Drills (MCN/PEDIA) 1. A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had ruptured membranes for 24 hours.

For which of the following would the nurse be alert? a. Endometritis c. Salpingitis b. Endometriosis d. Pelvic thrombophlebitis 2. A client at 36 weeks gestation is schedule for a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis. After teaching the client about the purpose for the ultrasound, which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction? a. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta b. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord c. The test will determine where to insert the needle d. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid 3. While the postpartum client is receiving herapin for thrombophlebitis, which of the following drugs would the nurse Mica expect to administer if the client develops complications related to heparin therapy? a. Calcium gluconate c. Methylegonovine (Methergine) b. Protamine sulfate d. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin) 4. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the nurse in charge would expect to do which of the following? a. Turn the neonate every 6 hours b. Encourage the mother to discontinue breast-feeding c. Notify the physician if the skin becomes bronze in color d. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours 5. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days post-term. The client desires a bilateral pudendal block anesthesia before delivery. After the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the client, which of the following locations identified by the client as the area of relief would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? a. Back c. Fundus b. Abdomen d. Perineum 6. The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1 week gestation. After explaining self-care measures for common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says: a. Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising b. If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water c. If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon underwear d. Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area 7. Thirty hours after delivery, the nurse in charge plans discharge teaching for the client about infant care. By this time, the nurse expects that the phase of postpartal psychological adaptation that the client would be in would be termed which of the following? a. Taking in b. Letting go c. Taking hold d. Resolution 8. A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, the nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta previa is which of the following? a. Activity limited to bed rest c. Immediate cesarean delivery b. Platelet infusion d. Labor induction with oxytocin 9. Nurse Julia plans to instruct the postpartum client about methods to prevent breast engorgement. Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day b. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields c. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent intervals d. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours 10. When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps the bassinet, the neonate throws out its arms, hands opened, and begins to cry. The nurse interprets this reaction as indicative of which of the following reflexes? a. Startle reflex c. Grasping reflex b. Babinski reflex d. Tonic neck reflex 11. A primigravida client at 25 weeks gestation visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her lower back aches when she arrives home from work. The nurse should suggest that the client perform: a. Tailor sitting c. Shoulder circling b. Leg lifting d. Squatting exercises 12. Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first after observing a 2-cm circle of bright red bleeding on the diaper of a neonate who just had a circumcision? a. Notify the neonates pediatrician immediately b. Check the diaper and circumcision again in 30 minutes c. Secure the diaper tightly to apply pressure on the site d. Apply gently pressure to the site with a sterile gauze pad 13. Which of the following would the nurse Sandra most likely expect to find when assessing a pregnant client with abruption placenta? a. Excessive vaginal bleeding c. Titanic uterine contractions b. Rigid, boardlike abdomen d. Premature rupture of membranes 14. While the client is in active labor with twins and the cervix is 5 cm dilates, the nurse observes contractions occurring at a rate of every 7 to 8 minutes in a 30-minute period. Which of the following would be the nurses most appropriate action? a. Note the fetal heart rate patterns c. Administer oxygen at 6 liters by mask b. Notify the physician immediately d. Have the client pant-blow during the contractions 15. A client tells the nurse, I think my baby likes to hear me talk to him. When discussing neonates and stimulation with sound, which of the following would the nurse include as a means to elicit the best response? a. High-pitched speech with tonal variations c. Cooing sounds rather than words b. Low-pitched speech with a sameness of tone d. Repeated stimulation with loud sounds 16. A 31-year-old multipara is admitted to the birthing room after initial examination reveals her cervix to be at 8 cm, completely effaced (100 %), and at 0 station. What phase of labor is she in? a. Active phase c. Expulsive phase b. Latent phase d. Transitional phase 17. A pregnant patient asks the nurse Kate if she can take castor oil for her constipation. How should the nurse respond?

a. Yes, it produces no adverse effect. b. No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions. c. No, it can promote sodium retention. d. No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. 18. A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has presented with abdominal cramping and vaginal bleeding for the past 8 hours. She has passed several cloth. What is the primary nursing diagnosis for this patient? a. Knowledge deficit c. Anticipatory grieving b. Fluid volume deficit d. Pain 19. Immediately after a delivery, the nurse-midwife assesses the neonates head for signs of molding. Which factors determine the type of molding? a. Fetal body flexion or extension c. Maternal and paternal ethnic backgrounds b. Maternal age, body frame, and weight d. Maternal parity and gravidity 20. For a patient in active labor, the nurse-midwife plans to use an internal electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) device. What must occur before the internal EFM can be applied? a. The membranes must rupture c. The cervix must be dilated fully b. The fetus must be at 0 station d. The patient must receive anesthesia 21. A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery area. Assessment reveals that she is in early part of the first stage of labor. Her pain is likely to be most intense: a. Around the pelvic girdle b. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms c. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum d. At the perineum 22. A female adult patient is taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive, or minipill. Progestin use may increase the patients risk for: a. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome b. Female hypogonadism d. Tubal or ectopic pregnancy 23. A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably exhibits which of the following symptoms? a. Proteinuria, headaches, vaginal bleeding c. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision b. Headaches, double vision, vaginal bleeding d. Proteinuria, double vision, uterine contractions 24. Because cervical effacement and dilation are not progressing in a patient in labor, Dr. Smith orders I.V. administration of oxytocin (Pitocin). Why must the nurse monitor the patients fluid intake and output closely during oxytocin administration? a. Oxytoxin causes water intoxication c. Oxytoxin is toxic to the kidneys b. Oxytocin causes excessive thirst d. Oxytoxin has a diuretic effect 25. Five hours after birth, a neonate is transferred to the nursery, where the nurse intervenes to prevent hypothermia. What is a common source of radiant heat loss? a. Low room humidity c. Cools incubator walls b. Cold weight scale d. Cool room temperature 26. After administering bethanechol to a patient with urine retention, the nurse in charge monitors the patient for adverse effects. Which is most likely to occur? a. Decreased peristalsis c. Dry mucous membranes b. Increase heart rate d. Nausea and Vomiting 27. The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first stage of labor. What is the shortest but most difficult part of this stage? a. Active phase c. Latent phase b. Complete phase d. Transitional phase 28. After 3 days of breast-feeding, a postpartal patient reports nipple soreness. To relieve her discomfort, the nurse should suggest that she: a. Apply warm compresses to her nipples just before feedings b. Lubricate her nipples with expressed milk before feeding c. Dry her nipples with a soft towel after feedings d. Apply soap directly to her nipples, and then rinse 29. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time? a. Between 10 and 12 weeks gestation b. Between 16 and 20 weeks gestation c. Between 21 and 23 weeks gestation d. Between 24 and 26 weeks gestation 30. Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include: a. Bright red blood c. A foul odor b. Large clots or tissue fragments d. The complete absence of lochia 31.Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The client states that she is in labor, and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. Which question should the nurse ask her first? a.Do you have any chronic illness? c.What is your expected due date? b.Do you have any allergies? d.Who will be with you during labor? 32.A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should the nurse in charge assess her uterine contractions? a.Every 5 minutes c.Every 30 minutes b.Every 15 minutes d.Every 60 minutes 33.A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Jane should instruct her to notify her primary health care provider immediately if she notices: a.Blurred vision c.Increased vaginal mucus b.Hemorrhoids d.Shortness of breath on exertion 34.The nurse in charge is reviewing a patients prenatal history. Which finding indicates a genetic risk factor? a.The patient is 25 years old b.The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis c.The patient was exposed to rubella at 36 weeks gestation d.The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation 35.A adult female patient is using the rhythm (calendar-basal body temperature) method of family planning. In this method, the unsafe period for sexual intercourse is indicated by; a.Return preovulatory basal body temperature b.Basal body temperature increase of 0.1 degrees to 0.2 degrees on the 2ndor 3rd day of cycle c.3 full days of elevated basal body temperature and clear, thin cervical mucus d.Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz

36.During a nonstress test (NST), the electronic tracing displays a relatively flat line for fetal movement, making it difficult to evaluate the fetal heart rate (FHR). To mark the strip, the nurse in charge should instruct the client to push the control button at which time? a.At the beginning of each fetal movement c.After every three fetal movements b.At the beginning of each contraction d.At the end of fetal movement 37.When evaluating a clients knowledge of symptoms to report during her pregnancy, which statement would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client understands the information given to her? a.Ill report increased frequency of urination. b.If I have blurred or double vision, I should call the clinic immediately. c.If I feel tired after resting, I should report it immediately. d.Nausea should be reported immediately. 38.When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, the nurse discovers that the client had a reduction mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. What information should the nurse give to this mother regarding breast-feeding success? a.Its contraindicated for you to breast-feed following this type of surgery. b.I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with formula. c.You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be possible. d.You should be able to breast-feed without difficulty. 39.Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the clients vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration. Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client? a.Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours b.Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area c.Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered d.Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (Kegel) exercises 40.A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. Although shes 14 weeks pregnant, the size of her uterus approximates that in an 18- to 20-week pregnancy. Dr. Diaz diagnoses gestational trophoblastic disease and orders ultrasonography. The nurse expects ultrasonography to reveal: a.an empty gestational sac. c.a severely malformed fetus. b.grapelike clusters. d.an extrauterine pregnancy. 41.After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse-midwife determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at 1 station. Based on these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is: a.1 cm below the ischial spines. b.directly in line with the ischial spines. c.1 cm above the ischial spines. d.in no relationship to the ischial spines. 42.Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother whos breast-feeding? a.The attachment of the baby to the breast. b.The mothers comfort level with positioning the baby. c.Audible swallowing. d.The babys lips smacking 43.During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation, a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done to identify fetal abnormalities. Between 18 and 40 weeks gestation, which procedure is used to detect fetal anomalies? a.Amniocentesis. c.Fetoscopy. b.Chorionic villi sampling. d.Ultrasound 44.A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of her fetus. Her BPP score is 8. What does this score indicate? a.The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours. b.The client should repeat the test in 24 hours. c.The fetus isnt in distress at this time. d.The client should repeat the test in 1 week. 45.A client whos 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the clients preparation for parenting, the nurse might ask which question? a.Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia? b.Have you begun prenatal classes? c.What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby? d.Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day? 46.A client whos admitted to labor and delivery has the following assessment findings: gravida 2 para 1, estimated 40 weeks gestation, contractions 2 minutes apart, lasting 45 seconds, vertex +4 station. Which of the following would be the priority at this time? a.Placing the client in bed to begin fetal monitoring. c.Checking for ruptured membranes. b.Preparing for immediate delivery. d.Providing comfort measures. 47.Nurse Roy is caring for a client in labor. The external fetal monitor shows a pattern of variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. What should the nurse do first? a.Change the clients position. c.Check for placenta previa. b.Prepare for emergency cesarean section. d.Administer oxygen. 48.The nurse in charge is caring for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery with a midline episiotomy. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client? a.Risk for deficient fluid volume related to hemorrhage c.Pain related to the type of incision b.Risk for infection related to the type of delivery d.Urinary retention related to periurethral edema 49.Which change would the nurse identify as a progressive physiological change in postpartum period? a.Lactation c.Uterine involution b.Lochia d.Diuresis 50.A 39-year-old at 37 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with complaints of vaginal bleeding following the use of cocaine 1 hour earlier. Which complication is most likely causing the clients complaint of vaginal bleeding? a.Placenta previa c.Ectopic pregnancy b.Abruptio placentae d.Spontaneous abortion 51.A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus whos a multigravida visits the clinic at 27 weeks gestation. The nurse should instruct the client that for most pregnant women with type 1 diabetes mellitus: a.Weekly fetal movement counts are made by the mother. b.Contraction stress testing is performed weekly. c.Induction of labor is begun at 34 weeks gestation.

d.Nonstress testing is performed weekly until 32 weeks gestation 52.When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands that this drug is given to: a.Prevent seizures c.Slow the process of labor b.Reduce blood pressure d.Increase dieresis 53.Whats the approximate time that the blastocyst spends traveling to the uterus for implantation? a.2 days c.10 days b.7 days d.14 weeks 54.After teaching a pregnant woman who is in labor about the purpose of the episiotomy, which of the following purposes stated by the client would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? a.Shortens the second stage of labor c.Prevents perineal edema b.Enlarges the pelvic inlet d.Ensures quick placenta delivery 55.A primigravida client at about 35 weeks gestation in active labor has had no prenatal care and admits to cocaine use during the pregnancy. Which of the following persons must the nurse notify? a.Nursing unit manager so appropriate agencies can be notified b.Head of the hospitals security department c.Chaplain in case the fetus dies in utero d.Physician who will attend the delivery of the infant 56.When preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the postpartum period, the nurse in charge should include which of the following? a.The vaccine prevents a future fetus from developing congenital anomalies b.Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months after the immunization c.The client should avoid contact with children diagnosed with rubella d.The injection will provide immunity against the 7-day measles. 57.A client with eclampsia begins to experience a seizure. Which of the following would the nurse in charge do first? a.Pad the side rails c.Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth b.Place a pillow under the left buttock d.Maintain a patent airway 58.While caring for a multigravida client in early labor in a birthing center, which of the following foods would be best if the client requests a snack? a.Yogurt c.Vegetable soup b.Cereal with milk d.Peanut butter cookies 59.The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who us in active labor calls out to the nurse, The baby is coming! which of the following would be the nurses first action? a.Inspect the perineum c.Auscultate the fetal heart rate b.Time the contractions d.Contact the birth attendant 60.While assessing a primipara during the immediate postpartum period, the nurse in charge plans to use both hands to assess the clients fundus to: a.Prevent uterine inversion c.Hasten the puerperium period b.Promote uterine involution d.Determine the size of the fundus 61. Nurse Julia is aware that Labor is divided into how many stages?

a. Five c. Two b. Three d. Four 62. Pen, a nurse-midwife determines that a client is in the second stage of labor and may start pushing. What marks the beginning of the second stage, and what marks the end? a. Cervical dilation of 7 to 8 cm; complete cervical dilation c. Cervical dilation of 7 to 8 cm; delivery of the placenta b. Complete cervical dilation; delivery of the neonate d. Complete cervical dilation; delivery of the placenta 63. a. b. 64. a. b. Jannah, who is in labor receives epidural anesthesia. The nurse should assess carefully for which adverse reaction to the anesthetic agent? Hypotensive crisis Fetal tachycardia c. d. Renal toxicity Increased beat-to-beat variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR)

Nurse Venice is aware that one of the following is the most serious adverse effect associated with oxytocin (Pitocin) administration during labor? Tetanic contractions Elevated blood pressure c. d. Early decelerations of fetal heart rate Water intoxication

65. Nurse Olive asseses a client for evidence of postpartum hemorrhage during the third stage of labor. Early signs of this postpartum complication include: a. b. c. d. an increased pulse rate, decreased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure. a decreased pulse rate, increased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure. a decreased pulse rate, decreased respiratory rate, and increased blood pressure. an increased pulse rate, increased respiratory rate, and decreased blood pressure.

66. To promote comfort during labor, Nurse Michelle advises a client to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia? a. b. 67. a. b. c. d. Lateral position Squatting position c. d. Supine position Standing position

After delivering a neonate, a client delivers the placenta. At this time, where does nurse Adam expect to palpate the uterine fundus? At the midline, 0.4 to 0.8 (1 to 2 cm) above the umbilicus At the midline, 0.4 to 0.8 (1 to 2 cm) below the umbilicus Left of the midline, 0.8 to 1 (2 to 3 cm) above the umbilicus Left of the midline, 0.8 to 1 (2 to 3 cm) below the umbilicus

68. During the active phase of the first stage of labor, Maricris undergoes an amniotomy. After this procedure, which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority?

a. b. c. d.

Deficient knowledge related to amniotomy Ineffective fetal cerebral tissue perfusion related to cord compression Pain related to increasing strength of contractions Risk for infection related to rupture of membranes

69. A client with active genital herpes is admitted to the labor and delivery area during the first stage of labor. Which type of birth should nurse Roy anticipate for this client? a. b. Mid forceps Low forceps c. d. Induction Cesarean

70. After a client enters the second stage of labor, nurse Blessy notes that her amniotic fluid is port-wine colored. What does this finding suggest? a. Increased bloody show c. Abruptio placentae b. Normal amniotic fluid d. Meconium 71. Clariz arrives at the health care facility, stating that her bed linens were wet when she woke up this morning. She says no fluid is leaking but complains of mild abdominal cramps and lower back discomfort. Vaginal examination reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, 100% effacement, and positive ferning. Based on these findings, the nurse concludes that the client is in which phase of the first stage of labor? a. Active phase c. Expulsive phase b. Latent phase d. Transitional phase 72. A client in labor tells April that she feels a strong urge to push. Physical examination reveals that her cervix is not completely dilated. The nursemidwife tells her not to push yet. What is the rationale for this instruction? a. Early pushing may cause edema and impede fetal descent. b. The nurse-midwife isnt ready to assist her. c. The fetus hasnt rotated into the proper position. d. Pushing at this time may cause rupture of the membranes. 73. An assisted birth using forceps or a vacuum extractor may be performed for ineffective pushing, for large infants, to shorten the second stage of labor, or for a malpresentation. Nurse Sally is caring for the mother following an assisted birth should keep which of the following in mind? a. A vacuum extractor is safer than forceps because it causes less trauma to the baby and the mothers perineum. b. The baby will develop a cephalohematoma as a result of the instrumentation. c. The use of instruments during the birth process is a fairly rare occurrence. d. Additional nursing interventions are needed to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum. 74. a. b. c. d. Nurse Divina is aware that the following would be an inappropriate indication of placental detachment? An abrupt lengthening of the cord An increase in the number of contractions Relaxation of the uterus Increased vaginal bleeding

75. When reviewing a fetal monitor strip, nurse Roy looks for reassuring and nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns. Which pattern is nonreassuring? a. FHR that accelerates to baseline tachycardia b. Baseline FHR that doesnt increase c. Variable FHR pattern that begins and ends abruptly d. Short-term variability that doesnt decrease 76. Nurse Adrian is aware that an expected fetal adverse reaction to meperidine (Demerol) during labor is: a. decreased beat-to-beat variability. c. late decelerations. b. bradycardia. d. none known 77. During labor, Amy greatly relies on her husband for support. They previously attended childbirth education classes, and now hes working with her on comfort measures. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this couple? a. Ineffective family coping: Compromised related to labor b. Readiness for enhanced family coping related to participation in pregnancy and delivery c. Powerlessness related to pain d. Ineffective role performance related to involvement with the pregnancy 78. Late in the first stage of labor, Olivia receives a spinal block to relieve discomfort. A short time later, her husband tells the nurse that his wife feels dizzy and is complaining of numbness around her lips. What do the clients symptoms suggest? a. Anesthesia overdose c. Anxiety b. Transition to the second stage of labor d. Dehydration 79. Denice with intrauterine growth retardation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit and started on an I.V. infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin). Which of the following is least likely to be included in her plan of care? a. Carefully titrating the oxytocin based on her pattern of labor b. Monitoring vital signs, including assessment of fetal well-being, every 15 to 30 minutes c. Allowing the client to ambulate as tolerated d. Helping the client use breathing exercises to manage her contractions 80. Lou is in the first stage of labor enters the labor and delivery area. She seems anxious and tells the nurse that she hasnt attended childbirth education classes. Her husband, who accompanies her, is also unprepared for childbirth. Which nursing intervention would be most effective for the couple at this time? a. b. Teach the client progressive muscle relaxation. Instruct the husband on touch, massage, and breathing patterns.

c. d. 81. a. b. c. d. 82. a. b.

Use hypnosis on the client and her husband. Teach the client and her husband about pain transmission. Which of the following physiologic changes during labor makes it necessary for nurse Hazel to assess blood pressure frequently? Blood pressure decreases as a sign of maternal pain. Alterations in cardiovascular function affect the fetus Blood pressure decreases at the peak of each contraction. Decreased blood pressure is the first sign of preeclampsia. During the fourth stage of labor, Jessica should be assessed carefully for: uterine atony complete cervical dilation c. d. placental expulsion umbilical cord prolapse

83. Several minutes after a vaginal delivery, nursing assessment reveals blood gushing from the clients vagina, umbilical cord lengthening, and a globular-shaped uterus. Nurse Luz should suspect which condition? a. b. Cervical or vaginal laceration Placental separation c. d. Postpartum hemorrhage Uterine involution

84. Nurse Mariane is caring for a client whos in labor. The physician still isnt present. After the babys head is delivered, which nursing intervention would be most appropriate? a. Checking for the umbilical cord around the babys neck b. Placing antibiotic ointment in the babys eyes c. Turning the babys head to the side to drain secretions d. Assessing the baby for respirations 85. Vicky, who is in labor shouts to the nurse, My baby is coming right now! I feel like I have to push! An immediate nursing assessment reveals that the head of the fetus is crowning. After asking another staff member to notify the physician and setting up for delivery, which nursing intervention is most appropriate? a. b. c. d. Gently pulling at the babys head as its delivered Holding the babys head back until the physician arrives Applying gentle pressure to the babys head as its delivered Placing the mother in the Trendelenburg position until the physician arrives

86. Situation: During an Anatomy and Physiology class, the lecturer discussed about the female reproductive system. Estrogen, one of the hormones regulating cyclic activities in female reproductive system is responsible for which effect? a. b. c. d. 87.. a. b. Increases the quantity and pH of cervical mucus, causing it to become thin and watery and can be stretched to a distance of 10-13 cm. Inhibits the production of LH Increases endometrial tortuosity All of the above. Jessa, 17 years old, is bleeding between periods of less than two weeks. This condition is an abnormality in the menstrual cycle known as: c. Amenorrhea Metrorrhagia d. Dysmenorrheal Menorrhagia

88. One factor of having a normal delivery is the size of the pelvis. Pelvis serves as the passageway for the passenger (fetus) during childbirth. The most ideal pelvis for childbirth is: a. Android c. Platypelloid b. Anthropoid d. Gynecoid 89.. a. b. 90. a. b. An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent of the head is known as: Linea terminalis Sacrum The permanent cessation of menstruation is: Amenorrhea Menopause c. d. Oligomenorrhea Hypomenorrhea c. d. Ischial spines Ischial tuberosities

Situation: Mrs. Donna, pregnant for 16 weeks age of gestation (AOG), visits the health care facility for her prenatal check-up with her only son, Mark. During assessment the client told the nurse that previously she got pregnant twice. The first was with her only child, Mark, who was delivered at 35 weeks AOG and the other pregnancy was terminated at about 20 weeks AOG. 91. a. b. Based on the data obtained, Mrs. Donnas GTPAL score is: 20111 21111 c. d. 30111 31111

92. Discomforts during pregnancy are discussed by the nurse to the Mrs. Donna. Which of the following, when complained by the client would alert the nurse?

a. b.

Easy fatigability Nausea and vomiting

c. d.

Edema of the lower extremities Heartburn

93. Psychological and emotional responses of pregnant women differ. However, general emotional response has been noted during pregnancy based on their gestational age. Mrs. Donna will most likely have which emotional response towards her pregnancy? a. Presents denial disbelief and sometimes repression. b. Has personal identification of the baby and realistic plans for future of the child. c. Fantasizes the appearance of the baby. d. Verbalizes fear of death during childbirth. 94. The nurse assisted Mrs. Donna to a dorsal recumbent position and is about to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR). Which of the following apparatus should the nurse use in auscultating for the FHR? a. b. Doppler apparatus Fetoscope c. d. Ultrasound Stethoscope

95. Mrs. Donna asked the nurse, when a fetal heart starts beating. The nurse correctly responded by stating: a. 3 weeks AOG c. 12 weeks AOG b. 8 weeks AOG d. 20 weeks AOG Situation: Mrs. Dela Cruz is in labor and is brought to the emergency room with a ruptured bag of water. 96. a. b. c. d. The nurses initial action once the bag of water has ruptured is: Take the fetal heart tones Put the client to the bed immediately Perform an IE Take the womans temperature

97. Mrs. Dela Cruzs has contractions growing stronger which lasts for 40-60 seconds and occur approximately every 3-5 minutes. The doctor is about to perform an IE, the nurse expects that the clients cervical dilatation will be: a. b. 0-3 cm 4-7 cm c. d. 8-10 cm 11-13 cm

98. The doctor informed the woman that she is on station -1. Mrs. Dela Cruz asked the nurse, what does a station -1 means, the most appropriate response of the nurse is: a. b. c. d. It means that engagement has already occurred. The presenting part of your baby is at the entrance of the true pelvis or the largest diameter of the presenting part into the true pelvis. Your baby is still floating or ballotable The presenting part of your baby is at the vulvar ring of your reproductive organ.

99. The history of Mrs. Dela Cruz revealed that she is a multipara. When should the nurse transport the client from the labor room to the delivery room? a. b. When the cervical dilatation is 8 cm. When the cervical dilatation is 10 cm. c. d. When the cervical dilatation is 9 cm. When the client feels the urge to push.

100.. a. b. c. d.

Monitoring contractions is very important during labor. To monitor uterine contractions, what should the nurse do?

Observe for the clients facial expression to know that the contraction has started or stopped. Instruct the client take note of the duration of her contractions. Offer ice chips to the woman. Spread the fingers lightly over the fundus to monitor the contraction.

101. Uterine contractions can occur because of the interplay of the contractile enzyme adenosine triphosphate and the influence some hormones. Which of the following least likely contributes to the occurrence of uterine contractions? a. b. 102. a. b. c. d. Oxytocin Estrogen Dysfunctional labor may be caused by which of the following? c. d. Prolactin All of the above

Excessive or too early analgesia administration Exhausted mother Overdistention of the uterus All of the above

103. The clients uterine contractions are hypotonic. The nurses top priority with hypotonic contractions during the intrapartal period is: a. Pain relief c. Monitoring the lochia for possible bleeding b. Psychological support d. Infection control 104. a. b. For a woman experiencing hypotonic contractions, what should be done initially? Obtain an ultrasonic result Infusion of oxytocin c. d. Administration of analgesia Amniotomy

105. The most important nursing consideration in a postpartal woman with a hypotonic contraction is: a. Assessment for infection b. Assessment for bleeding c. Assessment for FHR d. Assessment for womans coping mechanism Situation: Bleeding during pregnancy is a serious case and should be managed immediately. 106. Mrs. Diane is diagnosed with Placenta Previa. The main difference with the bleeding in placenta previa and abruption placenta is that placenta previa has: a. Painful bleeding c. Bright-red blood b. Rigid abdomen d. Blood filled with clots 107. a. b. 108. a. b. In caring for a client diagnosed with placenta previa, the nurse should avoid which of the following? Inspecting the perineum Performing a Kleihauer-Betke test c. d. Performing a pelvic examination All of the above

For the nurse to distinguish that the bleeding of the patient is placenta previa or abruption placenta what should she ask the woman? c. d. Estimation of blood loss All of the above

Whether there was accompanying pain What she has done for bleeding

109. Continued bleeding may result to fetal distress. The nurse knows that the fetus is being compromised when she observed or note which of the following: a. b. Fetal tachycardia Fetal bradycardia c. d. Fetal thrashing All of the above

110. A woman in labor is diagnosed with abruption placenta. The nurse would expect which findings in the clients history that may contribute to the occurrence of the complication? a. b. Age of 24 years old Cigarette smoking c. d. Sleeping 8 hours per night Sitting for long period

111. Myrna, whos 4 months pregnant asks the nurse how much and what type of exercise she should get during pregnancy. How should nurse Maricel counsel her? a. b. c. d. Try high-intensity aerobics, but limit sessions to 15 minutes daily. Perform gentle back-lying exercises for 30 minutes daily. Walk briskly for 10 to 15 minutes daily, and gradually increase this time. Exercise to raise the heart rate above 140 beats/minute for 20 minutes daily.

112. Linda, whos 37 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the clients preparation for parenting, nurse Kim might ask which question? a. b. c. d. Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia? Have you begun prenatal classes? What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby? Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day? Nurse Tanya is aware that the best place to detect fetal heart sounds for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy? Above the symphysis pubis Below the symphysis pubis c. d. Above the umbilicus At the umbilicus

113. a. b. 114. a. b. c. d.

Lovelyn, asks the nurse whether she can take castor oil for her constipation. How should the nurse respond?

Yes, it produces no adverse effects. No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions. No, it can promote sodium retention. No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

115. A client at 35 weeks gestation complains of severe abdominal pain and passing clots. The clients vital signs are blood pressure 150/100 mm Hg, heart rate 95 beats/minute, respiratory rate 25 breaths/minute, and fetal heart tones 160 beats/minute. Nurse Nikki must determine the cause of the bleeding and respond appropriately to this emergency. Which of the following should the nurse do first? a. b. c. d. Examine the vagina to determine whether her client is in labor Assess the location and consistency of the uterus Perform an ultrasound to determine placental placement Prepare for immediate delivery

116. When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, nurse Lucy discovers that the client had a reduction mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. What information should the nurse give to this mother regarding breast-feeding success? a. b. Its contraindicated for you to breast-feed following this type of surgery. I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with formula.

c. d.

You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be possible. You should be able to breast-feed without difficulty.

117. When questioned, Alma admits she sometimes has several glasses of wine with dinner. Her alcohol consumption puts her fetus at risk for which condition? a. b. Alcohol addiction Anencephaly c. d. Down syndrome Learning disability

118. Nurse Helen has a client at 30 weeks gestation who has tested positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What should the nurse tell the client when she says that she wants to breast-feed her baby? a. b. c. d. Encourage breast-feeding so that she can get her rest and get healthier Encourage breast-feeding because its healthier for the baby Encourage breast-feeding to facilitate bonding Discourage breast-feeding because HIV can be transmitted through breast milk

119. During each prenatal checkup, nurse Paul obtains the clients weight and blood pressure and measures fundal height. What is another essential part of each prenatal checkup? a. b. c. d. Evaluating the client for edema Measuring the clients hemoglobin (Hb) level Obtaining pelvic measurements Determining the clients Rh factor Which of the following instructions should nurse Dan give to a client whos 26 weeks pregnant and complains of constipation?

120. a. b. c. d.

Encourage her to increase her intake of roughage and to drink at least six glasses of water per day. Tell her to ask her caregiver for a mild laxative. Suggest the use of an over-the-counter stool softener. Tell her to go to the evaluation unit because constipation may cause contractions.

121. During the 6th month of pregnancy, Gail reports intermittent earaches and a constant feeling of fullness in the ears. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms? a. b. 122. a. b. c. d. A serious neurologic disorder Eustachian tube vascularization c. d. Increasing progesterone levels An ear infection

Malou, 2 months pregnant, has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which expected outcome is most appropriate for her?

Client will accept the pregnancy and stop vomiting. Client will gain weight according to the expected pattern for pregnancy. Client will remain hospitalized for the duration of pregnancy to relieve stress. Client will exhibit uterine growth within the expected norms for gestational age.

123. When assessing a pregnant client with diabetes mellitus, nurse Gio stays alert for signs and symptoms of a vaginal or urinary tract infection (UTI). Which condition makes this client more susceptible to such infections? a. b. Electrolyte imbalances Decreased insulin needs c. d. Hypoglycemia Glycosuria

124. Josephine, 11 weeks pregnant, is admitted to the facility with hyperemesis gravidarum. She tells the nurse she has never known anyone who had such severe morning sickness. The nurse understands that hyperemesis gravidarum results from: a. b. a neurologic disorder. inadequate nutrition. c. d. an unknown cause. hemolysis of fetal red blood cells (RBCs).

125. A client has come to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. Nurse Alex should include which of the following statements about using drugs safely during pregnancy in her teaching? a. b. c. d. During the first 3 months, avoid all medications except ones prescribed by your caregiver. Medications that are available over the counter are safe for you to use, even early on. All medications are safe after youve reached the 5th month of pregnancy. Consult with your health care provider before taking any medications.

126. A pregnant client asks how she can best prepare her 3-year-old son for the upcoming birth of a sibling. Nurse Lou should make which suggestion? a. b. c. d. Tell your son about the childbirth about 1 month before your due date. Reassure your son that nothing is going to change. Reprimand your son if he displays immature behavior. Involve your son in planning and preparing for a sibling.

127. Nurse Cathy is caring for a 16-year-old pregnant client. The client is taking an iron supplement. What should this client drink to increase the absorption of iron? a. b. A glass of milk A cup of hot tea c. d. A liquid antacid A glass of orange juice

128. a. b.

Nurse Rey is using Doppler ultrasound to assess a pregnant woman. When should the nurse expect to hear fetal heart tones? 7 weeks 11 weeks c. d. 17 weeks 21 weeks

129. Nurse Edith is caring for a client whos on ritodrine therapy to halt premature labor. What condition indicates an adverse reaction to ritodrine therapy? a. b. Hypoglycemia Crackles c. d. Bradycardia Hyperkalemia

130. Noemi, a newly pregnant woman tells the nurse that she hasnt been taking her prenatal vitamins because they make her nauseated. In addition to telling the client how important taking the vitamins are, the nurse should advise her to: a. b. c. d. switch brands. take the vitamin on a full stomach. take the vitamin with orange juice for better absorption. take the vitamin first thing in the morning. A client is scheduled for amniocentesis. When preparing her for the procedure, nurse Vince should do which of the following? Ask her to void. Instruct her to drink 1 L of fluid. c. d. Prepare her for I.V. anesthesia. Place her on her left side.

131. a. b.

132. After determining that a pregnant client is Rh-negative, Dr. Smith orders an indirect Coombs test. What is the purpose of performing this test in a pregnant client? a. b. c. d. To determine the fetal blood Rh factor To determine the maternal blood Rh factor To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-negative factor To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh-positive factor

133. During a routine prenatal visit, a pregnant client reports heartburn. To minimize her discomfort, nurse Faith should include which suggestion in the plan of care? a. b. . 134. a. b. Eat small, frequent meals. Limit fluid intake sharply. c. d. Drink more citrus juice. Take sodium bicarbonate

A pregnant client asks nurse Mary about the percentage of congenital anomalies caused by drug exposure. How should the nurse respond? 1% 10% c. d. 20% 60%

135. Sandy, age 39, visits the nurse practitioner for a regular prenatal check-up. Shes 32 weeks pregnant. When assessing her, the nurse should stay especially alert for signs and symptoms of: a. b. c. d. pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). iron deficiency anemia. cephalopelvic disproportion. sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

Drills (MCN/PEDIA)

Situation: Intrapartal Nursing Care 1. In the delivery room, Mrs. Oro Is 10 cm. Dilated- and the head is fast emerging. Her attending physician has not yet arrived. The initial action the nurse must take after the head emerges is: a. Support the head while the rest of the body is spontaneously delivered. b. Push down on the fundus to help expel the infant. c. Call the doctor STAT d. Deliver the shoulder by turning the presenting part to internal rotation. 2. As labor progresses satisfactorily, it would be appropriate to administer pain medication with cervical dilatation of: c. 5 cm. d. 7 cm. a. 4 cm. b. 3 cm.

3. Mrs. Oro is kept informed of the, progress of her delivery, the nurse anticipates the placenta to be delivered within what period of time following delivery c. 15-20 minutes d. 1-3 minutes a. 10-15 minutes b. 3-10 minutes 4. Several minutes after the delivery, the placenta is still intact. The nurse will do which of these actions? a. Push gently, but firmly on the fundus b. Call the nursing supervisor for help c. Allow the infant to suck on the breast b. Initiate separation by gently pulling on the cord. 5. The placenta has been delivered and the nurse now adds the medication ordered to the i.V. solution which is: c. Penicellin d. Atropine a. Methergin b. Oxytocin 6. The nurse is giving health education to Felicity about discomfort of pregnancy. Which of the following conditions is brought about by increased absorption of phosphorus? c. Constipation d. Heartburn a. Back pain b. Leg cramps 7. The nurse was Instructed to watch out for the occurrence of normal physiologic changes of pregnancy. Which of the following is usually observed during pregnancy? c. Anemia d. Blurred vision a. Increased BP b. Palpitation 8. Which of the following is TRUE about latent stage of tabor? a. self-focused b. effacemant 100% 9. What is the term that refers to menopausal stage of women? a. cessation of menstruation b. onset ofmenstruation c. excessive menstruation d. intermittent menstruation c. dilatation for 2 hours d. 3 cm cervical dilatation

10 What structure of the body is responsible for the production of follicle-stimutattng hormone (FSH)? c. kidney d. anterior pituitary gland a. hypothalamus b. thymus 11. A primigravida asks the nurse, When will I fee! the baby move? The correct response of the nurse is: c. 4 mos d. 6rnos. a. 3 mos b. 5 mos. Situation: Rico. 1 month deliverd via NSVD 12. Mrs. Cadacia observed on Ricos buttocks, a gray color, What do you call this pigmentation in the skin? c. erythema toxicum d. mongolian spots a. milia b. telangiectatic nevi 13. How would you define a word, acrocyanosis? a. cyanosis of hands and feet. b. transient mottling when infant is exposed to the temperature. c. fine, downy hair d. thin, white mucus

14. How can you assess a child who is mentally retarded? a. let .the child make story b. observe for the developmental milestone 15. What serves as sperm producers? a. epididymis b. Vas deferens Situation: Pediatric nursing. 16. In what psychosexual development according to Freud is temper tantrum observed? c. anal d. latency a. phallic b. oral 17. The baby cries and the mother notices tiny, shiny and white specks on the mouth and hard palate- The mother understood If she states: c. Ill notify the dentist d. prevent infection a. it is caused by milk curd b. Ill use sterile gauzed in removing the crusts. 18. The nurse is giving Instruction about neonatal care. Which of the following instruction is most critical? c. provide warm clothing d. prevent infection a. proper feeding b. provide bathing 19. The mother notices a cheese-like substances in a neonate forehead. She asked the nurse if it can be removed. The appropriate response is: a. a soft towel and a baby oil can be used to remove the substance b. an alcohol and gauzed can removed it c. it is a protected substance, leave It alone there d. baby lotion can be used to remove it . 20. A 12-month old boy weighs 9 kgs. His birth weight was 3 kgms. The mother asks if her babys weight Is appropriate to his age. The nurses therapeutic response is: a. He needs to take more milk for supplement b. Weight must be doubled during this time c. Weight is right because weight is tripled at this age d. He is underweight for this age. 21. At the age of 2 years, which of the following teeth have not been erupted? a. canine b. pre-molar c. molar d. incisor c. prostate gland d. testes c. ask the mother what food the child is eating d. ask the child to sing

22. The mother asks the nurse when will the soft bone at the head be closed? The nurse response would be: c. 12-18 mos. d. 14-18 wks a. 12-18wks b. 2-3 mos. 23. What is the most appropriate factor in toilet training? a. age of child b. developmental readiness of the child Situation: Medical Surgical Nursing 24. In what area of the body will be affected by bed sore if the patient maintains supine position? c. sacrum d. malleolus a. heels b. ilium 25. Which of the following can you visualize in intravenous pyelogram (IVP )? c. available time d. maternal flexibility

a. bladder b. bladder and kidney

c. bladder, kidney , ureter d. bladder and ureter

26. An anesthetic agent which has side effects of confusion and suicidal tendencies; c. halothane d. sodium pentothal a. ether b. ketalar

27. What instrument is not included in Mayo table? a. retractor b. tissue forcep c. smooth forcep d. towel forcep

Situation: The adolescent years have the potential to be very exciting as well as a different time for both the child and his parents. 28. As stated by Erikson, the major concern of the adolescent years is the: a. formation of romantic association b. attainment of independence c. gratification of his needs d. resolution of the crisis of personal identity 29. Parental actions which can help achieve the goal of adolescent years are all of the following, EXCEPT; a. permits increasing independence b. discusses future plans with the adolescent c. intolerance of .adolescents need to be liked by peers d. permits and encourages peer relationships 30. Here are teenagers today who engage In sex without realizing the repercussions of their actions. Witch of the parental response would be appropriate for this problem? c. Inforcing stricter rules and punishment d. Screening the teenagers company of friends a. Providing regular and open communication b. Limiting the number of teenagers social activities 31. Some of the task of adolescent years include the following, except: a. developing a personal Identity b. advicing independence from patients c. developing relationship with peers d. unlimited expression of sexual drives

32. Which of the following statements best describe the nutritional profiie of the adolescent? c. Slow but steady growth, poor eating habits d. Stunted growth, voracious appetite a. Rapid growth, desires company with meals b. Rapid growth, eat meals alone Situation: You are assigned a Rural Health Unit which is a training area for student nurse, in a conference with the students, questions on the DOH programs such as: 33. The most effective measure of controlling schistosomiasis is; a. casefinding and prompt treatment of cases b. provision of sanitary toilets 34. Rabies virus can be transmitted through: a. Penetration of broken skin b. contact with a pre-existing wound or scratch 35. Which of the following statements about- diphtheria is false? a. Immunity is often acquired through a complete immunization series of Diphtheria b. infants born to immune mothers maybe protected up to 5 months c. penetration of intact mucosa d. any of these modes of transmission c. environmental sanitation and environmental control d. practice of hygiene

c. Diphtheria transmission Is Increased in hospital households, schools and other crowded areas. d. Recovery from clinical attack is always followed by a lasting Immunity to the disease Situation: The following questions pertain to concepts on Community Health Nursing: 36. A logical approach used by the nurse in providing community health and communicable nursing is: c. logical nursing intervention d. nursing assessment a. problem solving b. nursing process 37. Which of the following statement is wrong: a. A nursing diagnosis is stated in terms of a problem and not a need b. A nursing diagnosis describes a patients health problem c. A nursing process to the method of data gathering and diagnosing diseases d. A component of the nursing process that pertains to the organization of data and describes the nursing problem is the assessment 38. Debbie is experiencing dystocia, a painful, difficult and prolonged delivery. The nurse is aware that the primary cause related to problems with all of these Except the. c. Passenger d. Passageway a. Power b. Prognosis 39. In dystocia, the nurse assesses: 1. contractions dropping intensity and frequency 2. progress of labor 3. vagina! exam 4. abdominal palpation and fetal position a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1,2,3 and 4 40. The nursing intervention that Is most important in a patient on IV Morphine? a. Monitor for hypertension b. Monitor for decreased respiratlons c. Monitor for cardiac rates d. Monitor for hyperglycemia Situation: A clinical instructor, Mrs. Romero is giving a pre-test on Psychiatric Nursing to third year nursing students. 41. The fundamental concepts in Psychiatric nursing is seeing the patient as a whole organism with distinct personality. The nurse should: a. Respect the patients moral values b. Avoid labeling the patient as psychiatric entity c. Understand the patients family background d. Uphold the patients right to make decisions 42. On crisis intervention, one of the important personal qualities . that can enhance the nurses effectiveness is: a. Friendliness b. Flexibility c. Patience d. Consistency 43. A technique In crisis intervention which involves using the clients emotion and values to his own benefit in the therapeutic regmen Is known as: c manipulation d. Support defense a. clarification b. reinforcement of behavior 44. Family therapy is the treatment of choice in one of the following situatlons: a. There is a need to uncover repressed feelings and concerns of the clients b. There is a need to promote an environment adaptive to the individual clients needs c. The primary problem Is related to marital conflict or sibling rivalry d. The client requested for this type of therapy c. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,3, and 4

Situation This pertains to Intrapartum Care. 45. True labor contraction Is best described by this discomfort that: a. starts over the fundus, radiating downward to the cervix b. radiates upward and downward from the umbilicus c. Is localized over the fundus of the uterus d. begins In the lower back and the abdomen radiating over entire abdomen 46. The nurse performs vaginal exams on a laboring woman and records this data is correctiy Interpreted as: a. fetal presenting part is 1 cm. above the ischlal spines b. cervical dilatation is 25% completed c. progress of effacement is 5 cm. completed d. fetal presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines 47.Monitoring the progress of labor inthe delivery room is a standard activity. The. nurse prioritizes her work load by recognizing that a nulliparous mother in the first stage of labor would expect these; a. Latent phase is completed less than 20 hours b. Maximum slope averages 4 to 5 hrs c. Acceleration phase is 6 to 8 hours d. Transition phase lasting no longer than 4 hours. Situation Growth and development is a human cycle with milestone to achieve. 48- Based on Eriksons theory, the primary developmental task of the middle years is: c. to establish heterosexual relationship d. to develop a sense of personal identity a. to attain independence b. to achieve generativity 49. Early adult age Is partlcular!y focused on achieving a. independence from parental control b. greater stability and life style 50. These are characteristics of a mature person, except; a. practical and ambitious b. accountable and responsible for his actions 51. The group at greatest risk for unmet needs is: a. the very young and the very old b. all age groups c. the poor and the very rich d. the adult and the aged c. feels comfortable with himself d. acknowledges strengths and weaknesses . c. greater stability and life style d. self-direction and self-appraisal

Situation -At the health center, the nurse conducts a, nutrition class, very lively question and answer prevailed in this group meeting52.Amy, a pregnant mother from a sectarian group strictly adheres to a. vegetarian diet. The vitamin supplement the nurse recommend Is c. Vit D d. Vit. A a. Vit.C b. Vit B12 53. For point of clarification a patient asks for the importance of Folic Acid in pregnancy. The nurse explains that vitamin is especially needed during pregnancy as it: c. is essential for cell and RBC formation d. helps in maternal circulation a. assists in growth of heart and lungs b. helps in coagulation of red blood cells 54. In this mothers class, the nurse discusses about: specific needs during pregnancy and lactation, She states that the daily servings required for the carbohydrates group are: c. 2 servings d. 3 servings a. 4 servings b. 6 servings Situation Charito de Lapaz, a PHN, is discussing with the mothers the different herbal medicines used In the community.

55. It is effective for asthma, cough, and dysentery: a. Yerba Buena b. Lagundi 56. lt is an anti-edema, diuretic and anti-urolithiasis. a. Sambong b. Tsaang-gubat c. Niyug-niyogan d. Akapulko c. Sambong d. Tsaang-gubat

57. Its seeds are taken 2 hours after supper to expel round worms, which can cause ascariasis; c. Niyug-niyogan d. Bawang a. Akapulko b. Bayabas 58. It is effectively used for mild non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. a. bawang b. Bayabas 59. The following are true in the preparation of herbal medicines, EXCEPT: a. Avoid the use of Insecticides as may poison on plants b. Stop giving the medication in case reaction such as allergy occurs c. Use only the part of the plant being advocated d. Use a day pot and cover while boiling at low heat. Situation Leo Leon, a carpenter has been complaining of headache for 2 days. his wife, a trained BHW used the acupressure technique on Leo to relieve Mm of his discomfort. 60. Acupressure was started same 5.000 years ago by: a. Germans b. Filipinos c. Chinese d. Americans c. Ulasimang Bato d. ampalaya

Situation In a mother class, several topics are discussed. Questions 15 to 20 pertain to these 61. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, EXCEPT: a. Every pregnancy should be Intended b. Every birth be healthy c. Every woman should be g|ven a condom to protect herself from pregnancy and other STDs d. Every sex should be free or coercion and infection 62. It is record used when rendering prenatal care in the community, a. Prenatal record b. Home Based mothers record 63. Which of the following is given to the pregnant woman? a. Chloroquine b. Iron 64 All of the following should be observed in home deliveries, EXCEPT: a. Clean hands b. Clean sheets 65. What is the major cause of maternal death? a. Infection b. Hemorrhage 66. The first postparturn should be done when: c. Prolonged labor d. Retained placenta c. Clean cord d. Clean surface c. iodized oil capsule d. All of the above c. Pink Card d. Mothers book

a. After 48 hours b. After 24 hours Situation: The following questions are Included In the review of EPI

c. After 3 days d. Within 24 hours .

67. It provides for compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below 8 years of age; c Presidertial Decree No, 996 d. Presidential Proclamation No.147 a. Presidential proclamation N.773 b. Republic Act 7846 68. The vaccine should be given on: a. 1 month b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 9 months

69. How much Vit A should be given to 6-11 months old Infants who is experiencing Vit. A deficiency? c. 100,000 IU d. 50,000 IU a. 200,000 IU b. 400.000 IU 70. Micronutrient supplementation is included In what program of the DOH? a. Expanded program on Immunization b. Reproductive Health c. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy d. Sentrong sigla

Situation Communicabie Diseases are most prevalent in Brgy, Problemado, a group of PHN went to the area to disseminate necessary information regarding early detection, control and cure of the different communicable diseases. 71. It is the name for a comprehensive strategy which primary health services around the world is using to detect and cure TB patients. a. National TB program b. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course (DOTS) c. center for Communicable diseases d. international TB control Organization 72. All but one is the early sign of leprosy: a. Madarosis b. Nasal obstruction or bleeding 73. Leprosy can be transmitted through a. Blood b. Sex c. Semen d. Prolonged skin to skin contact c. Change In skin color d. Ulcers that do not heal

74. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy esp. among children is: a. Taking INH for prophylaxis b. Healthy environment c. Good nutrition d. BCG immunization