ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (MINOR TEST - 01st, NEET) : 25.01.

2025
[Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.] Full Marks : 720

PHYSICS 06. Th e po siti on vecto r of a parti cle is

 ^ ^
SECTION-A r  (a cos t) i  (a sin t) j . The velocity of the
(All questions are compulsory) particle is :
01. A screw gauge gives the following reading when (1) parallel to the position vector
used to measure the diameter of a wire. (2) directed towards the origin
Main scale reading : 0 mm (3) perpendicular to the position vector
Circular scale reading : 66 divisions (4) directed away from the origin
Given that 1mm on main scale corresponds to 07. The initial velocity of a particle of mass 3 kg is
100 divisions of the circular scale. The diameter ^ ^ ^
of wire from the above data is : (5 i  6 j )ms 1 . A constant force of 30 j N is
(1) 0.033 cm (2) 0.035 cm applied on the particle. Initially the particle was
at (0, 0). Find the x-coordinate of the point where
(3) 0.07 cm (4) 0.066 cm its y-coordinate is again zero.
02. If voltage V = (80 ± 1.6)V and current (1) 6 m (2) 3 m (3) 12 m (4) 4 m
I = (5 ± 0.1)A, the percentage error in resistance
R is : 08. A cart of mass 1800 kg is moving with constant
speed 15 m/sec. Due to heavy rain, water is
(1) 4% (2) 3.2% (3) 2.4% (4) 5% entering in cart with rate 20 kg/sec, as shown
in diagram then velocity of cart after 3 minute
a  x2
03. Pressure P is given by P  , where x is will be :
bt
distance and t is time, the dimensions of a × b is:
(1) [M–1 L4 T–1] (2) [M–1 L3 T–2]
15 m/sec
(3) [ML5 T–2] (4) [M–1 L5 T]

^ ^ ^
04. If n  a i  b j is perpendicular to the vector
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4) 6 m/s
^ ^ 09. Angle of repose for a rough inclined surface is
( i  2 j ) then the value of a and b may be :
37°, its angle of inclination is 30°. An object of
1 1 3 1 mass 3 kg is placed on this rough inclined
(1) , (2) , surface, then its acceleration will be : (g = 10
2 2 10 10
m/s2)
2
,
1 4
,
1 (1) 6.5 m/s2 (2) zero
(3) (4) 2
5 5 17 17 (3) 3.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s2
05. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that 10. Assertion : Force applied on a block moving in
its coordinate varies with time according to the one dimension is producing a constant power,
equation x = 15 – 6t + t2. The velocity of the th en the motio n sh oul d be uni formly
particle will vary with time as : accelerated.
v v Reason : This constant power multiplied with
time is equal to the change in kinetic energy.
(1) O t (2) O t
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason i s th e co rre ct e xpl anation of
Assertion.
v v (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) O t (4) O t Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
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11. A drum of radius R and mass M rolls down without emerging out per second from the hole does not
slipping along an inclined plane of angle . The depend on :
frictional force : (1) the density of a liquid.
(1) dissipates energy as heat (2) the acceleration due to gravity.
(2) decreases the rotational and translational (3) the height of the level of liquid above the hole.
motion
(4) the area of a hole.
(3) converts translational energy into rotational
energy 16. Ratio of excess pressure of two soap bubbles is
1 : 4 then the ratio of their surface area will be :
(4) decreases the rotational motion
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 16 : 1
12. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit
around the earth. The mass of the satellite is (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
very small as compared to the mass of the earth. 17. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction
Then, on a circular path as shown in the figure. The
(1) the total mechanical energy of S varies movement of ‘P’ is such that it sweeps out a
periodically with time length s = t4 + 8, where s is in metres and t is in
seconds. The radius of the path is 16 m. The
(2) the angular momentum of S about the centre acceleration of ‘P’ when t = 2s is :
of the earth changes in direction, but its
magnitude remains constant y
(3) the acceleration of S is always directed
B
towards the centre of the earth
P(x,y)
(4) the linear momentum of S remains constant
m
in magnitude 16
13. Match the following columns for the processes x
O A
with ideal gas.
Column I Column II (1) 72 m/s2 (2) 96 m/s2
A. Isothermal process I. Q = U (3) 60 m/s2 (4) 80 m/s2
B. Adiabatic process II. Q = 0 18. A lead bullet of unknown mass is fired with a
C. Isochoric process III. U = 0 speed of 240 ms–1 into a tree in which it stops.
Assuming that in this process three-fifth of heat
D. Cyclic proess IV. Q = W produced goes into the bullet and two-fifth into
Choose the correct option regarding above wood. The temperature of the bullet rises by :
columns. (Specific heat of lead = 0.120 J/g°C)
(1) (A-III,IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III,IV) (1) 96 °C (2) 144000 °C
(2) (A-II,IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III,IV) (3) 144 °C (4) 9.6 °C
(3) (A-I,III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III,IV) 19. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
(4) (A-III,IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-I,II) diameter d and number density n can be
expressed as ;
14. Two bodies of mass 2 kg and 1 kg have position
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 1 1
vecto rs 2i 3 jk an d i 3 j k , (1) (2)
2 2 2 2 2
2n d 2n  d
respectively. The center of mass of this system
has a position vector :
1 1
(3) (4)
^ ^ ^ 2nd 2nd2
^ ^ ^ 6 i  4 j  3k
(1) 2 i  j  3 k (2)
3 20. The quantity PV/kT represents : (k = Boltzmann
constant)
^ ^ ^ (1) number of moles of the gas
5 i  9 j  3k ^ ^ ^
(3) (4) i  j  k (2) number of molecules in the gas
3
(3) mass of the gas
15. A tank filled with water has a hole at a certain
height from its bottom. The volume of water (4) kinetic energy of the gas

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21. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal 7
gas is as shown in figure. Density of the gas at index   . Find the focal length of the system.
5
point A is 0. Density at B will be :
(1) –180 cm (2) –160 cm
P (3) –240 cm (4) + 48 cm
6P0 B
26. If the angle of prism is 40° and the angle of
P0 min imum deviati on i s 30°, the angle of
A
refraction will be :
T (1) 20° (2) 15° (3) 45° (4) 60°
T0 3T 0
27. A astronomical telescope has objective and
eyepiece of focal lengths 80 cm and 6 cm
9 12
(1) 20 (2) 0 (3) 30 (4) 0 respectively. To view an object 400 cm away from
2 5 the objective, the lenses must be separated by a
22. Three moles of an i deal mon atomic g as distance :
undergoes a transition from A to B along a path (1) 76 cm (2) 106 cm (3) 92 cm (4) 82 cm
AB as shown in the figure. The change in
28. In Young’s double slit experiment intensity at a
internal energy of the gas during the transition
is : 3
point is   of the maximum intensity. Angular
4
10 A position of this point is :

1  2  1   
P(in kPa) 4 B (1) sin   (2) sin  
 3  4

2 3 1  3  1   
V(in m3) (3) sin   (4) sin  
 8   6d 
(1) –36 kJ (2) –12 kJ (3) 36 kJ (4) 12 kJ 29. What will be the angular width of central maxima
23. In a steady state, the temperature at the end in single slit diffraction when light of wavelength
A and B of 30 cm long rod AB are 150°C and 0°C 4000Å is u sed and sli t wi dth is
respectively, the temperature of a point 18cm 2 × 10–5 cm ?
from A is:

(1) 60 °C (2) 90 °C
(3) 70 °C (4) 65 °C (1) 8rad. (2) rad. (3) 4 rad. (4) 2 rad.
4
f
24. A thin rod of length is placed along the 30. Two plates are at potentials –20V and +40V. If
4 the separation between the plates be 4cm. The
principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length,
f such that its one end at 2f and other end at electric field between them is :
distance less than 2f. Calculate magnification. (1) 1500 V/m (2) 500 V/m
(3) 750 V/m (4) 250 V/m
31. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacity C. The
f/4 separation between the plates is tripled and a
C A dielectric medium is introduced between the
P 8
A F plates. If the capacity now becomes C , the
2f 3
dielectric constant of the medium is :
9 9
(1) (2) (3) 4 (4) 8
4 8
8 5 9 4 32. Eight cells, each of emf E and internal resistance
(1)  (2)  (3) (4)  r, are connected in series across an external
3 2 4 3
resistance R. By mistake, one of the cells is
25. Two plano-concave lenses of glass of refractive connected in reverse. Then, the current in the
index 1.5 have radii of curvature of 40 and 60 external circuit is :
cm. They are placed in contact with curved
surfaces towards each other and the space 7E 7E 6E 6E
between them is filled with a liquid of refractive (1) R  8r (2) R  7r (3) R  8r (4) R  6r

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33. Statement I : KE is conserved at every instant
of elastic collision. Photoelectric current
Statement II : No deformation of matter occurs
in elastic collision. b
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. c a
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Retarding potential Anode potential
incorrect.
(1) Curves b and c represent incident radiations
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
of same frequency having same intensity.
correct.
(2) Curves b and c represent incident radiations
34. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a
of differen t freqeu ncie s an d di fferent
voltmeter then we must connect with the
intensities.
ammeter a :
(1) Low resistance in series (3) Curves a and b represent incident radiations
of differen t freque ncie s an d di fferent
(2) High resistance in series intensities.
(3) High resistance in parallel (4) Curves a an d b represae nt i ncident
(4) Low resistance in parallel radiations of same frequency but of different
35. The magnetic force on a charged particle moving intensities.
in the field does not work, because : 39. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
(1) the magnetic force is parallel to magnetic having spherical end of radius of curvature
field 40 cm. The image would be formed at :
(2) the magnetic force is parallel to velocity of
the particle O Air Glass µ = 1.5
(3) kinetic energy of the charged particle does 20 cm 40 cm
not change
(1) 40 cm left (2) 120 cm left
(4) the charge of the particle remains same
(3) 24 cm right (4) 72 cm right
40. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident on
PHYSICS surface of a block of glass at Brewster’s angle. In
that case, which one of the following statements
SECTION-B
is true ?
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(1) reflected light is partially polarized with
36. A coil having 600 turns of square shape each of intensity less than I0/2
side 20 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field
(2) reflected light is completely polarized with
which is increasing at 0.5 Ts–1. The induced emf
intensity less than I0/2
is :
(3) transmitted light is partially polarized with
(1) 12 V (2) 6 V
intensity I0/2
(3) 8 V (4) 16 V
(4) transmitted light is completely polarized with
37. In non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature intensity less than I0/2
of the circuit for frequencies lower than the
resonant frequency ? 41. A fish looking up through the water sees the
outside world contained in a circular horizon. If
(1) Inductive 4
(2) Resistive the refractive index of water is and the fish
3
(3) Capacitive is 12 7 cm below the surface, the radius of this
(4) None of these circle in cm is :
38. The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus (1) 18 cm (2) 24 7 cm
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the (3) 27 7 cm (4) 36 cm
following is a correct statement ?
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42. If two waves represented by y1 = 6 sin t and 50. A block of mass m is at rest on an inclined plane
which is making angle with the horizontal. The
 
y 2  8 sin  t   interfere at a point, the coefficient of friction between the block and plane
 3 is µ. Then frictional force acting between the
amplitude of resulting wave will be about : surface is : (< tan–1 (µ))
(1) 14 unit (2) 13 unit (3) 12 unit (4) 10 unit
43. A double slit experiment is performed with light m
of wavelength 400 nm. A thin film of thickness
3 µm and refractive index 1.8 is introduced in
the path of the lower beam. The location of the
central maximum will : 
(1) shift downward by six fringes. (1) µ (mg sin – mg cos )
(2) shift upward by six fringes. (2) µmg cos 
(3) shift downward by three fringes. (3) mg sin + µmg cos 
(4) shift upward by three fringes. (4) mg sin 
44. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the
bullet is given by F = 500 – 4 × 10 4t where, F is
in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet CHEMISTRY
becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel.
What is the impulse imparted to the bullet ? SECTION-A
(All questions are compulsory)
25 25 25 25
(1) N-s (2) N-s (3) N-s (4) N-s 51. The elemen t Z = 120 have not yet been
4 8 16 2
discovered in which group would you place this
45. Body A of mass 6m moving with speed u collides element in periodic table ?
with another body B of mass 4m at rest. The (1) Group 12 (2) Group 18
collision is head on and elastic in nature. After
the collision the fraction of energy lost by the (3) Group 2 (4) Group 16
colliding body A is : 52. Assertion (A) : Electronic geometry of ClF3 is
trigonal bipyramidal.
19 11 1 24
(1) (2) (3) (4) Reason (R) : It’s T-shape is due to presence of
25 25 25 25 two lone pairs.
46. A wheel of moment of inertia about its centre of (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
mass 8kg-m 2 is spinning with an angular explanation of A
velocity of 40 rad/s. If the wheel is brought to
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
rest by a breaking torque in 5 second, then value
explanation of A
of the torque is :
(3) A is true but R is false
(1) 64 N-m (2) 32 N-m
(4) A is false but R is true
(3) 56 N-m (4) 28 N-m
53. Match the column :
47. The breaking force for a wire of diameter d of a
material is F. The breaking force for a wire of
the same material of radius 4d is : Column - I Column - II
(1) 32 F (2) 16 F (3) 64 F (4) 8 F Enthalpy of
(i) NaCl(s)  Na  (aq)  Cl – (aq) (p)
48. Which of the following options are incorrect for atomisation
SHM ? (ii) NaCl(s)  Na  (g)  Cl – (g) (q) sol H0
(1) Phase difference between a and v is /2. Enthalpy of
(iii) Na(s)  Na(g) (r)
formation
(2) Phase difference between v and x is /2 in
1
SHM. (iv) H2 (g)  O2 (g)  H2O( ) (s) Lattice enthalpy
2
(3) Phase difference between a and x in SHM is 0.
(4) None of these (1) (i)-q; (ii)-r; (iii)-p, (iv)-s
49. Escape velocity of a 15 kg body on a planet is (2) (i)-q; (ii)-s; (iii)-r, (iv)-p
4 m/s. Potential energy of body at the planet is:
(3) (i)-r; (ii)-s; (iii)-p, (iv)-q
(1) –240 J (2) –120 J (3) –480 J (4) –60 J
(4) (i)-q; (ii)-s; (iii)-p, (iv)-r
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54. In carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.15 (3) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iv), s-(iii)
g of an organic compound give 0.12g of AgBr. Find (4) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(i), s-(iv)
out the percentage of bromine in the compound
60. White fumes appear around the bottle of
(1) 17.02 % (2) 28.06 % anhydrous aluminium chloride. This is due to :
(3) 34.04% (4) 22.72 % (1) anhydrous AlCl3 is an ionic compound
55. Which of the following is correct order of - bond (2) anhydrous AlCl3 is white volatile fumes
strength?
(3) anhydrous AlCl3 form Al2O3 in presence of
(A) 2s – 2s (B) 2s – 2p air
(C) 2p – 2p (D) 3s – 3s (4) anhydrous AlCl3 undergoes partial hydrolysis
(1) A > B > C > D (2) C > B > A > D producing HCl gas
(3) D > A > B > C (4) C > A > B > D O OH(Y)
56. How many among the following are correctly
HO SO3 H
matched : 61. (X) (W)
NH3
+
(Z)
Aqueous solution
pH The order of acidic strength of marked-H
at 25C
–8 X, Y, Z, W is :
(i) 10 M HCl 8
–2 (1) W > Z > Y > X (2) W > X > Y > Z
(ii) 10 M NaOH 12
(3) W > X > Z > Y (4) X > W > Z > Y
(iii) 10 –2 M CH3COOH 2
62. The probability of finding out an electron at point
(iv) Pure water 7
within an atom is proportional to the
(1) Square of the orbital wave function i.e. 2
(1) Only i
(2) Orbital wave function i.e. 
(2) ii and iv

(3) i and iii (3) Hamiltonian operator i.e., H
(4) All are correctly matched (4) Principal quantum number i.e., n
57. At 298 K, H for the reaction 63. The set of quantum numbers for the outermost
C2H4O(g) CH4 (g)  CO(g) is –16 kJ electron of copper in its ground state is :
(1) 4, 1, 1, +1/2 (2) 3, 2, 2, +1/2
The molar heat capacity at constant pressure of
C2H4O, CH4 and CO are 50, 36 and 30 J/mol/K (3) 4, 0, 0, +1/2 (4) 4, 2, 2, +1/2
respectively. The temperature at which H will 1 Br /hv
 2 alc KOH,   Hexanedial
(A) 2
be zero, is 64.
 3 O3 , Zn/H2 O
(1) 1298 K (2) 298°C (3) 128°C (4) 27°C
the substrate (A) is 
58. The IUPAC o fficial name of an e leme nt
“Rontg eniu m” h ence correct stateme nt (1) cyclohexanol
regarding this element is : (2) cyclohexene
(1) It is a inner transition element (3) cyclohexane
(2) It belongs to 8th period in periodic table (4) 1, 3-dibromo cyclohexane
(3) It is a transition element 65. Which of the following halides doesnot hydrolyse
at room temperature?
(4) It is a non transition element
(1) PbCl4 (2) CCl4 (3) SiCl4 (4) SnCl4
59. Match the column :
66. Select incorrect statement.
Column - B
Column - A (1) Only three quantum numbers n, l and m are
(Oxidation No.)
needed to define an orbital.
p NH3 (i) 1
(2) Four quantum numbers are needed for
q O2F2 (ii) 3
complete description of an electron.
r CH3 COOH (iii) 1
(3) Two quantum numbers n and l are needed to
s BaO2 (iv) 3
identify subshell and shape of orbital.
(1) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(iv) (4) Splitting of spectrum lines in presence of
(2) p-(ii), q-(iii), r-(iv), s-(i) electric field is known as Zeeman effect.
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67. Given reaction between 2 gases represented by
A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g). (2) H3 C — CH CH = CH – CH3



A 2 (g)  B2 (g)  2AB(g) OH
Br
At equilibrium, the concentration of A2 = 3.0 ×
10–3 M, of B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M, of AB = 2.8 × 10–3 M. (3) H3 CO CH — CH — CH3
If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at
527°C, then the value of Kp will be Br
(1) 2.0 (2) 1.9
(4) H3 CO CH — CH2 CH3
(3) 0.62 (4) 4.5
68. Match the column - I with column - II Br
73. Arrange the following species in increasing ionic
Column - I Column - II
radii.
(A) ICl (i) T-shape
(B) ICl3 (ii) Square pyramidal N3  , O2 , F  , Na  , Mg 2 , Al3 

(C) ClF5 (iii) Pentagonal bipyramidal (1) N3  F   O2  Na   Mg 2  Al3

(D) IF7 (iv) Linear (2) Al3   Na   Mg 2  N3  O2  F Θ
(1) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
(3) Al3   Mg 2  Na   F Θ  O2  N3 
(2) (A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iv)
(4) N3   O2  F Θ  Al 3  Mg 2  Na 
(3) (A) (iv), (B) (i), (C) (ii), (D) (iii)
74. The wave length of -line (2nd spectral line) of
(4) (A) (i), (B) (iii), (C) (iv), (D) (ii) lymen series in H-atom is :
69. A 16 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect 8R 9 3R 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the 9 8R 4 3R
container is now decreased by moving the
75. The value of H for the reaction
movable pistion fitted in the container. The
maximum volume of the container, when 

X 2 (g)  4Y2 (g)  2XY4 (g) less than zero.
pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will
be : Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at
(1) high temperature and high pressure

(Given that : SrCO 3  SrO(s) + CO 2(g),
(2) low pressure and low temperature
Kp = 1.6 atm)
(3) high temperature and low pressure
(1) 2 litre (2) 5 litre (3) 10 litre (4) 4 litre
(4) high pressure and low temperature
70. Group-13 element react with O2 to form E2O3
type oxides. Which of the following is most basic 76. The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form
oxide [where E = element] molecular orbitals takes place only when the
combining atomic orbitals :
(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3
(1) have the minimum overlap
(3) Tl2O3 (4) Ga2O3
(2) have the different energy
71. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are
respectively, 1.1 × 10–12, 1.8 × 10–10, 5.0 × 10– (3) have the different symmetry about the
13, 8.3 × 10–17. Which one of the following salts molecular axis
will precipitate first if AgNO3 solution is added (4) have the same symmetry abo ut the
to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, molecular axis
NaBr, NaI and Na2CrO4 ?
77. The maximum dipole moment [µ(D)] value is
(1) AgBr (2) Ag2CrO4
(1) H2O (2) H2S (3) CHCl3 (4) HCl
(3) AgI (4) AgCl
78. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of
HBr [OH–] of a 0.1M aqueous solution of 2% ionised
72. H3 CO CH = CH – CH3 P weak acid is [ionic product of water = 1 × 10–14]
(1) 2 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–12M
The product ‘P’ is :
(2) 1 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–11 M
(1) H3 CO CH2CH2CH2 Br (3) 0.02 × 10–3 M and 5 × 10–11 M
(4) 3 × 10–2 M and 4 × 10–13 M
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 OH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
(1) (2)
OH
79. OH

OH
NO2 CN NH2 OMe
(3) (4)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) OH

The stability order of carbanion is :

(1) A > B > C > D > E CHEMISTRY
(2) E > D > B > C > A SECTION-B
(3) C > D > B > A > E
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
(4) A > B > E > D > C
80. The group of molecules having identical shape 86. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K 'p are
is : the equilibrium constants at temperature T1 and
T2, respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction
(1) PCl5, IF5, XeO2F2
is constant in temperature range between T1
(2) BF3, PCl3, XeO3 and T2 (T1> T2), it is readily observed that :
(3) SF4, XeF4, CCl4 (1) Kp > Kp (2) Kp < Kp
(4) ClF3, XeOF2, XeF3 1
81. 1 mole of an ideal gas expands from 5 dm3 to (3) Kp = Kp (4) K p  K
p
25 dm3 isothermally and irreversibly at 27°C.
Find work done in the process [R = 8.3 J/mol/K] 87. The correct order of third ionisation enthalpy
(in KJ mol–1) is
(1) –1.99 kJ (2) +1.99 kJ
(1) B < Tl < Al < In (2) Al < B < Tl < In
(3) –7.46 kJ (4) +7.46 kJ
(3) In < B < Tl < Al (4) In < Al < Tl < B
82. The number of lone pair(s) of electrons on central
atom and shape of ClF3 molecule respectively 88. The incorrect matching pair is :
are
NH2
(1) 0, triangular planar CH3
(2) 1, pyramidal
(3) 2, Bent shape (1) 4–ethyl-2-methyl aniline
(4) 2, T-shape C2H5

(X) O
KMnO4/H
 (2) HO – CH2 – (CH2)3 – CH2 – C – CH3
83. Alkene CH3—COOH + CH3—C—CH3 O

The alkene (X) is : 7–hydroxyheptan–2-one
CH3 H
(1) CH3—CH== C—CH3 (2) CH3—CH2 —CH== C (3) O2N 
CH3 O O
CH3
(3) CH3 —CH==CH—CH3 (4) CH3—C== C—CH3 4–methyl–6–nitro–5–oxo–3–enal
CH 3CH3 CH3
84. The number of mole of ferrous oxalate that can C== O
be oxidised completely by 1.5 mole of potassium CH3
dichromate in acidic medium : (4) H C 
3
COOH
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 3 2, 5–dimethyl–6–oxo–hept–3–enoic acid

89. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl
H2O/H
85.
Alc. KOH
Heat A B are 784 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1, respectively.
Major The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is :
Br
the product (B) is (1) –780 kJ mol–1 (2) 780 kJ mol–1
(3) –784 kJ mol–1 (4) 784 kJ mol–1
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90. Which element has least melting point is : (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(1) C (2) Ge 99. The correct order of increasing ionic character
(3) Sn (4) Pb is :
91. Enthalpy of C2H4 + H2  C2H6 is negative. If (1) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
enthalpy of formation of C2H4 and C2H6 are x (2) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
and y respectively. Then which relation is (3) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
correct ?
(4) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2
(1) x > y (2) x < y
100. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing alke nes exhi bit
(3) x = y (4) x  y geometrical isomerism ?
92. The total number of monobromo derivatives (1) Propene (2) 2-Methylpropene
formed by the alkanes of molecular formula
C5H12 is [excluding stereoisomers] (3) 2-Methyl-2-butene (4) 1-Phenylpropene

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 7

93. 4NO2(g) + O2(g) N2O5(g), fH = –111 kJ. BOTANY
If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in the SECTION-A
above reaction, the rH value will be (given, H
of sublimation for N2O5 is 54 kJ mol–1) (All questions are compulsory)
(1) –165 kJ (2) +54 kJ 101. Which of the following is not correct with respect
to species ?
(3) +219 kJ (4) –219 kJ
(1) A grou p of individual organisms with
94. The number of molecule(s) from the following
fundamental similarities.
having square planar structure
(2) Human beings belong to the species sapiens.
[Ni(CN)4]2–, BrF5, SF6, [CO(NH3)6]3+, [CrF6]3–,
[PtCl4]2– (3) Panthera has many specific epithet as tigris,
leo and pardus.
(1) 2 (2) 4
(4) Two different species breed together to
(3) 3 (4) 1
produce fertilie offsprings.
95. Find the ratio of wavelength of alpha particle to
102. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose
proton (/p). If both are accelerated by same
the correct option :
voltage.
Column-I Column-II
(1) 1 : 2 2 (2) 2 2 :1
(a) Polyandrous (i) Free central placentation
(3) 1: 8 (4) (1) & (3) both (b) Polyadelphous (ii) Stamen united in more
96. Which one of the following does not have sp2 than two bundles
hybridized carbon ? (c) Primrose (iii) Stamens are free
(1) Acetone (2) Acetamide (d) Mustard (iv) Parietal placentation
(3) Acetonitrile (4) Acetic acid A B C D
97. The maximum work done in expanding 16 g (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume of 5 dm3 (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
isothermally until the volume become 25 dm3
is : (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) –2.01 × 103 J (2) –2.81 × 103 J (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) 2.01 × 10–3 J (4) +2.01 × 10–6 J 103. Statement-I : Some parenchymatous cells store
the substance like resin and latex.
98. Assertion (A) : Boiling point of alkane increases
with increase in molecular weight. Statement-II : Sclereids have obliterated lumen
and they are found only in the soft part of the
Reason (R) : Van der Waal’s forces increases with plant.
increase in molecular weight.
(1) Only Statement I is incorrect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). (2) Only Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct explanation of (A). incorrect.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) Both Statement I and II are correct.
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104. RQ value is more than one for 111. Isobilateral leaves
(1) carbohydrate (2) protein (1) lack spongy mesophyll
(3) organic acid (4) tripalmitin (2) have more stomata on upper epidermis.
105. ‘Taxon’ means : (3) are found in dicot plants.
(1) Specially the rank kingdom (4) different size of vascular bundles present.
(2) Taxonomy 112. Elongated stem is present in (i) and it is a
(3) Any rank in a taxonomical hierarchy modified (ii). Select the correct option for (i) and
(4) Identification (ii) respectively

106. Cotyledons are not (1) Euphorbia and photosynthetic stem

(1) modified roots (2) Opuntia leaf

(2) embryonic leaves (3) Eichhornia and sub-aerial stem
(3) often fleshy and full of reserve food materials (4) More the one option
(4) pre sent in gymn ospe rmic as well as 113. Gymnosperms have not
angiospermic seed (1) tap root system.
107. Coralloid roots have a symbiotic association with (2) rhizoids.
(1) photosynthetic brown algae (3) branched and unbranced stem.
(2) fungus (4) seed does not enclosed within the fruit.
(3) photosynthetic green algae 114. Select the incorrect statement.
(4) nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(1) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant.
108. Select the correct statement.
(2) Bladderwort and venus fly trap are example
(1) Viroids have double stranded RNA of insectivorous plants.
(2) RNA of viroids have high molecular weight (3) The mode of nutrition in fungi is holozoic.
than viruses.
(4) Plantae include s algae , bryophyte s,
(3) Mumps and herpes are viral diseases. pteriodophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) Virus are inert inside their specific host cell. 115. How many among the following flowers, show
109. Mark th e incorrect term with respect to actinomorphic symmetry ?
basidiomycetes.
Cassia,Chilli, Wheat, Groundnut, Sugarcane,
(1) Mycelium is branched and septate
Tobacco,Brinjal,Sweet Pea,Datura.
(2) Asexual spores are generally not found
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Kary ogamy and mei osis place in the
basidium reproducing four basidiospores. (3) Six (4) Three
(4) The basidiospores are endogenously produced 116. Match the following Column-I with Column-II and
on the basidium. choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(A) Kreb’s cycle (i) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(B) EMP pathway (ii) ATP synthase
110.
(C) Link reaction (iii) Citrate synthase
(D) Oxidative (iv) Hexokinase
Mark the correct statements with respect to phosphorylation
given figure.
A B C D
(1) Few of them are freshwater organism.
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) They have two equal flegella.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) Saprophytic protists.
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) Have a protein rich layer called pellicle which
make body flexible. (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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117. Match following and select the correct answer substrate for aerobic respiration
Column-I Column-II (1) 36 ATP (2) 38 ATP
(A) Liverworts (i) Gametophyte do not (3) 32 ATP (4) 40 ATP
have an independent 123. What is NADPH : ATP ratio required in the
free living existence. reg eneration phase o f calvin cy cle fo r 3
(B) Pteridophyte (ii) Biflagellate zoospores molecules of CO2 fixed ?
that are pear shaped. (1) 0 : 3 (2) 4 : 0 (3) 6 : 6 (4) 3 : 3
(C) Dictyota (iii) Dorsiventral thallus 124. Consider the following characteristic features
(D) Ginkgo (i v) I s li mited and (a) Fruit is siliqua.
restricted to narrow
geographical regions. (b) Racemose in florescence is present.

A B C D (c) Parietal placentation is present.

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (d) Both sepals and petal & are four in number
and they are free.
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Choose the family to which the plant having such
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) features belongs :
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (1) Poaceae (2) Malvaceae
118. In flowering plant, pericycle. The correct ones (3) Cruciferae (4) Compositae
are
125. The cells of the endodermis are rich is starch
(a) is made up of thin walled sclerenchymatous grains is
cell only.
(1) Dicotyledonous root
(b) waxy material suberin is deposited in pericycle.
(2) Monoctoyledonous root
(c) gives rise to part of vascular cambium in
monocot roots. (3) monocotyledonous stem
(d) Is present in monocot stems. (4) Dicotyledonous stem
(1) only b (2) a and b 126. The layer of the cell envelope that determined
the shape of the cell and provides a strong
(3) a, c and d (4) None of these
structure support to prevent the bacterium from
119. Statement-I : Chlorophyll-a is considered to be bursting or collapsing is :
primary photosynthetic pigment associated with
(1) cell membrane (2) cell wall
photosynthesis.
Statemen t-II : Action spectrum of (3) glycocalyx (4) cytoskeleton
photosynthesis corresponds to the absorption 127. Which of the following is not a function of
spectrum of chlorophyll-a. cytoskeleton in a cell ?
(1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (1) Cell motility
true. (2) Support of the organelle
(2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (3) Maintainance of cell shape and structure
false.
(4) Osmoregulation & excretion
(3) Only Statement (I) is true
128. Mark the mismatch pair :
(4) Only Staement (II) is true
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
120. Which type of vacuoles provide buoyancy to
bacteria ? (2) Steller’s sea cow – Russia
(1) Contractile vacuole (3) Thylacine – Austraila
(2) Gas vacuoles (4) Quagga – America
(3) Food vacuoles 129. How many substrats level phosphorylation
reaction will occur during Kreb’s cycle for 3
(4) Sap vacuole
glucose molecules ?
121. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis-II
products if meiocyte contains 60 pg DNA in (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
Anaphase-I ? 130. In plant, light saturation is seen at _______ of
(1) 30 pg (2) 15 pg (3) 90 pg (4) 120 pg the total sunlight available to the plant.
122. The maximum number of ATP produced, if 2 mole Select the correct options to fill in the blank
of dihydroxy acetone phosphate is used of the (1) 25% (2) 15% (3) 2% (4) 10%
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131. Protein perform many phosiological functions. A B C D
For example, some function as enzymes one of (1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
the following represents an additional function
that some protein discharge. (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) Pigment conferring colour to skin (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) Antibiotic (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) Hormones
(4) Both (1) and (2) BOTANY
132. Select the mismatch pair : SECTION-B
(1) Funicle – Region where body of ovule fuses
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
with Hilum.
136. Which of the following plant has a superior
(2) Plumule – Stem tip.
ovary ?
(3) Epicotyl – portion above the cotyledon (1) Gauva, Rose (2) China rose, Mustard
(4) Cotlyedon – Leaf of Embryo. (3) Plum, Peach (4) Cucumber, Rose
133. In Z-scheme of photophosphorylation, which of 137. Which of the following statement are true ?
the following is the source of electrons, that are (1) Robert Brown discovered dead cell.
used to replace the electron lost from the
reaction centre of ps-II ? (2) Matthius Schleiden a British zoologist.
(3) Theodore schwan a German botanist.
(1) PS-I (2) O2
(4) Antan von Leeuwenhoek 1st saw & described
(3) water (4) ubiquinone live cell.
134. Gymnosperms are adapted to tolerate extreme 138. Which of the following term with respect to
environmental condition because of : gymnosperm (pinus) ?
(1) Sunken stomata (1) The stem are unbranched
(2) Thick cuticle on leaf surface (2) The male and female strobili may be born on
(3) Large surface are of leaves the same tree
(4) More than one option (3) Root have fungal association in the form of
mycorhhiza
135. Match the Column-I with Column-II with respect
(4) More than one option
to placentation.
139. Which of the following statements are correct
Column-I Column-II for meiosis ?
(i) Meiosis has a double divison. It gives rise to
four cells.
(a) (i) Primrose, Dianthus (ii) The cell undergoing meiosis may be haploid
(or) diploid.
(iii) Pairing of homologous chromosome takes
place during zygotene of prophase-I.
(iv)Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
material between two homologous
(b) (ii) Marigold, Sunflower chromosome.
(1) only (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) All of these
140. Which of the following algae form massive plant
bodies ?
(c) (iii) Tomata, Datura (1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Kelps
141. How many redox-equivalent are removed from
two molecule of PGAL during the following
reaction ?
3-phosphoglyceraldehyde  1,
(d) (iv) Mustard argemone 3-biphosphoglycerate
(1) Two (2) four (3) six (4) three
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142. Assertion (A) : Tonoplast facilitates the transport (2) 2968 and 322
of a number of ions and other materials against (3) 2968 and 231
the concentration graident in the vacuole.
(4) 232 and 2968
Reason (R) : Co nce ntratio n o f io ns is
significantly higher in the vacuole than in the 147. Match the columns
cytoplasm. Column-I Column-II
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct (A) Opetator (i) Code for enzyme protein
explanation of (A).
(B) Promotor site (ii) Release factor
(2) Both (A) and (R) is are true but (R) is not correct
(C) Structure gene (iii) Bind site for repressor
explanation of (A).
or molecule
(3) (A) is true but reason is false.
(D) Termination (iv) Binding site for RNA
(4) (A) is false but reason is true.
polymerase
143. Read the following statements :
A B C D
(a) Tendrils can be the modification of stem (or)
leaf and they are spirally coiled sensitive (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
structure. (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) The axillary bud of the plant like citrus grow (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
and form spirally coiled structure.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Underground stem in grasses and strawberry
148. Select the incorrect match pair :
spread to new niches.
(1) X-ray diffraction data — Marsal Nirenberg
(d) Th e Rh izome is thi ck, pro strate and
branched. (2) Nuclein — Friedrich Meischer
(e) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing (3) Copolymer – Hargovind Khorana
roots that help to get oxygen for respiration. (4) Double Helix structure DNA — Watson and
Choose the correct answer from the option Crick
give below : 149. In india having more than 50,000 genetically
(1) a, c, d and e (2) c and d only different strains of rice, and 1000 varieties of
mango shows :
(3) b, c, d and e (4) All of these
(1) Community diversity
(i)
144. The female sex-organ in bryophytes are (2) Species diversity
shaped and is called (ii) . Identify (i) and (ii) (3) Genetic diversity
respectively : (4) Ecological diversity
(1) Pear; Antheridium 150. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
(2) Flask; Antheridium developed by
(3) Flask; Archegonium (1) Griffith (2) H.G. Khorana
(4) Flask; Megasporangium (3) Alec Jeffreys (4) Matthius Schleiden
145. Rudolf Virchow is associated with which of the
following discoveries ?
ZOOLOGY
(1) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
(2) Cell wall is present only in plant cells
SECTION-A
(3) Cell has thin layer surrounding it which is (All questions are compulsory)
reffered to as plasma membrane. 151. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to
(4) Bodies of plant and animal are composed of the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to :
cell and their products. (1) O2 and hydrogen ions
146. As per the finding of HGP, how many genes are (2) HCO3– and H+
present in chromosome Y and chromosome 1
(3) CO2 and hydrogen ions
respectively ?
(1) 231 and 2968 (4) H2CO3 and HCO3–

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152. Match List I with List II (2) connective tissue with collagen fibres
List I List II (3) columnar epithelium
(A) Sea horse (i) Poikilotherms (4) both (1) and (2)
(B) Turtle (ii) Viviparous 158. Every 1000 ml of blood found in the pulmonary
vein can deliver around how many mL of oxygen
(C) Ostrich (iii) Streamlined body
to the tissue under normal physiological
(D) Blue whale (iv)Homoiothermous conditions?
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) 40 mL (2) 4 mL
given below : (3) 50 mL (4) 5 mL
(1) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i) 159. How many of the following are cellular aggregate
(2) (A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (iv), (D) (i) around nerve endings in Rana tigrina ?
(3) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
Sensory papillae, Nasal epithelium, eyes,
(4) (A) (iii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (ii)
Internal ears, Taste buds
153. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Sternum is a flat bone on the (1) 5 (2) 3
dorsal midline of thorax. (3) 2 (4) 4
Statement II : The skull region articulates 160. Cortical nephrons differ from Juxtamedullary
with the superior region of the nephrons :
vertebral column with the help
(1) in absence of vasa recta
of one occipital condyles.
(2) in presence of glomerulus
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : (3) in presence of Henle’s loop
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) in presence of peritubular capillaries
incorrect. 161. Which of the following mouth parts of cockroach
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is are unpaired?
incorrect. (A) Labium
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(B) Hypopharynx
correct.
(C) Labrum
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. (D) Mandible
154. Select the mismatched pair : (E) Maxilla
(1) Vital capacity – ERV + TV + IRV (1) (D) and (E) (2) (A), (B) and (C)
(2) Total lung capacity – RV + ERV + TV + IRV (3) (B) only (4) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(3) Expiratory capacity – TV + ERV 162. The body is supported by a skeleton made up of
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume – spicules in :
1000 mL to 1100 mL (1) Salpa (2) Squid
155. In hemodialysis, dialysing fluid contains all the (3) Scypha (4) Chiton
consitituents as in plasma, except : 163. In a standard Electrocardiogram, the P-wave
(1) NaCl (2) K+ represents the :
(3) H2O (4) Urea (1) beginning of the diastole
156. The active ATPase enzyme and binding sites for (2) repolarisation of the atria
ATP are present on :
(3) electrical excitation of the atria
(1) ‘F’ actins
(4) both (2) and (3)
(2) LMM
164. In counter current mechanism the osmolarity
(3) Globular head of meromyosin gradient of medullary interstitium is mainly
(4) Cross arm of light meromyosin maintained by :
157. Tunica media of blood vessels is made up of : (1) NH3, H2O (2) NaCl, Urea
(1) smooth muscle and elastic fibres
(3) HCO3 , NaCl (4) K+, H+

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165. The type of joint that does not allow any 170. In a sarcomere, I band has -
movement is present between : (1) only actin filaments
(1) Carpal and metacarpal (2) only myosin filaments
(2) Humerus and pectoral (3) both actin and myosin filaments
(3) Temporal and occipital (4) neither myosin nor actin filaments
(4) Tarsals and Metatarsals 171. Acromion process articulates with the -
166. Rh incompatibility can be observed in between (1) Collar bone (2) Head of the humerus
the - (3) Radius and ulna (4) Sternum
(1) Rh + ve pregnant mother with Rh +ve foetus 172. Select the mismatched pair -
(2) Rh – ve pregnant mother with Rh –ve foetus (1) Nereis – Parapodia
(3) Rh + ve pregnant mother with Rh –ve foetus (2) Sea cucumber – Water vascular system
(4) Rh –ve pregnant mother with Rh +ve foetus (3) Limulus – Malpighian tubules
167. Fertilisation is external and development is (4) Sea Lily – File like rasping organ
indirect in - 173. In the diagrammatic representation of formed
elements in blood given below and choose the
correct option.

(1) (2)

(A)
(B) (C) (D)

(3) (4)

(E) (F) (G) (H)

168. Given below are two statements one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R)
(1) (G) and (H) are responsible for immune
Assertion : A person with blood group ‘O’ is
response of the body
called universal donor.
(2) (D) and (E) are phagocytic cells
Reason : RBCs of ‘O’ blood group have both
‘A’ and ‘B’ surface antigens. (3) (B) and (C) are devoid of nucleus in most of
the mammals
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : (4) (A), (B) and (F) are granulocytes
(1) Both A and R are false 174. Platypus is different from other mammals
because it -
(2) A is true but R is false
(1) doesn’t have mammary glands
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A (2) have three chambered heart
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) lays eggs
explanation of A (4) undergoes indirect development
169. The partial pressure of oxygen and carbondioxide 175. Select the incorrect match with respect to
respectively at tissue are : respiratory structures of different organisms -
(1) 45 mm Hg and 95 mm Hg (1) Aquatic arthropods – Gills
(2) 45 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (2) Amphibians – Lungs
(3) 40 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg (3) Reptiles – Tracheal tubes
(4) 95 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (4) Birds – Lungs

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176. Given below are two statements - (3) (A) (ii), (B) (i), (C) (iv), (D) (iii)
Statement I : The intracellular material of (4) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (ii), (D) (i)
cartilage is solid and non- 180. 4 and 2 chambered heart are respectively found
pl iabl e an d resists in -
compression.
(1) Mammals and Reptiles
Statement II : Neuroglia make up more than
(2) Reptiles and Birds
one-third the volume of neural
tissue in our body (3) Crocodiles and Fishes
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Amphibians and Fishes
correct answer from the options given below - 181. Which segment of nephron is involved in
(1) Only Statement II is correct reabsorption of HCO3 and secretion of K+, H+ and
(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect NH3 into nephric filtrate ?
(3) Only Statement I is incorrect (1) Collecting duct
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct (2) PCT

177. Which of the following statement is incorrect (3) Henle’s loop

regarding regulation of respiration in humans? (4) DCT
(1) The role of O2 in the regulation of respiratory 182. Which structure marked in given below figure
rhythm is quite insignificant. represents notochord ?
(2) Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre A B

(3) A specialised centre present in the pons

region of the brain called respiratory rhythm
centre
(4) Receptors associated with aortic arch and D
corotid artery can recognise changes in CO2 C
and H+ concentration
178. The midbrain of Rana tigrina is characterised by- (1) B (2) A
(1) olfactory lobes and unpaired diencephalon (3) C (4) D
(2) paired cerebral hemispheres 183. The correct pathway for the passage of sperms
in male frogs is -
(3) a pair of optic lobes
(1) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Urinogenital
(4) cerebellum and medulla oblongata
tract  Kidney  Cloaca
179. Match List I with List II
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney 
List I List II Bidder’s canal  Urinogential duct  Cloaca
(A) Myosin (i) Protein of thick (3) Testes  Kidney  Vasa efferentia 
filament Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(B) Sarcomere (ii) Functional unit of a (4) Testes  Vasa efferential  Bidder’s canal
myofibril  Kidney  Cloaca
(C) Actin (iii) Protein of thin 184. In Cockroach, the number of ganglia present in
filament the thorax and the abdomen respectively are -
(D) H-zone (iv)The central part of (1) 3 and 6 (2) 4 and 2
thick filament not (3) 4 and 6 (4) 2 and 4
overlapped by thin 185. What is common among Limulus, Apis and
filament Laccifer ?
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Parapodia
given below -
(2) Nephridia
(1) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv)
(3) Radula
(2) (A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
(4) Jointed appendages
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 correct effect of ADH on the given factors ?
ZOOLOGY
Blood vessels GFR
SECTION-B
(1) Vasodilation 
(Candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions only)
186. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not (2) Vasoconstriction 
incorrect ? (3) Vasodilation 
(A) The solubility of O2 is 20 – 25 times higher
than that of CO2. (4) Vasoconstriction 
(B) Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a 192. In which class of phylum chordata, Males Pelvic
maximum of four molecules of O2. fins bear claspers ?
(C) O 2 can bind with haemog lobi n in a (1) Osteichthyes (2) Chondrichthyes
irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) Cyclostomata (4) Aves
(D) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
193. Motor ne uron alo ng with mu scl e fibres
primarily related to partial pressure of CO2.
constitute -
(1) B, C and D (2) C only
(1) Neuromuscular junction
(3) B and D only (4) B only
(2) Motor unit
187. In which condition heart muscles are suddenly
damaged due to the insufficient blood supply ? (3) Motor end plate
(1) Heart failure (2) Angina pectoris (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Heart attack (4) Cardiac arrest 194. Mouth of Myxine and Pristis is respectively -
188. Match List I with List II (1) Ventral and Terminal
List I List II (2) Terminal and Ventral
(A) Cuboidal (i) Cover the dry surface (3) Jawless and Ventral
epithelium of the skin (4) Jawless and Terminal
(B) Squamous (ii) Tall and slendor cells
195. Which of the following statement is incorrect
epitherlium regarding tissue fluid ?
(C) Compound (iii) Flattened cells (1) Lymph is an important carrier for hormones.
epithelium
(2) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the
(D) Columnar (iv)Main function is lacteals present.
epithelium secretion and (3) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing
absorption lymphocytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid and
given below -
drains it back to the major artery.
(1) (A) (iv), (B) (iii), (C) (i), (D) (ii)
196. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
(2) (A) (ii), (B) (iv), (C) (i), (D) (iii) as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R)
(3) (A) (iii), (B) (ii), (C) (i), (D) (iv)
Assertion : A rise in pCO 2 , H + ions and
(4) (A) (i), (B) (ii), (C) (iii), (D) (iv) temperature shifts the HbO 2
189. Which of the following does not occur during dissociation curve to right.
muscle contraction ? Reason : A rise in pCO 2 or fall i n pH
(1) Length of Sarcomere : Decreases decreases oxygen affinity for
(2) Release of Ca2+ : Increases haemoglobin.
(3) Length of I-band : Decreases In the light of above statements, choose the
(4) Length of A-band : Decreases correct answer from the options given below :
190. Glomerulonephritis is (1) Both A and R are false
(1) Kidney failure (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Oxalates formed within the Kidney explanation of A
(3) Inflammation of glomeruli of Kidney (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(4) All of these
(4) A is true but R is false
191. Which of the following option indicates the
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197. The smooth muscle fibres - 199. Read the following statements and state them
(1) do not show striations as true (T) or False (F)
(2) are involuntary A. Earthworm and leeches are monoecious.

(3) taper at both ends B. The adu lt e chin oderms are radially
symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
(4) all of the above symmetrical.
198. Mushroom shaped gland which is characteristic C. Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic.
of male cockroach is present in -
(1) A – (T), B – (T), C – (T)
(1) 7th – 9th abdominal segments
(2) A – (F), B – (F), C – (T)
(2) 4th – 6th abdominal segments
(3) A – (T), B – (F), C – (T)
(3) 2nd – 6th abdominal segments (4) A – (T), B – (T), C – (F)
(4) 6th – 7th abdominal segments 200. Select the option with only cold-blooded animals.
(1) Pteropus, Elephas, Camelus
(2) Pterophyllum, Exocoetus, Ornithorhynchus
(3) Clarias, Bufo, Nephron
(4) Hyla, Salamandra, Ichthyophis

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 ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
for

NEET 2025
Minor Test - 01st
Date : 25.01.2025

PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY

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 SOLUTION AITS (MINOR TEST - 01st, NEET) : 25.01.2025

1800  15
PHYSICS v2  = 5 m/s
5400
SECTION-A
 v2 = 5 m/s
-3
10
01. L.C. = = 10–5 m, 1 1 dv
1
1 
1
100 10. Pt  mv 2  vt 2
  t2  t 2
2 dt
d = MSR + CSR × L.C = 0 + 66 × 10–5
= 0.66 mm = 0.066 cm. 1
 a  acceleration is not unform.
t
V
02. IR = V, R ,
I  ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
2(2 i  3 j  k)  1( i  3 j  k)
14. rcm 
R V I 2 1
 100   100   100
R V I
^ ^ ^
3 i  3 j  3k ^ ^ ^
1.6 0.1   i  jk
  100   100 = 2 + 2 = 4% 3
80 5
03. [a] = [L2], 15. V  av  a 2gh

[a] [L2 ] [L2 ] 4T 1

[b]    16. P   P 
= [M–1 L3 T], R R
[Pt] [ML T T] [ML1T 1 ]
1 2

[ab] = [M–1 L3T × L2] = [M–1 L5 T] P1 R 2 1 R1

 P  R  , R  4 :1
2 1 4 2
^ ^ ^ ^ a
04. ( i  2 j) · (a i  b j)  0 = a + 2b, 2b = –a, b  
2 S1 4R12 R12
   (4)2 = 16 : 1
S2 4R22 R 22
^ a^ ^
ai  jn , a ^i  a ^j |n|
^
2 2
ds
17.  v  4t 3  0 , v = 4 × 23 = 4 × 8 = 32 m/s,
dt
2 a2 5 2
a2 
4
 a  1  a , ,
4 4 5 v2  32  32
ar  = 64 m/s2,
r 16
2 1
a , b
5 5 dv
 a t = 12 t2 = 12 × 22 = 48 m/s2,
dt
dx dv
05.  0  6  2t  v ,  2 graph (2)
dt dt a  a 2r  a 2t  642  482 = 80 m/s2

d( r ) ^ ^ 3
06.   a sin t   i  a cos t   j 1 3
 v 2  s ,
dr 18. mv2  = ms 
2 5 10
^ ^ 
 a( sin t i  cos t j)  v 3 v 2 3  240  240
    = 144 °C
    10 s 10  120
 v · r 0  v  r
PM
21. d
2ux uy 256 RT
07. R  =6m
g 10
P0 M 6P0 M P M
 0  RT ,  2 0 = 20
08. 1800 × 15 = (1800 + 20 × 180)v2 = 5400 v2, 0 R  3T0 RT0

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 d = 100 + 6 = 106 cm.
3R
22. U = nCVT  n   (TB  TA )
2 3   3  
28. I0   I0 cos 2 , cos  ,  ,
4 2 2 2 2 6
3R  PB VB PA VA  3
n   (P P  PA VA )
2  nR nR  2 B B  2  
  ,   , d sin   ,
3  6 6
3 3
 (4  103  3  10  103  2)    8  103
2 2    
sin   ,   sin1  
= –12 × 103 J = –12 kJ. 6d  6d 

KA(150  ) KA(  0) 2  2  4  10
7
23.  
18 12 29. = 4 radians.
d 2  107
 150 × 12 – 12 = 18 , 30 = 150 × 12
dV   40  ( 20)
150  12 30. E
 = 60 °C dx 4  10 2
30
60
f 7 1 1 1 1 4 1  = –1500 V/m
24. u  2f   f ,   ,   4  10 2
4 4 v u f v 7f f
|E| = 1500 V/m
1 4 1 47 3 7f
     , v , 0 A 0 AK 8 8  A
v 7f f 7f 7f 3 31. C ,  C   0
d 3d 3 3 d
7f f
length of image   2f  , K 8
3 3   K=8

3 3
f /3 4
m  7E  E 6E
f /4 3 I 
32. R  8r R  8r
1 1 1  1
25.  (1.5  1)     ,
f1   40  80
PHYSICS
1 7  1 1  2 32 1
   1       , SECTION-B
f2  5   40 60  5 120 60
36. = BAN,
1  1 1 1 d dB
 (1.5  1)     e  AN = 0.5 × 20 × 20 × 10–4 × 600
f3  60   120 dt dt
= 0.5 × 4 × 6 = 12 volt.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
     
F f1 f2 f3 80 60 120  1  1 1.5 1 1.5  1 1
39.   ,    ,
v u R v 20 40 80
3  4  2 1
 
240 240 1.5 1 1 1 4 3
    ,
v 80 20 80 80
 F = –240 cm

A 40 80  1.5
r  –3v = 80 × 1.5, v = –40 cm
26. = 20° 3
2 2
 40 cm to the left.
1 1 1 1 1 1
27.   ,   ,
v 0 u0 f0 v 0 400 80 1 3 3 r
41. sin C   , tanC   ,
 4 7 h
1 1 1 5 1
   , v = 100 cm 3 3
v0 80 400 400 0 r h   12 7 = 36 cm.
7 7
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42. A 2  a12  a 22  2a1a 2 cos  F F2 4F F2
47. 2
 2  d 2  16  d 2 F2 = 64 F
d (4d)
2 2   
 6  8  2  6  8 cos   2
3
= 36 + 64 + 48 = 148, 1 1
49. K.E.   15  42   15  16 = 120 J,
2 2
A  148 = 12.165 12 unit. P.E. = –120 J.

(  1)t 0.8  3  10 6
43. Shifting     6 CHEMISTRY
 0.4  10 6
SECTION-A
 shift downward by six fringes.
51. NCERT Page. No. 84
44. F = 500 – 4 × 104t = 0,
52. NCERT Page. No. 115
500 5
t   102 sec. 54. NCERT Page. No. 367
4  104 4
57. H1 = –16 kJ = –16000 J; H2 = 0
5 C2H4O(g) CH4(g) + CO(g)
 102
J = impulse   4 Fdt Cp = Cp[(CH4(g)] + Cp[(CO(g)] –Cp[C2N4O(g)]
0
= 36 + 30 – 50 = 16 J mol–1 K–1
5
 102 T1 = 298K, T2 = ?
 4 (500  4  10 4 t)dt
0
H2 – H1 = CP (T2 – T1)
5
 102
 0 – (–16000) = 16(T2 – 298)
 t2  4
 500t  4  10 4   6000
2   T2  298   1000
 0 16
 T2 = 1000 + 298 = 1298 K
2
5 5  58. NCERT Page. No. 80
 500   102  2  104    102 
4  4  60. NCERT Page. No. 320
Y
25 25 25 25 50  25 –
 2    O OH
O
4 16 4 8 8
– –
HO S — O H(W)
25 61. (X)
= N-s NH3 O
8 +
(Z)

6m  4m 2 2m u (Ka )H  W > X > Z > Y

45. v1  u 0  u ,


6m  4m 10m 5 more
reso
2
K.E. 
1 1 u
 6mu2  6m    63. Cu29 : [Ar]3d104s1
2 2 5 Outermost electron is present in
4s-subshell
2 2 1 24
 K.E.  3mu  3mu   3mu2  ,
25 25 1
 n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
fraction of energy loss by the colliding body 2
–
24 Br2/hv alc KOH
3mu2  64.
A 25  24 
~~~~

H O H
3mu2 25 (A) O
Br H
 40 O
46.   = 8 rad/sec2, O3 , Zn – H2 O
t 5 H
[Reductive ozonolysis] H
 = I = 8 × 8 = 64 N-m. O
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65. NCERT Page. No. 324/325
EwG  M,  H,  I

 79. Stability of carbanion  EdG M,  H,  I
67. A 2 (g)  B2 (g)  2AB(g); ng  0  
81. W= –P2·V
2.8  10 –3  2.8  10 –3
Kc   0.62
3.0  10–3  4.2  10–3 nRT
 ·V
n g
V2
K p  K C (RT)  K c (RT)0  K C
 Kp = 0.62 –1  8.3  300
  20 J  –1992 J
25
69. 
SrCO3(s) 
 SrO(s) + CO2(g); Kp = 1.6
= –1.992 kJ
Kp = PCO = 1.6 atm
2 82. NCERT Page. No. 115
V1 = 16L, P1 = 0.4 atm, P2 = 1.6 atm
O
V2 = ? KMnO4/H


83. CH3—CH== C—CH3 Heat CH3—COOH + CH 3—C—CH3

P1V1 = P2V2 CH3
P1V1 16  0.4 +2 +3 +6 +3 +4 +3
 V2    4L
P2 1.6 84. FeC2O 4  K2 Cr2O7  Fe3   CO2  Cr 3 

70. NCERT Page. No. 319 n  factor = 1 × 1 + 1 × 2 n  factor = 3 × 2

(FeC2O4 ) (K 2 Cr2O7 )
72. [E.A.R  stability of carbocation]
73. NCERT Page. No. 96 =3 =6
74. For 2nd spectral line of lyman series, No. of equivalent of FeC2O4 = No. of equivalent of
K2Cr2O7
n1 = 1, n2 = 3
 nFeC2O4  3  1.5  6
1 1 1 
 R  12   2 – 2 
 1 3 
 nFeC2O4  3
1  1 1  8R 
 R    Alc. KOH H2O/H
 1 9  9 Heat E.A.R.
 E2 Major
85. Br OH
9 A B
 
8R

75. 

X2(g) + 4y2(g)  2XY2(g); CHEMISTRY
H = – ve
SECTION-B
ng = –3
86. For exothermic reaction,
 formation XY4(g) is favoured at high pressure
and low temperature on decreasing temperature equilibrium constant
increases.
76. NCERT Page. No. 126/127
87. NCERT Page. No. 318
77. NCERT Page. No. 112
2 NaCl(s) Hsol Na(aq) + Cl(aq )
78.  = 2% =  2  10 –2 89.
100
HL.E. Hhyd
c = 0.1 = 1 × 10–1
[H+] = = 2 × 10–3 m

kw Na(g) + Cl(g)
[OH–] = [H ]
Hsoln = HL.E. + Hhyd
1  10–14 10  10 –15  4 = 784 + Hhyd
   5  10–12 M
2  10–3 2  10–3  Hhyd = 4 – 784 = –780 kJmol–1

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90. NCERT Page. No. 323 Acetonitrile having only sp3 and sp hybridized
91. C2H4 + H2  C2H6; Hr = – ve carbon atoms.
97. For isothermal expansion,
Hr = Hf[C2H6] – Hf[C2H4]
workdone is maximum when
 –ve = y – x
process is reversible
 xy
V2
92. C5H12 [Pentane]  Wmax = –2.303 nRT log V
1

(n-pentane)
1 25
 C—C—C—C—C = –2.303 ×   300  log 5
a b c b a 2 3

 3 product = –2015 J = –2.01 × 103 J

98. Greater is the molecular mass, greater is the
magnitude of Van der Waal’s forces of attraction
(isopentane) and hence higher the boiling point.
d b e
 C — C — C — Ca H H
100. (1) CH —C== C (2) CH3 —C== C
Ca  4 product
3
H
H H
CH 3
Not show G.I.
Not show G.I.

(neopentane) (3) CH3—C== CH—CH 3 (4) CH3—C== C—Ph

Ca CH 3 H H
Not show G.I. Show G.I
 Ca— Cf — Ca 1 product
C
a
BOTANY
 total monohalo product = 3 + 4 +1 = 8 SECTION-A
93. 4NO(g) + O2(g)  2N2O5(g); 101. NCERT Page-6
H1 = –111 kJ …(1) 102. NCERT Page-64, 65
N2O5(s) N2O5(g); H = 54 kJ 104. NCERT Page-164
 2N2O5(g) 2N2O5(s); H2 = –108 kJ …(2) 106. NCERT Page-66
Adding (1) and (2) 107. NCERT Page-32
4NO(g) + O2(g) 2N2O5(s); Hr 108. NCERT Page-21
Hr = H1 + H2 109. NCERT Page-18
= –111 kJ + (–108 kJ) 111. NCERT Page-76
= –219 kJ 113. NCERT Page-32
94. NCERT Page. No. 124 114. NCERT Page-19
95. m = 4 × mp, q = 2 × qp 117. NCERT Page-27, 29, 32, 33
118. NCERT Page-74, 75
h
  119. NCERT Page-137, 138
2.m  q  ·V
120. NCERT Page-91
h 122. NCERT Page-156
p  123. NCERT Page-144
2.mp ·q p ·V
125. NCERT Page-75
 mp ·q p 1 126. NCERT Page-90
 
p m ·q  2 2 127. NCERT Page-98
128. NCERT 12th old Page-263
96. CH3 — C  N 129. NCERT Page-159
Acetonitrile
130. NCERT Page-149

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133. NCERT Page-139 168. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 195
134. NCERT Page-32 169. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 187
135. NCERT Page-65 170. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 219
171. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 226
BOTANY
172. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 44, 45
SECTION-B
173. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 194
137. NCERT Page-87
174. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 51
138. NCERT Page-32
175. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 183
139. NCERT Page-126
176. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 104, 105
140. NCERT Page-24
177. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 190
141. NCERT Page-156
178. New NCERT 11th, Page. No. 83
142. NCERT Page-96
179. New NCERT 11th, Page. No. 219, 220
145. NCERT Page-88
180. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 197
146. NCERT 12th Old page-120
181. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 209, 210
147. NCERT 12th old Page-117
182. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 46
148. NCERT 12th Page-97
183. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 83
184. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 114
ZOOLOGY 185. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 44
SECTION-A
151. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 190 ZOOLOGY
152. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 48, 49, 50, 51
SECTION-B
153. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 225
186. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 189
154. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 186, 187
187. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 203
155. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 213
188. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 101, 102
156. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 221
189. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 220
157. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 201
190. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 214
158. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 189
191. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 213
159. New NCERT 11th, Page. No. 83
192. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 47, 48
160. New NCERT 11th, Page. No. 208
193. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 222
161. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 112
194. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 47
162. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 40
195. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 197
163. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 201
196. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 189
164. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 211
197. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 105
165. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 224, 227
198. Old NCERT 11th, Page. No. 114
166. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 196
199. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 43, 44, 45
167. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 48, 49
200. NCERT 11th, Page. No. 48

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 MINOR TEST - 01 - 25.01.2025 - ANS. KEY
01. (4) 26. (1) 51. (3) 76. (4) 101. (4) 126. (2) 151. (3) 176. (2)
02. (1) 27. (2) 52. (1) 77. (1) 102. (4) 127. (4) 152. (4) 177. (3)
03. (4) 28. (4) 53. (4) 78. (1) 103. (2) 128. (4) 153. (1) 178. (3)
04. (3) 29. (3) 54. (3) 79. (4) 104. (3) 129. (2) 154. (4) 179. (1)
05. (2) 30. (1) 55. (2) 80. (4) 105. (3) 130. (4) 155. (4) 180. (3)
06. (3) 31. (4) 56. (2) 81. (1) 106. (1) 131. (3) 156. (3) 181. (4)
07. (1) 32. (3) 57. (1) 82. (4) 107. (4) 132. (1) 157. (1) 182. (1)
08. (2) 33. (2) 58. (3) 83. (1) 108. (3) 133. (3) 158. (3) 183. (2)
09. (2) 34. (2) 59. (3) 84. (4) 109. (4) 134. (4) 159. (2) 184. (1)
10. (4) 35. (3) 60. (4) 85. (2) 110. (4) 135. (4) 160. (1) 185. (4)
11. (3) 36. (1) 61. (3) 86. (2) 111. (1) 136. (2) 161. (2) 186. (4)
12. (3) 37. (3) 62. (1) 87. (4) 112. (1) 137. (4) 162. (3) 187. (3)
13. (1) 38. (4) 63. (3) 88. (3) 113. (2) 138. (4) 163. (3) 188. (1)
14. (4) 39. (1) 64. (3) 89. (1) 114. (3) 139. (2) 164. (2) 189. (4)
15. (1) 40. (2) 65. (2) 90. (3) 115. (1) 140. (4) 165. (3) 190. (3)
16. (2) 41. (4) 66. (4) 91. (1) 116. (4) 141. (2) 166. (4) 191. (4)
17. (4) 42. (3) 67. (3) 92. (2) 117. (1) 142. (1) 167. (4) 192. (2)
18. (3) 43. (1) 68. (3) 93. (4) 118. (4) 143. (1) 168. (2) 193. (2)
19. (4) 44. (2) 69. (4) 94. (1) 119. (1) 144. (3) 169. (3) 194. (3)
20. (2) 45. (4) 70. (3) 95. (1) 120. (2) 145. (1) 170. (1) 195. (4)
21. (1) 46. (1) 71. (3) 96. (3) 121. (2) 146. (1) 171. (1) 196. (2)
22. (2) 47. (3) 72. (4) 97. (1) 122. (4) 147. (1) 172. (4) 197. (4)
23. (1) 48. (3) 73. (3) 98. (1) 123. (1) 148. (1) 173. (1) 198. (4)
24. (4) 49. (2) 74. (2) 99. (2) 124. (3) 149. (3) 174. (3) 199. (1)
25. (3) 50. (4) 75. (4) 100. (4) 125. (4) 150. (3) 175. (3) 200. (4)

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