements are
356. ln diatoms the cell walls form two
(1) b & c
(1) Thin non-overlapping shells
(2) a & c
(2) Thin overlapping shells
(3) a & d
(3) Thick non-overlapping shells
(4) c & d
(4) Suberised overlapping shells
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363. Which of the following fungi is used extensively 370. Albugo candida and Mucor are similar in having
work?
biochemical and genetic
(1) Hemicellulosic cell wall
l'l) claviceps (2\ Neurcspora (2) peptidogtycan in cell walt
(3) Penicillium (4) tJstilago
(3) cametangial contact
3&. Sex organs are absent and plasmogamy is brought
(4) Aseptiate and coenocytic mycelium
about by fusion of two vegetative or somaticcells
in
of different strains or genotypes 371. select the conect option w.r.t. Aspergittus
(1) Penicillium (2) colletotrichum (1) lt is catted weed of laboratory and produce
l3l Agaicus (4'1 Tichoderma conidiospores
365. (A) Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these (2) lt is also called bread mould forming trisporic
fungi are known. acid during sexual reproduction
(B) Large number of members are decomposers (3) lt is a member of club fungi used to produce
of litterand help in mineralcycling. antibiotics
These statements (A & B) are true for (4) The asci are ananged in fruiting bodies called
basidiocarp
(l) Deuteromycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomyceres (4) phycomyceres
372::il"'ji:?':lj.,?:":jJ,:11["i,"|f,:"J:l
366. Lichens are mutually useful assoclations between each node is seen in
(1) Autotrophic and heterotrophtc members (1) Submerged hydrophytes
(2) Two autotrophic partners (2) Water hyacinth, water chestnut
(3) Two heterotrophic partners (3) Floating hydrophytes
(4) Fungi and roots of higher planb (4) Mint and Colocasia
367. During unfavourable conditjons, the plasmodium of 373. Match the following
slime moulds ditferentiates and forms fruiting
bodies bearing
- Column I Column ll
(1) Spores at thelr tips a. Jasmine (i) Sucker
(2) Gametes at their basal part b. Pineapple (ii) Rhizo.ne
(3) Gametes at their tips c. Zaminkand (iii) Stolon
(4) Spores at their basal part d. Ginger (iv) Corm
368. Match the Column twith Cotumn [ (i) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
Column I Cotumn [ (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
a. Rhodopseudomonas (i) Ca-DpA (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
b. Ray tungi (ii) psittacosis (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
c Bacterial endospore (iii) Bacteriopurpurin 374. choose odd one out w.r.t. structure of axillary bud
d. Chlamydia (iv) Mycotic acid origin
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) Thom (2) Tendrit
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(i!) (a) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) Butbit (a) Spine
369. Type of DNA and RNA found in Mycoplasma arc 375. pneumatophore
and stilt roots are seen in which
respectively of the following plants respectivety?
(1) Double stranded and single stranded
(1) Sugarcane, Rhizophora
(2) Single stranded and double stranded
(2) Mangroove plants, Grasses
(3) Linear and circular
(3) Ficus, Rhizophora
(4) single stranded and circular
rc{H
(4) Grasses, Mangroove prants
Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l)
41
Biological Classification 1
376. Persistent fibrous root system arise from 383. ldentify the following diagram and choose correct
option
(1) Radicle (2) Base of stem
(3) Leaf (4) Stem internode
377. Archaebacteria can survive in extreme climatic
conditions due to
(1) Cell wall structure
(2) Presence of peptidoglycan in cell wall
(1) Basidiospores are formed in subhymenium
(3) D - Amino acids in cell wall
(2) Plasmogamy occurs through somatogamy
(4) Presence of introns in DNA
(3) Haplophase is predominant in life cycle
378. select the odd one out w.r.t. chrysophytes
(4) Rhizoids are Present
(1) lncludes diatoms and golden algae
384. Nutritionally, majority of the bacteria are
(2) They are microscopic planktons (1) photoautotrophs (2) Chemoautotrophs
(3) Most of them are photosynthetic or predators (3) Heterotrophs (4) photoorganotrophs
(4) They are fresh water as well as marine 385. Selecl the con€cl match (column-l with column-ll)
379. Sexual spores in fungi are Column - | Column - ll
(1) Ascospores and conidia a. lndestructible cell wall (i) Physarum

(2) Oospores and zoospores b' Red tide (ii) Euglenoids
(3) Ascospores and oospores c' Pellicle (iii) Gonyaulax
(4) Basidiospores and sporangiospores
d' Plasmodium (iv) chrysophytes
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i)' b(iii)' c(iv)' d(ii)
380. which of these euoacteria is nor a
chemoautotroph? (3) a(iii), b(iv), (ii), d(i) (4) a(ii)' b(iii)' c(iv)' d(i)
(1\ chtorobium (2) Nitrosomonas *t
formed
(3) Fenobaciltus (4) Thiobaci us ""Juifi|.Tl,y:l;;:"?:to,Tnousrv

() Atbugo and Rhizopus
381. Match the following conectly (2) Aspeeillus and penicillium
column I column ll
(3) c'avi.eps and cottetotichum
a. Saxitoxin (i\ Euglena . (4) phytophthora and Neurospora
b Acrasin (ii) Gonyaulax 387. Non-cellular organisms as nucleio-protein
c. Kies€lguhr (iii) Dictyostelium structure do not cause
d. Astaxanthin (iv) Cymbella (1) Mumps and small pox

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) Herpes and influenza
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii)' b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) Dwarfing' stunted growth and mosaic disease
382. Which of these is not related to organisms which
(4) cholera, typhoid and tetanus
are characterised by absorptive mode of nukition 388. Chrysophytes are characterised by all, except
and have loose tissue organisation?
(l ) lndestructible cell wall
(1) Extracetlular digestion of food
(2) size of daushter cells in
(2) Formation of fruit bodv in some organisms nt#'i[[i:"
o, always immediate|y after (3) Diplontic life cycle and gametic meiosis
5::,,""8[} (4) Flagellate stage
(4) Absence of NAM in cell wall
142 Biological Ctassification
Last Leap for NEET (Paru)
389. Which of the following character is related with 395. Select odd one w.r.t. amino acids of tetrapeptide
kingdom fungi? found in Gram negative bacteria
(1) Presence of chemosynthetic autotrophic D-alanine
nutrition
(1 ) (2) L-atanine'
(3) D{lutamic acid (4) Llysine
(2) Absence of nuclear membrane
396. The cell wall of almost all the eubacteria is made
(3) Body organisation is multicellular/loose tissue up of
type
(4) They prefer to grow in warm and dry places
(1) Mucopeptide (2) Ce utose
(3) Chittn (4) Pseudomurein
397. Which of the following is an example of peritichous
(1) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted
bacteria?
water bodies
(1\ Pseudomonas fluorescence
(2) Body of slime moulds moves along decaying
twigs and leaves engulfing inorganic material (2) Lactobacillus
(3) RNA of the viroid is of low molecular weight (3) Spirillum votutans
(4) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas (4) Escheichia
391. ln which group of fungi, the fusion of two haploid 398. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Gram positive
cells immediately results in the formation of diploid bacteria
cells?
(1) Cell wall is not sensitive to penicillin
('l ) Phycomycetes
(2) These are mostly capsulated
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Teichoic acid is present in cell wall
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Pili are very common
(4) Fungi imperfecti and algat fungi
399. The cytoplasm of bacteria appears granular due to
392. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bacteria the presence of
(1) They are the most abundant microorganisms (1) 80S ribosomes (2) Chromatophores
(2) Very simpte in structure (3) 70S ribosomes (4) Genophore
(3) They as a group show the most extensive 400 respire anaerobically only and the
metabolic diversity growth of this bacteria will certainly be slower as
(4) They are very simple in behaviour compare to aerobic bacteria.
393. Match the column I with column ll (1) Bacifius subtilis
Column I (Shapes) Cotumn [ (Bacteria) (2) Chlorobium
a. Sphericat (i) Bacilli (3) iseudomonas
.
b. Rod (ii) Spiriltum (4) Clostridium

c. Comma (iii) Cocci 401. Which of the following bacteria use HrS as
d. Spiral (ivlvibno electron and H* donor during photosynthesis?
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) Purple non-sulphur bacteria
(a) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Green non-sulphur bacteria
394. Which of the following is example of pleomorphic
402. Generation time of a bacteria is 20 minutes.
bacteria?
lf initially there were 50 cells in the culture medium,
(1) Diplococcus pneumoniae then what will be the number of cells after
(2\ Rhodomicrobium 2 hours?
(31 Caulobacter (1) 2400 Ql 32OO
(4) Rhizobium leguminosarum (3) 3000 (4) 2s6O
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Biological Classiflcation 143
403. Anticoagulant Ca-DPA is present in 410. Which of the following feature is not concerned
with chrysophytes?
(1) Exosporium of endospore
(2) Cell wail of Gram nesative bacteria
t" and float passivelv in
HiJr:l?rliJoscopic
(3) cortex of endospore (2) The walls are embedded with pectin and thus
(4) Cell membrane of Gram positive bacteria walls are indestructible
404. Select the correct stalement w.r.t. extra (3) They form diatomaceous earth
chromosomal DNA of bacteria (4) Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans
(1) lt is always found as the part of nucleoid 41'1. Dinoflagellates are characterised by all, except
(2) lt is always longer than nucleoid DNA (1) The cell watl has stiff cellulose plates on the
(3) lt may provide resistance for antibiotics outer surface
(4) lts genes have vital role in viability and grolvth (2) The cell walls form two thin ovedapping shells,
which fit together as in a soap box
of bacteria
(3) Most of them has one longitudinal and other
405. Genetic recombination in bacteria in which transfer
transverse flagellum
of genetic material from one bacterium to another
bacterium occurs with the help of surrounding (4) Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a, c
medium, is known as and (l-carotenes
(.1) Transduction (2) Binary flssion 412. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Euglenoids
(3) Transformation (4) Conjugation (1) They are photosynthetic in sunlight and
behave like heterotrophs in absence of light
406. Bacterial blight of rice as caused by' (2) The pigments are identical to those present in
(1) Xanthomonas orvae higher plants
(2) Xanthomonas citri (3) They have protein rich cell wall made up of
(3\ Clostridium botutinum pellicle
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (4) The reserve food material is in the form of
paramylon
407. which of the following feature of archaebacteria is
responsible for their survival in extreme conditions? 413 slime moulds
ln the life cycle of acellular
('l ) Spores are walled
(1) Presence of exons in DNA
RNA (2) somatic stage is haploid plasmodium
(2) Presence of histone proteins and circular
(3) Spores are dispersed by biotic agents
(3) Presence of 70s ribosomes
bacteria (4) y::j:,:yst represents site of karyogamy
and
(4) Different cell wall structure from other
merosls
408 select the correct statement w r't Halophiles
4r4. white spots seen on mustard leaves are due to
(1) They are capable of tolerating high acidity a parasitic fungus known as
(2) They are obligate anaerobes occurring in high () puccinia graminis
salt concentration
(3) They oxidise sulphuric acid to sulphur under
er phytophthora,nfestans
.
aerobic conditions (3) Albugo candida

(4) ln high light intensity, a reddish pigment (4) Mucor mucedo
bacteriorhodopsin develop in their membrane 415. ln fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by
to trap sunlight to Produce ATP
(1) Fission' conidia and ascospores
409. The organisms which comptetely lack a cell wall
are
and can survive without oxygen (2) Conidia, hypnospores and zoospores
(1) Mycoptasma (2) Diatoms (3) Conidia, sporangiospores and zoospores
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Dinoflagellates (4) Sporangiospores, conidia and basidiospores
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416. Select the lncorrect statement wr.t. fungi 422. Which of the following fungus is used extensively
(1) Mycelium is consist of long slender thread like in biochemical and genetic work?
structures called hyphae (11 Aspergillus (2) Co etotrichum
(2) Aseptate and multinucleate hyphae is called (31 Neurospora (4) Claviceps
menocytic hyphae 423. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas and are
(3) Dolipore septum is characteristic of class very good pollution indicator of
ascomycetes (1) Radioactive pollution
(4) The cell wall is composed of chitin and (2) Sewage pollution
polysaccharides (3) SO2 pollution
417. Which of the following is not form the basis of (4) Soil pollution
classification in fungi? 424. Mycobiont component of lichen provides
(1 ) Morphology of mycelium (1) Water and food materials to phycobiont
(2) Mode of spore formation (2) Organic food to its partner
(3) Mode of nutrition (3) Shelter to algal partner
(4) Fruiting bodies (4) More than one option is correct
418. Members of Ascomycetes 425. Choose the correct option for the given below
figures.
(1) Are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying
wood or as obligate parasites on plant
(2) Asexually reproduce by zoospores
(3) Sexual reproduction takes place by la
planogametic mpulation only
(4) Represent dikaryophase which is a short
phase of life cycle
b'r
419. Select correct match w.r.t. column I and column ll (1) Peritrichous bacteria
I
Column Column ll (2) They do not contain both RNA and
DNA
(3) Presence of non-cellulosic cell wall
a. Albugo (i) Basidiomycetes
(4) Presence of cyclosis
o. peniciltium (ii) Deuteromycetes - - -
426. Select the correct match w.r.t. shape of bacteria
c. ustilago (iii) Ascomycetes
column I column I
d. Trichoderma (iv) oomycetes a. Diptococcus (i) Nelsserla
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) b. Tetracoccus (li\ Meningococcus
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) c. Monobacilus (i1) Rhizobium
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ti) d. pteomorphic (iv\ Lactobaci us
(a) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
420. Which of the following statement is correct for (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) ( ) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
deuteromycetes? 427. Consider the following statements and select the
(1) A large number of them are decomposers of correct set of option (w.r.t. bacteria)
litter, but do not help in mineral cycling a. They have simple structure and behaviour
(2) Mycelium is septate and branched b. They are simple in structure with complex
behaviour
(3) They may have three names, one for
vegetative stage and two for asexual stage c. DNA is circular, single stranded and packaged
(4) common asexuar spore is oidia . :[11:;j:T"j:J":::::"?: with prasma
421. Select odd one wr.t. Basidiomycetes membrane
(1) Mushroom (2) Smut e. Characteristic amino acid in cell wall of Gram
positive bacteria is DAPA
(3) Rust (4) Morels
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(1) b & d (2) a, c & e 435. Photosynthetic protists with indestructible cell wall
(3) c,d&e (4) a&d ate
428. Slime layer of cell envelope in bacteria is made of (1) Pyrophytes (2) Chrysophytes
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) LPS (3) Euglenophytes (4) Myxomycetes
(3) Murein (4) Polysaccharides 436. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
shows matched while the remaining three are correct?
429. ln motile bacteria, flagellum
(1) 9 + O arrangement of microtubules (\ Frankia - Root nodules in
Alnus
(2) Eleven stranded structure of tubulin protein
(2) Soredia - Lichen
(3) Single stranded structure of flagellin protein
(4) I + 2 arrangement of microtubules (3) Proteinaceous - Rinderpest disease
infectious particles
430. Nutritionally which group of bacteria are involved
in the recyling of itost of the minerals? (4) Neurospora - Drosophila ol planl
kingdom
(1) Photolithotrophs (2) Photoorganotrophs
43T Auxospore is found in diatoms as
(3) chemolithotrophs (4) chemoheterotrophs
(1) Resting haploid sexual spore
431. Which one of the following option gives the
correct matching of disease with its causative (2) Resting asexual spore
organism? (3)
Diploid sexual spore
(1) Tetanus - Heliobacter Pvlori '
(2) Red rot of sugarcane - Pseudomonas (4) Perennating thick walled haploid spore
rubilineans 438. Euglena resembles with higher plants in
(3) Citrus canker - Xanthomonas (1) Mode of sexual reproduction
campesf's (2) Reserve food material
(4) PSTD - viroid
(3) Types of chtorophyu
432. Select the incorrect statement for archaebacteria
(4) Nutrition
(1) They tack D-amino acid in their cell wall
439 select the incorrect statement w r.t slime moulds
(2) They are similar to eubacteria in having
peptidoglycan in cell wall (1) Plasmodium differentiates into spores
producing structure in favourable condition
(3) Their ribosomal proteins are highly acidic
(4) Methanogens assist in fermentation of (2) Motile stage is present in the life cycle of
cellulose acellular slime moulds
433. Monerans having peptidoglycan and mycolic acid (3) Spores have true cellulosic wall
in their cell wall are (4) pseudoplasmodium stage is chemotactically
(1) Branched filamentous bacteria formed in cellular slime moulds
(2) Facultative aerobes and important 440. Fungi prefer to grow in
decomposers of dead organic matter (1) Coor and humid conditions
(3) Giving fried egg rike appearance in cuture (2) Warm and humid praces
medium
(3) Cool and dry places
(4) Both (1)& (2) are correct
(4) Dry and organic rich soil
434. consu me r-decom poser protists and red-tide
are
causing protists respectively 441. Causal organism of white rust on crucifers shows
(1) Diatoms and Euglena (1) Branched and septate primary mycelium
(2) Slime moulds and Dinoflagellates (2) Plasmogamy by gametangial contact
(3) Slime moulds and Diatoms (3) Chitinous cett watl
(4) Dinoflagellates and Euglena (4) Sexual spore as zygophore
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442 Asexual spores formed exogenously during 448 Choose the correct option w.r.t. fungi forming
favourable conditions, is a feature of fruiting bodies in which reduction division occurs
(1) Egg fungi (2) Sac fungi leading to formation of haploid spores.
(3) Conjugation fungi (4) Club fungl (11 Albugo, Penicillium
443 Edible fruiting body stage is present in the sexual (2) Saccharomyces, Puccinia
life cycle of (3) Agaricus, Mucor
(1) Penicillium and Ustilago (41 Agaicus, Morchella
(2) Aspergi us and Amanita 449 Sole members of the Kingdom Monera
(31 Morchella and Agaricus (1 ) Are very simple in behaviour and metabolic
diversity
(4) Puccinia and Aspergillus
(2) Have been grouped under two categories
444 Most of the members of deuteromycetes are based on their shape
actually related to
(3) Occur almost everywhere and characterised
('l ) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes by a rigid cell wall
(3) Oomycetes (4) Zygomycetes (4) Have loose tissue type of body organisation
445 Select the incorrect statement 450, Structures produced in the life cycle of slime
(1) Fungal partner is commonly basidiomycetes moulds which possess true walls are
in ectomycorrhiza (1) Plasmodium (2) Spores
(2) Orchids seldom occur without mycorrhiza (3) Gametes (4) Myxamoebae
451. The given events in sexual life cycle is conect for
(3) ln ectomyconhiza fungal hyphae do not occur
which group of fungi?
in the intercellular spaces of root cortex
(4) Fungal roots lack root cap and root hairs & A? sex organs -+ Plasmogamy -+
446. The mycobionts of lichen thallus do not show
Dikaryophase (n + n) + Karyogamy -+ Meiosis --;
Sexual spore
which one of the functions?
(1)
(l Agancus, puffball, Bracket fungi
Formation of sex organs
(2) Rust fungi, smut fungi, bread mould
(2) Fruitiflcation
(3) Morels, Ttultles, Penicillium
(3) Body structure and covering (4) Puccinia, Aspergillus, Agaicus
(4) Nitrogen fixation 452. Gracilaia and Gelidium reproduce sexually by
447 Select the correct match (1) Non-motile spores
Column I Column ll (2) Fragmentation
a. lnfectious RNA (i) Coliphage 0x t Z+ (3) Flagellate gametes
particles (4) Non-flagellate gametes
b. Dumbell shaped (ii) Sub-viral
agent 453. Three different genera viz. Solanum, Petunia and
genome with Datura belong to the same immediate category
dsDNA i.e.
c. Polygonal prismatic (iii) Variola virus (1) Tribe (2) Sub-family

head (3) -Family (4) Sub-order
d. SS-DNA virus (iv) T-even phage 454. Which of the following group of families are
included in the order Polymonials?
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) Anacardiaceae and Convolvulaceae
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) Solanaceae and Anacardiaceae
(a) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Anacardiaceae and Poaceae
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455. Which of the following bacteria are mosl abundant 7. A Halophiles show ability to convert light energy
in nature? into chemical energy by developing
(1) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria characteristic orange red pigment in cell wall.
(2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria R They are nutritionally chemoautotrophs.

(3) Heterotrophic bacteria 8.4 Puccinia is heteroecious biotroph.
(4) Parasitic bacteria R Dikaryotization occurs on primary host by
spermatization.
sEcnoil -B 9.A Yeasts are degeneralive ascomycetes of
Assertion - Reason Type Questions mycota.
ln the following questions, a statement of assertion R ln these members, asci are naked without
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) ascocalrp.
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the 10. A Heterocysts are thick walled nitrogen fixing
reason is the correct explanation of the structures in BGA.
assertion, then mark (1) R These have chlorophyll 'a'and thylakoids.
(2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the 11. A Five kingdom system is a phylogenetic system.
reason is not the correct explanation of the R Monerans are common ancestor of all
assertion, then mark (2) kingdoms and includes nutritionally one type
(3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is of organisms.
false, then mark (3) 12. A Woese found that the six kingdoms naturally
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false cluster into three main domains.
statements, then mark (4) R Progenote is believed to be originated from
these domains.
1. A : Nucleoprotein entity which is able to utilize the
synthetic machinery of a living organism is 13. A Halophiles are able to trap sunlight for ATP
obligate parasite. synthesis.
R : lt is inert outside the host cell. R They develop purple pigment in cell wall to
perform cyclic photophosphorylation.
2.4 Spirulina is the only vegetable source of
vitamin 812. 14. A Primordial utricle condition does not exist in
diatoms.
R It has 71% protein rich in lysine and
tryptophan. R Sap vacuole is absent.
3.A Viroids are the smallest self replicating 15. A: Budding yeast shows conlugation.
particles. R Diploid phase is absent in sexual life cycle.
R They are infectious ss-RNA particles. 16. A: Sex organs are differentiated in edible
mushroom.
4. A Loose smut of barley is caused by Ustilago
hordei. R Basidiocarps are formed in favourable
conditions when hyphae of primary mycelium
R lnfecting spores called chlamydospores are collect at places to produce buttons.
exposed while attached to the host.
17. A: VAM are endotrophic mycorrhiza.
5.A Transverse binary fission in diatoms leads to
R: They help in phosphate absorption from soil.
the reduction in size of one of the daughter
cells. 18. A: AIDS virus are enveloped ribovirus.
R Only one half of the cell wall is conserved by R: They have envelope and two copies of
each of the daughter cells. SSRNA.
'19. A: Soredia are most emcient means of asexual
6.A Oxyphotobacteria performs photosynthesis by
reproduction in lichens.
involvement of single pigment system.
R: These are composed of central fungal cells,
R PS I is located in vegetative cells only. surrounded by algal cells.
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20. A: Plasmid and bacterial chromosome are 30. A Slime moulds are also called as imperfect
similar in their double stranded circular nature. fungi.
R: Plasmid is an extra chromosomal circular R These are spore producing protistans without
DNA found in all organisms. cell wall.
31. A Mycoplasma are smallest living cells known
21. A: Endospores can remain unharmed even after and can survive without 02.
pasteurisation.
R Mycoplasma can be pathogenic in both
R: Endospores can withstand temperature as animals and plants.
high as '100'C. 32. A Protista forms a link with monera.
22. A: Stigma or eye spot performs photoreceptive R They shares some common features.
function in Euglena. 33. A Both diatoms and desmids constitute the
R: lt contains a red orange pigment called division Chrysophyta.
astaxanthin. R These groups have common photosynthetic
pigments i.e-, Chlorophyll 'a' and 'b'.
23. A: Mycelium is septate and coenocytic in
members of oomycetes. 34. A Members of Cyanophyceae are strictly
unicelled, as considered in five kingdom
R: Mycelial cells show karyokinesis without system.
failure of septa formation.
R Monera includes unicelled prokaryotes.
24. A: Bacteriophages are usually double stranded 35. A Deuteromycetes is called artificial class of
DNA viruses. fungi.
R : They show lytic cycle of reproduclion. R Members of this class have septate mycelium.
25. A : Fungi are widespread in distribution.

36. A Lichens are very good pollution indicators.
R Because they grow in polluted areas which
R: They have evolved various nutrition methods are rich in SO2.
from autotrophic to heterotrophic.
37. A Albugo is parasitic fungi on mustiard.
26. A: Methanogens are chemolithotrophs. R It belongs to phycomycetes.
R : They lack NAM and D-amino acids in cell 38. A Gaidukov's phenomenon is also called
wall. complementary chromatic adaptation.
R It is shown by BGA.
27. A: Association of mycobiont and phycobiont is
sometimes considered as controlled 39. A Bunchy top of papaya disease is caused by
parasitism. Mycoplasma.
R Mycoplasma is highly pleomorphic.
R : Fungi performs all required activlties of life
except Photosynthesis. 40. A Vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs.
R They depend on dead inorganic matter for
28. A: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
food.
R : Viruses are inert outside host cell. 41. A Dinoflagellates are mostly photosynthetic.
29. A: Some fungi may have different names for R Noctiluca is coloured unicellular eukaryote.
asexual and sexual stages. 42. A Mycoplasma are obligate aerobes.
R: Sexual reproduction is not known to occur in R They are smallest living cells and cannot
members of class deuteromycetes. survive without oxygen.
tr o tr
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Chapter 2
Reproduction in Organisms and

Sexual Rep roduction in Plants
SECTION.A
('l ) Offsets, Water hyacinth
(2) Offsets, Water lettuce
(3) Turions, Water lily
1. Select the correct statement w.r.l. gemmae (4) Bulbils, Potamogeton
a. These are specialised reproductive saudures in 4 Select the correct match between column I and
members of thallophytes and bryophytes column ll w.r.t artificial methods of vegetative
propagation
b. These are green, unicellular & asexual bud-
Column I Column ll
c. These are formed in small receptacles located a. Raspberry (i) Mound layering
on thalli
b. Clerodendrcn (ii) Stem cutting
d. Single gemma forms two new individuals after c. Clematis (iii) Gootee
germination
d. Pomegranate (iv) Serpentine layering
e. These are chlorophyllous and multicellular e. Gooseberry (v) Root cutting
structures (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii), e(i)
f. They germinate and make monoecious thallus (2) a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii), e(i)
ol Marchantia (3) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii), e(i)
(1) a, d, e and f (2) b, c, d and f (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(v), e(i)
(3) c, d and e (4) b, c and f 5 ln the life span of which group of plants, vegetative,
reproductive and senescent phases are clearly
2. Which one of the following is incorrect statement distinct?
with respect to life span of organisms? (1) Annual plants
(1) Peepal tree has a much longer life span as (2) Biennial plants
compared to a mango tree (3) Perennial plants
(2) Life spans of organisms are not necessarily (4) More than one option is conect
correlated with their size 6 Select the correct statement w.r.t. phases in
(3) Single celled organism like Amoeba does not organism's life
show natural death (1) Most of the perennial plants are monocarpic
(4) lt is conelated with the complexity and habit of (2) Neelakuranii is perennial, polycarpic plant, native
to North lndia
plants
(3) Very few perennial plants bear flowers
3. An aquatic plant which is commonly known as throughout the year
"Terror of Bengal", can propagate vegetatively by
(4) External fertilization is prese,,t in all aquatic
and it is also called algae and bryophytes
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150 Reproduction in Orqanisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
7 Zoospores differ from zygospores in 14. The most important pollen characteristics used as
(1) Presence of thick wall taxonomic tool in classification is
(2) Absence of thick wall and motility (1) Chemical nature of exine and intine
(3) Ploidy and flagellation (2) Shape and size of pollen grain
(4) Dispersal and absence of flagella (3) Ridges, tubercles, spines etc. on the surface
8 What is corect w.rt. chromosomes number in the of pollen grains provided by tectum
sexual reproduction oI Ophioglossum? (4) Sculpturing over the surface of pollen grains
(1) Embryo = 1260, Endosperm = 1890, Oosphere = provided by endexine
m0 15. What is true for pollen tube of flowering plants?
(2) Sporocyte = '1260, VCC = 630, Oosphere = 630 (1) lt is glandular with secretory function only
(3) Oospore = 1260, Oosphere ='1260, Leaf cells = (2) Growth occurs by tip activity containing dense
1m active cytoplasm
(4) Gametes = 630, NCC = 1260, Gametangium = (3) Vesicles are absent in its apical cap block
1260
zone
9 Endothecium layer of anther wall is also called as
fibrous layer due to the presence of (4) lts wall is made of sporopollenin and pectin
(1) o-cellulosic thickening on inner tangential wall 16. Co-operative cells have
(2) Non-hygroscopic thickening on outer tangential (1) Filiform apparatus at the micropylar tip
wall (2) Filiform apparatus in the entire wall
(3) o-cellulose thickening on outer tangential wall
(3) Micropylar vacuole and central nucleus
(4) Ligno-suberin on inner tangential and radial wall
'10
(4) Non-vacuolated cytoplasm without cell wall
Most abundanvcommon type of pollen tetrad is
and it is formed due to 17. Select one of the following group of plants having
cytokinesis. common or similar pollinating agent
('l) Tetrahedral, successive (1) Santalum, Amorphophallus, Ficus, Bauhinia
(2) Tetrahedral, simultaneous (2) Yucca, Ricinus, Cannabis, Zostera
(3) lsobilateral, successive - (3) Coconut, Bamtu, Potamogeton, Wiophyilum,
(4) lsobilateral, simultaneous Sugarcane
11 Double fertilization is different fiom single fertilization (4) Anthocephallus, Kgelia, Lemna, Callistemon
because of the presence of
18. The mode of entry of pollen tube into ovule of
(1) Syngamy Juglans is
(2) Seed (1) Porogamy (2) Chatazogamy
(3) Triple tusion (3) Mesogamy (4) Acrogamy
(4) Megaspore and microspore
19. Find correct match between column I and
12 Allergic pollen grains belong to a group of plant column ll
species which are mostly
(1) Entomophilous
Column I Column ll
(2) Anemophilous a. Nuclear endosperm (i\ Phoenix
(3) Omithophilous b. Metaxenia (ii]' Trapa
(4) Hydrophilous c. Absence of (iii) Capse/a
'13 The microsporocytes develop which one of the trophomixis
following structure that breaks the plasmodesmal d. Obturator (iv) Placenta / Funicle
connections among themselves?
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
('l) Outer layer of pectinase
(2) lnternal layer of ft1,3glucan polymer (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Stomium and release of callose (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Paramular bodies (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Reproduction in O rganisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 151
20. Find out the ploidy of oospore, coleoptile and 26. Functional megaspore develops into Polygonum
aleurone layer cells developed from the hexaploid type of female gametophyte by
female and diploid male parents
(1) One meiotic and two successive mitotic
('l ) 4n, 3n,3n respectively divisions
(21 4n, 4n,8n respectively (2) Three successive mitotic divisions
(3) 3n, 3n, 4n respectively (3) One meiotic and one mitotic divisions
(4\ 4n, 4n, 7n respectively (4) Two meiotic and one mitotic divisions
21. Which one of the following mndition leads to the 27. Match column I with column ll
development of diploid oosphere?
(1) Aplospory (2) Apogamy
Column I Column ll
(3) Sporophytic budding (4) Diplospory a. Turn pipe mechanism (il Aristolochia
22. When the ovule is curved more or less at right b. Trap door mechanism (ii) Centaurca
angle to funicle and mycropylar end is bend down c. Pitfall mechanism (iii) Sage plant
slightly the type of ovule is
d. Piston mechanism (w) Ficus caica
(1) Anatropous (2) Campylotropous
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3)Hemianatropous (4)Circinotropous
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
23. What is incorrect for pollination of the Ophrys?
(1) Pollination
28. Juvenile phase or vegetative phase is related with
is done by Colpa wasp
all, except
(2) lt is called pseudocopulation mechanism
(1) lt is pre-reproductive phase in the life cycle of
(3) Female wasp lays eggs inside the ovary of an individual
flower
(2) lt is the period of growth
(4) The orchid employs sexual deceit to get
pollinated (3) lt is of different durations in different organisms
24. Whal is not true for the plant given below? (4) lt involves appearance of flowers in higher
plants
29. Zoospore is
(1) Formed by fusion of two gametes
(2) Flagellated and motile structure
(3) The net resull of sexual reproduction
(4) Always diploid
30. Pollen grain in angiosperms
(1) ls derived from a megaspore
(1) lt is monoecious (2) Remains permanently embedded in the
nucellus
(2) [ is probgynous
(3) ls generally shed in 2-celled stage
(3) lt pertunns oogamy
(4) tt is a gr€€n atga (4) ls 7€ll€d and I nudeabd sbuctJr€
25. Find odd one out w.r.t. intemal brtilisafion 31' ln anemophilous flo\lt/ors
(11 Antho@as ('l) $igmas are usually unbranched and sticky
(21 E@a (2) Sigmas ar€ exerbd

(3) Uldltix (3) Pollen gmins are heavi€r and sticky
(41 tulgonum (4) Odour is commonly present
152 Reproduction in O anisms and Sexual uction in Plants Last for NEET Part-l)
32. Coleorhiza is 40. Find the ploidy level of central cell at maturity,
(1) Part of embryonal axis in between cotyledonary perisperm cell and endosperm cell for sunflower
node and radicle 3n
(1) 2n, 2n, (2) n,2n,3n
(2) Part of embryonal axis in between cotyledonary
(3) 2n,3n,3n (4) n, n, 3n
node and plumule
(3) Covering around plumule 41. When a dicot embryo develops from a zygote in
Capsella
(4) Covering around radicle
33. The micropylar end of Polygonum lype ot a. The zygote divides by transverse division first
embryosac has the following structural cells, b. The apical cell of zygote divides by two
except transverse and a vertical division to produce an
(1) Definitive nucleus (2) Synergid octant embryo
(3) Egg cell (4) Oosphere
c. The basal cell divides transversely to produce
34. Which of the following inflorescence is associated a suspensor of 6-10 cells
with trap door mechanism of pollination?
d. The basal cell directly performs suspensor
('l ) Capitulum (2) Verticillaster
function
(3) Hypanthodium (4) Cyathium
(1) All are conect
35. Number of chromosomes present in meiocyte of
potato and apple are (2) b and d are inc,onect
(1) 16,24 respectively (2) 48,34 respectively (3) a and d are incorrect
(3) 16,20 respectively (4) 24,48 respectively (4) c and d are correct
36. ln the polycarpic perennial plants which of the
following phase is present additionally as compared
42. Ovule as well as embryo sac is curved like horse
shoe in
to monocarpic perennial ones in the life cycle?
(1) Senescent phase (2) Reproductive phase (1\ Lemna
(3) Vegetative phase (4) lnterffowering phase (21 Alisma
37. Seeds offer which of the following advantages to (3) Ranunculus
angiosperms?
(1) Shows better dispersal strategies
43. Ploidy of endosperm and zygote would be
(2) Dormancy of seed allow it to be utilised as food and respectively, if a
source throughout the year octaploid female and tetraploid male plants are
(3) Forms the basis of agriculture crossed.
(4) Asexual seed development allows hybrid seed (1) 10n,6n
to maintain their superior characters
(2) 6n, 10n
38. Select odd one oul w.r.t. organ of vegetative
propagation (3) 3n, 2n
(1) Adiantum (2\ Wophyllum (4) 20n,8n
(3) Narclssus (4\ egonia 44 Find the correct match (w.r.t. vegetative
propagation)
39. Which of the given is not related to wind
pollination? (1) Narclssus - Tuber
(1) Flowers are nectarless, odourless and
colourless
(2) Tamaindus indica - Root
cutting
(2) Versatile stamens in grasses
(3, Adiantum caudatum - Corm
(3) Dry, unbranched short stigma
(4) Winged pollens in Plnus
(41 Chrysanthemum cineraifolium - Rhizome
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 153
45. Strasburger cells are found in non-flowering seeded 49. Egg apparatus consists of
plants. Find the correct statement in relation to (1) Central cell + egg cell
these cells (2) Synergids + polar nuclei + egg cell
(1) Stain lightly with cytoplasmic dyes (3) Synergids + oosphere
(2) Contain abundant starch (4) Antipodal cells + synergids + egg
(3) Connected with tracheids through 50. A typical angiospermic anther

plasmodesmata (1) ls monothecous and bisporangiate
(4) Nucleated cells controlling sieve cell funclioning
(2) Shows the two pollen sacs in an anther lobe
which are separated intemally by strip of fertile
46. Find out the correct order (w.r.t. development of tissue
male gametophyte) (3) Dithecous andtetrasporangiate
(4) ls a mass of homogeneous meristematic cells
in mature stage
51. What is correct statement for the pollination in
B Zostera glanl?
('l) Pollinated by fresh water
(2) Pollen grains are long and ribbon like
(3) Pollen grains are released on to the surface of
marine water
(- (4) Female flowers reach the surface of water by

D
the long and coiled stalk
52. At the time of asexual reproduction
(1) Most of the divisions are meiotic
(1) D-+A-+C-+B (2) D-+B-;A-+C
(2) Haploid{iploid altemation does not occur
(3) D-+C-+B-;A (4) A-;B-+C-+D
(3) Rate of multiplication is very slow
47. Gootee is an ancient horticultural technique of (4) Adaptability and evolutionary advanced
propagation of tropical and sub-tropical trees and characters are produced
shrubs where soft branches do not occur near the
53. During the development of embryo sac, the
soil. ln this procedure coenomegaspore is not produced in
(1) 3G50 cm long ring of bark is removed from the (1) Adoxa (2) Plunbago
woody branch
(3) Polygonum (4) Panaea
(2) Graffing clay involves moss, clay and cow dung 54. Mark the corect one (w.r.t. floriculture)
in'l :2:l ratio
(1) Study of different species present in the flora
(3) Auxin never required of an area
(4) Roots are appeared after 9-10 months (2) Study of trees and shrubs
(3) Study of grasses
48. ln a transverse section, a typical microsporangium
of flowering plants is generally surrounded by four (4) Cultivation of plants for their flowers
wall layers - the epidermis, endothecium, middle
layers and the tapetum. Cells of the tapetum
55. Which of the following event is not seen during the
pollination in Eel grass?
(1) Possess dense cytoplasm and generally have (1) Opening of male flower on the surface of water
more than one nucleus
(2) Female flowers reach the surface of water afler
(2) Nourish the developing microspores as well as breaking of stalk
megaspores
(3) Closing of female flower afrer pollination
(3) Help in dehiscence of anther
(4) Two tepals of male flower form a boat shaped
(4) Perform the function of protection structure
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154 Reproduction in Orga nisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
56. Snake plant can be propagated by leaf cutting. For ('l ) ls one of the most resistant inorganic material
this purpose (2) ls temperature and enzyme resistant
(1) Leaves are cut vertically into 2 or 3 parts
(3) ls resistant for strong acids, not for alkali
(2) Parts of leaves are planted in vertical section
in soil (4) ls resistant for strong alkali, not for acids
(3) Rooting hormone can not be used 63. Water hyacinth is also known as 'tenor of Bengal'
because it
(4) GA3 is used to induce roots
(1) Releases saxitoxin
57. Mark the incorrect statemenl w.r.t. grafting
(2) Drains 02 fiom the running water
(1) Used in cambium containing eustelic plants
(2) A small shoot of plant with superior characters (3) Leads to death of fishes
is required (4) ls one of the most invasive crop
(3) The shoot of the stock is often cut 10-30 cm M. What is the possible advantage if hybrids are made
above the base of the root into apomicts?
(4) Buds should be absent in graft
('l) Segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny
58. What is the most common shape and size of (2)
pollen grain in angiospermic plants? Farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds
to raise new crop in first year only
(1) Spindle shaped, 25-50 pm
(3) Absence of segregation in the hybrid progeny
(2) Spherical, 2-5 llm
(3) Spherical, 25-50 pm
(4) Spindle shaped, 2-5 65, Passflora, Annona and Mynsfica plants are similar
}rm
in
59. ln flowering plants, endosperm
(1) Presence of mosaic endosperm
(1) ls pre-fertilizing tissue
(2) Absence of trophomixis
(2) Development rarely involves free nuclear
divisions (3) Absence of syngamy
(3) Development precedes embryo development (4) Presence of endosperm with uneven surface
(4) ls triploid tissue always 66. Mark the incorrect one
60. Hydrophilous flowers are similar to anemophilous (1) Pollen consumption has been claimed to
flowers in increase the performance of athletes and race
(1) Presence of nectar horses
(2) Absence of odour (2) Viability of pollen grain depends upon

temperature, not humidity
(3) Presence of bright colour
(3) Pollen grains of a large number of species can
(4) Absence of versatile anther be stored in liquid nitrogen for years
61. All of the following statements are concerned with
(4) Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose viability
gemmae, except
within the half an hour
(1) Small and green structure
67. Anemophilous flowers are similar to hydrophilous
(2) Undifferentiated structure and each giving two flowers in
daughter plants
('1) Presence of feathery stigma
(3) Absent in Funaria
(2) Presence of mucilagenous covering around the
(4) Multicellular structure pollen grains
62. The outer layer of pollen grain in non-archegoniate
(3) Absence of non{irectional pollination
spermatophytes is made up of sporopollenin. This
chemical (4) Absence of nectar
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Rep roduction in Org anisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 155
68. The effect of foreign pollen on somatic tissue lying 75. Find out the ploidy level of structures (a), (b), (c),
outside the endosperm (d) and (e) in the given dlagram
(1) ls known as xenia Hilum (a)
(2) Has been reported in date-Palm Funicle (b)
(3) Has been reported in maize
(4) Was at first reported bY Focke
lnner integument (c)
69. Stem cutting is a common horticultural method of
plant propagation. ln this procedure Nucellus (d)
(1) 20-30 cm long pieces of one year old stem are
Embryo sac (e)
cut
(2) Both ends of long piece are dipped in auxin
(3) Lower end develops tap roots
(4) Buds present over the exposed parts form the
root svstem (1) Diptoid = (a), (b), (c), (d);haploid = (e)
70. The inner wall of the pollen grain in non-
archegoniateembryophytes-e)Haploid=(a)'(b)'(c);diploid=(d);
triploid = (e)
(1) Has prominent apertures
(3) Haploid = (a)' (b), (c), (d);triploid = (e)
(2) Exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and
designs (4) Haploid = (a), (b)l diploirl = (c), (O; ridou = (e)
(3) ls pectocellulosic continuous layer 76. ln Calotropis, the pollinia are attached by thread
(4) ls thin and discontinuous layer like structures called as
71. Select lncorrect statement w.r.t. ovule (1) Corpusculum (2) Translator
('l) Funiculus contains xylem and phloem (3) Caudide (4) Stylopodium
(2) Main body of ovule isparenchymatous
Development of male gametes before pollination is
ePev in
(3) Nucellus is well developed lv.slrrvvvnqrv 77'
"'| tenuinucellate present in approximately of angbspermic
type plants
(4) lt is integumented and indehiscent megaspo-
Engium (1) 60%
with -
72. Nemec phenomenon is concerned e\ So%
(1) Megaspore development (3) 10olo
(2) Endosperm like organisation in embryo sac
(41 4OVo
(3) Embryo src tixegra;
porren
(4)Polliniastage-TS.Planthavingnon-motilemaleaswellasfemale
gamete is
73. Mark the incorrect match
(1) Polygonum and Polyttichum
(1) Bitegmic - solanaceae
(2) Ategmic - Loranthaceae Q\ Capsella and cyathaea
(3) Unitegmic - Asteraceae (3) Funaia and Fucus
(4) Trit€mic - lnga dulce (4) polygonum and Cap*lla
74. Vegetative cell of angiospermic pollen grain is 79. Which of the following tissue directs the growth of
characterised by pollen tube?
(1) Less amount of food reserve and large size
(1) Filiform apparatus
(2) sma size and sptndre shaped nucleus
(2) X-bodbs
(3) Haploid ploidy level and less amount of food
reserve (3) Obturator
(4) Abundant food reserve' q"v v'iq,"ve
"'|v,,s'!s'|!, shaped
and inegularly
(4) More than one option is conec{
nucleus
r*
*!tr Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Re production in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
80. During the development of most common type of 86. What is the incorrect statement for synergids?
endosperm in f,owering plants
(1) Special thickening is absent at chalazal tip
(1) PEN divides meiotically without walt formation
(2) Acellular structure
(2) Each karyokinesis is fo owed by wall formation
(3) Have lmportant role in guiding the pollen tubes
(3) wall formation begins after achieving a
multinucleate condition (4) Have filiform apparatus
(4) PEN divides mitotically and results into haploid 87. Process involving transfer of pollen grains from the
nuclei anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant is
81. The pollenkitt is a layer found on outside ofmature
pollen grains of many insect pollinated species. (1) Genetically as well as functionally self
This pollenkitt pollination
(1) ls a sticky layer but not oily (2) Functiona y cross-po ination and genetically
(2) ls not contributed by tapetal cytoptasm self-pollination
(3) ls a non-sticky and oily layer (3) Functionally as well as genetically cross
pollination
(4) protects the pollen grain from harmful
radiations (4) Genetically cross-pollination and functionally
setf pollination
82. During the development of typical embryo sac from
megaspore
the functional 88. which of the following statement is correct for
(1) Free nuclear division trakes place angiospermic endosperms?
(2) cytokinosis is present after each karyokinesis (1) cannot be diploid

(3) Nuclear divisions are followed immediately by (2) Always triploid
cell wall formation (3) Nutritive tissue always
(4) Cell walls are laid down after the 4-nucleated (4) Cannot be absent
stage g9. Exine of the pollen grain is made up of
83. ln a typical dicotyledonous embryo, the cylindrical sporopollenin. lt is derived by the
portion below the level of cotvledons is
- (1) oxidative polvmerization of carotenoids
that terminates at its lower Irio-ii-i;
(1) Epicotyl, plumule (2) Epicotyl, radicle (2) Reductive polymerization of carotenoids
(3) Hypocotyl, radicre (4) Hypocotyl, -prumure

(3) oxidative polymerization of NAG
(4) Reductive polymerization of NAG
84. which of the plant group shows intemat fertilization
by the help of non-motile male gametes? 90. Group of plants having chasmogamous as well as
cleistogamous flowers are
Moss
(1)
(2) Liverworts
() Arachis' Gloiosa' Salvia
(3)Conifers(2loalotropis'Nicofiana'Ficus
(3) Viola' Oxalis' Commelina
(4) Fems
g5. Type of ovure showing the funiorrus becornes coired () vallisneia' Mirabilis' Magnolia
over it, is 91. pollination by water is
(1) Hemianatropous (1) Limited to about 30 families of dicots
(2) Campylotropous (2) Very common in llowering plants
(3) Amphitropous (3) More common in monocots than dicots
(4) Circinotropous (4) More common abiotic method of pollination
Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Reproduction in O rg anisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 157
92. Asexual reproduction is the common method of 99. Lower end of the embryonal axis in maize has the
reproduction in organisms that have a relatively radicle and root cap enclosed in
simple organisation, like algae and fungi and that
(1) An extension of scutellum
they shift to amphimixis
(1) During favourable mnditions (2) A structure called coleoptile
(2) Just before the onset of adverse conditions (3) A differentiated sheath
(3) To produce identical Progeny (4) A structure called corralorhiza
(4) To produce the large number of offsprings 100. Select the statement not concerned with turn pipe
93. As the seed matures, its water content is redu@d mechanism
and seed becomes relatively dry. ln this condition
(1) Protogynous Plant
the moisture content of seed usually decreases
and reaches (2) Lower lip of conolla functions as a platefrorm for
visiting insects
(1) 50% (2) 8oo/o
(3) 10-15% (4) 33-37% (3) Sterile and fertile anther lobes
94. Wind pollinated flowers often (4) Nectar at the base of ovary in flower
(1) Have a single ovule in each ovary 101. ln Cucutbita and Casuaina' type of entry of pollen
tube into ovule is
(2) Produces light and sticky pollen grains
(3) Have sticky and inserted stigma (1) Mesogamy and chalazogamy respectively
(4) Produces heavy and non-sticky pollen grains (2) Chalazogamy and mesogamy respectively
95. The device to prevent inbreeding in hermaphrodite (3) Porogamy and chalazogamy respectively
flowers is all, excePt (4) Porogamous
('l) DiclinY 102. Mark the incorrect statement for zoophily
(2) Protandry ('l) Lemurs, arboreal rodents and gecko lizard are
(3) Presence of self-incompatibility Pollinators
(4) HomogamY (2) Entomophily is not possible in small flowers
96. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. advantage of cross (3) Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral
pollination) rewards for insects
(1) lncreases resistance to diseases (4) Moth and Yucca cannot complele their life
cYcles without each other
(2) Good characters of a race can be diluted
103. Development of tetrahedral microspore tetrad is
(3) Enhances adaptability of the ofispring to change different from isobilateral type in
in the environment
('l) Presence of two karyokinesis
(4) lntroduces variations due to genetic
recombination
(2) Absence of cytokinesis between the
karyokinesis of meiotic I and ll
97. Protogynous flowers are present in all, except
(3) Presence of cytokinesis after each meiotic
(1\ Magnolia (2) Helianthus division (l and ll)
(3) Aistolochia \4\ Ficus (4) Absence of karyokinesis
98. Flowers of aquatic plants like water hyacinth and 104. Hay fever is allergic reaction to the presence of
water lily pollens in the air. Plants commonly causing hay
(1) Are not pollinated bY water fever are
(2) Emerge above the level of water for (1) Cynodon dactylon and Prosopls chilensis
ePihydroPhillY (21 Ricinus communis and Sorghum vulgare
(3) Reach the surface of water for hypohydrophilly (3) Prsum sativum and Mangifera indica
(4) Have exine in their pollen grains (4) More than one oPtion is correct
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158 Reproduction in O anisms and Sexual Reproduction in plants
105. Ubisch bodies are made by pro-ubisch bodies after 112. All organisms have to reach a certain stage of
the coating of groMh and maturity in their life, before they can
(1) Pollenkitt reproduce sexually. That period of growth
(2) Pectin and cellulose (1) ls called juvenile phase, not vegetative phase
(3) Sporopottenin (2) ls called vegetative phase, not,uvenile phase
(4) Starch and callase (3) While ends then marks the beginning of the
106. There are several records of very old yet viable reproduclive phase
seeds. The oldest is that of (4) ls variable in same organisms
(1) Lupine (2) Date-patm 113. Onion seed is
(3) Maize (4) Rice (1) Non-endospermic seed
107. Mark the incorrect statement (2) Small, btack and wrinkled seed
(1) Hybrid seeds have to be produced every year (3) With soft, thin seed coat
(2) Production of hybrid seeds is cosfly (4) Having embryo with smal cotytedon
(3) lf the seeds collected from hybrids are sown,
the progeny do not maintain hybrid characters
114. Plants like _ and _ types, show
clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent
phases
(4) Cultivation of hybrids has decreased
productivity (l) Annual, bienniat
108. Type a pollination present in the flowers of (2) Biennial, perennial
Callistemon, Strelitzia and Erythrina is (3) Perennial, annual
(1) Omithophity (2) Matacophity (4) Perenniat, potycarpic
(3)Cheiropterophity (4)Myrmecophily 1'15. Mafi the odd one (w.r.t. zygote)
'109. Moth and bees pollinate the flowers which (1) Formed in the water or inside the body of the
open
(1) ln day time organism
(2) After sunset and in day time respectively

(2) Develops a thick wall in all organisms
(3) Vital link between the two generations
(3) After sunset
(4) Divides by meiosis in haptontic tife cycle
(4) In day time and after sun-set respectively
116. What will be ploidy of endosperm and zygote if the
110. Anther wall ot Hydilla is different from Capse a in cross is made between the octaploid male plant
(1) Absence of tapetum and decaploid female plant?
(2) Presence of middle layers (1) 9n, 14n
(3) Absence of q-cellulosic fibrous bands (2) 10 n, 8 n
(4) Absence of siphonogemy

(3) 14 n,9 n
(4) 8n,5n
111. What is similarity between the amoeboid and
glandular tapetum? 117. During the Onagrad type of embryogeny
(1) Cells undergo breakdown and entire protoplasts (1) Zygote elongates and divides transversely into
move to nourish microspores a small basal cell and large terminal cell
(2) Cells remain intact throughout the microspore (2) The first cell of the suspensor lies towards the
development
micropyle
(3) Terminal cell undergoes one longitudinal and
(3) Ultimately both types of tapetum degenerates
two transverse divisions
(4) Both secretory in nalure
(4) The last cell of suspensor ls called haustorium
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Rep roduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 159
118. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. ploidy level) (1) Embryo cell is formed towards the chalazal
erd
(1) Testa (2) Tapetum
(2) single celled suspensor
(3) Perisperm (4) Pericarp
(3) Embryo cell divides longitudinally into a
119. Minimum chromosome number in gamete is terminal and a middle cell
concemed with organism
(4) Terminal cell divides vertically and transversely
(1) onion (2) House fly into globular embryo
(3) Garden pea (4) Fruit fly
126. potamogeton and utricuraria are vegetativery
120. Development of a new individual from a single propagated by
gamete without fusion with another gamete is
ca[ed ' ,.
(1) Bulbils (2) Turions
(1) parthenocarpy (2) sporophytic budding

(3) Rhizome (4) Bulb
127'
(3) parthenogenesis (4) polyembryony
Diplospory is concemed with
(1) Produclion of haploid embryo
121. rn most of the aquatic argae syngamy occurs in
the external medium. tn this condition (2) The development of tiploid fernale gamebphyte
(1) Organism shows great synchrony between the (3) The development of diploid embryo sac
sexes (4) Azygospore formation
(2) Small number of gametes areploduced 128. Male and female plants are not separate in case
(3) Female gamete is not released into water d
(4) Male gamete should develop before the female (1) Papaya and dat+palm
gamete (2) Mulberry and papaya
122. Male, female as well as monoecious plant all (3) Date-palm and mulberry
categories are possible ,n (4) Castor and maize
(1) Mango 129. cametophytic sef incompatibility is determined by
(2) Litchi genotype of pollen or male gametophyte in the
members of
(3) sr,Tene
(1) solanaceae and Liliaceae
(2) Liliaceae and Asteraceae
123. Penicillium spinulosum is different fiom P. digitatum
in (3) Brassicaceae and Poaceae
(1) Presence of conidiophore (4) Asteraceae and Brassicaceae

130' sfrobi'Ianthus kunthiana glanl
(2) Abs€nce of ramus and metulae
(1) Flowers once in 12 years
(3) Absence of phialides
(2) Flowers once in '12 months
(4) presence of exogenous mitospores
(3) ls also called as 'Neelakuranji'
124. Tne star shaped bodies meant for veqetative
-
reprcduction of chara (4) More than one option is conect
(1)Arerichinproteinsl3'l'selecttheincoroctmatch
(2) Are called as asterosclereids
organism Life span
(1) Peepal 200G3000 years
(3) Are rich in lipids
(2) Madozamia 1000G12000 years
(4) Are deveroped on the rower node of main axis
(3) Seguotb 20G300 years
125. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. Sagitfaria type of
embryogeny in monocots) (4) Panot 140 years
ffnrym
160 Reproduction in O nasms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Parll)
132. What is meant by false polyembryony? '138. Select correct statement w.rt. ovule
(1) Production of extra embryos from the tissue (1) Body and embryosac are curved in
lying outside the ovary campylotropous ovule
(2) Funiculus contains a vascular strand for the
(2) Production of more than one embryos within a
supply of nourishment to the ovule
slngle embryo sac
(3) lt is surrounded by two integuments in
(3) Production of more than one embryos from Asphodelus
different embryo sacs
(4) The anangement of megaspores in a tetrad is
(4) More than one option is conect a commonly tetrahedral in dicots
133. Bamboo plant flowers 139. What is the ploidy of endosperm when male
gamete of a tetraploid plant fuses polar nuclei
(1) Generally after 100-150 years which is formed aposporously from normal plant?
(2) Produce low amount of fruits and die (1) 6n (2) 3n
(3) Only once in their life time (3) 4n (4) 5n
140. Asexual reproduction in some liverworts occurs by
(4) Generally after 5-10 years a green, multicellular, asexual structure formed in
134. Basal part of a lower branch is bent down and tip receptacle is which prod uce
is kept outside the soil in daughter plants'
(1) Tuber' one (2) Gammae' Two
('l) Mound layering (2) Tip layering
(3) Gammae, One (4) protonema, Two
(3) Air layering (4) Gootee
141. The callose layer around microspores tetrad is
135. X-bodies are darkly stained DNA containing bodies formed by
found in (i) Middte tayer (2) Microspore
(1) Between the embryo sac and ovule wall (3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum
(2) Both of the synergids 142. fhe sexual incompatibility which prevents free
(3) Esg ce,

individuaritv
:',",4:ffitJ""l.?lilff5i',.t*"ic
(4) The synergid receiving pollen tube (1) Morphologicat setf incompatibility
'136. Which one of the following is not a significance for (2) Gametophytic self incompatibility
the development of individual from an egg without (3) sporophytic self incompatibility
fertilization? (4) Tristylous heterostyly
(l) lt represents a method of rapid multiplication 143. Most of the species oI Chara ate
(2) lt and
permits estabtishment of triploid (1) Monoecious and protandrous
aneuploid chromosomalcombinations (2) Monoecious and protogynous
(3) rt does not play any rore in organic evorution (3) Dioecious and protandrous
(4) lt supports arrhenotoky type of sex (4) Dioecious and protogynous
determination in some animals
144. choose the incorrect match
l3T Endothecium herps in the rupturing.of anther robe () saintpauria - vegetative propagation by
wall due to the presence of cr-cellulose fibrous
leaf
thickening on
(2) Pomegranate - Vegetative reproduction by
(1) Outer wall only air layering
(2) lnner wall only p) Chan - Nucule as female sex organ
(3) Outer and radial walls only (4) Strobilanthus - Flowers twelve times in one
(4) lnner tangential walls Yeat
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Reprod uction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 161
145. The pollen tube was first observed in Portulaca by 152. Organisms that reproduce by binary fission are
said to be immortal because
(1) G. B. Amici
(1) Parent continues to live as two daughter
(2) Swingle
individuals
(3) Focke
(2) Mitosis occurs without spindle formation
(4) Maheshwari and Guha
(3) Only a part of parent body forms the
146. Asexual reproduction by conidia is a common reproductive unit
method in Penicillium, where conidiophores are
(4) Daughter individuals formed are clones of
branched with
parent
(1) Conidia ananged basipetally on rami
153. 'Terror of Bengal' was introduced in lndia for its
(2) Conidia arranged acropetally on sterigmata beautiful flowers and shape of leaves. lt can grow
(3) Conidia ananged basipetally on metulae vegetatively at a phenomenal rate through
(4) Conidia arranged basipetally on phialides (1) Otrset (2) Slolon
147. Hc^N many total meiotic and mltotic divisions are (3) Sucker (4) Rhizome
required to produce a monosporic Polygonum
154. Artificial method of vegetative propagation that €n
embryo sac from megaspore mother cell? help in developing a composite plant of two varieties
(1) divisions
3 (2) 4 divisions is
(3) 2 divisions (4) 5 divisions (1) Layering (2) Cuttings
148. The point of dehiscence of stamens in plants is (3) Grafting (4) Gootee
(1) Annulus (2) Endothecium 155. Which of the following is a disadvantage of
(3) Stomium (4) Diaphragm vegetative propagation?
149. Which of the given feature is not related to (1) Only method of multiplication in seedless
ornithophillus flowers but related to plants
chiropterophilous fl owers? (2) Genetic uniformity
(1) Large flower (3) Can cause overcrowding
(2) Presence of nectar (4) Rapid multiplication
(3) Bright coloured corolla
156. Ultimate branches of rami in biverticillate
(4) Dull coloured with fruity odour conidiophores of Pen icillium
150. Bulbils are multicellular fleshy buds that take part (1) Do not bear phialides
in vegetative propagation and
(2) Bear conidia in acropetal order
(1) Germinate when separated from mother plant
only (3) Form metulae
(2) Borne at the base of fleshy roots in Dioscorea (4) Are unicellular and aseptate
(3) Can develop on floral axis also 157. Match the column I and column ll
(4) Formed only in angiospermic plants I
Column Column ll
151. Life span of an organism a. Root cutting (i) Tea, Ooton
(1) Does not include phase of senescence b. Stem cutting (ii) Tamarind, lemon
(2) ls not necessarily correlated with body size of c. Trench layering (iii) Gooseberry, apple
organism
(3) ls very short in unicellular organism like d. Mound layering (iv) Walnut, mulberry
Amoeba (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) lncludes accidental death of organism also (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (a) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
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162 Reproduction in O nisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
158. Grafting is possible in 181. Number of chromosomes in gametes of maize,
apple' rice and potato are respectively
(1) All plants with conjoint vascular bundles
(1) 10' 17' 12'24 (21 20'34'24'48
(2) Alf plants having atactostele
(3) ptants with vascutar bundtes scattered in P\ 10' 12' 24' 17 (4) 16' 17 12' 24
'
ground tissue 165. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. Crara
(4) All eustelic plants except with bicollateral a. Nucule and globule occur on same plant
vascular bundles usually
159. Nemec phenomenon means the presence of b. Shield cells make jacket of nucule
(1) 8-nucleated embryo sac c' Nucule has five coronary cells
(2) 8-nucleated embryo sac type organisation in d Nucule matures earlier than globule
pollen grain (1) b, d (2) a, c
(3) 3 + 2 + 3 organisation of nuclei in embryo sac (3) a, d (4) b, c
(4) 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac 166. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
160. ln maiority of sac fungi, asexual reproduction (1) Fusion of gametes (2) Gamete formation
occurs commonly through conidia which is
(3) Gamete transfer (4) Release of gametes
(1) Thick walled and always uninucleate
167. withering of accessory floral parts, hardening of
(2) Formed on erect hypha called as ovules and ripening of ovary in fruits occur during
sporangiophore (1) Vegetative phase
(3) produced exogenousry and thin wafled (2) pre_fertirization events
(4) Non-motire and dispersed by insects (3) post-fertirization events
161. ln tongue grafting (4) Fertilization stage
(1) Oblique cut is given only to stock 168. Majority of sexualy reproducing organisms form
(2) Scion and stock are not of same diameter (1) Homogametes
(3) V-shaped notch is given to stock while wedge (2) Motite female gametes
like cut is made in sclon
(3) Heterogametes
(4) Oblique cuts are made in both scion and
(4) lsogametes
stock
169' which of these plants are monoecious?
162. choose the odd one out w.r.t. sexual reproduction
(1) Gourds' cycas' Pinus' Acalypha
(1) First described by camerarius in plants
(2) Mango' Litchi' Neem' Marchantia
(2) Always biparental
(3)
sl'7ene' Papaya' Palm' Cucurbits
(3) hvolves both meiosis and mitosis
() Acalypha' coconut' Pr'hus' cucurbits
(4) Multiplication is not so rapid as in asexuar
reproduction 170. Development of zygote into indaviduals of new
generation
163. lnterflowering period in a perennial plant
' (1) Depends on type of life cycle the organism has
(1) Represents juvenile phase and the environment it is exposed to
(2) ls used for building up resources for next (2) ls independent of environment to which the
florcring organism is exposed
(3) Can be observed in both monocarpic and (3) Always occurs through embryo formation
polycarpic plants
(4) Never needs a period of rest before its
(4) Can occur twice in one year in henbane germination
L,ffi
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Rep roduction in Orga nisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 'l$t
171. Endosperm of castor, co@nut, maize and garden 177. Which of the following is the common feature of
pea plants are similar in anemophilous and hydrophilous plants?
('l ) Chemical nature (1) Produce pollen grains mated with mucilage
(2) Chromosome number (2) Scentless flowers and abundant nectar
(3) Ploidy level (3) Flowers are not very colourful and do not
produce nectar
(4) Unicellular organisation
(4) Non-sticky pollen grains and brightly colourful
172. Which of these plants show clear cut vegetative,
flor/ers
reproductive and senescent phases in lffe span?
178. ln Polygonum type of embryo sac, polar nuclei
(1) China rose, radish, wheat
(2) Wheat, marigold, rice
(l ) Are haploid
(3) Mango, neelakuranji, cabbage (2) Can serve as precursor of PEN
(4) Orange, bamboo, guava

(3) Occur in large central cell
173. Anther wall layer meant for synthesis of
sporopollenin and incompatibility proteins is '179. Select the incorrect statement w.t.l. Oenothera
(1) Endothecium type of embryo sac
(2) Middle layers (1) Has monosporic development
(3) Tapetum (2) lt is four nucleated
(4) Tapetum and middle layers (3) Derived from chalazal megaspore of tetrad
174. Choose the correct options w.r.t. tapetum

(4) Egg apparatus has two synergids
a. Secretory tapetum do not degenerate upon 180. Total number of nuclei involved in pseudofertilization
maturity is/are
b. Tapetum cells fuse to form a plasmodium in (1) 5 (2) 3

invasive type (3) 4 (4) 1
c. Cells are polyploid and nutritive 181. Ovule with body curved more or less at right angle
d. Can contribute pollenkitt in anemophilous pollen to funicle and the micropylar end is bent down
grains slightly in
(1) a, b (1) Campylotropous (2) Hemianatropous

(2) b, c (3) Amphitropous (4) Circinotropous
(3) c, d 182. Parenchymatous outgrowth derived from funiculus
which directs pollen tube to enter the ovule is
(4) b, d
175. Formation of more than four pollen grains from (1) Hypostase, non-secretory
single microspore mother cell occurs in
(2) Epistase, edible
reflexa
(1) Cuscuta (2) Arceuthobium -anditis-
(3) Endothelium, shock absorbing
(31 Ebdea (4) D/osera
(4) Obturator, secretory
176. Vegetative cell in a pollen grain
183. Mark the odd option w.r.t. GSI
(1) Floats in cytoplasm of generative cell
(2) ls small and spindle shaped (1) Asteraceae
(3) ls larger than generative cell but lacks reserve (2) Solanaceae
bod (3) Poaceae
(4) Has a large inegulady shaped nucleus (4) Liliaceae
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'164 Reproduction in O rganisms and Sexual Re production in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
'184. Match the following plants and their respective 190 Remnants of nucellus in the seed is known as
pollinators perisperm, which is found in
Column I Column ll (1) Black pepper (2) Beet
a. Ficus (i) Beetle (3) Castor (4) Att of these
b. Yucca (ii) Gall insect 191 Viability of seeds
c. Ravenela (iii) Moth (1) May be lost within a few months
d. Amoryhophallus (iv) Lemur (2) ls 1000 years in Lup,,7lus arcticus
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Recorded in Phoenix is 10000 years
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) Can be tested by 1% sotution of TTC
185. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. hydrophily 192 Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is
known as polyembryony which may be due to
(1) Limited to about 30 genera of angiosperms
(1) Sporophytic budding
(2) The most of the genera belong to monocots
(2) Polyspermy
(3) Pollen grains have mucilage coating
(3) Vegetative fertilization
(4) Occurs in all aquatic plants
186. Continued self pollination results in inbreeding
193. Development of diploid embryo sac direcfly from a
depression therefore to prevent this, the type of
outbreeding device developed in apples and grapes differentiated megaspore mother cell is called as
is (1) Apospory (2) Diptospory
(1) Diheterostyly (2) Self-incompatibitity (3) Aplospory (4) Adventive embryony
(3) Pre-potency (4) Dictiny 194.. Ploidy level of endosperm will be _
ff cross is
made between tetraploid female and diploid male
187. Endosperm with sugary and starchy parts forming
plants
different colour patches of yellow and white is
called (1) 3n (2) 5n
(1) Mosaic endosperm (3) 6n (4) 7n
(2) Ruminate endosperm 195. ldentiry the labels A, B and C in the given diagram
(3) Helobial endosperm c

(4) Cellular endosperm B
'188. Endosperm development precedes embryo

G (
development because
(1) lt is a product of triple fusion
( 3 (
(2) lt provides nutrition to developing embryo

('1) Tuber, Germinating eye bud, Eyes
(3) lt is larger than embryo
(2) Bulb, Node, Eyes
(4) lts development mostly occurs by free nuclear
division in PEN (3) Rhizome, Node, Flower
189. Development of embryo in angiosperms is said to
(4) Tuber, intemode, Adventitious buds
be meroblastic because 196. Snake plant is commonly propagated by means of
('l) Axis of embryo is direcled inwards (1) Leaf cutting (2) Layering
(2) Embryo develops from a part of zygote only (3) Grafting (4) Micropropagation
(3) Suspensor is towards micropyle of unfertilized 197. Embryo sac that develops after 2 mitosis in
ovule megaspore nuclei and is devoid of antipodals is
(4) Hypophysis also contributes in embryo (1) Polygonumtype (2\ Oenothentype
formation in dicots (3\ Ailium type (4\ Adoxa type
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Reproduction in Org anisms and Sexual Reprod uction in Plants 165
198. Highly vacuolated cytoplasm which is richin 206. Which one of the following group of plants do not
reserve food is present in largest cell of embryo show clear cut distinclion of vegetative, reproductive
sac called and senescent Phases?
(1) Central cell Antipodals

(2) ('l) Annuals
(2) Monocarpic biennials
(3) Ess (4) synergids
(3) Perennials
199. ovule that turns about 360" with a funicular
overgroMhis(4)Morethanoneoptioniscorrect
Type of ovules which is common in gamopetalous
(1) Orthotropous (2) Amphitropous 207
Plants, is
(3) Circinotropous (4) Hemianatropous (1) Unitegmic and tenuinucellate
2OO. Passage of pollen tube is determined. along (2) Unitegmic and crassinucellate
increasingconcentrationofCa-B-inositol-sugar l.
complex. ini" type of movement is
(3) Bitegmic and crassinucellate
(1) Chemotactic (2) Chemotropic (4) Bitegmic' sessile and tenuinucellate
(4) Gravitropism 208 |n sporophytic

self incompatibility
(3) Geotropic
(1) Rejection reaction occurs on stigma
201. The endosperm type having development
intermediate between cellular and nuclear type is (2) Pollen germination always results in formation
found in of Pollen tube
(1\ Datua (21 Petunia (3) Rejection occurs due to genotype of pollen
(3) Capse//a (41 Asphodelus (4) Nuclear fusion takes place
mitotic divisions required for the development
spindle
202. Formation of asymmetrical rPrr rv'|v fibres be 209 Total
can ev
iivivv w.
of mature male and female gametophytes
observed when respectively from 20 microspores and 20
(1) Megaspore nuclei undergoes free nuclear megaspores in an angiosperm is
mitotic divisions (1) 40 and 20 (2) 10 and 20
(2) pEN undergoes free nuclear mitotic divisions (3) 40 and 40 (4) 40 and 60
(3) Second mitosis occurs in pollen to produce 210. Most common type of endosperm in flowering
two male gametes plants is
(4) Pollen grain undergoes first mitosis to produce (1) Cellular type (2) Nuclear type
generative and vegetative cell (3) Helobialtype (4) Ruminate endospem
their 2i1. Common vegetative propagute, capable of giving
203. Pollen grains lose viability within,.3o minutes of
release in the members of family -
ria" to new individuals in Agave s
(1) Rosaceae (2) Solanaceae (1) Leaf bud (2) Bulbil
(3) poaceae (4) Leguminoseae (3) Rhizome (4) Otrset
204. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. vegetative 212. Readthe following statements carefully and select
propagules the correct
(1) Eyes - Potato a. Tapetum cells possess dense cytoplasm and
(2)Rhizome-Gingergenerallyhavemorethanonenucleus
(3) Offs€t - water hyacinth b. sporopollenin is absent in the areas called
germ Pore
(4) Bulbil - Btyophyltum
shaped with a
20s. rhe arransement or nuctei in potysonum type ot " f.ll",'.]il".ffi|j:t0"fl:i:,*'-"
i"
embryo sac
d. spindle of lirst mitosis in pollen is asymmetric
(1) 2+3+3 (2\3+2+3 (i) a,b,c&d (2) a,b&c
(3\ 2+4+2 (4) 3+3+2 (3) a,c&d (4) a,b&d
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213. All given statements about synergid are correct,
except
z',t9 Removal of anther ftom _ flower _
maturation of anther is called emasculation
(1) Cellular thickenings at the micropylar end ('l) Unisexual, after (2) Bisexuat, before
(2) lntact synergid provides seat for the entry of (3) Unisexual, before (4) Bisexual, after
pollen tube
220 Read the following statements carefully
(3) Cytoplasm is vacuolated towards chalazal end
a. Neelakuranji flowers once in 12 years
(4) Acting as shock absorber for inward growing
pollen tube b. ln majority of organisms, male and female
gametes are motile
214. Endosperm persists in the mature seeds of
(1) Pea (2) Groundnut
c. During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes
mitosis and cell differentiation
(3) Gram (4) Maize (1) All are conect
215. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce
(2) Only (b) is incorrect
200 male gametes in a typical dicot plant?
(3) All are inconect
(1) s0 (21 %
(3) 100 (4) (a) and (b) are correct
(41 2N
216. Which of the given statement is incorrect for the 221 ln over 60 % of angiosperms, pollen grains are
following diagram? shed at two celled stage. Generative cell of this
stage
(1) Has dense cytoplasm
(2) Floats in the nucleoplasm of the vegetative cell
(3) ls diploid
(4) ls larger than tube cett
222 How many meiosis are required in megasporocyte
to produce 12 Polygonum type of embryo sacs?
(1) 3
(1) Member of chlorophyceae
(2\ 6
(2) Cap of 5 coronary cells in each nucule
(3) 11
(3) A- main axis; B-lateral branch
(4) 12
(4) The nucule matures prior to globule
223 Sexual reproduction is
217. Functjonal megaspore in Polygonum divides by free
nuclear mitotic divisions and develops into (1) Fast and simple process
8 nucleated and 7 celled female gametophyte. The
(2) Slow and simple process
largest cell of this gametophyte is
(1) Antipodalcell (2) Central cell (3) Fast and complex process
(3) Synergid cell (4) Egg cell (4) Slow and complex process
218. Transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower 224. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. outer layer present
to stigma of another flower of same plant is called in pollen grain
AS
(1) Possesses most resistiant inorganic material
(1) Xenogamy
(2) Possesses germ pores
(2) Autogamy
(3) Exhibits fascinating array of patterns and
(3) Geitonogamy designs
(4) Cleistogamy (4) lt has enzyme resistant sporopollenin
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225. Find correct match w.r.t. asexual/vegetative 231. Most of the aquatic and land plants are pollinated
reproduction by
Column] Golumn-ll (1) lnsects or wind
a. Tenor of Bengal (D Goobe (2) Water and insects respectively
b. Bladder wort (iU Ofbet (3) Abiotic factors only
c. Pomegranate (iii) Twion (4) Water and wind respectively
d. Marchantia (iv) Gemmae 232. The figure given below shows fertilised embryo sac
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) of the flowering plants. Which one set of two parts
out of (a - e) have been conectly identmed?
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(e)
226. Pollen grains are the carriers of male gametes in
(1) Pinus, Chan (b
(2) Solanum, Oryza
(3) Marchantia, Allium (c)
(a)
(4) Ophioglossum, Fucus
227. Find odd one out w.r.t. pollination by biotic agents
('l) Sugarcane, wheat, papaya
(d)
(2) Ophrys, Salvia, Aistolochia
(31 Anthocepha us, Kigelia, Adansonia
(4) bmbax, Callistemon, Errthrina
22g. Find the lncorect statements w.r.t. pollen grain ifr - Primary endosperm nucleus
(c)
angiospermic plants @ (e) - Degenerating antipodal cells and zygote;

a. Germ pores are areas in pollen wall where (d) - Degenerating synergids
intine and sporopollenin are absent (3) (b) _ Zygote;
b. Vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food
(a) - central cell
nucteus
reserve and a rarge iregularly shaped
c. Fascinating anay of pattems and designs are 6) (c) - Primary endosperm cell;
exhibited by exine wall (e) - Oegenerating synergids
d. ln over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen 233. Which one of the following statement is not true?
grains are shed at 3-celled stage
(1) cando aano-o 121
"'fi:tu"?3,'.ffiI;jJfi:T"il"1,"$',il""1,1""
(3) b and d (4) a and c (2) pollen
- pistil interaction is a dynamic process
229. Rhizomes are commonly used in vegetative involving pollen recognition followed by
propagationof promotion or inhibition of the pollen
(1) Water hyacinth (2) Bryophyllun (3) Maiority of insect pollinated flowers are large,
(3)GirEer(4)Agavecolourful,fragrantandrichinnectar
230. Eichhomia crass,pes (4) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that
mimics sexual reproduction
(1) Multiplies rapidly wherever there is running
water 234. Members of algae commonly reproduce through
(2) Propagates vegetatively with the help of (1) Motite and endogenous spores
suckers
(2) Exogenous and motile spores
(3) Was introduced in lndian waters because of its
leaves
beautiful root, stem and (3) Diploid isogametes
(4) Multiplies rapidly in stagnant water (4) Zoospores and conidia
iro'
168 Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Rep roduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
235 Clones cannot be obtained from

(1) Rhizome (2) Tuber
(3) Sucker
236 Juvenile or vegetative phase
(4\ Zygob b. Tuber ,,,ry
(1) ls of variable durations in different organisms
(2) ls also called reproductive phase
(3) ls a feature of monocarpic plants only c. Rhizome (iii)
(4) lnvolves gamete production
237 How many male gametes will be produced from

6 microspore mother cells after microsporogenesis
and microgametogenesis in most of the flowering
plants?
d. Bulbil (iv)
(1) 48 (2) 12
(3) 24 (4) 6 (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
238 Mark the correct statement (w.r.t. reproduction) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) A biological process to produce new offsprings 241. Consider the following stalements (a-d) about
(2) Enables the continuity of the species, '"tenor of Bengal".
generation after generation a. An aquatic plant which can propagate
(3) lncorporates genetic variations and makes vegetatively at a phenomenal rate
basis of evolution b. One of the most invasive weeds growing in
(4) More than one option is correct standing water
239. Match column I to column ll and choose correct c. lt drains oxygen from water which leads to
option death of fishes
Column I Column ll d. lt was introduced in Bengal because of its

(Organisms) (Approximatelifespan) beautiful flowers and shape of fruits
a. Macrczamia (i) 200 - 300 years Which of the above statements are correct?
b. Mango (ii) 3000 - 4000 years (1) b&d
c. Seguorb (iii) 10000 - 12000 years (2) a&d
d. Banyan tree (iv) 3 - 4 months (3) a&bonly
e. Rice plant (v) 200 years
(4) a,b&c
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)
242. Given below figure represenb some slruciures of a
(2) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i), e(iv) green alga denoted as a and b. tdentify these
(3) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iv) structures.
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii), e(v)

240 Match column I with column ll and select correct
option
Column I Column ll
a
a. Offset (i)
13 b
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(1) Both 'a' and 'b' are sex organs where 'a' is 248. Which of the following sfucture represents vital link
nucule and 'b' is globule between two suc@ssive generations?
(2) Both 'a' and 'b' are sex organs where 'a' is cell
(1) Spore mother (2) Zygote
antheradium and 'b' is oogonium
(3) Antheridium (4) Zygophore
(3) Both 'a' and 'b' are vegetative propagules
249. ln which of the following plants male gamete
known as bulbils
canier is pollen grain and transfer of male gametes
(4) Both 'a'and 'b' are non-jacketed sex organs occurs through pollen tube?
present in Chara
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
243. Match column I with column ll and choose correct
option
(3) fteridophytes (4) Spermatophytes
Column I Column ll 250. Which one of the following pair is wrongly

(Organisms) (Chromosomenumbers matched?
in thsir gametes) (1) Pollinium - Calotropis
a. Apple (i) 12 (2) Caruncle - Ricinus
b. Rice (ii) 10 (3) True fruit - Sfawberry
c. Maize (iii) 630 (4) Ruminate endosperm - Myistica
d. Ophioglossun (iv) 17 251. Ma* the correct statement w.r.t. conidia
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Asexual reproductive structure of Penicillium
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (a) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) and Chlamydomonas
244. Gootee is an ancient horticultural technique for (2) Sexual reproductive sfuclurc ot Penicillium and
propagation of tropical and sub-tropical trees and Cladophon
shrubs. lt is also called as (3) Asexual reproductive structure produced by
(1) Trench layering (2) Serpentine layering Penicillium and Asperyillus
(3) Stool layering (4) Air layering (4) Sexual reprcduclive stud.u,e ot Penbillium and
Aspergillus
245. Raising of new plants from a small plant tissue
with the help of tissue culture technique is called 252. Iefin'vegetative reproduc{ion' is frequently used in
as (1) Plants
(1) Micropropagation (2) Grafting (2) Monerans
(3) Layering (4) Breeding (3) Animals
246. Which of the following group ('l 4) comprises - (4) Both plants and animals
both monocarpic and polycarpic plants?
253. Select the odd one w.r.t. asexual reproduction
(1) Wheat, Rice, Bambusa
(1) Need of both male and female parents
(2) Mango, Apple, JacKruit
(2) Produces a large number of individuals
(3) Wheat, Rice, Mango, Orange
(3) Rapid method
(4) Grapevine, Orange, Mango
(4) Absence of haploid - diploid altemation
247 . ln angiospermic plants, embryogenesis
254. Find odd one out w.r.t. ploidy level in a flowering
(1) Refers to the process of development of zygote
plant
from embryo
(1) Hypocotyl, Epicotyl
(2) lnvolves cell division and cell differentiation
(2) Embryo, Oospore
(3) Refers to the process of development of
embryo from zygophore (3) Scutellum, Zygote
(4) lnvolves meaotic as well as mitotic divisions (4) Endosperm, Aleurone layer
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255. ln Bryophyllum vegetative propagation is brought 261. ln most of the angiosperms, pollen grains are shed
about by at
(1) Axillary buds present at the margins of leaves (1) 3-celled stage (2) 4-celled stage
(2) Axillary buds present at the tip of leaves and (3) 2-celled stage (4) 1-celled stage
stems
262. ln which of the following plants endosperm is not
(3) Adventitious buds present at the margins of completely used up during embryo development?
leaves
(1) Sunflower, castor (2) Maize, pea
(4) Adventitious buds present at the tip of leaf and
stem (3) Groundnut, barley (4) Wheat, groundnut
256. Most vital event of sexual reproduction is 263. ln pollen banks, pollens are stored at
(1) Embryogenesis (1) - 196"C of liquid nitrogen
(2) Essential for fusion of gametes (2) , zo"c of liquid nitrogen
(3) Pollination
(3) 0'C of liquid nitrogen
(4) Development of fruits
(4) 4'C of liquid nitrogen
257. During the most common type of endosperm
development in flowering plants 2 . Mark the mis-matched pair
('1) Cell wall formation is completely absent (11 Orchid - Tiny seeds
(2) PEN undergoes suc@ssive nuclear divisions to (2) Hydrophily - Common in dicots
give rise to free nuclei
(3) Pollen grain - 25 to 50 pm in diameter
(3) Each division of PEN is immediately followed
by wall formation
(4) Pafthenium - Pollen allergy
(4) Free nuclear divisions are absent 265. The stalk by which an ovule is attached to the
placenta is called
258. The innermost layer of anther wall in angiospermic
plants is (1) Funicle (2) Hitum
(1) Tapetum and it nourishes the developing pollen (3) Chalaza (4) Micropyle
grains
266. Match column I with column ll and choose correc{
(2) Endothecium and it nourishes the developing option
pollen grains
I
Column Column ll
(3) Tapetum and its cells possess thin cytoplasm
and uninucleate condition a. Epiblast (i) Endosperm
(4) Endothecium which protecls and nourishes the b. Triple tusion (ii) lnsects
pollen grains
c. Entomophily (iii) Grass embryo
259. During microsporogenesis
d. TTC (iv) Seed viability
(1) Microspore tetrad is developed by meiosis in
sporogenous tissue (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Pollen grains are developed by mitosis in (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (a) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
sporogenous tissue 267. Choose the correct match w.r.t. angiosperm
(3) Microspore develops into male gametophyte ('l)
(4) Male gametes are produced by pollen grain
Microsporangium - ovule; Megasporangium -
female gametophyte
260. Pollen wall contains sporopollenin which is one of (2) Megasporangium - ovule; Embryo sac - female
the most resistant organic material. lt is found in gametophyte
(1) Exine (3) Megasporangium - female gametophyte;
(2) lntine Embryo sac - ovule
(3) Both exane and intine (4) Nucellus - male gametophyte;
(4) Endexine and intine Megasporangium - ovule
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268. Formation of embryo sac from a single megaspore 276. Choose the correct one
nuclei is termed as
(1) Apomixis - production of seeds without
(1) Bisporic development fertilization; Parthenocarpy - production of seed
(2) Monosporic development with many embryos
(3) Tetrasporicdevelopment (2) Apomixis - production of seeds without
(4) Polysporic development fertilization; Parthenocarpy - production of fruits
without fertilization
269. A typical angiospermic embryo sac is
(1) 8 - nucleate, 8 - celled (3) Apomixis - production of multiple embryo in
seeds; Parthenocarpy - production of seeds
(2) 7 - nucleate, 8 - celled without fertilization
(3) 8 - nucleate, 7 - celled
(4) Apomixis - production of seeds with multiple
(4) 7 - nucleate, 6 - celled embryo; Parthenocarpy - production of fruits
270. Functionally cross-pollination but genetically similar with multiple seeds
to autogamy is
277. Persistent nucellus is seen in the seeds of
(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Chasmogamy (4) Cleistogamy
(1) Arachis hypogea (2\ Ricinus communis
271. Abiotic agents for pollination are (3) Pisum sativum (4\ Dolichos lablab
(1) Wind, animals 278. Examine the figure of microsporangium and select
(2) Wate( animals the part correctly matched with its feature or
function.
(3) Wind, water
(4) Wind, water and animals
(D)
272. ln @rcals like rice and wheat, pollen viability is
upto (c)
(1) 30 seconds (2) % hour
(B)
(3) 30 hours (4) Several months
273. Emasculation is a process of
(1) Removal of female part from flower (A)
(2) Removal of male part from flower
(3) Removal of all axillary buds ftom plant
(4) Removal of both types of sex organs from (1) Part (D): Endothecium - Development of
flower sporoderm
274. Whal will be the ploidy of secondary nucleus and (2) part (A): lnnermost wall layer - Dense
PEN if the cross is made between 4n t nlant ano cytoplasm in cells
8n d ptant?
(3) part (c): Middte tayers - Nutrition to
megaspores
(1) 2n, 3n (2) 4n,6n
(3) 4n, 8n (4) 2n, 6n (4) Part (B): Tapetum - Sporic meiosis
275. What is true for cotyledon in grass family? 279. A. Orchids, paddy - many ovules in an ovary.
(1) Called as scutellum that is situated at the B. Special cellular thickenings play an important
apex of embryonal axis role in guiding the pollen tubes into the
(2) Called as scutellum that is situated towards synergid.
lateral side ofthe embryonal axis.
.
(3) Called as coleoplile that is situated at the apex
c. charaza- basar part ofthe ovure.
of embryonal axis D. Ovules generally differentiate a single
(4) Called as coleoptile that is situated towards megaspore mother cell in the central region of
lateral side of the embryonal axis nucellus'
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Choose correct option w.r.t. above given 285 Select incorrect statements w.r.t. sexual
statements reproduction in perennials
(1) B, C & D are correct a. Produce seeds many times in their life span
(2) C&Darecorrect b. Can reproduce only once in their life span
(3) B&Carecorrect c. May have long juvenile stage
(4) A,C&Darecorrect d. lnterflowering period represents vegetative
phase
280 At lower end, the embryonal axis in grasses has
the radical and root cap enclosed in/by (1) Only d 12) a, d
(1) Coleoptile
(3) b, c (4) c, d
(2) Hypocotyl 286 Structure in female gametophyte which play an

important role in guiding the pollen tube into
(3) An undifferentiated sheath synergid is
(4) Epicotyl ('l) Obturator (2) Filiform apparatus
281 Which of the following statement for vegetative (3) Egg apparatus (4) Central cell
propagation is correct?
287 Which one may not be an adaptation for pollen
(1) Rapid process that requires a lot of resources transfer by air?
(2) There is no mechanism to introduce good kaits (1) Light and non-slicky pollen grains
or eliminate bad traits (2) Well exposed stamens and feathery stigma
(3) lt can preserve good qualities of a variety, race (3) Single ovule in each ovary
and species with help of reduction division
(4) Mucilagenous covering on microspores
(4) There is no crossing over but new linkages are
formed 288. What is correct for chromosomes number in
Ophioglossum planl?
282. Select the odd one out w.r.t. angiospermic plants
('1) Sperm mother cells = 1260,
(1) Most common embryo sac is Polygonum fyge Spore mother cells = 630
(2) Dichogamy is an adaptation for cross (2) Frond cells = 1260, sporocytes = 1260
pollination
(3) Neck canal cell = 630, Oosphere = 1260
(3) ln many Clrus and Apple varieties some of the
(4) Root cells = 630, stem cells = 630
integument cells start dividing and develop into
the embryos 289. lnnermost layer cell of anther wall in flowering
plants is
(4) Diploid endosperm is found in Oenothera
(1) Coenocytic with less cytoplasm
Which one of the following is not a characteristic
(2) Coenocytic, non-nutritive with single genome
of entomophilous flowers?
(3) Nutritive, coenocytic and archesporial in origin
(1) Petals are usually coloured
(4) Coenocytic, haploid and non-archesporial in
(2) Sticky exine due to presence of pollenkift
origin
(3) Reduction in the number of sepals and petals 290. The ploidy of the nucellus, megaspore mother cell,
(4) Stigma are long, rough and sticky female gametophyte and secondary nucleus is
respectively
2U. Life cycle of marigold and rice plants is different
from mango and jackfruit in he absence of (1) 2N,2N, N,2N (2) 2N, 2N, N, N
(1) Ju\,€nile phase (3) 2N, N, N, 2N (4) N, 2N, N, 2N

(2) Microgametogenesas 291. Outbreeding device in tobacco is
(3) tntedoutering p€riod

(1) Homogamy (2) Self incompatibility
(3) Heterostyly (4) Herkogamy
(4) Megasporogenesis
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292. Which one of the following is a form of asexual (4) Sexual reproduction is an elaborate, complex
reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction? and rapid process as compared to asexual
reproduction
(1) Grafting (2) Amphimixis
297. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
(3) Gootee (4) APomixis
(1) Gametes formation
293. Cleistogamous flowers are characterized by
(2) Fertilisation
(1) Transfer of pollen to other flower
(3) Development of embryo sac
(2) Assured seed set
(4) Embryogenesis
(3) Unisexual condition
298. Anther wall layer which helps in dehiscence of
(4) Bisexual open condition
anther shows
294. Pollination which is restricted to few angiosperms, (1) cr-cellulose fibrous bands on outer tangential
mostly monocots is wall
(1) Hydrophily (2) Anemophily (2) cr-cellulose fibrous thickening on outer and
(3) Entomophily (4) Omithophily radial wall
295. Study the diagram shown below and select the (3) o-cellulose bands on outer, radial and inner
option (1-4) in which all the three parts labelled as tangential wall
A, B and C are correctlY identified. (4) G-cellulose bands on inner tangential wall
C 299. Non-sticky pollen grains, well-exposed stamens,
nectorless flowers and uniovulate condition are
adaptations in
(1) CheiroPteroPhilous Plants
(2) Anemophilous Plants
(3) Ornithophilous Plants
B
(4) Entomophilous Plants
(1) A - Filiform apparatus
300. Examine the figure given below and selecl the right
B - Vegetative nucleus option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d)
conectly identified.
- Secondary nucleus
C
(2) A - Synergid
B - Sperm
C - Nucellus (d)
(3) A - Filiform apparatus (c)
(a)
B - Male gamete
Hypocotyl
C - Central cell
(b) root
(4) A - Synergid axis
B - Male gamete (1) (a) Cotyledon
C - Secondary nucleus (b) Caruncle
(c) Root apical meristem
296. Which of the following statement is correct?
(d) Endosperm
(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in 12
years (2) (a) Endosperm
(2) Formation of the diploid embryo is universal in (b) Root apex
all sexually reproducing organisms (c) Shoot apical meristem
(3) ln majority of organisms, both male and female (d) Cotyledon
gametes are stationary
174 Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Re production in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
(3) (a) Cotyledon 305. Oogamy is associated with formation of
(b) Caruncle (1) Flagellated male gamete always
(c) Shoot apical meristem (2) Motile zygote always inside the female sex
(d) Endosperm organ
(4) (a) Endosperm (3) Egg as female gamete

(b) Shoot apex (4) Zygote outside the femate body
(c) Root apical meristem 306. Grafting is not possible in monocots as they har'6
(d) Cotytedon (l) Scaftered vascular bundles
301. a. Seed is endospermous and stores oil in ' (2) Eustele
sunflower and castor (3) Absence of vascular cambium
b. Megaspore undergoes three free meiotic (4) Short life span
divisions to form an eight nucleated embryo
sac, 307. Read the following statements w.r.t. given diagram
and select correct set of features
c. Blastophaga and Ficus exemplify a case of
mutualism.
d. Tapetum cells are polyploid and uninucleated
always.
(1) a&bareconect (2) b&careconect
(3) a&carecorrect (4) a&darecorrect
302. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual
reprodudion. a. Dioecious plant mosfly
(1) Uniparental b. External fertilization
(2) With or without involvement of gamete c. Zooidogamy
formation
(3) Offsprings are exact copy of thek parent
d' Heterogarnetes
(4) Altemation of generation is obs€rved
e' Gametophytic plant body
(1) b' c & e (2) c' d & e
303. Match conec{ry w.r.t. mode of propagation
(3) a' c' d & e (4) b, c, d & e
(1) Adventitious bud - potaio t-rn",
(2) O,fret _ Lotus *t fungi resort to sexual reproduction
ffi;J"o
(3) Seed - cereals (1) lt is more rapid form of propagation
(4) Rhizome - Teror of Bengal lz) zygote as with its thick wall make them able
304. Read the following statements to withstend unf;avourable conditions
a. Free nuclear division in developing embryo (3) Formation of zygote is universal event
sac. (4) Every organism begins life as a single cell
b. Free nuclear division in PEN. 3@. lntemal fertilization is absent in
c. Formation of heterogametes in Fucus. (.t) lsogamous forms
d' Chemotactic movement of sperms in (2) Forms which require water for fertilization
Marchantia.
(3) Majority of algae
e. Germination of seed within fruit when fruit is
still attached to motherplant. (4) Siphonogamous forms
How many of the above statements represent 310. Male and female flot,\€rs are pmsent on sarne plant
post-fertilization developmenP in all of these, except
(1) Tvo (2) rhree (1) cucurbits (2) coconub
(3) Fo.rr (4) One (3) Maize (4) Date palm
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 175
311. Gametes are haploid. lt signifies that 317. A plant breeder employs technique of emasculation
(1) They €nnot be formed without meiosis (1) To cover the flower with a bag
(2) They always have half the number of (2) To prevent self-pollination
chromosomes than thal of main plant body (3) To prevent stamen from being contaminated
(3) Bryophytes produ@ them by mitosis (4) To produce female plant
(4) Bryophytes do not show meiosis since plant 318. Find the incorrect one w.r.t. post-fertilization
body is haploid changes
(1) Nucellus - Perisperm
312. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent
phases are absent in (2) lntegument - Seed coat
('l)Pea (2) Bamboo (3) Pericarp - Ovarian wall
(4) Central cell - Endosperm
(3) Rice (4) Litchi
319. Look at the diagram given below and answer
313. Read the given statements carefully and select appropriately
correct option for all the three blanks.
(i) The reprcduc{ive processes and the associated
behavioural expressions of organisms is
regulated by the interaction between A
and certain environmental factors. B
Endocarp
(ii) Megasporocyte of potato has B esoc€rp
chromosomes while oosphere conta ins
C
(a) since A A
is associated with fruit' it is
o- B c called as (i)
(1) lntemal physiology 24 12
1b) Since (B) is present' fruit cannot be
(2) Habitat 48 ; called as (ii)
(3) Hormones 4 24 (l) A - Pericarp, (i) - True fruits
(4) Honnones 24 24 (2) B _ seed, (ii) _ Ex-atbuminous
314. ldentify the correct match (3) A - Tharamus, (i) - True fruit
Column I Column ll (4) B _ Seed, (ii) _ parthenocarpic
(1) Grasses - Runners 320. ldentry the conect match
(2) Potato - Rhzome Column I Column ll
(3) Crocus - Tuber (1) Coleothiza - Dicot family
(4)Agave-Bulb(2)Non-albuminousseed-Thickandswollen
cotyledon
315. Asexuar reproduction in penicirium
(3) Residuar nucerus - Maize
(1) lnvorves formation of mitospores (4) Residuar endosperm _ pea
(2) lnvolves exogenously produced spores 321. The early stages of embryo development are similar
(3) lnvolves meiospores within sporangia in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons uptill
(4) More than one option is conect ('l) Octant stage (2) Globular stage
316. Formation of false fruit is due to
(3) Heart stage (4) Mature embryo
322' A typica,l dicot embryo is characterized with
(1) Persistent calyx in apple
(1) Major part of root developed from hypophysis
(2) Thalamus in brinjal
(2) Cotyledons formed from entire octant
(3) Persistent and fleshy thalamus in pear proembryo
(4) lnvolvernent of many ovaries in bnnation of fuit (3) Hypocotyl terminates as radicle
like mango (4) Embryonal axis on either side of cotyledons
l/$ Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
323. Double fertilization as unique event In flowering Single large cell containing dense cytoplasm and
plant which prominent nucleus, undergoes meiosis and present
(1) Occurs solely in PEC within ovule is
(2) Occurs partly in central cell (1) Megaspore
(3) lnvolves formation of diploid nucleus in central (2) Microspore mother cell
cell (3) A nucellar cell
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Perisperm
324. Coconut liquid endosperm is
Asexual reproduction mimics sexual reproduction
(1) Free nuclear type when
(2) Cellular type (1) Seed formation occurs without fertilization
(3) Helobial type (2) Thalamus is associated with fruit
(4) Mosaic endospermous condition
(3) Pseudocarpic fruits are formed
325. Which one of the following statement is
incorrect? (4) There is no fruit formation
(1) The generative cell divides dunng the gro\,vth of JJJ Aleurone layer has same ploidy as that of
pollen tube in the stigma (1) PEN (2) zygote
(2) ln some species floral rewards are in providing (3) PericaQ (4) Scutellum
safe places to lay eggs
334 Male gametophyte in angiosperms is
(3) The embryo development precedes endosperm
development
(1) Highly reduced
(4) Scutellum is lateral to the embryonal axis in (2) Can have maximum two cells
grass family (3) Developed after two asymmetric mitosis
326. Pollen-pistil interaction includes (4) A mitospore haploid structure
(1) Entry of pollen tube into ovule via micropylar Pollination in most angiosperms is
end only
(1) At 3-celled stage
(2) Chemotactic movement of pollen tube down the
style (2) Entomophilous
(3) Micropylar end of embryo sac as entry point (3) Direct at 2-celled stage
into male gametophyte (4) Anemophilous
(4) Re.iection reaction in style for certain cases 336 A typical anther shows
327 . E99 apparatus, embryo sac and pollen grains most a. Two lobes with two theca each
commonly have _ cells respectively.
b. Each lobe as dithecous
(1) 8,8&3 (2) 3,8&3
(3) 3,7&3 (4\ 3,7&2 c. All cells in a given microsporangium as
potential PMC
328. Which one of the following flowers produce
assured seed-set even in the absence of d. Thousands of microspores per microsporangium
pollinators? Out of these statements
(1) Autogamous (2) Homogamous (1) b is incorrect
(3) Cleistogamous (4) Herkogamous (2) a and b are conect
329. Cross pollination is encouraged if (3) c and d are inconect
(1) Flower is self fertile (4) a, b, c and d are correct
(2) Homogamy is present 337. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic
(3) Flower is dioecious material as
(4) Flowers are hermaphrodite (1) Homopolymer of fatty acids only
330. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. Commelina (2) Biopolymers of carotenoids
(1) Cleistogamous flowers (3) Heteropolymer of long chain of fatty acid,
(2) Assured seed set phenolics and some carotenoids
(3) Abiotic pollinators (4) Heteropolymer of lipid, carbohydrates and
(4) No anthesis proteins
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Reproduction in Orga nisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 177
338. Find the incorrect statement 346. Zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilized ovule
('l) c-cellulose thickening is associated with inner because
tangential wall of endothecium (1) Moisture and oxygen are not adequate
(2) Pollenkitts are associated with anemophilous (2) Nutrition source is not developed
groups
(3) lt has thick, dessication resistant wall
(3) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(4) lt is a vital link to ensure continuity of species
(4) Advanced pollen tetrad is the product of
successive cytokinesis 347. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. life span.
339. Mark corect match a. lt is the period from reproductive phase to the
Column I Column ll senescent phase.
a. Thick and swollen (i) Castor b. Life spans of organisms are not necessarily
cotyledons correlated with their sizes.
b. Unused endosperm in (ii) Legumes c. No individual is immortal, whether single-celled
mature seed or multi-celled.
c. seed
Unused nucellus in (iii) Cashewnut d. The life span of banana tree is 25 years.
d. Thalamus contributes (iv) Beet (1) a&d (2) a&b
to ftuit formation
(3) a&c (4) c&d
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
348. Consider the given figure and select correct set of
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) statements.
340. Which of the following structure is not associated
with megasporangium in angiosperms?
(1) lnteguments (2) Funicle
(3) Micropyle (4) Tapetum
B
341. Which of the following feature is uncommon
between entomophilous and omithophilous groups?
(1) Colourful flowers (2) Copious nectar
(3) Sticky pollen grains (4) Scented flowers
342. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a. Common asexual reproductive struclure in sac
fungi.
(1) Flies and beetles visit white flowers with sweet
fragrance b. The structure labelled by 'A is sterigmata as
uppermost branching of conidiophore.
(2) Floral rewards are usually pollen and nectar
(3) Pollen grains are protected from wetting by c. Development of exogenous asexual spores.
mucilage covering in certain groups d. Basipetally arranged sexual spores at the tip
(4) Anemophilous flowers have generally single of labelled structure 'B' as basidium.
ovule in ovary (1) a&c (2) b&d
343. Find the odd one w.r.t. chasmo-cleistogamous (3) a&d (4) c&d
flowers
349. lryhob plant can be developed vegetatively in Agave
(1) Oxal,s (2\ Commelina from a propagule like
(3) Pansy (4) Pea
(1) Rhizome (2) Corm
344. Female gametophyte is not involved in
(3) Bulb (4) Bulbil
(1) Diplospory (2) Aplospory
350. Find odd one w.r.t. monoecious condition.
(3) Adventive embryony (4) Apospory
(1) Chan (2) Marchantia
345. Ovules with more than one embryo sacs are
involved in (3) Cucurbits (4) Coconuts
(1) Simple polyembryony 351. The proximal end of the filament in stamen is
(2) Mixed polyembryony attached to the
(3) Sporophytic budding (1) Anther (2) Conneclive
(4) Cleavage polyembryony (3) Thalamus or petal (4) Both (1) & (2)
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178 Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
352. Which of the following layers of anther wall perform 359. "Flowers produce enormous amount of pollen
the function of protection and also help in grains when compared to the number of ovules
dehiscence of anther to release the pollens? available for pollination". Given statement is true
for:
(1) Tapetum and middle layer
(1) Water hyacinth, water lily
(2) Epidermis and tapetum
(2'1 Zea mays, Vallisneria
(3) Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers
(3\ Yucca, Amorphophallus
(4) Endothecium and tapetum
(4) Mango, cucumber
353. Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because 360. Which one of the following statement is false in
of the presence of respect of flowering plants?
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Sporopollenin (1) Parthenocarpy can be induced through the
(3)Pecto-cellulose (4)Lignorellulose application of groMh hormones
3Y. Megaspore mother cell differentiates from (2) lnteguments encircle the ovule except at the
tip where a small opening called the germ pore
(1) Nucellus in the micropylar region is organised
(2) lntegument in the chalazal region (3) Endosperm development precedes embryo
(3) Primary parietal cell in chalazal reglon development
(4) lntegument cell in micropylar region (4) Apomicts have several advantages in
horticulture and agriculture
355. Which one of the adaptation is not related with
361. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words given
anemophilous ffower?
below:
(1) Compact inflorescence and well-exposed
slamens Fertilisalion, Gametogenesis, Dioecious,
(2) Pollen grains are minute, light and sticky Monoecious, Embryo, Gametes
(3) Large often-feathery stigma (i) Progenitor of next generation: A

(4) Presence of single ovule in each ovary (ii) Plants with both male and female reproductive
356. Select incorrect statement structures present on same plant is B
(1) The cenkal cell becomes primary endosperm (iii) Most critical event in sexual reproduction
cell (PEC) isC
(2) Endosperm persists in mature seed of castor (1) A - Gametes
(3) Scutellum lies lateral of the embryonal axis in B - Monoecious
grass family C - Gametogenesis
(4) Ploidy level of endosperm in maize is haploid (2) A- Embryo

357. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. form of asexual - Dioecious
B
reproduction which mimic sexual reproduction C - Gametogenesis
(1) Development of diploid egg cell without (3) A - Gametes
reduction division B - Dioecious
(2) Development of nucellar cells into many C - Fertilisation
embryos as in mango
(4) A - Embryo
(3) Diploid parthenogenesis
B - Monoecious
(4) Development of new plants from rhizome as in
C - Fertilisation
turmeric
362. Choose incorrect option w.r.t nucellus
358. Mark the mis-matched pair
(1) Possesses abundant reserve food material
(1) Polycarpic plants - Recovery phase
(2) Generally differentiate a single megaspore
(2) Offset - Water hyacinth mother cell
(3) Marchantia - Monoecious plant (3) lt represents microsporangium
(4) Bulbil - Agave (4) lt is enclosed within integuments
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Rep roduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants 1 79
363 What is the ploidy of egg & polar nuclei, 371. ldentify the labels A, B, C and D in the figure given
respectively formed after the double fertilisation in below
C a psell a b u rsa-p a stoi s?
(1) 2n&n (2) 2n&3n

(3) 3n & n (4\ 2n &2n
B
3 Which of the following prevents inbreeding
depression?
(1) Pollen is released and stigma becomes
receptive at the same time
(2) Presence of bisexual flowers
(3) Presence of self-incompatibility
(4) Anther and stigma are placed at same
('l ) A-endosperm; B-scutellum; C-plumule; D-seed
positions coat
36s The form of asexual reproduction that mimics

(2)A-aleurone; B-endosperm; C-radicle;
D-coleorhiza
sexual reproduction
(3) A-epithelium; B-aleurone: C-plumule; D-seed
(1) ls known as apomixis
coat
(2) Produces seeds without fertilisation (4) A-endosperm; B-aleurone; C-plumule; D-seed
(3) Occurs in some species of asteraceae and coat and fruit wall
grasses
SECTION . B
366 Sugarcane is vegetatively propagated into 10
daughter plants. How many types of genetically ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
similar plants are produced? (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) One (2) Ten (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) Two (4) Many reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1)
367 It is difricult to show clear cul distinction between
vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases in
('l)Radish (2) Mustard assertion, then mark (2)
(3) Canot (4) China rose (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
368 Which is correct to gametophyte in angiosperm? false, then mark (3)
Gametophyte Male Female (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
gametophyte gametophyte statemenls, then mark (4)
(1) Dioecious 3 nucleated 8 nucleated 1. A : Self incompatibility promotes allogamy.

(2) Monoecious 3 nucleated 8 nucleated R : lncompatibility due to the genotype of pollen is
observed in Brassicaceae.
(3) Trioecious 3 nucleated I nucleated
2. A: Development of embryo is endoscopic in
(4) Bisexual 2 nucleated 7 nucleated flowering plants.
369 lf pollen grain is having 12 chromosome then what R : Differentiation of embryo occurs at chalaza end.
would be the chromosomes number in endosperm
of gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively? 3. A : Male and female plants are separate in Chara
wallichii.
(1) 24 and 36 (2) 36 and 36
R : lt is a monoecious plant.
(3) 12 and 36 (4\ 24a d24
370 ln the potiato tuber, small plants emerges from
4. A: ln Marchantia, the archegonia are borne on
special branch called archegoniophore.
bud
(1) Adventitious (2) Axillary bud R : Archegoniphore has rows of archegonia
(3) Apical bud (4) Foliarbud protected by perigonial leaves.
180 Reproduction in Org anisms and Sexual Reproduction in Planls Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
5.4 Vegetative fertilisation provides a stimulus for 19. A An ovule generally has a 7-nucleated and
growth and formation of endosperm. 8-celled embryo sac formed from megaspore
R It is triploid in all flowering plants. through reduction division.
6.4 No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so R Embryo sac is a diploid structure.

far known. 20. A Higher organisms have resorted to sexual
R It is one of the most resistant organic material reproduction in spite of its complexity.
of megaspore. R Sexual reproduction enables organisms to
7. A Pollen grains can be stored for years at 196'C survive during unfavourable conditions as it
temperature. brings genetic variations.
R Stored pollens can be used as seed banks. 21. A Cultivation of hybrids has tremendously
8.A Central cell of the typical embryo sac is increased productivity.
initially bikaryotic and haploid. R Progeny of hybrids do not maintain hybrid
R It is the largest cell of embryo sac. characters due to segregation.
9.A Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma 22. A ln most aquatic organisms, such as majority of
is a chance factor in both wind and water algae and fishes as well as amphibians,
pollination. external fertilization occur.
R Wind and water pollinated plants produce R ln these organisms syngamy occurs outside
enormous amount of pollens. their body.
't0. A ln Zogera, pollen grains are released inside the 23. A Gametes are haploid though the parent plant
water. body from which they arise may be either
R Female flowers remain submerged in water haploid or diploid.
11. A lf the female parent produces bisexual flowers, R Haploid organisms produce their gametes by
there is no need for emasculation during meiosis.
hybridization. 24. A A large number of pollen products in the form
R Bisexual flowers are always protogynous. of tablets and syrups are available in the
market.
12. A Albuminous seeds are present in castor and
coconut. R Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.
R Endosperm persists in the mature seed of 25. A Anemophilous as well as hydrophilous flowers
these plants. produce enormous amount of pollens.
13. A Development of male gametophyte is R Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma
precocious in angiosperms. is a chance factor during these types of
R Pollen germination is ,n sltu. pollination.
14. A Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils. 26. A Water hyacinth can multiply at a tremendous
R Exines of pollens give a fascinating array of rate.
patterns. R It has underground stem for vegetative
15. A Perennial plants are always polycarpic. propagation.
R Vegetrtive, reproductive and senescent phases 27. A Zoospores are most common asexual
are distinct clearly. reproductive structures in algae.
16. A Water hyacinth spreads very fast in water R Algae and fungi require water for fertilization
body. always.
R It is an exotic weed. 28. A Megaspore mother cell forms only one
17. A Cleistogamy is advantageous to the plants. functional megaspore commonly.
R It results in the assured seed formation even in R Ovules generally differentiate the single
the absence of pollinators. megaspore mother cell in nucellus.
't8. A ln sporophytic budding, embryo directly 29. A Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed
develops from a diploid cell other than egg. set even in the absence of pollinators.
R Embryo is formed without meiosis and R Cleistogamous flowers are invaria bly
syngamy in agamospermy. geitonogamous.
trtro
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Chapter 3
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
5 DNA specific RNA polymerase enzyme involved in

DNA replication mechanism is
(1) Ligase (2) Pyrophosphatase
Which one of the following statement is correct for
(3) Ribonuclease-P (4) Primase
right-handed DNA having 2.S6 A as vertical rise
per base pair? 6 Select incorrect statement w.r.t. post-transcription
(1) Requires maximum relative humidity and low processing
ionic strength as favourable conditions (1) Splicing is ATP dependent process
(2) Requires very high salt concentration (2) Spliceosome is formed between 5' AG and 3'
(3) lts diameter is 23 A GU of intron
(4) lt is C-DNA witn tg A neticat diameter (3) Cap is modified GTP
2 Out of the following four ds-DNA samples which (4) Modilication of nucleotides is most common in
one shows maximum Tm value? illNA
(1) DNA with 76% GC content
7 ln translation mechanism, formation of 4os-mRNA
(2) DNA with 40% cytosine - IRNA complex requires
(3) DNA with 18% thymine (1) GTP
lF2 and (2) elF2 and ATP
(4) DNA with 3% adenine (3) elF3 and GTP (4) elFl and elF4
3 During translation mechanism, a IRNA with the
8 Which one of the following is incorect w.r.t. lac
anticodon CUC bonds with amino
operon?
acid.
(1) Leucine (2) Arginine (1) lt is inducible operon which controls anabolic
pathway
, (3) Methionine , (4) Glutamine
- (2) Glucose or galactose cannot act as inducer
4 Find out the base sequence on RNA which is made
from the following DNA molecule. (3) The repressor is synthesised constitutively
from the i{ene
J 5
GCTAACGATC (4) Repressor is active which binds to the
C GATT G CTA G operator region
(1) 5'G C UAACGAU C3' 9 At how many locations, SNPS are present in
human beings?
(2) s',CGAUUGCUAG3',
(3) 3'CGAU UGC UAG5'
(1) billion
1.4 (2) 1.4 million
(4) 3'GCUAACGAUG5' (3) 3x10ebp (4) 3x1dbp

182 Molecular Basis of lnheritance Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
10. Which one of the following step comes after 16 Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. DNA
electrophoresis in DNA finger printing? replication?
(1) Use of restriction endonuclease (1) Eukaryotes have several thousand origins of
(2) lsolation of DNA replication
(3) Southern (2) Unwinding is brought about by enzyme

blotting
helicase, which is ATP dependent
(4) DNA - RNA hybridization
(3) DNA synthesis occurs in 3'-;5' direction
11. lf the sequence of nucleotides is AUG UUU UGC
UAC, the sequence of amino acids will be Met- (4) DNA polymerasel removes RNA primer and
Phe-Cys-Tyr. Likewise, if the sequence of amino replace it with the nucleotide of DNA and can
acids is Met-Tyr-Cys-Phe, then the sequence of correcttheT=Tdimer
nucleotides will be 17 Which of the following is not a codon of glycine?
(1) AUG UAC UGC UUU (1) GGc (2) GCG
(2) AUG UAU UGU UUC (3) GGU (4) GGA
(3) AUG UAC UGU UUU
18 Find the incorrect pair
(4) Any one of the above three (1) RNAP-lll - SCRNA
12. Energetically DNA replication is a very expensive
(2) Genomics - Function of genes
process. The energy during the polymerisation of
new strand is provided by (3) Microsatellite - SSR
(1) GDP (4) Catabolite gene - Tryptophan operon

activator protein
(2) ADP
19 ln E. coli
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(1) Transcription occurs inside nucleus
(4) Ribonucleoside triphosphates
(2) There is only one RNA polymerase
13. ln HGP, the fragments of DNA were sequenced
using automated DNA sequencers. lt worked on (3) Transcription faclors are involved in recognition
the principle of a method developed by of promoter site
('l ) E.M. Southern (4) There are nine initiation factors
(2) Frederick Sanger 20 Choose correct option from the given table
(3) Craig Venter B-form Zlorm Gform
DNA DNA DNA
(4) Wellcome Trust (U.K.)
(a) Stability Stable Unstable Unstable
14. Which of the following group of RNA is not (b) Base pair
per turn 10 12 8
synthesised by RNA polymerase-l in eukaryotes?
(c) Length of
(1) 5. 8 S rRNA and 18 S rRNA helix
34A 45A 35A
(2) 18 s rRNA
rRNA and 28 s (1) a,b&care@rect (2) a&bareconect
(3) 5. 8 S rRNA and 5 S rRNA (3) Only a is conec{ (4) All are inconect
(4) 5 S rRNA and Sn RNA 21. Choose the wrong statement for template strand
15. Which of the following antibiotic inhibits the in DNA
translocation reaction of translation in E. coli ? (1) lt is called antisense and coding stand
(1) Streptomycin (2) lt has 3' -+ 5' polarity
(2) Erythromycin (3) lt is the strand upon which RNA is transcribed
(3) Tetracyctine
in 5'-J 3'direc'tion
(4) Terminator region lies at its s'-end
(4) Chloramphenicot
Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) l\y'olecular Basis of lnheritance 183
22. Owing DNA proof reading, DNA polymerase I 29. RNA may not be a suitable genetic material in
removes the mismatched nucleotides and organisms because of
synthesises the correct replacement. The newly (1) Presence of 2'-OH in sugar
formed segment is sealed by
(2) Chemically less reactive nature
(1) Topoisomerase (2\ DNA ligase
(3) Structurally more stable nature
(3)Ribonuclease-P (4)Endonuclease
(4) Slow rate of mutation
23. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
dsDNA having 10 bp in linear and circular condition 30. Lac operon in E coli
respectively? (1) ls repressible
(1) 18, 20 (2) 16, 18 (2) Consists of five structural genes
(3) 16, 16 (4) 20,20 (3) Can also act in presence of galactose
24. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. post (4) Remains switched off in absence of inducer
transcriptional processing
31. /ac operon will be transcribed at low level if
(1) Capping requires guanyl transferase enzyme
('l ) Lactose is present in the medium
(2) Poly A residues are added at 3' of newly
(2) CAP binds upstream of promoter
formed hnRNA
(3) Glucose and lactose are present together
(3) Spliceosome formation is ATP independent
step (4) Path of RNA polymerase is unblocked due to
presence of allolactose
(4) Snurps splice introns at both 5'and 3'ends
32. Subunits ot nu-body are synthesised in the cell-
25. Which of the given is not among the salient cycle during
features of HGP?
(1) Antephase
(1) Human genome contains about 316.7 bp
(2) The phase with most variable duration
(2) Average gene size is 3000 bases
(3) lnvisible phase
(3) Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(4) The phase involving mitotic cyclin
(4) Chromosome t has most genes i.e., 2968
26. Sequence ofthe dsDNA is given below 33. The swivelling enzyme in DNA replication in
prokaryotes is
3'TACC ACTG GTAC GCAT CTAG 5'
(1) Komberg enzyme (2) Primosome
5'ATGG TGAC CATG CGTA GATC 3'
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA gyrase
How many amino acids will be coded by the
mRNA formed by this sequence?
34. Cytoplasmic male sterility in plants may occur due
to
(1) Four (2) Five
(1) Non-functional and faulty development of
(3) Six (4) Three tapetum
27. Select an incorrect statement w.r.l. lac operon (2) Appearance of callose at tetrad stage of
(1) lt consists of three structural genes Pollen
(2) Every structural gene has its own promoter (3) Release of callase enzyme during pollen
germination
(3) Repressor Protein is active
(4) Strong callase activity during metaphase-ll
(4) P-galactosidase catalyses breakdown of
lactose 35. The branch of biology which deals with the study
of the structure and function of gene is called as
2g. match
Find an incorrect
(1) UAA - ochre (1) Molecular genetics
(2) Biochemical genetics
(2) UUU - Phenylanine
(3) Cytogenetics
(3) UGG - Non degenerate codon
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) GUG - Non ambiguous codon
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36. Many new organs and tissues which were 44. lntertwining coiling of chromonemata in
originally absent, develop subsequently de novo chromosomes is
due to mysterious vital force. This idea was of (l ) sotenoidal (2) supersolenoidal
(1) Theory of epigenesis (3) paranemic (4) plectonemic
(2) Preformation theory 45. Histone proteins are rich in which set of amino
(3) Theory of pangenesis acids?
(4) Germplasm theory (1 ) Methionine and cysteine
(2) Lysine and argin'ne

37. Phage T2 DNA is estimated to consist of about
200000 deoxyribonucleotide pairs. What is the (3) Tryptophan and tyrosine
length in micrometers of this DNA? (4) proline and glycine
(1) 6.8 u (2) 68 p 46. Eleven base pair per turn are generally present in
(3) 680 u (4) 6800 u which tYPe of DNA?
38. Setect the incorrect match (1) B-DNA (2) C-DNA

(3) D-DNA (4) A-DNA
(1\ O, tt+ - 5386 bp
(2) i phage 47. Nitrogen bases present in the introns at 5'in the
- 4g502 bp ' beginning and at 3'in the last are
(3) E. coli - 4.6 x 106 bp (1 ) AG and GU (2) AU and cu
(4) Haploid human cell - 3.3 x 10s bp
(3) GU and AG (4) cu and AU
39. Bond between deoxyribose suqar and purines
DNA invorves wr'icr,positiois L's|;;;;
"'
-- in 48
,^ r
Hil##rHnfl"t;3:il::"T:illllj;:;
(r) 1-e (2)1-6 ()z (21 3
(3) 3-e (4) 3-3 (3) 4 (4) 5
40. ll a hybrid DNA molecule labelled with N15 is 49. Choose the incorrect match
allowed to replicate four times in culture medium
(1) one gene one polypeptide - Yanofsky
having Nla, tne percentage-ot nvo"J orln
third generation would be "tt"r (2) One gene one enzyme - Beadle and
Tatum
(1)50% 25Yo
(z)
(3) one gene one character - de vries
(3) 12.5o/o (4) 6.5%
(4) One mRNA one polypeptide - Jacob
41. What is incorrect for DNA?
50. Third nitrogen base of nodoc pairs with which
(1) Radius of DNA is 'l nm nitrogen base of codon forming methionine in
(2) Phosphate moiety is at s'-end of deoxyribose eukaryotes?
sugar (1) cuanine (2) Uracit
(3) Nitrogen bases linked to sugar moiety pro.tect (3) Adenine (4) Cytosine
inward s1. Cap region of mRNA has nucleotides which are
(4) Distance between two successive base pair complementary to
strands is 3.4 nm (1) 3,end of 18s rRNA (2) 5, end of 18s rRNA
42. Which of the folowing is not present in DNA? (3) 3'end of 28s rRNA (4) 5'end of 28s rRNA
('l ) Guanine (2) Cytosine 52. Who proposed sem lconservative mode of
(3) Thiamine (4) Adenine replication in DNA?
43. What is present in maximum percentage ;n (1) Meselson and Stahl

chromosomes composition? (2) Watson and Crick
(1) DNA (2) Histones (3) Caim
(3) Nl-lC (4) Acidic proteins (4) Taylor
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Molecular Basis of lnheritance 185
53. Select the enzyme which can break and reseal one 62. Which of the following antibiotics inhibit peptide
skand of DNA bond formation in prokaryotes?
(1) Primase (2) Endonuclease (1) Tetracycline (2) Puromycin
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Exonuclease (3)Chloramphenicol (4)Erythromycin
54. Choose the incorrect statement for DNA 63. Which of the following amino acid is not coded by
polymerase six codons?
(1) lt was extracted and purified lrcm E. coli (1) Serine (2) Arginine
(2) Can polymerise deoxyribonucleotides from (3) Alanine (4) Lysine
5' to 3' end 64. Opal is a nonsense codon, it codes for
(3) lt can start replication in paramoecium
(4) lt has exonuclease activity from 3'to 5' (1) Glutamine (2) Tyrosine
55. RNA polymerase is a holoenzyme. What is (3) Methionine (4) Valine
removed from it to convert it into core enzyme? 65. Transduction experiment to prove DNA as a
(1) a2 (2) P genetic material was c,onducted by Hershey and
(3) p' (4) o Chase with the use of radioactive elements,
namely
56. Which of the following initiation factor requires GTP
during translation in eukaryotes?
(1) S32 P35
and (2) Ss5 and P32
(3) N15 and H3 (4) C1a and H3

(1) lF, (2) elFl
(3) rF3 (4) elF3 66. UTRS are required for efficient translation, which
are present on
57. How many GTPs and ATPs are required to form
(1) 3' mRNA
a oligopeptide of 10 amino acids from mRNA?
(1) 10 GTPS and 10 ATPs (2) 5' mRNA
(2) 10 GTPS and 20 ATPs (3) T\rC region of IRNA
(3) 20 GTPS and 10 ATPs (4) Both (1) & (2)

(4) 20 GTPs and 20 ATPS 67. lf the synthesized proteins are larger than the
coding potential of DNA, it suggests the presence
58. Which side of amino acid is joined to I-RNA during of
translation?
(1) Pseudogenes (2) Overlapping genes
(1) NH2 side
- (2) COOH - side
(3) Mulliple genes (4) Jumping genes
(3) H - side (4) R - side
68. DNA polymerase for mt DNA synthesis in humans
59. Translocase in prokaryotes is is
(1) EF -Ts (2) EF -ru (1) o-DNA polymerase
(s) EF - G (4) lFl (2) 1-DNA polymerase
60. P- site during protein synthesis is contributed by (3) &DNA polymerase
(1) Small ribosomal subunit (4) DNA-polymerase lll
(2) Large ribosomal subunit 69. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. lac operon
(3) mRNA and small subunit of ribosome (1) lt has a negative control with respect to
(4) More than one option is correct repressor
61. Termination factor RF2 in prokaryotes re@gnises (2) lt is a inducible operon
which non-sense codons? (3) lt is a group of six genes working in a
(1 ) only
UAA (2) UGA onlY coordinated manner
(3) UAA and UAG (4) UAA and UGA (4) lac-y gene codes for Fgalactosidase
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70. A seven base sequence to which RNA polymerase 78. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human DNA
called
binds during transcription in eukaryotes is sequence
(1) TATA box (2) Homeotic box (1) 50 percent of genes discovered has unknown
(3) CAAT box (4) Pribnow box functions
71. The sequence of mRNA is 5, (2) 99.9 percent of base sequences are similar in
AUGCGCCGCUAU3'. How many amano acids will all humans
be present in the polypeptide formed from this (3) Snips are identified at about 1.4 million
mRNA, if overlapping is considered? locations
(11 4 (2\ I (4) About 45% DNA is intronic in humans
(3) I (4) 10 79. During HGP, fragments of DNA were sequenced
72. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in using
a DNA molecule if its one strand has 60 ('1) Sangeis method
nucleotides? (2) Hershey and Chase method
('l) 120 (2) 59 (3) Maxam and Gitberts method
(3) 119 (4) 118 (4) H.G Khorana,s merhod
73. How many nucleotides are. appro^ximately g0. A model organism of plant
category which has also
connected with one nucleosome inDNA? been sequenced along with rice is
(1) 50 (2) 100 () Agropyron (z\ Anabaena
(3) 150 (4\ 200 (3) Agros s (41 Arabidopsis
74. During early years of HGP,.- became the g1. HGp methodology
based upon identifying all DNA
ma.ior partner of the project
sequences expressed as RNA was referred as
(1) U.S. department of energy (j ) UTR,S (2) ORF,S
(2) Nationat institute of heatth (3) EST'8 (4) SSR,S
(3) welcome trust, u.K. g2. what is the length and number of phosphodiester
(4) NBPGR bonds in a B-DNA with 2 Kbp?
75. VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA and its (1) 2000 A and '1999 respectively
size in a genome varies from 0.1 to _
el zoo Aand 4000 respectively
(1) 20 kb (2) 30 kb (3) 6800 A and 1999 respectivety
(3) 40 kb (4) 50 kb (4) 680 nm and 3998 respectivety
76. During DNAflnger printing experiment DNA bands g3. lf nitrogenous base sequence on mRNA is
of different sizes gives a characteristic pattern for ccucuAGCAGAU then find out the sequence on
an individual, called as sense strand
(1) Dendrograph (2) Autoradiogram (1) 3'GGAGATCGTCTAs'
(3) Cladogram (4) phenogram (2) 3'CCTCTAGCAGATs'
77. DNA potymorphism is equivalent to afietic sequence (3) s,CCTCTAGCAGAT3,
and
variation
(4) 5,GGAGATCGTCTA3,
a These are inheritable g4. During post transcriptional processing, a complex
b. These can be observed in non coding DNA called Spliceosome is formed
c. Satellite DNA is an example for such variations (1) Between 5, end AG and 3, end GU
(1) All are correct (2) Between 5'end cU and 3'endAG
(2) Only c is correct (3) And recognised by components of ScRNA
(3) Both a and c are incorrect (4) And adjacent exons are brought together by
(a) only b is incorrect DNA ligase
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Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) l,4olecular Basis of lnheritance 187
85. During translation, the mdon-anticodon reaction in 93. Human genome is said to have approximately
eukaryotes occurs in the presence of protein (1) 2968 genes
factor, namely
(2) 9 billions nucleotides
(1) elF3 (2\ etFl
(3) 3x10sbp
(3) eEFl (4) eEF2
(4) 30000 - 40000 bP
86. lnducible operon is under positive control through
94. What will be the percentage of G in a dsDNA if
(1) Lactose (2) Glucose the amount ol T is 2Oo/o?
(3) Cga protein (4) TryPtoPhan (1) 70 o/o (2\ 80 o/o
87. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. HGP (3) 30 % (4) 50 %

(1) Human genome has 3.3 billion nucleotide 95. Most of the unusual bases found in a cell are
base pairs associated with to help the wobbling.
(2) Largest and smallest gene are autosomal and (1) rRNA (2) mR|'lA
heterosomal resPectivelY
(3) tRNA (4) snRt'lA
(3) "Snips" occur at about 1.4 million locations
96. Replication is an autocatalytic property of DNA
(4) ESTS serve as landmarks on the physical map which does not require
of a genome
(1) DNA polymerase lll as major polymerising
88. Theoretically the number of nucleosomes in a enzyme
genome of human cell is
(2) Primase to synthesize a short sequence of
(1) 3.3 x 10s (2) 3.3 x 107
RNA over 3' end of Parental DNA
(3) 1.65 x 107 (4) 6.6 x 107
(3) An ATP dependent ligase enzyme
89. Which one of the following is required for the (4) An ATP dependent helicase enzyme to stabilize
initiation phase of DNA synthesis in bacteria? the single strandedness in DNA
(1) DNA polymerase I (2) DNA polymerase lll
97. First structural gene to be transcribed in a
(3) DNA ligase (4) Pnmase inducible operon of E coll is
90. RNA synthesis stops as soon as polymerase (1) lnhibitorgene (2) Structural gene 'z'
reaches the terminator region. Which is required (3) Slructural gene 'y' (4) Structural gene 'a'
for this process?
98. About 1.4 million locations were identified in human
(1) F-factor (2) Nus-factor genome where single base differences occur,
(3) Rho factor (4) Sigma factor these locations are called
91. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched (1) Scyrps (2) Snurps
pair w.r.t. DNA flngerPrinting?
(3) UTR'S (4) SniPs
(1) Size separation - Gel electrophoresis Find the number of phosphodiester bonds and
99.
(2) VNTRS from Gel to Nylon paper - Blotting glycosidic linkages associated with E. coli DNA
technique respectively
(3) Microsatellites ESTS (11 9.2 x - 2,9.2 ' - 1Oo 2
- 1Oo
(4) RFLP amplification PCR (2) 4.6 x 1OB - 2, 4.6 x 1@ - 2

-
92. Prokaryotic mRNA begins translation even during (3) 4.6 x 106, 4.6 x 106
its synthesis and its nature is
(4) 9.2 x 106, 9.2 x 106
('1 ) Monocistronic
100. Number of nucleotides associated with each
(2) Polycistronic repeating unit present in chromatin are
(3) hnRNA (1) 200 (2) 400
(4) Monogenic (3) 2so (4) 5oo
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101. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 106. For which of the following features the DNA
malerial came from the experiment which utilised polymerases and RNA polymerases are similar?
(11 &reptococcus (l) Can perform the proof reading

(2) cannot initiate the nucleotide polymerisation
(2) I? E. ali
(3) Shows polvmerisation in 5' -+ 3' direction
(3) E. coli, heavy nitrogen
(4) P32' s35' R-type bacteria
i 07. choose the incorrect option w.r.t. transcription unit
102. Protein synthesising machinery has evolved (1) Regulatory sequences may be present at
around
--- and the
is best for both upstream and downstream of the
transmission of genetic information. promoter region
--
(1) DNA, RNA (2) Promoter is present at the 5'end of the
structural gene
(2) RNA' DNA
(3) DNA strand which does not code for anything
(3) RNA, RNA is called non-coding strand
(4) DNA, DNA (4) Termination sequence is present at 3'end of

the coding strand
103 choose the odd one out w r't' Taylor's experiment
10g. ln E coli transcription and translation are coupled
(1) Used roots of Y,b,b faba because
(1) There is no separation of cytosol and nucleus
(2) thymidine
Utilised radioactive
in bacteria
(3) Used heavy nitrogen (2) processing of RNA is not required
(4) Proved DNA in chromosomes replicate semi- (3) Spacer DNA is absent
conservatively (4) More than one option is correct
104. ln prokaryotic DNA replication 1Og. How many adenylate residues are added at 3, end
processing of hn RNA in eukaryotes?
(1) on each oNA template DNA polymerase-ll during the
adds 10 nucleotides in one second (1) 50-100 (2) 100-150
(3) 600-700 (4) 200-300
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates provide
energy for forming phosphodiester bond 110. Enzyme utilised for the synthesis of RNA
copolymers and homopolymers during deciphering
(3) Only DNA polymerases are required of genetic code is
(4) DNA polymerase I shows removal of primer (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
through 3'-r 5'exonuclease activity (2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
105. Which of the following is incorect wr.t. Nucleic (3) DNA independent RNA polyrnerase
acid? (4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1 ) DNA is more stable so preferred for storage 111 . By knowing the sequence of amino acids in protein
of geneticinformation you cannot predict the correct sequence of
rhis predicts which propertv
(2) Fuersen tesr is nesative ror RNA :iffi:li:""::J-NA
(3) DNA is the largestmacromolecule (1) Non-ambiguity
(4) Exposed nitrogenous bases and presence of (2) Degeneracy
OH group at 3' position in sugar exptains RNA (3) Commaless
reactivity (4) potarity
ffi
Molecular Basis of lnheritance 189
112. Which of the following sequence on mRNA is 120. Which of the following antibiotic inhibits peptidyl
required for efficient translation? transferase activity?
(1) Anti Shine Delgarno (2) Pribnow box (1) Tetracycline

(3) SNP'S (4) UTR'S (2) Streptomycin
'113. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. lac operon (3) NeomYcin
(1) Polycistronic structural genes have common (4) chloramphenicol
promoter
121. Amino acyl synthetase enzyme is recognised by
(2) Lactose is transported in cell by permeases IRNA at its
(3) The igene shows its expression constitutively (1) DHU loop
(4) Switching on of operon by lactose is positive (2) TvC loop

control
(3) -CCA 3'OH end
114. ln prokaryotes the two charged tRNAs are brought
(4) Anticodon loop
close together in ribosome then the formation of
peptide bond between them is performed by the 122. The technique by which DNA band pattern in the
catalYst gel is transferred to nylon membrane while
performing fingerprinting experiment is
(1) 163 rRNA (2) 23S rRNA
(3) 18S rRNA (4) 28S rRNA (l) Northem blotting
'l'15. Frederick Sanger has developed an automated (2) PCR

DNA sequences that ananged the DNA fragments (3) Southem blotting
on the basis of (4) Western blotting
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Overlapping regions
123. ln living organisms, the regulation of gene
(3) Repititive DNA (4) ESTS expression could be exerted at various levels and
the predominant site for control in prokaryotes is
1'16. Number of genes associated with chromosome 1
in human beings is (1 ) mRNA transport level

(1) 231 (2) 3oooo (2) Translation level
(3) 2968 (4) 3ooo (3) Splicing levol
117. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. satellite DNA (4) Transcription initiation level
(1) Show high degree of polymorphism 124. With reference to protein synthesis, consider the
(2) Form basis of DNA fingerprinting following evenb
(3) Part of both coding and non-coding sequences a. Binding of amino acyl - IRNA complex with
MRNA
b. Activation of amino acid
118. An mRNA synthesized by using 144 nucleotides
is capable of producing a polypeptide chain of c. Polypeptideformation
(1) 48 amino acids d. Formation of amino acyl - IRNA complex
(2) 47 amino acids What is the correct sequence of the above

evenG in Protein synthesis?
(3) 282 amino acids
(1) b,d,a&c
(4) 141 amino acids
119. Ribosomal RNA is transcribed in eukaryotes as

(2) a,b,d&c
(3) d,b,a&c
(1) 45 S (2) 30 s
(3) 50 s (4) 80 s (4) a,d,b&c
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125. The _ has the property to cut and join the 130. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
DNA to release the slrain developed behind w.r.t. human genomics?
replication fork
(l) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for
(1) Restriction endonuclease protein
(2) Helicase (2) Both largest and smallest genes are allosomal
(3) DNA topoisomerase (3) All human populations are genomically identical
(4) DNA polymerase-ll except difference in 3 x 104 bases
126. Expressed sequence tags (ESTS) and sequence (4) lntrons are 24%
annotation are the two methodologies used in
131 . An mRNA with
(1) DNA fingerprinting (2) pCR
5'AUGUUAAUCGUUCCUAAGUGA3, codon
(3) DNA sequencing (4) HGp sequence will specify how many amino acids in
overlapping condition?
127.The sequence of coding strand of DNA is as
follows 5' AACCTTGGGTA 3,, then the sequence (1) 6 (2) ls
of mRNA will be
(3) 4 (4) 16
(1)AACCUUGGGUA
132. ln an inducible operon system, the permeability for
(2) TTGGUUCCCUT lactose absorption is increased by an enzyme. This
(3) AACCTTGGGTA enzyme is a product of q ene
(4) TTGGTTGGGUC (11 tac z (Z) lac y

128. Select the correct statement w.rt. DNA structure (3) tac a (4) tA b
(1) Phosphate group lies at 5, end of one strand 133.50 molecutes of E. coll DNA with both heavy
while at 3' end of complementary strand strands is allowed to replicate twice in laNHoCl
medium, the resultant generation will have
(2) A DNA with 4 percent thymine nucleotides is
more stable than a DNA with 40 percent (1) 200 molecutes, a hybrid
cytosine nucleotides (2) 100 molecules having laN and other 100
(3) Purine : pyrimidine ratio is constant for a molecules as hybrid
species only (3) 50 molecules hybrid and 150 molecules with
14NH4cl
(4) Purine nucleosides have 1,-3, glycosidic linkage
129. Match the fottowing (4) 200 molecutes, a tight
Column-l Column-ll 134. Find a set of incorrect statements
a. Kornberg enzyme (i) EF-G a. RNA is labile, easily degradable and reactive
as compared to DNA
b. DNA gyrase (ii) primer removal
c. Severo Ochoa (iii) Topoisomerase b. Presence of thymine at the place of uracil
confers additionat stability to DNA
enzyme
c. Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate, viruses
d. Translocase (iv) polynucleotide having DNA genome mutate and evolve faster
phosphorylase d. DNA can easily express the characters direcfly
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) b & d
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) c&d
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) b&c
(a) aO, b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a&c
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) lvlolecular Basis of lnheritance 191
135. How many amino acids will be coded by the given Transcriplion start site
sequence of mRNA if its 15h base is substituted
B
bv A?
3 5
5'AUG GUG UAG CAG UAC GUA 3' c A
5' 3'
(1) Four (2) Two Coding strand
(3) Six (4) Five (1 ) Terminator, Non-template, Promoter
136. Predominant site for the control of gene expression (2) Promoter, Non-coding, Terminator
in prokaryotes is (3) Promoter, Template, Structural gene
(1) Transcriptional level (2) Processing level (4) Terminator, Template, Promoter
(3) mRNA transport level(4) Translational level 143. lf code is overlapping, then mRNA with
137. ln eubacteria, predominant site for regulation of
GUGUCAUGAGCC will specify how many
gene expiession is amino acids?
(1) Transcriptional level

(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Ten
(2) Processing level
(3) Transport of m-RNA from nucleus to cytoplasm

144. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
representation of /ac operon. What does A, B, C
(4) All of these and D represent respectively?
138. Which of the following event takes place in the p I p o B D
cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?
(1 ) Splicing of RNA ll
ReprelrormRilA
(2) caPPing of RNA ,ac mRNA
I Ir tr trrr.n.r.don
(3) Formation of peptide bonds
(D" P{thctosidaso c t-arL!.cotylsse
(4) Tailing of RNA r
139. lf the proportion of s-methyl uracil in a ds-DNA is /'+

aQ O
7o/o, lhen what will be the total proportion of
monocyclic nitrogen bases in this DNA?
(1) A - lnducer '' B ' lac y
('l) 50o/o (21 43o/o c - Permease i o ' lac z
(3) 14Yo (4) 86% (2) A - Repressor ; B'lac z i

140. ln a eukaryotic cell splicing, capping and tailing
c - Lactase I D - lac a
steps (3) A- lnducer i B-laczi
(1) Are template dependent C - Permease ', D - lac a
(2) Occur in cytoplasm (4) A - Lactose i B'lac y i
(3) Ocqrr in nucleus C - Permease i D - lac a
(4) Are performed by snRNPs 145. Select the conect statement w.r.t. HGP
141. trp oqon as well as /ac operon both (1) Sequencing of 3.'1647 million nucleotide bases
(1) Show positive control (2) Largest gene is allosomal with 2.4 million
bases
(2) Are inducible systems
(3) HGP was completed by sequencing of
(3) Are repressible systems
expressed mRNA genes only by sequence
(4) Are present in bacteria annotation technique
142. ln the given below transcription unit, what does A, (4) Protein coding genes are exonic and make
B and C represent respectively? more than 2 percent part of genome
146. Select the correct match 151. Which of the following for ds-DNA is correct?
(1) Severo Ochoa - DNA polymerase (1) A/T=0 (2) A+T=G+C
(2) Meselson and Stahl- Chromosome (3) A+G=C+T (4) C/G = 0.5
replication in faba 152. choose the correct option w.r.t. sickle cell
beans anaemia
(3) Hershey and chase - E coli a. substitution of amino acid in the globin protein
(4) Griffith - Salmonella results due to single base substitution at the
codon of the beta globin gene from GAG
147. Read the following statements carefully
sixth
to GUG
a. A very low level of expression of /ac operon
has to be present in the cell all the time
b. Heterozygous individuals exhibit sickle-cell
trait.
b. Every operon of a prokaryotic cell can be
regulated by the same repressor protein c HbA peptide has amino acid sequence as
Val-His-Leu-Thr-Pro-Val.
c. The codon in mRNA is read in a contiguous
fashion d. Mutant haemoglobin molecule shows
polymerisation under low oxygen tension'
d. RNA porymerase-I r is for
responsible
transcription of ssrRNA, 23srRNA, snRNA and
(1) a' c' d (2) a' b' c
IRNA (3) b, c, d (a) a, b, d
(1) Both c and d are correct 153. ln a double stranded DNA molecule the
(2) All are correct, except 5 Percentage of cytosine is '18, what will be
percentage of bicyclic nitrogen bases?
(3) All are correct, excepl d
(1) 50% (21 640/o
(4) Both a and c are correct
(3) 36% (41 18%
148. A=T, G =C pairing is present in DNA. This base
pairing confers very unique property to the 154 During replication' DNA synthesis occurs
polynucleotide chains and they are said to be discontinuously on one strand because
complementary lo each other. From this we can (1) DNA molecule uncoils gradually
deduce all the following, except (2) Hydrogen bonds keep the two strands
('l
) The quantity of A is equal to the quantity of T together
(2) G/C = I (3) Topoisomerase and helicase can act only on
(3) The quantity of A + T is equal to the quantity one side of DNA molecule
of G + C (4) DNA polymerase can polymerise the
(4) lf the sequence of bases in one strand is nucleotides in only one direction
known then the sequence in other strand can 155. Allosteric protein which can exisl in two forms, in
be predicted one form it is paratactic to an operator and in
149. ln eukaryotes, RNA polymerase binds to a region another form it is paratactic to inducer (like
of DNA which is recognised by lactose) is coded by a gene known as
(1) o_factor (2) p-factor (1) Producer gene (2) Promoter gene
(3) Transcription factor (4) Core enzyme (3) Structural gene (4) Regulator gene
'150. Transcription as well as translation processes 156 Find the incorrect match
(1) Cannot be coupled in bacteria (l Coenorhabditis elegans - 97 million bp

(2) Occur in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell (2) Human genome (n) - 3.3,10e bp
(3) Are energetically very expensive (3) SSR - Microsatellite

(4) Result in protein and RNA respectively (4) VNTRS - 1 to 6 bp
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157. When the codon of mRNA is y CCU 3'then the 163. Select the inconect match
anticodon on IRNA will be (1) RNA polymerase lll - 5.8srRNA, IRNA,
(2) 3',GGA s', snRNA
(1) s',GGA3',
(2) RNA polvmerase ll - hnRNA
(3) 3'AGG 5' (4) 3'GAc 5' (3) Splicing - snRNPs
159. A small DNA sequence is arranged tandemly in (o) Termination factor
many copy numbers. This copy number varies fom in transcription - Rho factor
chromosome to chromosome in an individual. The
1&' Select the correct option w'r't' punctuation codons
number of repeat show
(1) AUG , CUG UGA, UUU, AAU
(1) Very high degree of polymerisation and (2) UAA' UGA' UAG' AUG' GUG
transtation (3) UAA, UUq AUG GUG, GUA
(2) Very high degree of potymorphism (4) AUG GUq UAA, ACU, UCG
(3) Very low degree of hybridisation and 165. Formyl methionine carrying IRNA can bind only
polymorphism with
(4) Very high degree of translation (1) A site on 80S ribosome
(2) P site on 70s ribosome
159. what is incorrect w.r.t. properties of genetic
material? (3) A site on 70s ribosome
(1) lt should be abte to generate its replica

t site on 80s ribosome
' --^ lo)
166. Which one of the following group of codons is
(2) lt should be capable of undergoing slow called as degenerate codon?
changes (1) uAA, uAG and ucA
(3) lt should be strudurally unsbble but chemically (2) GUA, cuq GCA, GCG and UGG
stable (3) uuc, uuc, ccu, cAA and uGA
(4) lt should be able to express itself in the form (4) UUA, UUG CUU, CUC and CUG
of Mendelian characters 167. ln regulation of gene expression an prokaryotes
160. Semiconservative mode of replication was proved (A) Lactose acts as the co-repressor for gene
by Caims using radioactive in expression
(1)Cytosine'bacteriophage(B)Tryptophanactsastheinducerforgene
- -. expressron
(2) Thymidine' E coli
(c) Regutator gene is one that produces the
(3) Guanosine, Vicia faba repressor molecule in Lac operon
(4) Protein, Drosophila (1) Only A is conect (2) B & C are correct
(3) only c is conect (4) A & B are mnect
161. which of the following catalyse the nucleotide
polymerisation in template independent manner? 168 Which enzyme helps to cut one strand of DNA
duplex to release tension of coiling of two
(1) DNA polymerase stands?
(2) Reverse transcriptase (1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase I
(3) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (3) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
(4)Peptidyltransferase169.Whichofthefollowingcomponentwouldenhance
the rate of peptide bond formation during
162. How many phosphodiester bonds are present at translation in Nosfoc?
one strand in genetic material of bacteriophage (1) 16 S rRNA
lambda? (2) Kornberg enzyme
(1) 97002 (2) 48502 (3) 23 S rRNA
(3) 97004 (4) 48501 (4) Translocase
170. Match the following (column I with column ll) 174. lf hybrid DNA (N14N15) is allowed to replicate
Column I Column ll thrice in a medium containing N15, then what is
the proportion of pure light, pure heavy and hybrid
a. Chromosome 1 of (i) 4000 genes DNA obtained respectively?
hurnan
7:0:1
('l) (2\7:1:O
b. Human genome (ii) 231 genes
(3)0:7:1 (4\2:1:5
c. Genome of Ecoli (iii) 2968 genes
175. Select the correct option with respect to the given
d. Chromosome Y of (iv) 30000 genes
figure.
hurnan
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) Transcription start site
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (A) Template strand
(B)
3 s',
171. Which of the following is not a feature of genetic
code? 5 3',
(c)
(1) Degeneracy (2) Ambiguity
(3) SpeciJicity (4) Universality (1) Part (B): End of the process of translation
'172. DNA fingerprinting involves (2) Part (C): Complementiary sequence of mRNA
(1) ldentifying difierences in some specific regions (3) Part (A): DNA sequence that provides binding
in DNA sequence site for RNA polymerase
(2) Satellite DNA (4) Part (C): lt has the polarity and the sequence
(3) Repetitive DNA same as RNA, except uracil at the place of
thymine
(4) More than one option is mrrect
176. Which one does not explain Chargafs rule?
(1) Applicable only for ds DNA
173. (c) (A)
(2) Molar concentration of A + T and G + C are
equal
(B) A+T
(3) ratio is constant for a species
G+C
(4) Molar concentration of sugar equals to that of

phosphate
177. ln lac operon
a. Part marked as (B) has five types of histone (1) Lactose induces the operon to switch off
proteins (2) Repressor mRNA is synthesised continuously
b. Part marked as (A) is rich in basic amino acid
(3) only three genes are transcribed
residues.
(4) control negative in all conditions
c. Part marked as (c) is made up of 4oo 's
nucl€otides. 178. Process of translation of the mRNA to protein
begins when
is/are
which of the above given statement(s)
incorrect? (1) Small subunit of ribosome encounters the
,RNA
(1) a, c
(2)aonly(2)AminoacylationoftRNAoccurs
(3)conly(3)Aminoacidactivationoccurs
(4) Charged IRNA sequontially binds to the
(4) a, b
appropriate codon in mRNA
Last Leap for NEET (Paru) l\,lolecular Basis of lnheritance 195
179. Flow of genetic information in Rous Sarcoma 184 lf Eco,i with Nls - N15 DNA is allowed to grow in
Virus occurs from normal culture medium for 80 minutes then what
-r will be the proportion of hybrid and light density
(1) DNA -+ RNA -+ Protein DNA
DNA molecules?
(2) ssRNA --) DNA --r Protein
(1\ 2: 14 (2) 2:6
(3) RNA - @n - mRNA -+ Protein (3) 2:2 (4) 1 : 1
(4) dsRNA - @A -+ mRNA -+ Protein 185 Pseudouridine is present in a type of RNA that
(1) ls working copy
180. What will be the base sequence on DNA template
strand if mRNA possess (2) Acts as intermediate between triplet code of
mRNA and amino acid sequence
s'UACGUACGUACGUAC3' base sequence?
(3) Possesses UTR
(1 ) s'TACGTACGTACGTAC3'
(4) ls most stable
(2) 3'ATGCATGCATGCATGs'
186 Which of the following statement for eubacteria is
(3 ) s'ATGCATGCATGCATG3' correct?
(4) 3TACGTACGTACGTACs' (1) Transcription occurs inside the nucleus
18'1. ln elongation process of translation, tryptophan is (2) Control of the rate of transcriptional initiation
brought at A-site of ribosome by which one of the is the predominant site for control of gene
IRNA molecule? expression
(3) mRNA is generally monocistronic
UAC CUC
(1) (21 (4) Splicing, capping and polyadenylation are
required after transcription
187. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic

material came from the experiment with the use of
(1) E.coli, heavy nitrogen
ACC (2) P32, S3s, R-type bacteria
(3) (4)
(3) Tr, E.coli
(4) Diplococcus
188. Enzyme used for the synthesis of RNA copolymer
and homopolymer sequences during deciphering of
182. select the correct statement w.r.t. HGP. genetic code is
(1) Exonic genes are > 2olo (1) ONA dependent RNA polymerase
allosomal
(2) Longest and smallest genes are (2) DNA dependent oNA polymerase
(3) Single base DNA differences exist at 1.4 (3) RNA dependent DNA polyrnerase
billion locations (4) Dl{A independent RNA polymerase
(4) 9.9% nucleotide bases are same in all people 189. A new aminoacyl RNA compex rea€hes the A-site
183. RNA being a catalyst is more reactive hence of ribosome and forms complex with the codon'
except this requires in prokaryotes'
unstable because of all,
(,1)Presenceof2,oHofRNA(1)EnergydependentEF-TuandEF.TS
(2) Presence of uracil
-
(2) GTP dep€ndent lFz
(3) Mutation at faster rate (3) Energy independent lF3
(4) Pres€nce of methyl uracil

(4) Energy dependent eEFr
'190. All given represents sates of regulation of gene 195. The /ac operon consists of
expression where the predominant site in (1) one regulatory gene and one structural gene
prokaryotes'" (2) Two regulatory genes and three structural
(1) Transcriptional level genes
(2) mRNA transport level (3) Three structural genes and one regulator gene
(3) Processing level (4) One structural gene and three regulatory
genes
(4) Translational level
1e1. which or the ro,owins is not correct y.l.l
features of the double helix structure of DNA?
:1i"* '* ,?:l[,:il::lll[:ffi,'#Til"],'ff;1i'J"
(1) Central part of the IRNA
(1) The plane of one base pair stacks over the
(2) LaQe( subunit of the ribosome
other
(3) smaller
subunit of the ribosome
(2) The backbone is constituted by sugar-
phosphate and the bases prolect outside (4) s'end of the mRNA
(3) The two chains have anti-paralel polarity 197. which of the following mutation forms the genetic
' basis of proof that codon is a triplet and it is read
(4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm in a contagious manner?
192. During DNA replication, primers are removed by (1) Frameshift (2) Nonsense
A and the gaps are filled by B (3) Transition (4) Transversion
A B 198. Which of the following human genes has the
(l ) DNA polymerase-l DNA polymerase-l longest stretch of DNA with 2.4 million bases?
(2) DNA polymerase-l DNA polymerase-lll (1) Histone gene (2) lnsuline gene
(3) primase DNA potymerase- l
(3) ADA gene (4) Oystrophin gene
(4) DNA polymerasel Ligase 199. Consider the following organisms
193. Consider the following statements w.rt human a Arabidopsis

genome project and select the wrong choice b. Caenorhabditis
(1 ) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million c. Drosophila
locations where SNPS occur d. Ophioglossum
(2) The human genome contains 3164.7 billion ln which of the above are comptete genome
nucleotide bases sequencing was also completed with the
(3) The total number of genes is estimated at completaon of HGP?
30,000 (1) a, b & d
(4) Less then 2 percent of the genome codes for (2) b, c & d
Proteins (3) a, b, & c
194. Which of the following step is incorrect w.r.t DNA
(4) a' c & d
flngerprinting?
200 Cap region of mRNA has nucleotides which are
(.1) Separation of DNA f ragments by complementary to
electrophoresis
(1) 3'end of 28S rRNA
(2) lsolation of DNA
(2) 5' end of 28S rRNA
(3) Hybridisation using tabe ed VNTRprobe
(3) 3'end of 18S rRNA
(4) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
ultracentrifugation (4) 5'end of 18S rRNA
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201. Consider the given diagram of IRNA and select 206. Catalytic property of RNA is shown by all of the
the right choice w.r.t. amino acid following, except
(1) snRNA
(2) hnRNA
(3) Ribonuclease-P
tRNA
(4) Peptidyl transferase
207. What will be the number of N-glycosidic
linkage [A], phosphodiester linkage [Bl and
phosphate molecules [C] in a DNA molecule of
bacteriophage lambda?
Anticodon Anticodon
(1) A-48502, B-48501, C - 48502
(2) A- 5386, B - 5385, C - 5385
(3) A - 97004, B - 97002, c - 97004
(4) A-48502, B-97002, C - 48502

AB
208. Stability of the DNA helical structure is confened
(1) Tryp Met
by
(2\ Pro TYr
(1) Stacking of one base pair over the other in
(3) Ser Arg addition to H-bonds
(4) Leu TYr (2) N{lycosidic bond between nitrogen base and
202. Which organism was utilised by Taylor et ar' to sugar
prove semi-conservative replication at (3) Presence ol2' - OH group at every nucleotide
chromosomal level?
(1\ Ophioglossum (2\ Lathyrus odoratus
209. After the completion in which mode of replication,
(3) Vicia faba (4) E' coli
each DNA molecule would have one parental and
203. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is one newly synthesised strand?
released by enzyme ('l) Conservative mode
(1) Pyrophosphatrse (2) Primase (2) Disruptive mode
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
(3) Dispersive mode
204. Which of the following structures is present in core
(4) Semi-conseruative mode
particle of nucleosome?
210. Which one of the statement is incorrect for
(1) Linker DNA
transcription?
(2) Hr histone Protein
(1) The principle of complementjarity governs this
(3) 80 bp of DNA process
(4) Octamer of histone Protein (2) Adenosine does not form base pair with
205. Severo Ochoa Enzyme is involved in thymine
Deoxyribonucleotide polymerisation (3) Total DNA of an organism is transcribed into

(1 )
RNA copy
(2) Amino acid synthesis
(a) The DNA - dependent RNA polymerase
(3) Primer dependent DNA synthesis catalyse the polymerisation on the strand that
(4) Template independent RNA synthesis has the polarity 3' ------+ 5'
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| $t Molecular Basis of lnheritance Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
211. Select corect match w.r.t. genetic codes. Fill-up the blanks with correct answers
Column I Column ll ABC
a. Codon with dual function (i) GUG ('l ) Nucleosome Chromosome Euchromatin
b. Non-degenerate codon (ii) UGG (2) Histone octamer Nucleosome eErodlro.nalin
c. Ambiguous codon (iii) AUG Nucleoid
(3) Histone octamer Euchromatin
d. Stop codons (iv) UAA (4) Nucleosome Nucleoid etercdtromatin
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 216. Select the correct statements from the following
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) regarding transcription.
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) A. ln transcription only a segments of DNA and
only one of the strands is copied into RNA.
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
B. Terminator is located at upstream of the
212. Which one of the following is incorrectly
structural gene.
matched?
C. lntervening sequences do appear in processed
(1) Ribozyme - 23s rRNA
RNA.
(2) Laca - Permease
D. ln bacteria translation can begin much before
(3) ESTS - Exons the mRNA is fully transcribed.
(4) Chromosome 1 - 2968 genes (1)A&D
213. Given diagram is the representation of a certain (2) B&C
event or stage of protein synthesis, identiry this
(3) A&C
stage
(4) B&D
3',
217 . How many amino acids can be translated from the
c given sequence of nucleotides in mRNA if .6th
(D nucleotide undergoes deletion?
AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA

(.1) Termination of translation process in bacteria (1) Two (2) One
(2) Termination of transcription process in
(3) Four (4) Three
eukaryotes
218' wtich of the following is not a salient feature of
(3) Termination of ranscription process in bacteria
(4) Termination of translation process ,n (.,) More than two percent of genome codes for
eukaryotes proteins
214. Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the (2) The average gene consists of 3ooo bases
positively charged histone octamer in
(3) chromosome I has most genes i'e" 2968
(1) eB bacteriophage (2) Drosophila
(4) 1'4 million locations has sNPs
(3) pneumococcus (41 Eschenchia cori
_
2'15. A. Histones are organised to form a unit of eight
219. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
plasmid DNA having 1m0 bp?
molecules called _.
(1) 1000
B. constitute the repeating unit of a
structure in nucleus called chromatin. (2) 2000
- chromatin that is more densely packed (3) 999

C. The
and stains dark is called (4) 1998
220 3',-ATGCTA-s', (A) 225. Largest human gene is located on
chromosome and having
s'-TACGAT-3', . (B)
(1) X,2a00 bp (2) Y,2400 x '103 bp
ln a hypothetical sequence of above given dsDNA
(3) X, 2.4 million bases (4) 12, 24 x 10s bp
if promotor is present at 5' of (A) strand and this
DNA is involved in transcription, then what will be 226. Percentage amount of non-coding ONA sequence
the correct sequence of mRNA? is
(1) s'-uAcGAU-3', (2) s',-AUCGUA-3', (11 24% (2) 20%

(3) 45% (4) 41o/o
(3) 3',-AUCGUA-s', (41 3',-UAGCAU-s',
227. Which of the following vectors have been
221 ln bacteria, DNA in nucleoid is organised in large exploited extensively in mapping the large
loops held by genomes like Human Genome Project?
(1) Acidic proteins Phagemid (2) YACs
('l )
(2) Histone proteins (3) BACS (a) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Positive charged proteins
(4) Negative charged proteins SECTION - B
222. Mark the mis-matched pair Assertion - Reason Type Questions
l) ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
( /ac operon - Negative as well as positive
control
(2) rRNAs - Play structural as well as (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
catalytic role during translation
-
(3) Nucleosome Feature of all living organisms (2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(4) VNTR - Mini-satellite reason is not the correct explanation of the
223. Read the following statements :
(a) Replication does not initiate randomly at any false, then mark (3).
place in DNA. (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
(b) DNA polymerase on their own initiate DNA statements, then mark (4).
replication. 1. A: Stop signals UAA and UAG do not specify
any amino acids in all organisms.
(c) DNA replication if not coordinated with cell
R : The flexibility with regard to the third base in
division cycle,it may result in polyploidy. a codon causes non-functional nature.
(d) Presence of exons is reminiscent of antiquity 2. A: DNA probes contain repeated sequences of
and the process of splicing represents the bases complementary to those on VNTRs.
dominance of RNA-world. R: DNA probes bind to the repeat sequences of
Find out the option (1-4) with correct statements. VNTRs on nylon membrane.
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (c)

3. A: Tryptophan operon has five structural genes.
R: Feed back mechanism explains the role of
(3) (b) & (c) (+) (a), (b) & (d) tryptophan in regulation.
224. Which of these may not be a characteristic of a 4. A: Repititive sequences present in introns helps
suitable genetic material? the DNA fingerprinting methodology.
('l) Chemically and structurally be stable
R: Each organism has a specific length,
composition and number of these repeats.
(2) Can express itself in the form of Mendelian 5. A: Priming is essential to initiate the
character polymerisation of nucleotides on 5' end of
(3) Mutation at faster rate only parent DNA.
R : Primer provides stability to single strand of
(4) Capable of producing its replica forked double strand DNA.
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6 A : UGA is an ambiguous codon. 12. A: A repressor of the /ac-operon is synthesized

all the time from the i-gene.
R : UGA is a termination codon but it also codes
for tryptophan in yeast mitochondria.
R: It is a monomeric protein.
13. A: One of the two strands of DNA is called sense
7 A: All DNA polymerases do not have the strand and other is called antisense strand.
property of 5' --) 3' exonuclease.
R: Coding strand of DNA codes for RNA.
R : lt is the sole property of Kornberg enzyme.
14. A: ln DNA linger printing, hybridization is done
8 A: 'Genetic code has three nucleotides' is a very with molecular probe.
bold proposition given bY Gamow.
R: Molecular probe is small DNA segment
R : This permutation combination will generate synthesized in laboratory with known
more codons than required for coding amino sequence that recognise complementary
acids. sequence in RNA.
q A: DNA polymerase cannot initiate the process '15. A: SNP pronounced "snips" are common in
of DNA replication. human genome.
R : DNA replication can initiate randomly on DNA. R It is minute variations that occurs at a
frequency of one in every 300 bases.
10. A: The i gene associated with lac operon of
Ecoli is monocistronic. 16. A: AUG performs dual function in a genetic
code.
R Polycistronic genes are more common in
prokaryotes. R It is an initiation codon and codes for
methionine.
11. A Transcription is immediately followed by
translation in prokaryotes. 17. A: Product of /ac z gene is primarily responsible
for the hydrolysis of a polysaccharide.
R mRNA does not require any elaborate
processing to become functional/mature. R Gene i constitutively metabolises glucose.
trtrtr
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I
Chapter 4
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
6. Mark the correct one w.r.t. bundle sheath in a

dicot leaf
Objective Type Ouestions (1) Sclerenchymatous
'1. A plant tissue with maximum refractive index (2) Collenchymatous
(1) ls rigid with lignified wall
(3) Parenchymatous
(2) ls living with pectin deposition in cell wall
(4) Lignified
(3) Possess large intercellular space that helps in
buoyancy 7. The spring wood present in an annual ring
(4) ls fundamental tissue with chlorophyll (l ) ls dark coloured
2. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. anatomical (2) Has high density than autumn wood
features of monocot root.
(3) Has abundant fibres
('l) Pericycle produces lateral roots and part of
vascular cambium (4) Has low density than autumn wood
(2) Exodermis is present in older roots 8. Bulliform cells are associated with
(3) Conjunctive parenchyma does not produce (1) Epidermis of dorsiventral leaves
cambium
(4) Well developed Pith is Present (2) Adaxial epidermis of isobilateral leaves
3. ln the life cycle of a plant, the secondary tissues (3) Abaxial epidermis of monocot leaves
are made by (4) Mesophylls of dicot leaves
(1 ) lntercalary meristem and vascular cambium
9. A. lntraxylary phloem is formed in bicollateral
(2) Apical meristem and cork cambium open vascular bundles.
(3) Cork-cambium and vascular cambium B. ln dicot root, cork cambium is formed from
(4) Primary meristems and inlerfascicular pericycle.
cambium
(1) BothA& B are correct
4. Casparian strips are present in the endodermis of
(2) A is correct, B is inconect
(1) Monocot stem
(2) Dicot root (3) BothA& B are inconect
(3) Dicot stem (4) B is conect, A is inconect
(4) More than one option is correct 10. Find the incorrect match
5. Stem ol Zea mays plant lacks (1) Latex cells - Ficus
(1) Sieve tube
(2) Latex vessels - Vinca
(2) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Sch2ogenous gland - Pinus
(3) Phloem fibres
(4) Companion cell (4) Extemal gland - Drosera
202 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
11 . Which of the following is correct w.r.t. vascular (3) Primary phloem is obliterated during primary
bundles of monocot stem? growth
(1) Presence of collenchymatous or (4) Phloem lies always external to xylem
parenchymatous bundle sheath
19. Absence of archegonia and presence of
(2) Presence of phloem parenchyma companion cells in phloem are characteristic
(3) Vessels are arranged in V-shaped manner features of _
(4) Schizogenous water cavity is present (1) Monocots only (2) Dicots only
12. ln certain plants like Salvadora, Chenopodium, (3) All angiosperms (4) All spermatophytes
Boerhaavia and Amaranthus the type of phloem 20. Which of the following tissue is not related to shoot
present is apex?
(1) Only external (2) lntraxylary (1) Dermatogen (2) Periblem
(3) lntenylary (4) Only internal (3) Plerome (4) Calyptrogen
13. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
21. Choose odd w.r.t. collenchyma
(1) Closed vascular bundle - Dicot leaf
(1) Living mechanical tissue
(2) Amphivasal vascular bundles - Dracaena
(2) lntercellular space is absent in angular type
(3) Well developed pith - Monocot root
(3) Thickening of wall is due to deposition of lignin
(4) Diffuse porous wood - Quercus
(4) Found in hypodermis of dicot stem
14. ln monocotyledonous stem
22. Match correctly
(1 ) Hypodermis is parenchymatous
(2) Each vascular bundle is surrounded by
I
Column Column ll
collenchymatous bundle sheath a. Libriform fibres (i) Phloem
(3) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally b. Bast fibres (ii) Vessels
larger than centrally located ones c. P-proteins (iii) Sieve tube
(4) Water containing cavities are present within the d. Tylosis (iv) Xylem
vascular bundles
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
15. Primary meristem
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1 ) Originates from permanent tissue
(2) Possess non-vacuolated cells 23. Select incorrect statements from the given below
(3) Develops from secondary permanent tissue (i) Endodermis with casparian strips are found in
dicot stem
(4) Represents primordial meristem
(ii) Endodermis is a part of stele
16. ln grasses, like maize and Psamma, certain
adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify (iii) Amphivasal vascular bundles are found in
themselves into large, empty, colourless cells, monocots
called (iv) Bulliform cells are found in upper epidermis in
(1) Transfusion tissue (2) Albuminous cells isobilateral leaf
(3) Bulliform cells (4) Leptoids (1) (i) and (ii)
'17. A tree can be killed by removing its bark, as this (2) (ii) and (iii)
also removes the_. (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) Phelloderm only (2) Phellem only (4) Only (iv)
(3) Primary xylem (4) Secondary phloem
24. Periderm includes
18. Which one is not true w.r.t. phloem?
(1 ) Only cork cambium
(1) Companion cell and Sieve tube are (2) Cork cambium and cork only
ontogenetically similar in angiosperms
(2) lncluded phloem is produced from vascular (3) Cork and secondary cortex
cambium (4) Cork, Cork cambium and secondary cortex
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25. Fusiform initials and ray initials are part of 32. Plant tissue as air tight dam is
(1) Vascular cambium (1) Epidermis (2) Hypodermis
(2) Fascicular cambium (3) Endodermis (4) PericYcle
(3) lntrafascicular cambium 33. Whole cork cambium originates from
(1) Endodermis in dicot stem
(4) Cork cambium
(2) Hypodermis in monocot stem
26. Which of the following is secondary in origin?
(3) Pericycle in dicot root
('l ) Phellogen
(2) lnterfascicular cambium
34. Mark the incorrect match
(3) Wound meristem (1) Brachysclereids - Fruit of pear plant
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Macrosclereids - Seed coat of legumes
27. Meristems are not characterised by (3) Osteosclereids - Leaves & seed coat of
(1) High surface arealvolume ratio many monocots
(2) Vacuolated cytoplasm (4) Trichosclereids - Leaves of tea
(3) Presence of proplastids 35. Find the odd one out w.r.t. vesselless families of
(4) Cellulosic cell wall angiosperms
(1) Trapaceae (2) Tetracentraceae
28. Dicot roots do not have cambium in vascular
bundles, but during secondary groMh cambium is (3) Trochodendraceae (4) Winteraceae
derived from 36. Periderm includes
(1) Pericycle cells only (1) Phellem, phellogen and secondary xylem
(2) Pericycle and coniunctive tissue (2) Cork, bark and vascular cambium
(3) Conjuctive tissue only (3) Phellogen, cork and secondary cortex
(4) Pericycle and cortex (4) Medulla, phellogen and phelloderm
29. Which is not a feature of monocot stem? 37. Soft wood differs from hard wood in having
Schizolysigenous water cavity

(1) High content of tracheids
(1 )
(2) Low content of vessels
(2) Endarch xylem
(3) High content of vessels
(3) Undifferentiated ground tissue
(4) Low content of tracheids
(4) Bulliform cells
38. Read the following statements
30. During secondary growth in dicot root, first (a) Epidermis is formed from dermatogen
vascular cambium strip is formed fiom
(1) (b) Periblem forms endodermis and pericycle
Pericycle lying above primary phloem
(c) Vascular bundle, pericycle and pith are
(2) Pericycle lying above protoxylem
formed from Plerome
(3) Conjunctive tissue lying below primary phloem Find correct statements for histogen theory
(4) Coniunciive tissue lying above primary phloem (1) All are correct
31. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. the anatomy of (2) Only (b) is correct
monocot stem
(3) Both (a) and (c) are conect
(1) Parenchymatous ground tissue is extended (4) Both (b) and (c) are conect
from hypodermis to centre
39. ln the family cucurbitaceae, the stem has
(2) Hypodermis is made of thick walled living
mechanical tissue (1) 5 ridges vascular bundles
(3) Vascular bundles are conioint, collateral and (2) 10 furrow vascular bundles
closed with endarch xylem (3) 10 ridges vascular bundles
(4) Pith is absent (a) Both (1) & (3)
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40. Conjoint, collateral and close vascular bundles are 49. lntercalary meristems are intercalated in between
found in the permanent tissues. They may be present either
(1) Roots ofwheat (2) Stem ofsunflower at the node as in all except
(3) Leaf of gram (4) Stem of mango ('l Grasses
) (2) Bamboos
41. Vascular bundles in dicot leaves are (3) Mints (4) Pinus
(1) Conioint, collateral and open 50. ln parenchyma, all cells are isodiametric and
(2) Radial, exarch and closed
(1) Thin-walled
(3) Conjoint, bicollateral and open
(2) Thick-walled
(4) Conioint, collateral and closed
(3) Lignified-walled
42. Meristematic tissues are characterized by all
except (4) Devoid of intercellular spaces
(1) The nucleus is bigger in size 5'1. The protorylem vessels, generally have
(2) Colourful plastids are present (1) Scalariform and reticulate thickenings
(3) Ergastic substance is almost absent (2) Annular and spirat thickenings
(4) Retention of power of division
(3) Spiral and pitted thickenings
43. The korper - kappe theory was proposed by
_for_ (4) No thickening
(1) Schuepp, root apex organisation 52. Oil secreting glands in Crlrus represents
(2) Clowes, quiescent centre (1) Schizo-lysigenous cavig
(3) Hanstein, histogen region (2) Schizogenous cavity
(4) Hofmeister, shoot apex organisalion (3) Lysigenous cavity
44. Find odd one out w.r.t. diffuse porous wood
(4) Epithem
(11 Pyrus (2') Morus
53. The centrifugal xylem is the characteristics of
(3) Betula (4) Mangifera
(1) Exarch condition (2) Endarch condition
45. The conjunctive parenchyma cells are lying
(1) Just below each phloem strand (3) Mesarch condition (4) polyarch condition
(2) Just below each xylem strand 54. ln the following
(3) Between endodermis and pericycle (a) Radial vascular bundles
(4) Between phelloderm and periderm (b) Bicollateral vascular bundles
46. Which of the family is related to polyderm?
1t) AOsence of intrafascicutar cambium
(1) Rosaceae (d) Presence of casparian strips
(2) Myrtaceae
Correct combination for Cucurbit,s root or stem
(3) Solanaceae is
(4) More lhan one option is correct (1) a, b and c (2) a and c
47. The group of cells representing initial stages of
meristematic cells is called
(3) a, b and d (4) c and d
(1) Promeristem (2) primordial merislem 55. ln Hydrilla, the xylem is in the centre and is
surrounded by phloem, such vascular bundle is
(3) Ur-meristem (4) Alt of these termed as
48. The cells of quiescent centre have
(1) Hadrocentric (2) Leptocentric
(1 ) High number of mitochondria and very small
dictyosomes
(3) Concentric (4) Amphivasat
(2) Fewer mitochondria and very small 56. The root apex of monocot differs from stem apex
dictyosomes in having
(3) Low RNA and high DNA ('l ) Dermatogen (2) Catyptrogen
(4) High DNA and high RNA (3) Periblem (4) Histogen
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of botany dealing with internal 65. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
57. Branch cells which are formed as a result of tangential
organisation of Plants is called
and periclinal divisions of phellogen cells towards
('l ) Plant histology the outer face?
(2) Plant anatomy (1) Thermal insulation quality
(3) Plant cytology (2) Light weight and inflammable
(4) More than one option is correct (3) lmpervious to water
58. Which one of the following shows heteroxylous (4) Having high amount of suberin
wood?
66. The outer dead cells region of the bark is called
(1) Trochodendron (2) Tetracenfion
(3) Taxus (4) shorea (1) Extractives (2) Polyderm
59. A living mechanical tissue is represented by

(3) Phelloderm (4) Rhytidome
(1) Fibre of Tamarix 67. Choose the correct match
(2) Fibre ol Crotolaia (1) Tracheid - Nageli
(3) Flax fibre (2) Tracheophyta - Sinnot
(4) Xylem fibre of sunflower (3) Phloem - Hartig
60. Match the column I and column ll and choose the (4) Sieve element - Sanio
correct from the assigned codes 68. The monocot showing secondary growth with the
I Column Column ll help of sPecial cambium in
a. Velamen (i) Maize stem (1) Wheat (2\ Dracaena

b. Schizolysigenous cavity (i\ Mnabilis (3) Maize (4) Boerhaavia
c. Medullary bundles (iii) Nyctanfhus 69. Chickle gum is latex of
d. Heteroarchies (iv) Orchid root (1) Hevea species (2) Acf'ras species
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii)' c(iii)' d(iv) (3) Papaver specles (4) Canba species
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii)' c(ii)' d(i) 70. Find odd one out (w.r.t. utility in sports activity)
61. ln which character an isobilateral leaf differs from (1) Betulawood (2) Salix wood
the dorsiventral leaf?
(3) Morus wood (4) lvory Palm wood
(1) Scattered vascular bundles
71. Choose incorrect statement regarding ring
(2) Undifferentiated mesophylls porous wood
(3) Absence of stomata with guard cells (1) lt is represenled bY Dalbergia
(4) Conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundle (2) lt is of superior quality timber
62. The large thin walled epidermal cells called motor (3) lt is present in tree growing in tropical region
cells are Present in
(4) Spring wood are large and ananged in ring
(1 Amphistomatic leaf (2) Hypostomatic
leaf
)
(3) Astomatic leaf (4) Epistomatic leaf 72. Which one of the following is the most durable
ring Porous wood?
63. The age of trees growing in deciduous forest can
be deLrmined witn the help of counting annual
(1\ Cedrus deodara (2\ Tectona grandis
rings, this area of science is known as (3) Dalbergia sr'sso

(4\ Guaiacum officinale
(1) Dendrology 73. Which of the following is incorrect w'r't'
(2) Dendrochronology meristematic tissue?
(3) DendrograPhY (1) Prominent nucleus with dense cytoplasm

(4) Plant gerontology (2) lsodiametric with intercellular spaces
64. Bladder like ingrowth in duramen is exhibited by (3) Metabolically active with high
karyocytoplasmic ratio
(1) Thylosoids (2) Tylosoids
(4) Absence of ergastic substances
(3) Tyloses (4) Callose Pad
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74. Root cap is formed from which tissue in dicot 82. Tissue which provides mechanical strength and
roots?
flexibility to young dicot stem is present in
(l) Catyptrogen (2) Dermatogen (1) Pith (2) Endodermis
(3) Procambium (4) periblem (3) Hypodermis (4) Cortex
75. Which type of thickenings are generally present in 83. The ground tissue system is constituted by all of
the first formed tracheids?
these, except
(1) Spiral and sclariform (2) Annular and pitted (1) Meduttary rays (2) pericycte
(3) Pitted and reticulate (4) Spiral and annular (3) Mesophy (4) Xytem
76. Secondary medullary rays are formed from 84. ln dicot root, lateral roots and vascular cambium
(1) Fusiform initiats (2) Ray initiats arise from
(3) Phellogen (4) tntercatary meristem (1) Cortex & endodermis respectively
77. During the formation of vegetative shoot in higher (2) Cortex & pericycle respectively
plants
(3) Cortex & conjunctive tissue respectively
(1) Summit cells are more active than flank (4) Pericycle & conjunctive tissue respectively
(2) Ftank shows high mitotic activity 85. Plant tissue enriched with starch granules in dicot
(3) Both flank and summit cells are equally active stem is
(4) Leaf primordia differentiated from summit cells (1) Present outside pericycle
undergo mass meristem division (2) Cottenchymatous
78. Activity of secondary meristem in steler region in (3) Parenchymatous with intercellular spaces
dicot stem leads to
(4) Pecto-cellutosic thick walled
(1) Obliteration of secondary phloem
86. Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundles
(2) Ditation of cambium without phloem parenchyma are found in plants
(3) Obtiteration of primary xytem which have
(4) Distinct sap wood and heart wood in tropical (1) Differentiated ground tissue in stem
79. Anatomically the wood of angiosperms is different (2) Dedifferentiated pericyclic structure in mature
from that of gymnosperms in the rool
(1) Absence of secondary xylem as wood (3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis in stem
(2) Presence of secondary phloem for food (4) Developed pith in stem
conduction 87. The tissue belonging to bark but not to periderm is
(3) Presence of companion cells controlling (1) Vascular cambium
osmotic balance of ontogenically related cell;
(2) Secondary phtoem
(4) Absence of parfly primary and parfly
secondary origin of cambium (3) Phettem
80. Secondary growth in dicot roots is (4) Secondary cortex
not
characterised by 88. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. lenticels?
(1) Partly primary and parfly secondary origin of a. Phellogen forms parenchymatous cells on
cambium outer side
(2) PuIely secondary origin of cambium b. lt is a lens shaped opening
(3) Wavy ring of cambium c. Helps in exchange of gases
(4) Deditrerentiation of conjuctive parenchyma cells d. Present mosfly in woody trees
81. A xerophytic plant having multilayered upper (1)a&bconect
epidermis of leaf and sunken stomata is
(2) c&dcorrect
(1) Capparis (2) Nerium (3) b,c&dcorect
(3) Casuarina (4) Agropyron (4) All are correct
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89. ldentify the incorrect match w.r.t. wood 96. lnterxylary phloem is
characters given in A, B, C mlumn
(1) Developed from procambium
A ; C
Large no. (2) lnternal phloem
(1) Early Spring VVide
of xylary (3) Associated with bicollateral bundles
wood wood cavities
elements
Late Few xylary Autumn Nanow
(4) lncluded phloem
(2)
wood elements wood cavities 97. Which of the following is not the component of
Filled with secondary phloem?
(3) Heart Dark brown Dead
resins and
wood in colour elernents gums (1) Protophloem (2) Bast fibres
(41 sap Light in Living

Conducts (3) Companion cells (4) Phloem parenchyma
water and
wood colour elernents 98. Monocot root differs from dicot root in
minerals
90. Which of the following is not a redifferentiated (1) Having differentiated ground tissue
structure?
(2) Presence of centripetal xylem
(1) Phellogen
(3) Pericyclic origin of lateral roots
(2) Duramen
(3) Phelloderm (4) Presence of large and well developed pith
(4) More than one option is correct 99. Endodermis of root can be called as
91. ln a leaf, oval cells with large intercellular spaces (1) Endodermoid (2) Organ suigeneris
and radlally arranged columnar cells without
intercellular spaces are placed respectively
(3) Air tight dam (4\ de novo
towards 100 The bark being used as substitute of paper is
(1) Adaxial and abaxial epidermis and obtained from _
(2) Abaxial and adaxial epidermis (1) Scaly bark, Acacia (2) Ring bark, Psrd,rrm
(3) Abaxial and lower epidermis (3) Ring bark, Eetula (4) Scaly ba/r., Betula
(4) Lower and abaxial epidermis 101 Protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem
92. Grittiness of fruits is because of lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of
(1) Brachysclereids (2) Osteosclereids xylem is present in _
(3) Asterosclereids (4) Macrosclereids (1) Secondary root
93. Match the following (2) Primary stem
Column I Column ll (3) Secondary stem
a. Aerenchyma (i) pericycle (4) primary root
b' Bordered pits (ii) sieve tubo 102. lntemar structure of monocot stem is difierent from
c. Perivascular fibres (iii) Fundamental tissue the dicot stem in the
d. callos€ prug (iv) Tracheids (1) Absence of conjoint vascular bundles
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i)' d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) presence of corenchymatous hypodermis
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
' " -' ' (3) Presence of undifierentiated ground tissue
94. Non€rticutated raticifers ;;* ;;
(1) Moraceae ";
(2) Euphorbiacea. Q) Absence of xylem parenchyma
(3) Compositae (4) Apocyanaceae 103. A complete and continuous wavy cambium ring in
dicot root is formed due to the activity of
95. select the rncorr.ct statement w.r.t. rate wood
(1) lt forms a narow strip in annual rings (1) conjunc-tive tissue only
(2) Has smaller and nanower vessels (2) COnjunctive tissue and pericyde
(3) Darker in colour (3) Perirycle only
(4) Fibres are less (4) pericycle and endodermis
104. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. monocot root 112. Select the group of tissues which are formed by
(1) The xylem bundles are usually more than six deiifferentiation in a dicotyledonous plant
(2) Pith is very large (1) Secondary xylem, cork cambium and root
cambium
(3) Secondary groMh does not take place
(4) Endodermis possess thick walled passage (2) lnterfascicular cambium, intrafascicular
cells cambium and cork cambium
105. Essential oils are found in (3) Root cambium, cork cambium and inter
fascicular cambium
(1) Sap wood
(2) Heart wood (4) Cork cambium, vascular cambium ring of
stem and phellem
(3) Duramen
113. Elongated or tube like cells with thick and lignified
walls and tapering ends is
106. Plant tissue with thin walled living cells, vacuoles
(1) Tracheids
and intercellular space is
(1) Meristem (2) Lacunate collenchyma (2) Vessel
(3) Parenchyma (4) Angular collenchyma (3) Sieve tube
107. Dimorphic mesophyll cells are not differentiated in (4) Collenchyma
the leaf of
114. As compared to monocot root, the dicot root
(1) Pea (2) China rose
has/shows
(3) Sunflower (4) Banana
('l) Large and well developed pith
108. Secondary permanent tissue is produced from
precursor cells or tissues afler (2) Primary grorvth only
(1)Differentiation (2)Dedifierentiation (3) Sclerenchymatous pericycle
(3)Redifferentiation (4)Accretion (4) Fewer xylem bundles
'109. Which one of the following are elongated single- 1'15. Which of the following wood is darker and has
celled water conducting dead structures with high density?
bordered pits?
(1) Spring wood
(1) Tracheids
(2) Vessels (2) Late wood
(3) Sclerenchyma fibres (3) Early wood
(4) Sclereids (4) More than one option is correct
110. Lenticels are present in 1'16. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. stem hairs called
(1) Outer primary protective tissue trichomes
(2) Outer layer of secondary protective tissue (1) Can be soft or stifi
(3) Middle layer of secondary protective tissue (2) Usually multicellular
(4) lnner layer of secondary protective tissue (3) May be secretory
111. Cells having cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin (4) Always unbranched
deposits on wall and shows its presence
commonly in petiole of leaf and growing green 117. Stems of Zea mays and sunflower are similar to
stems belong to each other in having
(1) Sclerenchyma (1) Phloem parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma (2) Endarch primary xylem
(3) Aerenchyma (3) Conspicuous undifferentiated ground tissue
(4) Parenchyma (4) Ring arrangement of vascular bundles
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118. Which of the given figure repreisents internal 124. Choose the conect option vv.rt. sclereids
structurar detairs of a monocot root? (1) physiologicafly active
(2) Pits are present
(3) Derived from meristems directly
(4) Little amount of protoplasm is present
(1) (2t '125. Find the correct match
(1) Motor cells : Dicot leaf epidermis

(2) Pericycle : Casparian strip
(3) Oil glands : Lysigenous origin
(4) Latex vessel : Non-articulated
laticifers
126. Bicollateral vascular bundles in gourd family
(3) (4) (1) Have interxylary phloem
(2) Are always closed
(3) Have intraxylary phloem
119. The most abundant and common tissue in plants (4) Do not possess two cambium strips
(1) Has non-vacuolated cytoplasm 127. Which is not a feature of barley stem?
(2) ls living and has cellulosic wall (i ) presence of collateral, conjoint vascular
(3) Stor€s ergastic substances always bundles
(4) Cannot take part in photosynthesis (2) Schizogenous water cavity is present
'120. Meristem derived directy from embryonal meristem (3) Presence of most advanced type of stele
i" (4) Undiferentiated ground tissue
('l) secondary meristem 128. lsobilateral leaf is characterized by all the given
(2) Primary meristem characteristics, except
(3) Pro-meristem (1) Vascular bundles are always closed
(4) 'Ur' meristem (2) Xylem is towards adaxial surface of leaf
121. secondary meristems are foundin (3) Mesophyll cells are not differentiated
(1) All angiosperm" (4) parenchymatous extensions of bundle sheath
(2) Gymnosperms and all monocots 129. Collenchyma is characterised by
(3) Dicots and gymnosperm" (1) Absence of protoplast at maturity
(4) All spermatophytes
(2) Supporting young stem and leaf petiole
122' Monocot stems do not have
(3) Lignocellulosic thickenings on secondary walls
('l) Protophloem
(4) common presence of intercellular spaces
(2) Phloem parenchyma
130. Epidermal hairs on stems known as trichomes
(3) companion cell in phloem
(i) May sometjmes be secretory in function
(4) Sieve tube and metaphloem
(2) Have vascular supply
123. Which of these is responsible for lateral
plants?
translocation in (3) May be soft or stiff but unbranched always
(1) Medullary rays (4) Are endogenous in origin like lateral roots
(2) Vessels 131. Steler tissue system in shoot is derived from
(3) Companion cells (l ) Dermatogen (2) Periblem
(4) Xylem parenchyma (3) Plerome (4) Tunica
132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bast fibres '139. ln which of the following tissue the cells are much
(a) Generally absent in primary phloem thickened at the corners due to a deposition of
cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin?
(b) Elongated, branched with blunt ends
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(c) Parenchymatous in nature
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Prosenchyma
(d) Becomes dead at maturity '140. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. inlernal structure of
(1) a & d monocot stem
(2) b&d (1) Absence of pith
(3) b&c (2) Parenchymatous hypodermis
(4) a&b (3) Endodermis is absent
133. Monocot root is anatomically similar to the dicot (4) Scattered vascular bundles
root in
14'1. Polyderm is
(1) Possessing radial vascular bundles with
(1) A protective tissue
exarch xylem
(2) Presence of well developed central pith (2) A living tissue
(3) Having diarch to hexarch vascular bundles (3) A non-suberised tissue
(4) Absence of passage cells (4) Present in leaves

142. Mark a, b, c and d
134. Phellogen is a kind of secondary meristem
(1) Cutting phelloderm outside and phellem inside
(2) Usually developing in the cortex region of d
dicot stem
b
(3) Forming non-suberised cells outside
(4) Made of narrow, thick walled, suberised cells
c
135. As a tree grows older, thickness of _
increases
(1) Duramen (2) Alburnum
a
(3) Sap wood (4) Early wood
(1) Metaxylem, protoxylem, cortex, trichome
136. Bark refers to all the tissues
(2) Endodermis, cortex, protoxylem, root hair
(1) External to vascular cambium
(3) Endodermis, cortex, metaxylem, root hair
(2) External to cork cambium
(4) Pericycle, corlex, metaxylem, trichome
(3) Formed earlier in the season
'143. Which of the following character is concemed with
(4) lmpregnated with suberin the meristematic cells?
137. Which is not a feature of heart wood? ('l ) Few ribosomes
(1) Central in position (2) Small nucleus and dense cytoplasm
(2) Presence of tracheal plugs (3) High biosynthetic activity
(3) Actively conducting (4) Loosely arranged cells
(4) Dead with deposition of extractives 144. Sieve tube elements are long, tube-like structures,
138. Cambium ring in dicot root is formed from arranged longitudinally and are associaled with the
companion cells. A mature sieve element
(1) All cells of pericycle and conjunctive tissue
(1) Has a small vacuole
(2) Pericycle lying opposite to protoxylem and
conjunctive tissue (2) Lacks nucleus and cytoplasm
(3) Cells of medullary parenchyma (3) Possesses a large vacuole and small nucleus
(4) Cortical cells and conjunctive tissue (4) Possesses a peripheral cytoplasm
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Anatomy of Flowering Plants 211
145 Which of the following statement is concemed with 151 Mark the conect statement (w.r.t. lateral meristem)
the anatomy of dicot root? (1) Secondary meristem producing primary
('l) Presence of small or inconspicuous medulla permanent tissues
(2) Absence of parenchymatous pericycle (2) lntercalary meristem producing secondary

permanent tissues
(3) Absence of suberin at the tangential as well
as radial walls of endodermal cells (3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondary
tissues
(4) Presence of sclerenchymatous conjunctive
(4) Promeristem producing secondary permanent
tissue
tissues
146 During the secondary growth in dicot stem, the
152. Match the column I with column ll
cambial ring becomes active and begins to cut off
new cells both towards the inner and the outer Column I Column ll
sides. The cells cut off a. Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of
('l) Towards pith, mature into secondary phloem the monocots
(2) Towards periphery, mature into secondary b. Sclereids (ii) Long cylindrical
tube-like structure
rylem
(3) Towards pericycle, mature into secondary c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins
xylem as well as secondary phloem d. Vessel (iv) Fruit walls of nuts
(4) Mature into secondary vascular tissues (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
147. Phellem as well as phelloderm both (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (a) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
('1 ) Make up the phellogen 153 which of the following occurs first during
secondary growth in dicot root?
(2) Are secondary permanent tissues
(1) Primary meristem becomes active present
(3) Are formed during steler secondary groMh below phloem
(4) Are made by vascular cambium (2) Cambium strips are formed from conjunctive
tissue lying just below each phloem strand
148. The part of grass consumed by a grazing animal
can be regenerated by the activity of (3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle
opposite to protoxylem
(1) Lateral primary meristem
(4) A wavy ring of cambium develops
(2) Lateral secondary meristem
154 a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem
(3) lntercalary meristem and medullary rays.
(4) Apical meristem b. Wood of Cycas has vessels.
149 Bark includes a variety of tissue types like c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves
(1) Phellem, secondary xylem and secondary of sunflower and maize.
phloem Which of above statement(s) is/are correct?
(2) Periderm and all kinds of secondary tissues (1) a&barecorrect (2) b&careconect
(3) Phellogen, secondary phloem, phellem and (3) Only a is conect (4) Only c is conect
secondary cortex 155 Choose the conect statement
(4) Phelloderm, secondary phloem and primary (1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork
rylem cambium
150 Stem of barley differs from stem of sunflower in (2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and
presence of protophloem
(1) Conjoint, collaterai bundles (3) Primary xylem does not show distinction into
protoxylem and metaxylem
(2) Endarch, eustelic bundles
(4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts off
(3) Scattered, closed bundles parenchymatous cells on the outer side
(4) Well differentiated ground tissue instead of phellem
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'156. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the 163 Select the odd one out w.r.t. tissues
plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is
provided by a living tissue called
('l ) A group of cells having a common origin
(2) They usually perform a common function
(1) Collenchyma (2) Aerenchyma
(3) Complex tissues are made of more than one
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma type of cells
157. Which of the following is correct statement for (4) They are not capable of division
intercalary meristems?
164 Which of the following component of phloem is
(1) They lie at tip of root apex mainly responsible for storage of food material and
(2) They lie at base of stem always other substances like resins, latex and mucilage?
(3) They are short lived and consumed during (1) Sieve tube (2) Companion cell
primary growth (3) Bast fibres (4) Phloem parenchyma
(4) They are long lived and cause increase in 165 Complimentary tissue is characteristically present
length in
158. Girdling experiment cannot be performed in ('l) Tyloses (2) Lenticels

sugarcalne plant because (3) Hydathodes (4) Stomata
(1) lts stem is thin 166 Which of these is regarded as reserve meristem?
(2) lts vascular bundles are arranged in scattered
manner
(1 ) Promeristem
(2) Quiescent centre
(3) lts stem surface is coated with wax
(3) Calyptrogen
(4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem
(4) Primary meristem
167 lnstead of closed vascular bundles in dicot roots,
I
Column Column ll secondary growth occurs by lhe formation of
a. Papain (i) Betula cambium ring which develops from
b. Diffuse porous wood (ii) Quercus ('1) Conjunctive tissue and pericycle
c. Lithocysts (liiJ. Carica papaya (2) Passage cell and pericycle
d. Ring porous wood (iv) Ficus leaf (3) Pericycle only
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Conjunctive tissue and pith
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 168 Find odd one out wr.t. dedifierentiated meristems
160. Dicot root is different from monocot root in having

(1) lnterfascicular cambium in dicot stem
(1) Fewer xylem bundles (2) Cambium ring in dicot root
(2) Polyarch mndition (3) Phellogen in dicot root

(4) Procambium in plants
(3) Large and well developed pith
169 Type of vascular bundles found in monocot stem
(4) Pericycle
is
161. During secondary growth in dicot root, first
(1) Collateral
vascular cambium strip is formed from
(2) Amphicribal
(1) Conjunctive tissue lying above primary phloem
(3) Conjoint, closed
(2) Pericycle lying above protoxylem
(3) Pericycle lying above primary phloem
170 Which one of the following tissues get gradually
(4) Conjunctive tissue lying below primary phloem crushed due to the continued formation and
162. Pneumatophores are helpful in accumulation of semndary xylem?
('l) Transpiration (1) Primary xylem
(2) Assimilation of food (2) Primary phloem and secondary xylem
(3) Guttation (3) Pith and primary xylem
(4) Getting oxygen (4) Primary phloem and semndary phloem
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Anatomy of Floweri Plants 213
17'l . Living mechanical tissue with thickening at the cells 176. When protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)
corners possess deposition of and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of
(1) Lignin the organ, the primary xylem is called
(2) Cellulose and Pectin only (1) Endarch; present in stem
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin (2) Endarch; Present in roots
(4) Cellulose only (3) Exarch; Present in stem
172. Which of the following is absent in monocot root?
(4) Exarch; present in roots
(1) Phloem Parenchyma
177. Mark the inconect statement w.r.t. guard cells in
(2) Pith
stomata
(3) Sieve tube
(1) ln grasses these are dumb-bell shaped
(4) Contripetal xylem
(2) They possess chloroplasts
173. Which of the following statement for trichomes is
correct? (3) Regulate opening and closing of stomata
(1) Usually unicellular (4) Outer walls are thick and inner walls are thin
(2) Epidermal hairs of stems and roots in dicots
(3) Always non-secretory 178. Which of the following pair of characters (A & B)
(4) Help in preventing water loss due to is correct for the internal structure of monocot
transpiration stem?
174. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? (1) A - lt has sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(1) xylem fibres have obliterated central lumens and sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
(2) Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocot B - lt has large, conspicuous
stem parenchymatous ground tissue
(3) The first formed secondary phloem consists of
protophloem (2) A- Radial and tangential walls of the
endodermis have a deposition of waxy
(4) Adaxially arranged mesophyll cells are
material suberin
elongated and vertically or parallely placed to
each other in dicots B- Pith is large and well developed
175. ldentify the mismatched Pair: (3) A - Conjunctive tissue, lie between xylem
Tissue Feature and phloem
(1) Thick walled, elongated
and pointed cells Present
B- Vascular bundles are ananged in rings
in hypodermis of dicot (4) A - Phloem parenchyma is present, and
stem water containing cavities are present
outside the vascular bundles
(2\ Forms the major
B- Vascular bundles are surrounded by a
component within plant
organs layer of thin walled bundle sheath cells
179. ln grasses, ce(ain adaxial epidermal cells along
(3)
G Commonly found in pulp
of fruits like guava, Pear
and sapota
the veins modify themselves into large, empty and
colourless cells, known as
(1) MesoPhYll
(2) Bundle sheath cells

(4) at Provide mechanical
support to growing parts (3) Bulliform cells
J.t of plant (4) Casparian strips
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214 Anatomy of Flowering ptants
Last Leap for NEET (Partl )
'180. Arrange the following diagrams in correct order 184. well developed pith is present in
according to the events occuninq durino secondarv
growth in dicot stem. (1) Dicot stem, monocot root
(2) Monocot stem, dicot root
(3) Dicot root, dicot stem
a b. (4) Monocot root, monocot stem
185. Which of the fottowing function is performed by
pericycle of dicot root?
(1) Lateral root formation

c. d. (2) Lateral meristem formation
(3) Part of vascular cambium
(1) b, d, c, a (2r b, a' d, c (4) More than one option is correct
(3) d, a' b' c (4) d, b, a, c
186. Heart wood is differentiated from sap wood in
181. All are the features of heart wood, except b€ing
A. Forms greater part of secondary xylem in old (1) peripheral in position
trees.
B. Light in colour. (2) Resistant to the attack of microorganisms and
insects
C. Constitutes peripheral region of secondary
xylem. (3) Lighter in colour and lignified
D. lt is hard and durable due to deposition of (4) Hard, durable and help in conduction of water
organic compounds, essential oils etc. 1g7. Exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere
E lt is physiologically active and is comprised of and tha inteinal tissue of the woody stem is
living elements. possible by
F. lnvolved in the conduction of water and (1) Hydathodes
minerars from root to reaf.
(1) A, D & F (2) B, C, E & F (2) Lens shaped openings
(3) D,E&F (4) B,D&E (3) Stomata
182. During secondary growth in dicot root (4) Gas vacuoles
(1) Vascular cambium arises completely from 188. The permanent tissue that forms the major
conjunctive parenchyma component within the organs
(2) Growth rings are distinct with spring wood (1) provides mechanicar support to the growing
alternating with autumn wood parts of plant.
(3) Phellogen arises from the epidermis
(4) vascurar cambium in comprete and continuous
o' of
but wavy ring
fij[:#,il:1":L:,[X""H".:T"function
(3) ls made up of four different kinds of elements.
183. Which of the following are formed through
dedifferentiation? (4) ls usually dead without protoplast and has
a. Secondary xylem thick lignified cell wall
b. Cork cambium 189. ln leaves, the ground tissue consists of thin-walled

chloroplast containing cells' called
c. lntrafascicular cambium
d. lnterfascicular cambium ( 1) Trichomes
e. lntercalary meristem (2) Conjuctive parenchyma

(1) b&d (2) a&c (3) Cortex
(3) d&e (4) c&d (4) Mesophyil
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Anatomy of Flowerinq Plants 215
190. Which of the following structures labelled as A, B, '194. Choose incorrect option. w.r.t simple permanent
C and D represents complete and continuous wavy tissue
ring of vascular mmbium?
]lssue + Parenchyma Collenchyma Sclerenchyma
Feature--l
(1) Protoplasl
can be + c€n be +
(2)
assimilation
(3) Occurrence i,t, D M DM
C (4) Thin Thick Thick
D
where + is present, - is absent, M is monocot, D
is Dicot.
(1) A 195. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
lenticels?
(2) B
(3) c ('l ) Show exudation of droplets from bark surface
(4) D
(2) Loss of solution having \rs as more negative
191. Which among the following cannot be a feature of

(3) Presence of closely arranged
given diagram? parenchymatous cells
(4) Restricted to tip of leaves

196. Types of vascular bundles found in the members
of family Cucurbitaceae axis
(1) Conjoint bicollateral closed
(2) Conjoint bicollateral open
(3) Conjoint collateral open
(4) Conioint collateral closed
197 . Vascular bundles of leaf are similar to
(1) lt is a long cylindrical tube like structure
(1) Vascular bundles of monocot stem
(2) Having lignified walls
(2) Vascular bundles of dicot stem
(3) Having large central cavity
(3) Vascular bundles of monocot root
(4) Having protoplasm
(4) Vascular bundles of dicot root
192. Secondary medullary rays are
198. Grafting cannot be done in monocots because
(1) Nanow band of parenchyma
(1) Vascular bundles are scattered
(2) Ananged transversely
(2) Cambium is absent
(3) Dead and lignified
(3) Parenchyma is least developed
(4) Formed by primary cambium
(4) Vascular bundles are ananged in ring
193. An annual ring consists of two kinds of wood that
appear as alternate concentric rings. The two 199. ln cucurbitaceous plants where ridges and groove
types of wood are formed at time and by are formed, hypodermis is present only
the activity of _. below the ridges
(1) Same, Vascular cambium (1) Collenchymatous

-
(2) Difierent, Cork cambium (2) Parenchymatous
(3) Same, Cork cambium (3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Different, Vascular cambium (4) Prosenchymatous
200. Pericycle is related to all the given activities, 3 A: ln winter the sieve tube elements may
except become blocked with deposition of p, 1-3
g lucan.
(1) Origin of lateral roots in both dicots and
monocots R : Submicroscopic fibrils called p-protein occur in
the sieve tube elements.
(2) Origin of cork cambium in dicot root
4 A: The secondary xylem is derived from
(3) Origin of part of cambium in dicot root procambium during secondary growth.
(4) Origin of cork cambium in monocot root R: The amount of secondary xylem is almost
201. Mark the correct statements w.r.t. meristematic equal to the amount of secondary phloem.
tissues 5 A : Cork is not peeled out when the plant age is
A. The meristem that occurs at the tip of roots below 20 years.
and shoots contributes to the formation of the R : lt gives virgin cork with little commercial value.
primary plant body.
B. The lateral meristems are responsible for
6 A: Amount of secondary xylem produced is more
than the secondary phloem in dicot stem.
producing the secondary tissues.
C. Some cells 'left behind' from lateral meristem,
R: Cambium is generally more active on the
inner side than on the outer.
constitute the axillary bud.
D. The cells which are structurally and 7 A: Phellogen is secondary meristem that form
functionally specialised and lose the ability to cork on outer side and secondary cortex on
divide are called meristems. inner side.
(1) A&C (2) A&B R: Phellogen is formed every year from
hypodermis and pericycle in dicot root and
(3) B&c (4) c&D
dicot stem respectively.
8 A: Phelloderm and phellem are secondary
SECTION . B permanent tissues.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R: They are formed through redifierentiation.
9 A: ln dicot stem, the amount of heart wood
remains constant throughout the life span of
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the plant.
assertion, then mark ('l ) R: The activity of cambium ring stops after
certain time.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 10. A Vascular cambium is completely secondary in
assertion, then mark (2) origin in dicot root.
(3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is R It is formed by redifferentiation.
false, then mark (3)
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false 11. A Meristematic zone of root has thin cells,
dense cytoplasm and vacuolated condition.
statements, then mark (4)
1. A : Pericycle is always made up of both R This zone shows maximum groMh.
parenchyma and sclerenchyma. 12. A Spring wood is darker in colour and has lower
R:The pericycle is heterogenous as well as density.
homogenous in monocot.
R Cambium is less active in spring season.
2. A: Parenchymatous cushions like structure of
13. A Secondary groMh is absent in monocots.
ovary bear ovules.
R : The whole ovary matures into seeds. R Monocots lack vascular cambium.
o D tr
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Chapter 5
Morphology of Flowering Plants

6 ln pea( cashew-nut and strawberry plants
SECTION . A
(1) Simple dry fruits are present
Obiective Type Questions
(2) True fruits are present
1 Match the following
(3) Aggregate fruits are present
Column I Column ll
(4) Edible part of fruit is fleshy thalamus
a. Nodulose root (i) Momordica
7 Endosperm is not present in the mature seeds of
b. Moniliform root (iiJ. Beta vulgaris
(1) Bean, gram
c. Epiphyllous root (iiil Curcuma amada
(2) Pea, cucumber
d. Napiform root (ivJ. Bryophyllum
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Castor, bean
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (a) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) More than one option is correct
2 Phylloclade is different from phyllode in the 8 Floral formula of mustard plant is
presence of
61 Yo( \urc,.r.ra &rn G,
(1) Axallary bud (2) Photosynthesis
(3) Nodes and flowers (4) Limited growth p1 o$,9,,",orr,oeo
Leaves that stand at right angle to next upper or
3
lower pair in 1e1 *{q,,6,}.q,
(1) Calotropis (2\ Eugenia 4 z--
(4) e I P3_3&_3G{!'
(3\ Alstonia (4\ Helianthus
9. Solanum tuberosum and Allium cepa are similar
4 ln hypanthodium inflorescence in presence of
(1) lnvolucre is cup shaped (1) Axile placentation
(2) Three types of bisexual flowers are present (2) Epipetalous condition
(3) Flowers are not exposed (3) Versatile anther
(4) The receptacle does not become fleshy (4) Obliquely placed ovary
5 Which of the following figure represents the 10. Find out the incorrect statement
quincuncial aestivation?
o
(1) ln F,bus, several achenal fruitlets are present
in each syconus fruit
(1) (2)
(2) ln pineapple and strawberry, the fruit is formed
by fusion of many flowers
(3) The schizocarpic fruits of maple are winged
,r, (4) (4) ln pomegranate, the edible part is succulent
\ ) testa
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$ Morphology of Flowering Plants Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
11. An incorrect match is 17. Didynamous and tetradynamous conditions are

respectively present in
(1) Phylloclade - Casuarina
(2) Lianas _ Hiptage (1) Brinlal, lily (2) Lily, China rose
(3) Straggling rhizome - Lotus (3) China rose, pea (4) Salvia and mustard
(4) Cladode - Muehlenbeckia 18. weights
The seeds oI Abrus precatorius are used as
by jewellers lt belongs to family
12. which of the foflowing feature is not associated
with the largest and most advanced family of (1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae
dicots? (3) Asteraceae (4) Liliaceae
('l ) Syngenesious and epipelalous stamens 19. Trichome is related with all, except
(2) Axile placentation ('l ) Unicellular elongation of epidermis in roots
(3) lnferior ovary (2) Epidermal hairs on stem

(4) Cypsela fruit (3) Branched or unbranched and secretory
13. Which of the following set is correct? (4) Prevent water loss due to transpiration
(1) Cyathium - Several female - Poinsettia 20. Find odd one out w.r.t. stilt roots
flowers : single
male flower (1) Pandanus (2) Zea
(2) Capitulum - Termrnalbisexual - Sunflower
(31 Saccharum (4) Ficus
frffierat
nora,erano
aclinornorphic 21. A flower is said to be asymmetric or irregular if it
cannot be divided in rwo simirar harves by any
(3) verticiraster - ilm;':ffi" - rursi
ending in vertical plane passing through the centre, as in
cyme
monodnsiat () Canna (2,1 Datura
(4) Hypanthodium- Several bisexual - Banvan
flowers inside a (3) Cassla (4) Erassica
fleshv receptacle
22. Malch column I with column ll
14. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. placentation
column I column ll
(1) Superficial is most primitive and basal
placentation is most advanced a Siliqua (i) Fieshy testa
(2) ln family solanaceae axile placentation is b Pomegranate (ii) Marginal placenta
observed c. Coconut (iii) Endosperm
(3) In basal placentation number of ovule is single d. Legume (iv) Parietal placenta
per ovary (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) tn free centrat placentation ovary is muttilocutar (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
15 Match column I with column ll 23. choose odd one out w.r.t. characteristic feature of
Column I Column ll family Papilionaceae
(Plant) (Type of fruit) (1) Diadelphous stamen
a. Banana (i) Sorosis (2) One to many seeded fruit
b. Almond (ii) Nut (3) Vexillary aestivation
c. Litchi (iii) Berry (4) Trimerous flower
d. Jack fruit (iv) Drupe 24. ln garden pea plant, stamens are united to form
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) one bundle
16. Find the odd one oul w.r.l. inflorescence (2) Two bundles
(1)Atropa (21 Datura (3) Three bundles
(3\ Minosa (41 Begonia (4) Four bundles
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) lvlorp hology of Flowering Piants 219
25. Aestivation in which one margin of floral leaves 30. Which is incorrect w.r.t. pneumatophore?
overlaps regularly the margin of an adjacent floral (1) They are found in all aquatic plants
leaf is
(2) They are also known as respiratory roots
(1) lmbricate (3) They bear small pores lenticels
(2) Quincuncial (4) They have corky layer in lower part
(3) Contorted 31. Woody climbers are
(4) Descending imbricate climber
(1) Tendril (2) Scramblers
26. Below labelled structures (A and B) in the diagram (3) Lianas (4) Root climbers
represent modification of 32. Choose incorrect Pair
B
(1) Offset - Eichhornia
(2) Corm - Allium ceqa
(3) Phylloclade - Oquntia
(4) Cladode - Ruscus aculeatus
33. Large pitcher in Nepenthes is modified
(1) Stipule of leaf (2) Petiole of leaf
(3) Leaf aPex (4) Lamina
34. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. racemose

(1)A-Stem B - Leaf inflorescence
(2) A - Bud B - Leaf (1) Main axis continues to grow
(3) A-Leaf B-Bud (2) Peduncle bears flowers in basipetal /
(4) A- Leaf B - Leaf centrifugal manner
for (3) Main axis is not terminated into flower

27. which one of the statement is correct
colchicine yielding family? (4) lt is an indeterminate inflorescence
(1) Dichlamydeous flower with epipetalous 35' Match the column
condition I column column ll
(2) Superior ovary with basal placentation a. Catkin (i) Ficus caica
(3) Epiphyllous condition with axile placentation b' Spadix
(ii) Morus alba
(4) Trimerous and epigynous flower c' Hypanthodium \iii\ Ocimum sanctum
d' verticillaster (iv) colocasla
28. Multiple root cap is found in
(1|Lemna(2|Pistia(1)a(ii),b(iv),c(i),d(iii)(2)a(ii),b(iv),c(iii),d(i)
t3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii)' b(i)' c(iv)' d(iii)
(3) Eichhomia (4) Pandanus
36. Shape of intundibuliform corolla is
29. Match the following (1) B€ll-shaped (2) Funnel-shaped
Column I Column ll (3) Hood-shaped (a) Bilipped
a. Conical root (i) Raphanus sativus 37. ln syngenesious andr@cium
b. Fusiform root (ii) Mirabilis ialapa (1) Anthe6 are ft€e while filamenB are fused
c'Napiformroot(iii)Daucuscarcta(2)Anthersaswellasfilamentsbotharefree
d'Tuberousroot(iv)&tavutgais(3)Stamensarefusedbyantherswhilefilaments
are tree
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv)' b(i), c(ii)'d(iii) (4) s-tamens are tus6d by borh firaments as wel
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii)' b(iv)' c(i)' d(ii) as anther
-,--"rfr"r* IiifiT
220 Morphology of Ftoweri ng Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
38 Choose correct pair (1) Phyllode (2) Phyttoctade
Placentation Example (3) Cladode ( ) Hypsophytt
(1) Marginal - Dianthus, Silene 47. Find correct match
(2) Axile - pea, Acacia Column-l Column-ll
(3) Parietal - Lemon, petunia a. Spikelet (i) lnvotucre
(4) Basal - Titicum, Sun flower b. Capitulum (ii) Spathe
39 Position of ovary is superior in c. Hypanthodium (iii) Gtume
('l)Hypogynous flower (2) Perigynous flower d. Spadix (iv) Gall flower
(3) Epigynous flower (4) Mesogynous flower (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), qii), d(iv)
40. Which of the following fruit is formed from superior (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
unilocular monocarpellary ovary with marginal
placentation? 48. Find correct match with respect to edible parts of
fruit
(1) Pod (2) Siticuta
(3) Siliqua
Column{ Golumn{l
(4) Capsute
41. Choose correct w.r.t. type of fruit
a. Mango (i) Fleshy thalamus
(1) Litchi
b. Apple (ii) placental hairs
- Berry
c. Orange (iii) Succulent testa
(2) Mango - Drupe
(3) Apple
d. Pomegranate (iv) Fleshy mesocarp
- Nut
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Tomato - Hesperidium
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (a) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
42. Supporting roots of screwpine which develop
obliquely from the basal nodes of the stem like the 49. Find correct match
ropes of pole Columnl Column-ll
(1 ) Bear much folded multiple root caps a. Tetradynamous (i) papilionaceae
(2) Have simple root cap b. Diadelphous (ii) Brassicaceae
(3) Also possess spongy velamen c. Syngenesious (iii) Liliaceae
(4) Do not help in absorption of water d. Epiphyllous (iv) Asteraceae
43. Umbel differs from corymb inflorescence in (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
('l ) Having bisexual pedicellate flowers (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Presence of anvolucre at the base of flowers 50. An example of epiphytic plant in which the whole
(3) Having indeterminate branched peduncle leaf is modmed into an open pitcher for storing rain
water is
(4) Absence of centripetal arrangement of flowers
(1) Nepenthes (2) Sanacenia
44. Largest angiospermic family of dicot has
(3) Utricularia (4') Dischidia
(1) Axile placentation
(2) Synandrous stamen
51. ln which inflorescence single pistillate and many
staminate flowers arranged in such a way that
(3) Syngenesious and epipetalous condition complete inflorescence looks like a flower?
(4) Ligulate corolla in disc florets (1) Capitulum (2) Capitate
45. Drupes are also called as stone fruits because (3) Cyathium (4) Coenanthium
('1) The seeds are stone like 52. Which type of fruit contains edible juicy succulent
(2) Endocarp is always hard and stony testa and placental hairs respectively?
(3) Pericarp is undifferentiated and sclerified ('l ) Pome and pepo
(4) The mesocarp is edible in most fruits (2) Balausta and hesperidium
46. Aerially modified struclure of stem with several (3) Sorosis and syconus
internodes for assimilatory function is (4) Berry and caryopsis
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l\.4orp hology 221
of Flowering Plants
53. Select an incorrect statement regarding 62. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. fleshy part of
fruit
inflorescence
(1) Orange - Placental hairs
(1) Receptacle is the modiJied flattened peduncle
on which flowers lies in a specific manner (2) Custard apPle - MesocarP
(2) Members of family Labiatae exhibit cyathium (3) Banana - EPicarP and mesocarp
inflorescence (4) Coconut - Endosperm
(3) Hypanthodium in fig is edible inflorescence 63. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are absent in
(4) A whorl of bracts called involucre occurs at (1\ Zea mays seed
base of umbel, cyathium and head (2) Titicum turgidum seed
inflorescence (3) Gram seed
54. Select incorrect match (4) More than one oPtion is correct
family
Oldest name of New name of family 64. A short aquatic runner may be called as
(1) Gramineae - Poaceae (1) Trailers (2) Stolon
(3) offset (4) Sucker
(2) Labiatae - Lamiaceae
(3) Asteraceae - ComPositae
65. A leafless peduncle which develops from the
ground level among the radical leaves is called
(4) Cruciferae - Brassicaceae (1) Scape (2) Receptacle
55. The style present in Ocimum is (3) Pedicel (4) Thalamus
(1) Terminal (2) Lateral and branched 66. Among the given inflorescence, which two types
show more closeness?
(3) Gynobasic (4) Sl/opodium
(a) Hypanthodium (b) Coenanthium
56. The pitcher in pitcher plant is a modification of
(c) Verticillaster (d) CYathium
(1) Leaf base (2) Petiole
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Lamina (4) Leaf aPex
(3) (c) and (d) (a) (a) and (d)
57. Which roots keep the underground organ to its
67. The modification in which petiole is changed to leaf
proper depth? like structure and leaves are highly reduced is
roots
(1) Contractile (2) Assimilatory roots called
(3) Stilt roots (4) Reproductive roots (1) Phylloclade (2) PhYllode
58. Characteristic smell of onion and garlic is because

(3) Cladode (4) EPiPodium
of 68. The marked portion in the given diagram is
(1) Proteins (2) Allyl sulPhide
(3) Lipids (4) Sulphur amino acids

,>
59. Which plant has largest leaf?
(1\ Wetwitschia (2) Monoqhvlla
(3) Victoria (4) Raqhia
60. lnflorescence in sunflower is
(1) Plumule (2) Radicle
(1) Homogamous head (2) Heterogamous head
(3) Hypocotyl (4) Epicotyl
(3) Corymb (4) Umbel
69. Tendrils in Clemalis are the modification of
61. Cypsela fruit differs from caryopsis in
(1) Stipules (2) Petiole
(1) Development from bicarpellary inferior ovary
(3) Complete leaf (4) Upper leaflets
(2) Development from monocarpellary superior
ovary 70. Multiple root caps are present in
(3) Absence of PaPPus (1) Epiphytic ptants (2) Aquatic plants
(4) lts origin from bilocular ovary (3) Cicer (4\ Pandanus
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71. When incisions are upto half in unipinnate leaves, 80. Rhizomes are characterised by all, except
this condition is called
('l) Horizontal growth foMard under soil surface
(1) Pinnatifid (2) pinnatipartite
(2) Distinct nodes and internodes
(3) Palmatifid (4) patmatipartite
(3) Absence of well marked apical buds
72. Which placentation is considered as the most
advanced?
(4) Presence of scaly leaves
(1) Marginat (2) Axite
81. ln Opuntia, the spine bearing area of the tubercle
is called as
(3) Basal (4) Superficiat
Cladode (2) Areote
(1 )
73. Clowes observed a central cup like region of (3) Tunics
passive cells in the root lip of Zea mays which lies (4) Butb
in between 82. The heterophytty in which the leaves of different
(1) Root cap and active root meristem shape and incisions occur at the same time, is
termed as
(2) Protoderm and procambium
(1) Adaptive heterophyly
(3) Cork cambium and quiescent centre
(2) Environmental heterophyfly
(4) Quiescent centre and calyptrogen
(3) Developmentat heterophylly
(4) Habitual heterophyfiy
74. fhe ftorat formuta (E d",-, &.,9,,,
f 83. The presence of involucre and involucels are the
represents characteristic of which inflorescence of racemose
(1) Lily family category?
(2) Potato family (1) Compound umbet (2) Compound corymb
(3) Mustard famity (3) Compound capitulum (4) Compound spadix
(4) Family of order potymoniales 84. The anthotaxy consisting of unisexual sessile
flowers is
Lateral roots arise from the
(1) Spike (2) Spike of spiketets
(1) Cells inside the endodermis
(3) Amentum (4) panicle
(2) Cells inside the pericycte
(3)
85. Find odd one w.r.t. dichasial cyme with
Cells of phloem monochasial branches
(4) Endodermis outside the protoxylem patches (1) Salvia (2) Ocimum
76 Underground modification of stem occurs for (3) Po,nsetUa (4) Coteus
following special functions, except
(1) Storage of food
86. The trunkiflory the condition of developing flowers
on the main stem is
(2) Vegetative propagation (1) Rare in tropical region
(3) Assimilation (2) Quite common in tropical region
(4) Perennation (3) Common in temperate region
77 The rootlets are repeatedly swollen thus giving a (4) Common in alpine region
beaded appearance in
87. Which one of the condition is shown by Buttercup
(1) Dahlia (Zl Momordica flower?
(3) Curcuma (4) tpecac (1) Acydic (2) Spirocydic
78 Which roots change the position of corm? (3) Spiral (4) Cyctic
(1) Prop roots (2) Clinging roots 88. Choose lncornct match
(3) Contractile roots (4) Haptera (1) Lodiorles - Gramineae
79. A woody climber is called as (2) Tepals - perianth
(1) Fistula (2) Procumbent (3) Marcescant - Cabx
(3) Decumbent (4) Lianas (4) Carpophore - Aosfrration
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89. The condition which does not represent the 97 lnflorescence with trimorphic flowers developed
cohesion of stamens is basipetally is also charactetised by the
(1) Monoadelphous (2) Adelphous (1) Presence of glume and lemma
(3) Gynandrous (4) Syngenesious (2) Presence of achlamydeous flowers

(3) Presence of cup shaped involucre and sexual
90. The pigment present in beet root is
whorls
(1) Phycoerythrin (2) Phycocyanin (4) Presence of fleshy receptacle forming a hollow
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Anthocyanin cavitY
91. Tendrils in SmtTax are the modification of 98 Angiospermic family with Aluy G 1ry
condition is
( l) tip
Leaf (2) Petiole and shows _ placentation
(3) Upper leaflets (4) Stipules (1) Solanaceae' Axile

axis, (2) Asteraceae' Basal
92. Long raceme with pendulous inflorescence
called
which bears sessile and unisexual flowers is (3) Umbelliferae, Marginal
(1) Spike (2) Amentum (4) Brassicaceae, Parietal
(3) Spadix (4) Panicle 99 Match the following
g3. ln which type of placentation ovary is one column I column ll
chambered and the placenta bearing ovules a. Vexillary corolla (i) Solanaceae
develop on the inner wall of the ovary and, the b. Scutellum (ii) Liliaceae
number of placenta conesponds to the number of
carpels? c' Epiphyllous stamen (iii) Poaceae
(1)Marginal(2)Parietald.Swollenplacenta(iv)Papilionaceae
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii)' d(i) (2) a(iii)' b(iv)' c(i)' d(ii)
(3) Axite (4) Free cenrrat
(3) a(iv)' b(ii)' c(iii)' d(i) (+) a(i)' b(iii)' c(ii)' d(iv)
94. Find rhe correct match pair
100. The hypanthodium inflorescence is characterised
(11 S,zC,t - Brassicaceae by
(2) GCr.z-tzr - Fabaceae (1) Presence of bisexual flower
(3) K151 Clsy - Solanaceae (2) Presence of unisexual male flowers near base
(4)Kp"ppr"Cs-Asteraceae(3)Presenceoftrimorphicflowers
95. Which one of the following combinations of floral (4) Absence of gall flower
characters is shown by potato family? 101. Which of the given set of characters is related to
(1) Actinomorphic, bicarpellary and axile the family having vexillary aestivation of corolla?
placentation with swollen placentia (1) Epiphyllous stamen and axile placentation
(2) Zygomorphic, pentamerous, gamopetalae with (2) Diadelphous stamen and marginal placentation
endospermous seed (3) Syngenesious stamen and basal placentation
(3) Actinomorphic, hypogynous and (4) Scutellum as cotyledon and basal placentation
monocarpellary 102. select an incorrect match
(4) zygomorphic, porypetarae and parietal (1) Lomentum - schizocarpic fruit
placentation
(2) Legume - Dehiscent fruit
96. serect the conect match
prants stamens pracantatrons (3) cypsela - lndehiscent fruit
(4) Syconus - Aggregate fruit
(1) Pea Diadelphous Basal 103. A perennial stem, which generally lies horizontally
(2) China rose Monoadelphous Parietal below the surface, is an organ for propagation in
(3) Tomato Epipetalous Axile (1) Ginger (2) Potato
(4) Lemon Polyadelphous Free central (3) Colchicum (4) Allium
l!{ Morphology of Flowering Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
104. Photosynthetic organ originates from _ 110. Which of the following statements is depicted by
meristem and arranged in _
order a
the floral formula - O O K,.,C,.A,..9,,, ?
(1) Lateral, basipetal t
(2) Root apical, acropetal (1) Number of calyx is four arranged in single
whorl
(3) Shoot apical, acropetal
(2) lt represents family Brassicaceae
(4) lntercalary, acropetal
(3) Adhesion of carpels
105. Veins of leaf in addition to acting as channels of
transport of water, minerals and food materials (4) Clawless crucifer corolla
also 111.|n Euphorbia, there are 10 cyathia inflorescence
('l ) Determine e)dent of incision of lamina and each inflorescence contiains 20 flowers. One
female flower produces 6 seeds. Calculate the
(2) Provide rigidity to the leaf blade total number of seeds produced by 10 cyathia
(3) Hold the leaf blade to light
(4) Flufter the leaf in wind thus, helping in cooling
(1) toxtxo (2) toxzo"o
of leaf and bringing fresh air (3) '10x20x20 (4) tox6xo
106. ldentify the incorrect statement 112. Match column I with column ll
(1) Drupe develops from monocarpellary inferior Golumn I Column ll
ovary with stony endocarp a. Adnate stipule (i) Guava
(2) Phyllode is analogous to cladophyll b. Petiolar tendril (ii) Nepenthes
(3) Supporting roots arise from lower nodes in c. Heterophylly (iii) Rose
maize
d. Opposite superposed (iv) Sagfiana
(4) Axillary buds are modified into woody, pointed
structures in Cltrus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
107. Choose the correct option w.r.t. Solanaceae
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (a) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
113. Find the odd one out w.r.t. life span
a. Alternate, stipulate, cauline leaves
(1) Wheat, pea, mustard
b. Bisexual actinomorphic flowers
(2) Canot, mango, Euphorbia prostmta
c. Five persistent calyx
(3) Agave, apple, peach
d. Epipetalous, diadelphous condition
e. Axile placentation with swollen placenta
'114. Leaflets are present on rachis and terminal leaflet
f. Floral formula (E ,. KrsrC'Ar"rQrzr
is absent in
Y (1) Palmate, unifoliate leaf
(1) a, b, d, e, f (2) a, b, c
(2) Palmate, bifoliate leaf
(3) b, c, e (4) b, c, d, f
(3) lmparipinnate type unipinnate leaf
108. Underground perennating structure of plant for
food storage and vegetative propagation is (4) Paripinnate type unipinnate leaf
115. Endosperm is fully consumed during embryo
('l ) Fasciculated root
development in the seed ot
(2) Corm
(1) Pisum (2) Castor
(3) Nodulose root
(3) Triticum (4) Orchid
116. Lateral branches grow more vigorously and
109. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation outcompete main trunk in
(1) Axile - Hibiscus (1) Casuaina
(2) Free central - Dianthus (2) Date palm
(3) Parietal - Erasslca (31 Dalbergia
(4) Basal - Pea (4) Eucalyptus
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Morpholoqy of Flowering Plants 225
117. ldentify the mismatched pair (1) c,d&e (2) a,c&e
(1') -
Utricularia Bladder wort (3) b,f &s (4) a,d&e
'125. The fruit type and edible part in Flcus
-
(2) Sanacenia Water flea trap carba is
(3) Drosera - Sundew (1) Sorosis, fleshy axis and succulent perianth
(41 Vanda - Velamen (2) Hypanthodium, fleshy thalamus
118. Pendulous spike develops in leaf axis and bears (3) Syconus, fleshy thalamus
(1) Bisexual flowers (2) Unisexual flowers (4) Hypanthodium, entire fruit
(3) Large coloured bract(4) Whorl of bracteoles '126. Which of the following is not a part of kemel?
119. An inflorescence that shows the conversion of (1) Hilum (2) Tigellum
biparous cyme to uniparous scorpioid cyme is (3) Radicle (4) Epicotyl
('l ) Hypanthodium (2) Cyathium 127. fi he number of chromosomes in the aleurone
(3) Verticillaster (4) Coenanthium layer of maize seed is 30, what is the number of
chromosomes in coleoptile, scutellum, endosperm
120. The most common type and advanced type of and microspore respectively ?
placentation is found respectively in
(1) 10,30,20,20 (2) 20.20,30, 10
(1) Solanaceae and Poaceae
(3) 20, 10, 20, 10 (4) 10, 10, 20, 30
(2) Leguminosae and Asteraceae
'128. ldentify the correct features w.r.t. cruciferae
(3) Brassicaceae and Liliaceae
a. Tetramerous flower
(4) Asteraceae and Liliaceae
'121. Scapigerous umbel and corymbose
b. Bisexual, perigynous condition
raceme is
found respectively in c. The most advanced family of dicots
(1) Erassica campestis and Allium cepa d. Bicarpellary, syncarpous with replum
(21 A ium cepa and Erassica campesl,S e. Fruit berry or capsule
(3) Erasslca oleracea and Coriander (1) a,b&d (2) b,d&e
(4) Coriander and Brassica oleracea (3) b&c (4) a&d
129. ldentify the incorrect match
122. Ptolongalion of thalamus beyond carDel is
present in (1) P A - Epiphyllous
(1\ Foeniculum (2) Silene
(2) Get - Hypogynous flower
(3) Pass,flora (4) Both (2) & (3)
'123. The aestivation with two petals inner, two outer (3) Cor A(o - Disc florets of sunflower
and one partly inner and partly outer is _
and found in (a) Ar-r -
China rose family
(1 ) Cassla
lmbricate, 130. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of
(2) Contorted, Hloiscus roots is found in
(3) vexillary, Plsum (l Eichhornia and Chrysanthemum
(4) euincuncial, Ranunculus (2) potato and Turmeric
124. Find the incorrect matched pair (3) Water hyacinth and pistia
a. Lomentum - Groundnut () pistia and Jasminium
b. siliqua - capsella 131 . ln Australian Acacia plant, the
c. Cypsela - Sunflower (l) Leaves are small and long_lived
d. Berry - Betel nut (2) petiole carries out the functions of lamina
e. Drupe - Mango (3) Leaves are modified into pitchers
f. Pome - Pomegranate (4) petiores are calred as cladophyl after
g. Caryopsis - Opium modification
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132. The type of placentation in plants in which ovary Which of the given characteristics are found in
is unilocular but it becomes two chambered due to Asteraceae?
the formatlon of false septum is (1) a,c,d&e (2) a,b,c&d
(1) Free central (2) Basal (3) b,c,d&e (4) a,b,c&e
(3) Parietal (4) Marginal '139. lnflorescence with reduced main axis and
133. Match the following centripetally arranged pedicellate flowers is
Column I Column ll (1) Panicle (2) Scorpioid cyme
(Plant) (Edible part of fruit) (3) Capitulum (4) Umbel
a. Mango (i) Aril 140. Characters like hypogynous and pentamerous
b. Litchi (ii) Endosperm flower, gamopetalous, superior ovary with axile
placentation and epipetalous condition are shown
c. Coconut (iii) Mesocarp
by angiospermic family
d. Banana (iv) Mesocarp and endocarp
(1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Asteraceae (4) Liliaceae
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
141. The fleshy fruit with persistent calyx and
134. Which of the floral formula is concerned with the
developing from inferior ovary is
family of tulip, Asparagus and Colchicum?
(1) Cypsela (2) Regma
(1) @
f x,,,ffn,o. (3) Pepo (4) Balausta
q G, 142. Diagram given for an angiospermic family is
Q) "/" K,., c,r.ro, A,,n,
explaining the presence of
(3) of P,..4..G, a
(4) of K,.,c..A,..Gal ?t
135. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation b o
(1) Basal - Marigold l2
(2) Free central - Primrose
(3) Marginal - Pea
(4) Parietal - Brinjal ('l ) Syngenesious stamens
136. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. family (2) Axile placentation
Liliaceae
(3) Marginal placentation
(1) Fruit is generally berry
(4) Tetradynamous stiamens
(2) Flower is bisexual and actinomorphic
143 Half superior-half inferior ovary is found in
(3) Seed is endospermous perigynous flower of
(4) Ovary is trilocular with many ovules (1) Peach (2) China rose
137. The edible part of jack fruit is
(3) Mustard (4) Sunflower
(1) Bracts, perianth and seeds
144 Select the correct match
(2) Mesocarp and seeds
(1) Tuber root - Daucus
(3) Fleshy thalamus
(2) Stolon - Pineapple
(4) Mesocarp, endocarp and seeds
(3) Sucker - Banana
138. Consider the following floral characteristics
(4) Whorled phyllotaxy - Calotropis
a. Single ovule with basal placentiation
'145 ln whrch plant, petals in a whorl just touch one
b. Versatile anther
another at the margin, without overlapping in floral
c. lnferior ovary bud?
d. Persistant calyx (1) Cassia (2) Calotropis
e. Syngenesiousandroecium (3) China rose (41 Trifolium
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) l\y'orphology of Flowering Planls 227
146. Match the Column-l with Column-ll 153. Select correct statement
Column-l Golumnll ('l ) Monoclinous f lowers possess both the

essential whorls
a. Marginal placentation (i) Single ovule is
(2) An achlamydeous flower lacks one non-
present in unilocular
ovary essential whorl
(3) Epiphyllous condition is quite common in
b. Axile placentation (ii) Replum may be
dichlamydeous pentamerous flower
present
(4) Stamen is superior in hypogynous flower
c. Parietal placentation (iii) Placenta forms a
ridge along the 154. The lateral branches originate from the basal and
ventral suture of underground portion of the main stem, grow
ovary horizontally beneath the soil and then come out
obliquely upward from soil to give rise to leafy
d. Basal placentation (iv) Ovules develop on
shoots, such branches are called
theouter wall of
ovary (1) Sucker (2) Root stock
(v) Tomato, Lemon (3) Stolon (4) Offset
(1) a(iii), b(v), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(v)' c(iv)' d(i) 155. Names of some families are changed following the
rule of sufflxes, like name of family Umbelliferae
(3) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) (a) a(iii), b(v)' c(iii), d(ii) was changed to
147. Coir yielding part of coconut is (1) Arecaceae (2) Asteraceae
(1) Stem (2) Pericarp (3) Apiaceae (4) Lamiaceae
(3) Petiole (4) Seed 156. Plank roots are characterised by
'148. Ploidy of aleurone layer is similar to (1) Their formation from the base of trunk
(1) Cotyledons (2) Endosperm (2) Being laterally compressed to support heavy
branches
(3) lntegument (4) Semndary nucleus
(3) Travelling along the ground to reproduce
@6 P3*:A:*o G(3). This is the floral formula of vegetatively
14s.
family of
(4) Providing extra mechanical support and
absorption of water
(1) Tulip (2\ Petunia
157. Respiratory roots found in mangrove plants that
(3) Wheat (4) Mulathi help in gas exchange
150. ln mango and coconut plants, the fruit (1) Have small pores on their upper portions
(1) Has hard and stony endocarp (2) Do not have cork layer at their bases
(2) ls developed from polycarpellary superior (3) Are positively geotropic
ovary (4) Have multiple root caps
(3) ls developed from apocarpous ovary 158. Find the correct match
(4) ls multiseeded (1) Cladode : Non-photosynthetic with
one internode long runner
151. Modified aerial stem with branching of unlimited
growth as photosynthetic structure is (2) Phylloclade : Fleshy photosynthetic main
stem
(1) Flattened in Opuntia and Euphorbia
(3) Thoms : SuPerficial outgrowth
(2) Fleshy and cylindrical in Euphorbia
(4) Offset : Vertical underground stem
(3) Cylindrical in Oquntia
159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. buds
(4) Cylindrical in Euphorbia and Opuntia
(1) May help in perennation and reproduction
152. Swollen leaf base in the leguminous planb is called
as (2) Can arise from root and stem
(1) Phyllode (2) Pulvinus (3) Condensed immature shoot
(4) Can form only vegetative branches
(3) Cladode (4) Phylloclade
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228 Morphology of Flowerin g Plants Last Leap for NEET (Paru)
160. Leafless shoot bearing flowers in A,/rum is known 168. An extra series of green sepal like floral organs
as which lies on the outside of the calyx is
(1) Scape (2) Culm characteristic to
(3) Lianas (4) Caudex (1) Fabaceae (2) Litiaceae
161. Pinnately compound leaves have all the following (3) Poaceae (4) Malvaceae
features except 169. Perisperm like tissue in chalazal region of seed
(1) Leaflets are attached to rachis or its branches that can serve as substitute of is
called
(2) Possess a bud in leaf axil
(3) Leaflets attached at the tip of petiole
(1 ) Endosperm, chalazosperm
(4) Stipules may be present at the base of rachis

(2) Nucellus, strophiole
(3) Obturator, perisperm
162. Few upper leaflets of pinnately compound leaves
modify into tendrils that coils around the support (4) Caruncle. chalazosperm
and help in climbing is found in 170. Environmental heterophylly is found in
(1\ Lathyrus sativus (21 Lathyrus odoratus (1\ Ficus heterophylla (2) Mustard
(3) G/oriosa (41 Smilax
(3) Sagdana (4) Heniphragma
163. Which set of plants contain members of Lily '171. Andromonoecious condition refers to
family? development
of
(1) Asparagus, lndigofera, Titolium, Lupinus
(1) Female and neuter flowers on same plant
(2) Sesbanra, Atropa, Nicotiana, Aloe
(2) Male and bisexual flowers on same plant
(3) Aloe, Asparagus, Sesbania, Tulipa
(3) Male and bisexual flowers on different plants
(4) Ruscus, Aloe, Asparagus, Colchicum
(4) Male, female and bisexual flowers on same
plant
164. Angular divergence in the ptant with OhV otaxV is
f 172. Choose the incorrect statement w.rt. racemose
(1) 1350 (2) 1?0o inflorescence
(3) 144' (4) 180" ('1) Acropetally arranged flowers
'165. Members of the family represented by floral
(2) Growing point or shoot apex is consumed
a
formula BrO Q P, A E , . show the presence (3) Centripetal anthesis
T
of (4) Flowers may be unisexual or bisexual
(1) Exstipulate leaves with parallel venation 173. Marginal placentation differs from parietal in
(2) Bisexual zygomorphic flowers (1) Presence of unilocular ovary
(3) Trilocular inferior ovary with many ovules (2) Being monocarpellary
(4) Valvate aestivation and basal placentation (3) Developing in inferior ovary
'166. Cotton, lady's finger and china rose show (4) Having only one ovule in ovary
(1 ) lmbricate aestivation of petals 174. lnflorescence in banana has
(2) Contorted aestivation of petals (1) Coloured, large, boat shaped bract
(3) Vexillary aestivalion of sepals (2) Unisexual flowers arranged on peduncle
(4) Twisted aestivation of tepals (3) Flowers arranged acropetally
167. lnternode present between stamens and carpels of (4) All of these
a flower is known as
175. Filament of stamen that runs throughout the length
(1) Androphore of anther or become continuous with the
(2) Gynophore connective is
(3) Anthophore (1) Basifixed (2) Adnate
(4) Carpophore (3) Dorsifixed (4) Versatite
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) l\4orphology of Flowering Plants 229
176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. hesperidium 183. Mark the correct statement w.r.t Nepenfhes
(1) Derived from polycarpellary, syncarpous, (1) Presence of foliaceous leaf base
superior and multilocular ovary (2) Climber in which petiole is spongy
(2) Each chamber is covered by its own papery (3) Absence of lid in pitcher
endocarp
(4) Pitcher is meant for storing water
(3) Juicy placental hairs are edible
184. Seeds of maize plant
(4) Found in Aegle matmelos
(1) Lack coleoptile and coleorhiza
177. Legume is a kind of simple, dry dehiscent fruit
(2) Have diploid aleurone laYer
(1) Developing from parietal placenta
(3) Have bulky endosperm
(2) Developing from monocarpellary, multiovulate
(4) Are non-endospermic
Placenta
185. Which of the following zone of the root has thin
(3) That splits in one seeded segments
cell wall, dense cytoplasm and large nucleus?
(4) Having pericarp constricted between the
seeds
('l ) Region of maturation
(2) Region of elongation
178. Select the correct match
(3) Region of root hair
(1) Lily - EPiphyllous stamen
(4) Region of meristematic cells
(21 Argemone - Axile Placentation
186. What will be the angular divergence if phyllotary
(3) Tomato - APocarpous ovary
(4) China rose - Staminode Present 2
is-?
5
179. Select a distinguishing feature of largest family of
dicots (1) 144" (2) 180'
(1) Essentially two types of florets in (3) 90' (4\ 120'
inflorescence 187. Which of the following type of placentation is
(2) Basal placentation found in Dianfhus?
(3) Actinomorphic ray florets
(4) Syngenesious and episepalous stamen
180. Which among the following is a characteristic of
pea and bean?
(1) Monoadelphous stamens (a) (b)
(2) Marginal placentation
(3) Twisted aestivation
(4) Endospermic seed
181. How many of the given plants have axile
placentation?
Withania somnifera, Aloe barbadensis,

Asparagus, SesDanra, lndigofera, Gloriosa (c) (d)
(1) One (2) Three

(3) Five (4) Four
182. ln the embryos of pea and rice, the true (1) (a) (2) (b)
homologous structures are respectively (3) (c) (4) (d)
(1) Hypocotyl and radicle 188. ln which of the following plant edible part of frult
(2) Cotyledons and scutellum is pericarp?
(3) Coleoptile and scutellum (1) Date palm (2) Litchi
(4) Coleorhiza and coleoptile (3) Pomegranate (4) Pear
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230 Morphology of Floweri ng Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
189. Which of the following type of inflorescence is 197. Match the following plants to the respective edible
lound in Ocimum? part of fruit
(1) Hypanthodium (2) Umbel Column-l Column{l
(3) Spadix (4) Verticillaster a. Punica granatum (i) Endocarp witr nresocarp
I
190. %Q Klsr cr-z*12y A1e,, G, is the floral formula of b. Litchi (ii) Endosperm
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae c. Cocos (iii) Fleshy testa
(3) Liliaceae (4) Poaceae d. Musa (iv) Aril
191. ln banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, lne (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
lateral branches originate from the basal and
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (a) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
underground portion of the main stem, grow
horizontally beneath the soil and then come out 198. Which of the given figures represent the aestivation
obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots. This of corolla in Gulmohur and Cassia?
branch is termed as
(1) Stolon (2) Runner
(3) Sucker (4) Offset
(1) (2)
192. Stilt roots present in some plants are
(1) Originated from the base of stem
(2) Tap roots
(3) Hygroscopic roots
(4) Supporting roots
193. lf gynoecium is situated in the centre and other (3) (4) (
floral parts are located on the rim of the thalamus
almost at the same level, then the flower is said
to be
('l ) Perigynous (2) Epigynous 199 Reduced leaf at the base of pedicel is known as
(3) Hypogynous (4) Protogynous
(1) Stipule (2) Ligule
'194. Mark the incorrect match (w.r.t. edible part of
fruit) (3) Bract (4) Bracteole
(1) Walnut - Succulent testa 200 Lateral branch arising from the basal and
underground portion of stem, growing horizontally
(2) Peat - Fleshy thalamus beneath soil and then coming out obliquely upward
(3) Orange - Placental glandular hairs giving rise to aerial shoot is known as
(4) Litchi - Aril (1) Runner (2) Offset
195. Floral formula of Solanum nlgrurn represents (3) Stolon (4) Sucker
(1) Epitepalous condition 201 The cells proximal to the meristematic zone in root
(2) Polyandrous androecium tip represents
(3) Polysepalous calyx (1) Zone of cell elongation
(4) Tricarpellary gynoecium (21 Zone of deacceleration
196. The placentja developing at the base of ovary with (3) Zone of differentiation
a single ovule attached to it is found in all, except
(1) Sunflower (4) Zone of maturation
(2) Carrot grass 202 Double fertilisation is seen in
(3) Marigold (1) Pinus (2) Cycas

(4) Carnation (31 Lycopodium (4) Woltfia
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Morphology of Flowering Plants 231
203. "Lily family" does not show 211. Flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by
(1) Tepals (3 + 3) any vertical plane passing through the centre in
(2) Actinomorphic flower (1) Cassia and Canna

(3) Endospermous seed (2) Canna and Opuntia
(4) lnferior gynoecium (3) Cannabis and Sunflower
204. A flower can be said of a member of fabaceae if (4) Cocos and Mustard
(1) lt shows epipetalous stamens 212. The swollen end of the flower stalk
or pedicel
(2) lt shows twisted petals where different kind of whorls are arranged
successively is called
(3) lt shows standard, keel and wings
(1) Thalamus
(4) lt shows valvate petals
(2) Receptacle
205. Outer covering of endosperm separates the
embryo by aleurone layer, this layer is (3) lnvolucre
(1) n, proteinaceous, seen in dicot seed (4) More than one option is correct
(2) 2n, starchy, seen in monocot seed 213. Type of inflorescence where the main axis
(3) 3n, proteinaceous, seen in monocot seed continues to grow shows
(4) n, oily, seen in dicot seed (1) Terminal flower

206. Scar present on seed coat through which the (2) Definite growth
developing seeds were attached to fruit is called (3) Acropetal succession of flowers
(1) Micropyle (2) Hilum (4) Centritugal flower opening
(3) Funicle (4) Stalk 214. Select a correct match
207. Which of the features given below are corect for (1) Staminode - Solanaceae
coconut fruit?
(2) Actinomorphic flower- cassia. Bean, Gutmohur
a. Developed from monocarpellary ovary
(3) Zygomorphic flower - Chilli, Tomato
b. Fibrous mesocarp
c. Formed from inferior ovary
(4) lnferior ovary - Cucumber, Guava
d. Hard stony endocarp 215. Choose the correct identillcation for given below
plants respectively
e. Edible mesocarp
(1) a,c&d (2)c,d&e
(3) b,c&d (a)a,b&d
208. ln which of the given plants placenta develops at
the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached
to it?
(1) Tomato, Lemon (2) Mustard, Argemone
(3) Dianthus, Primrose (4) Sunflower, Marigold
is
209. Androceium of Crtrus and Bombax planb ('l) Whorled phyllotary, Palmately compound leaf
(1) Synandous (2) Monadelphous (2) Pinnately compound leaf, Whorled phyllotaxy
(3) Polyadelphous (4) Diadelphous (3) Palmately compound leaf, Whorled phyllotaxy
210. Depending on position of calyx, corolla and (4) Altemate phyllotary, Palmately compound leaf
androecium w'r't' the o'31ô-L th:]:11"^"th" 216. Bud is present in axit of petiore in
flowers are divided into how many categories?
(1) Compound l6af and leaf,et
(1) Two
(2) Three (2) Simple and compound leaf
(3) Four (3) SimPle leaf and leafl€t
(4) Fi'/e (4) Leaflet, simple and compound leaf
82 Morphology of Flowering Plants Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
217. Grasses show 225. l-:eaf tip tendrils that can coll around a support and
(1) Unicostate parallel venation help the weak stems mechanically is found in
(2) Multicostate convergent parallel venation

(1) Smilax (2) cbnosa
(3) Unicostate reticulate venation (3) Pisum (4) Nepenthes
(4) Multicostate divergent parallel venation 226. Choose odd one out w.r.t. hypanthodium
inflorescence
218. ln Australian Acacia, peliole is modified into leaf
like structure called (1) Encloses three types of flowers
(1) Cladode (2) Phyllode (2) Exhibits mutualism and coevolution
(3) Phylloclade (4) Cladophyll (3) Fleshy receptacle with hollow cavity
219. Thorn is (4) Male flowers are found at the base of

receptacle
(1) Modification of leaf
227 . Fruit which develop from monocarpellary superior
(2) Axillary bud modified
ovary and are one seeded with stony endocarp is
(3) Climbing structure
(1) Drupe (2) Legume
(4) Always non woody
(3) Nut (4) Berry
220. ln monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue
228. Diagnostic characters of largest dicot family
(1) ls differentiated into palisade and spongy asteraceae are all, except
parenchyma
(1) Syngenesious stamens
(2) ls not differentiated into palisade and spongy
parenchyma
(2) Parachute mechanism of seed dispersal
(3) Possesses some bulliform cells (3) Basal placentation
(4) ls made up of parenchyma cells which lack (4) Swollen placenta in obliquely placed ovary
chloroplasts 229. ln guava and cucumber flowers
221. Select the odd one out w.r.t. veins (1 ) Stamen is superior in position
('l) Provide rigidity to the leaf blade (2) Ovary is superior in position
(2) Act as channels of transport for water and (3) Stamen is inferior in position
minerals
(4) Ovary is half inferior in position
(3) Veins are fllled with parenchyma
230. Select correct set of characters for lily family
(4) Middle prominent vein is mid+ib
a. Stipulate leaves with reticulate venation
222. ln a racemose inflorescence the flowers
b. Actinomorphic and hypogynous flower
(1) Are only pistillate
c. Tricarpellary ovary
(2) Open centrifugally
d. Basal placentation
(3) Are arranged basipetally
e. Generally berry fruit with endospermous seed
(4) Are arranged acropetally
(1) a, c, e (2) b, c, d
223. Edible part of ripe mango fruit and coconut fruits
are
(3) b, c (4) a, d
231. Pneumatophores are modilication of
(1 ) Epicarp & mesocarp respectively
(2) Mesocarp & endosperm respectively (1) Prop root for exchange of gases
(3) Mesocarp & mesocarp respectively (2) Tap root for retention of moisture
(4) Pericarp & endosperm respectively (3) Adventitious root for breathing
224. One internode long branches of stem arising from (4) Tap root for respiration
nodes which take over photosynthesis and help in 232. Australian Acacra possesses modified expanded
preventing transpiration is green photosynthetic structure called
(1) Cladode (2) Phylloclade (1 Phyllode
) (2) Cladode
(3) Cladophyll (4) Phyllode (3) Phyllome (4) Cataphyll
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) [,4orphology of Flowerin s Plants 233
233 First formed flower is basal in which one of the (1 ) Region of maturation
following inflorescence?
(2) Region of cell elongation
(1) Capitulum (2) Spikelet
(3) Region of meristematic activity
(3) Cyathium (4) Umbel
(4) Region of cell difierentiation
2U Select correct match
241. Underground stems of ginger, turmeric and
(1) Lomentum - Coriander zaminkand are modified to/and
(2) Siliqua - Mustard
(1) Store food and chlorophylls
(3) Samara - Mirabilis
(2) Act as sex organs
(4) Regma - Salvia
(3) Protect the root apex
235 Find the odd one wr.t. perigynous flower
(4) Act as organ of perennation
( l) Guava (2) Plum
242. fuugainvillea and Crtrus plants are protected from
(3) Rose (4) Peach
browsing animals as
236 Plant order, polymoniales, includes families like
(1) Adventitious buds get modified into thorns
(1) Convolvulaceae and Poaceae
(2) Axillary buds get modified into spines
(2) Poaceae and Anacardiaceae
(3) Lateral buds get modified into pointed
(3) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae structures
(4) Anacardiaceae and Solanaceae (4) Apical buds get modified into thorns
237 Find correct match w.r.t. gynoecium and
243. Mark the odd w.r.t. modified sub-aerial stem for
placentatlon in respective family
vegetative propagation
I
Column Column ll
(1) Jasmine (2) Pineapple
a. G.,, Axile (i) Brassicaceae
(3) Chrysanthemum (4) Banana
b. c:\z) , Basal (ii) Liliaceae
244. Most important vegetative organs for
photosynthesis
c. G(a, Parietal (iii) Solanaceae
d. G*, Axile (iv) Asteraceae (1) Are ananged in a basipetal order
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) Originated from shoot apical meristems
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i!), c(i), d(iii) (3) Develops at the internode and bears a bud
238 Which set of plants have fruit developing from (4) Are leaves that attached to the stem by
monocarpellary superior ovary and have single pedicel
seed? 245. Leaves ol Dionaea and Nepenlhes are modified
(1) Cocos, Mangifera into
(2) Mangifera, Tagetes (1) lnsectivorous pitchers
(3) Datun, Pisum (2) Phyllodes
(4) Titicum, Lycopersicon (3) Spines
239 Roots in some plants change their shape and (4) lnsect catching structures
structure and become modified to perform
functions like 246. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Additional support and absorption of water (1) ln Calotropis, a pair of leaves arise at each
node and lie opposite to each other
(2) Absorption and conduction of water and
minerals (2) A bud is present in the axil of both simple and
(3) Storage of food and respiration compound leaves
(4) Absorption of minerals and storage of food (3) Leaves are small and long lived in Australian
Acacia
240 Very fne, delicate, unicellular, thread like struclures
developed from the zone of root that is proximal (4) Veinlets form a network in lhe leaves of most
to dicotyledonous plants
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234 Morphology of Flowering Plants Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
247 . ln racemose type of inflorescence (1) Colchicum, Asparagus, makoi

(1) Main axis does not terminate in a flower (2) Brinial, lulip, Petunia
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (3) G/onosa, A/oe, tulip
(3) Main axis shows limited growth (4) Sesbania, Asparagus, gram
(4) Both (1) & (2) 254. Ftuil of coconut plant is developed from
248. Mark the mis-matched pair (1) Perigynous flower (2) Superior ovary
(1) Chilli - Actinomorphic flower (3) Epigynous flower (4) Bicarpellary ovary
(2) Thalamus - Swollen end of pedicel 255. ln the seeds of maize, the seed coat
(3) Cassla - Bilateral symmetry in flower (1) ls fused with the pericarp
(4) Canna - Zygomorphic flower
(2) Store aleurone grains
249. ln pea and bean flowers, the petal overlaps
(3) ls membranous and triploid
the two _
petals which in turn overlap the two
_ petals.
- (4) Has an outgrowth, called strophiole
(1) Largest, anterior, lateral 256. Endosperm persists in the mature seeds of
(2) Posterior, keel, smallest (1) Most dicots (2) Angiosperms only
(3) Posterior, wings, anterior (3) Most monocots (4) All spermatophytes
(4) Anterior, lateral, smallest 257. Which of the following is misflatched pair?
250 Match the following (Column I with Column ll) (1) Belladonna - Medicine - Solanaceae
column I Column ll (2) Aspamgus - Vegetable - Liliaceae
a. Bilocular ovary with (i) D,anf,us (3) Tfiolium - Ornamental plant - Fabaceae
false septum
(4) Tobacco - Fumigatory - Potato family
b. Free central (ii) Marigold
placentation 258. ln seed of Ricinus communis, there is a specific
outgrowth
c. Axile placenta (iii) Mustard
(1) Called coleoptile present over hilum
d. Basal placentation (iv) Lemon
(2) Helping in absorption of water
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Called caruncle formed by nucellus
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Formed by proliferation of cells of inner
251 ln epigynous flowers, the ovary is said to be_ integument and funicle
and found in _
259. Select the correct option w.r.t. modified structural
(1) Semi-superior, plum (2) lnferior, sunflower
name, modified organ and examples
(3) Semi-inferior, peach (4) lnferior, radish
Modified Modified Example
252 Which of the following statements is true for the plant organ structures
fruits of mango and banana?
(1) Tendril Axillary bud Gourds
(1 ) Developed after fertilization of ovary
(2) Thorn Axillary bud C,trus
(2) Endocarp is hard and stony
(3) Phylloclade Stem Opuntia
(3) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(4) Cladode Leaf Australian Acacia
(4) Pseudocarpic fruits
260. Genus represents aggregate of closely related
253 Select the correct option (1-4) in which all the
plants representing the following floral diagram. species. Which of the following group of species
does not belong to same genus?
o
(1) Potato, Brinjal
(2) Brinjal, Makoi
(3) Lion, Leopard
(4) Potato, Sweet potato
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[,lorph ology of Floweri Plants 235
261. A lateral branch with short internodes and each c. Chinarose and tomato possess most common
bearing rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is type of Placentation.
found in d. The ploidy level of coleoptile is 3N.
(1) Pistia, Eichhornia a. Cr * z + tzt condition shows vexillary aestivation
(2) Mint, Jasmine with equal sized Petals.
(3) Grasses, Strawberry (1) b, c & e are @rrect

(4) Banana, PineaPPle (2) a, b, c & e are conect
(3) a, d & e are incorrect
262. ln silk cotton trees
(4) a, c&dareincorrect
(1) Leaflets are Present on rachis
267. Peicary is thick and differentiated into three
(2) lncision of lamina is absent layers in
(3) Leaflets are attached at tip of petiole (1) Coconut, Garden Pea
(4) Bud is present in the axil of leaflets (2) Wheat, mango
263. Choose correct option w.r.t. given below (3) Brinial, ground nut
inflorescence
(4) Mango, coconut
268. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Alstonia - Whorled Phyllotaxy
b. Monstera - Fibrous roots
c. Euphorbia - Cylindrical phylloclade
d. Citrus - SPines
(1) Main axis terminates in flower (1) a&c (2) b&d
(2) Acropetal arrangement of flowers (3) a&d (4) b&c
(3) Unlimited groMh of main axis 269. Consider the given floral diagrams labelled by
(4) More than one oPtion is conect a, b and c and select the correct answer w r't
common characteristics of these floral diagrams
264. Choose correct match
representing families
(1) C,r - Mustard
(2) .2*121
C1 _ Pea
(3) P:ro - Lily I5
o
(4) Crsr - Lupin a. b c.
265. Which one of the following is a correct

statement?
(1) ln cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis ('l) a and c has actinomorphic flowers
continues to grow (2) a and b has epipetalous stjamens
(2) Ovary is half inferior in the flowers of (3) b and c has valvate aestivation in petals
cucumber (4) a, b and c has axile placentation
(3) ln castor, the endosperm is not present in 2lO.A research scholar has collecled ten plants from
mature seeds field and find the following distinguishing feature
(4) Seeds of dicot and monocot.plants vary is a. perianth present - 6 flowers
shape, size and period of viability a. calyx, corolla present - 4 flowers
266. Consider the following statemenls and select b. Unisexual flower - 5
appropriate option
the b- Bisexual flower - 5
a. The region of maturation is distal to
elongation region. what kind of taxonomical aid he is trying to use?
point (1) Herbarium (2) Keys
b. The leafleG are attached at a common
in silk cotton. (3) Museum (4) Monograph
236 of Flowering PIants
4. A : Corms ol Colchicum luteum are used in the
treatment of gout and liver diseases.
Assertion - Reason Type euestions
R : The colchicine obtained from it is used for
ln the following questions, a statement o, assertion
(A) ls followed by a statement of reason (R) doubling of chromosomes.
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the 5. A : The lid is absent in pitcher ol Dischidia.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : A lid is present for attracting insects.
6. A: Adventitious roots are present in monocot
plants.
assertion, lhen mark (2). R : Primary root is not produced in these plants.
(3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is 7. A : Bulbils are specialised buds which store food
fatse, then mark (3). materials.
(4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false R: They are concerned with vegetative
statements, then mark (4). reproduction.
'1. A : The marketed produce of almond contains 8. A: Storage tap root is present in carrot.
stony endocarp that encloses seed having
edible cotyledons. R : Canot possess reduced stem.
R: The unedible velvetty epicarp and tough
9. A : Some members of fabaceae family are good
mesocarp are removed before marketing. source of edible oil.
2. A: The floral organ ol Nymphea shows all stages R: They yield medicines like belladonna and
between sepal and petal and between a petal ashwagandha also.
and stamen. 10. A: Fibrous roots originate fiom the base of stem.
R : Flower is modified shoot. R : Primary roots are short lived in monocots.
3. A : Rhipidium is a modiflcation of scorpioid cyme 11. A: Rolling of leaves in monocots occurs during
having all the flowers in one plane. summer.
R: ln cincinus, the flowers are borne in different R: Loss of water occurs from stomata during
planes.
summer.
otr D
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Chapter 6
Principles of Inheritance and Variation

6 Different blood groups in 'ABO' system are
SECTION.A controlled by the gene located on
Objective TYPe Questions chromosome and possible number of genotypes for
'B' blood group is
1. An individual with AaBb genotype is producing four
(1) th and 2 (2) l1h and 1
types of gametes as AB, aB, Ab and ab bY
meiosis. lf the frequency of these gametes is 25% (3) 9s and I (a) 18s and 2
each then, it exPlains 7 Flower colour is purple in sweet pea due to non-
(1) lncomplete linkage allelic interaction between two dominant genes C
and P. Plant with CCpp genotype will have which
(2) Mutations
one of the following correct explanation?
(3) lndependent assortment
a. Flower colour is white
(4) Complete linkage
b. No synthesis of chromagen
2. Which one of the following Mendelian trait c. Raw materials are metjabolised into chromagen
controlling unit is expressed in homozygous
condition onlY? d. Chromagen metabolism is further stopped
(1) Axial flower (2) Yellow seed e. Crossing with heterozygous purple flowered
plant will yield equal percentage of purple and
(3) Yellow pod (4) Smooth seed
white flowered Plants
3. Total number of phenotypic and genotypic classes (1) a, c, d and e
possible from selfing of a plant wi(h genotype
aaBbCCDdEEFf are respectively (2) All are conect except'd'
(1\ u,72e (21 8,27 (3) a, b and e
(31 32,243 (4) 27,35 (4) b, c, d and e
4. red flowered plant was crossed with 8 Select incorrect statement w r't. polygenic
A pure tall - inheritance
dwarf - white flowered plant. ln F1' all plants were
tall with pink flowers. What is the percentage (1) lt controls quantitative traits
probability of getting red and pink flowered plants (2) Parental population remains constant
respectively? inespective of Polygenes number
(1\ 25oh and 50o/o (3) A single dominant allele expresses only a unit
(2) 50% andzso of the trait
(3\ Zero and 75% (4) One of the parental phenotype is expressed in
F1 individuals
(4) Zero and 50%
I Number of linkage group in rice and pea is
5. Progenies with one phenotype and four genotypes
and respectively
can be obtained from
(1) Dihybrid test cross (1) 17 and 7
(2\ 12 and 14
(2) Monohybrid out cross
(3\ 12 and 7
(3) Dihybrid out cross
(4) 10 and 7
(4) Trihybrid cross
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238 Principles of lnheritance and Variation
Last Leap for NEET Part-l)
10. Bateson and Punnet observed incomplete rinkage 12. what is incorrect for genetic maps?
in sweet pea for which one of the following pair of
characters? (1) Alfred Sturtevant prepared it for the first time
using monohybrid test cross
(1) Frower corour and seed shape
*tween senes
(2) Frower corour and po,en shape X,5":i[;"9;:tJllfl:t$;: '''
(3) Flower position and polen size (3) stronger the rinkage resser is the distance
(4) Pod colour and flower colour between two genes
11. Sex index of individual with chromosome (a) lt was extensively used in the case of Human
constitution AAA + XXY in human and Drosophila Genome Sequencing Project
isrespectively 1g. March the column conecfly
(1) Male and intersex
column I column ll
(2) Female and male sex phenylketonuria (i) Autosomal trisomy
a.
(3) Both are intersexes associated with
(4) Normal female and intersex mongolism
'12. Which one of the following traits are controlled by b. Down's syndrome (ii) Gynaecomastia
genes located on differential part of X- c. Klinefelte/s syndrome (iii) Autosomal recessive
chromosome? trait associated with
(1) Porcupine skin and epidermolysis bullosa mental retardalion
(2) Beard in man and milk glands in female d. Tumer's syndrome (iv) Sterile females with
rudimentary ovaries
(3) Colour blindness and haemoohilia
(1) a(iii)' b(i)' c(iv)' d(ii)
(4) corour blindness and cystic fibrosis
13.
(') a(ii)' b(iii)' c(i)' d(iv)
Find conect match between corumn r and corumn,, (3) a(ii)' b(i)' c(iii)' d(iv)
column I 1 cotumn
(4) a(iii)' b(i)' c(ii)' d(iv)
a. Alkylating agent (i) uv rays
b. pyrimidinedimer (ii) EMS' 1t
lJ#fir:::",J;"":""t.'r:ff"?i,rJ:i#,:l
c. Tetrasomic (aii) AAA are located on chromosome number
d. Gigas effect (iv) (N + i) x (N + 1) (1) Tay,sach,s disease, 15
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Gauchets disease, 11
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (a) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) Tay-sach,s disease, 1
14. ff PfC non-tasler population is 16 percent, then (4) Gaucher's disease, 1
percentage population of heterozygous taster is 20. what will be the ratio of yellow, white and green
(1) 36% (2) 48o/, fruils in Cucurbita pepo in'F t generation, if a cross
(3) 84% (4) 56% is made between a pure breeding white summer
15. tn pea, the gene that controts starch *''n a pure breeding green summer
synthesis loo,lj.t}.
shows all of the following except
12 : 3 : 1 (2) 9:3:4
,_
(1) Dominance
(1)
(3) 0:1:0 (4) 1;0:0
(2) lnmmplete dominance
(3) Multiple allelism
21 -|-he genes
of characters pod shape and seed
shape are located on chromosome number
(4) Pleiotropy and respectively in Pisum
16. rf prant AaBBCc is crossed with aaBbcc,
a prant sati,un --
then what percentage of progenies wifl have the (1) 4 andT
genotype AaBBcc,
(2) 7 and 4
(1) 6.25% (2) 12.syo (3) 4 and 1
(3) 2s% (4) 66 6% (4) s and 7
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Principles of lnheritance and Variation 239
22. Matk the correct one (w.r.t. lethality) J
(1) Lysch Nyhan syndrome and colourblindness (1)
i (2)
I
(2) Haemophilia and sickle cell anaemia
1 1
(3) Colourblindness and haemophilia (3) (4)
(4)
, 4
Hypertrichosis and colourblindness
23. Suppose a pea plant heterozygous for tallness and
30. A pedigree chart is given below
inflated pod is crossed with dwarf pea plant with
t.
constricted pod. How many types of offsprings will
be produced and in what proportion?
(1) Two types of offspring, in the ratio of 1 : 1 .
(2) Four types of offspring, in the ratio of 1 : 1 :
1:1 t.
(3) Four types of offspring, in the ratio of 3 : 'l

Find the possible parental combination for this
(4) Sixteen types of offspring in the ratio of I : 3: case
3:1
24. lnteraction of complementary factors give F, (r) $ teal x (aa) d
modified ratio of
(1) 9:6:1 (21 15:'l e) ? (Aa) x (Aa) 6
(3) 9:3:4 (4\ 9:7 (3) ? x
25. All are Xlinked traits, except
(HbAHbA) (HbsHbs) d
('l ) Colourblindness (4) ? (aa) x (AA) d
(2) Haemophilia
31. Find the ratio of comb types if a cross is made
(3) Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydro- between poultry of Rrpp and RRPp genotypes
genase
(1)1:1 (21 1:1:1:1
(4) Hypertrichosis
(3) 1:3 (4) 3:1
26. Find out the sex index ot Drosophila if
chromosome composition is AAA + XXY (w.r.t 32. An incompletely linked dihybrid (AaBb) will produce
genic balance theory) _ types of gametes
(1) Super (2) lntersex (1) Four (2) Ttrc

Q (3) Six (4) Eisht
(3) d (sterile) (4) Normal
? 33. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. sex linked
27. Mafiiage between the carrier colour-blind woman inheritance in humans
and haemophilic man with normal vision produces (1) Males are more susceptible to X-linked
(1) 75% normal boys with normal vision recessive diseases
(2) 50% girls are mlour blind and haemophilic (2) Y-chromosome of males move to male
(3) 50% girls with normal vision offsprings, the inherited traits are called
holandric
(4) 100o/o canier girls for haemophilic
(3) Females can be normal, canier or diseased for
28. How many sum total of genotypes and phenotypes Xiinked dominant trait
are possible, when selfing of plant having genotype
AaBbCC is performed? (4) Criss cross inheritance is possible in colour
blindness
(1) 13 (2) 35
34. lf a trait is controlled by two polygenes and the
(3) 34 (4) 16 plant is test crossed, the total number of
29. ln Mirabilis jalapa dwarf and pink flower plant is genotypes and phenotypes is
crossed with heterozygous tall and pink flower (1) s (21 7
plant, then what proportion of plants are pink in
progeny? (3) 5 (4) 11
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240 Principles of lnheritance and Variation Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
35. Chemical mutagen that can intercalate between (1) 10s (2) 30s
nitrogenous bases and interfere with DNA (3) a0 g (4) 50 g
replication is
(1) HNO2
43. Gene for pod colour in Pisum is present on which
(2) Alkylating agents chromosome number?
(3) Acridines (4) Base analogue (1) One (2) Forr
36. Frequency of non{aster population is 16 percent,
(3) Fi\,e (4) Seven
then calculate the total number of recessive alleles
out of 2000 individuals zl4. What will be the sum total of genotypic classes
and phenotypic classes in a trihybrid polygenic
(11 2M (2) 1600
cross in F2 generation?
(3) 1440 (41 1280
(1) 16 (2) 35
37. A trihybrid plant showing partial linkage between
(3) 34 (4) e
first two loci is test crossed, then what is
expected in next generation? 45. What will be the number of surviving individuals in
a population of 2000, if the frequency of recessive
('l) All progenies are of four phenotypes
lethal allele is 0.1%?
(2) Progenies with more parental combination of
(1) 1620 (2) 1800
eight phenotypic classes
(3) Progenies with more recombinants (3) 380 (4) 1980
(4) All progenies wilh 12.5o/o population 46. Find odd one out w.r.t. pleiotropism
38. Select correct match between Column I and ('l) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Cystic fibrosis
Column ll (3) Marfan's syndrome (4) Coat mlour in rabbit
Column I Column ll 47. Select inconect match between the organism and
number of its linkage group
a. Gaucher's disease (i) Glucocerebrosidase
deficiency Organism Linkage group
b. Cystic fibrosis (ii) lnherited disease of (1) Dtosophila 4
mucus & sweat (2) Human male Zj
glands
(3) Neuroqpora 7
c. Achondroplasia (iii) Sex-linked recessive
(41 Pisum 7
d. DMD (iv) Dwarfism
48. When dextral male (DD) snail is crossed with
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) sinistral female (dd), all F1 snails are sinistral.
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) What will be the phenotypic ratio in F2 if these Fl
39. ln which of the following plant, Mendel failed to sinistral females were selfed?
produce same result ? (1) 3 dextral : l sinistral (2) 3 sinistrat : ldextral
(1) Duckweed (2) Hawlweed (3) All sinistral (4) All dextrat
(3) Milkweed (4) Kalmathweed 49. Mr X is a colour blind and his father was albinic.
40. What would be the number of tall and pink plants, What proportion of his sperms will have both these
if tall and pink plants (TtRr) are selfed? Given that defects?
first character shows complete dominance and (1) 25o/o (21 37.5Vo
second character shows incomplete dominance (3) 50% (41 1o0o/o
(1) e/16 (2) 8t16 50. A dihybrid test cross produced the following
(3) 6/16 (4) 3/16 offsprings
4'1. How many types of gametes are produced by AB/ab 960
AaBbCc genotype, where A and B are linked? Ab/ab 60
(1) 4 (2) 8 aB/ab q
(3) 16 (4) 32 ab/ab 94O
42. lf maximum average weight in lemon is 60 g and What is the distance between gene A and B?
minimum average weight is 30 g. What will be the
average weight of lemon variety with Aabbcc (1) 5 map units (2) 100 map units
genotype ? (3) 20 map units (4) 10 map units
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51. Which one of the following scientist is not included 59. Genes which are present very close to each other
in the list of rediscoverer of Mendelism? produce related phenotypes and can be
(1) Hugo de Vries (2) Kolreuter distinguished through rare crossing over are called
as
(3) Cad Conens (4) Tschermak
('l) lsoallele (2) Multiple allele
52. Which arrangement of ascospores in ascus is
representing first generation segregation of genes? (3) Pseudoallele (4) Allelomorphs
(1\2:2:2'.2 60. S-bromouracil replaces _ of DNA and pairs
AA BB AA BB
with _
(1) Thymine, adenine (2) Thymine, guanine
(21 4:4
(3) Guanine, adenine (4) Guanine, thymine
AA BB
61. Which of the following abnormality always passed
(3)2: 4 :2 from father to his son only?
AA BB AA (1) Colour blindness
(4)2:4:2 (2) Haemophilia
BB AA BB (3) Porcupine skin
53. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. factors (4) Lesch Nyhan's syndrome
affecting crossing over
62. lf we change the position of genes on
(1) Crossing over decreases with age chromosomes it will be included in
(2) Centromere and heterochromatin decreases (1) Gene mutation
crossing over
(2) Chromosomal mutation
(3) X-rays and temperature decreases crossing
o/er (3) Polyploidy
(4) Male D,osophila shows little crossing over or (4) Transversion mutation
no crossing over 63. How many types of gametes are possible in
54. Somatic crossing over was observed by Pontecorvo Drosophila, if independent assortment of
in chromosomes occurs during meiosis?
(1) Droephila (2) Pisun (1) 4 (2) 8

(3) Neulospora (4) Asperyi us (3) 16 @l a
55. What will be the sex in Dioscorea with odd number 64. Short index llnger in males is a
of chromosomes? (1) Sex d ifferentiated trait
('l)Female (2) Male (2) Sex linked trait
(3) lntersexes (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Holandric trait
56. How many drum sticks are present in a human (4) Sex influenced trait
suffering fiom Jacob's syndrome? 65. Match the following columns
(1) 3 (2\ 2 Column I Column ll
(3) 1 (4) zso a. Father of actinobiology (i) Sladler
57. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. disease and b. Used X-rays to (ii) Muller
related group of chromosomes
induce mutations in
(1) PKU - c barley and maize
(2) Huntington's chorea - B
(3) Gaucheds disease
c. y-rays
Used UV and (iii) Auerbach and
- A as mutagens Robson
(4) Albinism - D
58. What is the percentage of incompatible marriages
d. Used mustard gas as (iv) Altenberg
if frequency of Rh* population is 70%? first chemical mutagen
(1) 7Vo (21 1oo/o

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 4o/o (41 21yo (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
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242 Pranciples of lnheritance and Variation Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
66. What will be the sex of Drosophila if its genetic 73. What will be the genotype of proposita in the family
make up is AA + XXY? if following pedjgree chart is given?
(1) Male (2) Meta male
(3) Female (4) Meta female
67. Which of the following is always sterile?
a. Triploid
b. Amphidiploid
c. Autotehapolyploid
d. Allotetrapolyploid
(1) AA (2) M
(1) a and d only (2) b and c only (3) )(9f (4) xe
(3) a only (4) d only 74. A haemophilic man marries a colour blind woman,
what proportion of their children will have both these
68. Following figure represents which type of defects?
chromosomal abenation?
(1) 100% (2) 50yo
a a (3) 25% (4) zso
b
b 75. lf F2 phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 'l is modified to
C d
9 : 6 : 1 ratio, it is due to which gene interaction?
----)
(1) Complementary Q) Suplementary
d C
(3) Epistatic (4) Polymeric
f t 76. What is the F2 phenotypic ratio in double
recessive epistasis?
(1) Deletion
(1) 9:7 (2)9:3:4
(2) Duplication
(3) 12:3:1 (4) 13:1
(3) Paracentric inversion
77. lnteraction of two genes in which one gene has no
(4) Pericentric inversion effect when alone but it modifies the effect of
69. PTC non-taslers are 45 out of 500 individuals. another gene when present in dominant form, is
Calculate the number of heterozygous taster called _ interaction
individuals in this population (1) lnhibitory gene (2) Dominant epistatic
(11 210 (21 410 (3) Duplicate (4) Supplementary
(3) e0 (4) 2e0 78. Who gave the status of laws to some postulates
70. What is the percentage of mullatoes in F2 if very of Mendel?
dark and very light individuals are taken as parents (1) Hugo de Vries (2) Conens
for F1, lf this character is controlled by three pair
(3) Blixt (4) Kolreuter
of genes?
(1) 23.4% (2) 31.2yo 79. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome if
frequency of crossing over between A-B is 20%,
(3) s.5% (4) 50% A-C is 15%, B-C is 5%, A-D is 10olo and B-D is
71. How many double homozygous individuals are 30Yo?
produced by the selfing of a dihybrid? (1) ABCD (2) CBDA
(1) 2 (2\ 4 (3) DACB (4) DABC
(3) 6 (4) 8 80. How many chromosomes will be present in a
72. ln a hospital five children are born on a particular double monosomic individual if its gametic
day. What is the probability of three male children? chromosome number is 10?
1 1
(1) I
(1) ; (2)
8 (2) 18
J 5
(3) 1e
(3)
5 (4)
'16 (41 2
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Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Principl es of lnheritance and Variation 243
81. What is frequency of DCO if two SCOS are 5% 87. Select conect staternent for Mendelian hybridization
and 1O% and this also show 20% interference? experiment
(1) 5% el 2% (1) F1 hybrids of reciprocal crosses were different

(3) 0.5% (4) O.4o/o
(2) ln F2 generation of dihybrid cross, parental
types are 62.5010
82. A trihybrid cross is made for height, flower colour
(3) Both parental alleles with their traits are
and shape of seed in pea, how many progenies
transmitted to Fl
are expected with first recessive, second
heterozygous dominant and third dominant (4) Dihybrid recombinants are 50%
character? 88. Both the alleles produce their effect in
I 6 (1) Heterozygous B blood grouP

(1) (2)
64 64 (2) Sickle cell haemoglobin
(3) Snapdragon flower @lour
16 4
(4) Cucurbits fruit colour
(3)
u (4)
u 89. Out of the following statements for linkage/ linkage
83 What ratio of coloured and white flower can be group
obtained by making cross in sweet pea with a. The number of linkage group is equivalent to
genotype Ccpp x CoPP? number of chromosomes of body cell
(1) 6:10 respectively (2) 2:6 respectively b. Reduces the incidence of recombination
(3) 5:3 respectively (4) 9:7 respectively c. Useful for maintaining the good characters of
84 lf size of starch grains in pea is considered as the newly developed variety
phenotype, Bb alleles show d. Mother passes the alleles of a sex-linked traits
to both sons and daughters
(1) Dominance
(2) Codominance
e. Females suffer ftom sex linked disorders more
frequently than males
(3) lncomplete dominance (1) All are conect
(4) Pleiotropism (2) Only e is wrong
85 ln Drosophita, genes of grey body and long wings (3) b, c and d are correct
are dominant over black body and vestigeal wings.
(4) a, d, e are wrong
Body colour and wing length are found on the
same chromosome and are completely linked. lf 90. Gigas effect in some plants and bar eyed
pure breeding fruitflies for both characters are Drosophila occur mainly due to
crossed then expected F, phenotyPic ratio should (1) Deletion and duplication, respectively
be
(2) lnversion and translocation, respectively
(1) 3:1 (2)9:3:3:1 (3) Tnsomy and duplication, respectively
(3) 1:1:1:1 (4)7:1:1:7 (4) Autopolyploidy and duplication, respectively
86 Find the correct match between column I and ll 91. How many types of gametes are formed from the
w.r.t. enzyme deficiency mother cell having AaBbCCDd genotypes?
I
Column Column ll (1) 4 (2) 8
(a) Albinism (i) HGPRT (3) 16 (4) 32
(b) PKU (ii) TYrosinase 92. What is the phenotypic ratio in next generation
when plant with genotype CcPp is self crossed
(c) Lesch Nyhan- (iii) Glucocerebrosidase
and gene C and P show complementary
syndrome interaction?
(d) Gaucher's (M) Phenylalanine (11 12:3: 1
disease hydroxylase (2) 9:3:4

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) 9:6:1
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (a) a(iii), b(iv)' c(i)' d(ii) (4) 9:7
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93. Law of segregation can be proved with
31
(1) The presence of dominant genotype in F2 (1)
4 eli
(2) The presence of recessive genotype in Fl
(3) The presence of recessive homozygous in F2
.-. 1 (4)
3
{3t , 8
(4) The presence of heterozygous individual in F2
101 A heterozygous round seeded pea plant is selfed.
94.. What is the probable ratio of dominant individuals Out of a population of 8000, what proportion of
in F2, if mulatto individuals are setf crossed and the progeny produced will have large starch grain size?
character is believed to be controlled by two pairs
of polygenes
(1) 4000 (2) 6000
(3) 8000 (4) 2000
(1) 1:4:6:4'. 1
102 Mr. X is haemophilic and carrier for pKU. What
(2) 15: 1 percentage of sperms posses defective allele for
(3) 1:4:6:4 both traits?
(4) 1:6'. 15:20:15:6:1

(1) 2s% (2) 50%
95. Select an incorrect match of syndrome / disease

(3) 75% (41 0%
associated to the specitic character 103 ln a population, proportion of individuals showing
,|
(1) Klinefelter - Gynaecomastia cystic fibrosis is then the frequency of
1O0OO,
(2) Tumer - 44 + XO carriers is almost
(3) TSD _ Hexosaminidase - A (t 6oh
deficiency e) 2%
(3) 8Y" (4) 1oo/o
(4) Lesch Nyhan - rdiocv ,^.
rnfantire Amaurotic
104. A cross performed in wheat wilh respect to kernel
96 A female carrier for hemophilia is married to a colour (AaBb x aaBb) yields the phenotypic ratio
colourblind male, which of the given is a correct as
expression of expected offspring forthis couple?
(1) 1:3:3:1 (21 1:4: 6:4:1
(1) 50 % males wi be normal (3) 0:i:3:3:0 (4) t5:.1
(2) 50 % males will be colourblind 105. Heterozygous yellow mice is crossed with
(3) 50 % females will be hemophiliac homozygous recessive then which of the following
' condition is seen?
(4) 50% females wifl be cotourbtind
(1) 100% ye ow
97. How many pure line varieties were selected finally (Zl 7So/. brown
by Mendel in Pisum sativum f$ the hvbridlsation
experiments? (3) 50% Yellow
(1) Seven (2) Twetue (4) 25% brown
(3) Fourteen (4) rhirty two '* t#,:ffJn" odd one out w r't incomplete
98. Which of the following trait shows expression in (t) Flower colour in Antinhinum
only homozygous condition?
(2) Coat colour in Andalusian foul
(.r) yellow seed (2) rnflated pod
(3) Flower colour in Mirabitis jalapa
(3) Axial flower (4) Yellow pod
(4) coat colour in short horned catfle
99 How many types of gametes can be produced by 107. Morgan utilised the Drosophilaas an experimental
plant having genotype PpQqRrSsttUu? material for his investigations as
(1) 8 (21 16 (1) Femate flies are distinguishabte from mate flies
(3) 32 (4) 4 due to their small size
1OO. What is the probability of white flowered plants in (2) lt can complete its life cycle an 12 months
F2 generation while performing the dihybrid cross (3) lt can be grown in complex nutrient medium only
in Pisum sativum? (4) Single mating produce large number of progeny
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Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Principles of lnheritance and Variation 245
108. What is the sex oI Drosophila having genotype (1) GAq Glutamic acid (2) GUq Valine
AAiq + XX? (3) GAG, Valine (4) GUG, Glutamic acid
(1) Sterile male (2) Super male 114. Choose odd one out w.r.t. chromosomal disorder
(3) Fertile female (4) lntersex
(1) Down's syndrome
109. How many types of gametes will be produced by
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
genotype AabbccDd, when last two genes will sho{
complete linkage? (3) Tume/s syndrome
(1\ 2 (21 4 (4) Thalassemia
(3) 8 (4) 16 115. which of the following as@spore arangement in
110. Find the probability of gametes having genotype ascus of Neu/ospora will confirm that crossing over
PqR for the three incompletely linked genes shown occurs at 4-strand stage?
in the given below diagram (1)1:1 (21 1:2:2:2:1
(31 2:4:2 (41 4:a
P o
'20 cM
116. ln which of the following chromosomal abbenations
o q ther6 is a change in gene number in a cell?
40 cN4
('l) lnversion, Duplication
r
(2) Duplication, Deletion
R
(3) Duplication, Translocation
(1) 8% (2) 4% (4) lnversion, Translocation
(3) 60% (4) 30% 117. A heterozygous purple flowered sweet pea plant is
crossed with plant having genotype ccPP What is
11'1. The given pedigree shows
phenotypic ratio obtained?
(1) 1:1 (21 3:1
(3) 15:1 (a) 9:7
118. ln turtes _ regulate(s) the sex determination.
(1) Sex chromosome
(1) Allosomal recessive trait inheritance
(2) Sex hormones
(2) Autosomal recessive trait inheritance
(3) Environmental temperature
(3) Allosomal dominant trait inheritance
(4) Autosomes
(4) Autosomal dominant trait inheritance
of nitrogenous
119. Point mutation in which change
112. Choose the correct one w.r.t. eflect of UV rays base changes the amino acid coded by it, is
(1) A-+G (2) T = T dimer called
(3) A -r 2AP (4) G -+ HX ('l) Silent mutation
113. ln the given below figure what does (a) and (b) (2) Mis-sense mutation
reprcsent
(3) Non-sense mutation
srcKLE-cELL Hb(s) cENE :...:::.:13........ (4) Same.sense mutation
120. Which of the following chromosome complement in
I plant can show gigantism?
Y (1) PORS (2)
mRNA---(a).--. ORR
(3) PPPP (4) POOS
J '121. Which of the following represents Prctenor type ot
Thr sex determination system found in Dioscorca?
1234567 (1) )C(-Xr e) )c(-xo

HbS pEpTtDE Q) Zw -ZZ (4) ZO-ZZ
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122. Which of the following nitrogenous base is '130. Pattern baldness in human male is
methylated form of uracil? (1) Holandric trait
(1) Guanine (2) Thvmine
(2) Sex limited trait
(3) Adenine (+) cytosrne
(3) sex linked trait
123. which set of gametes wilt be produced by the
genotype AaBbCc, if last two genes are completely (4) Sex influenced trait
linked? 13.1. which of the following disease occurs due to
(1) ABC, Abc, aBC, abc frame shift or gibberish mutations?
(2) Abc, aBC only (1) Thalassaemia (2) Alkaptonuria
(3) ABC, abc only (3) Tay sach's disease (4) Haemophilia
(4) ABc' ABc, Abc' Abc, aBC, aBc, abc, abc
132. which of the following is correct w.r.t. sickle cell
124. Morgan worked with the tiny fruit flies - Drosophila anaemia?
melanogaster, which were suitable for genetical
studies, as
('l) Occurs due to point mutation involving hansition
a. They could be grown on simple medium (2) ln heterozygous condition, shows incomplete
dominance
b. They complete their life cycle in about two
weeks (3) An example of mis-sense mutation
c. Single mating muld produce a large numb€r of (4) At 6lh position in beta chain, valine is replaced
progeny flies by glutamic acid
d. No clear cut sexual dimorphism is found 133. ln a genotype AaBbCCDdEEFf if the first two genes
(1) Only d is incorrect are completely linked then how many types of
gameles can be produced?
(2) Both a and d are incorrect
(3) only b is correct
(\ / (2) 22
(4) Both c and d are incorrect P) 2t @f
percentage population of phenotypically parental
125. Melandrium and Coccinia show which tvoe of sex 134.
determination? '' type offsprings in the F2 generation of trihybrid test
cross is
(i) )c(-xy type (2) )c(-xo type
(3) Zv\t-zzrype g) zl-zzttq (\ 125 Q) %
126. ln Drosophi/a, the individual with genotype
(3) 37'5 (4) 50
AAA + XXY is considered to be 135. What would be the frequency of dominant allele in
(1) Superfemale (2) Normal male 16 percent albinic human population?
(3) Normal female (4) lntersex (1) 0.84 (2) 0.4

127. All given disorders are examples of autosomal (3) 0.6 (4) O.2
dominant category except
136. Match the following
(1) Polydactyly (2) Brachydactyly
cotumn_t column_l
(3) Cystic flbrosis (4) Huntington's chorea
128. Number of linkage groups in orosopnitais
a Haemophilia (i) Rudimentary ovaries
(1) 4 (2) 14 b Sickle cell anaemia (ii) X-linked recessive
(3) 7 (4) 8 c Turnels syndrome (iii) Gynaecomastia
129. Autotriploid seedless banana can be produced by d. Klinefelter's (iv) Autosomal
parental cross between recessive syndrome
(1) (AAAA) , (AAAA) (1) a(i.), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(2) (AAA) x (AAA) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) (AA) x (AA) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(4) (AA) x (AAAA) (a) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
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137. Find the conect genotypes of the parents and other 14 lf a cross is made between homozygous tall plant
offsprings, if the chlld has blood group 'O'father with yellow seeds (TTYY) and dwarf plant with
has blood group 'A and mother blood group B yellow seeds (ttYy). What proportions of tall and
genotype
Parental Other offsprings
yellow seeded offspring could be expected in
resulting generation?
Father Mother (1) Uo/o (21 10oo/o
(1) lA lB n lB lA t8
(3) 50% (41 6.250/.
(2) lA lo lB lo lB lo, lA lA, lB tB
145 Down's syndrome and Klinefelte/s syndrome both
(3) tA tA tB to r tB, tA to can be included in
(4) lA lo 18 lo lB lo, lA lo, lA tB (1) Autosomal trisomy (2) Monosomy
138. Who noticed that the behaviour of chromosomes is (3) Tnsomy (4) Allosomal trisomy
parallel to the behaviour of genes?
146. ln human ABO group system d iffere nt
(1) Temin and Baltimore alleles allow the possibility of _ different
(2) Conens and Tschermak types of genotypes in population
(3) Beadle and Tatum (1) 3, 4 (2\ 2. 4

(4) Sutton and Boveri (3) 3, 6 (4) 6, 3
'139. The males have only one X-chromosome besides 147 What is the percentage probability of getting
the autosomes whereas females have a pair of oftprings with first recessive and rest heterozygous
X-chromosomes in traits from F2 generation of trihybrid test cross?
(1) Grasshopper (2) Humans

(1) 37.5 (2) 25
(3) Birds (4\ Drosophila
(3) 50 (4) 12.5
140. How many possible genotypes can be observed in 148 Which one of the following is inmrrectly matched?
a human population for ABO blood group system? (1) Patau's syndrome - Autosomal
(1) 3 (21 6 aneuploidy
(3) 10 (4) 4 (2) Sickle cell anaemia - Nonsense mutation

141. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. recessive traits for
(3) Klinefeltefs syndrome - Very low sperm
garden pea plant) count
(1) Green pod and green seed (4) Cystic fibrosis - Mendelian disorder
149 A dihybrid organism (AaBb) is crossed to its pure
(2) Yellow pod and yellow seed
recessive parent (aabb). What would be the
(3) Terminal and white flower phenotypic ratio if both loci are linked completely?
(4) Wrinkled seed and inflated pod (1)1:'l:1:1 (2\3:1
142. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of (31 1:2:1 (4) 1:1
inheritance was given by
150 A pedigree analysis is glven below
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) de Vries
(4) Mendal
'143. ln a random mating population of 400 individuals,
64% individuals are PTC tasters. Find out the
number of homozygous dominant individuals in the Which of given genetic disorder can be explained
given population for this trait using this presentiation?
() 1n (1) Haernophilia
(2) u (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) 144 (3) Colour blindness
(4) 136 (4) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
24fJ Principles of lnheritance and Variation Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
151. Which of the type of mutation is represented by '156. Match the genetic phenomenon with their
the following diagram? respective ralios
Column I Column ll
abcdef abcdefqr (Genetlc interaction) (Dlhybrid
-------
mnopqr mnop phenotypic
ratio in F,
(1) Duplication generation)
(2) Translocation a. lnhibitory genes (i) 9:3:4
(3) lnversion b. Complernentary genes (ii) 15 : 1
(4) Deletion c. Recessive epistasis (iii) 12 : 3 : 1
152. ln given pedigree chart the genotype of diseased

d. Duplicate genes (w) 13 : 3
male will be e. Dominant epistasis (v) 9 : 7
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i)
(2) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii), e(v)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(v), e(iii)
'157. The map distance between genes A and B is 3
units, B and C is 10 units, and C and A is 7 units.
The order of the genes in a linkage map
constructed on the above data will be
(1) Aa (2) aa (1) A, B, c (2) A, c, B
(3) XcY (4) XYc (3) B, c, A (4) B, A, C
153. lf three loci are completely linked, what would be 158. Select a correct match
the phenotypic ratio in F2 generation of a trihybrid Organism Linkage group
test cross?
(11 Drosophila 8
(1) 1 : 'l : 1:1:1 :1'. 1:1 (21 llewospo,a 7
(2\ 3:1 (3\ Pisum sativum 14
(3)1:1 (41 Oryza sativa 24
(4) 1:2:1 159. ln pedigree analysis symbol for heterozygous
autosomal recessive is
1 . lf two genes a and b are linked and shows 20%
recombination. The proportion of gametes produced
in F1 by a dihybrid ++/ab derived from a cross
(1) e)E
between ++/++ and ab/ab would be (3) (4) [(D
(1) ++ 697" : ab 20o/o 160. lf gene frequency for fused ear tobe is 0.6, then
(2) ++ 5gy,: ab 50% what will be the number of heterozygous fused ear
lobe individuals in a population of 2000?
(3) ++ 40% : ab 40yo
..
+ a 10%
100/o: +b
(1) 1180 (21 1120
(4) ++ 29o1" : ab 20o/o . + a 20o/o . + b 20o/o
(3) 960 (4) 1440
'* U:iq"J:J;H:133:""t3:;îTl^+l:3'J: 'u' [1,,i10"1,'lij:$['.;ff',:"ilff: T:l:;

ccc' represents
TAT' it
genotype AaBb shows independent assortment?
(1) Silentmutation (\ ab = 2S%, AB = 75%
(2) Mis-sense mutation e\ Aa = 50%, Bb = 50%
(3) Non-sense mutation (3) AB = 25o/o, aB = 25oh, Ab = 25o/o, ab = 25o/o
(4) Frame shift mutation (4) AB = 50%, ab = 50%

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162. Consider the cross PpQQRTSS , PpqqRRSs. Find 169
out the proportion of progeny with genotype
ppoqRRss in the resulting population.
1 1
(2t
(1)
u i
b
1 1
(3) (4) What is the genotype of organisms a and b in the
G ag
pedigree?
163. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if
the modified allele produces
(1) a-Aa,b-aa (2) a-aa,b-AA
A. The normal/less efficient enzyme (3) a-Aa, b-AA (4) a-aa,b-Aa
170. Choose correct option w.r.t. given figure for
B. No enzyme at all
determination of sex by chromosomal differences.
C. A non-functional enzyme
(1) Only A is conect (2) C & A are conect
(3) Only B is correct (4) B & C are conect
1Al. Ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic
effects is known as
F a. b
II
(1) Hominance
(2) Pleiotropy
(3)
(4)
Multiple allelism
lncomplete dominance
F
c. d.
165. Morgan and his group observed when the two
genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the (1) b after spermatogenesis forms only one type of
gametes
same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene
combinations were much higher than the non- (2) b & c represents same sex
parental type, this is due to (3) a, d are heterogametic
(1) lndependent assortnent (4) Sex determination in d is similar to
grasshopper
(2) Linkage
171. Study the pedigree chart given below and select
(3) Crossing over the set of correct statements.
(4) Competence
166. Type of sex determination in Melandrium is 1 ?
xr
(1) )c( - (2) )c( - xo
(31 zz-zv{ (41 zo-zz
167. Phenylketonuria in humans is caused by the 2 34 5
absence of one liver enzyme required for synthesis
of tyrosine from phenylalanine, this enzyme is t
(1) Hexosaminidase B 123

(2) Phenylalanine tyrosinase a. lt shows inheritance of autosomal disease like
cystic fibrosis
(3) Phenylalanine hydrorylase
b. Genotype of lF3 will be AA
(4) Tyrosinase
c. lt shows inheritance of autosomal dominant
168. What is probability of homozygous individuals for disease like polydactyly
both characters in F2 generation of a dihybrid d. Genotype of l-2 will be Aa
cross?
Correct statements are :
(1) 1t2 (2\ 3t4 (1) a, c (2) b, d
(3) 1/3 (4) 1t4 (3) a, d (4) a, b
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172. Mark the odd one (wr.t. monohybrid cross for size 177 . ln ZZ-ZW type of sex determination
of starch gtain in Pisum sativuml (1) Male individuals are heterogametic
('l) Phenotype of hybrid (F1) does not resemble (2) Female individuals have two types of sex
either of the Parent chromosomes
(2\ ln F2 generation, 75% individuals show (3) Male individuals produce some gametes
phenotype of F1 generation without sex chromosomes
(3) The effect in hybrid is intermediate of the (4) Male and female individuals both have two
expression of the two alleles types of sex chromosomes
(4) Phenotypic and genotypic ratios are same in
178. F1 progenies resemble both the parents in c€se of
F2 generation
(1) Dominant - recessive relationship between two
173. Match the column I with column ll non-allelic genes
I
Column Column ll (2) lncomplete dominance
a. X$ody (i) Sutton and Boveri (3) Alleles contributing the trait equally
b. Linkage (ii) Wilkins and Franklin (4) Traits controlled by more than one gene
c. Chromosomal theory (iii) Henking 179. lf a cross is made between pure tall and hybrid
of inheritance yellow seeded pea plant with hybrid tall and hybrid
d. X-ray diffraction data (iv) Morgan yellow seeded pea plant then number of plants
of DNA hybrid for both traits in a population of 320 plants
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) will be
(2) a(iii),'b(iv), c(i), d(i') (1) 40 (2) 80
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) 120 (4) 160
(a) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) 180. Drosophila with genotype AA + XXXY will be a
174. Which of the following genetic disorder is caused (1) Super female
due to the presence of an additional copy of the (2) Normal female
chromosome number 21?
(3) lntersex
('l) Patau syndrome
(4) Normal male
(2) Edward syndrome
181. ln a hybridization experiment with three
(3) Cridu chat syndrome heterozygous genes for seed shape, seed colour
(4) Mongolism and pod colour in garden pea plant, the percentage
population obtained with green pod, round seed
175. lf the frequency of an autosomal dominant allele is and green cotyledon is
0.6. Calculate the number of recessive phenotypic
individuals in a population of 10000. (1) 14%
(1) 6000 (2) 3600 (2) 25%
(3) 1600 (4) 4800 (3) 12.5yo
176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? (41 4.60/0
(1) Sturtevant used the ftequenry of recombination 182. The figure below shows the chromosome
between gene pairs on the same chromosome segregation during germ cells formation with four
as a measure of the distance between genes stages labelled as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the
right option giving all the four stages correctly
(2) Sutton and Boveri argued that the pairing and identifed
separation of a pair of chromosomes would
+
lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they Bivalent
canied
(3) Y-linked genes are holandric \!. r\a
l#ql
+
Gt
4!r
(4)7:1: 1:7 as linkage ratio in case of (A) (B)
=H :rr
dihybrid test cross means that there are 8
parental and 8 recombinant plants (C) (D) Germ cells
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(1) (A) lnterphase (B) Metaphas+'l 189. ln pedigree analysis, the meaning of symbol
(C)Telophasel (D)AnaPhasell IS
(2) (A) c1 (B) Gz (1) Still birth

(C) Anaphasel (D) Anaphasell (2) Dizygotic twin
(3) (A) c1 (B) Gz (3) Mating between relatives
(C)Metaphase.l (D)AnaPhasel
(4) Sex unspecified
(4) (A) Gr (B) Gz
190. Find the odd one (w.r.t. dominant traits in garden
(C) Anaphase-l (D) MetaPhasell pea)
183. Males are heterogametic and females are (1) Yellow pod colour
homogametic in
(2) Violet flower colour
(1) Human beings and birds
(3) Yellow seed colour
(2) Fruit fly and butter flY
(3) Grasshopper and cockroach
(4) Full pod shape
(4) Birds and silkworm 191. What is correct for AB blood group system?
1M. What is the percentage probability of getting a. The effect of both the allelels of a gene is
colour blind offsprings from carrier mother and equally expressed.
colour blind father? b. Produces intermediate phenotypic effect.
(1) so% ? and 50% 3 P1 zsv" 3 and75"/, l c. Blending of both alleles occurs.
(3) 1oo% 6 1n1 roov"

d. There is no intermediate phenotypic effect.
9
185. Henking first observed sex chromosome in the
('l ) a, c, d
form of (2) a, b, c
('l) Ban body (3) a, d
(2) Y chromosome (4) b, c
(3) x{ody
192. All white eyed male Drosophila can be obtained
(4) Z chromosome from which one of the following cross?
186. CML or Philadelphia syndrome occurs due to
(1) Red eyed
I (homozygous) x white eyed d
('l) Translocation (2) Deletion
(3) Pericentric inversion (4) Gene mutation (2) Red eyed d , white eyed g
(3) Red eyed g (hetrozygous) , white eyed d
(1) Edward's syndrome is due to trisomy of 13th
chromosome
(4) Red eyed d ,. canier g
(2) AA + XXY condition is Jacob's syndrome
193 Which of the given genetic disorders (1 - 4) can be
(3) HGPRT deficiency leads to Gaucher's disease
explained using following pedigree chart?
(4) ln sickle cell anaemia 3'-CTC-5' on DNA
template strand is mutated to CAC
188. Mendel's work on P,sum sativum shows that
(1) Alleles show blending inheritance
(2) F, resembled either of the two parents
(1) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
(3) ln a dissimilar pair of factors. members of the .-
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
pair are codominant
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) cenotype of F2 tall plant can be determined by
cross with recessive parent (4) GlucoseSphosphate dehydrwenase deficiency
rffirEmeiloir.!f!r*.*f*
194. Match Coloumn I with Column ll 199. Read the following four statements (A-D)
I
Column Column lt A. The characters never blend in heterozygous
a. Super male (i) Trisomy of 13h
condition.
chromosome B. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not
b. cause mutation.
Patau's syndrome (ii) 2n + 'l + 1
c. Klinefelter's syndrome (iii) AA + ayy

C. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
abenations.
d. Double trisomy (iv) 44 + XX:( D. ln chicken, sex chromosomes in male are ZW
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) and in females are ZZ.
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) How many of the above statements iyare right?
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (1) Trrto (2) TIrce
(a) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Four (4) One
195. ln pea plant, the intermediate size of starch grains 200. Following figure represents which type of
is due to chromosomal abenation?
(1) Dominant epistasis a a

b c
(2) Codominance C b
(3) lncomplete dominance _).
d d
(4) Recessive epistasis e
196. ldentify the correct number of gametes as well as
t I
genotypes and phenotypes of progenies ('l) Oeletion
respectively, produced in the self pollination of plant
(2) Pericentric inversion
with genotype of TtRRSSeqMM
(3) Duplication
(1\ 4,8, 4
(4) Paracentric inversion
(2) 3, 8, 3
201. Represented below is the inheritance pattem ofa
(3) 4, 9, 4
certain type of traits in humans, which one of the
(41 4, 6, 4 following conditions could be an example of this
pattem?
197. What is the percentage of very dark individuals in
F2 if very dark and very light individuals are taken
as parents and this character is controlled by three Father Mother
pairs of genes?
(1) 36%
Son Daughter
(2) 3.56%
(3) 50%
(4) 1.56yo (1) Cystic fibrosis
198. How.many diseases in the list given below are (2) Colour-blindness
Mendelian disorders? (3) Thalassaemia
Thalassaemia, Klinefelter's Syndrome, (4) Myotonic dystrophy
Colour-blindness, Down's Synd rome, 202. Number of linkage groups
Haemo ilia, Cystic flbrosis, Phenylketonuria
(1) ls seven for maize
(1) Four (2) Does not include sex chromosomes
(2) Five
(3) ts always equal to the number of diploid set of
(3) Six chromosomes
(4) Seven (4) ls twenty four in human males
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Princip les of lnheritance and Variation 253
zuJ. Drosophila was used by Morgan for his (1) Autosomal re@ssive
experimenls as (2) Autosomal dominant
(1) lt completes its life cycle in two months (3) X-linked dominant
(2) Large size male can be easily grown on (4) Y-linked
sucrose medium
209. lf a true breeding white flowered Antirrhinum is
(3) Hereditary variations can be seen with low crossed with true breeding red flowered plant then
power microscope what will be the phenotypic ratio of white and red
(4) More than one option is correct flowers in F2 generation of this cross?
204. When the hybrids produced in a cross between (1) 2: 1 (2) 1 :'l
TTYYSS and ttyyss are selfed, the genotypes (3) 3:1 (4\ 1:2:1
TTYYSS, TIYYSS, TtYySS and TtYySs would be
210. Find out the sequence of genes on chromosome,
in a proportion of
if crossover value between p and q, r and s, p and
(1)1:9:6:8 Q\1'.3:4:27 s, q and r, p and r are 4Yo,8o/o, 1Oo/o, 14o/o and
(31 1:2:4:8 (4\ 1:2:4:2 18% respectively
205. Mr. Sohan with a genetic disease marries a (1) NSr

phenotypically normal woman. They have three (2) pqrs
sons and three daughters; all of the daughters have
(3) rpqs
the same disease as their father, but none of the
sons is affected. Select the right choice. The (4) spqr
disease is caused by 211. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
(1) An X-linked recessive allele ('l) Factors - Discrete units
(2) An autosomal recessive allele (2) Multiple alleles - ABO blood group
(3) An autosomal dominant allele (3) Female Drosophila - Heterogametic
(4) An Xlinked dominant allele (4) lnbom enor - PhenYlketonuria
206 Choose the correct sequence of location of
212. Whal is the percentage probability of getting non-
following traits of Plsum on chromosome
parental genotypes population in resulting progeny
respectively
if a plant with three heterozygous genes is crossed
Stem height, Seed colour, Seed shape' with recessive traits for all the three genes?
Pod colour
(1) 5,7, 1,4 (2\ 4,7,1,5
(1\ 2s (2\ 12.5
(3) 50 $) 7s
(3) 4. 1,7,5 (4) 1,4,7,5
207. Genotype of parent's blood group which cannot 213. ldentify the A, B & C in the following diagram w.r.t'
produce same blood group type in genotype of segregation of chromosomes during germ cells
their offspring is formation.
(1) lAlA and lAlB (2) nlB and lBlB
(3) flB and lolo (4) lAlB and lAlo B C Germ cells
208. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the

inheritance of a certain trait in humans .==a -<7
-(\
=,8
-tt -A
-r --l
(1) A- G2, B -Anaphase l, C - Anaphase ll
(2) A- S, B - Metaphase l, C - AnaPhase I
(3) A- G1, B - Gr, C - Anaphase ll

The best possible explanation of trait traced in the
(4) A - G2' B - Metaphase ll' C - Anaphase ll
above chart is
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!${ Principles of tnheritance and Vari ation Last Leap for NEET (Parl-l)
214. Moean observed tight linkage in Drosophlla with 219 Morgan coined the term recombination to describe
only 1.3 percent recombination for
(1) Physical association of genes on a
(1) White eye and ye ow body chromosome
(2) Normal wing and yeltow body (2) Generation of new traits by mutation
(3) White eye and miniature wing (3) Linkage of two genes on different
(4) Yellow body and miniature wing chromosomes
215. Females are heterogametic with two sex (4) Generation of non-parental gene combinations
chromosomes in 220. Males are heterogametic with only one sex
(1) Fruitily chromosome besides the autosomes in
(2) crasshopper (1) Grasshopper

(3) Moths (2) Birds
(4) Birds (3) Human
216. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic (4) More than one option is corect
is extremely rare because mother of such a 221. Same degree of polymorphism is obtained if DNA
female has to be at least is isolated from
('l) Carrier and father should be normal (1) Hair-follicle samples of two different organisms
(2) Carrier and father should be haemophilic (2) Blood and skin samples of same individual
(3) Haemophilic and father should be normal (3) Sperm samples of two different organisms
(4) Normal and father should be normal (4) More than one option is correct
217. Find correct match 222. Which of the following options gives one correct
example of dominant and recessive traits or
Column I Column ll
disorders?
a. Gynaecomastia (i) AA + XO
Dominant Recessive
b. Turner's syndrome (ii) AA + )Ory
(1) Green pod Terminal flower
c. Down's syndrome (iii) Autosomal
(2) Thalassaemia Huntington's chorea
recessrve gene
(3) Yellow bodied
d. Thalassemia (iv) AA + 1 + X)(/XY
Drosophila
Brown bodied
Drosophila
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(lv), d(iii) (4) Muscular Myotonic dystrophy
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) dystrophy
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) 223. Which of the following is a non-parental type of
progeny obtained by Morgan while carrying out
(a) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
dihybrid cross?
218. Read the following statement having two blanks (A & w' m'
B): @
(1)
"The functioning allele, which represents the original
phenotype is the A allele and the modified wm
.--_...-f'\
allele is generally the B allele,'. (2) ,---------rf.
- wm
The one correct option for the two blanks is wm
G:--TD
(1) A- Dominant B - Codominant (3) .---------."-r-r-,
(2) A- Recessive wm
B -Dominant
m
(3) A- Dominant B -Recessive -r--r-o-'
(4)
(4) A- Recessive B - Ccdominant
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224. Which of the following pedigree chart represents
inheritance of hypertrichosis?
sEcnoN - B
(1)
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(21
assertion, then mark ('l)
(3) false, then mark (3)
statements, then mark (4)
1. A : Height expression in human beings is a
polygenic inheritance.
R : Three non-allelic gene pairs affect the same
(4) IM
#rz
character in the same way.
2. A'. ln humans, minimum number of genes are
present on holandric chromosome.
225. How many kinds of genotype and phenotype will be R : Largest gene is sex linked gene.
produced respectively in trihybrid test cross? 3. A : Genes are synthesized artificia y or may be
(1) 8 and 27 (2) 4 and 9 lsotated and mapped while studying forward
(3) 8 and 16 (4) 8 and 8 genetics
226. Select incorrect option w.r.t. sickle cell anaemia R : The products of genes are unknown
(1) lt is an example of point mutation 4 A : Dominant allele influences the appearance of
phenotype even in presence of an alternative
(2) lt occurs due to base substitution i.e. transition allele.
(3) Glutamic acid is replaced by valine at sixth R: The product of dominant allele is said to be
position in polypeptide chain normal or unmodified giving full expression.
(4) Mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes 5 A: Gene controlling starch synthesis in

pea shows
porymerization under row oxysen tension _ ;il'..rTi:llllir"j'r?;" express rarse

227. By simply looking at the phenotype of adominant starch grains as dominant but is incompletely
trait, it is not possible to know the genotypic dominant for seed shape.
composition To determine the genotypic 6. A : one ban body is a characteristic of a Klinefelter
composition which of the following cross was human.
performed by Mendel?
R : Klinefelters are genetically xxy
(1) Selfing in dominant phenotype showing 7. A j Sickle cell anaemia is resulted due to a
organisms transversion.
(2) Crossing between dominant phenotype R: A pyrimidine'T'is substituted by'A'in DNA
organism with recessive parent sequence normally coding for glutamic acid
(3) selfing in recessive parent 8 A : Human ABo blood group is an example of

multiple alleles and codominance.
(4) crossing between heterozygous and
R : Three alleles produce slighfly different forms of
homozygous dominant parent the sugar.
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9. A: Nondisjunction of chromosomes at the time of R: They have less number of autosomes than
gametogenesis results in the gain or loss of a normal female.
chromosome in gametes. 12. A: Holandric genes are found on Y chromosome.
R: These mutations are called aneuploidy. R: lnheritance of holandric genes is always from
10. A: A reciprocal cross can distinguish between father to son.
nuclear and cytoplasmic inheritance. 13. A: A dihybrid always produces four kinds of
R: It does not help to distinguish sex linked and gametes.
autosomal inheritance. R: Law of segregation and law of independent
11. A: ln Tumer's syndrome, females lack secondary assortment are always followed during
sexual characters. gametogenesis.
tr o tr
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Chapter 7
Cell : The Unit of Life

&,:t, ..:'r.:,,-,ffi 7' Match the following
I
Column Column ll
objecti'e Type Questions
a. cristae (i) chromatin
1. which one of the following cell organelle is not the b. Glycosylation (ii) Mitochondria
part of endomembrane system?
(1)vacuole (2) Lysosome c' Rubisco (iii) chloroplast
(3) Golgi bodies (4) Peroxisome d Histones (iv) Golgi complex

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), qiii), d(iv)
2. choose incorreci starement
(3) a(i)' b(iii)' c(iv)' d(ii) (a) a(iv)' b(iii)' c(ii)' d(i)
(1) Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a living
cell 8. The proteins in the cell membrane responsible for
facilit€ted diftlsion
(2) Robert Brown discovered cell
(1) Perform both uphill and downhill transport
(3) Electron microscope revealed all the structural
details of cell (2) Require metabolic energy for their activity
(4) A large cell has a higher volume : surface ratio (3) Are under hormonal regulation
than a smaller cell (4) Do not show transport saturation
3. The prokaryotic cells are represented by all, 9. Find out the inconEct match
except (1) Lysosome - lnracellular scavenging
(1) Red algae (2) Bluegreen algae
ir1 oo,n, mmptex _ Metabotism of xenobiotics
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Ray tungi
.. mRNA (g) Eraioptast - oir and fat storage
4. The ribosome of a polysome translate the (4) Glyorysomes - Gluconeogenesis
into
(1) ER (2) protein 10. According to the universally accepted model of
plasma membrane
(3) phosphotipkis toi o*
(l) More extrinsic proteins are found on the outer
5. The plasma membrane of human RBC contains face of membrane
(1) 70% phospholipids and 30% sterols (2) Extrinsic proteins show flitrflop movement
(2) 52% proteins and 40olo lipids (3) Glycocalyx is exdusively present towards outer
(3) 40% proteins and 52olo lipids face of membrane
(4) 90% water and loyo integral proteins (4) Certain extrinsac proteins also help in transport
across membrane
6. The lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in
SER among 11. Which of the following is inconectly matched?
(1 ) Hopanoid containing baclerial cell ('l ) Plasmosome - Nudeolonema
(2) Plant cells (2) Janus green - Mitochondria

(3) Animal cells (3) Protoplasm theory - Purkinje
(4) More than one option is conect (4) Ribophorins - Glycoproteins
258 Cell : The Unit of Life Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
12. Mark the conect statement 19. Which of the following disease is caused by
(1) Histone proteins have lysine and arginine only failure of residual bodies to move out of th€ cell?
(2) Petite colony in yeast is a mitochondrial ('l ) Albinism (2) Huntington's chorea
character (3) Edward's syndrome (4) Hurler's disease
(3) RER is involved in detoxification of drugs 20. Which of the following statements is incorrect in
(4) 20 microtubules are present in the peripheral relation to cell structure?
part of centrlole
(1) Centrioles are found in bryophytes,
13. How many protofilaments are present in each pteridophyles and cycads
peripheral triplet of centriole?
(2) Peroxisomes developing from endoplasmic
(1) 39 (2) Less than 39 reticulum contain special docking proteins for
(3) e (4) 26 obtaining materials from cytosol
14. Which of the following synthesizes proteins for (3) Flimmers are found in flagellum oi Euglena
export? and Chlamydomonas
('l ) Free ribosomes (2) SER (4) Nucleolonema is considered to be precursor of
granular region of nucleolus
(3) Lysosome (4) RER
15. Which parl of nucleolus is rich in calcium and 21 . Single envelope system is characteristic feature of
non-histone proteins? (1) Prokaryotic cell
(1) Pars granulosa (2) Pars chromosoma (2) Eukaryotic cell
(3) Nucleolonema (4) Pars amorpha (3) Mesokaryotic cell
16. For the fluid mosaic model of membrane given by (4) More than one option is correct
Singer and Nicolson, which of the following
conditions are not associated? 22. Thin, amorphous and cementing layer between two
adjacent cells, is
(1) Lipids enable the lateral movement of proteins
in the membrane (1) Primary wall (2) Middle lamella
(2) Fluid nature of membrane helps in secretion (3) Secondary wall (4) Plasma membrane
(3) Lipids can show flip flop movement from one 23. Choose incorrect statement regarding fluid mosaic
layer of membrane to other model of plasma membrane
(4) Fluidity of membrane is mainly due to (1) Protein icebergs in sea of lipids
oligosaccharides
(2) Glycolipid and glycoprotein present on outer
17. Select the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t. functions surface
of various cellular mmponents
(3) Extrinsic proteins in lipid bilayer cause flip-flop
a. Middle lamella works as glue to hold the movement
adjacent cells together.
(4) Two lipid layers are joined by hydrophobic
b. Mitochondria, chloroplast and vacuoles are attraction
part of endomembrane system as their
functions are coordinated. 24. Dictyosome is
c. Lipoidal steroid hormones are synthesized by (1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
ER component which is not associated to 80 (2) Smooth endoplasmic reliculum
S ribosomes.
(3) Non-connected cistemae in plants
(1) Only b (2) Only a
(4) lnterconnected cisternae in animals
(3) Both a and c (4) Both b and c
18. Select the correct match 25. Heterophagosome is
ribosome -
70 'S' (1) Primary lysosome
(1 ) Bacterial mesosome
(2) Cytoskeleton - Lipoproteins (2) Secondary lysosome
(3) Kinetochore - Centromere (3) Residual bodies
(4) Lysosome - Catalase (4) Autophagic vacuole
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Cell : The Unit of Life 259
26. Both chloroplast and mitochondria show similarity 35. ln condensed state of mitochondria
ll (1) ATP synthesis is reduced
(1 ) Presence of DNA with more AT (2) Oxidative phosphorylation and ETS occurs at
fast rate
(2) Presence of 70s ribosome
(3) lntermembranal space becomes smaller
(3) Presence of Porins
(4) Core or matrix is enlarged
36. What is true for plasma membrane?
27. Choose incorrect match
(1) lt is asymmetrical due to presence of
('l ) Chloroplast - Thylakoid glycocalyx at inner side only
(2) Golgi bodies - Cristae (2) Lipids show flipflop movement
(3) Mitochondria - Oxisome (3) Exlrinsic proteins are more abundant on the
outer surface
(4) Centriole - Microtubules
(4) Percentage of carbohydrates is higher than
28. Which of the following is not associated with proteins
chloroplast of higher Plants?
37. The endomembrane system of cell includes
(1) Thylakoid (2) Grana
( l) ER + Golgi body + Mitochondria
(3) Quantasome (4) PYrenoids (2) ER + Golgi body + Vacuole + Microtubules
29. Enzymes for p-oxidation of fatty acids are found in (3) ER + Golgi body + Lysosome + Vacuole
(1) Glyoxysome (2) SPhaerosome (4) ER + Golgi body + Chloroplast + Lysosome
(3) Peroxisome (4) Lomasome 38. Kinetochores are associated with
30. Cell organelle with property of detoxification of (1) Outer part of primary constriction
drugs is (2) Cenkomere in its inner central part
(1) RER (2) Lysosome (3) Secondary constriction
(3) Sphaerosome (4) SER (4) Satellite
31. Microtubules are structural part of all, except 39. lf a karyotype shows fewer metacentric
chromosomes then it is
(1) Blepharoplast (2) Flagella
(1) Asymmetric karyotype
(3) Spindle fibres (4) Fibrous lamina
(2) Symmetric karyotype
32. Chromosome found in oocytes of many animals is
(3) Primitive karyotype
(1) Lampbrush chromosome
(4) ldiogram
(2) Polytene chromosome
40. Choose the correct statement regarding orthodox
(3) B-chromosome state of mitochondria
(4) More than one option is correct (1) lt is an active state of mitochondria
33. How many microtubules are associated with the (2) Matrix is enlarged while outer chamber is
structure of centriole? narow
(1) 11
(3) Mitochondria are actively engaged in
performing Krebs cycle, ETS and oxidative
(2\ 18 phosphorylation
(3) 20 (4) Cristae are more randomly distributed and
outer chamber quite large
(4\ 27
34. Plasma membrane is regarded as asymmetric
41. Find the correct statement regarding RER
because (1) lt bears enzymes for modifying polypeptides

(1) lt is made of phospholipid and protein (2) lt takes part in detoxification of toxic chemicals
with the help of cytochrome 450
(2) Lipids in outer and inner side are different
(3) lt makes glycosomes
(3) Have permeases for facilitated diffusion (4) lt forms sphaerosome anC synthesizes
(4) Proteins are like icebergs in sea of lipids ascorbic acid
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260 Cell : The Unit of Life Last Leap for NEET (Pa(- r)
42. Microfilaments are 49. Which of the following is true for macrotubules?
(1) Non-contractile & hollow fibrils (1) Made up of proteins tubulin and actin
(2) Contractile & hollow fibrits (2) Microtubules are restricted to animal cells only
(3) Contractile & solid fibrits (3) They are tube like branched cylindrical
structures
(4) Non-contractile & solid fibrits
(4) T.S. of microtubules shows anay of 13 rows
43. Cilia and flagella in a eukaryotic cell
of subunits
(1) Are motile at base 50. ln which of the following group of families there is
(2) Are made of 20 microtubules deposition of Ca-oxalate and Ca-carbonate
crystals on cell wall respectively?
(3) Are devoid of matrix and flagellar sheath
(1) Moraceae and Cruciferae
(4) Shows rotatory movement
(2) Acanthaceae and Papilionaceae
44. A similarity between sap vacuoles of eukaryotes
and periplasmic space of bacteria is that (3) Cucurbitaceae and Poaceae
(4) Urticaceae and Cucurbitaccae
( l) Both contain hydrolytic enzymes
(2) Both contain anthocyanin pigments
51. Luciferase enzyme, generating light in fire flies, is
(3) Both contain metabolic gases which regulate

present in _
(1) Sphaerosomes (2) peroxisomes
buoyancy
(3) clyoxysomes (4) Lomasomes
(4) Both are osmoregulatory and excrelory in
function
52. A group of characters that identifies a particular
chromosome set is regarded as
45. Choose incorrect statement regarding cell
membrane
(1) ldiogram (2) Karyotype
( l) Fluidity increases with increase rn lipid
(3) Plasmon (4) cenome
molecules 53. Match the following
(2) Overton stated that it is lipid membrane Column I Column ll
(3) Lewis discovered pinocytosis (Chloroplast shape) (Atgae)
(4) Slime mould has naked protoplasm without cell
a. cirdle shaped (i) Zygnema
membrane b. Stellate (ii) Oedogonium
46. Eukaryotic cells contain c. Discoid (iii) Utothnx
(1 ) 70 'S' ribosomes d. Reticulate (iv) Vaucheria
(2) 70 'S' and 80 'S' ribosomes (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (a) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) 80 'S' ribosomes
54. Which of the following cell organelle is closely
(4) 70 'S' and 60 'S' ribosomes associated with ER & helps in formation of plasma
47. Choose incorrect statement regarding cells membrane during cytokinesis?
(1) Mycoplasma, the smallest cell, is only 0.3 l,tm (1) Centrosome (2) Sphaerosomes
in length while bacteria could be 3 to 5 pm (3) colgi bodies (4) Ribosomes
(2) Haemoglobin associated human cells are about 55. Which of the following is arginine rich histone
7 pm in diameter protein?
(3) The shape of the cell may not vary with the (1) H?A and H2B (2) H3 and Ha
function they perform (3) H. and H, (4) H, and Ho
(4) Nerve cells are longest cells 56. Mitochondria are rich in and their DNA
48. Robert Brown discovered a dense, spherical body have high _ ratio
in the cells of an _ and named it as (1) Mn, GC
'Nucleus'
(2) Mn, AT
(11 Acetabulaia (2\ A ium sativa (3) zn, Gc
(3) Orchid (41 Arceuthobium (4) Zn, AT
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Cell : The Unit of Life 261
Last LeaP for NEET (Part-l)
57. How many satellite chromosomes are present in . Choose the incorrec-t statement
the somaiic cell of human beings suffering from (1) Glycocalyx acts as eye and ear of the cell
Patau's syndrome? (2) Tertiary wall is made uP of xylan
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) DNA as well as RNA both are absent in the
(3) 6 (4) 11 plasma membrane
58. The ability of proteins to move laterally within the (4) Spectrin and cytochrome oxidase are the
overall bilayer lipid molecules of plasma membrane intrinsic Proteins
is measured as its
65. Ribosomes attach lo endoplasmlc reticulum by
(1) Stability their
(2) Thickness (1) 50 'S' sub-unit
(3) Degree of Permeability (2) 60 'S' sub-unit
(4) Fluidity (3) 40 'S' sub-unit
59. Term 'Ergasome' explains
('l) mRNA associated with Proteins bound
(2) ER cisternae associated with ribosomes
-- Which of the following is not a membrane
66. plant?
cett organette present in the cell of mango
(3) mRNA associated with group of ribosomes (1) Mitochondria (2) ChloroPlast
(4) ER vesicles in sarcoplasmlc reticulum (3) Ribosome (4) Centriole
60. 9 + O microtubule constitution with cartwheel of 67. How many statements are incorrect amongst
the
structure is present in the proximal region
following?
(1) Basal bodies (2) Kinetosomes
a. Microfilaments help in the formation of
(3) Blepharoplast (4) All of these cleavage funow during cell division
6'1. Match the following b. Microtubules present in the cytoplasm are
Column I Column ll highly labile
a. ER (i) Tubulin c. Nuclear lamina is a network of acidic
proteins
b. Golgi complex (ii) Acid phosphatase and intermediate filaments
c. Lysosome (iii) Microsomes d. Microtubules control orientation of microfibrils

in cell wall
d. Microtubule (iv) Phragmosomes
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i)' b(iv)' c(iii)' d(ii) ( 1) One
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii)' b(i)' c(iv)' d(ii) (2) Three
62. ln typical structure of plasma membrane (3) Four
a. The liPids are amPhipathic (4) Two
Neutral solutes directly pass through the
and lipid
b. Proteins are arranged asymmetrically 68.
shows fliP floP movement bilayer of plasma membrane because
Extrinsic proteins are abundant towards
them
c. (1) Plasma membrane has special canier for
cytoplasmic face (2) TheY are lipid soluble
(1) All are correct (3) They have specific hydrophilic areas for
their
(2) OnlY b is incorrect passage
(3) OnlY c is correct (4) TheY consume ATP
(4) Both a and c are inconect parts of
69. Lateral loops are uncoiled or expanded
63. Which one of the following statements
is a feature lamobrush chromosome with one to several
iijlSJJti-,itr ;it"' rn"t" loops are made up or
of Primitive karyotype?
(1) Asymmetric chromosomes w'r't centromere (1) DflA only
(2) A few chromosomes with median centromere (2) m-RltA only
between the smallest
iS) o ,"tg" difference of size (3) Protein onlY
and largest chromosome
chromosomes
(4) DNA + mRNA + Protein
(4) Large number of metacentric
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70. Why concentration of number of ions and other 76. The central part of proximal region of centriole is
materials is higher in vacuole than cytoplasm? connected with peripheral triplets by radial spokes.
(1) Vacuolar membrane is permeabte for all These spokes are made up of
substances ('l ) Protein (2) Fatty acid
(2) Tonoplast facilitates transport against (3)Oligosaccharide (4)Phosphotipid
concentration gradient
(3) Vacuole is non-membrane structure
77 . Cell theory formulated by Schleiden and Schwann
does not explain which one of the following
(4) Vacuoles store and synthesize ATP to absorb features?
ions and materials (1) Organisms are composed of cells and their
71 . Find the incorrect statement products
(1) Middle lamella is mainly made up of calcium (2) All cells are basically alike in their structure
pectate and metabolism
(2) Cell wall is formed on the inner side of the cell (3) New cells originate from pre-existing cells
therefore secondary wall formed first
(4) The functions of an organism is an outcome of
(3) Middle lametta gtues the neighbouring ce s activities and interactions of its constituent cells
together
78. Half membrane bound spherical structure
(4) Cell wall helps in cell to cell interaction and associated with synthesis and storage of fat is
provides barrier to undesirable
macromolecules (1) Sphaerosome (2) peroxisome
72. Transitional vesicles enclosing biochemicals (3) Ribosome (4) palade granules
pinched o{f from ER fuse with 79. Which oJ the following enzyme is not found in H2O2
('l ) Maturing face of gotgi body metabolising organelle?
(2) Forming face of gotgi body (1) Malate synthetiase
(3) Primary lysosome for intracellular digestion (2) Uricase
(4) Plasma membrane to remove them from cell (3) D-aminoacid oxidase
73. According to fluid mosaic model of plasma (4) Fhydroxyacid oxidase
membrane the quasifluid nature of
80. Mitochondrial DNA is
(1) Protein enables lateral movement of lipids
(1) With high A-T conrent
within the overall bilayer
(2) Lipid and protein enable the lateral movement (2) With high G-C content
of carbohydrates (3) With low G-C content
(3) Lipid enables lateral movement of proteins (4) Linear DNA with A-T/G-C ratio equat to one
within the overall bilayer 81. Cilia and flagella resemble in the
(4) Lipid enabtes the ftip-flop movement of
(1) Microtubular structure
proteins
74. (2) Presence of basal granules
The content of ribosomal factory is continuous with
rest of the karyotymph (3) Mode of action
(1) Through plasmodesmata (4) More than one option is conect
(2) Through nuclear pores 82. Karyotype with fewer isobrachial chromosomes is
(3) Due to lack of membrane (1) Pnmitive type
(4) Due to presen@ of channels in membrane (2) Asymmetric type
75. Select the incorrect match (3) Symmetric type
(1) ctyoxysome _ p-oxidation (4) Having small size difference between the
(2) Ce ptate formation _ Centrifugat smallest and largest chromosome
(3) Cleavage method of _ Centripetat 83. Who gave the ,,Doctrine of genetic continuity,,?
cytokinesis
(1) R. Hooke (2) Sctrwann
(4) Telomere _ GC segments (3) R. Mrchow (4) Weismann
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Cell : The Unit of Life 263
84. Which of the following stlucture in a chromosome 92. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. plasma membrane)
can be used as amarker? (1) Fluid nature of membrane is important for the
(1 ) Telomere (2) Satellite formation of intercellular junctions
(3) Chromocentre (4) Kinetochore (2) Oligosaccharides are absent on the outer side
85. Choose the incorrect match (3) Exkinsic proteins are more abundant on the
(1) polytene chromosome - Drosophila outer surface than on the inner surface
(2) Transosomes - Double membrane (4) Protein enables lateral movement of lipids
bounded organelle within the overall bilayer
(3) Oleosomes - Discovered by 93. What will be the ratio of number ofaxoneme
p"r.n",
microtubules
in a
_ Mitochondria rifl:ff;1ril3,":$'J"iJjlrof
(4) Janusgreen B
()g:2 (2)9:O
86.TheenzymespresentinlysosomeSbelongtothe
(3) I : 1 (4) 27 :0
class and acidic condition ins-ide the
lysosome is maintained by 94. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Golgi
('l) protons
oxidoreductases, pumping
apparatus
(1) The cis and trans faces of the organelle are
-
(2) Hydrolases, secretion of acids
similar but interconnected
(3) Hydrorases, pumping of- protons , concentricarrv
(4) Lyases, removarof nr;;;;;";" '') lffnn!:'::":','n:"ln;,3'"
87- Find the odd one wr.t. Lysosomal inefflciency (3) lt remains in close association with the
(1 ) Hunter's disease (2) Jacob's syndrome endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Hurler',s syndrome (4) Tay-Sach',s disease (4) The ER vesicles fuse with the cis face
88. p450 found in SER is concemed with detoxification 95. Which of the following sequence is correct w.r't
of drugs and the mechanism involved is basically size?
a (1) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses > Bacteria
(1) Methylation (2) Glycosylation (2) Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > ppLO > Viruses
(3) Hydrorylation (4) Sulphation (3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Bacteria > Viruses
89. Naked DNA is found in (4) Eukaryotic cell > Viruses > PPLO > Bacteria
(1) Chloroplast and leucoplastonly 96. Which one of the following organelles is not
(2) Leucoplast and chromoplast only associated with endomembrane system?
(3) Chloroplast and chromoplast only (1 ) bodies
Golgi (2) ER
(4) All plastids (3) Glyoxysome (4) Vacuole

g0.TheendoplaSmicreticulum'GolgicompIex,9T.Findtheincorrectmatch
lysosomes and vacuoles are considered together (1) Storage of protein - Aleuroplast
as an endomembrane system because (2) Xenobiotic _ RER
('l ) These are present in eukaryotic cells detoxiflcation
(2) They lack DNA (3) Digestive vacuoles - Heterophagosomes
(3) Their functions are coordinated (4) Gluconeogenesis - Glyoxysomes
(4) They have cisternae 98. Which one of the following is not an example of
91. The outer as well as inner membrane of constitutive heterochromatin?
mitochondria (1 ) Satellite (2) Telomere
(1) Form a number of infoldings towards the (3) primary constriction (4) Sex chromatin
matrix 99. Both cilium and flagellum arise from the part which
(2) cardiolipin
Both have similar amount of is structurally similar to
(3) Have more lipids than proteins (1 Centriole
) (2) Kinetochore
(4) Have their own specific enzymes (3) Kinetosome (4) Centrosphere
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100. Read the statements carefully and select the set 106. Match the following
of correct statements Column-l ColumnJl
a. Palade particles are found in all cellular a. ER (i) Packaging of material
organisms
b. A membrane bound structure in nucleus is the
b. Cytoskeleton (ii) Dense granules
site of ribosomal RNA synthesis c. Golgi complex (iii) Synthesls of steroidal
hormones
c. The mitochondria can divide meiotically to
produce daughter mitochondria d. Ribosome (iv) Proteinaceous
structure
d. Vacuoles can occupy about 90% of the volume
of a plant cell (1) a(ii.), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) All except b (2) a & c (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) b&d (4) a&d (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
101. How many radial spokes and microlubules are (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
found in an axoneme of a eukaryotic flagellum 107. ATP powers the movement of cilia and flagella in
respectively? eukaryotic cell. These ATP molecules are
('l) 9 and 20 (2) I and 18 hydrolysed into ADP + iP in cilia and flagella by the
(3) 18 and 18 (4) 18 and 20 activity of
102. How many microtubules are present in the ('l ) Nexin protein
(2) Dynein protein
axoneme part of eukaryotic flagellum? (3) Myosin of muscles (4) Flagellin protein
(1) e (2) 27 108. For the sectional view of chloroplast which is given
(3) 18 (4') 20 below. Choose the correct statement
103. Match the following

I
Column Column ll
a. Cristae (i) Dalton complex
b. sER (ii) NOR
c. Cistemae (iii) Cytochrome P45o
d. Secondary (iv) Plastochondria (1) Envelope possess fully permeable membranes
constriction
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) 'B' possess the enzymes required for protein
and carbohydrate synthesis
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (a) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) 'A' structure giving piles of coins like
104. The human RBC membrane has approximately
appearance is the site of Ca cycle
(1) 40% proteins, 52% lipids (4) 'A Possess ribosomes, large ss circular DNA
(2) 50% proteins, 50% lipids '109. Ribosomes attach to ER by its
(3) 52% proteins, 40% lipids
('l ) 50 S subunit (2) 60 S subunit
(4) 48% proteins, 50% lipids
(3) 40 S subunit (4) 30 S subunit
105. Choose the correct match
110 All are membrane bounded cell organelles in a
Column-l Column-ll typical plant cell, except
a. Membrane fluidity (i) Oligosaccharide ('l ) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
b. Detoxification (ii) TSD (3) Ribosome (4) Chtoroptast
c. Cells recognition (iii) Lipid 11'1. Lysosomal enzymes act at
d. Residual bodies (iv) Cytochrome pruo (1) Basic pH
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) Acidic pH
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) Neutral pH
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) Acidic pH inside lysosome and basic pH in
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) cytosol
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Last Leap for NEET (Paru) Cell : The Unit of Life 265
112. Which of the following protein shows ATPase 1'19 Correct statement in relation to vacuoles is
activity? (1) lt is a triple membrane bound space found in
(1) c-Tubulin of flagella cytoplasm containing sap
(2) Dynein of cilia (2) lt can occupy 90% of cell volume in plants
(3) Nexin of flagella (3) lts membrane allows transport of materials
along the concentration gradient only
(4) Cathepsin of lysosome
(4) Concentration of ions is significantly lesser in
113. Plasmodesmata connections help in vacuole than cytoplasm
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming 120. Find out the incorrect statement
(2) Mitotic division (1) Middle lamella is mainly made up of Ca-
(3) Movement of substances between the cells pectate
(4) Osmosis only (2) Cell wall is formed from inner side therefore
secondary wall formed before primary wall
114. How many statements are inconect?
(3) Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring
a. Colchicine prevents assembly of cells together
microfilaments
(4) Pits are present in secondary wall
b. Wall of microtubule is made up of 13 laterally
121 Vesicles from ER fuse with
associated and helically arranged tubulin
proteins (1) Maturing face of golgi body
c. Protofilaments are made of altemate spirals of (2) Forming face of golgi body
c-tubulin and P-tubulin (3) Primary lysosome for intercellular digestion
d. Pectin controls orientation of cellulosic (4) Plasma membrane to femove them out from
subfibrils cell
(1) One (2) Three 122. Fluidity of the cell membrane is measured
(3) Zero (4) Two (1) On the amount of cholesterol and protein in
membrane
115. Which of the following feature is common in all
types of plastids?
(2) On the amount of carbohydrate in membrane
(3) On the lateral movement of proteins within the
(1) Double membrane
overall bilayer
(2) Presence of chlorophyll
(4) On the flip-flop movement of protein
(3) Storage nature Which of the following cell organelle is a major site
(4) Presence of linear DNA for the synthesis of steroidal hormones?
116. A nuclear pore allows (1) SER (2) Golgi bodies
(1) Unidirectional movement of DNA (3) Ribosomes (4) Peroxisome
(2) RNA movement only 124 The content of nucleolus is continuous with
nucleoplasm
(3) RNA and protein movement
(4) Protein movement only
(1 ) Through microtubules
(2) Through nuclear pores
117. Disc shaped proteinaceous structure attached to
(3) Oue to lack of membrane
c€ntromere of a chromosome is called
(4) Due to presence of channels in membrane
(1) Chromocentre (2) NOR
125 The part of chromosome beyond secondary
(3) Chromomere (4) Kinetochore constriction is known as
118. Which of the following cell structure is made by (1) Chromomere (2) Satellite
NOR?
(3) Kinetochore (4) Centromere
(1) Aleuroplast
tzo The central part of proximal region of centriole is
(2) Nucleolous called hub which is made of
(3) Sphaerosome (1) Protein (2) Lipoprotein
(4) Rough ER (3) Phospholipid (4) Oligosaccharide
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266 Cell :The Unit of Life Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
127. Which of the following cell organelle is associated 134. Which of the following is not a part of
with muscles constriction by release and uptake cytoskeleton?
of Ca** ions? (1) Microtubule (2) Microfilament
('l ) Vacuole (3) lntermediate filament (4) Microfibril
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
135. Which of the following statement is correct for the
(3) Golgi complex given diagram?
(4) Microtubules
128. Middle lamella is first structure formed between
AB D
the newly formed daughter cells E
a. At the time of cytokinesis

b. And is composed of cellulose provided by
ribosomes
c. Which is common wall between adjacent cells
d. Which get dissolved during ripening of fruit
(1) All are conect
('l) 'C'possesses DNA molecule, RNA molecule
(2) Only b is incorrect and 80 S ribosomes
(3) Both b and c are incorrect (2) 'A and 'B' have their own specific enzymes
(4) Both a and d are incorrect (3) 'E' made by inner membrane towards the inter
'129. Glycosylation, general secretion and recycling of membrane space
broken plasma membrane are functions specifically (4) 'B' forms the continuous limiting boundary of
performed by
the organelle
(1) Glyoxysome (2) SER
136. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. prokaryotic
(3) RER (4) Golgi complex cells
130. Select the incorrect match ('l ) Cytoplasm lacks membrane bound organelles
(1) Elaioplast - Oil and fats storage (2) Sap vacuoles are absent
(2) Amyloplast - Carbohydrate storage (3) Chromosome possesses acidic protein 1.e.,
(3) Proteinoplast - Protein storage polyamine
(4) Aleuroplast - Starch storage (4) Lack streaming movement of cytoplasm

13'1. A normally dividing plant cell may lack 137. ln prokaryotes, ribosomal RNAS
('1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus (1) As well as proteins are synthesized in
(3) Plastid (4) Ribosome cytoplasm
'132. Many of the organisms show coordination in their (2) Are synthesized in the nucleolus while proteins
functions and are considered together as an in cytoplasm
endomembrane system. Find odd one out w.r.t. (3) Are synthesized in the cytoplasm while
this statement proteins in nucleolus
(1) ER (2) Golgi complex (4) As well as proteins are synthesized in nucleus
(3) Vacuole (4) Plastid 138. ln human beings, the membrane of erythrocyte has
133. Nuclear matrix or fibrous lamina forms a honey (1) Approximately 40% proteins and 52% lipids
comb like structure on the inner face of inner
nuclear membrane and is composed of (2) Cephalin on the outer side and lecithin on the
inner side
(1) Acidic proteins
(3) Approximately 52olo proteins and 40%
(2) Basic proteins
carbohydrates
(3) Neutral proteins
(4) Lecithin on the outer side and cephalin on the
(4) Tunnel proteins inner side
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139. A number of proteins synthesized by ribosomes on 146. Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular
the endoplasmic reliculum are modified in the structures and are very rich in
of the Golgi apparatus before they are (1) DNAS, proteases and lipases
released from its trans face
(2) Enzymes optimally active at the basic pH
(1)Tubules
(3) Almost all tyPes of hydrolases
(2) Vesicles
(4) RNAS, carbohydrase and cathepsin
(3) Cisternae
(4) More than one option is conect 147. Nucleolous organising region is
140. How many microtubules are associated with the

(1 ) Primary constriclion
structure of centriole? (2) Euchromatin region near satellite
(1) e (3) Heterochromatin region near secondary
(2\ 18 constriction
(3) 27 (4) Basophilic secondary constriction

(4) 11 148. Each centriole in a centrosome is made up of nine
141. Granular endoplasmic reticulum is associated with (1) Peripheral triplets of flagellin protein
which of the following functions?
(2) Peripheral doublets of tubulin protein
(1) Synthesis of secretory as well as non-
secretory Proteins
(3) Peripheral triplets of tubulin protein
(2) Synthesis of non-secretory proteins (4) Peripheral triplets and two central singlets of
microtubules
(3) Synthesis of steroidal hormones
149. Ribosomes in Prokaryotes
(4) Synthesis of secretory proteins
142. Which of the following plastid store fats?
a. Are 70 S tYPe
(1) Elaioplast
b. Form Polysomes
(2) Aleuroplast c. Are not sunounded by any membrane
(3) Proteinoplast d. Have 23 S rRNA in small subunit
(4) Amyloplast (1) All are conect
143. ln plants, which of the following microbody is (2) Only d is inconect
involved in PhotoresPiration? (3) Both c&d are incorrect
(1) Peroxisome (2) Sphaerosome (4) Only a is conect
(3) Glyoxysome (4) Ribosome
150. Select an incorrect match
144. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
asymmetric karyotype?
(1) Virchow - Omnis cellula-e cellula
(1) Large differences between smallest and (2) Ribosomes - Palade Particles
largest chromosomes (3) Golgi complex - Polar structure
(2) Few metacentric chromosomes (4) Axoneme of flagella - Cart wheel structure
(3) Has no evolutionary significance incorrect statement w.r.t. plasma membrane
151 . Selecl
(4) Advanced tYPe (1) Proteins can move laterally within the overall
145, Cell organelle showing xenobiotics with the help of bilayer
Cytochrome P450 is also involved in (2) Proteins can be distinguished on the basis of
(1) Glycosylation Process ease of extraction
(2) Glycolate oxidation or metabolism (3) Cholesterol is present in all living organisms
(3) Glycogen metabolism (4) Protein constitute 52 percent and lipid 40
(4) Glyoxylate metabolism percent for RBC
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268 Cell : The Unit of Life
152. Examine the figure given below and select the 156. Which of the following statements are correct?
part correctly matched with its function/structure
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequenfly
(D) (c) observed in the cells aclively involved in protein
synthesis.
b. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell
are synthesised on free ribosomes.
c. ln eukaryotic cell there is an extensive
mmpartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the
presence of membrane bound organelles
d. ER is found prominenfly in human eggs and
sperms.
(1) All are correct (2) b & d
(3) a,b&d (4) a&c
(1) Part (A): Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S
subunits
I
Column Column ll
a. Lysosomes (i) Cell inclusions
(2) Part (C) : RER - principally performs the
b. Transosomes (ii) Carotenoids
function of packaging materials
c. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Tripte membrane
(3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore _ passage through
bound organelle
which movement of RNA takes place
in one direction only d. Chromoptast (iv) Cathepsin
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Part (B): SER - synthesis of steroidat
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (a) a(i), b(iv), qii), d(iii)
hormones
158. Which of the following organelle is not bounded by
153. ln plasma membrane, quas!fluid nature of lipid
two lipoprotein membranes?
(1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins (1) Nudeus (2) cotgi body
(2) ls essential for endocytosis only (3) Mitochondria (4) ptastid
(3) Enables laleral movement of proteins 159. Pick the odd one out
(4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements (1 ) Glyoxysome - p oxidation of fatty acid
of proteins (2) Peroxisome - Enzyme for peroxide
synthesis
154. Which of the following statement for eukaryotic
flagellum is correct? (3) Sphaerosome - Synthesise and storage of
fats
(1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of (4) Mitochondria
radially arranged peripheral microtubules - Absence of enzymes in
outer membrane
(2) lt emerge from a centriole like structure called 160. a. Cytoskeleton is proteinaceous and helps in
axoneme motility and cell division.
(3) ln axoneme, central tubules are connected by b. Endomembrane system includes GERL and
bridge peroxisome.
(4) lt has a number of microfibrils running parallel c. Protein can show lateral movement in
to the long axis membrane, dependent on lipids.
(1) a, c are correct (2) b, c are correct
155. Elaioplasts, amyloplasts and aleuroplasts
(3) a, b are correct (4) All are conect
(1) Contain ds DNA molecule
161. Select the incorrect statement
(2) Store nutrients and pigments (1) Movement of protein and RNA takes place in
(3) Store starch, fat and prolein respectively both directions through nuclear pore
(2) Basat body of citia or ftage a is similar to
(4) Divide by muttipte fission
centriole by structure in eukaryotes
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(3) Few chromosomes have non-staining (1) a(iii)' b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
secondary constrictions at a constant location (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Microbodies are not present in plant cells (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
162. Select the odd one out w.r.t. chloroplasts (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Found in mesophyll cells of the leaves 168. Which of the following statement is not related to
(2) lt contains small, double-stranded linear DNA centriole?
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in the (1) Made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral
thylakoid membrane fibrils of tubulin protein
(4)Theirribosomesaresmallerthancytoplasmic(2)spindlefibresthatgiverisetospindle
during cell division in plant cells
apparatus
ribosomes
(3) Central part of the proximal region is called the
cell
163. Endomembrane system in eukaryotic
(1) Refers coordinated functions of all
(4) lt form the basal body of eukaryotic flagella
membranous ce organellel
(2)lncludesbothmembranoUsandnon.l69.chloroplastdiffersfrommitoohondriain
membranous cell organelles (1 ) Having circular DNA and 70s ribosomes
(3) Does not include endoplasmic reticulum and (2) Phase of division or duplication during cell
peroxisome cycle
(4) lncludes single membrane bound structures (3) Having porins in outer membrane
only (4) Having enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis in
164. Structure which forms a barrier between the stroma

materials present inside the nucleus and that of the 170. Organelles whose functions are coordinated
cytoplasm is constitute endomembrane system, this includes all,
(1) Perinuclear space (2) Nuclear envelope except
(3) Nuclear pore mmplex (4) Fibrous lamina (1 ) Lysosome
165. Find correct match (column-l with column-ll)

(2) Peroxisome
Column I Column ll (3) Golgi complex
a. Steroidal hormone (i) Golgi bodies (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
b.Lipochondria(ii)SERlTl.Douubletsdmicrotubulesarevisibleininternal
c. porins (iii) Microtubules
(1) Bacterial flagellum
d. G- and Ftubulins (iv) Plastrds (Z) Centriote
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), o1,l
"(:ll (r) *ro"o,u,
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Axoneme of eukaryoric flage um
in
166. ln castor, lipid or fat is stored 172. Cytoskeleton performs many functions like
(1 ) Aleuroplasts (2) Proteinoplasts mechanical support, motility in
(3) Elaioplasts (4) Amyloplasts (1) Protists
167. Select correct match w.r.t. the function of cell (2) Cyanobacteria
organelles (3) Methanogens
Column I Column ll (4) viruses
a. Glycosylation Peroxisome 123. A number of organised Jlattened membranous sacs
(i)
b. Glycolate oxidation (ii) Chloroplast are present in the
c. Oxidation of (iii) Golgi bodies (1 ) Matrix of mitochondria
triglyceride into (2) Nucleoplasm
carbohYdrates
(3) chloroplasts
d. factors
coupling (iv) Glyoxisome (4) Matrix of centriole
CFo - CF1
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27O Cell: The Unit of Life
174. Read the following statements carefully: 177. fhe organelle considered as the site of aerobic
A. Lipid component of the plasma membrane respiration
mainly consists of phosphoglycerides. (1) Produce cellular energy in the form of ATp
B. Polar molecules can pass through the lipid hence called 'Kitchen of cell,
bilayer of plasma membrane, therefore they (2) Outer membrane forms number of infoldings
do not require carrier proteins to facilitate their known as cristae
transport.
(3) Divide by fission
C. Secondary wall is capable of groMh and it is
formed on the outer side of the cell.
(4) Matrix possesses single, circular and single
stranded DNA molecule
D. Quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral 178. Match the cotumns (l with ll)
movement of proteins within the overall lipid
bilayer of plasma membrane. Column{ ColumnJl
E. Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring a. Microbodies (i) Ribosome
cells together. b. Chromosome (ii) Sap vacuole
How many statements are incorrect? c. Polysome (iii) peroxisome
(1) Three (2) Five d. Tonoplast (iv) Kinetochore
(3) Four (4) Two (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
175. Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
the process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus '179. Ribosomes are present
in how many types of
(1) Contains materials not useful for cell and is semiautonomous organelles in animal and plant cell
bounded by half unit membrane respectively?
(2) Contains all types of hydrolytic enzymes (1) One, two (2) Two, three
optimally active at the acidic pH
(3) Three, four (4) Two, one
(3) Are concerned with photorespiration in plants '180. Chromatin contains
and animals
(1) DNA, histone protein, basic non-histone
(4) Possess enzymes for Krebs cycle
protein, dsRNA
176. ln the following diagram, select the part correcfly
(2) DNA, basic histone protein, non-histone
matched with its character or function.
protein, RNA
(3) DNA, acidic histone protein, basic non_histone
protein, RNA
(4) DNA, acidic histone protein, non_histone
protein, dSRNA
'181 . Membrane bound vesicular structures which
contain digestive acid hydrolases are formed by
(1) Centrosome (2) Gotgi bodies
(3) Peroxisome (4) Nuclear envelopes
182. Choose odd one w.r.t. composition of cell wall of
algae
(1) A- The passage through which movement of ('l) Cellulose, galactans
(2) Mannans, minerals
RNA and protein molecules take place in
both direction (3) Hemice utose, pectin (4) Ce[ulose, minerals
(2) B- Frequently observed in cells actively 183. Hub is connected with microtubules of the
peripheral triplets in
involved in lipid synthesis and secretion
(3) C- Membrane bound structures composed
(1) Basat body of bacteriat flagellum
of deoxyribonucleic acid and proteins (2) Centriote
(4) D- Provide surface for DNA and protein (3) Axoneme of eukaryotic flagellum
synthesis (4) More than one option is mrrect
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Cell : The Unit of Life
271
'184. Which one of the following is not a property of cell (1) Protein synthesised in Golgi bodies are
membrane? modified in the ER
(1) Polar molecules can not pass through the (2) Materials formed in ER fuse with the trans
nonpolar lipid bilayer phase of Golgi bodies
(2) Depending on the case of extraction, proteins (3) Lipids synthesised in ER are modified in the
can be classified in two types Golgi apparatus
(3) The quasi-fluid nature of protein enables (4) Membrane bound vesicular structures formed
flip-flop movement of lipid by the packaging in ER work as lysosomes
(4) Ratio of protein and lipid varies considerably 189. Match the following
in different cell types I
Column Column ll
185. ldentify the cell organelles labelled as A, B, C and a. Telocentric (i) V-shaped
D. Mark the correct option w.r.t. organelle and its
function. chromosomes
b. Acrocentric (ii) L-shaped
chromosomes
c. Submetacentric (iii) J - shaped
chromosomes
d. Metacentric (iv) I - Shaped
chromosomes
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) A- Major site for synthesis of lipid. (4)

a(iii)' b(ii)' c(i)' d(iv)
(2) B - Performs the function of packaging 190. Which of the following combination is corect?
materials, to be delivered to only (1) Xenobiotics - Rough endoplasmic
tiargets.
intracellular retioJlum
(3) C- Sites of anaerobic respiration. (2) Plasma membrane - 52o/o lipid
(4) D - Main arena of cellular activities of RBC
186. The spherical structures present in the (3) Mitochondria - Protein synthesis
nudeodasm (4) Glyoxysomes - Photorespiration
(,) continuous with rest of the
ff;ff::"#s
(2) ls a membrane bound structure. Assertlon - Reason Type Questlons
(3) ls a site of active messenger RNA synthesis ln the followlng questions, a statement of assertion
reason (R)
(4) Are smaller and more numerous in cells (A) is followed by a statoment of
actively carrying out protein synthesis (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
of reason is the correct explanation of the
187. Bacterial flagellum is composed
(1) Basar body, axoneme and centrosome
o'
(2) Basarbody, hook
""d 'i;;;---- H:*H"Jl?l"T:ffi$[,'jli:"t:lll:
(3) Axoneme, basal body and tubulin protein assertion, then mark (2)
(4) Centriole, hook and axoneme (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false' then mark (3)
1BB. "Many organeltes an
are considered together as
functioning (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
endo-membrane system because their -
is coordinated." statements, then mark (4)
which of the following statement gives the conect

'1. A: cell is considered as basic unit of life'
explanation of this? R : All organisms begin their life as a single cell.
272 Cell ;The Unit of Life Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
2 A: Fruit colour changes from yellow orange to 7. A: Endomembrane system is present in
green during ripening. eukaryotic cells.
R: There is conversion of chromoplasts into R: It comprises of peroxisomes, golgi complex,
chloroplast. lysosomes and vacuoles.
3 A: During orthodox stage, the matrix of 8. A: Several ribosomes attach to a single mRNA
mitochondria occupies large area. and form a chain called polyribosome.
R : Cristae are more randomly distributed during R: Ribosomes are site of protein synthesis.
oxidative phosphorylation.
9. A: Lysosomes are associated with digestion of
4 A : As the cell grows, its surface to volume ratio biochemicals.
decreases.
R: Lysosomes are rich in acid hydrolases.
R : lts capacity to exchange materials decreases.
10. A: Carotenoids are fat soluble pigments.
5 A: Human RBC membrane has 52% protein. R: They are present in chromoplasts.
R: lt possesses peripheral as well as integral 11. A: The endomembrane system includes single
proteins.
membrane bound as well as non-membranous
6 A: During condensed stage the matrix of organelle.
mitochondria occupies large area.
R: They are all membrane bound organelles
R : Cristae formation is less. present inside the eukaryotic cells.
o tr D
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Chapter 8
Ecosystem
4 Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is

(1) Spindle shaped (2) Upright
Objective Type Questions (3) Um shaped (4) lnverted
1 Which of the given below pyramids represents the 5 ln hydrosere, sedge meadow stage replaces
variation in biomass at different trophic levels in
pond ecosystem? (1) Submerged stage
(2) Floating stage
SC
(3) Scrub stage
(1) PC (4) Reed swamp stage
PP 6 What is correct for the diagram given below?
5L
(2) PC
PP
5U
(3) PC
PP
(4)
2. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. succession (1) lt represents a food chain
(1) Succession and evolution are parallel (2) lt could be accomodated by ecological
processes pyramid
(2) ln abandon farmlands, primary succession
(3) Several types of organisms are available at
occurs
each trophic level
(3) lnvolves changes at every trophic level
(4) From producers to top carnivores, biomass
(4) Generally shows a trend from xeric to mesic
always increases
mnditions
3 Net primary productivity
7 Rate of increase in energy containing organic
matter or biomass by heterotrophs or consumefs
(1) For oceans is 60% of biosphere productivity per unit time and area is known as
(2) Depends upon the photosynthetic capacity of
(1) Gross primary productivity
transducers
(3) Remains constant in temperate area (2) Net primary productivity
throughout the year (3) Secondary productivity
(4) Limited by light in marine habitats only (4) Ecological efficiency
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274 Ecosystem Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
8. The correct scheme of succession in a pond in '14. Which one of the following is matched correctly?
temperate mixed forest is
(1) Low productive ecosystem - Flood plains
(1) Green algae - Myriophyllum - Nelumbo
(2) Average productive ecosystem- Grassland
- Sagittaia - Cyperus - Populus - Quercus
(2) Myriophyllum - Nelumbo - Saggittaria (3) Least productive ecosystem - Temperate
- Populus - Cyperus - Green algae forest
(3) Green algae - Nelumbo - Cyperus - (4) High productive ecosystem - Area of
Quercus - Populus
upwelling
(4) Blue green algae - Nelumbo - Myriophy um
- - 15. Which trophic position is occupied by the
Populus Cyperus - Quercus
decomposer microorganisms in an aquatic
9. There are certain limitations of ecologlcal
ecosystem?
pyramids, like
(1) lt does not take into account the same (1) To
species belonging to two or more trophic (21 Tt
levels
(3) Tz
(2) lt assumes a long food chain of many trophic
levels (4) Ts
(3) Saprobic organisms are nol given any place 16. All given are characteristic features of man made
(4) More than one option is correct ecosystems, except
10. During primary succession in water body, the (1) Absence of self regulatory mechanism
p ro nee rs are , they are replaced by
with time (2) These are part of noosphere
(1) Phytoplanktons, rooted hydrophytes (3) High productivity in terms of GPP
(2) Free floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes (4) Little cycling of nutrients
(3) Phytoplanktons, free floating angiosperms
17. The type of productivity which is not available to
(4) Free floating angiosperms, sedges any given trophic level is called as
11. Which of the following ecosystems show (1) Primary productivity
maximum energy absorption?
(2) NPP
('l ) Mixed forest
(2) Modern crops (3) Secondary productivity
(3) Terrestrial ecosystem (4) Net community productivity
(4) Grassland ecosystem 18. A detritus food chain
12. Ecological succession in which a community ('l) Always ends up in a grazing food chain
replaces the other due to the modification of the
environmenl by the community itself is (2) Uses sun as the primary source of energy
('l Autogenic
) (2) Allogenic (3) Has minor contribution in productivity of coral
(3) Autotrophic (4) Heterotrophic reef ecosystem
13. Find the incorrect statement in relation to mature (4) Requires special organisms called detrivores
successional stages as top consumers.
(1) Net community production is high and 19. Select a incorrecl statement regarding pyramids
inorganic nutrients are extrabiotic
(1) These are proposed by Charles Elton
(2) Food chains are web like and predominantly
detritus (2) lt does not explain the role of organisms
(3) Stratification and spatial heterogeneity is high present at more than two trophic levels
and well organised (3) Decomposers are not given importance while
(4) Good nutrient conservation and resistance to prepa ng a pyramid
external disturbances (4) lt is sometimes upright, if prepared for energy
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Ecosystem 275
20. Which of the given pyramid can be spindle 27. Oul of total proposed cost of ecological services
shaped? by Robert @nstanza, maximum cost ac@unts for
(1) lf prepared for numbers, for a tree having (1) Climate regulation
grazing food chain
(2) Soil formation
(2) lf prepared for number in parasitic food chain
on a tree (3) Nutrient cycling
(3) lf prepared for biomass of a tree (4) Habitat for wildlife
(4) lf prepared for biomass in a Grassland 28. Amount of living material present in different
21. GPP utilizes of incident radiation trophic levels at a given time is called
(1) 1-5% (1) NPP

(2) 2-10% (2) Standing stage
(3) 0.8 - 4% (3) Standing crop
-
(4) 1.6 - 8% (4) Standing quality
22. Which of the following decides the nature of 29. ln primary autotrophic suc@ssion, e@sis comes
climax? after
(1) Types of soil and microorganisms (1) Colonisation
(2) Prevailing climate of the area (2) lnvasion
(3) Nature of surface ie. nude or not
(3) Migration
(4) Presence of organic matter / inorganic matter
(4) Reaction
23. Succession whether is primary or secondary, it
primarily requires to occur on a 30 Which one of the following food chain is dominant
area in aquatic ecosystem?
('l ) Nudation (1) GFC
species
(2) Pioneer (2) DFc
(3) Ecesis (3) Auxitiary food chain
(4) Reaction (4) parasitic food chain
24. community
Find odd one w.r.t. climax
31. Select a correct statement for Detritus Food
(1) Nutrient conseNation is high Chain (DFC)
(2) Niche becomes more specialized (1) Sun is the only source of energy
(3) Biomass is high (2) These systems are more productive than
(4) Net community production decreases systems dominated by GFC
25. Annual grass stage in lithosere is followed by (3) lt is composed of a long chain of decomposer
('l ) Moss stage organisms
(2) Perennial grass stage (4) Tropical Rain forests are not dependent on
DFc
(3) Reed swamp stage
(4) Marsh meadow stage 32. Which of the following produc{ivity is the available
biomass for the consumption by heterotrophs?
26. Find odd one out w.r.t. sedge stage of hydrosere
(1) Net primary productivity
(11 Cyperus
(2) Typha
(3) Juncus (3) Secondary productivity
(41 Carex (4) Community productivity
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!/$ Ecosystem Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
JJ Arrange the following ecosystems in decreasing 38. Ecological pyramid of number can be for
order of productivity difierent ecosystems
(1) Sugar-cane field, coral reef, tropical rain (1) Upright
forest, estuary
(2) lnverted
(2) Coral reef, estuary sugarcane field, temperate
(3) Spindle shaped
forest
(4) All of these
(3) Estuary, coral reef, temperate forest,
sugarcane field 39. Number pyramid for tree ecosystem w.r.t. parasitic
food chain is
(4) Tropical rain forest, coral reef, estuary,
sugarcane field (1) Upright
34 Key industry animals are (2) Spindle shaped
(1) Primary consumers (3) lnverted
(2) Secondary consumers (4) Both upright and inverted
(3) Tertiary consumers 40. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
ecological pyramids?
(4) Primary producers
('l) Pyramid of number for parasitic food chain on
Mark the incorrect statement w.rt. food chain single tree is inverted
(a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in (2) Pyramid of energy is always upright
aquatic ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of biomass for aquatic habitat is
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not upright
sun
(4) Pyramid of number for grazing food chain on
(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to single tree is spindle.shaped
grazing food chain
(d) ln grazing food chain size of organisms
(1) The number of trophic levets in the GFC is
commonly decreases at higher level
never restricted
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (c)
(2) GFC is ma,or conduit of energy flow in a
(3) (c) only (4) (d) onty terrestrial e@system
36. The given pyramid represents _parameter (3) Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to
in _ ecosystem the animals of GFC
(4) ln a natural ecosystem some organisms are
PC 21
omnivores, like fungi and actinomycetes
PP 4
42. Ecological pyramids
(1) Number, pond (1) Assume a food web
(2) Standing crop, tree (2) Take into account the same species
(3) Number, tree belonging to two or more trophic levels
(4) Standing crop, pond (3) Do not include saprophytes

37. Shape of the pyramid explains the growth status (4) lnvolve consumers only
of a population, like Urn shaped pyramid reflects 43. Trophic level of herbivore is
(1) A declining population (1) rr
(2) A population of developing country (2\ rz
(3) A population showing negative groMh (3) rs
(4) More than one option is correct $) It
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Ecosystem 277
44. ln tenestrial ecosystems, the pyramids of number 49. ln temperate lakes, phytoplanktons are
and biomass are generally (1) Completely absent in winter and summer
('l ) Spindle shaped seasons
(2) Upright (2) Abundant in spring season only

(3) Upright and inverted respectively (3) Abundant twice a year
(4) lnverted and upright respectively (4) Very less in autumn and spring seasons
45. What is the pioneer community for hydrarch and 50. Which of the following statements are concerned
xerarch succession respectively? with the organisms like antelope, grasshopper and
cow?
(1) Plankton, Annual grasses
(2) Lichens, Zooplankton a. Key industry animals
(3) Plankton, Lichens b. Thkd trophic level
(4) Free floating, Sedges c. Secondary producers
46. Pyramid of biomass in an aquatic habitats d. Predators
explains that e. Primary consumers
(1) High standing crop of phytoplanktons (1) All, except (b)
supports a large standing crop of
zooplanktons
(2) All, except (b) & (d)
(2) Energy at successive higher trophic level (3) All, except (d)
increases (4) All, except (c) & (d)
(3) Phytoplanktons have shorter life span and 51. Price tag put by Robert Constanza as nature life
high annual productivity support services is and of it
(4) Consumers cannot survive for long is for soil formation
47. Which stage of primary succession in a water (1) US $ 3.3 trillion, < 10%
body is shown in the figure given below? (2) US $ 330 trillion, 6%
(3) US $ 33 trillion, < 10%
*,-----
nsf,r* (4) US $ 33 trillion, 50%
52. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Productivity - Rate of biomass
production
(1) Scrub stage
(2) Reed swamp stage (2) Gross primary - Rate of production
productivity of earth of organic matter
(3) Marsh meadow stage
during
(4) Submerged, ftee floating plant stage photosynthesis
48. A part of energy captured by producers is used (3) Net primary productivity - Available biomass
(1) As a food to herbivores only for consumption
by heterotrophs
(2) For maintenance and as a food to herbivores
(4) secondary productivity - Formation of new
(3) For synthesis of protoplasm only organic matter by
(4) For synthesis of ATP only producers
278 Ecosystem Last Leap for NEET (Partl)
58. Productivity in an ecosystem at producer level

53, PC
PP I 4
depends upon
(1) Availability of nutrients in soil
Ecosystem which shows above pyramid of (2) photosynthetic capacity of plants
biomass possess and
(3) Variety of environmental factors
pyramid of number and energy respectively.
(4) All of these
(1) lnverted, upright (2) Upright, upright
(3) Upright, inverted (4) Spindle, upright 59. Choose incorrect w.r.t. DFC
(1) Maior energy flow in terr€strial ecrsystem
54. ln hydrarch succession pioneer community is
phytoplankton and climax community is forest (2) Dominated by tungi and bacteria mainly
(mesic). Given below is name of seral stages, (3) Begins with sunlight as source of energy
arrange them in accordance with their
(4) May be @nnected with GFC
appearance.
a. Submerged free floating plant stage
60. Read the following statements :
(a) Warm blooded animals have larger body slze

b. Reed-swamp stage
in colder areas as compared to animals of
c. Marsh-meadow stage warmer areas, is explained by Allen's rule.
d. Submerged plant stage (b) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
e. Scrub stage material at a particular time called as the
standing state.
(1)a,b,c,d&e
(1) Only (b) is correct
(2) b,a,c,d&e
(2) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
(3) d,a,c,b&e
(3) Only (a) is correct
(4)d,a,b,c&e
(4) Both (a) & (b) are conect
55. Ecological pyramids
61. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem
(1) lnclude provision for seasonal and diurnal
services, the soil formation accounts for about
variations
(2) Do not include decomposers and transducers
(1) s0% (2\ 3so/o
(3) 600/0 (4) 85Vo

(3) Have no remedy for multi-level organisms
62. The available biomass for the consumption to
(4) Are based on food webs
consumers and decomposers is
56. Range of tolerance for all the factors influencing (1) Gross primary productivity
a species distribution is
(2) Secondary productivity
(1) Ecotone
(2) Ecological amplitude
(4) Trophic level efficiency
(3) Phenotypic plasticity
63. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(4) Edge effect
(1) Trophic level of key industry animals is T3
57. Rate of increase in biomass by heterotrophs or
consumers per unit time and area is known as (2) More energy flows in tropical rain forests
through GFC
(3) Diversity decreases from higher to lower
altitudes
(3) Secondary produclivity
(4) Eastern Himalaya is an active centre of
(4) Community productivity evolution of flowering plants
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Ecosystem 279
64. Pyramid of number is spindle - shaped in (1) b, a, g, e, f, c, d
(1) Tree ecosystem (2) b, a, g, f, e, c, d
(2) Pond ecosystem (3) b, a, e, g, c, f, d
(3) Grassland ecosystem (4) b, a, g, c, f, e, d
(4) Lake ecosystem
70. Amount of biomass or organic matter produced
65. Select the correct order of succession on bare per unit area over a time period by plants during
rock photosynthesis is known as
(1) Graphis - Aristida - Hypnum - Rhizocarpon (1) Gross primary productivity
(2) Rhizocarpon - Poa - Heteropogon - Rubus' (2) Net primary productivity
Tree
(3) Secondary productivity
(31 Rhizocarpon - Cappais - Tottuh - free
(41 Hypnum - Parmelia - Zizyphus - Cymbopogon
(4) Primary production
66. Detritus Food Chain (DFC) 71. Which of the following stalement is true for the
given ecological pyramid?
(1) Begins with living organic matter
(2) Prevents wastage of energy bound in organic
PC 21
matter
(3) Provides organic nutrients to grazing food PP 4
chain
chain (1) Small number of phytoplankton supports large
(4) ls also called subsidiary food
number of zooplankton
67. An ecosystem supported by 1000000 J of sunlight
will have what amount of energy available to the (2) Small biomass of primary producers supports
organisms of tertiary consumer level? large number of primary consumers in aquatic
habitats
(1) rooo J (2) 1oo J
(3) A large number of herbivores is suppo(ed bv
(3) 10 J (4) 10000 J
small number of producers in aquatic habitats
68. All succession wheather taking place in water or
that (4) A large standing crop of zooplankton is
land proceeds to a similar clim-ax community,
is supported by small standing crop of
phytoplankton
(1) Hydrosere
(2) xeric SECTION 'B
(3) Mesic Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(4) Halosere ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)'
69. various stages of succession in a water body are
given below, find correct set of their sequential (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
arrangement Ofoccurrence. reason iS the COrreCt explanation of the
a. Submerged plant stage
b. Phytoplankton stage reason is not the correct explanation of the
c. Scrub stage assertion, then mark (2)
d. Forest (3) lf Assertion is true statement but Reason is
e. Marsh-meadow stage false, then mark (3)
f. Reed-swamp stage (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false

statements' then mark (4)
g. submerged free floating plant stage
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280 Ecosystem Last Leap for NEET (PartJ)
1 A: Desert ecosystems are less stable in A : ln an aquatic ecosystem, DFC is the major
comparison to a tropical rain forests conduit for energy flow.
R : There is available more energy at last trophic R : DFC begins with living organic matter.
level as the food chains are short
2. A: Complexity of food web is dependent over
6 A: ln aquatic ecosystem, grazing food chain is
the major conduit of energy flow.
length of food chains
R: Complexity of food webs determine the R : Net primary productivity of aquatic ecosystem
stability of an ecosystem is more as compared to terrestrial.
3 A : Ecological equivalents occupies same type of 7 A : ln an aquatic ecosystem, DFC is the maior
niches but in different habitats conduit for energy flow.
R : Similar ecosystems may develop in different
R : Solar energy is required for energy supply in
geographical areas due to same climatic
a DFC system.
conditions
4. A : The food chains are generally limited at 3-4 8 A : Detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead
trophic levels. organic matter.
R : Autotrophs loose 20o/o energy, herbivores R : DFC may be connected with the grazing food
30% and carnivores 60% during respiration. chain at some levels.
D tr o
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Chapter 9
Environmental Issues
5 Choose the odd one out wr.t. ozone depletion in
the stratosphere
1. Concentration of DDT for first trophic level and
(1) UV rays have the ability to both degrade as
fourth trophic level is respectively in aquatic food well as form ozone layer
cfiains
(2) UV rays are depleting the good ozone in the
('l) 0.04 ppm, 25 ppm troposphere
(2) 0.003 ppm, 2 ppm (3) CFC's are disturbing the balance of ozone
(3) 0.5 ppm, 2 ppm equilibrium
(4) 0.04 ppm, 2 ppm (4) UV-B rays cause inflammation of mmea called
2. Cleaning of wasle water in Arcata Marsh involves colour blindness
( 1) Only mnventional method of sewage teatrnent 6 Rivet popper hypothesis was given by Paul Ehrlich
(2) Removal of dissolved heavy metals through to explain
biological process
('l) The cause of greater biological diversity in
(3) Filteration, chlorination like chemical processes tropics as compared to temperate regions
(4) Utilisation of microorganisms only for pollution
(2) Extinction of indigenous species due to
control
introduction of alien species
3. Eco-san toilets are not associated with which of
the following? (3) The role of ecological hotspots in biodiversity
(1) Are working in Sri Lanka and Kerala @nservation
(2) Composting method for recycling of human (4) The importance of rich biodiversity in
excreta maintaining ecological health
(3) Recycled material forms natural fertilizer 7 Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for
(4) Enhance the need for chemical fertilizers reducing emission of poisonous gases. Which of
4. Choose the correct sequence of greenhouse the following reaction does not take place in
gases with respect to their relative contribution to catalytic converter?
global warming in increaslng order
(1 ) Unbumt hydrocarbons CO2 and water
(1) N2O, CFC, CH4, CO2
(2) Ozone o2
(2) CFC, N2O, CO2, CH4
(3) CH4, N2O, CO2, CFC
(3) Carton monoxide CO,
(4) N2O, CO2, CH4' CFC (4) Nitric oxide t9
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282 Environmental lssues
8 Which of the following is correct for the diagram 13 was held in _, and adopted
given below? the recommendations of cCC for reducing green
house gases.
(1) UNCED, Rio-de-Janeiro
(2) Earth Summit, Johannesburg
Organisms
(3) Kyoto Protocol, Kyoto
c (A)
o (4) World Summit, Buenos Aires
N
E
14. Read the following statements in relation to
environmental pollution and find the correct
T
R answer
T
I (c)
a. Catralytic converters have platinum, palladium
o and strontium as catalysts which are fitted into
N
automobiles for reducing poisonous gas
t
(B)
Direction of flow
b.
emissions
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
(1) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of sewage converters should not use unleaded petrol
because lead in petrol activates the catalyst
discharge, (C) BOD
(2) (A) BOD, (B) Point of treated water discharge, c. DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in birds
(C) Dissolved oxygen leading to thinning of egg shells
(3) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of treated d. Cultural eutrophication refers lo natural aging
water discharge, (C) BOD
of a lake due to climate, size of lake and
man's activities like effluents
(4) (A) BOD, (B) Point of sewage discharge,
(C) Dissolved oxygen e. Montreal protocol to control emission of ozone
depleting substances became effective in
9. The thickness of ozone over poles changes with 1987
the season being lowest in
(1) Only a &d are incorrect
(1) Antarctic spring
(2) Only c is conect
(2) Polar autumn
(3) b, c, _d & e are conect
(3) Antarctic autumn
(a) a,d&earecorrect
(4) North hemisphere spring
15. Greatest harm to human health is caused by
10. Mark the incorrect statement particle size _or less, as suggested by
(1) CFCS, halons, methyl bromide, CCl, and NrO CPCB
are responsible for 03 depletion (1) 2.5 micrometer
(2) The main precursors of acid rain are SO, and
No2 in atmosphere ' (2) 10 micrometer
(3) Lichens and Mosses act as indices of (3) 1 mm
atmospheric purity (4) 2.5 mm
(4) Blue baby syndrome is cause due to 16. Normal rain water is slightly acidic due to the
air
increased level of nitrates in presence of
11. Photochemical smog has mainly (1) NO, (2\ Co2
(1) SPM, O, and CO (2) 03, PAN and N-Ox- (3) SO, (4) Os
-
(3) co, H2s and PAN (4) H2s' so2 and sPM
17. Find odd one out w.r.t. catalytic converters
12. Find odd one out w.r.t. arrestors
(1) Palladium
(1) cravity settling chamber
(2) Rhodium
(2) wet scrubber
(3) Platinum
(3) Electrostatic precipitator
(4) Trajectory separator (4) lron
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Environmental lssues 283
18. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on 24. Select an incorrect statement
CNG by the end of 2002 as (1) Montreal Protocol became effective in 1989
(a) lt is cheaper than petrol or diesel as Helsinki declaration
(b) lt burns more efficientlY (2) Lichens are indicators of SO, pollution
(c) lt can easilY be siPhoned off (3) There are proposed 5 'F's of Chipko
movement
(1) All are conect
(4) Slash and Burn agriculture is very popular
(2) Both (a) and (c) are correct among western states of lndia
(3) Only (c) is inconect 25. Biomagnification of DDT causes all except
(4) Both (b) and (c) are correct (1) Thinning of egg shell in birds
19. Select an incorrect match (2) Liver cinhosis
foot
(1) Black - Arsenic (3) Cyanosis
(2) BOD - Lower than COD (4) Softening of brain and hamorrhage
(3) DDT - Bio-magnification 26. Match the following w.r.l. pollution
(4) Minamata - e-waste Column I Column ll
20. What occurs when sewage is discharged in a (a) lncineration (i) Soil erosion
flowing water (lotic) bodY? (b) Green Muffer (ii) Third Poison
(1) BOD decreases initially (c) Ground water polution (iii) Solid waste
(2) BOD decreases with decreasing DO finally (d) Negative pollution (iv) Noise pollution
(3) DO lncreases initially but decreases finally (1) a(lii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) DO decreases and BOD increases lnitially (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
21. ll canied out in ecofriendly manner' (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii)' d(i)
is the onlY method for treatment (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii)' d(i)
of e-waste 27. Which one of the following is known as chemical
burning
(1) Open (2) RecYcling weed?
(3) Pyrolysis (4) lncineration (1) Amaranthus

Global warming is a global threat to environment
(2) Chlorofluorocarbon
22.
due to its given major effects, except (3) Ozone
(1) lt will lead to melting of ice caps (4) Halons
(2) lt will change the global climate 28. Select an incorrect match
(3) There will be cooling of stratosphere and (1) Photochemical smog - 03 + PAN + NOx
warming of trophosphere (2) Classical smog - SO, + H2S + NO, +
HrO
(4) lt will maintain earths average temperature
at 15'c (3) SPM - Mist, Dust' Aerosol'
Flyash
23. 'Ozone depletion' means thinning of ozone layer
during spring season and
(4) lndoor Pollution - HCHO
29. Organic enrichment of lakes is also considered to

(1) This will allow UV - A to enter stratosphere
be "death of lakes" and is associated with
which will cause snow blindness
(1) lncreases DO
(2) This is caused by N2O as major pollutant
(2) Decreased BOD
(3) Ozone is released during this as 02 or CIO
(3) Decreased non-biodegradable components
(4) First large hole was discovered over north
pole (4) Growth of algal blooms
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244 Environmental lssues
30. Global warming is caused by green-house gases 37. Select the incorrect malch
and is supposed to be responsible for many
possible negative effects, but some positive (1) ESP - SPM
efiects are also there, like (2) Land fills - Solid waste
(1) Rising of sea level (3) Catalytic converter
Aerosol -
(2) Changing the rainfatt paftern, helping proper (4) Ear muffs -
Noise poltution
distribution of HrO 3g. Read the following statements and select the
(3) Maintaining earth's average temperature at right choice.
value
present
a. Use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of
(4) Warming of trophosphere hospital wastes.
31. Which of the following will not suffer from b. Dobson units are used to measure oxygen
minimatadisease? content.
(1) Rabbit c. Methane and carbondioxide are greenhouse
(2) Seal gases'
(3) Fish d. The Montreal protocol is associated with the

(4) More than one option is conecr
of ozone depleting
ilJ[1"::."''tsion
32 Maf. the corrcct one w.r.t. Los Angeres smog (1) a & b are correct (2) onry ct is conect
(1) lt contains HrS and SO, (3) Only b is incorrect (4) b, c & d are correct
(2) There is no role of secondary pollutant 39. Euro-ll norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled
(3) Formed at low temperature al
(4) lts compqnents can inhibit ETS (1) 350 ppm in dieset and 150 ppm in petrot
33. Mark the incorrect statement (2) 50 ppm in petrot and 1oo ppm in diesel
(1) Ozone is a friend at troposphere and foe at (3) 150 ppm in diesel and 350 ppm in petrol
slratosphere (4) 1OO ppm in petrot and 50 ppm in diesel
(2) lt is continuously formed
by the action of uv-
rays on molecular oxygen.and also degraded
40. catarytic converters have expensive metars and
-
can convert
into molecular oxygen in the stratosph;re
(3) Montreal Protocol was srgned at Canada (1) N, -+ No,
in
1987 to control the emission of ODS (2) CO, -+ CO
(4) The thinning of ozone layer is known as (3) NO, -+ N,
ozone hole (4) More than one option is conect
34. Horizon of soil profile characterized by leaching of 41. pick the correct set of gases labe ed A, B, C and
minerals i.e., eluviation iscalled D in.the given figure showing their respective
(1) o horizon (2) \ hoazon contribution to global warming
(3) B, horizon (4) C horizon 6
35. Brown air or haze is produced by 14%
(1) NOx (2) SO2 60%

(3) Voc's (4) Co 200k
36. Flammingoes, cormoranls or cranes will be
harmed the most if lhe aquatic system is po uted (1) A-CFCs, B - CH4, C CO2, D- N2O
-
by (2) A _ CO2, B _CH4, C_CFCS, D_N2O
(1) NOx (2) Fertitizers (3) A _ N2O, B _ CH4, C_CO2, D_CFCS
(3) DDT (4) Domestic sewage (4) A _ CO2, B_CFCs, C _ Ci4, D_ N2O
nffi
Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Environmental lssues 285
42. Therc is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen in a 48. A. GFC is maior conduit of snergy flow in aquatic
canal from the point of sewage discharge. The ecosystem.
BOD of water B. Food chain maintains stability in an ecosystem
(1) Rises as water flows by providing alternate organisms at different
trophic level.
(2) Remains constant
C. DFC may be connected to GFC.
(3) First rises and then declines as water flows
(1) All are correct
(4) First declines and then rises as water flows
(2) A& Bare inconect
43. High concentration of DDT disturbs/causes
(3) Only B is incorrect
('l) Potassium metabolism in birds
(4) B&Carecorect
(2) Thinning of egg shell in birds
(3) Stone leprosy 49. Select incorrect statement
(4) Hearing abilities of humans (1) Photochemical smog has mainly O., PAN and
NO,
44. Greenhouse gas which causes maximum (2) CFC is most effective green house gas
contribution to global warming is
(3) Biodiversity decreases from lower to higher
(1) CO2 (2) CH4
altitudes and increases from lower to higher
(3) CFC (4) NrO latitudes
45. High concentration of DDT in birds disturb the (4) Dodo and Tasmanian wolf have become
metabolism of extinct due to overexploitation
(1) Magnesium (2) lron 50. What is the relative contribution of CFCS to global
warming?
(3) Calcium (4) PhosPhorus
(1) 60%
46. Select the correct option respectively w.r.t. A, B,
C and D in the given figure of relative contribution (2\ 20%
of various greenhouse gases to global warming (3) 14o/o
D (4\ 6%
c 60/o
14o/o 51. Read the following statements carefully

a. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 to
control the emi6sion of ODS
b. By the end of twentieth century the forest
B
cover shrunk to about 30 Percent
20./.
c. lntegrated organic farming is a cyclical, zero
60./" waste procedure, that allows maximum
utilisation of resources and increase the
('l)Carbon dioxide, CFCs, methane' N2O efficiency of Production
(2) Carbon dioxide, methane, CFCs, NrO d. Biomagn ification refers to increase in
concentration of toxic substances at lower
(3) Carbon dioxide, N2O, CFCs, methane trophic level only
(4) Carbon dioxide, CFCs, NrO, methane (1) a&careconect (2) a&darecorect
47. Mark the incorrect statement (3) Only d is correct (4) Only b is incorrect
(1) Good ozone acts as shield absorbing 52. Mark the incorect match
ultraviolet radiations from sun
(1) Noise pollution - Dobson unit
(2) Ozone causes odd climatic changes i e., El-
nino effect (2) National Forest Policy - 1968
(3) Good ozone is found in upper part of (3) Tenor of Bengal - Eutrophic water
atmosphere bodies
(4) Ozone depletion is occurring widely in the (4) Water (Prevention and - 1974
stratosphere region Control of Pollution) Act
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53. Which of the following option is incorrect about c. Rise in temperature is leading to deleterious
effects of air pollutants on human health? changes in the environment and resulting in
(1) Deleterlously affect respiratory system in odd climatic changes (El Nino efrect)
humans d. Montreal protocol is for biodiversity
(2) Harmful effects depend on concentration of conservation and control of GHGS.
pollutants and duration of exposure abcd
(3) Particulate size 2.5 micrometer or less in (1)T
diameter are responsible for causing the
T F F
greatest harm (2\ F F T T

(4) Phaeophytization (3)F r r F
54. Which of the following effects are related with the (4) T F F T
use of DDT?
58. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award is given for individuals
a. Accumulates in human being as it cannot be or communities from rural areas that have shown
metabolised or excreted. extra-ordinary courage and dedication in
b. Disturbs calcium metabolism in birds causing (1 ) Protecting wildlife
thinning of egg shells.
(2) Minimising the ODS
c. Responsible for decline in population of fish
eating birds. (3) Organic farming
Select the correct option. (4) Biotechnology
(1) Only a & b are correct 59. Most harmful size of SpM is
(2) a,b&carecorrect
(1) PM 10
(3) Only b & c are correct
(2) PM > 10
(4) Only c is conect
(3) PM 2.5
55. Cultural eutrophication
(1) ls natural aging of water body (4) PM 100
(2) ls accelerated aging of water body due to 60. Electrostatic precipitalors are used In thermal
power plants for the
human activity
(3) Takes thousand of years (1) Conversion of NOx to nitrogen
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Removat of SO2
56. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified (3) Removal of particulate matter
plastic is mixed with bitumen to lay roads, which (4) Conversion of CO to CO2
help to increase road life by a factor of
61. According to Euro-ll norms amount of sulphur in
(1) Two diesel should be controlled at
(2) Three (1) 350 PPm
(3) Four (2) s0 PPm
(4) Five (3) 2s0 PPm
57. Consider the following four statements (a_d) (4) 150 PPm
related to greenhouse effect and global warming
and select the correct option stating which ones 62. Which of the following device can remove over
are true (T) and which ones are false (F). 99% of particulate matter present in the exhaust
from a thermal power plant?
Statements :
(1) Wet scrubbers
a. Greenhouse effect is responsible for
maintaintng average earth temperature at (2) Bag filters
18.C. (3) Cyclone cottectors
b. CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O are greenhouse gases (4) Electrostatic precipitators (ESp)
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Environmental lssues 247
63. Match Column-l with Column-ll w.r.t. trophic level 69. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of
and their example increasing order of DDT concentration
Column I Column ll
a. Primary producer (i) Lion
b. Primary @nsumer (ii) Phytoplanktons a b
c. Secondary consumer (iii) Grasshopper

d. Tertiary consumer (iv) Fishes
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
c. d
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(1) c---ra-+d-+b (2) a-+c-+b-+d
64. Select odd one w.r.t. measures to control global
warming (3) c+d-+a-+b (4) a-+d-+c-+b
(1) lmproving efficiency of energy usage 70. Find correct set of relative contribution of
greenhouse gases to global warming.
(2) Cutting down use of fossil fuel (A) CO2 (B) CH4
(3) Slowing down the growth of human (C) CFCs (D) N2o
population
(A) (B) (c) (D)
(4) lncreasing deforestation
(1) 2OVo 14Yo 60% 6Yo
65. Calcium metabolism in fish eating birds get (2\ 14Yo 600/o 6% 2OYo
disturbed, if there is high mncentration of
(3) 60% 2oo/o 14% 6%
(1) Urea (2) DDT
(41 2OYo 60/o 600/o 14ok
(3) Cadmium (4) CFC
71. Choose incorrect w.r.t. greenhouse effect
66. lt has been recommended that storage of nuclear
(1) Warming of troposPhere
waste, after sufficient pre-treatment, should be
done in suitably shielded containers buried within (2) Melting of ice caps
rocks, about deeP below the earth's
surface.
(3) Snow blindness
(4) CO, fertilization effect
(1) m
100 (2) 50 m
(3) 500 m (4) 200 m
67. Find out the correctly matched pair Assertion - Reason TYPe Questions
(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) ln the following questions, a statement of assertion
Act - 1981 (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(2) lntegrated organic farming - Cyclical zero (1) lf both Assertion & Reason are true and the
waste procedure reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act - 1974 (2) lf both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(4) Snow-blindness - Caused by methyl assertion, then mark (2)
isocyanate
68. Find odd one w.r.t. primary pollutants. false, then mark (3)
(1) CO (2) HrS (4) lf both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) PAN (4) SO2 statements, then mark (4)
288 Environmental lssues Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
1 A : Noise pollution is now considered as a kind of 5. A: Electrostatic precipitator can remove over
air pollution 99% particulate matters present in the
R: ln 1987, it becomes as part of amended exhaust.
air act.
R: It has cathodes only.
2 A: Royal waste causes mutations to occur at a
6. A: Catalytic converter has platinum, palladium
very high rate
and rhodium as the catalysts.
R : UV-causes formation of thymine dimers in
DNA R: Leaded petrol should be used as lead
activates these catalysts.
3 A: Reaction between primary pollutants
increases toxicity in environment called as 7. A: lntegrated organic farming is a cyclical zero
synergism waste procedure.
R : Synergism requires energy to occur in nature R: It uses waste products of one process as
nutrients in other process.
4 A: Electrostatic precipitator is most efficient in
removing particulate matter. 8. A: Biomagnilication is increase in concentration
R : lt can remove over gg% of particulate matter of a gror,vth factor at successive trophic levels.
present in the exhaust from thermal power R: This phenomenon is well known for biological
plant.
fungicides.
trotr
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Answers 289
ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
Chapter 1 : Structure of Atom
Section A : Obiective Type Questions
1. (4) 2 (2\ 3 (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6 (2) 7 (3)
I (2) L (2) '10. (4\ 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (21
15. (2) '16. (2\ 17. (1) 18. (4) 1e. (3) 20. (1) 21. (2')
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (21 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (1) u. (1) 35. (4)
36. (21 37. (4) 38. (4) 3s. (3) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (3) 4e. (1)
50. (3) 51. (1) s2. (21 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (21 58. (2) 5s. (3) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (2') 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (1) 6s. (4) 70. (1)
71. (2\ 72. (3) 73. (41 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (2)
78. (4) 79. (4) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) u. (2)
85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (4) 8e. (1) e0. (1) s1. (4)
e2. (1) 93. (1) s4. (3) s5. (4) e6. (1) e7. (2) s8. (4)
es. (1) 100. (4) 101. (1) 102. (1) 103. (2) 1u (2) 105. (1)
106. (3) 107. (3) 108. (1) 10e. (3) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (3) 114. (1) 115. (2) 116. (1) 117. (11 118. (2) 11e. (4)
120. (4) 121. (4) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (4) 125. (3) 126. (21
127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (2\ 130.(1) 131. (1) 132. (1') 133. (3)
lu (4) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (1) 13e. (2) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (4) 143. (41 144. (3) 14s. (1) 146. (1) 147. (3)
148. (4) 149. (4) 150. (3) 151. (3) 1s2. (3) 153. (3) 1il. (4\
155. (2) 156. (3) 157. (1) 1s8. (3) 15e. (3) 160. (3) 161. (2)
162. (2) 163. (3) 164 (4) 165. (1) 166 (4) 167. (3) 168. (2)
16e. (4) 170. (3) 171. (11 't72. (21 173. (4) 174. (1) 17s. (41
't76. (4\ 177. (3) 178. (3) 17e. (3) 180. (4) 181. (4) 182. (4)
18s. (4) 1U. (21 18s. (3) 186. (4) 187. (2) 188. (1) 18e. (3)
190. (2) '191. (21 192. (1) 1s3. (3) 1s+. 12) 1es. (4) 1s6. (1)
197. (1) 198. (3) 199. (2) 200. (4) 201. (1) 202. (2) 203. (4)
2u (41 205. (21 206. (4) 207. (2')
Section B : Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1 (21 2 (21 3. (1) 4. (41 5. (2\ 6 (21 7 (21
8. (1) e. (4) 10. (1) 11 (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3)
15. (3)
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290 Answers Last Leap for NEET (Part-l)
Chapter 2 : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Sectlon A: Objective Type Ouestions

1. (2) 2 (41 3. (2\ 4. (3) 5. (3) 6 (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) s. (1) '10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (21 13. (21 14. (1)
'15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (21 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. 0) 28. (4\
29. (1) 30. o 3'1. (2) 32. (1) JJ. (4) u. (1) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (21 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (2\ 42. 14)
43. (1) M. (3) 45. (4) 46. 12) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (4) g. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (1)
64. (4) 65. (21 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (4) 6e. (4) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) tJ. (2\ 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (3)
78. (4) 7e. (2) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. o 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2\ 88. (1) 89. (1) e0. (4) 91. (1)
92. (2) e3. (1) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (3) e7. (1) 98. (4)
99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (2\ 102. (4) 103 (3) 104. (3) 105. (1)
106. (1) 107. (1) 108. (4) 109. (2) 't10 (4) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (2) 114. (21 115. (21 116. (4) 117 (4) 118. (3) 119. (21
120. (3) 121. (1) 122. (41 123. (3) 124 (4) 125. (1\ 126. (3)
127. (1) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131 (4) 132. (3) 133. (4)
1U. (21 135. (1) 136. (4) 137 . (4) 138 (1) 13s. (4) 140. (41
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (3) 1M. (4) 145 (3) 146. (2) 147 . (4\
148. (4) 14e. (3) 150. (3) 151. (4) 152 (3) 153. (2) 15/.. (4)
155. (21 156. (2) 157 . (4) 158. (4) '159 (4) 160. (2) 161. (21
162. (4) 163. (4) 1U. (3) 165. (4) 166 (3) 167. (2\ 168. (21
169. (4) 170. (2) 171 . (3) 172. (4) 173 (3) 174. (2\ 175. (4)
176. (2) 177. (4) 178. (3) 179. (3) 180 (4) 181. (1) 182. (1)
183. (1) 184 (4) 185. (2) 186. (4) 187 (2') 188. (1) 189. (1)
190. (1) 1e1. (4) 192. (1) 193. (1) 194. (2) 195. (1) 196. (2)
197. (1) 1e8. (4) 199. (1) 200. (4) 201 (3) 202. (3) 203. (3)
2M. (4) 205. (1) 206. (3) 207 . (4') 208 (3) 20s. (4) 210. (4)
211 . (1) 212. (41 213. (3) 214. (2') 215 (4) 216. (4) 217. (1)
218. (1) 21s. (11 220. (4) 221 . (3) 222 (21 223. (3) 224. (2)
25. (4) 226. (21 227. (4) 228. (4) 229 (3) 230. (3) 231. (2)
232. (4) 233. (4) 2U. (2) 235. (4) 236 (3) 237. (1) 238. (4)
239. (3) 240. (21
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Answers 29'l

1. (2) 2. (2) 3 (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2')
8. (3) e (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13 (4) 14. (1)
15. (2\ 16. (3) 17. (1) 18, (1) 19. (2) 20 (2\ 21. (4)
Chapter 3 : Equilibrium
Sectlon A : Obiective Type Questlons

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) s. (2) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (3) e. (4) 10. (4) 1'r. (3) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (4) '.16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) le. (3) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (1)
2s. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2\ 32. (2) 33. (3) v. (4) 35. (2)
36. 0) 37. (4) 38. (1) 3e. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. l2') 4s. (3)
50. (1) s',l. (1) s2. (3) 53. (4) 34. (4) 55 0) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (1) 5e. (21 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3)
&r. (1) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67 . (4) 68. (3) 6e. (3) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (4) 7s. (1) 76. (1) 77 . (4)
78. (4) 7e. (1) 80. (4) 81. (2) u. (4) 83. (3) u. (2\
85. (4) 86. 0) 87. (4) 88. (3) 8e. (1) so. (3) 91. (3)
s2. (3) s3. (21 s4 (21 e5. (3) e6. (3) e7. (4) e8. (3)
es. (3) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (4) 1u. (2) 105. (1)
(4) 110. 111. 112. (2)

106. (1) 10e. (4) (4)
107. 108. (2) (2)
118. 11e.
114. (2)
(3)
113. (2) 117.
116. (1) (1)
115. (4) (4)
121. (2\ 125. (1\ 126. (1)

120. (3) 122. (3') 123. \4\ 124. (4\
128. (1) 129. 130. (1) 131. (3) 132. (3) 133. (4)
127. \11 (1)
13s. (4) 139. 140. (4)

134. (4) 138.
137. (3) (4)
136. (1) (4)
142. (2) 146. 147. (4)

141. (3) 145.
144. (3) (1)
143. (3) (4)
14S. (4) 14e. (2) 1s0 (4) 151. (2) 152 (2) 153. (1) 1il (2)
155. (2) 156. (4) 157. l2l 158. (3) 15s (3) 160 (2) 161. (2)
163. (4) 167. (1) 168. (2)

162. (3) 1At. (3) 165. (1) 166. (4)
16e. (2) 170. (1) 171. (2\ 172. (4\ 173. () 174. \11 17s. (3)
177. (2) 181. 182. (3)

176. (2\ 180.
178. (2) 17e. (3) (2) (1)
184. (1) 188. 18e. (2)

1S3. (1) 187.
185. (2) 186. (1) (1) (3)
1eo. (3) 1e1. (2) 1e2 (4) 1s3. (3) 1*. (2) 195. (3) 1e6. (2)
1s8. (2) 202. 203. (4)

1s7. (1) 201.
200. (1) (2)
19s. (1) (3)
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292 Answers
2u. (11 2os. (2) 206 (3) 207. (1) 208. (1) 20s. (3) 210. (3)
211. (4) 212. (4) 213. (1) 214. (3) 21s. (3) 216. (2) 217. (1)
218. (3) 2,19. (4) 220. (4) 221. (3) 222. 223.
(21 (3) 224. (41
22s. (21 226. (3) 227. (3) 228. (4) 229. 230.
(31 (2) 231. (3)
232. 11) 233. (4) 2u. (31 235. (41 236. (1) 237. (3',) 238. (4)
239. (3) 240. (21 241. (2\ 242. (3) 243. (1) 244 (1) 245. (3)
246 (41 247. (1) 248. (4) 249. (1) 250. (41 2s1. (2) 2s2. (3)
2s3. (3) 2il. (1) 255. (4)
Sectlon B : Assertion-Reason Type euestions

1 (4) 2. (3) 3 (4) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6 (2) 7 (1)
8. (4) e (1) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) '13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1)
Chapter 4 Electrochemistry
Section A : Objective Type euestions
1. (1) 2. (2) 3 (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (21 13. (21 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) ls. (21 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (21 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (1)
2s. (21 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (3) v. (4) 3s. (2)
36. (4) Jt. (3) 38. (3) se. (1) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43 (3) 44. (3) 45 (2) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (3) 4s. (2)
50 (2) 51. (3) 52 (3) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. s6. (2)
14)
57 (3) 58. (3) 59 (1) 60. (3) 61. 14) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64 (1) 65. (3) bb (3) 67. (1) 68. (2) 6s. (4) 70. (2)
71 (3) 72. (1) (4) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (1) 17. (4)
78. (1) 7s. (3) 80. (1) 81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (4) u. (4)
85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (2\ 8e. 14) s0. (2) s1. (1)
e2. 14) s3. (2) e|. (1) e5. (3) s6. (4) s7. (1) e8. (2)
99. (4\ 100. (1) 101. (1) 102. (1) 103. (3) 104. (1) 105. (1)
106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (2) 110. (2) 1'11. 14) 112. (3)
113. (21 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (1) 11s. 0)
120. (2\ 121. (3) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. 12s.
(41 (41 126. (1)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (1) 132. (1) 133. (3)
Section B : Assertion-Reason Type euestions
1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (1) 4. (2) 5 (1) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (4) e. (1)
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Chapter 5 : p-Block Elements (Group 15-18)
Section A : Ob,ective Type Questions

1. (2') 2. (4) 3. (4) 4 (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (21
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. () 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (21 v. (2) 3s. (1)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (1) 3e. (2) 40. (21 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (21 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 4s. (41
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (4) s3. (1) u. (3) s5. (1) s6. (3)
s7. (2) 58. (3) 5e. (1) 60. (4) 6'1. (1) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67 . (4) 68. (2t 6e. (21 70. (1)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (2\ 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (4) u. (4)
85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (3) 89. (4) s0. (3) s1. (1)
e2. (4) 93. (4) e4. (4) 9s, (1) 96. (1) e7. (3) s8. (3)
ee (3) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (3) 1u. (2) 105. (2)
106. (3) 107. (3) 108. (3) 10e. (2) 1'10. (21 111. (3) 112. (31
113. (1) '114. (1) 11s. 0) 116. (1) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (11 121. (3) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (1) 12s. (2) 126. (1)
127. (2') 128. (3)

1. (1) 2. (41 3. (1) 4. (4) 5 (1) 6. (2) 7 (3)
Chapter 6 : Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Section A : Objective Type Questions
'1. (21 2. (31 3 (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) b. (1) 7. (2)
8. (21 s. (3) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. l2l 13. (3) 14. (3)
15. (21 16. (3) . (2)

17 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2\ 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) zo. (4) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (3) JJ- (4) u. (3) 35. (3)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (21 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (3) 4s. (21 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (21 53. (21 54. (4) 55. (21 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (2\ 5e. (2) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4)
u. (3) 6s. (3) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (1)
(21 72. (2\ 73. (1) 74. (2\ 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (3) 7s. (2\ 80. (4) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (1) u. (4)
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85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (21 e0. (21 91. (4)
s2. (3) e3. (2) e4. (4) 95. (4) vb. (3) s7. (1) 98. (3)
se. (3) 100. (4) 1o1. (2) 102. (4\ 103 (21 1M (21 '105. (1)
106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (4) 110 (3) 111. (1) 112. (3)
113. (3) 114.(4) 115. (1) 116. (1) 't17 (21 118. (3) 119. (3)
120. (4) 121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (1) 124 (1) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (3) 124. @l 12e. (4\ 130. (1) 131 (4) 132. (2) 133. (1)
1u. (2) 135. (1) 136. (2) 137. (1) 138 (4) 13s. (4) 140. (1)
141. (2\ 142. (4) 143. (4) 144. (2) 145 (3) 146. (21 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (1) 1s0. (4) 151. (4) 152 (4) 153. (1) 1il. (4)
155. (4) 1s6. (4) 157. (4) 158. (2) 159 (4') 160. (3) 161. (4)
162. (41 163. (3) 1u. (4) 165. (1) 166 (1) 167. (4) '168. (41
16e. (3) 170. (4) 171. (2) 172. (2) 173 (2\ 174. (3\ 175. (4)
176. (21 177. (1\ 178. (1) 179. (4) 180 (1) 181. (3) 182. (1)
183. (1) 1u (41 185. (4) 186. (21 187 (2) 188. (3) 189. (3)
190 (2) 191. (4) 192. (3) 193. (21 1U. (1) 1es. (2) 196. (2\
1e7. (3)

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5 (1) b. (21 7 (1)
8. (1) e (3) 10. (2) 11 (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14 (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18 (3)
Chapter 7 : Hydrocarbons
Sec{Ion A : Objec'tlve Type Questlons
1. (2) 2. (31 3. (2) 4. (21 s. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (4) e. (1) 10. (4) 1.t. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (?l
15. (4) 16. (3) ',t7. (3) .t8. (3) 1e. (4) n. (3) 21. et
2' (3) 23. (s) 24. (4) 2s. (1) 26. (4) 27. (21 28. (2)
n. €) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (2) 3:1. (1) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (21 38. (4) 3e. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (4)
4i). (1) 44. (3) 45. (1) $. (1) 47. (1) l{8. (4) 4e. (4)
so. (3) s1. (4) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) s5. (3) s6. (4)
57. (4) 58. (2) 5s. (21 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (3)
u. (3) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (4) 6e. (3) 70. (1)
7',t. (2) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (21 76. (2) 17. (21
78. (4) 7e. (3) 80. (21 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (2) u. (3)
85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (2) 8e. (1) e0. (3) e1. (1)
Last Leap lor NEET (Partl) Answers 295
92. (2\ 93. (2\ 94. (21 95. (2\ e6. (1) s7. (2) e8. (21
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (1) 10s. (2)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (s) 112. (1)
113. (2) 114. (3) 11 5. (2) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (2)
120. (3) 121. (11 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (2)
127 . (1) 128. (3) 't29. (4) 130. (2) 131. (1) 132. (3) 133. (3)
134. (2) 135. (4) 136. (4) 137. (11 138. (4) 139. (4) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (3\ 143. (2) 144. (21 145. (3) 146. (1) 147. (2')
't48. (1) 149. (2\ 150. (2) 151. (1) 152. (3) 153. (4) 1U. (2\
155. (2\ 1s6. (3) 't57 . (3) 1s8. (2) 159. (3) 160. (4) 161. (21
162. l2l 163. (3) 1. (3) 16s. (3) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (3)
169. (4) 170. 12) 171 . (2') 172. (41 173. (4) 174. (3\ 17s. (2\

1. (3) 2 (3\ 3. (2) 4. (1) (2) 6. (3) 7 (2)
8. (4) e. (1) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12 (1) lJ. (1) (3)
'rs. (1) 16. (1) 17. (21 18. (4) 19 (4) 20. (1)
BOTANY
Chapter 1 : Biological Classification
1. (3) 2. (41 3. (2) 4. (4) 5 (3) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (21 e (3) 10. (1) 11. (41 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1)
'15. (4) '16. (41 17. (3) 18. (4) 1e. (1) 20. (3) 21 (3)
22. (4) 23 (4) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27 . (4) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (3) JZ. (2) 33. (3) u. (4) 3s. (2)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (21
43. (2) 44. (3) 4s. (4) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (2\ 4s. (3)
50. (3) 51. (1) s2. (2) 53. (2) u. (3) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (3) 5e. (4) 60. (2) 6'1. (2) 62. (4) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (21 68. (3) 6s. (1) 70. (3)
71. (41 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (2') 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (4) 7e. (3) 80. (1) 81. (4) 82. (21 83. (1) u. (1)
85. (3) 86. (2\ 87. (3) 88. (3) 8e. (1) e0. (4) s1. (2)
92. (3) e3. (3) s4. (1) 95. (3) e6. (3) 97. (1) e8. (1)
99 (4) 100. (4) 101. (4) 102 (3) 103. (4) 1U. (2) 10s. (3)
106 (1) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109 (4) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (3\
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113. (2) 114. (21 11s. (4) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (2) 119. (2)
120. (1) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (4') 126. (3)
127. (11 128. (2) 129. (11 130. (3) 131. (4) 132. (3) 133. (4)
1u. (11 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (41 138. (3) 13s. (2) 140. (1)
141. (2) 142. (21 143. (4) 144. (3) 14s. (1) 146. (2\ 147. (3)
148. (4) 149. (11 150. (3) 151. (2) 152. (4') 153. (3) 1U. (21
1ss. (4) 156 (3) 1s7. (3) 1s8. (2) 1s9. (2) 160. (3) 161. (4)
162. (41 163. (1) 164. (1) 16s. (2) 166. (3) 167. (1) 168. (2)
16s. (1) 170. (3) 171. (2) 172. (2) 173. (21 174. (1) 175. (21
176. (1) 177. (4) 178. (4) 17e. (1) 180. (2) 181. (1) 182. (4)
183. (2) 1U. (2) 185. (1) 186. (3) 187. (1) 188. (3) 189. (4)
1s0. (3) 1e1. (2) 1e2. (21 1e3. (3) 1%. (4) 1e5. (3) 1e6. (2)
197. (3) 1e8. (3) 199. (2) 200. (2) 201. (1) 202. (41 203. (2)
2u. (31 205. (1) 206. (4\ 207. (1\ 208. (4) 20e. (1) 210. (2)
211. (3) 212. (2') 213. (2) 214. (2\ 215. (3) 216. (2) 217. (4)
218. (4) 219. (3) 220. (4) 221. (2) 222. (2') 223. (3) 224. (4)
225. (4\ 226. (3\ 227. (3) 228. (2) 22s. (1) 230. (4) 231. (3)
232. (31 233. (3) 2v. (1) 235. (3) 236. (4) 237. (2\ 2u (21
239. (1) 240. (3') 241. (4) 242. (2) 243. (3) 244 (2) 245. (3)
246 (4) 247. (2) 248. (2) 24e. (2) 2s0. (1) 251 . (2\ 252. (1)
253. (2) zil (41 2ss. (3) 2s6. (1) 257. (4) 258. (4\ 25s. (4)
260. (1) 261. (21 262. (31 263. (3) 2u (41 265. (21 266. (3)
267. (4) 268. (3) 269. (21 270. (3) 271. (4) 272. (4) 273. (3)
274. (1) 275. (2) 276. (2) 277. (21 278. (3\ 279. (21 280. (2)
281. (3) 282. (3) 283. (3) 2u (4) 285. (21 286. (3) 287. (1)
2ffi (4) 289. (2) 290. (4) 2e1. (1) 2s2. (3) 2e3. (2) 2s4. (3)
295. (1) 2e6. (21 297. (1) 2s8. (1) 2se. (3) 300. (4) 301. (4)
302. (3) 303. (3) 304. (4) 305. (3) 306. (4) 307. (2) 308. (3)
30e (2) 310. (2) 311. (3) 312. 14) 313. (1) 314. (1) 31s. (4)
316. (1) 317. (1) 318. (4) 319. (3) 32o. (2\ 321. (21 322. (3',)
323. (1) 324 (2) 325. () 326. (1) 327. (21 328. (3) 329. (4)
330. (3) 331 . (4) 332. (3) 333. (2) 334 (4) 335. (4) 336. (4)
337. (2) 338. (1) 33e. (1) 340. (3) u1 (2) u2. (31 343. (1)
u4. (2) 345. (3) u6 (21 y7. (1) 348 (4) ve. (2) 350. (3)
351. (2) 352. (4) 3s3. (2) 354. (3) 3s5. (3) 356. (2) 357. (1)
358. (2) 35e. (2) 360. (2) 361. (2) 362. (2) 363. (2) 3e1. G)
365. (1) 366. (1) 367. (1) 368. (2) 36e. (1) 370. (4) 371. (1)
372. (3) 373. (4) 374. (41 375. (2\ 376 (2) 377. (1) 378. (3)
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Last Leap for NEET (Partl) Answers N7
379. (3) 380. (1) 381. (2) 382. (3) 383. (2) 384. (3) 385. (1)
386. (21 387. (4) 388. (4) 38s (3) 390. (2) 3e1. (1) 392. (4)
393. (1) 3e4. (4) 3s5. (4) 396.(1) 397. (4) 398. (3) 399. (3)
400. (4) 401. (2) 402. 12) 403. (3) 404. (3) 405. (3) 406. (1)
407. (4) 408. (4) 40e. (1) 410. (2\ 411. (2\ 412. (3) 413. (1)
414. (3) 415. (3) 416. (3) 417. (3) 418. (4) 419. (4) 420. (2')
421. (4) 422. (3) 423. (31 424. (3) 425. (3) 426. (2) 427. (1)
428. (4) 42s. (3) 430. (3) 431. (4) 432. (21 433. (1) 4u. (2)
435. (2) 436. (3) 437. (3) 438. (3) 43s. (1) 440. (2) 441. (2)
442. (2\ 443. (3) 444. (2) 44s. (3) 446 (41 447 (2) 448 (4)
449. (3) 4so. (2) 451. (3) 452 (4) 4s3. (3) 4il. (1) 455. (3)

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (3) e. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (4) . (2)

17 '18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) zo. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. Ql 30. (4) 31. (2\ 32. (4) 33. (3) u. (4) 35. (21
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41, (3) 42. (4)
Chapter 2 : Reproduction in Organisms and Sexual Reproduction in Plants
section A: objective Type Questions

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (21 5. (4) b. (3) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (21 11. (3) 12. (21 13. (2\ 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (21 1e. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. Q) 23. (3) 24. (21 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (4)
2s. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (21
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (21 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47 . (21 48. (1) 49. (3)
50. (3) s l. (21 52. (2\ 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (?)
s7. (4) s8. (3) 59. (3) 60. (2\ 61. (3) 62. (21 63. (3)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (21 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (4) 7s. (4) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (3)
8s. (4) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (3) 8e. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3)
s2. 12\ s3. (3) 94. (1) 95. (4) e6. (21 97. (2\ 98. (1)
es. (1) 100. (1) 101 (1) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104 (4) 105 (3)
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106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (1) 10e. (2) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (21 114. (1) 115. (21 116. (3) 117 (2) 118. (2) 11s. (4)
120. (3) 121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (21 124. (41 12s. (3) 126. (2\
127. (31 128. (4) 12e. (1') 130. (4) 131. (s) 132. (3) 133. (3)
134. (1) 135. (4) 136. (3) 137. (4) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144 (41 145. (1) 146. (4) 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (3) 151. (2) 152. (1) 153. (1) 1s4. (3)
155. (3) 1s6. (3) 157. (2) 1s8. (4) 1s9. (2) 160. (3) 161. (4)
162. (21 163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (1) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (3)
169. (4) 170. (1) 171. (31 172. (2) 173. (3) 174 (2\ 17s. (1)
't76. (4) 177. (3) 178. (4) 179. (3) 180. (2) 181. (1) 182. (4)
18s. (1) 184. (1) 185. (4) 186. (3) 187. (1) 188. (2) 18e. (2)
1e0. (4) 191. (1) 192. (4\ 1e3. (2) 194. (2) 195. (1) 196. (1)
197. (21 198. (1) 199. (3) 2Oo. (21 201. (4) 202. (4) 203. (3)
2u. (4) 2o5. (21 206. (3) 207. (1) 208. (1) 2Os. (41 210. (2)
211. (2\ 212. (4) 213. (2) 214. (4\ 215. (2) 216. (41 217. (2)
218. (3) 219. (2\ 22o. (21 221. (1) 222. (4) 223. (4) 224. (1)
225. (1) 226. (2) 227. (1) 228. (21 22s. (3) 230. (4) 231. (11
232. (41 233. (1) 2y. (1\ 235. (41 236. (1) 237. (1) 238. (4)
239. (2) 240. (31 241. (4) 242. (1) 243. (3) 244. (4\ 245. (11
246. (31 247. (2\ 248. (2) 249. (4) 250. (3) 251. (3) 252. (1)
253. (1) 2il. (41 25s. (3) 2ffi. (2) 257. (21 25s. (1) 25s. (1)
260. (1) 261. (3) 262. (1) 263. (1) 2u (2) 265. (1) 266. (3)
267. (2) 268. (21 26e. (3) 270. (2) 271. (3) 272. (2) 273. (2)
274. (31 27s. (2) 276. (2) 277. (2') 278. (2) 27s. (31 280. (3)
281 . (2) 282. (3\ 283. (3) 2u. (3) 285. (1) 286. (2) 287. (4)
288. (21 28e. (3) 2e0. (1) 2e1. (2) 2s2. (4) 2s3. (2\ 2u.. (1)
29s. (3) 296. (1) 297. (2\ 2e8. (4) zss. (21 300. (3) 301. (3)
302. (4) 303. (3) 304. (1) 305. (3) 306. (3) 307. (2\ 308. (2)
30e. (3) 310. (4) 311. (3) 312. (4) 313. (3) 314. (1\ 315. (4)
316. (3) 317. (2) 318. (3) 31e. (4) 320. (2) 321. (1) 322. (3)
323. (4) 324. (11 32s. (3) 326. (4) 327 (41 32s. (3) 32e. (3)
330. (3) 331. (3) 332. (1) s33. (1) 334. (1) 335. (2) 336. (4)
337. (3) 338. (2) 339. (4) 340 (4) u1 . (4) U2. (11 343 (4)
344 (3) 34s. (1) u6. (2) y7. (3) 348. (1) 349. (4) 350. (2)
351. (3) 352. (3) 3s3. (2) 354. (1) 35s. (2) 356. (4) 357. (4)
358. (3) 3s9. (2) 360. (2) 361. (4) 362. (3) 363. (2) 364 (3)
365. (4) 366. (1) 367. (4) 368. (1) 369. (3) 370. (2) 371. (4)
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Last Leap for NEET (Part-l) Answers 299

1. (3) 2. (1) 3 (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8 (2) s. (2t 10. (1) 11. (41 12 (1) IJ (1) 14 (2)
15. (4) 16. (21 17. (1) 18 (2) 19 (4) 20 (1) 21 (2)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25 (1) 26 (3) 27 (3) 28 (21
29. (3)
Ghapter 3 : Molecular Basis of lnheritance

1. (3) 2 (41 3 (4) 4. (2) 5. (4\ b. (21 7. (3)
8. 0) e (2) 'r0. (3) 1'1. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17 . \2) 18. (4) 19. (21 20. (3) 21 . (1)
22. (2) 23. () 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (21 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (3) JJ. (4) 34. (1) 3s. (4)
36. (1) 37 . (2\ 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (3)
43. (21 44. (4) 4s. (2\ 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (4) 4e. (4)
50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (2\ 53. (3) u. (3) 55. (4) s6. (41
57. (3) 58. (2) 5e. (3) 60. (4\ 6'1. (4) 62. (3) 63. (3)
u. (1) 65. (2\ 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (2') 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (1)
78. (4) 7s. (1) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) u. (2)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2\ 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (3) 9'r. (3)
92. (21 e3. (3) s4. (3) 95. (3) 96. (4) 97. (2) e8. (4)
99. (4) 100. (2) 't01. (2) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (2\ 10s. (4)
106 (3) 107. (3) 108. (4) '109. (4) 1'10. (3) 111 . (2\ 112. (4)
113. (4) 114. (2\ 115. (2\ 116. (3) 117 . (4) 1't8. (2) 119. (1)
120 (41 121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124 (1) 125. (3) 126. (4)
127 (1) 128. (2) 129. (1\ 130. (3) '131 (3) 132. (2) 133. (2)
1U (21 135. (2) 136. (1) 137. (1) 138 (3) 139. (1) 140. (3)
141 (4) 142. (41 143. (3) 144. (3) 145 (2) 146. (3) 147. (4\
148 (3) 149. (3) 150. (3) 151. (3) 152 (4) 153. (1) 1s4. (4)
155 (4) 156. (4) 157. (2\ 158. 12\ 159 (3) 160. (21 161. (3)
162 (41 163. (1) 1u (2) 165. (2) 166 (4) 167 . (3) 168. (3)
169 (3) 170. (21 171. (2) 172. (4) 173 (2) 174. (3) 175. (3)
176 (2) 177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (3) 180 (2) 181. (4) 182. (2\
183 (4) 184. (1) 185. (2) 186 (2) 187 (3) 188. (4) 189. (1)
190 (1) 1s1. (2) 192. (11 193 (2) 194 (4) 195. (3) 1s6. (2)
197 () 1e8. (4) lse. (3) 200 (3) 201 (1) 202. (3) 203. (3)
2U (4) 2o5. (41 206. (2) 207 (3) 208 (1) 209. (4) 210. (3)
211 (1) 212. (2') 213. (3) 214 (2) 215 (21 216. (1) 217. (2)
218 (1) 219. (2) 220 (21 221 (3) 222 (3) 223. (21 224. (3)
225 (3) 226. (1) 227. (4\
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1. (4) 2 (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 5 (4) 6 (1) 7 (1)
8. (1) e. (3) 10. (2) 11 (1) 12 (3) 13 (3) 14. (3)
'r5. (1) 16. (1) 17. (4)
Chapter 4 : Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Section A: Objective Type Questions

1. (2) 2. (1) 3 (3) 4. (2) ( (2) b. (3) 7. (4)
8. (21 e. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (1) zo_ (4) 27. (2) 28. (2')
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (3) v. (4) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (1) 5'r. (2\ s2. (3) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (4) 5s. (1) 60. (3) 61. (2) o2. (1) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (2) oo. (2) 69. (2) 70. (1)
71. (3) 72. (2\ 73. (2) 74. (1) (4) 76. (21 77. (2)
78. (2) 7s. (3) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (4) u. (4)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (21
92. (1) e3. (1) s4. (3) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (4)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102 (3) 103 (21 104 (41 10s. (4)
106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (3) 109 (1) 'l'10. (21 111. (2) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (4\ 115. 12) 116 (4) 1't7. (2\ 118 (2) 119. (2)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (21 123 (1) 124 (2) 't25 (3) 126. (3)
127 . (21 128. (4\ 129. (2) 130 (1) 131 (3) 132 (3) 133. (1)
1U. (2) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137 (3) 138 (2) 139 (2) 140. (21
141. (1) 142. (3) 143. (3) 144 (4) 145 (1) 146 (4) 147 . (2)
148. (3) 14s. (3) 1s0. (3) 151 (3) 152. (3) 153 (2) 1v. (4)
't55. (4) 156. (1) 157. (3) 158 (2) 159 (4) 160. (1) 161. (4)
162. (4) 163. (4) 164. (4) 165 (21 166. (2) 167 . (1) 168. (4)
169. (4) 170. (1) 171. (3) 172 (1) 173. (4) 174. (3) 175. (1)
176. (1) 177. (4) 178. (1) 179 (3) 180. (4) 181. (2\ 182. (4)
'183. (1) 184. (1) 185. (4) 186. (21 187. (2) 188. (21 189. (4)
190. (2) 1e1. (4) 192. (1) 193. (4) 194. (3) 195. (3) 196. (2)
197. (1) 1e8. (2) 199. (1) 200. (4) 201 . (2)

1 (4) 2 (3) 3 (2\ 4 (4) 5 (1) 6 (1) 7 (3)
8 (1) e. (4) 10. (3) 11 (41 12 (4) 13 (1)
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Last LeaD for NEET (Part-l) Answers 301
Ghapter 5 : Morphology of Flowering Plants

Section A: Objectlve Type Ouestlong
t. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4 (3) (4) 6. (4) 7 (4)
8. (21 s. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (2\ 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) '.t7. (4) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (1)
(2) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27 . (3) 28. (4)
29. (3) 30. 0) 31. (3) 32. (2\ 33. (4) 34. (21 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (3) s8. (4) 3e. (1) 40. (1) 41 . (2) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (21 46. (21 47. (1) zt8. (1) 4s. (1)
50. (4) 51. (3) s2. (2) 53. (21 il. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (2) 5s. (3) 60. (21 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (3)
u. (3) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (3) 6e. (2) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (1) (1) 76. (3) 77. (2)
78. (3) 7s. (4) 80. (3) 81. (2) 62. (4) 83. (1) u. (3)
85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) e0. (4) e1. (4)
92. (2) s3. (2) s4. (3) es. (1) 96. (3) e7. (4) s8. (2)
99. (1) 100. (3) 10',t. (2) 102. (4') 103. (1) 104. (3) 10s. (2)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (2) 10s. (4) 110. (2\ 111. (1) 112. (3)
113. @ 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117 . (2) 118. (2\ 119. (3)
120. (1) 121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (3) 12s. (3) 126. (1)
127. (2) 12t3. 14) 1n. e) 130. (3) 131. (21 132. (3) 133. (2)
lU. (3) 135. (4) 136. (1) 137. (1) 138. (1) 139. (4) 140. (2)
141 (4)
. 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (3) 't45. (2\ 146. (3) 147. (2)
148. (2) 14e. (1) 150. (1) 1s1. (2) 152. (21 1s3. (1) 154. (1)
155. (3) 156. (1). 157. (1) 158. (2) 159. (4) 160. (1) 161. (3)
162. (21 163. (4) 164. (1) 16s. (1) 166. (21 167. (2) 168. (4)
169. (1) 170. (3) 171. (2) 172. (2) 173. (21 174. (4) 175. (2)
176. (4) 1n. Q) 178. (1) 17s. (2) 180. (21 181. (4) 182. (2)
183. (1) 184. (3) 18s. (4) 186. (1) '187 . (4) 188. (1) 18e. (4)
190. (2) 1e1. (3) 1e2. (4) 1e3. (1) 194. (1) 1es. (2) 1s6. (4)
197 (1)
. 1e8. (2) 1ee. (3) 2N (4) 201 . (1) 202. (41 203. (4)
2U. (3) 205. (3) 206. (2) 207. (4) 208. (4) 209. (3) 210. (2)
21't (21
. 212. 14) 213. (3) 214. (41 215. (3) 216. (21 217. (2)
218. (2) 21s. (2) 20. (2) 221. (3') 222. (41 223. (21 224. (1)
225. (2) %. (4) 27. (1) 228. (41 229. (3) 230. (3) 231. (1)
232. (2) 233. (2) 2v. (2) 23s. (1) 236. (3) 237. (21 238. (1)
235. (3) 2q. e) 241. (4) 242. (3) 243. (1) 244. (21 245 (4)
246. (3) 247. (1) 24€. (4) 24e. (3) 250. (3) 251. (2\ 252. (3)
253. (3) 2s. (2\ 255. (1) 256. (3) 257 . (3) zfi. (2\ 25s. (4)
260. (4) 261. (1) 262. (31 263. (1) 2U. (4) 265. (4) 266. (3)
267. (4) 268. (2) 26s. (1) 27o. (2\
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1. (1) 2 (1t 3 (2) 4 (3) s (2) 6 (3) 7. (21
8 (2) s (3) 'r0. (2\ 11 (2)
Chapter 6 : Principles of lnheritance and Variation

1. (3) 2. (3) 3 (2) 4 (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7 (1t
8. (4) e (3) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4\ 20. (3) 21 . (1)
22. (2\ 23. (2) 24 . (4) 25 . (4) 26. (2) 27 . (4) 28. (1)
2s. (3) 30. (1) 3'r . (1) 32. (1) (3) 34. (21 35 (3)
36. (2\ 37 . (2\ 38. (1) 39. (2\ 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 4e. (1)
50. (1) s1 (2') 52. (21 53. (3) 54. (41 55. (2) s6. (4)
57. (4t 58 (41 5e. (3) 60. (2) ot. (3) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (4) 65. (21 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 6e. (1) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (41 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (1) .
77 (4)
78. (2) 7e. (3) 80. (2) 81. (4\ 82. (2) 83. (1) u. (3)
85. (1) 86 (2) 87. (2) 88. (21 89. (3) 90. (4) e1 (2)
e2. (4) s3 (3) e4. (3) e5 (4) 96 (1) 97. (3) 98. (4\
es. (3) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (1\ 103. (21 104. (1) 10s. (3)
106. (4) 107. (41 108. (4) 10e. (2) 110. (21 111. (41 112. (21
'113. (2\ 114. (41 11s. (3) 116. (21 't17 . (1) 118. (3) 11s. (21
120. (3) 121. (2) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (1) 125. (1) 126. (4)
127. (3) 128. (1\ 129. (4) 130. (4) (1) 132. (3) 133. (4)
1U. (2) 135. (3) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (4) 13e. (1) 140. 12)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (4)
148. (2\ 149. (4) 150. (2) 151. (2') 152. (2) 1s3. (3) 1s4. (3)
155. (1) 1s6. (2) 157. (4) 1s8. (21 159. (4) 160. (3) 161. (3)
162. (21 163. (4) 1u. (21 165. (2) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (4)
16e. (1) 170 (3) 171 . (3\ 172. (2) 173. (2\ 174. (4) 175. (3)
176. (4) 177. (2) 178. (3) 179. (2\ 180 (1) 181. (1) 182 (2)
183. (3) 184. (1) 18s. (3) 186. (1) 187 . (4) 188. (4) 189 (3)
190. (1) 1e1. (3) 192. (2\ 1e3. (2) 194. (1) 1e5. (3) 1e6. (3)
197. (41 198. (2) les. (1) 200. (4) 201 . (21 202. (41 203. (3)
2u. (31 205 (4) 206. (3) 2o7. (3\ 208. (41 209. (21 210. ('tl
211. (3) 212. (4) 213. (1) 214. (1) (4) 216. (2) 217. (1)
218. (3) 21e. (41 22o. (1) 221. (2) 222. (1) 223. (4) 224. (3)
22s. (4) 226. (2) 227. (2)
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Last Leap for NEET ( Part-l) Answers 303

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4 (1) 5. (3) 6 (1) 7. (1)
8. (3) e. (2) ',10. (3) 11 (3) 12 (2) 13. (4)
Chapter 7 : Cell : The Unit of Life
Sectlon A: Objective Type Quostlong

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) b. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3) s (2) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1)
2.. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) zo. (4) 27. (2\ 28. (4)
2s. (1) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (1) JJ. (4) v. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. () 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (2) M. (1) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (4) s1. (2) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (1)
s7. (4) 58. (4) 5s. (3) 60. (4) 61. (1) oz- (2) t)J. (4)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (21 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (1) 7s. (1) 80. (21 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (3) u. (2)
85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (4)
e2. (1) s3. (3) s4. 0) 95. (2') 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (4)
ss. (1) 100. (4) 101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (3) 1U. (3) 105. (2\
106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (2) '109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (3) 114. (41 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (4) 118. (2\ 119. (2)
120. (2) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (1)
127. 12) 128. (2) 12e. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137 . (1) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (3)
't41. (41 142. (1) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147 . (2)
148. (3) 14e. (2) 150. (4) 151. (3) 152. (4) 153. (3) 1*. (3)
155. (1) 156. (4) 't57. (2') 158 (2') 159 (4) '160, (1) 161. (4)
162. (2) 163. (4) 1U (2) 165 (1) 166. (3) 167 (4) 168. (2)
16e. (4) 170. (2) 171. (4) 172 (1) 173 (3) 174 (4) 175. (2)
,t'fo
176. 0) 177. (3) 178. 0) (1) 180 (2') 181 (2) 182. (3)
183. (2) 184 (3) 185. (4) 186 (1) 187 (2) 188 (3) 189. (1)
190. (3)
Section B : Assertion{eason Type Questlons

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4 (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) e. (1) 10. (2\ 11 (4)
Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. Regd. Offce :Aakash Tower, B, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.01147623y'.fi
Chapter I : Ecosystem
Sec{on A : Objec.tlye Type Questlons
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (21 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (1) e. (4) 10. (3) 11. (21 12 (1) 'r3. (1) 't4. (4\
15. (21 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19 (4) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (4) 2s. (2) 26 (2\ 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (21 32. (1) 33 (2) v. 0) 35. (4)
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (4) 3e. (3) 40 (3) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (2) 4s. (3) 46. (3) 47 (4) 48. (21 49. (3)
50. (1) s1. (4) s2. (4) 53. (2) il (4) 5s. (3) 56. (2)
57. (3) s8. (4) se. (3) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (21 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (3) 6e. (2) 70. (4\
71, (21
Sactlon B : Assertlon-Reason Type Ques ons

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4 (11 5. (4) 6 (3) 7. (4)
8. (2)
Chapter 9 : Environmental lssues
Sectlon A : Objective Type Questions
I (1) 2(2)3 (4) 4 (1) 5 (2) 6 (4) 7 (2)
8 (1) 9 (1) 10 (4) 11 (2) 12 (2) '13 (1) 14 (2)
15 (1) 16 (21 17 (4) 18 (3) 19 (4) n (41 21 (2)
2. (4) n (3) 24 (4) 25 (3) 26 (1) 27 (3) % (2)
n (4) 30 (3) 31 (1) 32 (41 $, (1) u (21 35 (1)
36 (3) 37 (3) 38 (3) 39 (1) q (3) 41 (2) 42 (3)
4ii (2) 4/.0) 45 (3) 6 (2) 47 (21 4 (3) 49 (3)
50 (3) 51 (1) 52 (1) 53 (4\ il (2) 55 (2) 56 (2)
57 (3) 58 (1) 5e (3) 60 (3) 61 (1) Q. (4) 63 (2)
64 14) 65 (2) 66 (3) 67 (2\ 68 (3) 69 (1) 70 (3)
71. (3)
Sectlon B : Assertion-Reason Type euestions

1 (1) 2. (21 3 (21 4 (1) 5 (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
I (4)
tr D D
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LAST IEAP for NEEI

ICHEIVIISTRY & BOTANY)

3. Botany 113 - 288

4. Answers 289 - 304

Wishing you a brighter career.

CHAPTER NO. TOPIC PAGE No.

1. Structure of Atom .. ..... 01 - 16

2. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 17 -34

5. p-Block Elements (GrouP 15 - 18) 67 -74

6. Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles

7. Hydrocarbons ...93 - 112

2 lf 'x'is the radius of first Bohr's orbit of the (1) py (21 p,

(3) 60800 cm-l (4) 78000 cm

(3) lt is defined for hydrogen molecule only

19. lf the kinetic energy of an electron in the nth shell (1)

('l) 3 -+ 2 (2) 4 --> 2 moment for Mn (Z = 25) is

(3) s -+ 2 (41 6 -+ 2 (1 ) 4'4 BM (2) 1'1 BM

/?r -e2 (3) Orbital angular momentum of 2p-electron is

(1) n=7 /=o m=+1 "=-: lli I

1 t3) 4sorbital (3 radiat nodes)

(3) ot (4) co+ (1) 3 (21 4

(1) n=4,=4 m=0 "=.; tJH#:,ilr"#":1",i1':f,S:.Ti:1fl";;

(4) Kinetic, potential and total energy decreases () 4d/ (2) 4d

60. The total exchange of electron in ds system is

72. How many times does light travels faster in

74. lf it is assumed that the electron exist within the

h 3h 102. For d electron, the orbital angular momentum is

(2) AO.Ae > -.L (for angular motion) 1

energy? and s=+- are equal to

(3) Third orbit

125. lf the kinetic energy for hydrogen in a given energy

for He* will be given by (3)

(1) 10{ times to that of atom (1) n=3ton=1 (2) n=4ton=1

140. Which of the following line is of largest () 2h Ql Ji n

(1) 3. 2. 3. - 1 (2\ 3.2. -2. -1

156. V42o denotes which of the following orbital? x

configuration is 174. The quantum numbers + and for the

173. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (1) v::g

R -ve values including zero

197. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbit€,l

(3) 743 nm (4) 518 nm KE KE

(1) 2 (2) Kinetic energy of electron decreases with

reason is not the correct explanation of the

error in the measurement below the

(1) CaF2 (21 CaCt,

(3) sp (4) sp3d CH 3

4 NHr, NH3 and NH; do not show similarity in the

5 Effective overlapping will be shown by

(3) @+ (4) All of these (3) MeO OMe*0

(1) NOr (2) CO3'

9. Hypervalent @mpound is 17 The bond angle in hydrogen bonding of HF is

(1) NH3 combines with H*

(2) AlH. mmbines with H- (2) sp3& octahedral

(b) pr - dr bonds are present in SO, vA

(1) Licl (2) Nacl (1) Becl2

25. The molecule with zero dipole moment is

OCH 3 (1) sp (z) si

(3) NO, >No; >No; (4) NO; >NO, >NO,

(3) (1) CO, CN- and NO*

so"_ H"o. co" .