1079_2011_1_S263

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. PHASE - I Degree Examination - June / July 2011
Time: 3 Hours [Max. Marks: 100]

BIOCHEMISTRY (RS 2 & RS 3)

QP Code: 1079 – PAPER I (Max. Marks: 50)

Your answer shall be specific to question asked. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever
necessary. Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAY 1 X 10 = 10 Marks

1. Discuss the formation and fate of ketone bodies

SHORT ESSAY 5 X 5 = 25 Marks

2. Glycogenolysis
3. Decarboxylation of amino acids
4. Diagnostic uses of enzymes
5. Fatty acid synthase complex
6. Detoxification by oxidation

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 Marks

7. Free radicals and disease
8. Active transport
9. Essential amino acids
10. Any three enzymes unique to gluconeogenesis
11. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation

QP Code: 1080 – PAPER II (Max. Marks: 50)

Use separate answer book

LONG ESSAY 1 X 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is genetic code. Describe the process of eukaryotic translation

SHORT ESSAY 5 X 5 = 25 Marks

2. Nitrogen balance
3. Functions of albumin
4. Biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of vitamin D
5. Functions of iodine
6. Structure of mRNA

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 Marks

7. Types and causes of beri – beri
8. Causes of sickle cell anemia
9. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) and immunoglobulin M (IgM)
10. Describe any three renal function tests
11. What is orotic aciduria? Explain the biochemical basis of manifestation

*****
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, 1079 20 I I 2 S265.doc

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. PHASE - I Degree Examination - Dee 2011 / Jan 2012
Time: 3 Hours [Max. Marks: 100]

BIOCHEMISTRY (RS 2 & RS 3)

QP Code: 1079 - PAPER I (Max. Marks: 50)
Your answer shall be specific to question asked. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAY 1 X 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the reactions of Urea cycle. Discuss the interrelation of urea cycle and citric acid cycle.
What is the reference range for serum urea?

SHORT ESSAY 5 X 5 = 25 Marks

2. Classify transport mechanisms across cell membranes. Define uniport, symport and antiport. Give
an example of each
3. Define primary, secondary, Tertiary and Quarternary structure of protein. What are the noncovalent
forces which preserve the secondary structure
4. Explain the mechanism of action of Allosteric Enzymes? Name the Allosteric Inhibitor and Allosteric
Activator for Phosphofructokinase and Acetyl CoA - Carboxylase
5. Outline the steps for synthesis of cholesterol. Discuss the rate limiting step and regulation of
synthesis of cholesterol
6. Describe the reactions of Citric Acid cycle

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 r-.1arks

7. Oncogenes
8. Thyroid function tests - Routine and anti - TPO
9. Cytochromes
10. GTT Graph for Renal Glycosuria
11. Anti - oxidants

QP Code: 1080 - PAPER II (Max. Marks: 50)

Use separate answer book
LONG ESSAY 1 X 10 = 10 Marks
What is qluconeoqc.x-crs? Describe the pathway in detail and add a note on its significance

SHORT ESSAY 5 X 5 = 25 Marks

2. Briefly outline the steps of Denovo synthesis of purine
3. Hormonal regulation of Fluid and Electrolyte
4. Briefly explain the renal mechanisms involved in maintenance of pH of blood
5. Sources, biochemical role and dietary requirement of vitamin A
6. Protein Calorie malnutrition

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 Marks

7. Operon concept
8. Bence jones proteins
9. What is porphyria? Mention the defect and signs and symptoms of acute intermittent porphyria
10. Enumerate three functions of the liver and three tests with reference ranges to assess them
11. What is a Chimeric DNA molecule. Give the applications of recombinant technology

**** *
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – June 2013
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What are enzymes? Classify enzymes with one example each. Explain any four factors that
affect enzyme activity.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Define gluconeogenesis. How is alanine converted to glucose?
3. What is substrate level phosphorylation? Give two examples with complete reaction.

4. Classify lipoproteins and write the functions of each lipoprotein.

5. What are transamination reactions? Giving two examples discuss the importance of these
reactions.
6. Classify proteins based on their function giving an example for each class.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. High energy compounds
8. Glycogen storage disorders.
9. Enzymes of diagnostic importance
10. FIGLU excretion test
11. Mitochondrial shuttle systems.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – June 2013
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What are sources of C & N atoms of purine? Describe the biosynthesis of purine and add a note
on its regulation.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Name the different types of RNA. Write their salient features. Mention their functions.
3. What are buffers? Discuss any two buffer system of the body.

4. Give the biochemical functions of niacin with examples and manifestation of its deficiency.

5. What is a restriction endonuclease? Explain their role in recombinant DNA technology.

6. Give an account of phosphorus metabolism.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Post translational modifications
8. Base pairing rule and Wobble hypothesis.
9. Biochemical defect in Thalassemia.
10. Cause of Scurvy and beri beri.
11. Creatinine clearance test.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Kamataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination - Dee 2013 ~S-
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079 - Paper I (Max.Marks:SO)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONGESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Mark~
1. Describe the citric acid cycle. How is it regulated? Write about its energetic and amphibolic
nature.

SHORTESSAYS 5x 5 = 25 Mark~
2. Describe the fate and functions of methionine.
3. What are the reactions of HMP pathway? What is the significance of this pathway?

4. Clinical importance of enzymes in assessment of cardiac disease & liver function

5. Outline the de novo synthesis of fatty acid. What are the advantages of having a multifunctional
enzyme complex?
6. How is urea synthesized in the body? Give the reactions. What is the significance of urea cycle?

SHORTANSWERS 5x 3 = 15 Mark~
7. Phospholipids.
8. Coenzymes.
9. Secondary structure of proteins.
10. Prostaglandins.
11. Transamination

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Kamataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination - Dee 2013 <JJ
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 - Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONGESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks
1. Describe the synthesis and breakdown of haemoglobin. Write a note on haemoglobinopathies.

SHORTESSAYS 5x 5 = 25 Marks
2. Explain the structure of tRNA with diagram and mention its function.
3. Define BMR. How do you calculate BMR? Discuss four factors that effect BMR.

4. Describe with an example regulation of gene expression.

5. What do you mean by gene therapy? Discuss its application in medicine.

6. Describe the catabolism of purine nucleotide. Add a note on Gout.

SHORTANSWERS 5x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Anticancer agents
8. Plasmids and oncogenes
9. Obstructive jaundice and its diagnosis
10. Abnormal components of urine
11. Radio isotopes.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – June 2014
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Classify amino acid based on their structure giving examples.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. What is an allosteric enzyme? Describe with two examples.
3. Discuss the Embden-Mayerhof pathway that occurs in RBC. Add a note on its energetics.

4. What are lipoproteins? Name the lipoproteins and give their functions.

5. What is biotransformation? Discuss the different phases of biotransformation with an example.

6. Describe the biochemical changes that occur during starvation.

Or

Components of electron transport chain

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
8. GABA, PUFA and SAM and their importance
9. Importance of iodine
10. Figlu
11. Epimerism and Anomerism.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – June 2014
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1.
Define translation. Describe the steps of translation. Name four inhibitors and
their action

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. How is bilirubin formed and excreted? Name the abnormalities associated with bilirubin
metabolism.
3. Describe the liver function tests based on synthetic and excretory role

4. Write the Henderson-Hasselbach equation and its significance in bicarbonate buffer system.

5. Discuss the biochemical changes during starvation

6.
What are nucleotides? What are the sources of C and N atoms of purine nucleotide?
Mention the metabolic disorders associated with purine metabolism
SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Monoclonal antibodies.
8. PCR and its application.
9. Southern Blot techniques.
10. “Gilberts syndrome”
11. Acute intermittent porphyria.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - Dec-2014
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
Biochemistry – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the mechanisms of Blood Glucose regulation. What are the causes of Hyperglycaemia and
Hypoglycaemia?

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. What are the reactions of -oxidation of Palmitic acid? Give its Energetics.
3. What is the difference between Oxidative and Substrate level Phosphorylation? Give two examples
of Substrate level Phosphorylation.
4. Name three enzymes commonly estimated in Myocardial Infarction. Give its importance and
limitations.
5. Define Fatty Liver. What are the causes of Fatty Liver? Name the Lipotropic factors.
6. Describe the Digestion and Absorption of Proteins.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Mechanism of action of Steroid Hormones
8. Alkaptonuria
9. Eicosanoids – functions
10. Detoxification reaction – Phase I
11. Tertiary and quaternary structure of Proteins
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - Dec-2014
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
Biochemistry – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Define Replication. Describe in detail the process of replication in Eukaryotes.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe the catabolism of Heme in the body adding a note on clinical significance.
3. List the requirements, steps of Polymerase Chain reaction.
4. What is meant by Dietary Fiber? List the role of Dietary Fibers.
5. What are the causes of Respiratory Acidosis? List the primary abnormalities of Respiratory
Acidosis.
6. Name and explain the functions of plasma proteins with clinical significance.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Discuss the features of Lesch Nyhan syndrome.
8. Draw a neat labelled diagram of tRNA.
9. Tumour markers
10. What is meant by Renal Clearance? How is Creatinine Clearance calculated?
11. What are Restriction Enzymes? List three features of Restriction Enzymes.
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – <<>>
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the β-oxidation of fatty acids. Give its energetics and explain the regulation of acetyl
CoA in our body.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. How is glycogen digested and absorbed? Describe glycogenolysis in the liver.
3. How are bile acid synthesized? Mention two functions of bile acids.

4. Describe the conversion of methionine to cysteine. Add a note on homocystinuria.

5. Outline the synthesis of epinephrine and give its functions.

6. Give the coenzyme role of pantothenic acid and its importance

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Denaturation of proteins.
8. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation.
9. Reverse cholesterol transport.
10. Bonds stabilizing protein structure.
11. UDP-Glucuronic acid.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – JULY 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Draw neat diagram of Watson Crick model of DNA, explain its characteristics and the bonds that
play a role in the stability of DNA structure.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe salvage pathway of purine synthesis and its significance.
3. What are porphyrias? Mention four porphyrias with the defective enzyme.

4. Explain the role of kidneys in acid base regulation.

5. What is a balanced diet? Discuss the components of a balanced diet.

6. What are the sources of dietary fibers? Discuss the importance of it in nutrition. Outline the
functions of proteins.
SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Point mutation.
8. Hormones that regulate water balance
9. SDA.
10. Ribosomal RNA.
11. Define anti oxidants and give two examples.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – DECEMBER 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Classify enzymes giving an example with the reaction catalysed.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe the digestion and absorption of lipids.
3. Discuss phenylketonuria under i) enzyme defect. ii) Manifestation. iii) Diagnostic test.

4. What are mucopolysaccharides. Give their importance with examples.

5. Coenzyme form of Vitamin B12 and its biochemical functions

6. Describe one carbon metabolism. What is its significance?

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Compare and contrast Starch and Glycogen.

8. Essential fatty acids

9. Transport across cell membrane.

10. Melatonin.

11. Polyamines.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – DECEMBER 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write structure of DNA. Write a note on replication of DNA

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. What is the difference between endonuclease and restriction endonuclease? Give two examples
for endonuclease.
3. What are oncogenes? Discuss two tumor markers and their clinical application.

4. Diagnostic enzymes used in the assessment of different liver functions.

5. Respiratory alkalosis
6. How is uric acid formed in the body? What is Gout? What is the treatment? Explain the basis for
the treatment.
SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Serum electrophoresis.
8. Types of DNA probes
9. Hb as buffering agent.
10. Vitamin K functions and requirement
11. Point Mutation with 2 examples.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JUNE 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
Biochemistry – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Give an account of Cholesterol biosynthesis with its regulation. Add a note on Atherosclerosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. What are Uncouplers? Mention the Uncouplers of Oxidative Phosphorylation.
3. Describe Tryptophan metabolism.
4. Define Glycosaminoglycans. Describe its biomedical importance.
5. Isoenzymes
6. Describe Glycogenolysis. How it is regulated?

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Biochemical changes in Starvation
8. Competitive inhibition of Enzyme activity
9. Rappaport Leubering cycle
10. Laboratory diagnosis for Hypothyroidism
11. Non-enzymatic Antioxidants
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JUNE 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
Biochemistry – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the replication of DNA in Eukaryotes. Mention its inhibitors.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Recombinant DNA Technology and its applications.
3. What are Buffers? Explain the Plasma Buffers in maintaining Acid Base balance.
4. What is Methemoglobin? How it is formed? Mention the causes for Methemoglobinemia. How it is
detected?
5. What are Restriction Endonucleases? Give any two examples with their biomedical importance.
6. Describe how Bilirubin is metabolised in the body. Write the normal values of Serum bilirubin.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Balanced Diet
8. Reference values
9. Plasma proteins
10. Tests of Renal Distal Tubular function
11. Specific Dynamic Action
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - DEC 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
Biochemistry – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Explain the effect of different factors on the rate of Enzyme Catalyzed reactions.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Define Gluconeogenesis. Explain the key reactions of Gluconeogenesis.
3. What are Essential Fatty Acids? What are the functions of Essential Fatty Acids?
4. Briefly discuss the Transamination reactions with examples.
5. -oxidation of Palmitic acid
6. Explain the synthesis of Catecholamines.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Explain the relationship between Km and Affinity.
8. What is meant by Denaturation of Proteins? What are the causes of Denaturation of Proteins?
9. Galactosemia
10. Discuss the role of Glutathione.
11. List the site inhibitors of Electron Transport Chain.
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – DEC 2016
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Discuss RDA, Functions and Deficiency manifestations of Folic acid. How is it interlinked to
Vitamin B12?

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Post translational modifications
3. Biochemical basis of Gout and its features

4. Recombinant DNA technology

5. Iron absorption and transport

6. Causes and general features of Porphyrias

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Protein Energy Malnutrition
8. Marker enzymes of liver function test
9. Alkalosis
10. Diagnosis importance of serum protein electrophoresis
11. RNA polymerases

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - AUG - 2017
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the metabolism of Phenyl Alanine. Add a note on its inborn errors.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Glycogen storage disorders
3. Define Isoenzymes. Describe its biomedical importance citing any three examples.
4. Describe the Decarboxylation reactions of Amino acids with four examples. Give its significance.
5. Define Detoxification. Give any four reactions of Phase II Detoxification.
6. What is HMP Shunt? Give its significance.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Pellagra
8. Ketosis
9. Components of Electron Transport Chain
10. Hartnup’s disease
11. Lipoproteins
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – AUG - 2017

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)

QP Code: 1080 – PAPER - II (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate answer books for section A and Section B)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Discuss the process of protein biosynthesis. Name three inhibitors of protein biosynthesis.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe heme synthesis and add a note on its regulation.
3. Describe recombinant DNA-technology. Mention its applications.

4. Define biological value of protein. What do you mean by complementary proteins? Give
examples. What is the requirement of protein in diet?
5. Define codon. What are the salient features of a genetic code?
6. List any three trace elements with their biological function.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Mutagens.
8. Okazaki fragments.
9. Provitamins.
10. Cell cycle.
11. Tests to assess renal tubular function

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2017

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY - PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)

QP Code: 1079 (Max.Marks:50)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate answer books for section A and Section B)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the reactions of glycolysis indicating the enzymes. Add a note on net yield of ATP under
aerobic and anaerobic conditions.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe the fate and formation of glycine. List four compounds formed from glycine.

3. What are isoenzymes? Explain the clinical significance giving two examples.

4. What are nitrogen-producing substances in the body? Explain how they are excreted from the
body.
5. Describe the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.
6. Name the ring structure present in cholesterol. Write the key regulatory step in the synthesis of
cholesterol. Name four compounds derived from cholesterol.
SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks
7. Detoxification.

8. Chemiosmotic hypothesis.

9. Von Gierkes disease.

10. Multi enzyme complex.

11. Rappaport-Leubring cycle.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - OCT-2017

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What are the sources, functions, deficiency manifestations and daily-recommended allowance of
Thiamine?

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Define Point Mutation. Explain the effects of Point Mutation.
3. Briefly explain the Lac Operon concept.
4. Discuss the features of Genetic Code.
5. Discuss the regulation of Water by Rennin-Angiotensin system.
6. What is Wilson’s disease? State the cause and the treatment policy.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Hypoalbuminemia
8. What are DNA probes? Mention the types of DNA probes.
9. Describe how Plasma Proteins are separated in the Clinical laboratory.
10. Discuss the nutritional role of Milk and Dairy products.
11. Discuss the role of Carbonic Anhydrase in the Acid Base regulation.
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JULY-2018
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the formation, utilization and clinical significance of ketone bodies.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Amphibolic role of citric acid cycle
3. Pathway for synthesis of creatine, phosphocreatine and creatinine Clinical significance of creatinine
kinase
4. Outline the synthesis of cholesterol. Which is the key regulatory step
5. The IUBMB classification of enzymes with one example for each class
6. Different transport mechanisms across the cell membrane

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Metabolic abnormality and clinical manifestation of galactosemia.
8. Three transmethylation reactions of S-adenosyl methionine
9. Regulation of glycolysis at the phosphofructokinase step
10. Energetics in the oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid to carbon dioxide and water
11. Name three tumour markers and their clinical significance
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JULY-2018

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER - II (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. How is Uric acid formed from purine and add a note on Hyperuricemia.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Structure and function of tRNA
3. Vitamin A deficiency manifestations and it’s RDA
4. BMR
5. Erythrocytes in acid base balance
6. Heme biosynthesis

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Role of selenium
8. Vandenberg test
9. Vectors in recombinant DNA technology
10. Types of immunoglobulin and their function
11. Acute intermittent Porphyria
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - SEP-2018
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe how ammonia is formed and detoxified in the body.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe the various type of enzyme inhibition giving suitable examples.

3. Glycogenolysis

4. Define active transport. Explain the different types of active transport with suitable examples.

5. Significance of Hexose Mono Phosphate shunt pathway.

6. What are Xenobiotics? Give an account of phase two detoxification reactions

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Biologically important compounds formed from glycine

8. Free radical scavenging systems

9. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation

10. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

11. Oncogenes

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - SEP-2018

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Explain the process of translation. Add a note on post translational modifications.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Biological functions and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin C
3. Role of plasma buffers in maintaining blood pH
4. BMR
5. Porphyrias
6. Polymerase Chain Reaction

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Okazaki fragments
8. Gene therapy
9. Dietary fibres
10. Van den Bergh test
11. Acute phase proteins
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JULY-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the Metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine and inborn errors associated with it.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe the steps of beta oxidation of fatty acids from palmitic acid to acetyl CoA.
3. Classify carbohydrates with two examples for each class and subclass.
4. Draw a labeled structure of cell with two organelles. Describe the functions of four organelles.
5. Fatty liver
6. Temperature and pH as factors affecting velocity of enzyme catalysed reactions, with examples

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Fasting and glucose tolerance test criteria for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
8. Specialized products formed from glycine
9. Anapleurotic reactions of citric acid cycle for three intermediates
10. Site specific inhibitors of electron transport chain with one example for each site
11. Phase two reactions of detoxification
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - JULY-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write in detail the process of translation in Eukaryotes. Add a note on post translational
modifications and its inhibitors.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Coenzymes of Cobalamin and its functions
3. Polymerase chain reaction
4. BMR
5. Porphyrias
6. Metabolic acidosis

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Different types of RNA with their function
8. Scurvy
9. Reference values
10. Oncogenes
11. Gout.
*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - OCT-2019
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is Gluconeogenesis? Write the steps involved in formation of Glucose from Alanine? Add a
note on its regulation.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Monosaccharides

3. Products from Arachidonic acid and their function

4. Conjugation in detoxification

5. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP formation

6. Digestion and absorption of lipids

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Functions and markers for Lysosomes

8. Isoelectric pH

9. What are Coenzymes? Mention 3 with their functions.

10. Hyperglycemic hormones and their mode of action

11. Sphingolipids

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)

QP Code: 1080 – PAPER II
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Explain the steps of initiation, elongation and termination of transcription. Add a note on post
transcriptional modification of RNA.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. What is the primary defect in metabolic acidosis? List the causes of metabolic acidosis.
3. Name the different types of hemoglobin variants indicating their defects.

4. Name the protein energy malnutrition disorders. Write important differences between them.

5. Classify liver function tests. Describe the tests based on excretory functions.
6. How are purine nucleotide degraded? Mention the causes of hyperuricemia.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. List the differences between RNA and DNA.
8. Mention the causes of orotic aciduria.
9. Explain the features of genetic code.
10. How is iron absorbed and transported. Add a note on hemochromatosis.
11. Write the causes and biochemical explanations for deficiency manifestations of vitamin B12.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 28-Nov-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Name the aromatic amino acids. Discuss how phenylalanine is catabolised in the body. Add a
note on alkaptonuria.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Metabolism of high-density lipoprotein and its significance

3. Competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition with examples

4. How is galactose metabolized? Add a note on galactosemia.

5. Reactions of citric acid cycle (TCA cycle) and its energetics

6. Formation and utilization of Ketone bodies

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Active transport across membranes

8. Application of radioactive isotopes in medicine

9. Significance of free radicals and antioxidants

10. Carcinogens

11. Enzyme linked immune sorbent assay

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 28-Nov-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is the normal range of blood pH? Discuss in detail the role of kidneys in pH regulation. Add a
note on metabolic acidosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Mutation
3. Polymerase Chain Reaction
4. Biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A
5. Structure and functions of immunoglobulins
6. Heme biosynthesis

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Biological role of copper in the body
8. Clearance tests
9. Protein energy malnutrition
10. Pellagra
11. Structure of tRNA
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 17-Feb-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. Define lipoproteins? Mention the different lipoproteins involved in transport of lipids.
Explain metabolism of dietary lipids under the following heading.
a. Assembly of dietary lipids
b. Transport
c. Utilization in peripheral tissues
d. Metabolic fate [1+1+2+2+2+2]

2.1. A 12 year old girl presented with stiffness and tingling of hands and feet, carpopedal
spasm. On examination trousseau’s sign was positive, chvostek’s sign was positive. On
laboratory evaluation, serum calcium was significantly reduced.
a. Interpret the findings and suggest the probable diagnosis?
b. Mention the reference range and dietary sources of the nutrient.
c. Explain the role of hormones in regulating the blood levels of this nutrient.
d. Mention any 6 biochemical functions of this nutrient (1+2+4+3)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. What are mucopolysaccharides?
a. Name the mucopolysaccharide present in the glomerular basement membrane.
What is its significance?
b. Explain the biochemical basis of heparin as anticoagulant.
c. Write the composition and importance of chondroitin sulphate?
d. Which mucopolysaccharide maintains the transparency of cornea? (1+1+1+1+1)

4. Define oxidative phosphorylation? Explain chemiosmotic hypothesis with a neat labelled

diagram. (1+2+2)

5. A 10 year old boy had difficulty in vision at night. However his vision was quite normal
during daytime except when he entered a dimly lit room. On investigation, his plasma
retinol levels were found to be low.
a. Suggest the probable diagnosis? Which nutrient deficiency causes this disease? (1)
b. Enumerate any four functions of the nutrient. (2)
c. Explain Walds visual cycle (2)

6. What is calorific value? Calculate the energy requirement of a 50 year old moderate
worker. (1+4)

7. Explain the effect of temperature and substrate concentration on enzyme activity with a
graph. (2+3)

8. Explain Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane with a neat labelled diagram.

Page 1 of 1
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
9. A 5 year old girl was brought to the hospital with enlarged abdomen. History revealed that
her childhood development was comparatively slow, frequently hungry, lethargic and
irritable. Clinical examination showed enlarged liver. Biochemical investigations of blood
sample revealed reduced fasting blood glucose levels and elevated levels of serum
lactate, triglyceride and uric acid
a. Suggest the probable diagnosis?
b. Name the enzyme defect?
c. What is the biochemical basis for fasting hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis and
hyperuricemia in this condition? (1+1+3 )

10. What is metabolic alkalosis? Mention four causes of metabolic alkalosis. Explain the
Compensatory mechanism. (1+2+2)

11. Explain the metabolic adaptations occurring in the liver and adipose tissue in a well-fed
state.

12. What are isoenzymes? Write the isoenzymes of CPK with tissue distribution. Which
isoenzyme is cardiac specific and write its pattern of rise in patients with myocardial
infarction. (1+2+1+2)

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Explain the rationale behind using glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) as an indicator of
glycemic control in diabetes mellitus. What is the reference range for HbA1c

14. Deficiency of lung surfactant causes Respiratory Distress Syndrome.

a. What is the composition of lung surfactant? (1)
b. What is the biochemical basis for Respiratory distress syndrome? (1)
c. What is the significance of L/S ratio (1)

15. Explain the structure of collagen. (5)

16. What is the coenzyme form of pyridoxine? Write two pyridoxine dependent reactions.
(1+2)

17. Mutual supplementation of cereals and pulses is beneficial. Justify. (3)

18. Give reason for the following:

a. Requirement of Thiamine is increased in Alcoholics (2)
b. Prescription of folic acid during early pregnancy (1)

19. Name the most effective physiological buffer in the plasma. Explain the role of carbonic
anhydrase in acid base homeostasis. (1+2)

20. Barbiturates should be given with caution in chronic alcoholics. Justify (3)

21. List routinely measured serum electrolytes. Mention their reference range. (1+2)
22. Write the type of inhibitions seen in the following :
a. Inhibition of Vitamin Kby Dicoumarol - an anticoagulant (1)
b. Inhibition of Cyclo-oxygenase by Aspirin. (1)
c. Inhibition of Placental Alkaline Phosphatase by Phenylalanine. (1)

*****

Page 1 of 2
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 19-Feb-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 5 year old boy was brought to a Pediatrician with history of mousy odour of urine and
delay in achieving cognitive functions. On examination, the boy’s skin and hair was fair in
colour with hypopigmentation.
a. What is the probable diagnosis? (1)
b. Name the enzyme defect in the above disorder. (1)
c. Write the pathway for catabolism of the above amino acid (5)
d. Mention the reason for the cause of mousy odour in urine (1)
e. What biochemical tests are done to confirm the diagnosis? (2)

2. Describe the steps of transcription in prokaryotes. Mention the inhibitors of transcription.

Mention the post-transcriptional modifications. (6+1+3)

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. A 8 year old girl from endemic malaria area who had splenomegaly was investigated for
routine hematology, which revealed low hemoglobin of 7 gm%. Peripheral smear revealed
crescent shaped RBCs. She had no history of malaria attack.
a. What could be the molecular defect of hemoglobin in the above case? (2)
b. Name the biochemical investigations which can be done to confirm the diagnosis. (2)
c. Reason out why these patients show resistance to malaria. (1)

4. Interpret the following Liver Function Test report:

Total Direct Alkaline Ehrlich’s test Stool sample

Bilirubin bilirubin phosphatase
7.7 mg/dl 3.6 mg/dl 265 IU/L Negative Clay colour

a. What is the probable diagnosis? (1)

b. Mention the possible causes for the above condition? (2)
c. Substantiate with reasons for increase in conjugated fraction of bilirubin. (2)

5. Explain the steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Mention four applications of PCR.
(3+2)
6. Mention five tumor markers with their diagnostic importance.

7. Explain the disorders associated with purine synthesis and breakdown.

8. Describe the steps involved in heme degradation.

9. List the renal function tests. Explain the principle and application of creatinine clearance.
(2 +3)

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
10 Explain structure and function relationship of protein with an example.

11 Explain the role of antioxidants in protection against reactive oxygen species (ROS).

12 Explain the immunological basis of vaccine development.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Explain the process of activation of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes.

14. Write the process of phase I detoxification with one example.

15. Name the polyamines and mention their clinical significance.

16. State the advantages of automation in clinical biochemistry laboratory.

17. Draw a neat labelled diagram of structure of t-RNA.

18. Mention the sources of carbon and nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine bases.

19. Mention the normal Albumin/Globulin (A/G) ratio. Give two disorders associated with
altered A/G ratio. (1+2)

20. Write the characteristics of genetic code.

21. Compare and contrast between nucleosides and nucleotides.

22. What are molecular scissors? Mention its applications. (1+2)

*****

Page 1 of 2
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 31-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the pathway of glycolysis. How is it regulated? Add a not eon Rappaport – Leubering
cycle

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Formation and utilization of Ketone Bodies

3. Absorption and transport of Iron

4. Biochemical role of Vitamin D

5. Classification of enzymes with examples

6. Compounds derived from Tyrosine

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Functions of phospholipids

8. Inhibitors of electron transport chain

9. Biological active peptides

10. Lysosomes

11. Phase I reactions of biotransformation

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – 31.03.2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

QP Code: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the sources, RDA, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Heme biosynthesis
3. Biochemical changes and causes of metabolic alkalosis

4. Inhibitors of replication
5. Mutations
6. Use of serum enzyme markers and bilirubin as liver function tests

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Basal metabolic rate
8. Reference value of serum albumin, A/G ratio and it clinical significance
9. Acute intermittent porphyrias
10. tRNA
11. Classes of immunoglobulins and their functions

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 22-Jun-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1.1. A 25 years old patient, known case of type 1 diabetes, was brought to casualty in
comatose state. History revealed that he was not taking insulin regularly. Biochemical
analysis of blood and urine showed the following findings.
Blood sugar -510mg/dl
Urine for Rothera’s test and Benedict’s test positive
Blood gas analysis report showed, pH -7.2, Bicarbonate-12mEq/L,
a. Suggest your probable diagnosis
b. Name the compounds which give Rothera’s test positive
c. Explain the principle of Rothera’s test
d. Explain the steps of synthesis utilization of these compounds (1+1+2+6)

2. a. Which Vitamin is called as sunshine vitamin?

b. What is its active form
c. How it is formed?
d. Write the biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of this vitamin.
(1+1+4+4)

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. Define Anaplerosis. Describe any four anaplerotic reactions of citric acid cycle
intermediates. (1+4)

4. Define enzymes. Classify enzymes with one suitable reaction as an example for each class.
(1+4)

5. Draw a neatly labelled diagram of the complexes of the electron transport chain. Name
any two site specific inhibitors of each complex. (3+2)

6. What are dietary fibers? List any four and write their functions. (1+2+2)

7. A 13 year old girl complains of excessive tiredness, poor appetite and tingling sensation in
the limbs. On examination she was pale. Laboratory report revealed Hb-7gm/dl, TIBC is
increased, serum transfer in saturation is reduced and peripheral smear showed microcytic
hypochromic anemia.
a. Suggest the probable diagnosis?
b. Describe the absorption and transport of this nutrient. (1+4)
8. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a cell with the sub cellular organelles. Write the functions
of any four organelles. (3+2)

9. Write the formula to calculate anion gap; Mention its reference range. Discuss the clinical
use of anion gap in classifying metabolic acidosis with two examples for each type.
(1+1+3)
10. Name the urinary buffers. Explain their role in excreting excess acid from the body.
Mention the other renal mechanisms of pH homeostasis.
(1+2+2)
Page 1 of 1
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. What is the end product of aerobic glycolysis? Illustrate the fate of this compound. (1+2)

12. Write the diagnostic significance of each of the following enzymes.

a. Lipase b. Alanine amino transferase c. Creatine kinase (1+1+1)

13. Write the normal biological reference value for serum potassium. Mention any two causes
of hyperkalaemia. (1+2)

14. Name any four proteins of the Extracellular Matrix. Write the Posttranslational modification
of collagen and its importance. (1+2)

15. Name the mucopolysaccharide with anticoagulant activity. Write its composition and its
mechanism of action. (1+1+1)

16. Define nitrogen balance. Give one example each for conditions with positive and negative
nitrogen balance. (1+2)

17. Explain how long chain fatty acids are transported into the mitochondria. (3)

18. Give reason for the following

a. Muscle glycogen doesn’t contribute to blood glucose.
b. Intake of antimalarial drugs like Primaquin in some people causes haemolytic
anemia.
c. Humans cannot synthesize vitamin C (1+1+1)

19. Which vitamin deficiency is likely to develop in patients on Isoniazid, an antitubercular

drug? What is the co enzyme form of this vitamin? Write one biochemical reaction
dependent on this nutrient. (1+1+1)

20. What is the sorbitol pathway? Write the significance of sorbitol pathway. (1+2)

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Which one of the following subcellular organelle is involved in protein sorting
a. Lysosome
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Peroxisomes
d. Ribosames

21 ii) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is due to the defective formation of -

a. Type I Collagen
b. Type II Collagen
c. Type III Collagen
d. Type IV Collagen

21 iii) Serum acid phosphatase enzyme level is increased in

a. Hepatic disease
b. Myocardial Infarction
c. Muscle disease
d. Prostate cancer

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 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
21 iv) All are an example of Monosaccharide EXCEPT
a. Glucose
b. Galctose
c. Trehalose
d. Mannose

21 v) ___________ is the nitrogen containing phospholipid

a. Phosphatidylcholine
b. Phosphatidylinositol
c. Phosphatidylglycerol
d. Diphosphatidylglycerol

22 i) The site of action of Hormone sensitive lipase is in -

a. small intestine
b. capillary walls
c. mouth
d. adipocytes

22 ii) Glucose transporter 4 is the major glucose transporter in

a. RBC
b. neurons
c. adipose tissue
d. intestine

22 iii) ________________ is known to act as a physiological uncoupler

a. Valinomysin
b. Thyroxine
c. Carboxine
d. Oligomycin

22 iv) Which one of the lipoprotein fraction is elevated in hyperlipoproteinemia Type II A

a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. HDL
d. Chylomicrons

22 v) _____________ is the marker of Bone formation.

a. Telopeptides
b. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase
c. Osteocalcin
d. Pyridinium cross links derived from collagen

******

Page 1 of 3
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 24-Jun-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1.1. A 6 year old child was brought to the OPD with complaints of Mental retardation, delayed
developmental milestones, hyperactive and seizures. The child had light coloured hair,
skin and unpleasant mousy body odour. Serum Phenylalanine was 35mg/dl (Normal
1-2mg/dl). Ferric chloride test showed transient blue green colour in urine.
a. Suggest the probable diagnosis?
b. Mention the enzyme defect and write the reaction catalysed by their enzyme
c. Write the biochemical basis for the following clinical findings:
i. Neurological manifestations
ii. Light colouredhair and skin
iii. Mousy body odour
d. Describe the steps for synthesis of any two biological important compounds derived
from tyrosine. (1+2+3+4)
2.1. Explain in detail the reactions of Heme synthesis? Name the regulatory enzyme of this
pathway. How is it regulated? (6+1+3)

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3.2. Classify amino acids based on their nutritional significance giving examples. What are non
protein amino acids? Give one example. (3+1+1)
3.
4.4. Mention any four anticancer drugs and write their mechanism of action. (1+4)
5.
5.6. A 40 year old male came with the complaints of difficulty in breathing, shortness of breath
and tightness of chest. History revealed that he is a chronic smoker for the past
15years.Chest X-ray and CT scan showed changes suggestive of emphysema.
a. Deficiency of which plasma protein causes this condition?
b. Explain the biochemical basis of emphysema in smokers?
c. Name any two serine proteases? (1+2+2)
7.
6. Explain the tests done to assess the renal tubular functions? What is urine osmolality?
Write its reference range? (3+1+1)

7. Name the RNA which carries amino acids to the site of protein biosynthesis. With
illustration explain the structure. (1+4)

8. A four year old child was brought to the hospital with the following complaints
developmental failure, aggressive behavior, joint pain, compulsive urge to bite his lips and
fingers. Mother revealed a family history of similar illness among family members.
a. Suggest the probable diagnosis.
b. Name an appropriate biochemical parameter to diagnose this condition and state its
reference range in males and females
c. Name the enzyme deficiency and the reaction catalysed by the enzyme (1+2+2)

9. Explain Lac operon concept with a diagrammatic representation.

10. Classify antioxidants giving two examples for each class.

Page 1 of 1
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Telomerases are involved in aging process. Justify and give its clinical significance. (1+2)

12. What is Southern blot technique? Write two applications of this technique. (1+2)

13. Mention any three salient features of DNA replication. (3)

14. What is detoxification? Give two examples of conjugation phase reactions? (1+2)

15. What are DNA probes? Write their applications. (1+2)

16. What are oncosuppressor genes? Name any two with their mechanism of action. (1+2)

17. Give reason for the following:

a. Restriction enzymes are termed as molecular scissors
b. Changing color of the bruise
c. Hemolytic jaundice is also called a acholuric jaundice (1+1+1)

18. Illustrate the sources of carbon and nitrogen atoms in Purine ring. (3)

19. Write the biochemical findings in the serum and urine in obstructive jaundice. (3)

20. Give reason for the following:

a. Pellagra like symptoms are seen in Hartnups disease
b. Glycine does not exhibit optical activity
c. Proline is an α- helix breaker (1+1+1)

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) The protein part present in nucleoprotein is
a. Globin
b. Opsin
c. Histones
d. Apoferritin

21 ii) The enzyme defect in Acute intermittent porphyria

a. PBG- deaminase
b. UPG-cosynthase
c. Ferrochelatase
d. UPG-decarboxylase

21 iii) The following compounds are biosynthesized by Glycine EXCEPT

a. Creatinine
b. Heme
c. Melatonin
d. Purine nucleotide

21 iv) 5’-Nucleotidase is more specific for

a. Myocardial Infarction
b. Prostate cancer
c. Obstructive liver disease
d. Wilson’s disease

Page 1 of 2
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
21 v) Appearance Black colour urine is seen in
a. Porphyria
b. Alkaptonuria
c. Jaundice
d. Urinary tract infection

22 i) Which of the following has not been treated by gene therapy?

a. Hemophilia
b. Severe combined immunodeficiency
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Glucose – 6- phosphatase deficiency

22 ii) Helicase enzyme in DNA replication -

a. Unwinds the DNA
b. releases the supercoils
c. breaks the strands
d. seals the strands

22 iii) Western blot technique is used for the

a. Detection of specific DNA segment
b. Detection of specific gene expression
c. Identification of a specific protein
d. Location of a gene on a specific chromosome

22 iv) Urine preservatives are used for all the following purposes EXCEPT
a. Reduce bacterial action
b. Minimize chemical decomposition
c. Increase pH
d. Decrease atmospheric oxidation of unstable compounds

22 v) Serum Alpha Fetoprotein level is increased in

a. Multiple Myeloma
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Hepatoma
d. Lung cancer

******

Page 1 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 30-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is the normal serum Cholesterol level? Explain the major steps of Cholesterol
biosynthesis. Add a note on Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Glycogenolysis and its regulation

3. Biochemical role of Vitamin B6

4. Diagnostic and therapeutic uses of enzymes

5. Factors regulating calcium Homoeostasis

6. Metabolism of Glycine and name the compound derived from it

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Endoplasmic reticulum

8. Glucose – Alanine cycle

9. Maple syrup urine disease

10. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation

11. Cytochrome P450

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 30-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is the normal blood pH? Discuss the various mechanisms by which the blood pH is
maintained.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Replication of DNA.
3. Regulation of blood calcium.
4. Biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Thiamine.
5. Genetic code.
6. Heme biosynthesis.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. t-RNA.
8. Detoxification by conjugation
9. Reverse transcriptase
10. Fluorosis
11. Avidin.
*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 05-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 8 year old boy was brought to orthopaedic OPD with a complaint of abnormal gait for the
past 3 months. Clinical examination showed tenderness over Tibia.
Laboratory investigation data revealed

Investigation Patient report Normal range

Serum Calcium 8.2 mg/dl 8.6-10.5 mg/dl
Serum Phosphate 2.3 mg/dl 2.3-4.5 mg/dl
Serum Vitamin D 3 ng/ml 8-55 ng/ml
a. Name the vitamin D deficiency disorder in the above case
b. What is the RDA of vitamin D?
c. Explain the formation of calcitriol
d. Describe the role of calcitriol in calcium homeostasis

2. Explain glycogenolysis. Write the difference between Liver and Muscle glycogenolysis.
Mention the role of insulin and glucagon in glycogenolysis.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A pregnant lady who visited primary health care centre for antenatal check-up with
complaints of tiredness and easy fatigability was found to be anemic. Peripheral smear
showed microcytic hypochromic anemia.
a. Name the mineral associated with the above disorder
b. Write the dietary sources and RDA of the above mineral
c. Write the biochemical functions of above mineral.

4. A 60 year old obese man, who underwent master health check-up was found to have mild
hepatomegaly with fatty liver changes.
a. What is fatty liver?
b. Enumerate the causes of fatty liver
c. Explain the role of lipotropic factors in preventing fatty liver.

5. Mention blood buffers. Explain the role of Lungs in acid base balance.
6. List five functions of phosphorous.
7. Describe steps in Ketogenesis. Mention two conditions associated with Ketonuria.
8. What is chemiosmotic hypothesis? Explain how proton gradient is utilized for ATP
synthesis.

9. Describe competitive inhibition of enzymes with two examples.

10. Define Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). Mention four factors affecting BMR.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Mention three functions of cholesterol.

12. What is HbA1C (Glycated Hemoglobin)? Mention its significance.

13. What are therapeutic enzymes? Give two examples with their therapeutic application.
14. What is facilitated diffusion? Give one example.
15. What is the role of Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH) in water balance? Name the disorder
associated with its deficiency.
16. What is Alkali reserve? List two causes of metabolic acidosis.
17. What is Marasmus? List two features of Marasmus.
18. Define Km. What is the significance of Km?
19. Name three mucopolysaccharides and write their functions.
20. Troponins are more specific cardiac marker compared to creatine kinase – Justify.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Galactosyl transferase is marker for
A. Cell membrane
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Golgi complex

21 ii) Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to defect in:

A. Actin
B. Collagen
C. Keratin
D. Crystallin

21 iii) Bile acid is derived from

A. Cholesterol
B. Glycerol
C. Fatty acids
D. Billirubin

21 iv) Inulin is a polymer of

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Mannose
D. Galactose

21 v) Which of the following mineral is best known for antioxidant role?

A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Phosphorus
D. Selenium

22 i) Positive nitrogen balance is seen in

A. Pregnancy

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
B. Malignancies
C. Malnutrition
D. Chronic illness

22 ii) Enzymes synthesized in inactive form is called as

A. Coenzymes
B. Apoenzymes
C. Proenzymes
D. Lysozymes

22 iii) Phospholipid deficiency in respiratory distress syndrome is

A. Sphingomyelin
B. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
C. Plasmalogen
D. Lecithin

22 iv) Administration of loop diuretics leads to

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

22 v) Hyponatremia is seen in
A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing’s disease
C. Primary hyperaldosteronism
D. Steroid therapy

******

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 08-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A child of two years presented with convulsions. He was taking normal feeds. But his
mother observed mousy odour of child’s urine. Urine ferric chloride test was positive.
Plasma phenylalanine was found to be elevated. He was diagnosed to have phenyl
Ketonuria
a) What is the biochemical defect in phenyl Ketonuria?
b) Describe the catabolism of phenylalanine
c) Give the biochemical reasons for mousy odour in this case

2. Describe protein biosynthesis in prokaryotes. Mention three inhibitors of protein

biosynthesis

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 45 year old man presented with severe back pain and weakness. He had lost 7 kgs in last
three months. He complained of loss of appetite and fatigue. X-ray showed punched out
lesions. Urine is positive for Bence Jones protein
a) Name the disorder in above case
b) What are Bence Jones proteins?
c) What is the electrophoretic pattern that is observed in this case?
1.
4. A known case of diabetes and hypertension on irregular treatment presented with swelling
of both lower limbs and puffiness of face. He was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease
(CKD)
a) Mention two biochemical parameters altered in CKD.
b) Explain the test to assess glomerular function of Kidney.

5.2. What is Porphyria? Write the types of porphyria. Mention enzyme defect and clinical features
of acute intermittent porphyria
3.
6. How are free radicals generated? Describe the free radical scavenging systems
7. List the hormones which function with cAMP as second messenger. Describe the mechanism
of action of steroid hormones

8. Enumerate the reactions of purine salvage pathway. Name the disorders that is associated
with this pathway and write its clinical features

9. What are restriction endonucleases? Give two examples. Explain their role in Recombinant
DNA technology

10. What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? Explain the steps in PCR. Write two applications
of PCR

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. List out the assays done for evaluation of thyroid function. Enumerate the laboratory
findings in hyperthyroidism

12. What is detoxification? Give two examples of detoxification by oxidative reaction

13. What are reference intervals? List out two pre analytical variables

14. What is Southern Blotting Technique? Mention its applications

15. Name three nucleotides and write their biological importance

16. What is innate and adaptive immune response?

17. Give three examples of tumour markers and write their clinical importance

18. Write the serum and urinary biochemical findings in hemolytic jaundice

19. What are oncogenes? What are the factors that activate oncogenes?

20. What are essential amino acids? Give examples

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Heme is converted to bilirubin in
A. Mitochondria
B. Microsomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Plasma membrane

21 ii) Immunoglobulin which crosses placenta is

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

21 iii) The amino acid which do not allow formation of alpha helix is
A. Glutamate
B. Proline
C. Tyrosine
D. Histidine

21 iv) Histones are rich in

A. Glutamic acid and aspartic acid
B. Glycine and serine
C. Methionine and cysteine
D. Arginine and Histidine

21 v) Which of the following is a termination codon?

A. AAG
B. CAG
C. CAA
D. UAG

22 i) In which of the following phase of cell cycle DNA replication takes place
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
D. M

22 ii) Which of the following antioxidant enzyme is selenium dependent?

A. Glutathione peroxidase
B. Glutathione reductase
C. NADPH oxidase
D. Catalase

22 iii) Which of the following compound used in the treatment of gout is a competitive inhibitor
of xanthine oxidase?
A. Probenicid
B. Allopurinol
C. Colchicine
D. Acetaminophen

22 iv) Normal serum level of albumin is

A. 1.5 to 2.5 gm/dl
B. 3.5 to 5 gm /dl
C. 6 to 7.5 gm/dl
D. 9 to 11 gm/dl

22 v) End product of catabolism of protein is?

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Creatinine
D. Orotic acid

******

Page 3 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 05-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Explain in detail the beta oxidation of palmitic acid. Add a note on its energetics.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Classification of enzymes with examples.

3. Digestion and absorption of carbohydrates

4. Metabolic functions of glycine

5. Hormonal regulation of blood glucose

6. Urea cycle

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Detoxification by conjugation

8. Specificity of enzymes

9. Structure and functions of mitochondria

10. Tumour markers

11. Fatty liver

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – 05-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write in detail about heme synthesis and its regulation. Add a note on Acute intermittent
porphyria

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Purine catabolism and its disorder
3. Role of protein buffers in acid-based balance
4. Biological value of proteins
5. Antioxidants
6. Glomerular function test

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Gene therapy
8. Specific Dynamic Action (SDA)
9. Anion gap
10. Messenger RNA
11. Posttranscriptional modifications

*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 05-May-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 10-year-old boy with poor nutritional intake was brought to the ophthalmology OPD with
history of difficulty in vision in dim light. Incidentally, on examination, he had few lesions
on skin. A provisional diagnosis of vitamin deficiency was made.
(a) Name the fat-soluble vitamin deficiency associated with the above case.
(b) Write the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for above vitamin.
(c) Explain Wald’s visual cycle.
(d) Write any two other functions of this vitamin.

2. Write the steps in beta-oxidation of palmitic acid. Explain the energetics of the pathway.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A known diabetic patient on regular insulin treatment was brought to the casualty in a
semi-comatose state. He had history of vomiting and diarrhea for the past two days and
his food intake was reduced. His random blood sugar (RBS) on admission was 45mg/dl.
(a) Interpret the glucose value in the above case.
(b) Explain hormonal regulation of blood glucose level.
4. An elderly patient with history of chronic smoking presented to medicine OPD with history
of difficulty in breathing. Following respiratory system examination, physician made a
diagnosis of chronic obstructive airway disease and his arterial blood was sent for arterial
blood gas (ABG) analysis.
(a) Write the probable acid-base disorder in the above condition.
(b) Mention the compensatory mechanisms for the above acid-base disorder.
(c) Write the biological reference interval for:
(i) Blood pH (ii) Blood pCO2 (iii) Plasma bicarbonate
5. Classify enzymes and give one example to each class.

6. Explain the components of electron transport chain.

7. Mention the significance of gluconeogenesis. Write the reactions catalyzed by the key
enzymes of gluconeogenesis.
8. Mention the biological reference interval for serum sodium. Write any three biochemical
functions of sodium. List two causes for hyponatremia.
9. Explain five factors affecting basal metabolic rate (BMR).

10. Explain the regulation of serum calcium level.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Define respiratory quotient (RQ). Mention the RQ for carbohydrate. Name one condition
responsible for decrease in RQ.
12. Explain uniport, symport and antiport transport system with one example for each.

13. Name any three mucopolysaccharides and write their biological importance.

14. Name three therapeutic enzymes and write their uses.

15. Name essential fatty acids. Mention two functions of essential fatty acids.

16. Mention the metabolic pathways in Liver that are activated during starvation.

17. Write the biochemical functions of iodine. Mention the disorder associated with iodine
deficiency.
18. What is anion gap? Write two conditions associated with high anion gap acidosis.

19. Name three enzyme profile in liver diseases and mention their diagnostic significance.

20. What is leptin? Mention its biological importance.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Which one of the following enzymes is present in lysosomes?
A. Phospholipase
B. Aldolase
C. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
D. HMG CoA reductase

21 ii) Which one of the following is a noncompetitive inhibitor?

A. Allopurinol
B. Iodoacetate
C. Methotrexate
D. Lovastatin

21 iii) Which one of the following is a dietary fibre?

A. Starch
B. Heparin
C. Pectin
D. Dextrin

21 iv) Which one of the following is involved in the formation of liposomes?

A. Lipoproteins
B. Triglyceride
C. Free cholesterol
D. Phospholipids

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
21 v) Which one of the following is an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase?
A. Fructose-6-phosphate
B. Fructose-2, 6 bisphosphate
C. AMP
D. Citrate

22 i) Lipoprotein lipase is activated by

A. Apo A-I
B. Apo B 100
C. Apo E
D. Apo C – II

22 ii) Which one of the following is a feature of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A. Loose skin
B. Poor wound healing
C. Ectopia lentis
D. Brittle bones

22 iii) The daily requirement of vitamin D in adult males is

A. 10 microgram
B. 20 microgram
C. 30 microgram
D. 40 microgram

22 iv) Which one of the following mineral is present in Vitamin B12?

A. Calcium
B. Cobalt
C. Chromium
D. Copper

22 v) An example for cardiac glycoside is

A. Digitalis
B. Sorbitol
C. Glucuronic acid
D. Mannosamine

******

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-May-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 50 year old obese man with history of alcoholism presented with acute pain and swelling
of the great toe. His laboratory investigations revealed serum uric acid level of 10mg/dl. A
diagnosis of gout was made and further evaluation was suggested.
(a) Explain the steps in the formation of uric acid.
(b) Mention the causes of primary and secondary gout.
(c) Write the basis for treatment of gout with the drug allopurinol.

2. Enumerate the steps in recombinant DNA technology. Explain the role of vectors used in
recombinant DNA technology. Write two medical applications of recombinant DNA
technology.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 60 year old man who is a known case of diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented
with passing frothy urine, nausea and hiccups. Following biochemical investigations, blood
urea and serum creatinine were elevated and a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD)
was made.
(a) Where is urea formed in the body?
(b) Mention the biological reference interval for blood urea.
(c) Mention one pre-renal, renal and post-renal cause for increase in blood urea level.

4.1. A young patient who presented with fever, nausea, vomiting and yellowish discoloration of
eyes was diagnosed to be suffering from viral hepatitis.
(a) Write the serum and urine biochemical findings in a case of hepatic jaundice.
(b) Write the type van den Bergh reaction seen in above case.

5.2. Name five tumor markers and write their diagnostic significance.

6. Explain the role of antioxidants in prevention of free radical injury.

7. Explain the steps of DNA replication in prokaryotes.

8. Explain the structure and functions of DNA.

9. Name five plasma proteins and write their functions.

10. Enumerate the biologically important compounds formed from glycine. Write their
significance.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Name the essential amino acids and write their significance.
12. Name three immunoglobulins and write their functions.
13. Name three variables leading to pre-analytical errors in clinical laboratory.
14. What is Western blotting technique? Write its applications.

15. Write three features of genetic code.

16. Enumerate three Transmethylation reactions.

17. Enumerate three examples for post-translational modification of proteins.
18. What are porphyrias? Write the enzyme defects of any two porphyrias.
19. Write the mechanism of action of steroid hormones.
20. Name three compounds formed from tryptophan and write their significance.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Which one of the following is a peptide?
A. Collagen
B. Hemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Inulin
21 ii) N- Acetyl glutamate (NAG) regulates which of the following urea cycle enzymes?
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
B. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
C. Argininosuccinate synthetase
D. Arginase

21 iii) Bence Jones protein is seen in

A. Hepatoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Colon cancer

21 iv) Which one of the plasma protein is decreased in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
A. Albumin
B. Immunoglobulin
C. Alpha2 macroglobulin
D. Beta globulins

21 v) In which hemoglobin iron is present in ferric state?

A. Sulfhemoglobin
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Sickle cell hemoglobin

22 i) The conjugating agent for bilirubin is

A. Glycine
B. Cysteine
C. Glutamine
D. Glucuronate

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22 ii) During DNA replication, supercoiling is removed by
A. Polymerase
B. Topoisomerase
C. Helicase
D. Ligase

22 iii) Which of the following enzyme is elevated in obstructive jaundice?

A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Neuron specific enolase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Lipoprotein lipase

22 iv) Sugar present in RNA is

A. Ribose
B. Ribulose
C. Deoxyribose
D. Xylose

22 v) The closeness of the result of a quality control to its true value is termed as
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Accuracy
D. Precision

******

Page 3 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 05-May-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write the steps of β-oxidation of palmitic acid. Add a note on energetics.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Formation and utilization of ketone bodes.

3. Urea cycle.

4. Homopolysaccharides.

5. Substrate level Phosphorylation

6. Isoenzymes

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Biochemical function and markers of Mitochondria

8. Lactose intolerance.

9. Anapleurotic reactions

10. Markers of carcinoma prostate

11. Essential fatty acids.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 05-May-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

QP Code: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is normal pH of blood? Discuss in detail role of kidneys in pH regulation. Add a note
on metabolic acidosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Biochemical functions, recommended dietary allowance and the deficiency of thiamine
3. Mutation

4. Dietary fibre.

5. Salvage pathway of purine nucleotides with the clinical disorders associated with it.

6. Outline the degradation of heme and excretion of products of degradation

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Bile salts and bile pigments in the diagnosis of various types jaundice
8. Oncogene.
9. Orotic aciduria
10. Functions of albumin.
11. Clearance test.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – 08-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Describe the β-oxidation of saturated fatty acids. Explain the role of co-enzymes and write the
energetics of complete oxidation of Palmitic acid.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Write the role of kidney in maintaining acid base balance.

3. Describe the composition and importance of Glycosaminoglycans.

4. Urea cycle.

5. What is the normal cholesterol level? Name the products synthesis from cholesterol. Mention the
pathological causes of hypercholesterolemia.

6. What is oxidative phosphorylation? Explain the Chemi-osmotic theory.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Explain the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.

8. What is glycated hemoglobin? Mention its normal level. What is its significance?

9. What are coenzymes? Give examples. Write their importance.

10. What are uncouplers? Give examples.

11. Lactose intolerance.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 08-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write in detail the sources requirement, Biochemical functions of and deficiency manifestations of
Vitamin –D.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Glomerular function tests
3. Role of Lungs in acid base balance
4. Different types of Jaundice with their biochemical abnormalities and tests to evaluate them
5. BMR
6. Dietary fibers

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Wilson’s disease
8. Anti diuretic hormone
9. Oncogene.
10. Sickle cell anaemia
11. Detoxification by conjugation
*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 14-Feb-2023
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A medical student who had an exam on the next day did not eat anything the previous
night. Next day morning, he had severe headache and giddiness before exam. His fasting
plasma glucose was 48 mg/dl.
a) Interpret the plasma glucose value
b) Name the metabolic pathways which maintain blood glucose in fasting state
c) Explain the metabolic pathway that synthesise glucose from pyruvate

2. Mention the active form of Vitamin D. Describe the synthesis, biochemical functions and
RDA of Vitamin D.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 48-year-old man diagnosed with myocardial infarction (MI) had an altered lipid profile with
elevated total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol.
a) Write the biological reference interval of LDL cholesterol.
b) Explain the formation of LDL cholesterol.
c) Reason out why LDL cholesterol is atherogenic.
4. A 70-year-old man suffered an attack of pneumonia. He found it difficult to breathe and was
losing consciousness. His Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) report was as follows: pH=7.1, pCO2 =
52 mmHg, Plasma Bicarbonate (HCO3-) = 25 meq/L.
a) Interpret the ABG report.
b) Write the compensatory mechanism in the above acid-base disorder.
5. Mention biological reference interval for serum calcium. Describe any four functions of
calcium.
6. Define Isoenzymes. Mention the Isoenzymes of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) and write their
significance.
7. Define Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). Enumerate the factors affecting BMR.
8. Explain the metabolic adaptations in well-fed state.
9. Explain competitive inhibition of enzymes with two examples.
10. Explain the functions of peroxisomes and describe their role in fatty acid oxidation.
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. What is fatty liver? Mention any two lipotropic factors.
12. What is hyponatremia? List two causes of hyponatremia.
13. Component of oral rehydration solution (ORS) has sodium chloride and glucose. What is
purpose of adding glucose in ORS?
14. Mention any three site specific inhibitors of electron transport chain.
15. Name the enzyme defect in von Gierke’s disease. Write the biochemical alterations in von
Gierke’s disease.
16. What is the cause of pellagra? Write the clinical manifestations of pellagra.
17. A diabetic patient was advised not to take polished rice but to take brown rice. Explain the
reasons for the same.
18. Mention three homopolysccharides of glucose and write their biological importance.
19. Write the biochemical defect in Ehler Danlos Syndrome and Osteogenesis imperfecta.
20. Write the biochemical cause of respiratory distress syndrome in premature babies.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Hexokinase belongs to which class of enzymes?
A. Oxidoreductase
B. Transferase
C. Hydrolase
D. Lyase

21 ii) Which of the following vitamins is used in the electron transport chain?
A. Riboflavin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Pyridoxine
D. Biotin

21 iii) Glucose and fructose are monosaccharide units of

A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Sucrose
D. Isomaltose

21 iv) The sugar component of cerebroside is

A. Galactose
B. Lactose
C. Fructose
D. Ribose

21 v) The normal Anion gap is

A. 4-8 mmol/L
B. 10-14 mmol/L
C. 16-20 mmol/L
D. 22-26 mmol/L

22 i) Limiting amino acid in the protein gelatin is

A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Methionine

22 ii) Which coenzyme is responsible for carboxylation reactions

A. Biocytin
B. FAD
C. NAD
D. TPP

22 iii) Hormone insulin activates which of the following pathway

A. Glycogenolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. Lipolysis

22 iv) In Wilson’s disease copper accumulates in all of the following tissues EXCEPT
A. Eyes
B. Spleen
C. Brain
D. Liver

22 v) The marker enzyme for microsomes is

A. ATP synthase

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
B. Cathepsin
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

*****

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 16-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 10 year old boy was brought to the hospital for self-multilating behaviour and delayed
development. His serum uric acid level was 15 mg/dl. A provisional diagnosis of Lesch Nyhan
syndrome was made.
a) Write the biological reference interval for serum uric acid level.
b) Name the enzyme defect and the pathway affected in the above disorder.
c) Which tissues are dependent on this pathway?
d) Enumerate the other causes of hyperuricemia
e) What is the role of allopurinol in the treatment of hyperuricemia?

2. Describe the steps of DNA replication in prokaryotes. List the difference between
prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3.a) A 15 year old tribal boy was admitted with complaints of fatigue, recurrent fever and pain in
arms and legs. His peripheral blood smear shows sickled erythrocytes and a hemoglobin
concentration of 6 gm%.
a) Name the molecular defect in this disorder.
b) Explain the mechanism of sickling.
c) What is the cause of anemia in this condition?

4.d) An intravenous drug user was found to have developed jaundice. Laboratory investigations
revealed hepatitis B infection. His total serum bilirubin was 10.2 mg/dl.
a) What type of jaundice is seen in above case?
b) Explain van den Bergh test and write its interpretation in the above case.

5. Describe the steps in this polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Name the type of PCR used in
the diagnosis of Covid 19.

6. Name any three products derived from tyrosine. Describe the metabolic pathway leading to
the formation of any one of the product from tyrosine.
7. Draw the structure of immunoglobulin G and label it. Enumerate its functions.

8. What is lipid peroxidation? Explain the role of antioxidants in scavenging reactive oxygen
species.

9. Write the steps in the formation of creatine and glutathione from glycine.

10. Describe the glomerular function tests.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Name three tumor markers and mention their significance.

12. What is the enzyme defect in maple syrup urine disease? What are its characteristic
features?

13. List the adrenal function tests. Mention one disorder associated with abnormal adrenal
function.

14. Enlist three biologically important peptides and write their functions.

15. What are xenobiotics? Write two detoxification reactions by conjugation.

16. Name three biologically important nucleotides and mention their importance.

17. Mention three advantages of automation in clinical biochemistry laboratory.

18. Enlist three post-translational modifications with suitable examples.

19. Mention normal albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio. Write two conditions where A/G ratio is
altered.

20. What is restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP). Mention two clinical applications
of RFLP.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) All the following are glucogenic amino acids EXCEPT
A. Valine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Glycine
D. Leucine

21 ii) N3 of purine ring is donated by

A. Asparate
B. Glycine
C. Glutamine
D. Ammonia

21 iii) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
A. Telomerase
B. RNA polymerase I
C. DNA polymerase
D. Helicase

21 iv) In which of the following conditions is serum direct bilirubin elevated

A. Physiological jaundice in the newborn
B. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
C. Gilbert’s syndrome
D. Gall stones

21 v) Enzyme defect in acute intermittent porphyria is

A. ALA synthase
B. ALA dehydratase
C. PBG deaminase
D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22 i) Closeness of a result to the true value is termed as
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity

22 ii) Reference interval for pH of urine is

A. 3.5 to 4.5
B. 5.5 to 6.5
C. 7.5 to 8.5
D. 9.5 to 10.5

22 iii) Southern blotting technique is used for detection of

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Protein
D. Lipoprotein

22 iv) Which of the following is an example for acute phase protein?

A. Prothrombin
B. C-reactive protein
C. Lipoprotein A
D. Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)

22 v) Epidermal growth factor (EGF) is produced by

A. Platelets
B. Monocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Fibroblasts

******

Page 3 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 14-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

QP Code: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Define Gluconeogenesis. Name the substrates required for Gluconeogenesis and trace the
pathway for formation of glucose from lactate. Add a note on regulation of
Gluconeogenesis.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Inborn errors associated with phenyl alanine and Tyrosine metabolism.

3. Classify enzymes with examples.

4. Urea cycle.

5. Name the ketone bodies. Describe the formation and utilization of ketone bodies.

6. Biomarkers for early detection of acute myocardial infarction.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Enzymes of therapeutic importance.

8. HDL metabolism.

9. Primary structure of proteins.

10. Name three tumour markers and their clinical significance.

11. Antioxidants.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 14-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Define transcription. Explain in detail the transcription in Prokaryotes. Add a note on a note on
post transcriptional modifications.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Dietary Fibers
3. Salvage pathway of purines
4. List the body fluid buffers and discuss their role in regulation of blood pH.
5. Immunoglobulins.
6. Lac operon concept

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Oncogenes.
8. Lesch Nyhan syndrome.
9. Okazaki fragments
10. Creatinine clearance
11. Acute intermittent porphyria

*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 04-May-2023
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 10-year-old boy was admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of malaria. He was started
on primaquine and antipyretics. Within one day he was found to have developed
hemolytic anemia.
a) Name the pathway affected in the above case and write the enzyme defect in the
pathway.
b) Name the compounds formed in this pathway and write their importance.
c) What is the relation between primaquine and hemolytic anemia?
2. Describe cholesterol biosynthesis up to the formation of mevalonate. Explain the
regulation of cholesterol biosynthesis. Mention two causes of Hypercholesterolemia.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. An 8-year-old girl presented with difficulty in vision during night time. Vitamin A
deficiency was suspected following examination.
a) Write the provitamin form of Vitamin A
b) Explain Wald’s visual cycle
4. A 20-year-old pregnant woman presented with history of fatigue. Her peripheral blood
smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia.
a) Which mineral deficiency leads to this type of anemia?
b) Explain the absorption, transport and storage of this mineral.
5. Describe the role of dietary fibre in nutrition.
6. State chemiosmotic theory and illustrate the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
7. Define metabolic acidosis. Enumerate the causes for metabolic acidosis. Write the
compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis.
8. Describe the role of any five plasma enzymes in the diagnosis of disease.
9. Explain niacin under the following headings:
a) Dietary sources
b) Co-enzyme forms
c) Deficiency manifestation
10. Explain the metabolic changes in starvation.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Write the composition and functions of collagen.
12. Enumerate the biomarkers used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which
biomarker is considered specific for MI and why?
13. Name three functions of the vitamin whose deficiency causes scurvy.
14. Name three mucopolysaccharides and write their functions.
15. Name three phospholipids and write their biological importance.
16. Mention two causes of hypokalemia. Write biological reference interval for serum potassium.
17. Define Km. Explain its importance with an example.
18. Mention the role of carnitine in β-oxidation.
19. Write biological importance of selenium.
20. Define active transport. Give two examples for active transport.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) All the following lipids are present in the cell membranes EXCEPT
A. Lecithin
B. Cholesterol
C. Sphingomyelin
D. Triacylglycerol

21 ii) Which of the following derivative of monosaccharide is used to reduce raised intra-cranial
pressure?
A. Sorbitol
B. Dulcitol
C. Ribitol
D. Mannitol
21 iii) Enzymes which are synthesized in an inactive form are called
A. Apoenzyme
B. Proenzymes
C. Coenzyme
D. Isozyme

21 iv) The product of glycolysis in erythrocytes is

A. Lactate
B. Pyruvate
C. Urate
D. Acetate

21 v) The vitamin that acts as a coenzyme for transketolase activity is

A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Biotin
D. Folate
22 i) Normal biological reference interval for serum sodium is
A. 96-105 meq/L
B. 116-135 meq/L
C. 136-145 meq/L
D. 156-165 meq/L
22 ii) Number of calories given by one gram of carbohydrate is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
22 iii) Nitrogenous base ethanolamine is present in
A. Phosphatidyl inositol
B. Plasmalogen
C. Cephalin
D. Lecithin
22 iv) The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in bicarbonate buffer system is
A. 20:1
B. 10:1
C. 4:1
D. 1:1

22 v) Which of the following does not increase the absorption of calcium?

A. Vitamin D
B. Absence of bile salts
C. Basic amino acids
D. Acidity

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 06-May-2023
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A patient who was suffering with pain abdomen and passing clay coloured stools came to
medical OPD for treatment. On examination there was yellowish discoloration of sclera.
Following investigations a diagnosis of obstructive jaundice was made.
a. Explain the formation and fate of bilirubin
b. Name two causes of obstructive jaundice
c. Write the serum and urinary findings in obstructive jaundice

2. What is semiconservative replication? In which phase of cell cycle replication takes place?
Describe replication in prokaryotes with neatly labelled diagram.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 7 year old boy presented with oedema and passing frothy urine. Investigation revealed
severe proteinuria.
a. What is the normal plasma level of total proteins and albumin?
b. Name two other disorders associated with hypoalbuminemia
c. Mention the functions of albumin.

4. A child was rushed to the emergency ward with altered sensorium. On examination, the
child was found to be in semi comatose stage. Investigations revealed high blood ammonia
levels and the case was suspected to be urea cycle disorder.
a. Explain urea cycle
b. Mention any two disorders of urea cycle with its enzyme defect
5. Explain tertiary structure of proteins. List the forces maintaining tertiary structure.
6. What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? Describe the steps involved in PCR.
7. Enumerate five transmethylation reactions and mention their significance.
8. Describe the structure of immunoglobulins. Name any two classes of immunoglobulins and
write their functions.
9. What are nucleotides? Name any four biological important nucleotides and write their
importance.
10. List various reactive oxygen species. Describe the damages produced by reactive oxygen
species.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Name blotting techniques. Write the applications of each technique.
12. Draw purine ring and indicate the sources of carbon and nitrogen in the purine ring.
13. What are proto-oncogenes? How are they activated?
14. Mention the vectors used in Recombinant DNA technology and write their importance.
15. Write van den Bergh test and its interpretation in Hepatic Jaundice.
16. What are growth factors? Give two examples.
17. Write three detoxification reactions by conjugation mechanism.
18. Mention the advantages of automation in clinical biochemistry laboratory.
19. Write three reactions of purine salvage pathway.
20. What are Thalasemias? What are the defects in Alpha and Beta Thalasemias?

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Drug which inhibits xanthine oxidase is
A. Allopurinol
B. Aspirin
C. Colchicine
D. Probenicid
21 ii) Hypoalbuminemia is not seen in
A. Chronic liver disease
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Hemoconcentration
D. Protein energy malnutrition

21 iii) Which of the following is an inhibitor of RNA synthesis?

A. Rifampicin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Novobiocin
D. Adraiamycin

21 iv) Which of the following is an example for sulphur containing amino acid?
A. Phenylalanine
B. Glycine
C. Threonine
D. Cysteine

21 v) Which of the following is purely Ketogenic amino acid?

A. Proline
B. Glycine
C. Alanine
D. Leucine

22 i) In DNA number of hydrogen bonds between Guanine and Cytosine is

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

22 ii) Tumor marker for colorectal cancer is

A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Alpha-fetoprotein
C. Calcitonin
D.  - HCG

22 iii) Nitrogen atoms of urea are derived from ammonia and

A. Aspartic acid
B. Alanine
C. Histidine
D. Valine

22 iv) Normal value of plasma osmolality is

A. 185 to 200 milliosm/kg
B. 285 to 300 milliosm/kg
C. 385 to 400 milliosm/kg
D. 485 to 500 milliosm/kg

22 v) Reproducibility of results is best described as:

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Precision

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
D. Accuracy

******

Page 3 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 17-Jul-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What are Lipoproteins? How are they classified? How is Chylomicrons metabolized?

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Define Enzyme Inhibition. Discuss the Competitive Inhibition with examples.
3. What are Mucopolysaccharides? Write their biomedical significance.
4. Briefly explain how Acetyl CoA is completely oxidized via Kreb’s cycle.
5. Urea cycle.
6. Formation and utilization of ketone bodies.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Beri Beri.
8. Phenylketonuria
9. State three biochemical changes that occur during Starvation.
10. Detoxification by Conjugation.
11. Name the diagnostic enzymes for Myocardial Infarction and Liver dysfunction.

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – 17-Jul-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

QP Code: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. What is the normal pH of blood? Discuss the role of kidneys in the maintenance of acid-base
balance.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Describe transcription process. Add a note on its regulation.

3. (BMR). Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

4. Dietary fibre.

5. Gout.

6. Metabolic acidosis.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Oncogenes

8. Clearance test.

9. Free radicals

10. (PCR) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

11. Lac operon

*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 24-Nov-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 50 year old man was operated for intestinal obstruction and had continuous gastric
aspiration for 3 days. The following are the laboratory findings when the surgeon came for
the review.
Investigation Patient value Biological reference range
Blood pH 7.55 7.35-7.45
Plasma Bicarbonate 45mmol/L 20-30mmol/L
PCO2 60mmol/L 35-45mmol/L
Na 140meq/L 136-145mmol/L
K 2.5meq/L 3.5-5meq/L
a. Name the acid base disorder in above case
b. Describe renal regulation of acid base balance
c. Mention one more cause for above acid base disorder
d. What is anion gap? Mention its reference interval

2. How is palmitic acid activated and transported to mitochondria? Describe its oxidation in
mitochondria. How many ATP’s are generated when one palmitic acid is completely
oxidized?

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A known diabetic patient with uncontrolled diabetes was advised change in medication,
exercise and dietary modifications.
a. Define Glycemic index.
b. Give two examples of food items that have high and low glycemic index.
c. Why low glycemic index diet is advised for diabetic patients?

4. A chronic alcoholic patient presented with skin lesion on exposed areas of the body. He
also complained of frequent episodes of passing loose stools and memory impairement.
A provisional diagnosis of pellagra was made.
a. Name the vitamin deficiency causing pellagra.
b. Mention its coenzyme forms
c. Write three reactions which require them as coenzyme.

5. Explain the biochemical role of vitamin E. What is its inter-relationship with selenium?

6. Explain fluid mosaic model of cell membrane.

7. Name five Homo-polysaccharides. Write their composition and their biological importance.

8. Explain malate-aspartate shuttle and glycerol-phosphate shuttle pathway.

9. Name the tissues in which HMP pathway is operating. Describe the significance of the
pathway.

10. Define and describe Allosteric regulation of enzymes. Give one example each for Allosteric
activator and inhibitor.

Page 1 of 1
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Write the enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia? What are the manifestations? Which diet is
to be avoided in managing the condition?
12. What is the significance of estimation of isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase?
13. What is fluorosis? Write its clinical features.
14. Enumerate three functions of phosphorous.
15. Enumerate the conditions causing appearance of reducing sugars in urine.
16. Mention any three phospholipids and write their functions.
17. Name three hormone secreted from adipose tissue and mention their functions.
18. Explain the role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in water balance. Mention the disorder
associated with water balance.
19. What is Marasmus? Write two clinical features of Marasmus.
20. Write the composition and functions of collagen.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Renal threshold for glucose is
A. 90 mg/dl
B. 120 mg/dl
C. 150 mg/dl
D. 180 mg/dl

21 ii) Which of the following is a ketone body

A.  - Hydroxybutyrate
B. Acyl-dihydroxycetone phosphate
C. L-methylmalonyl CoA
D. 2,3 diacylglycerol

21 iii) Which of the following enzyme require copper as cofactor?

A. Enolase
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. ALA dehydratase
D. Tyrosinase

21 iv) Which of the following nutrient can be derived from gut bacteria?
A. Vitamin K
B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Cobalamin

21 v) Which of the following is an example of odd chain fatty acid?

A. Butyric acid
B. Lauric acid
C. Propionic acid
D. Palmitic acid

22 i) Methinione is deficient in
A. Cereals
B. Maize
Page 1 of 2
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
C. Pulses
D. Tapioca

22 ii) Which is functional enzyme in plasma?

A. Plasminogen
B. Amylase
C. Enolase
D. Alkaline phosphatase

22 iii) Which of the following hormones does not have any effect on ECF volume?
A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Aldosterone
C. Calcitriol
D. Renin

22 iv) In compensated metabolic alkalosis

A. Respiratory centre is stimulated
B. p CO2 increases
C. p O2 is elevated
D. Urine becomes acidic

22 v) Which of the following enzyme activity is decreased in starvation?

A. Glucokinase
B. Fructose – 1,6, Bisphosphatase
C. Carnitine acyl transferase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase

******

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
 MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 27-Nov-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. A 45 year old male presented with excruciating pain in the great toe. He was obese and had
long history of consumption of alcohol. On investigation his serum uric acid level was 12.1
mg/dl
a) Interpret the serum uric acid level in the above case
b) Explain the formation of uric acid
c) Write four causes of hyperuricemia
d) Explain the biochemical basis of giving allopurinol in treatment of Gout
2. Explain the process of DNA replication in prokaryotes. Mention two inhibitors of DNA
replication. List two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic replication.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3.a) A 3 year old child was brought to paediatric OPD with complaints of fair skin, white hair and
ocular manifestations suggesting the case to be albinism
a) What is the enzyme defect in albinism?
b) Write the pathway of synthesis of melanin
c) List two other biologically important compounds formed from tyrosine
4. A 15 year old girl with history of vaso-occlusive pain crisis came to OPD with history of
influenza attack. She was talking monthly blood transfusion from the age of 5 years due to
underlying sickle cell disease.
a) Explain the molecular defect in sickle cell disease and biochemical basis of sickling
b) Mention the laboratory investigations in sickle cell disease
5.b) Define clearance. Explain creatinine clearance test. Give reason why creatinine clearance is
preferred over urea clearance
6. List the immunoglobulins. Write the functions of these immunoglobulins
7. Explain the steps in recombinant DNA technology
8. Name the antioxidant enzymes and explain their mechanism of action
9. List five plasma proteins and mention their functions
10. Explain primary and secondary structural organisation of proteins with examples

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. What is gene therapy? Name two diseases in which gene therapy is used
12. Name three preanalytical errors in a clinical laboratory
13. Mention different types of RNA and write their functions
14. What is the defective enzyme in homocystinuria? What are the characteristic features of
homocystinuria?
15. Mention the types of mutation. Give reason why some mutations are silent

16. What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)? Give the clinical applications of
RFLP
17. Enumerate the specialized products derived from Tryptophan. Mention their biological
functions
18. What are oncosupressor genes? Mention their clinical significance with two examples
19. Explain with three examples the process of detoxification by conjugation mechanism
20. Enumerate the tests to assess thyroid function. Write the laboratory findings in case of
hyperthyroidism

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Which of the following is a semi essential amino acid?
A. Arginine
B. Alanine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Glycine

21 ii) Tumor marker elevated in liver cancer is

A. Alpha feto protein
B. Prostate specific antigen
C. Ca 125
D.  – HCG

21 iii) Which of the following is an exopeptidase?

A. Trypsin
B. Chymotrypsin
C. Pepsin
D. Carboxypeptidase

21 iv) Nitrogenous base present both in DNA and RNA is

A. Uracil
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Xanthosine

21 v) The enzyme defective in porphyria cutena tarda is

A. PBG deaminase
B. Uroporphyrinogen decorboxylase
C. Heme synthase
D. Coproprophyrinogen III oxidase

22 i) Biological reference interval of serum creatinine in males is

A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dl
B. 0.8 to 1.2 mg/dl
C. 1.5 to 2.2 mg/dl
D. 2.4 to 3.1 mg/dl

22 ii) Cancer cells are immortal due to the activity of

A. Ligase
B. Helicase
C. Telomerase
D. Topoisomerase

22 iii) Northern blotting technique is used for identification of

A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Lipoprotein

22 iv) Reference interval for microalbumin in urine is

A. 830-1100 mg / day
B. 630-800 mg/ day
C. 430-600 mg / day
D. 30-300 mg /day

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 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22 v) Urinary urobilinogen is increase in
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Physiological jaundice

******

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Feb-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 40-year-old navy officer contacted his physician for development of spongy and
bleeding gums. He also had loosening of teeth, pain in the joints and complained of poor
wound healing. History revealed that he was in submarine tour for 40 days and was only
on staple diet.
(a) Name the vitamin deficiency associated with symptoms in the above case.
(b) Name the disorder caused due to deficiency of above vitamin.
(c) List two dietary sources of above vitamin.
(d) Mention any four biochemical functions of above vitamin.
(e) Explain the biochemical basis of spongy and bleeding gums.

2. Explain the hormonal regulation of glucose homeostasis. Mention the biological reference
interval of fasting and post-prandial plasma glucose levels. Substantiate the role of
glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) in monitoring blood glucose levels.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hemorrhoids and underwent operation in relation
to it. He had several bleeding episodes in the past and was found to have microcytic
hypochromic anaemia.
(a) Which mineral deficiency is associated with anaemia in the above case?
(b) Mention two good dietary sources of above mineral.
(c) Explain the process of absorption, transport and storage of the above mineral.

4. The following are the values obtained in an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) analysis.

Parameter pH Plasma bicarbonate pCO2 O2 Base

(HCO3-) Saturation Excess
Values 7.55 35 mEq/L 36 99% 10.5
mmHg

(a) Name the acid-base disorder based on the findings in the above report.
(b) Mention the possible causes for the above acid-base disorder.
(c) Explain the compensatory mechanism in the above acid-base disorder.

5. What are dietary fibres? Give four examples of dietary fibres. Mention four advantages of
consuming dietary fibres.
6. What is carnitine? Explain its role in transport of fatty acids for oxidation process.
7. Compare and contrast between passive and active transport with two examples.
8. Explain competitive inhibition with two examples.
9. Explain the steps in the synthesis and breakdown of ketone bodies.
10. Define isoenzymes. Name two enzymes and their isoenzyme forms with their
significance.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Write the amino acid composition of collagen. Mention two clinical disorders associated
with defective collagen.
12. Give three examples of glycosaminoglycans with their functions.
13. What are phospholipids? Mention the biochemical importance of lecithin and cephalin.
14. Write the components of Complex I of electron transport chain and mention one inhibitor
of this complex.
15. Compare and contrast between kwashiorkor and marasmus.
16. Name serum electrolytes. Mention two causes associated with hypokalemia.
17. Write the features of bicarbonate buffer system.
18. Write three features to differentiate type I and type II diabetes mellitus.
19. Mention the role of oxidized LDL in atherogenesis.
20. Write the clinical features associated with skeletal and dental fluorosis.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Which one of the following is rich in saturated fatty acid?
A. Coconut oil
B. Groundnut oil
C. Corn oil
D. Sesame oil

21 ii) Optimum pH for alkaline phosphatase activity is

A. 2-3
B. 4-5
C. 6-7
D. 9-10

21 iii) Which of the following is an epimer of glucose?

A. Galactose
B. Ribose
C. Erythrose
D. Glyceraldehyde

21 iv) Which one of the following lipids is stored in adipose tissue?

A. Triglyceride
B. Phospholipid
C. Cholesterol ester
D. Free fatty acids

21 v) Which one of the following enzymes is specific to gluconeogenesis?

A. Phosphohexose isomerase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Aldolase
D. Enolase

22 i) The rate limiting enzyme in denovo cholesterol synthesis is

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 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
A. Acetoacetyl-CoA synthase
B. HMG CoA synthase
C. HMG CoA reductase
D. Mevalonate kinase

22 ii) Specific dynamic action for protein is

A. 5
B. 13
C. 18
D. 30

22 iii) Which one of the following is a good source of vitamin E?

A. Cod liver oil
B. Wheat germ oil
C. Green leafy vegetables
D. Egg yolk

22 iv) The condition Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of

A. Selenium
B. Iodine
C. Zinc
D. Manganese

22 v) Which one of the following is an important urinary buffer?

A. Bicarbonate
B. Ammonia
C. Phosphate
D. Proteins

******

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 09-Feb-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A fair 5 year old child was brought to the hospital by his parents, who complained of
delayed milestones in the child. Investigations revealed a high phenylalanine content in the
blood and a diagnosis of phenylketonuria was made.
a) Name the enzyme defect in the above disorder.
b) Explain the pathway for catabolism of phenylalanine.
c) Name the compound responsible for the mousy odour in the above condition.
d) List the biochemical investigations in phenylketonuria

2. Explain the process of recombinant DNA technology and list four applications in the field of
medicine.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 40 year old female with history of gall stones presented with acute pain abdomen,
yellowish discoloration of sclera and passing clay coloured stools. Following investigations,
a diagnosis of obstructive jaundice was made.
a) Describe van Den Berg test and its findings in this condition.
b) Name the enzyme that is elevated in this condition.
c) Explain the biochemical reason for clay coloured stools in this case.

4. A 50 year old female presented with hoarseness of voice, dryness of skin and excess
weight gain. The case was suspected to be hypothyroidism.
a) List the tests for assessment of thyroid function.
b) Write laboratory findings in a case of hypothyroidism.
c) Differentiate between primary and secondary hypothyroidism.

5. Define proto-oncogene and oncogene. Explain the activation of oncogene.

6. Compare and contrast between replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

7. Enumerate kidney function tests. Explain tubular function test.

8. Describe DNA repair mechanism with suitable examples.

9. What is gout? Write the causes and clinical features of gout.

10. Enumerate the functional classification of proteins with examples.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Draw and label the cell cycle.
12. What are histones? Enumerate their functions.
13. Draw a neat labelled diagram of immunoglobulin.
14. What are restriction endonucleases? Mention their importance.
15. Give biological reference interval of serum urea, serum albumin and serum creatinine.
16. Enumerate post-transcriptional modifications and write their significance.
17. Mention any three antioxidants and state their mechanism of action.
18. Write the structure and function of t-RNA
19. Give three examples for detoxification by conjugation mechanism.
20. Name thee pre-analytical variables that affect the biochemical laboratory results.

Multiple Choice Questions

10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Glycine
B. Phenyl alanine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Serine

21 ii) Hypoalbuminemia is seen in all the following conditions EXCEPT

A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Dehydration

21 iii) Which of the following is a secretory immunoglobulin?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

21 iv) Deficiency enzyme causing alkaptonuria is

A. Tyrosinase
B. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
C. Homogentisate oxidase
D. Dopa decarboxylase

21 v) Bile salts and bile pigments are excreted in urine in

A. Incompatible blood transfusion
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

22 i) Which of the following conditions is not associated with hyperuricemia?

A. Gout
B. Leukemia
C. Psoriasis
D. Xanthinuria

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 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22 ii) CA 125 is a tumor marker for
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Hepatoma
C. Carcinoma breast
D. Pheochrmocytoma

22 iii) Which of the following is an example of enzyme which scavenges free radicals?
A. Hexokinase
B. Aconitase
C. Fumarase
D. Catalase

22 iv) -1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with

A. Wilson’s disease
B. Cirrhosis of liver
C. Emphysema
D. Multiple myeloma

22 v) Clearance values of all of the following compounds are used to test glomerular function of
kidney EXCEPT
A. Glucose
B. Creatinine
C. Inulin
D. Urea

******

Page 3 of 3
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – 07-Feb-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1079
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Explain the process of steps of β oxidation of fatty acids and energetics.

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Anti oxidants.
3. Significance of HMP shunt pathway
4. Transamination reactions and their importance
5. Urea cycle.
6. Homo polysaccharide.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Essential fatty acids.
8. Lactose intolerance.
9. Name any two glycogen disorders and the associated enzyme defect.
10. Role of enzymes as tumor markers (any three)
11. Structure of collagen

*****
 Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination - 07-Feb-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1080
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

LONG ESSAYS 1 x 10 = 10 Marks

1. Write in detail about heme synthesis and its regulation. Add a note on Acute intermittent porphyria

SHORT ESSAYS 5 x 5 = 25 Marks

2. Biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Ascorbic acid.
3. Structure and functions of immunoglobulins.
4. Renal regulation of blood pH.
5. Dietary fibre.
6. Recombinant DNA Technology.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

7. Interpretation of Van den Bergh test
8. Polymerase Chain Reaction
9. Causes of metabolic acidosis.
10. oncogene
11. Write the reference values of i) Serum calcium ii) Serum uric acid iii) Serum total protein

*****
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
pMBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 19-Aug-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER I (RS-4)

QP Code: 1024
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 24-year-old patient was brought to emergency department in unconscious state. Past
history revealed that he was a known case of type 1 diabetes mellitus. His plasma glucose
on arrival was 580. Rothera’s test with his urine was found to be positive. Provisional
diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Physician from emergency department
suggested starting him on an insulin drip and administering one amp of bicarbonate.
Monitoring of plasma glucose every hour was advised.
a) What is the acid-base disturbance of the above patient?
b) Mention the normal pH of blood.
c) Explain renal mechanism in maintenance of acid-base balance.
d) List two other clinical conditions causing above acid-base disturbance.

2. Mention the salient features of active site of an enzyme. Explain four factors affecting
enzyme activity.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. A 45-year-old HR manager complained of fatigue and tiredness. He also complained of
vague aches over his body and pains in the limbs. History revealed that he worked every
day in his air-conditioned office for more than 10 hours and had limited exposure to
sunlight. After thorough clinical examination, his Physician advised to check for Vitamin D3
levels. Report revealed to be 5ng/mL (Reference range: 20 to 40 ng/mL).
a) Name the disorder caused by Vitamin D deficiency in adults.
b) Explain the biochemical functions of Vitamin D.
c) What is Vitamin D resistant rickets?

4. A 10-year-old girl presented with excessive tiredness, poor appetite, inability to

concentrate, difficulty in breathing on exertion and easy fatigability. On examination,
there was pallor present. Laboratory tests revealed decrease in hemoglobin, ferritin and
MCV. Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels were elevated. Based on
above history and laboratory findings, iron deficiency anemia was made.
a) Mention two iron rich dietary sources.
b) Name two substances which decrease absorption of iron.
c) Explain mucosal block theory.

5. Define gluconeogenesis. Explain the pathway for formation of glucose from glycerol as
substrate.
6. Explain the metabolism of HDL. Substantiate why HDL is called as ‘good cholesterol’.
7. Define dietary fibers. Give four examples of dietary fibers. Mention the beneficial effects of
dietary fibers.
8. Explain the metabolic adoptions during well-fed state.
9. Mention the coenzyme forms of riboflavin. List four biochemical reactions in which
coenzyme forms of riboflavin participates.
10. Mention the significance of pentose phosphate pathway and uronic acid pathway.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Define symport and antiport with one example to each.
12. Mention the amino acid composition of collagen. Name two disorders associated with
defective collagen.
13. How are sugar alcohols formed? Mention the clinical importance of sorbitol and mannitol.
14. How are liposomes formed? Mention the clinical applications of liposomes.
15. What are lipotrophic factors? Give four examples of lipotrophic factors.
16. What are high energy compounds? Give two examples and mention their significance.
17. Mention three biochemical functions of zinc.
18. Define obesity. Mention four health risks associated with obesity.
19. Define hyperkalemia. Mention two clinical conditions associated with hyperkalemia.
20. Name the bile salts and mention their functions.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21 i) Km value of an enzyme is
A. Time required for completion of an enzyme catalysed reaction
B. Substrate concentration at half the maximum velocity
C. Half the substrate concentration at maximum velocity
D. Dissociation constant of enzyme-substrate complex
21 ii) Deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in excretion of xanthurenic acid in
urine?
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Niacin
21 iii) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is stimulated by all the following EXCEPT
A. Increased sodium in serum
B. High osmolality of plasma
C. Inability to retain sodium
D. ECF volume contraction
21 iv) Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide?
A. Glycogen
B. Heparin
C. Chitin
D. Inulin
21 v) Which of the following represents ‘alkali reserve’?
A. Albumin
B. Phosphate
C. Hemoglobin
D. Bicarbonate
22 i) Marker enzyme for organelle lysosome is
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Galactosyl transferase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. ATP synthase

22 ii) Major fat in adipose tissue is

A. Triacylglycerol
B. Sphingolipids
C. Phospholipid
D. Cholesterol

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 QP CODE : 1024
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22 iii) All of the following increase the absorption of calcium from intestine EXCEPT
A. Lysine and arginine amino acids
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcitonin
D. Calcitriol

22 iv) Which of the following conditions is associated with secondary hyperlipidemia?

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Hepatitis C infection
D. Nephrotic syndrome

22 v) Death due to cyanide poisoning is as a result of

A. Cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase
B. Cyanide hemoglobin complex formation
C. Cyanide blocking oxygen transport in blood
D. Cyanide inhibiting complex I of electron transport chain

******

Page 3 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 21-Aug-2024
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

BIOCHEMISTRY – PAPER II (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 2 day old neonate was found to have yellowish discoloration of skin. Biochemical
investigation revealed: serum total bilirubin 5.5 mg/dl and serum direct bilirubin was 0.2
mg/dl.
a) Write biological reference interval for serum total bilirubin and serum direct
bilirubin.
b) Explain the formation and fate of bilirubin.
c) What is the biochemical basis for physiological jaundice?
d) Write the basis of giving phototherapy in a case of physiological jaundice.

2. Describe the recombinant DNA technology and mention its applications in medicine.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3.a) A 45 year old business executive after partying in the night with alcohol and red meat got
up in the morning with severe pain in the right toe. It was swollen. He rushed to a hospital
and his biochemical investigations were as follows: Serum creatinine: 0.9 mg/dl and
serum uric acid: 10mg/dl.
a) Interpret serum uric acid level in this patient
b) Explain the steps in the formation of uric acid
c) Explain role of allopurinol in this condition
4. A 60 year old man who has a history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension, presented to
Nephrology OPD with swelling in the lower limb. His serum creatinine value was 3.8 mg/dl.
A diagnosis of chronic kidney disease was made.
a) Write biological reference interval for serum creatinine.
b) Explain creatinine clearance test.

5. Explain mechanism of action of steroid hormones.

6. Classify plasma proteins. Describe the functions of albumin.
7. Explain DNA replication in prokaryotes.
8. Explain urea cycle. Mention its regulation.
9. Describe post-transcriptional modifications of RNA.
10. Explain secondary structural organisation of protein.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Define Transamination and mention the importance of Transamination.
12. Write the characteristics of genetic code.
13. Write the role of p53 protein in cancer.
14. How is aspirin detoxified in the body?
15. Write three examples of transmethylation reactions.
16. Name three biologically important nucleotides and write their functions.
17. Enumerate three classes of immunoglobulins and write their functions.
18. Name the antioxidant enzymes and write the biochemical reaction of anyone of them.
19. Mention any three pre-analytical variables encountered in the clinical laboratory.
20. Write the reactions of purine salvage pathway.

Page 1 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) The following are carcinogens EXCEPT
A. Aflatoxin
B. Gamma rays
C. Benzopyrene
D. Actinomycin

21 ii) The class of antibody most abundant in the serum is

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

21 iii) Which of the following amino acids is not found in proteins?

A. Arginine
B. Histidine
C. Methionine
D. Citrulline

21 iv) Which of the following is a nucleotide?

A. Adenylic acid
B. Adenine
C. Adenosine
D. Agmantine

21 v) Bilirubin is made water soluble by conjugation with

A. Lithocholic acid
B. Cholic acid
C. Glucuronic acid
D. Chenodeoxycholic acid

22 i) Serotonin is synthesized from

A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
C. Phenylalanine
D. Proline

22 ii) Western blotting technique is used for the detection of

A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Proteins
D. Lipoproteins

22 iii) N1 of pyrimidine ring is contributed by

A. Glutamine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Glycine
D. Arginine

22 iv) Which of the following cells does not produce for radicals?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Basophils
D. Macrophages

22 v) Test used to detect urobilinogen in urine is

A. Fouchet’s test

Page 2 of 3
 QP CODE : 1025
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
B. Hay’s test
C. Ehrlich’s test
D. Rothera’s test
*****

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