02-02-2025

9610WMD80100824RT12 MD

PHYSICS

1) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be :

(1) 220 V
(2) 140 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 20 V

2) In parallel plate capacitor the distance between plates is d = 0.1 mm. The medium between the
plates is air. The maximum potential difference which can be applied to the capacitor is : (Dielectric
strength of air = 3 MV/m)

(1) 3 × 106 volt

(2) 300 volt
(3) 3 × 1010 volt
(4) Infinite

3) In the adjoining circuit diagram the currents flowing in 5Ω and 10Ω resistances will respectively

be :- (I2 and I3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer having 4000
turns in its primary. What should be the number of turns in the secondary to get output power at
230 volt :-

(1) 40
(2) 400
(3) 4
(4) 4000

5) A dipole of dipole moment P is placed parallel to electric field E. Find work done to rotate dipole
by 30° angle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) Velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time 't' according to the equation m/s.
Here 't' is in seconds. The impulse imparted to the particle in the time interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 2 s is:-

(1)
kg-m/s

(2)
kg-m/s

(3)
kg-m/s

(4)
kg-m/s

7) A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
associated magnetic moment μ is given by :

(1)

(2) qvR2

(3)

(4) qvR

8) The mass of a nucleus is 0.042u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The
binding energy per nucleon of nucleus is nearly:-

(1) 23 MeV
(2) 39 MeV
(3) 5.6 MeV
(4) 3.9 MeV

9) A light ray incident at an angle of 45° on one refracting surface of a prism of angle 60° suffers a
deviation of 55°. What is the angle of emergence ?
(1) 95°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 70°

10) Two lenses are placed in contact with each other and the focal length of combination is 80 cm. If
the focal length of one is 20 cm, then the power of the other will be :

(1) 1.66 D
(2) 4.00 D
(3) –1.00 D
(4) –3.75 D

11) Four identical rods each of mass M and length L, form a square as shown in the figure. The

moment of inertia of this system about diagonal of the square is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The number of electron hole pair in a pure silicon crystal at 300 K is 6 × 1015 m–3. When it is
doped by indium the electron concentration becomes 1.2 × 109 m–3. The number of indium atoms
mixed per cubic meter is (approx) :-

(1) 1.2 × 109

(2) 6 × 1015
(3) 3 × 1022
(4) 5 × 106

13) A particle moves with a velocity m/s under the influence of a constant force

. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is :

(1) 200 J/s

(2) 40 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

14) There are 26 tuning forks arranged in the decreasing order of their frequencies. Each tuning
fork give 3 beats with the next. The first one is octave of the last. What is the freqency of 18th tuning
fork ?

(1) 100 Hz
(2) 99 Hz
(3) 96 Hz
(4) 103 Hz

15) Two slits seperated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7
m. Interference fringes are observed on screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the
third dark fringe and fifth bright fringe is equal to :-

(1) 0.65 mm
(2) 1.63 mm
(3) 3.25 mm
(4) 4.88 mm

16) At what angle should an unpolarised beam be incident on a crystal of μ = , so that reflected
beam is completely polarised :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

17) A liquid of specific heat 0.8 cal/g°C at temperature 60°C is mixed with other liquid of same mass
having temperature 45°C. If temperature of mixture is 53°C, then specific heat (in cal/g°C) of the
liquid is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.8

18) A uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius R has a potential V0 at a distance 2R from

the surface of sphere, then find the potential at a distance from center :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) In elliptical orbit of a planet, as the planet moves from apogee position to perigee position :-

List - I List - II

(P) Speed of planet (1) Remains same

(Q) Distance of planet from centre of Sun (2) Decreases

(R) Potential energy of planet (3) Increases

(S) Angular momentum about centre of Sun (4) Can not say
(1) P-3; Q-2; R-2; S-1
(2) P-1; Q-2; R-2; S-3
(3) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-2
(4) P-3; Q-2; R-1; S-2

20) The frequency of oscillation of the system shown in figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
Determine the focal length of objective and eye-piece–

(1) f0 = 30 cm, fe = 6 cm
(2) f0 = 25 cm, fe = 10 cm
(3) f0 = 30 cm, fe = 10cm
(4) f0 = 15 cm, fe = 5 cm

22) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A. If the wattless current be A. The power factor is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) A particle is moving with a constant angular acceleration of 16 rad./sec2 in a circular path. At
time t = 0 particle was at rest. Find the time at which the magnitudes of centripetal acceleration and
tangential acceleration are equal :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 1 sec

(4)

24) Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 2 kg are moving with velocities m/s and
m/s respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A stationary bomb explodes into three pieces. One piece of 2 kg mass moves with a velocity of 8
ms–1 at right angles to the other piece of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 12 m s–1. If the mass of
the third piece is 0.5 kg, then its velocity is :

(1) 10 m s–1
(2) 20 m s–1
(3) 30 m s–1
(4) 40 m s–1

26) Determine the current drawn from source.

(1) 1A
(2) 0.5A
(3) 0.25A
(4) 0.1A

27) If the distance between the centres of earth and moon is D and mass of earth is 81 times that of
moon. At what distance from the centre of earth gravitational field will be zero :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) When a metal is irradiated by monochromatic light, the maximum kinetic energy of
the photo–electrons is 1.2 eV. If frequency of the light is increased 50% then maximum kinetic
energy of photo–electron is 3.6 eV. Evaluate the work function of the metal.:-

(1) 3.6 eV
(2) 5.8 eV
(3) 9.7 eV
(4) None of these

29)

Find out ratio of wavelength for proton, deutron and α-particle if they are accelerated through same
potential difference.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A plano-concave lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and the radius of curvature of its
curved surface is 100 cm. What is power of lens :-

(1) +0.5 D
(2) –0.5 D
(3) –2 D
(4) +2 D

31) In a vernier callipers, 10 divisions of vernier scale coincides with 9 divisions of main scale. one
division of main scale is of 0.1 cm. If in the measurement of inner diameter of cylinder zero of
vernier scale lies between 1.3 cm and 1.4 cm of main scale and 2nd division of vernier scale coincides
with main scale division then diameter will be:-

(1) 1.30 cm
(2) 1.34 cm
(3) 1.32 cm
(4) 1.36 cm

32) What is the potential difference VB – VA when the

current I is 5A and is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s:-

(1) 5V
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V
(4) – 15V

33) A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled with water. If the total pressure at the bottom of
the tank is three atmospheres, then the velocity of efflux is :-

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) m/s

34) In the diagram D is an ideal diode and an Alternating voltage of peak value 10 V is connected to
input Vin. Which of the following diagram represent the correct wave form of output voltage VO?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) If voltmeter of 1 V & 1 Ω is to be converted into voltmeter of 100 V, find series resistance :-

(1) 99 Ω
(2) 100 Ω
(3) 101 Ω

(4)

36) An electron is moving in south direction and it is deflected in upward direction then direction of
magnetic field present at this place is :-

(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West

37) In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,
is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber

is:

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 6

38) A circular wire of radius r rotates about its own axis with angular speed ω in a magnetic field B
perpendicular to its plane, then the induced e.m.f is :

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

39) An LCR series circuit is at resonance. Then:

(1) The phase difference between current and voltage is 90°

(2) The phase difference between current and voltage is 45°
(3) Its impedance is purely resistive
(4) Current is minimum

40) A aeroplane flying horizontally with 100 m/s releases an object which reaches the ground in 10 s.
At what angle with horizontal it hits the ground?
(1) 50°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

41) A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. Speed at bottommost point is where R is the radius
of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

42) Statement-1 : A particle is moving along x-axis. The resultant force F acting on it is given by F
= –ax – b, where a and b are both positive constants. The motion of this particle is not SHM.
Statement-2 : In SHM resultant force must be proportional to the displacement from mean
position.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

43) The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz
and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system ?

(1) 20 Hz
(2) 30 Hz
(3) 40 Hz
(4) 10 Hz

44) Star A has radius r and surface temperature T while star B has radius 4r and surface
temperature T/2. The ratio of the power of two stars, PA : PB is :-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

45) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A. Energy of photon (p)

B. Linear momentum of photon (q) zero

 C. Rest mass of photon (r)

D. Effective mass of photon (s)

(1) A–p; B–q; C–r; D–s

(2) A–s; B–q; C–r; D–p
(3) A–s; B–r; C–q; D–p
(4) A–s; B–r; C–p; D–q

CHEMISTRY

1) The mass number of an anion, X–3 is 14 if there are ten electrons in the anion the number of
neutrons in the molecule X2 will be :-

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 7
(4) 5

2) Read the following statements and mark the incorrect statement :

(1) No two electrons in an atom can have all the four quantum numbers same.
(2) The outer electronic configuration of chromium atom is 3d44s2
(3) All the orbitals in a subshell are first occupied singly with parallel spins
(4) Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lies in ultraviolet region.

3) Which of the following is not correct for electromagnetic waves?

(1) all electromagnetic waves have equal wavelengths

(2) the frequency is the number of waves which pass a given point in one second
(3) the velocity of a wave is the distance covered by the particular wave in one second
(4) the wavelength is the distance between two successive crests

4)

Penicillin - N is an antibacterial agent that contain 9% sulphur by mass. Determine minimum

possible molecular weight of penicillin - N

(1) 35.55 g
(2) 355.5 g
(3) 3.55 g
(4) 35 g

5)

Calculate the weight of lime (CaO) obtained by heating 200 kg of 95% pure limestone (CaCO3):
(1) 104.4 kg
(2) 105.4 kg
(3) 212.8 kg
(4) 106.4 kg

6) Which has the highest mass?

(1) 50 g of iron
(2) 5 moles of N2
(3) 0.1 mol atom of Ag
(4) 1023 atoms of carbon

7) Which statement is wrong.

(1) Oxidation number of oxygen is +1 in peroxides

(2) Oxidation number of oxygen is +2 in oxygen difluoride

(3)
Oxidation number of oxygen is in superoxides
(4) Oxidation number of oxygen is –2 in most of its compound.

8) Consider the following reaction :

3Br2 + 6CO32– + 3H2O → 5Br– + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
Which of the following statement is true regarding this reaction.

(1) Bromine is oxidized and the carbonate radical is reduced.

(2) Bromine is reduce and the carbonate radical is oxidized
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
(4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidized

9) log + 2 log RT = 0 is correct for which of the following reaction?

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)

(2) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
(3) N2O3(g) → NO(g) + NO2(g)
(4) N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

10) Assertion : The conjugate acid base pair differ by a proton.

Reason : NH2– & NH4+ are conjugate acid base pair

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

11) The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas
from a volume of 10 dm³ to a volume of 100 dm³ at 27°C is :-

(1) 32.3 J mol-¹ K-1

(2) 42.3 J mol-1 K-1
(3) 38.3 J mol-¹ K-1
(4) 35.8 J mol-1 K-1

12) A process will be non-spontaneous at all temperature when

(1) ΔH = (–)ve and ΔS = (–)ve

(2) ΔH = (+)ve and ΔS = (–)ve
(3) ΔH = (+)ve and ΔS = (+)ve
(4) ΔH = (–)ve and S = (+)ve

13) In a 0.5 molal solution KCl is 50% dissociated. The freezing point of solution will be (Kf = 1.86 K
kg mol–1)

(1) 274.674 K
(2) 271.60 K
(3) 273 K
(4) None of these

14) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
Solute (Equimolar) π(O.P.) ratio

(i) Urea, glucose, fructose (A) 1 : 0.8 : 1

(ii) NaCl, MgCl2, K2SO4 (B) 1:2:3

Al2(SO4)3, Na3PO4,
(iii) (C) 1:1:1
K4Fe(CN)

(iv) Glucose, NaCl, CaCl2 (D) 2:3:3

(1) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C, (iv)-D
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-C, (iv)-A
(3) (i)-D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-B

15) A zero order reaction is one whose rate is independent of

(1) The concentration of the reactants

(2) The temperature of reaction
(3) The concentration of the product
(4) The material of the vessel in which reaction is carried out

16) Match the quantities given in column-l with their units given in column-II and assign the correct
code.

Column-I Column-II

(a) G (i) cm–1

(b) Λm (ii) S cm–1

(c) G* (iii) S cm2 mol–1

(d) κ (iv) mho

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)

17)

During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbital ?

(1) π* orbital
(2) π orbital
(3) σ* orbital
(4) σ orbital

18)

In which molecule only pi bonds are present

(1) H2
(2) Li2
(3) C2
(4) (2) and (3) both

19) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Oxy acids of phosphorous contain (P–H) bond act as a reducing agent.
Statement-II : H3PO4 gives disproportionation reaction on heating.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

20)

Correct increasing order of spin magnetic moment (in B.M.) for complexes for :
(I) [FeF6]–3
(II) [V(H2O)6]+2

(III) [Fe(H2O)6]+2
(1) III < II < I
(2) II < III < I
(3) I < III < II
(4) II < I < III

21) Total number of electrons is 4d subshell of Pd (Z = 46) is

(1) Zero
(2) Eight
(3) Nine
(4) Ten

22) , X and Y are respectively :

(1) X = OH–, Y = H+
(2) X = H+, Y = OH–
–
(3) X = OH , Y = H2O2
–
(4) X = H2O2, Y = OH

23) Which of the following is neutral oxide :-

(1) NO2
(2) N2O3
(3) N2O5
(4) NO

24) Which of the following element may be present at peak of Lother meyer's curve ?

(1) He
(2) Be
(3) Li
(4) F

25)

Statement which is incorrect:-

(1) Moving top to bottom metallic character of elements and basic character of oxides increases
(2) Moving left to right non metallic character increases
(3) Inner transition element present in 6th and 7th period
(4) Element of ns2np6 configuration present in 1st to 6th period
26) A solution on treatment with NH3 turns blue; it contains:

(1) Cu2+
(2) Ni2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Mn2+

27) Pb(CH3COO)2 gives ............ colour with H2S :-

(1) Black
(2) White
(3) Red
(4) Orange

28) Red and yellow phosphorus are :

(1) Allotropes
(2) Isobars
(3) Isomers
(4) Isotopes

29) The number of S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is :-

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Zero

30) Statement-I :- PH3 is more basic than NH3.

Statement-II :- Electronegativity of ‘P’ is more than ‘N’.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

31) Among the following , the correct order of acidity is

(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(2) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
(4) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

32) Statement - I : is called Cyclo hexanenitrile.

Statement - II : It contains six carbon atoms in the ring and –CN as substituent.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

33)

Maximum Hofmann’s product is obtained when –X is :

(1) –F
(2) –Cl
(3) –I
(4) –Br

34) Compare the rate of dehydration in the given alcohol :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > c > a
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > b > a

35) Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing rate of hydrolysis for SN1 reaction:

(P)

(Q)

(R)
(S)

(1) Q > R > S > P

(2) S > R > Q > P
(3) R > S > Q > P
(4) P > Q > R > S

36) Which ether cannot break by HI?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution reaction is :-

(1) c > b > a > d

(2) c > d > a > b
(3) a > b > c > d
(4) c > d > b > a

38) Alkyl fluorides are synthesised by

(1) Finkelstein reaction

(2) Swart reaction
(3) Kolbe reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

39) CH3–CH=CH2 product

Product is :-
(1) CH3–CH=O
(2) H2C=O
(3) CH3–CO–CH3
(4) (1) and (2) both

40) Which of the following pairs is an example of position isomerism

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2OH and CH3–O–CH3

(4)

41) Separation of glycerol from spent-lye in soap industry is carried out by

(1) Simple distillation

(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure
(4) Steam distillation

42) 2,4-DNP test is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

43) Product.
The main product is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vitamin:-

(1) B2
(2) B12
(3) C
(4) D

45) Glucose reacts with excess of C6H5NHNH2 and forms :

(1) glucosazone
(2) glucose phenyl hydrazine
(3) glucose-oxime
(4) sorbitol

BIOLOGY

1) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - Bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - Help in attachment
(4) Capsule - Help in locomotion

2)

Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) T. O. Diener - Viroids are found to be a free DNA

(2) W. M. Stanley - Crystallisation of virus
(3) M. W. Beijerinck - Contagium vivum fluidum
(4) D. J. Ivanowski - Microbes smaller than bacteria cause mosaic disease of tobacco

3) Which of the following is not a character related to Red Algae ?

(1) Sexual reproduction is oogamous.

(2) They occur in both well lighted areas and great depths of oceans.
(3) The food stored in them is cyanophycean starch, very similar to amylopectin and glycogen.
(4) They reproduce asexually by non motile spores.

4) Match the column

Column–I Column–II

A. Volvox (i) Isogamous

B. Spirogyra (ii) Anisogamous

C. Eudorina (iii) Oogamous

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–ii

5) In china rose the flowers are:

(1) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

(2) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
(3) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
(4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

6) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A. Epipetalous i Lily

B. Epiphyllous ii Citrus

C. Diadelphous iii Pea

D. Polyadelphous iv Brinjal

A. B C. D.

1. iv ii i iii

2. iv i iii ii

3. ii i iv iii

4. iii ii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Placentation in tomato and lemon is:-

(1) Marginal
(2) Axile
(3) Parietal
(4) Free central

8) In monocot roots which types of vascular bundles are found

(1) Collateral, conjoint and closed

(2) Radial V.B. with exarch xylem
(3) Bicollateral, conjoint and closed
(4) Radial V.B. with endarch xylem

9) Statement-I: Cuticle is absent in roots.

Statement-II: Epidermal layer is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle which
prevent the loss of water.

(1) Statement-I true & Statement-II wrong

(2) Both statements true
(3) Statement-II correct Statement-I wrong
(4) Both Statements wrong

10) Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in :-

(1) Central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
(2) Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
(3) Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts
(4) Testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.

11) In root tip cell there are 14 chromosomes and the DNA content is 2C after M-phase, what will be
the number of chromosome and amount of DNA at G1, after S and anaphase respectively ?
No. of Amount of
chromosomes DNA
(1) 14, 14, 14 2C, 4C, 4C
(2) 14, 28, 28 2C, 2C, 4C
(3) 14, 14, 28 2C, 4C, 4C
(4) 28, 14, 14 4C, 2C, 2C

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) The motile bacteria are able to move by:

(1) Pili
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Flagella
(4) Cilia

13) Read the following statements with respect to the given figure and select the correct option :

(A). The core of the structure given in the diagram has (9 + 0) arrangement of microtubules
(B). Peripheral doublets of microtubules are connected to each other by linkers
(C). It emerges from a centriole-like structure
(D). It is a non-membrane-bound structure
The correct statements are :

(1) Only (A) and (B)

(2) Only (B) and (C)
(3) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D)

14) Which of the following layer is present nearest to plasma membrane in plant cell ?

(1) Secondary cell wall

(2) Middle lamella
(3) Primary cell wall
(4) All of the above

15) The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:

(1) Appearance of recombination nodules

(2) Crossing over
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Appearance of chiasmata

16) Select the correct statement for interkinesis.

(1) No replication of DNA takes place

(2) It is a long-lived phase
(3) It is followed by prophase I
(4) It is a phase between two mitotic phases

17) Identify A, B, C and D in the Calvin cycle given below :

(1) A = Regeneration of PEP, B = 3-PGA, C = ADP, D = Triose phosphate
(2) A = Regeneration, B = 3-PGA, C = ATP + NADPH + H+, D = Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(3) A = OAA, B = PEP, C = ATP + NADPH + H+, D = Triosephosphate
(4) A = Regeneration, B = ATP, C = NADP+, D = Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

18) Assertion : C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient.

Reason : Photorespiration is absent in C4 plants.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

19) How many NADPH2, FADH2 and ATP molecules are produced in a single TCA cycle ?

(1) 3, 1 and 1 respectively

(2) 0, 1 and 1 respectively
(3) 3, 1 and 2 respectively
(4) 2, 1 and 1 respectively

20) Which of the following matches is not appropriate regarding measurement of growth?

(1) Leaf Increase in surface area

(2) Watermelon Increase in size of cells

Maize root
(3) Increase in number of cells
apical meristem

(4) Pollen tube Increase in volume and fresh weight

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
21) Read the following statements carefully :
(A) ABA acts as an antagonist of GA3
(B) Ethylene induces flowering in mango
(C) Gibberellin promotes bolting in beet, cabbage and many plants with rosette habit
(D) Cytokinin helps to produce new leaves, chloroplast in leaves
(E) Auxin, an application widely used for plant propagation
How many statements are correct ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

22) Which of the following can be expected if scientists succeed in introducing apomictic gene into
hybrid varieties of crops?

(1) Polyembryony will be seen and each seed will produce many plantlets
(2) Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer dormancy
(3) Farmers can keep on using the seeds produced by the hybrids to raise new crop year after year
(4) There will be segregation of the desired characters only in the progeny

23) The given figure shows false fruits of apple. What do A, B, C and D represent.

(1) A - Endosperm, B - Thalamus, C - Seed, D Mesocarp

(2) A - Thalamus, B - Seed, C - Endocarp, D – Achene
(3) A - Thalamus, B - Seed, C - Endocarp, D - Mesocarp
(4) None of these

24) How many of the following are mendelian disorders:-

Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell, Anaemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia,
Down's syndrome, Tumer's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 3

25) How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
except in one character with contrasting traits?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 14
(4) 8

26)

Match the items of column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

XX-XO method of Klinefelter's

(a) (i)
sex determination syndrome

XX-XY method of Female

(b) (ii)
sex determination heterogametic

(c) Karyotype-47 (iii) Grasshopper

ZW-ZZ method of Female

(d) (iv)
sex determination homogametic
Select the correct option from the following.
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

27) Read the following four statements (A-D):-

(A) Backbone of DNA is formed by sugar and phosphate
(B) DNA and RNA have similar pyrimidine bases
(C) At each step of ascent, strand of DNA turns 36°
(D) Plane of one base pair stack over the other in DNA double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds,
confers stability of the helical structure
How many of the following statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) Find out the incorrect statement.

In brood parasitism (of Koel and Crow), the eggs of parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the
(1) host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chance of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs
and rejecting them from the host.
(2) Majority of parasite harm the host.
Many parasites have evolved to be host specific in such a way that both host and the parasite
(3)
tend to coevolve.
 Monarch butterfly acquires chemical by feeding on a poisonous weed in its adult stage, that
(4)
chemical makes it highly distasteful to its bird.

29)

(1) a = Logistic plot, b = Exponential plot c = Carrying capacity

(2) a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot, c = Carrying capacity
(3) a = Carrying capacity, b = Exponential plot, c = Logistic plot
(4) a = Carrying capacity, b = Logistic plot, c = Exponential plot

30) According to Tilman, how species rich biological community show more stability:-

(1) Areas with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(3) Provide resistance to invasions by alien species
(4) All of these

31)

Match the column I and II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 1200

(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1

(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22

(d) Bird species diversity in India (iv) 70

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

32) Pyramid of energy in a river ecosystem is:

(1) Always upright

(2) Always inverted
(3) Constant
(4) Declining

33) Which are the biotic components of forest ecosystem:

(1) Producers
(2) Decomposers
(3) Consumers
(4) All of the above

34)

How many structure are haploid in angiosperm from following ?

Nucellus, Microspore, Synergids, Antipodal, Funicle, Pollen grain, Perisperm.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

35) Which of the following pigment is yellow in colour

(1) Chlorophyll 'a'

(2) Chlorophyll 'b'
(3) Carotene
(4) Xanthophyll

36)

The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to :-

(1) Mesocarp
(2) Embryo
(3) Endosperm
(4) Endocarp

37) Which of the following is the tallest tree of the world:

(1) Eucalyptus
(2) Sequoia
(3) Pinus
(4) Cycas

38) According to Sutton and Boveri segregation of a pair of factors is because of :-

(1) Spliting of chromosomes at anaphase of mitosis.

(2) Segregation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase of meiosis-I.
(3) Random arrangement of chromosomes at equator during meiosis-II.
(4) Random arrangement of chromosomes at equator during mitosis.

39) In sigmoid growth curve, the exponential phase slows down leading to a stationary phase due to
:-
(1) Toxic effect of some plant hormones
(2) Genetic nature
(3) Limited nutrient supply
(4) Absence of differentiation.

40) Match the following :-

Column–I
Column–II
Type of
Organism
Interaction

Flamingoes and
(A) Predation (i)
resident fishes

Sea anemone and

(B) Commensalism (ii)
clown fish

(C) Competition (iii) Cuckoo and crow

(D) Parasitism (iv) Tiger and deer

(1) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii

(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
(4) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv

41) Identify A, B and C in the diagram depicting transcription below:

A B C
(1) Rho (ρ) protein Nascent RNA Sigma (σ) factor
(2) RNA Rho (ρ) factor Sigma (σ) factor
(3) Sigma (σ) factor Rho (ρ) protein Nascent RNA
(4) Sigma (σ) factor Nascent RNA Rho (ρ) protei
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

The endomembrane system includes plasma membrane, ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and
(1)
vacuoles.
(2) ER helps in the synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
(3) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
(4) Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of ATP.

43) Choose the correct match

List - I List - II

(1) Mitosis 4(n) cells are formed

(2) S-Phase DNA duplication

(3) Quiescent stage Most active phase of cell cycle

(4) G1 Phase Sister chromatids separate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Which among the following is a type of insitu conservation?

(1) Sacred Groves

(2) Botanical gardens
(3) Cryopreservation of Gametes
(4) Safari Park

45) Chrysophytes :

(1) Are commonly called dinoflagellates & desmids

(2) Have pellicle instead of cell wall
(3) Are parasitic forms causing diseases in animals
(4) Have indestructible wall layer deposited with silica

46) Correct sequence of abundance of compounds in the cell is :-

(1) Water > Lipid > carbohydrate > Protein > Ions
(2) Lipid > Nucleic acid > Protein > Carbohydrate > Ions
(3) Water > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Ions
(4) Ions > Protein > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > lipid

47) The release of semen into vagina is called

(1) Ejaculation
(2) Impotency
(3) Implantation
(4) Insemination

48)

The signals for parturition originate from

(1) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus

(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(3) Fully developed foetus only
(4) Placenta only

49) Coelom is lined by :-

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) Mesogloea

50)

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy individual is approximately -

(1) 100 ml/minute, i.e., 180 liters per day

(2) 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day
(3) 120 ml/minute, i.e., 100 litres per day
(4) 130 ml/minute, i.e., 120 litres per day

51) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram

A B C D

Thalamic Portal Anterior Posterior

(1)
neurons circulation Pituitary Pituitary

Hypotha-lamic Portal Anterior Posterior

(2)
neurons circulation Pituitary Pituitary
 Pituitary Portal Anterior Posterior
(3)
neurons circulation Pituitary Pituitary

Pineal Portal Anterior Posterior

(4)
neurons circulation Pituitary Pituitary
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Neurons are excitable cells because their membrane is _____ charged towards inner side and
_____ charged towards outerside due to mainly _____ transport. ?

(1) negatively, positively, passive

(2) positively, negatively, active
(3) negatively, positively, active
(4) positively, negatively, passive

53) Which of the following is not the feature of reptiles?

(1) External ear absent / tympanum present

(2) Heart usually three chambered / four chambered in crocodile
(3) Oviparity / indirect development
(4) Poikilothermous

54) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) helps in :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Block the uterus
(3) Increase phagocytosis of ovum
(4) Suppress sperm motility

55) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

56) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female?

(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora

(c) Hymen (d) Labia minora

 (e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube
(1) c, e, f
(2) Only e, f
(3) Only c, f
(4) a, d, e, f

57) Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into the ponds in order to check the vector borne
diseases such as :-

(1) Dengue
(2) Malaria
(3) Chikungunya
(4) All of these

58) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of
______.

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ringworm
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Amoebiasis

59) A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in
malarial fever, is :-

(1) Interferon
(2) Haemozoin
(3) Hirudin
(4) Colostrum

60) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ?

(1) Pennatula, Gorgonia, Spongilla

(2) Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana, Meandrina
(3) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria
(4) Nereis, Aedes, Apis

61) Identify homologous structures in plants -

(1) Thorns of Bougainvilliea and tendrils of Cucurbita

(2) Potato and sweet potato
(3) Flippers of penguin and dolphin
(4) Eye of octopus and mammals

62) Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of Man ?
(1) Homo erectus probably did not eat meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 900 C.C lived in near east and central Asia between
(2)
1,00000-40,000 years back.
(3) 15 mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands.
(4) Homo erectus had a brain size about 900 C.C.

63) Select the correct option to fill up the blanks.

(i) Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another, are called ____ diseases.
(ii) In human body, parasite of malaria initially multiplies within the ______ and then attack the
______.
(iii) _____ is the yellowish fluid secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation.
(iv) ______ and ______ are the primary lymphoid organs.

(1) (i) infectious, (ii) bone marrow, thymus, (iii) colostrum, (iv) liver cell, RBCs
(2) (i) infectious, (ii) liver cell, RBCs (iii) colostrum, (iv) Bone marrow, thymus
(3) (i) interferon, (ii) bone marrow, thymus (iii) colostrum, (iv) liver cell, RBCs
(4) (i) infectious, (ii) liver cell, RBCs, (iii) colostrum, (iv) spleen, lymph node

64) An antibody consists of :-

(1) Two light peptide chains and two heavy peptide chains
(2) Two light pepetide chains and one heavy peptide chain
(3) One light peptide chain and one heavy peptide chain
(4) One light peptide chain and two heavy peptide chain

65) Contraction unit of muscle is part of myofibril between :-

(1) Z–line and I–band

(2) Z–line and Z–line
(3) Z–line and A–band
(4) A–band and I–band

66)

Marsupials evolved from ancestral stock, but all with in Australian continent. This represents-

(1) Adaptive radiation like in Darwin's finches

(2) Adaptive radiation unlike in Darwin's finches
(3) Convergent evolution like in Darwin's finches
(4) Convergent evolution unlike in Darwin's finches

67)

Intercostal muscles are found attached with -

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Ribs
(3) Pleura
(4) Lungs

68) Bundle of His is a network of

(1) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

(2) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
(3) Muscle fibres found in between the ventricle
(4) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles.

69) Statement-I: Parathyroid hormone decrease the Ca+2 level in the blood and increase density of
bone.
Statement-II: Parathyroid hormone along with thymosin, play a significant role in calcium balance
in the body.
Read the following statement and selective right answer.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are false

70) Which of the following are aromatic amino acids?

(a) Tryptophan
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Phenyl alanine
(d) Histidine

(1) All of these

(2) a, b and c
(3) a and b only
(4) b and c only

71) Arrange the following steps in correct sequence for skeletal muscle contraction
A. [Ca+2] gradually increases in sarcoplasm
B. Calcium binds to troponin C. Troponin-tropomyosin move away from myosin binding sites on actin
filaments D. Neural signal at neuromuscular junction releases Acetylcholine
E. Action potential along sarcolemma
F. Actin-myosin cross-bridges formed

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

72) Which one of the following sets includes only viral diseases ?

(1) Ringworm, AIDS, Common cold

(2) Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Dengue
(3) Dengue, AIDS, Common cold
(4) Dysentry, AIDS, Common cold

73)

Match column I (category) with column II (secondary metabolites) and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary metabolites)

(A) Pigments (I) Concanavalin A

(B) Terpenoides (II) Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

(C) Alkaloids (III) Morphine, Codeine

(D) Lectins (IV) Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

(1) A - IV; B - II; C - III; D - I
(2) A - IV; B - III; C - II; D - I
(3) A - I; B - IV; C - III; D - II
(4) A - I; B - III; C - II; D - IV

74) Match the following column-I and Column-II :-

Column I Column II

(i) Active natural (a) Antiserum

(ii) Active artificial (b) Colostrum

(iii) Passive natural (c) Vaccination

(iv) Passive artificial (d) Infection

i ii iii iv
(1) a b c d
(2) b c d a
(3) c d a b
(4) d c b a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Given below is a diagram of chordate characteristics labelled A, B, C and D. Identify the correct

one :-

(1) A – Post-Anal tail, B – Nerve cord, C – Notochord, D – Gills slits

(2) A – Post-Anal tail, B – Notochord, C – Nerve cord, D – Gills slits
(3) A – Post-Anal tail, B – Nerve cord, C – Gill slits, D – Notochord
(4) A – Notochord, B – Nerve cord, C – Gill slits, D – Post-Anal tail

76) Match the animal names listed under column-I with the zoological names given under
column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
(Common name) (Zoological name) (a) Star fish (i) Sepia
(b) Jelly fish (ii) Asterias
(c) Devil fish (iii) Aurelia
(d) Cuttle fish (iv) Octopus
(v) Hippocampus
a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (v)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (v) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Which of these possess a 4 chambered heart ?

(1) Carcharodon
(2) Frog
(3) Bangarus
(4) Pigeon

78) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

79) Select the correct matching of animal with its symmetry and type of body cavity :

Animal Symmetry Body Cavity

(1) Ascaris Radial Pseudocoelom

(2) Starfish Bilateral Pseudocoelom

(3) Tapeworm Radial Acoelom

(4) Earthworm bilateral Coelomate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80)

Which of the following organ systems jointly coordinate and integrate all the activities of the body
organs ?

(1) Neural system and sensory system

(2) Digestive system and respiratory system
(3) Neural system and endocrine system
(4) Circulatory system and respiratory system

81) Identify the figures A, B and C and select the correct option :

A B C

(1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla

(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon

(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia

(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Which is the correct sequence of air passages in man ?

External nostril → Nasal passage → Internal nostril → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi →
(1)
Bronchioles ® Alveoli
(2) Nose → Larynx → Pharynx → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveoli
(3) Nose → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Nose → Larynx → Bronchi → Pharynx →Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli

83) Exchange of gases :-

(1) Occurs between the alveoli and pulmonary blood capillary

(2) Occurs between blood and tissues
(3) Occurs by diffusion
(4) All

84)

Tendon connect -

(1) Bone to bone

(2) Bone to ligament
(3) Muscle to skin
(4) Muscle to bone

85) Fill up the blanks.

I. Using Agrobacterium vectors, ....A.... specific genes are introduced into the host plant.
II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B.....
III. The genes .....C.... and .....D.... control cotton bollworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be:-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B- Cellular defence
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-insects, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

86)

Selectable markers are used to identify transformants and non-transformants by using -

(1) Antibiotics
(2) Antibodies
(3) Antigens
(4) Temperature

87)

ELISA is based on-

(1) Amplification of nucleic acid

(2) Antigen antibody interaction
(3) Somatic hypridesation
(4) Meristem culture

88) Select the incorrect match.

 (1) Lysozyme Degrades bacterial cell wall

(2) Cellulase Degrades plant cell wall

rDNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an

(3) Micro-injection
plant cell

(4) Chitinase Degrades fungal cell wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) The direct ancestors of mammals were

(1) Synapsids
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Thecodons
(4) Therapsids

90) Ejeculatory duct is formed by combination of -

(1) Urethra and vas deferens

(2) Urethra and prostate gland
(3) Vas deferens and seminal vesicle’s duct
(4) Urethra and duct of seminal vesicle
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 4 2 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 2 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 3 4 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 1 4 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 1 4 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

= 100V

2)

E=

Dielectric strength, Emax =

⇒ Vmax = Emax(d)
= 3 × 106 × 0.1 × 10–3
= 3 × 102 Volt
= 300 Volt

3)

4)
NS = 400

5)

W = PE(cosθ1 – cosθ2)
= PE

6)

Impulse = Change in momentum

 =2

= kg-m/s

7) M = IA = I(πr2) =

8)

9) δ = i + e – A
55° = 45° + e – 60°
e = 55° – 45° + 60°
e = 70°

10) ⇒ = ⇒ f2 =
Power of second lens

P2 = = = –3.75 D

11) (M.I.)sys. = sin245° × 4

= × ×4

12) nenh=ni2

= 3×1022m–3

13)
= 140 J/S

14) Let the frequency of first tuning fork is ƒ

The frequencies of other tuning forks are,
( ƒ –3) ; (ƒ –2 × 3) , ...... ( ƒ – 17 × 3) , ..... (ƒ – 25 × 3) .
As per given condition,
ƒ = 2 (ƒ–25 × 3)
or ƒ = 25 × 6 = 150 Hz
The frequency of 18th tuning fork
 = ƒ –17 × 3 = 150 –51 = 99 Hz.

15) y=x5B – x3D

y = 1.63 mm

16)

tan (ip) = µ
tan (ip) =

ip = 60°

17)

Heat lost = Heat gained

m(0.8) (60 – 53) = m (X) (53 – 45)
X = 0.7 cal/gm°C

18)

Potential at a distance 2R from surface

Potential at a distance r < R

where

So

19)
Angular momentum of planet around the sun is conserve.
Planet move from apogee to perigee distance decreases and velocity increases.

Potential energy =
r ↓ PE ↓
20)

∴f=

0
21) Angular magnification |m| = ⇒ f = 5fe
distance between objective and eye-piece = f0 + fe
f0 + fe = 36
5fe + fe = 36 ⇒ fe = 6 cm
and f0 = 30 cm

22) Irms = 2A
Wattless current = Irms sinϕ,
⇒

∴ power factor = cos ϕ = cos 60° =

23) As v = at = αRt

ac = = α2Rt2
∵ at = ac ⇒ αR = α2Rt2

⇒ t2 = ⇒t=

24) m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 2kg

25)

Applying the law of conservation of linear momentum, we get;

0.5 × v = 20

.
26)

Req =

i= = A = 0.5 A

27) D

28) KE = hν – ϕ
⇒ hν – ϕ = 1.2 eV ...(1)
ν' = 1.5 ν,
⇒ 1.5 hν – ϕ = 3.6 eV ...(2)
by equation (1) & (2)
ϕ = 3.6 eV

30)

f= = 200 cm ⇒ P = = –0.5D

31)

L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= 1 MSD –

=
= 0.1 × 0.1 cm
= 0.01 cm
Diameter = MSR + LC × VSR
= 1.3 + 0.01 × 2

= 1.3 + 0.02 = 1.32 cm

32)

VA – 5 × 1 + 15 + 5 × 10–3 × 103 = VB
VA – VB = – 15 ⇒ VB – VA = 15V

33) Difference in pressure energy = difference in kinetic energy

0 0
∴ (3p – p ) =
or = 20 m/s or m/s

34) For V1 < 5 Volt, Diode forward Bias, output will be fixed at 5V, for V1 > 5 Volt the diode is
reverse Bias. The output will follow V.

35) Vg = Rg = I
V = Ig (Rg + R)
100 = 1 (1 + R)
So, R = 99 Ω

37)

38) The emf induces when there is change of flux. As in this case there is no change of flux,
hence no emf will be induced in the wire.

40)

vx = ux = 100 m/s
vy = uy + gt = 0 + 10 × 10 = 100 m/s

= tan–1 (I) = 45°

Where, θ = angle of velocity with horizontal, when object hits the ground.

41) ; v2 = u2 – 2gh
Ttop = 3mg and TBotton = 9mg

There fore, the ratio

42)

F ∝ –x represents SHM

43)

220 Hz : 260 Hz = 11 : 13
i.e. the given nearest harmonics are for closed end pipe and these are 11th & 13th harmonics.
Therefore, fundamental frequency,
 or

44)
⇒ PA : PB = 1 : 1

CHEMISTRY

68) NCERT XIIth Pg # 172, Table 7.3

75)

NH3 is more basic than PH3 due to the presence of a lone pair of electrons on the N atom
which are readily available for donation.

76)

As the oxidation state of halogen, i.e. – Cl in this case increase, acidity of oxyacid increases.
HClO : Oxidation state of Cl = +1
HClO2 : Oxidation state of Cl = +3
HClO3 : Oxidation state of Cl = +5
HClO4 : Oxidation state of Cl = +7
Therefore, the correct order of acidity would be
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

77) Statement - I:– is called cyclohexane carbonitrile.

Statement - II : - CN is not a substituent but principal F.G.

79)

81)

82)
 84)

86)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-II, Page No.358

BIOLOGY

92)

NCERT Pg # 26

93)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 33

96)

NCERT Pg. No. 64

99) NCERT Pg. # 89

101) NCERT XI Page # 164

103) Only (B) and (C) are correct. Eukaryotic cilia or flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the
cell membrane. Its basal body is similar to centriole and show 9 + 0 organisation of
microtubules and its core show 9 + 2 arrangement

106)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 169

110)

NCERT XI, English Page No. # 241 (middle para)

111) NCERT XI, Pg. # 248-250

115)
NCERT Page no. 54

120) According to Tilman, species rich biological community show more stability:-
Areas with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
Provide resistance to invasions by alien species.

121)

NCERT Pg. No. 260

123) NCERT Page No. 209

125)

NCERT Pg. No. 137

127)

NCERT Page No. 34

128) NCERT-XII Pg. # 82 (E)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 90 (H)

129) NCERT XI Eng. page # 243 (Middle para)

131) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 93

132) NCERT Page No. 133, 135, 136

134) NCERT Pg. No. 225

136) NCERT XI Page # 147, Table 9.4

144) NCERT - Pg. # 60

147) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 150 (para-8.1)

148) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149 (para-8.1)

149) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 147 (para-8.1)

150) NEERT Page No. # 52

151) NCERT-12, Pg # 143

152) NCERT Page No. # E-140,141, H-153, 154

153) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 145,148,150 (para-8.1,8.2)

154) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 151 (para-8.2.2)

159) NCERT, Pg. # 243

162) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 147,148,149, Para-8.1

164) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150, Para-8.2.1

165) NCERT, Pg. # 55(E)

166) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50, 54

167) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

168) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50,51,52

171)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

175) NCERT-XII Pg # 208, 209

177)

NCERT Pg. No. 209, Allen Module CLASS XII