Sample Exam Paper

Software Development Engineer in Test – SET A

Last name, first name: ____________________________

Company address: ____________________________

____________________________

____________________________

Phone: ____________________________

Fax: ____________________________

E-mail-address: ____________________________

Invoice address: ____________________________

____________________________

____________________________

Training company: ____________________________

Trainer ____________________________

Sample Exam Paper

Authored by:
German Testing Board e. V. – Examination Panel

(SET A4Q_SDET_Sample-Exam-Answers_SetA_2022_EN)

A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022 // Glossary

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Sample Exam Paper
Software Development Engineer in Test – SET A

Introduction
This is a sample exam. It helps candidates to prepare for the actual certification exam.
Questions are included whose structure, layout and format are like a regular exam.
This version of the sample exam questions for A4Q-SDET has been compiled from the
following sources:

• ISTQB® CTFL CORE 2018 V3.1; SAMPLE EXAM SET A and SET B,
• CTAL-TTA V4.0; SAMPLE EXAM PAPER,
• and other supplemental questions created by a GTB working group.
The sample exam is protected by copyright. Joint holders of the copyright and
exclusive rights of use are the International Software Testing Qualification Board
(ISTQB®) and the German Testing Board e. V. (GTB).
It is strictly forbidden to use the exam questions as content of a certification exam, to
reproduce, distribute or make them publicly available for this purpose.
The use, in particular reproducing, distributing, or making the sample exam available
to the public is permitted to any individual for the purpose of his or her own preparation
for the certification exam and to any training provider accredited according to the
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by ISTQB® is further permitted to translate the sample exam into other languages and
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rights of use of the sample exam and its translations to the extent provided above. Any
use is only permitted if ISTQB® and GTB are named as the source and copyright
holder.
In all other respects, the use of the sample exam - insofar as it is not permitted under
the Copyright and Related Rights Act of September 9, 1965 (UrhG) - is only permitted
with the express consent of ISTQB® and GTB.
The use of the information contained in this work is at the sole risk of the user. GTB
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recommendations are made in this document.
GTB's liability is otherwise limited to intent and gross negligence.

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A4Q SDET, Set A, 2022 – Sample Exam Paper Status: final A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022
Sample Exam Paper
Software Development Engineer in Test – SET A

General information:

Number of questions: 40

Duration of the exam: 60 minutes

Total score: 40 (one point per question)

Score to pass the exam: 26 (or more)

Percentage score to pass the exam: 65% (or more)

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Sample Exam Paper
Software Development Engineer in Test – SET A

Questions on the topic

”Fundamentals of Testing”

Question 1 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in

which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the
specification
b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and postconditions,
developed based on test conditions

c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning,
designing, executing, evaluating and reporting on testing

d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of

the system under test

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Based on definition of equivalence partition

b) CORRECT – Based on definition from Glossary

c) WRONG – on Glossary definition of testware

d) WRONG – Based on definition of test oracle

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Question 2 FL-1.1.1 K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The test should start as late as possible so that development has enough time
to create a good product
b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other
stakeholders
c) To prove that all possible defects are identified

d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures

FL-1.1.1 (K1) Identify typical objectives of testing

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Contradiction to principle 3: “Early testing saves time and money” (Syllabus,
Section 1.3)

b) CORRECT – This is one objective of testing (Syllabus, Section 1.1.1)

c) WRONG – Principle #2 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can never
prove that all defects were identified (Syllabus, Section 1.3)

d) WRONG – To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one must
detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure implicitly
means that all defects were found. This again contradicts principle #2 (Syllabus, Section
1.3)

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Question 3 FL-1.1.2 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the difference

between testing and debugging?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and
proposes prevention activities
b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the
defects, which are the source of failures
c) Testing does not remove faults; but debugging removes defects that cause
the faults
d) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the
failures

FL-1.1.2 (K2) Differentiate testing from debugging

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Testing does not identify the source of defects, debugging identifies the
defects (Syllabus, Section 1.1.2)

b) CORRECT – Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects in the
software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures, not the root
cause of the defects (Syllabus, Section 1.1.2)

c) WRONG – Testing does not remove faults, but debugging remove defects that cause the
faults (Syllabus, Section 1.1.2)

d) WRONG – Dynamic testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures (defects) but
detects the presence of defects (Syllabus, Section 1.1.2 and 1.3)

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Question 4 FL-1.2.1 K2 Score 1.0

What is an important reason for testing in the software development

process?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Through its results, testing can be used as a tool to evaluate the performance
of developers.
b) Testing can help prevent possible failures of the software during operation.

c) Testing is always required by law.

d) Testing always ensures that all requirements are fully and correctly met.

FL-1.2.1 (K2) Give examples of why testing is necessary

Justification

a) WRONG – This is not one of the reasons mentioned in syllabus CTFL chapter 1.2,
contrary to the syllabus this is not supposed to take place (see A4Q SDET Syllabus
2022, Section 1.2).

b) CORRECT – A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 1.2 " Rigorous testing of components
and systems, and their associated documentation, can help reduce the risk of failures
occurring during operation."

c) WRONG – A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 1.2 Why is testing necessary?
"In addition, software testing may also be required to meet contractual or legal
requirements or industry-specific standards." --> it can be, but it is not always.

d) WRONG – A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 1.2.1 Testing’s Contributions to Success
“Throughout the history of computing, it is quite common for software and systems to be
delivered into operation and, due to the presence of defects, to subsequently cause
failures or otherwise not meet the stakeholders’ needs. However, using appropriate test
techniques can reduce the frequency of such problematic deliveries, when those
techniques are applied with the appropriate level of test expertise, in the appropriate test
levels, and at the appropriate points in the software development lifecycle.”
Testing reduces the frequency, but it is not possible to cover all problems and risks
completely. (See also 1.3 Seven Principles of Testing: Exhaustive testing is impossible).

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A4Q SDET, Set A, 2022 – Sample Exam Paper Status: final A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022
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Question 5 FL-1.2.2 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between

testing and quality assurance?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Testing is part of quality assurance.

b) Testing always leads to better product requirements.

c) Testing early in the development process contributes little to quality assurance.

d) The more test cases are executed, the higher the quality of the software.

FL-1.2.2 (K2) Describe why testing is part of quality assurance and give examples of how testing
contributes to higher quality

Justification:

a) CORRECT – Since quality assurance is concerned with the proper execution of the entire
process, quality assurance supports proper testing. (cf. A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, section
1.2.2)

b) WRONG – For example, thoroughly testing all specified requirements and fixing all defects
found could still produce a system that is difficult to use, that does not fulfill the users’ needs
and expectations, or that is inferior compared to other competing systems. (cf. A4Q SDET
Syllabus 2022, section 1.3)

c) WRONG – (cf. A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 1.3 Seven Principles of Testing)
To find defects early, both static and dynamic test activities should be started as early as
possible in the software development lifecycle. Early testing is sometimes referred to as shift
left. Testing early in the software development lifecycle helps reduce or eliminate costly
changes (see section 3.1).

d) WRONG – (cf. A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 1.3 Seven Principles of Testing). Some
organizations expect that testers can run all possible tests and find all possible defects, but
principles 2 and 1, respectively, tell us that this is impossible. Further, it is a fallacy (i.e., a
mistaken belief) to expect that just finding and fixing a large number of defects will ensure the
success of a system. For example, thoroughly testing all specified requirements and fixing all
defects found could still produce a system that is difficult to use, that does not fulfil the users’
needs and expectations, or that is inferior compared to other competing systems.

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Question 6 FL-1.2.3 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control

system?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste

operation
b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the
system
c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased
or decreased
d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

FL-1.2.3 (K2) Distinguish between error, defect and failure

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – This is an example of a mistake made by the developer

b) WRONG – This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause
a failure)

c) CORRECT – This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system
should not be affected by the radio

d) WRONG – This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may

cause a failure if subsequently implemented)

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Question 7 FL-1.2.4 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness

tracker?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of
fitness training. The author therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted
heartbeat in beats per hour.
b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition
testing, so missed a major defect.

c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could

cause location problems during daylight saving times.

d) Due to insufficient of experience with wearable devices, the designer of the

user interface did not consider the effects of reflected sunlight.

FL-1.2.4 (K2) Distinguish between the root cause of a defect and its effects

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a
root cause

b) WRONG – The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root
causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well)

c) CORRECT – The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness
tracker (a defect), that may cause failures

d) WRONG – The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a
typical example of a root cause of a defect

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Question 8 FL-1.3.1 K2 Score 1.0

Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a
period of 5 years. He has a wealth of experience in testing mobile
applications and achieves better results in a shorter time than others.
Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test
cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer
defects being found by executing the tests. What principle of testing did
Mr. Test not observe?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Testing depends on the environment

b) Exhaustive testing is not possible

c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects

d) Defects cluster together

FL-1.3.1 (K2) Explain the seven testing principles.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Testing is context dependent, regardless of it being manual or automated

(principle #6), but does not result in detecting a decreasing number of faults as described
above

b) WRONG – Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put into
testing (principle #2)

c) CORRECT – Principle #5 says “If the same tests are repeated over and over again,
eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To detect new defects, existing
tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need to be written.”
Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new findings

d) WRONG – ”Defect cluster together” (principle #4). A small number of modules usually
contain most of the defects, but this does not mean that fewer and fewer defects will be
found

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Questions on the topic

“Testing Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle”

Question 9 Keywords Chapter 2 K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements is a correct definition for regression

testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Testing to see if defects have been introduced into unchanged areas of the
software.
b) Testing the impact of a changed environment to an operational system.

c) Testing the changes to an operational system.

d) Testing after fixing a defect to confirm that a failure caused by that defect no
longer occurs.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Based on the definition of regression testing in the Glossary.

b) WRONG – This is the definition of maintenance testing according to the Glossary.

c) WRONG – This is the definition of maintenance testing according to the Glossary.

d) WRONG – This is the definition of confirmation testing according to the Glossary.

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Question 10 FL-2.3.1 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following terms is a white-box test technique?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Decision testing

b) Performance efficiency testing

c) Code review

d) Equivalence partitioning

FL-2.3.1 (K2) Compare functional, non-functional and white-box testing

Justification:

a) CORRECT – Decision testing is a white-box test technique. (see A4Q SDET Syllabus
2022, Section 4.3 White-box Test Techniques).

b) WRONG – Performance testing aims to determine the performance efficiency of a test

object (see in the Glossary), hence it is a test type rather than a test technique. (see A4Q
SDET Syllabus 2022 section 2.2.2, second bullet point)

c) WRONG – Code review is a static test type, and thus does not belong to white-box
testing. (see A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022)

d) WRONG – Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test technique (see A4Q SDET

Syllabus 2022, Section 4.2 Black-box test techniques).

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Question 11 FL-2.3.3 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of

confirmation testing and regression testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still
work CORRECTLY, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that
any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other
parts
b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect
has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no
other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix

c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of
the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of
confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the
same results as before
d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system
were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests
that previously failed to ensure that they now work CORRECTLY

FL-2.3.3 (K2) Compare the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the

description of confirmation testing (which should be testing a defect has been fixed) is not
correct

b) CORRECT – The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the
intent of those in the syllabus, Section 2.2.4

c) WRONG – Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the

description of confirmation testing (re-running all previously run tests to get the same
results) is not correct, as the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that tests that
previously failed now pass (the fix worked)

d) WRONG – Although the description of confirmation testing is largely correct, the

description of regression testing (re-running tests that previously failed) is not correct (this
is a more detailed description of confirmation testing)

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Question 12 FL-2.4.1 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software

b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform

c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved

d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”

FL-2.4.1 (K2) Summarize triggers for maintenance testing

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – This is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing. (Syllabus A4Q

SDET 2021, Section 3.1.3, last paragraph)

b) WRONG – This is a trigger for maintenance testing: Operational tests of the new
environment as well as of the changed software, see Syllabus A4Q SDET 2021, Section
2.3.1

c) WRONG – This is the trigger for maintenance testing: testing restore/retrieve procedures
after archiving for long retention periods, see Syllabus A4Q SDET 2021, Section 2.3.1

d) WRONG – This is the trigger for maintenance testing: Reactive modification of a

delivered software product to correct emergency defects that have caused actual failures,
see Syllabus A4Q SDET 2021, Section 2.3.1

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Question 13 FL-2.4.2 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact

analysis in maintenance?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is

worthwhile
b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the
maintained system
c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user

d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance

test cases

FL-2.4.2 (K2) Describe the role of impact analysis in maintenance testing

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will
be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e. g. necessary regression testing)
can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile, see Syllabus A4Q SDET 2021,
Section 2.3.2

b) WRONG – Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion
testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done

c) WRONG – Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it
can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system,
however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user

d) WRONG – Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it
cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases

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Questions on the topic

“Static Testing”

Question 14 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements is a CORRECT definition for the

checklist-based review?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) A review technique guided by a list of questions or required attributes.

b) A type of review that follows a defined process and has a formally

documented output.
c) A type of static testing in which a work product or process is evaluated by one
or more individuals to identify defects or to propose improvements.
d) A review technique in which a work product is evaluated from the perspective
of different stakeholders.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Based on the definition of a checklist-based review in the Glossary.

b) WRONG – This is the definition of a formal review according to the Glossary.

c) WRONG – This is the definition of a Review in general according to the Glossary.

d) WRONG – This is the definition of a role-based review according to the Glossary.

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Question 15 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following is a correct definition of cyclomatic complexity?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The maximum number of linear, independent paths through a program.

b) The degree to which a component or system has a design and/or internal

structure that is difficult to understand, maintain and verify.
c) The coverage of sequences of N+1 transitions.

d) The coverage of all outcomes of the atomic conditions that independently

affect the overall decision outcome.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Based on the definition of cyclomatic complexity in the Glossary.

b) WRONG – This is the definition of complexity in the Glossary.

c) WRONG – This is the definition of N-Switch Coverage in the Glossary.

d) WRONG – This is the definition of modified condition/decision coverage (MC/DC) in the

Glossary.

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Question 16 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

An agile team determines that any newly developed code is evaluated by

one or more people before execution to identify error conditions or make
improvements. Which term BEST applies to this approach?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Review

b) Static Analysis

c) White Box Testing

d) Pairwise Testing

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – A review is defined as a type of static test in which a work product or

process is evaluated by one or more people to identify error conditions or make
improvements.

b) WRONG – Here, the focus is not on evaluating the code based on its form, structure,
content, or documentation, as in static analysis.

c) WRONG – white-box testing is a dynamic test and not a type of static test. But here we
are talking about a static test without executing the code.

d) WRONG – Pairwise testing is a dynamic test procedure, but here we are talking about
static testing without executing the code.

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Question 17 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

What is a definition-use pair?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The association of a definition of a variable with the subsequent use of that

variable.
b) The association of an executable statement in the source code with the use of
that statement in the execution of the code.
c) The association of a comment in the code that describes the meaning of a
variable with the subsequent use of that variable in the code.
d) The association between the definition of the behaviour of the software in the
specification and the code that implements that behaviour.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – This is the definition of the definition-use pair from the glossary.

b) WRONG – The "usage" in the name of the term does not refer to the statement but to the
variable.

c) WRONG – The "definition" in the name of the term does not refer to the comment but to
the code itself.

d) WRONG – The object of the definition-use pair is not the software but a variable.

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Question 18 FL-3.2.4 K3 Score 1.0

You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the

following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library
system:

Librarians can:

1. Register new borrowers

2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:

7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time

8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title

14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the
specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i. e.
conflicts between requirements).

(Continued on the next page)

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Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between

pairs of requirements?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12

b) 6-15, 9-11

c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11

d) 6-15, 7-12

FL-3.2.4 (K3) Apply a review technique to a work product to find defects

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

Considering the potential inconsistencies:

• 6-10 – If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is NOT inconsistent
for borrowers to get system responses within 3 seconds.

• 6-15 - If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is inconsistent for all
users to get system responses within 3 seconds.

• 7-12 – If borrowers can borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time it is NOT inconsistent
for them to also reserve books (if they are on-loan).

• 9-11 – If a borrower can be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks it is
inconsistent for them to also be allowed to borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4
weeks – as the length of valid loans are different.

Thus, of the potential inconsistencies, 6-15 and 9-11 are valid inconsistencies, and so option
b) IS CORRECT.

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Question 19 TTA-3.2.1 K3 Score 1.0

Below is the pseudo-code and the control-flow-graph for a program, that

calculates and prints sales commissions:

00 program sales commissions calculation

01 sum, number: integer
02 commissions_max, commissions_min: real
03 begin
04 read (number)
05 while number ≠ -1 loop
06 sum = sum + number
07 read (number)
08 endloop
09 if sum > 1000 then
10 commissions_max = 100 + 0.2 * (sum – 1000)
11 else
12 commissions_min = 0.15 * sum
13 endif
14 write (“The commissions is, as follows:”)
15 write (commissions_max)
16 end program sales commissions calculation

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Select exactly ONE option.

a) The control flow graph corresponds to the pseudo code.

The cyclomatic number according to Mc Cabe is 3.
b) The control flow graph corresponds to the pseudo code.
The Mc Cabe cyclomatic number is 4.
c) The control flow graph does not correspond to the pseudo code.
The cyclomatic number according to Mc Cabe is 3.
d) The control flow graph corresponds to the pseudo code.
The cyclomatic number according to Mc Cabe is 1.

Justification:

a) CORRECT – Possible calculations:

Edges - Nodes + 2 → 10 Edges - 9 Nodes + 2 = 3
Loops + decisions + 1 → 1 loop + 1 decision +1 = 3

b) WRONG

c) WRONG

d) WRONG

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Question 20 TTA-3.2.2 K2 Score 1.0

Below is the pseudo-code for a program that calculates and prints sales
commissions:

00 program Calculate Commission

01 total, number : integer
02 commission_hi, commission_lo : real
03 begin
04 read ( number )
05 while number ≠ -1 loop
06 total = total + number
07 read ( number )
08 endloop
09 if total > 1000 then
10 commission_hi = 100 + 0.2 * ( total – 1000 )
11 else
12 commission_lo = 0.15 * total
13 endif
14 write ( “This salesman’s commission is:”)
15 write ( commission_hi )
16 end program Calculate Commission

The code contains data flow anomalies on lines 6 and 12 (highlighted

text).

Which examples of data flow anomalies are to be found on these lines?

Select exactly ONE option.

-
a) line 6: variable “total” is not assigned a value before using it
line 12: variable “commission_lo” is defined but subsequently not used
b) line 6: an invalid value is assigned to variable “total”
line 12: variable “commission_lo” is redefined before it is used
c) line 6: variable “total” is out of scope
line 12: the “hard-coded” value “0.15” should not be used
d) line 6: the variable “number” is undefined
line 12: the variable “total” is redefined before it is used

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Justification:

a) CORRECT – Anomalies:
total: used at line 6 before it is defined.
commission_lo: defined at line 12 & no subsequent use

b) WRONG

c) WRONG

d) WRONG

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Question 21 TTA-3.2.3 K3 Score 1.0

Below you can see the pseudo-code for a program called TRICKY.

00 programme TRICKY
01 var1, var2, var3: integer
02 begin
03 read(var2)
04 read( var1 )
05 while var2 < 10 loop
06 var3 = var2 + var1
07 var2 = 4
08 var1 = var2 + 1
09 print ( var3 )
10 if var1 = 5 then
11 print ( var1 )
12 else
13 print ( var1+1 )
14 endif
15 var2 = var2 + 1
16 endloop
17 write ( " Wow – that was tricky!" )
18 write ( "But the answer is..." )
19 write ( var2+var1 )
20 end program TRICKY

How could the use of static analysis best improve the maintainability of
the program?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Restructuring the code

b) Reducing coupling between programs

c) Increasing the number of comments

d) Improving the indentation of the code

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TTA-3.2.3 (K3) Propose ways to improve the maintainability of code by applying static
analysis

Justification:

a) WRONG – The code is well structured with controls (e. g. loop, if-then-else). It is unlikely
that static analysis can identify improvements to the control structure.

b) WRONG – No global variables are defined and no other programs are called. Coupling is
not an area of improvement.

c) CORRECT – Static analysis is used with tool support to improve code maintainability by
verifying compliance to coding standards and guidelines. This includes commenting (see
A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022, Section 3.3.3). Since the program has no comments at all,
this would be highlighted as an area to improve the maintainability of the code.

d) WRONG – Static analysis can apply indentation rules, but in the case of the TRICKY
program, sufficient indentation is present.

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Questions on the topic

”Test Techniques”

Question 22 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

What is checklist-based testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of
past faults, or general knowledge of failures

b) A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or

system

c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a

list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria
against which a product must be verified
d) An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute
tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of
previous tests

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – This is error guessing

b) WRONG – This is black-box test technique

c) CORRECT – See reasons from incorrect answers

d) WRONG – This is exploratory testing

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Question 23 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory

testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the

test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test
cases
b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically designs and execute
tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of
previous tests
c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted
sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-
based testing
d) Testing based on the tester's experience, knowledge and intuition

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making
in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely

b) CORRECT – Glossary definition

c) WRONG – Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test
execution replaced by test analysis

d) WRONG – Glossary definition of experience-based testing

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Question 24 Keywords K1 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements is a correct definition for modified

condition/decision testing?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) A white-box test technique in which test cases are designed to exercise

outcomes of atomic conditions that independently affect a decision outcome.
b) A white-box test technique in which test cases are designed to exercise
outcome combinations of atomic conditions.
c) A white-box test technique in which test cases are designed to execute
condition outcomes and decision outcomes.
d) A white-box test technique in which test cases are designed to execute
decision outcomes.

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Based on the definition of modified condition/decision testing in the

Glossary.

b) WRONG – This is the definition of multiple condition testing in the Glossary.

c) WRONG – This is the definition of condition testing in the Glossary.

d) WRONG – This is the definition of decision testing in the Glossary.

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Question 25 FL-4.1.1 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different
categories of test techniques?

1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object

2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on experience about the likelihood of defects and
their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis

Using notation for the following 4 options:

Black – Black-box test techniques

White – White-box test techniques
Experience – Experience-based test techniques

Select exactly ONE option. -

a) Black – 4, 5; White – 1, 2; Experience – 3

b) Black – 3; White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5

c) Black – 4; White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5

d) Black – 1, 3, 5; White – 2; Experience – 4

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FL-4.1.1 (K2) Explain the characteristics, commonalities, and differences between black-box
test techniques, white-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is:

• Black-box test techniques

• Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test
basis (5)
• White-box test techniques
• Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The
processing within the test object is checked (2)
• Experience-based test techniques

Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3)

Thus, option a) IS CORRECT.

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Question 26 FL-4.1.1 K2 Score 1.0

You are adding functionality to a mobile application. When preparing the

component integration test, you have discovered that a previously very
failure-prone component has been changed by an external manufacturer,
but there is no updated specification for it.

Which of the following test techniques is BEST suited to still be able to

test the functionality you have implemented in a meaningful way?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) White-box test technique

b) Experience-based test technique

c) Specification-based test technique

d) Black-box test technique

FL-4.1.1 (K2) Explain the characteristics, commonalities, and differences between black-box
test techniques, white-box test techniques, and experience-based test techniques

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Test conditions, test cases, and test data are derived from a test basis that
may include code, software architecture, detailed design, or any other source of
information regarding the structure of the software (see A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022;
Chapter 4.1.1 6th paragraph)

b) CORRECT – Test conditions, test cases, and test data are derived from a test basis that
may include knowledge and experience of testers, developers, users and other
stakeholders. (see A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Chapter 4.1.1 6th paragraph) – experience
with former failures are given.

c) WRONG – Black-box test techniques (also called behavioral or behavior-based

techniques) are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis (e. g., formal
requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories, or business processes).
(see A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Chapter 4.1.1 2nd paragraph)

d) WRONG – Test conditions, test cases, and test data are derived from a test basis that
may include software requirements, specifications, use cases, and user stories (see A4Q
SDET Syllabus 2022; Chapter 4.1.1 5th paragraph)

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Question 27 FL-4.2.1 K3 Score 1.0

A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on

a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below
3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the
sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).

Given the following test cases:

Hours Intensity Score

T1 1.5 v. low 10

T2 7.0 medium 60

T3 0.5 v. low 10

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to
ensure full coverage of ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

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FL-4.2.1 (K3) Apply equivalence partitioning to derive test cases from given requirements

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified:

• Hours
1. below 3 hours
2. 3 to 6 hours
3. above 6 hours
• Intensity
4. very low
5. low
6. medium
7. high

The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions:
T1 1.5 (1) Very low (4)
T2 7.0 (3) Medium (6)
T3 0.5 (1) Very low (4)

Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be
covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7).

Thus, option b) IS CORRECT.

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Question 28 FL-4.2.2 K3 Score 1.0

A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over
the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C)
should be:

Up to 10°C – Icy Cool!

11°C to 15°C – Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C – Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C – Too Warm!
Above 22°C – Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test
inputs provides the highest level of boundary coverage?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C

b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C

c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C

d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C 22°C

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FL-4.2.2 (K3) Apply boundary value analysis to derive test cases from given requirements

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

For the input equivalence partitions given, the above used boundary value technique yields
the following 8 coverage items:

10°C, 11°C, 15°C, 16°C, 19°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C.

Hence, the options have the following boundary value coverage:

a) 4 out of 8 (11, 20 ,22 and 23).

b) 3 out of 8 (15, 19 and 23).
c) 5 out of 8 (10, 16, 19, 22 and 23).
d) 3 out of 8 (15, 19 and 22)

Thus, option c) IS CORRECT.

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Question 29 FL-4.2.3 K3 Score 1.0

A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year
in the company and achieve a target which is individually agreed in
advance.

These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Test-ID T1 T2 T3 T4
Condition1 Employment for more YES NO NO YES
than 1 year?
Condition2 Agreed target? NO NO YES YES
Condition3 Achieved target? NO NO YES YES
Action Bonus payment NO NO NO YES

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen
in practice, and is missing in the above decision table?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

b) Condition1 = YES, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= YES

c) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = NO, Condition3 = YES, Action= NO

d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO

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FL-4.2.3(K3) Apply decision table testing to derive test cases from given requirements

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – If there was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets.

Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality

b) WRONG – The test case is objectively wrong, since under these conditions no bonus is
paid because the agreed target was not reached

c) WRONG – There was no agreement on targets, it is impossible to reach the targets.

Since this situation can´t occur, this is not a scenario happening in reality

d) CORRECT – The test case describes the situation that the too short period of
employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed target leads to non-payment of the
bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing in the decision table

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Question 30 FL-4.2.4 K3 Score 1.0

Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

WAIT OFF

TRICKLE

LOW CHARGE HIGH

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level

of transition coverage for the model?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) OFF → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE →CHARGE → HIGH

→ CHARGE → LOW

b) WAIT → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE

→ LOW → CHARGE

c) HIGH → CHARGE → LOW → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → TRICKLE

→ WAIT → TRICKLE

d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT

→ OFF → WAIT

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FL-4.2.4 (K3) Apply state transition testing to derive test cases from given requirements

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

Given the annotated state model below:

1
WAIT OFF
2
3 4

TRICKLE

5 6
8 9
LOW CHARGE HIGH
7 10

The options achieve the following transition coverage:

a) OFF (2) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (7)
LOW = 7 transitions (out of 10)

b) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF (2) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (7) LOW (8)
CHARGE = 7 transitions (out of 10)

c) HIGH (10) CHARGE (7) LOW (8) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (4)
WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) = 7 transitions (out of 10)

d) WAIT (3) TRICKLE (5) CHARGE (9) HIGH (10) CHARGE (6) TRICKLE (4) WAIT (1) OFF
(2) WAIT = 8 transitions (out of 10)

Thus, option d) IS CORRECT.

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Question 31 FL-4.2.5 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are
derived from a use case?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error
behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case
and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these
components
c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the
system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use

d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business
process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these
flows

FL-4.2.5 (K2) Explain how to derive tests from a use case

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – Syllabus Section 4.2.5 explains that each use case specifies some behavior
that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains
that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors (basic, exceptional and errors)

b) WRONG – Use cases normally specify requirements, and so do not ‘include’ the
components that will implement them

c) WRONG – Tests based on use cases do exercise interactions between the actor and the
system, but they are focused on the functionality and do not consider the ease of use of
user interfaces

d) WRONG – Tests do cover the use case paths through the use case, but there is no
concept of decision coverage of these paths, and certainly not of business process flows

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Question 32 FL-4.2.5 K2 Score 1.0

You are creating an application (automatic parking) for an automotive

manufacturer.

The following use cases were created by a colleague:

- UC 1 The sensor system determines the possible parking lot

- UC 2 The vehicle performs the parking procedure independently

- UC 3 The result of the parking process appears on the display

Based on this use case, the following abstract (logical) test cases were
created by the colleague. Which of these test cases fits to the use case
UC 3?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) A sufficiently large parking space has been identified by the parking assistant.

b) The driver is informed on their display that the vehicle has been successfully
parked.
c) Parking is not possible because of a sudden obstacle; the parking process is
automatically aborted.
d) The parking space is not recognized, although the space is sufficient (sensors
dirty).

FL-4.2.5 (K2) Explain how to derive test cases from a use case

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – fits to Use-Case 1

b) CORRECT – fits to Use-Case 3, because the result is shown on the display.

c) WRONG – fits to Use-Case 2

d) WRONG – fits to Use-Case 1

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Question 33 FL-4.3.1 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code

exercised by tests
b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements
in the source code exercised by tests
c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code
(without comments) exercised by tests
d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in
the source code exercised by tests

FL-4.3.1 (K2) Explain statement coverage

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements

exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of
lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of
code exercised and not the proportion exercised

b) CORRECT – Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable

statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage)

c) WRONG – Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements

exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e. g.
comments)

d) WRONG – Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements

exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements
exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised

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Question 34 FL-4.3.1 K2 Score 1.0

Which one of the following is the CORRECT description of statement

coverage?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) It is a metric, which is the percentage of test cases that have been executed

b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that

have been executed
c) It is a metric, which is the number of statements in the source code that have
been executed by test cases that are passed
d) It is a metric, that gives a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered
or not

FL-4.3.1 (K2) Explain statement coverage

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised by

test cases

b) CORRECT – Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code.

Statement coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests
divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally
expressed as a percentage

c) WRONG – The coverage does not measure pass/fail

d) WRONG – It is a metric and does not provide true/false statements

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Question 35 FL-4.3.2 K2 Score 1.0

The following statement refers to decision coverage:

“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or
CASE statements, and its execution is not nested within the test, any
single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”

Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) The statement is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement
coverage and therefore 50% decision coverage
b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the
“if” statement to be either true or false
c) The statement is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision
coverage in this case
d) The statement is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not,
depending on the tested software

FL-4.3.2 (K2) Explain decision coverage

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – While the given statement is true, the explanation is not. The relationship
between statement and decision coverage is misrepresented

b) CORRECT – Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either
TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage

c) WRONG – A single test case can give more than 25% decision coverage, this means
according to the statement above always 50 % decision coverage

d) WRONG – The statement is specific and always true, because each test case achieves
50 % decision coverage

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Question 36 FL-4.3.2 K2 Score 1.0

Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through

the source code exercised by tests
b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through
the component exercised by tests
c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are
exercised with both the true and false outcomes
d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the
source code exercised by tests

FL-4.3.2 (K2) Explain decision coverage

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG – A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the
entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two
different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just
changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would
achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve
path coverage. In practice, most nontrivial programs (and all programs with
unconstrained loops, such as ‘while’ loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible
paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible

b) WRONG – Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases
rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within
business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only
suggests coverage of “business flows” as a whole. Even if business flows would cover
some decisions, the measure “Decision Coverage” don’t measure the percentage of
business flows, but the percentage of decision outcomes exercised by the business flows

c) WRONG – Achieving full decision coverage does require all ‘if’ statements to be
exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other
decision points in the code (e. g. ‘case’ statements and the code controlling loops) that
also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage

d) CORRECT – Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes

exercised (normally presented as a percentage)

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Question 37 FL-4.3.3 K2 Score 1.0

Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and

decision coverage is true?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage

b) 100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage

c) 50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage

d) Decision coverage can never reach 100%

FL-4.3.3 (K2) Explain the value of statement and decision coverage

Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) CORRECT – The statement is true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees

100% statement coverage

b) WRONG – The statement is false because achieving 100 % statement coverage does
not in any case mean that the decision coverage is 100%

c) WRONG – The statement is false, because we can only do statements about 100%
values

d) WRONG – The statement is false

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Question 38 FL-4.3.3 K2 Score 1.0

Below you find the pseudo code for the program EASY:

00 program EASY
01 var1, var2, var3: integer
02 easy: boolean
02 begin
03 read (var2)
04 read (var1)
05 read (easy)
06 If (easy = true) then
07 var3 = var2 + var1
08 print (var3)
09 if (var1 = 5) then
10 print (var1)
11 endif
12 var2 = var2 + 1
13 else
14 var2 = 0
15 write (“Wow – that was tricky!”)
16 endif
17 write (var2)
18 end program EASY

Which of the following statements about the number of statement and

decision coverage test cases is CORRECT?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 100% statement coverage requires at least 4 test cases

100% decision coverage requires at least 2 test cases
b) 100% statement coverage requires at least 2 test cases
100% decision coverage requires at least 4 test cases
c) 100% statement coverage requires at least 2 test cases
100% decision coverage requires at least 2 test cases
d) 100% statement coverage requires at least 2 test cases
100% decision coverage requires at least 3 test cases

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Justification: (A4Q SDET Syllabus 2022; Glossary)

a) WRONG

b) WRONG

c) WRONG

d) CORRECT - All instructions can be tested with two test cases and all decisions with 3
test cases.

For 100% statement coverage:

Path 1: (easy = false)
Path 2: (easy = true, var1 = 5)

Additionally, for 100% decision coverage:

Path 3: (easy = true, var1 != 5)

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Question 39 TTA-2.2.1 K3 Score 1.0

Consider the simplified logic of a tea-making machine:

Switch on machine
IF sufficient water THEN
Boil water
Add tea
Show message “milk?”
IF milk = yes THEN
Show message “low fat?”
IF low fat = yes THEN
Add low fat milk
ELSE
Add normal milk
ENDIF
ENDIF
Show message “sugar?”
IF sugar = yes THEN
Add sugar
ENDIF
Stir
Wait 3 minutes
Show message “please take your tea”
ELSE
Show message “please fill up water”
ENDIF

How many test cases would you design to achieve 100% statement
coverage for the tea-making machine?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 6

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TTA-2.2.1 (K3) Write test cases from a given specification item by applying the Statement
testing test technique to achieve a defined level of coverage.

Justification:

a) CORRECT – The three test cases are defined by the following inputs:

• Sufficient water, milk, low fat, sugar

• Sufficient water, milk, not low fat, sugar or not sugar
• Insufficient water

b) WRONG

c) WRONG

d) WRONG

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Question 40 TTA-2.3.1 K3 Score 1.0

The simplified logic of a program has been specified as follows:

Statement P
IF A THEN
IF B THEN
Statement Q
ELSE
Statement R
ENDIF
ELSE
Statement S
IF C THEN
Statement T
ELSE
Statement U
ENDIF
ENDIF
Statement V

How many test cases would you design to achieve 100% decision
coverage?

Select exactly ONE option.

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

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TTA-2.3.1 (K3) Write test cases from a given specification item by applying the Decision
testing test technique to achieve a defined level of coverage.

Justification:

a) WRONG

b) WRONG

c) CORRECT – the following conditions ensure that all decision outcomes are tested:
1) A, B 2) A, not B 3) not A, C 4) not A, not C.

d) WRONG

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Space for your notes:

(are neither read nor valuated during correction)

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Space for your notes:

(are neither read nor valuated during correction)

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Space for your notes:

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