Special Review Classes for

NAPOLCOM Eligibility Examinations

 
Reviewer on
REVISED PHILIPPINE NATIONAL
POLICE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
(POP)
 
December 10-13, 2014 

PSUPT ARVIN Q ALCANTARA

Asst. Chief, Law Enforcement Division
Directorate for Operations
 Rule 1
1. Under Rule 1.1 of the POP, the function of a police officer is _____.
a. To Serve and Perform
b. To Investigate Crimes and Arrest Criminals
c. To Serve and Protect
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
2. No police operation shall be conducted in order to _________.
a. serve or protect the illegal activity of a particular person
b. serve or protect a group or criminal syndicate
c. defend the personal interests of the powerful
d. A and B
e. None of the above
 
3. According to Rule 1.2, “All PNP personnel shall respect the human rights and
dignity of the suspect/s during _________.”
a. police community relations activities
b. police investigation
c. police operations
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 2
4. Rule 2.1 prescribes that “A police officer shall always wear the agency
prescribed uniform which is appropriate for __________.”
a. his rank
b. for the police station
c. the kind of police operation to be undertaken
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
5. According to Rule 2.2, “When wearing the police uniform, a police officer shall, at
all times, appear _________ ".
a. professional, smart and prepared
b. presentable, smart and well-groomed
c. prepared, smart and accessible
d. presentable, skillful and approachable
e. None of the above
 
6. Rule 2.3 states that, "Every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle or
on foot patrol, must always carry with him __________".
a. his badge, firearm and Miranda Warning Card
b. a police notebook, a pen and the Miranda Warning Card
c. his whistle, badge and ammunition
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 3
7. Which of the following is a public safety 10. Internal Security Operation includes
operation? _____________.
a. Counter-Insurgency Operations a. Counter-Insurgency Operations
b. Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations b. Counter Terrorist Operations
c. Service of Warrant of Arrest c. Anti-Crime Operation
d. None of the above d. A and B
e. All of the above e. All of the above
   
8. Which of the following is a law enforcement 11. Which of the following is a Special Police
operation? Operation?
a. Implementation of Search Warrant a. Anti-Illegal Fishing Operation
b. Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation b. Anti-Illegal Gambling Operation
c. Anti-Carnapping Operations c. Hostage Situation Operation
d. All of the above d. None of the above
e. None of the above e. All of the above
 
9. What are included in Intelligence Operation?
a. Counter Intelligence Operation
b. Surveillance Operation
c. Intelligence Research
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 4
12. Who shall file a pre-operational 14. A pre-operational clearance shall be
clearance prior to the conduct of the filed by the Team Leader of the
operation? operating team/s prior to the conduct of
the operation and shall be approved by
a. Police on duty
__________.
b. Section Chief of the Police Unit
a. the operations section/division of the
c. Unit Chief or Ground Commander
concerned police unit
d. Team Leader of the operating team
b. the concerned Police Unit
e. None of the above
Commander
  c. the head of the local government unit
13. The pre-operational clearance shall be concerned
submitted to _____________. d. All of the above
a. the head of the local government unit e. None of the above
for funding purposes  
b. the Chief of Police for approval 15. The pre-operational clearance shall be
c. the operations section/division of the submitted to the operations
concerned police unit for record section/division of the concerned police
purposes unit for __________.
d. All of the above a. appropriate action
e. None of the above b. approval
c. record purposes
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 5
16. For the purpose of inter-unit coordination, the Team Leader/s (TL) of local police units
operating outside their territorial jurisdiction and National Support Units (NSUs) shall
coordinate, personally or ___________.
a. through the Office of the LGU Head (Governor or Mayor)
b. through an official representative, with the Police Regional, Provincial or City Police Office
within whose jurisdiction the operation is to be conducted
c. through the Office of the DSWD
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
17. How should the team leaders communicate in cases where formal inter-unit coordination is
not feasible?
a. The Police Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police office through any
practical/available means of communication at anytime during the operation.
b. The Police Unit shall accomplish and furnish the territorial police office a written incident report
immediately after the termination of the operation.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
 
18. Inter-unit coordination can be accomplished through __________.
a. personal or through an official representative
b. filing of Coordination Form
c. any practical/available means of communication
d. written incident report immediately after the termination of the operation
e. All of the above
 Rule 6
19. A police officer can participate in a 21. Choose the correct statement.
Checkpoint Operation even if not in a. A Police Officer should avoid firing
prescribed attire, provided that he is warning shots as much as possible,
carrying his badge and identification but can do so depending on the
card. situation.
a. True b. Police Officers are allowed to fire
b. False warning shots in order to avoid
c. Maybe further violence.
d. Case to case basis c. A Police Officer shall not use warning
  shots during police intervention
20. Which of the following are not operations.
included in the basic requirements of d. All of the above
police operation under Rule 6.1? e. None of the above
 
a. Marked Police Vehicle
22. Which of the following maybe use to
b. PNP Personnel in prescribed police
warn or influence offenders to stop or
uniform or attire
peacefully give up during actual police
c. Led by a Police Commissioned
intervention?
Officer (PCO)
a. flash light
d. Ball pen and notebook b. warning shot
e. None of the above c. police baton
  d. megaphone
e. All of the above
 Rule 7
23. Before a police officer can use force against an 26. Where does reasonableness of the force
offender, he/she should first _________. employed depends on?
a. show his/her weapons in order to discourage a. Number of aggressors
violence b. Nature and characteristics of the weapon
b. fire warning shot to intimidate the offender used
c. issue a verbal warning in a loud and clear c. Physical condition of the aggressors
manner
d. Place and occasion of the assault
d. All of the above
e. All of the above
e. None of the above
   
24. Which of the following statements is not part of 27. Which of the following situations warrant the
a verbal warning? use of reasonable force?
a. The police officer’s intention and what he a. The offender is cooperative and surrenders
wants the offender to do. peacefully.
b. Physical threats to the offender. b. The offender is unarmed, but is verbally
c. The Police Officer identifying himself. insulting the police officer.
d. All of the above c. The offender has a pistol and is running
e. None of the above away from the police officer.
  d. The offender is armed with an ice pick and is
25. Which of the following non-lethal weapons is running towards the police officer.
not allowed to be used to bring a violent e. All of the above
suspect under control, or effect an arrest?
a. Baton
b. Truncheon
c. pepper spray
d. stun gun
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 8
28. Which of the following scenarios is not 30. A police officer who fires his service
justifiable on the use of firearms? firearm or weapon during a confrontation
a. Unruly group of persons destroying with an offender or offenders must
properties and threatens passersby. submit __________.
b. A man holding a knife threatens to kill a. himself to a ballistics test
anyone who will approach him. b. an incident report outlining the
c. Armed robbers fleeing the scene of the circumstances necessitating the use of
crime in a vehicle carrying millions of his firearm
cash. c. an incident report justifying his action
d. An armed suspect onboard a vehicle d. A and B only
ignored a checkpoint and run over the e. All of the above
barricade.  
e. All of the above 31. The police officer’s use of firearm is
  justified in the following conditions,
29. Which of the following is not part of the except one which is _________.
procedures after an armed a. if the offender poses imminent danger
confrontation? of causing death or injury to the police
a. Secure the site of confrontation; officer or other persons
b. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest b. self defense
hospital; c. defense of a relative
c. Submit After-Operations Report; d. defense of a stranger
d. Media briefing; e. None of the above
e. Take photographs;
 
 Rule 9
32. You are tailing a suspicious vehicle and 34. You stopped a suspicious individual on the
have come across an intersection on red street and you are asking for his
light. The suspicious vehicle ignores the identification. What would you do next?
red light. What would you do? a. Secure the individual using handcuffs
a. Ignore the red light and pursue the while you search his/her belongings for
vehicle. contraband.
b. Stop on the red light, taking note of the b. Shout at the individual to hand over
suspect vehicle’s direction of travel identification quickly.
c. Wait patiently for the individual to present
and plate number.
proper identification.
c. Cancel the pursuit and resume patrol
d. Ask bystanders for the individual’s name.
d. Report the vehicle make, model, color  
and plate number to HQ. 35. While checking suspicious places
  especially during nighttime, a police officer
33. Which of the following individuals can should be prepared to use his service
serve as a good source of information on firearm.
a patrol? a. True
a. Frequent loiters (Tambays) b. False
b. Stay-in employees of local  
establishments 36. When patrolling at night, patrol officers
c. Random bystanders should not observe the shaking of doors of
d. All of the above unguarded establishments at night to
e. None of the above check for intrusions.
  a. True
b. False
 
 Rule 9
37. Before starting a patrol, the patrol 41. Debriefings are conducted after the patrol
supervisor makes a patrol plan. to assess its conduct and make necessary
a. True corrective measures on defects noted.
b. False a. True
  b. False
38. Patrol teams should be briefed before  
42. Which of the following does NOT belong in
dispatch.
a patrol plan?
a. True
a. Route plan
b. False b. Stand-by points
  c. Area coverage
39. Checking of uniforms and equipment d. Detail of Personnel
checks are the responsibility of patrol e. None of the above
team buddies.  
a. True 43. The patrol officer has the authority to
b. False disperse unlawful assemblies.
  a. True
40. Hourly reports are not necessary when a b. False
patrol team does not encounter anything  
significant in their patrol. 44. Suspicious vehicles parked along main
a. True roads should not be checked for possible
b. False explosives or other dangers.
a. True
 
b. False
 
 Rule 9
45. Patrol officers should arrest law violators on
sight upon the commission of the crime. 49. Upon arrival at the scene, a police officer
a. True should prioritize _________.
b. False a. arresting the criminals
  b. aiding the injured
46. A patrol officer assists personnel of c. gathering evidences
responsible agencies/unit in facilitating the d. All of the above
flow of traffic at busy intersections/roads
e. None of the above
within his AOR.
a. True
 
b. False 50. When the situation calls for a discreet
  approach, the officer should __________.
47. During patrol, an officer should not re-visit a. stop the patrol car some distance from
locations that have already been patrolled. the scene and approach the scene on
a. True foot, in complete silence and exercising
b. False extreme caution
 
48. When responding to a life-threatening b. park the patrol car directly in front of the
emergency call, an officer should arrive at the scene
scene ___________. c. avoid using a patrol car to gain the
a. driving with haste using sirens and flashing element of surprise
lights d. call for a SWAT Team
b. driving cautiously without sirens and  
flashing lights
c. driving an unmarked vehicle
d. driving as fast as possible
e. All of the above
 
 Rule 9
51. Upon arrival at the scene with no wounded 54. When responding to calls due to found
person involved, an officer should always explosives in the area, the police officer
focus on arresting the criminals. should never attempt to handle, move or lift
a. True the object. Instead contact Operations
b. False Center and request for EODT.
  a. True
52. When responding to street fights, a patrol b. False
officer should immediately intervene to  
break up the fight. 55. When responding to domestic conflicts
a. True between neighbors, a police officer should
b. False immediately try to resolve the conflict to
  avoid further tension.
53. When responding to calls for police a. True
assistance, a police officer should always b. False
__________.  
a. gather and note down in the patrol 56. When responding to calls from owners of
officer's logbook all available data as to beerhouses bars or inns or any other
the nature of the calls, date,time and similar establishments during night time,
name of the caller police officers should ask the owner of the
b. determine the crime committed establishment to turn on the lights before
c. identify and question briefly the entering the establishment.
victim/complainant and possible a. True
witnesses b. False
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 10
57. A police officer can perform a spot check on 62. Which of the following are not what a police
individuals without determining whether the officer should do when performing a spot check?
circumstances warrant a request for backup. a. Wait for back-up when dealing with potentially
a. True dangerous circumstances.
b. False b. Remain vigilant for suspicious movements like
 
58. A police officer can perform a pat-down search attempting to retrieve weapon.
without due caution, restraint, and sensitivity in a c. Shall be courteous at all times but maintain
crowded area. caution.
a. True d. Inquire about the person's identity.
b. False e. None of the above
   
59. Visual indicators that a suspect is carrying a firearm is 63. Which of the following is not a suspicious
reason enough for a pat-down search. behavior that can be a ground for a spot check?
a. True a. The individual flees at the sight of a Police
b. False Officer.
 
b. The individual is wearing a jacket and dark
60. Before performing a spot check, a police officer
shades.
should read out the person’s rights under the
c. The individual is in the vicinity of a recent crime.
Miranda Doctrine.
d. Questionable presence of the individual in the
a. True
area.
b. False
e. None of the above
61. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be  
conducted by at least two (2) police officers, one 64. If a suspect is carrying a backpack, the officer
to perform the search while the other provides should first check the contents of the bag for
protective cover. weapons or contraband.
a. True a. True
b. False b. False

 
 Rule 11
65. In the event that a checkpoint is ignored 67. Police car lights must be turned on at all
and the motorist bumped the roadblock times during a roadblock operation.
in an attempt to elude arrest or avoid a. True
inspection, PNP personnel are allowed to b. False
give warning shots. c. Maybe
a. True d. Upon approval
b. False e. On a case to case basis
c. Maybe  
d. Upon approval 68. If the vehicle’s windows are heavily
e. On a case to case basis tinted and the occupants cannot be
  seen, shoot the windows of the car.
66. In the event that the occupants of the a. True
vehicle open fire/engage the troops b. False
manning the roadblock, use only c. Maybe
necessary force to neutralize the d. Upon approval
suspects. e. On a case to case basis
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 12
69. What agency is mandated to provide active 72. The PNP may assume the lead role in ISO
support to the AFP in ISO? against the CTM, other threat groups and
a. Department of the Interior and Local organized crime groups engaged in armed
Government offensives in urban areas.
b. Philippine National Police a. True
c. National Bureau of Investigation b. False
d. All of the above c. Maybe
e. None of the above d. Upon approval
 
e. On a case to case basis
70. What Executive Order directs a specific
 
agency to undertake active support to the
73. PNP units can operate as a single force and
AFP in ISO for the suppression of
lateral coordination with the AFP is not a
insurgency?
must.
a. Executive Order No. 423
a. True
b. Executive Order No. 546
b. False
c. Executive Order No. 653
c. Maybe
d. All of the above
d. Upon approval
e. None of the above
  e. On a case to case basis
71. What is the meaning of CTM?  
a. Communist Terrorist Maneuver
b. Communist Terror Management
c. Communist Terrorist Movement
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 12
74. Specific areas where armed confrontations 76. Duty station guards shall memorize and put
occurred between government forces and into practice the ____ General Orders of a
Communist Terrorist such as encounter, Duty Guard.
ambush, raid, liquidation and other similar a. 10
atrocities shall be treated as a crime scene. b. 11
a. True c. 12
b. False d. 13
e. 14
c. Maybe
 
d. Upon approval
77. What is the meaning of ASCPs?
e. On a case to case basis a. Advanced Security Control Points
  b. Advanced Security Control Perimeter
75. What are considered as priority targets of c. Advanced Security Control Panel
attacks by CTs? d. All of the above
a. Mobile Units e. None of the above
b. Police Stations  
c. Headquarters Office 78. CTM members can be easily identified by
d. All of the above PNP/AFP Forces as well as other LEAs thus,
e. None of the above coordination and conduct of police visibility
  patrols can be done in a random manner.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 13
79. A police officer cannot arrest a member of 83. When a police officer is denied entry to a
the Senate in their home while the building when serving a warrant of
Congress is in session with an offence arrest, he does not have the right to
punishable by more than six years of forcefully enter and should instead wait
imprisonment. for backup.
a. True a. True
b. False
  b. False
80. Any person can perform a warrantless  
arrest on an individual who has escaped 84. When arresting women or children, the
from prison. arresting officer should call for a WCPD
a. True officer or a policewoman to effect an
b. False arrest.
 
a. True
81. Bystanders can be summoned for
assistance by a police officer making a
b. False
lawful arrest.  
a. True 85. Before interrogation, the person arrested
b. False shall have the right to be informed of his
  right to demand physical examination by
82. A copy of the warrant of arrest for an an independent and competent doctor of
individual should always be present when his own choice.
executing an arrest. a. True
a. True
b. False
b. False
 
 Rule 14
86. A search warrant shall be issued only upon 88. If the object or purpose of the search warrant
probable cause in connection with cannot be accomplished within the ten (10)-
____________ to be determined personally by day validity period, the responsible police
the judge after examination under oath or officer conducting the search must _________.
affirmation of the complainant and the a. continue even beyond the validity period of
witnesses presented. the search warrant
a. one specific offense b. file before the issuing court another search
b. two offenses warrant of the same object or purpose
c. multiple offenses c. file before the issuing court an application
d. All of the above for the extension of the validity period of
e. None of the above said search warrant
  d. All of the above
87. What is the validity period of a search warrant e. None of the above
from the date of issuance?  
a. Seven (7) days 89. If, in the implementation of the search warrant,
b. Ten (10) days its object or purpose cannot be accomplished
c. One (1) Month in one day, the search can be continued
d. All of the above __________ provided it is still within the ten
e. None of the above (10) validity period of the search warrant.
  a. the following day, or days,
b. until completed,
c. upon approval of the COP
d. A and B only
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 14
90. What are the properties that may be the 92. In the conduct of search, if after giving notice of his
purpose and authority, the police officer is refused
objects of a search warrant? admittance to the place of search, which of the
a. Properties which are the subject of the following may be done by the implementing police
offence. officer?
b. Objects that are illegal per se, even if not a. He may break open any outer or inner door or
particularly described in the search warrant, window therein to implement the warrant.
may be seized under the plain view b. He may break open any part of a house or anything
therein to implement the warrant.
doctrine. c. Liberate himself or any person lawfully aiding him
c. Objects including weapons, equipment, and when unlawfully detained therein.
other items used as means of committing an d. All of the above
offense. e. None of the above
d. All of the above  
e. None of the above 93. Which of the following are prohibited acts in the
conduct of search by virtue of a Search Warrant?
  a. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be
91. When can a Police Officer serve a search searched in the presence of the lawful occupant
warrant in normal circumstances? thereof or any member of his family.
a. Anytime b. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall be
b. Daytime searched in the presence of two (2) witnesses of
c. Nighttime sufficient age and discretion residing in the same
locality.
d. All of the above c. Lawful personal properties, papers, and other
e. None of the above valuables not specifically indicated or particularly
  described in the search warrant shall not be taken.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 14
94. Which of the following is a lawful act of a police officer who
confiscates properties with a valid search warrant?
a. Confiscate bundle of cash hidden in a closed cabinet near the table
where the object of the warrant was recovered.
b. Confiscation of lawful personal properties, papers and valuables not
indicated in the warrant.
c. The police officer delivers the property seized to the chief of office who
requested for the issuance of the search warrant, together with an
inventory thereof, duly verified under oath.
d. The police officer issues a detailed receipt of property seized to the
lawful occupant of the premises.
e. All of the above
 Rule 15
95. Which of the following is responsible for 97. Why are bullet cartridges and slugs recovered
investigating armed confrontation? from the scene of the armed confrontation be
a. The police officers that are involved in immediately submitted to the Crime Laboratory?
the confrontation. a. The bullets need to be cleaned and reloaded
b. The Special Weapons and Tactics for re-use
Team. b. For capturing and cross matching through
c. The Territorial Police Unit. IBIS.
d. All of the above c. Slugs and cartridges might be picked-up by
e. None of the above civilians in the area
  d. None of the above
96. When strictly observing the chain of e. All of the above
custody, as much as practicable the  
investigator-on-case (IOC) shall 98. IBIS is used for capturing and cross-matching
personally submit the recovered firearms and slugs. What does IBIS mean?
firearms/shells/slugs to the _________. a. Internal Budget Inspection Section
a. Chief of Police b. Integrated Bar and Inspection System
b. Prosecutor’s Office c. International Ballistics Information System
c. local Crime Laboratory d. Integrated Ballistics Identification System
d. None of the above e. None of the above
e. All of the above  
 
 Rule 15
99. According to Rule 15.1, “The Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction
over the area where the armed confrontation occurred shall ________".
a. call the Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO) Team immediately
b. immediately undertake investigation and secure evidence.
c. secure the scene and immediately undertake the necessary investigation
d. report the crime and call for back-up
e. All of the above
 Rule 16
100. The Judicial Affidavit Rule applies to_____________.
a. all criminal actions where the maximum imposable penalty does not exceed six
years
b. all criminal actions where the imposable penalty exceeds six years
c. all criminal actions where the minimum imposable penalty is six years
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
101. A Judicial Affidavit contains all of the following except, __________.
a. the name, age, residence or business address, and occupation of the witness
b. the name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the examination
of the witness and the place where the examination is being held
c. a statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him, fully
conscious that he does so under oath, and that he may face criminal liability for
false testimony or perjury
d. the signature of a judge
e. None of the above
 
102. The Judicial Affidavit Rule shall apply to all criminal actions where the
maximum impossible penalty does not exceed six years.
a. True
b. False
 Rule 17
103.What is a Police Blotter?
a. A Police Blotter is where all types of operational and undercover dispatches shall be
recorded containing the five "Ws" (who, what, where, when and why) and one "H"
(how) of an information.
b. A Police Blotter is a logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports,
official summaries of arrest, and other significant events reported in a police station.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
 
104.How many Police Blotter are being maintained by the Police Stations?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
105.The PNP e-Blotter is fully discussed in the __________.
a. PNP SOP Nr 2012-001(“Crime Incident Reporting System”)
b. PNP SOP Nr 2012-001 (“Incident Recording System”)
c. PNP SOP Nr 2002-001 (“Incident Reporting System”)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 17
106. A separate police blotter shall be maintained for crime incident reports involving
violence against women and children and those cases involving child in conflict with
law to protect their privacy, pursuant to what particular RA?
a. RA 6292 and RA 9334
b. RA 9262 and RA 9344
c. RA 9344 and RA 9226
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
107. Each PNP operating unit shall also maintain and utilize the PNP Crime Incident
Reporting System (CIRS), generically dubbed as e-Blotter, an electronic reporting
system that __________.
a. facilitates crime documentation
b. modernizes data storage
c. provides quick and reliable transmission of crime information from lower units and
NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp Crame, Quezon City
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 18
108. All crime incidents whether reported by the victims, witnesses or
third parties must be recorded in the police blotter, even under the
following circumstances: ____________.

a. When the offender is ill and is unlikely to recover or is too senile or too
mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place;
b. When the complainant or an essential witness is dead and the
proceedings cannot be pursued;
c. The victim or complainant or witness is a minor;
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 19
109. After an arrest, a suspect is taken into police custody and “booked” or “processed”. During
booking, which of the following is not a procedure to be performed by the designated police
officers?
a. Record information about the suspect’s alleged crime;
b. Perform a record search of the suspect’s criminal background;
c. Take custody of any personal property carried by the suspect (i.e. keys, purse) and turn it
over to the operation section;
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
110. Who should prepare or accomplish PNP Booking Form- 1 “Medical Examination of Arrested
Suspects Request Form”?
a. Desk officer
b. Duty investigator
c. Duty officer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
111. Who should prepare a Turn-over Receipt Form (from Investigator to the Jailer) known as PNP
Booking Form-3 "Turn Over of Arrested Suspect/s Form and "Jailer’s Receipt of Suspects"
form?
a. Desk officer
b. Duty investigator
c. Duty officer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 19
112. Who is responsible for ensuring that the suspects’ fingerprints or tenprints are taken
by the Fingerprint Technician using the PNPBF-2C "Tenprint Card"?
a. Desk officer
b. Duty investigator
c. Duty officer
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
113. The Investigator shall be responsible for preparing the necessary documents except
for __________.
a. affidavit-complaint
b. affidavit of witness
c. Request for Medical Examination of the Arrested Suspect
d. booking and arrest report
e. All of the above
 Rule 20
114.What are the duties of the police during custodial investigation?
a. The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, shall ensure that a
person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation shall, at all times, be
assisted by counsel, preferably of his own choice.
b. The arresting officer, or the investigator as the case may be, must inform the person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation of his rights under the Miranda
Doctrine in a language or dialect known to and understood by him.
c. If the person arrested, detained, or under custodial investigation has opted to give a
sworn statement, the arresting officer, or the investigator, as the case may be, must
reduce it in writing.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
115. Failure of the arresting officer, or the investigator, to observe the procedures in
taking extrajudicial confession shall render the confession _______ as evidence
in any proceeding.
a. Admissible
b. Valid
c. Inadmissible
d. None of the above
 
 Rule 20
116.Which of the following statements is not true about the rights of a person under
custodial investigation?
a. After interrogation, the person under custodial investigation shall have the right to
be informed of his right to demand physical examination by an independent and
competent doctor of his own choice.
b. If he cannot afford the services of a doctor of his own choice, he shall be provided
by the State with a competent and independent doctor to conduct physical
examination.
c. The physical examination of the person under custodial investigation shall be
contained in a medical report, which shall be attached to the custodial investigation
report.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
117.Which of the following statements is true about transporting a detained prisoner?
a. If transported by a patrol jeep, subject must be seated on the right rear seat and the
PNP escort personnel shall sit on the right rear seat beside the subject.
b. Hands of the subject should be secured by handcuffs under his seat.
c. Detention Prisoner can be transported using public utility land vehicles.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 20
118.Which of the following statements is true about visitation of prisoners?
a. The Custodial Center, an informal and temporary penal facility for arrested
suspects, shall not allow conjugal visits for detention prisoners.
b. Visitors wearing the color of the detainee’s uniform shall be advised to wear other
colors.
c. All visitors shall be frisked for deadly weapons, firearms and other prohibited items.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 21
119.The following documents shall be submitted by concerned
police officer during inquest proceedings, except __________.
a. affidavit/s of the witness/es if any
b. statement/s of the complainant/s
c. affidavit of arrest
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
120.Within what time should arrested murder suspects be delivered
to the proper judicial authorities?
a. 15 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 36 hrs
d. 18 hrs
 Rule 22
121.The first police officers to arrive at the crime scene are the __________
who were dispatched by the local police station/unit concerned after
receipt of incident/flash/alarm report.
a. SOCO
b. Duty Investigator
c. First Responders
d. Investigator-On-Case (IOC)
e. None of the above
 
122.The Policy Guidelines on processing of persons present at the crime
scene apply to all, except for the ___________.
a. Suspects
b. victims
c. witnesses
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 22
123.According to Rule 32, the following procedures shall be followed during
a hostage situation, except for one which is __________.
a. a Critical Incident Management Committee shall be activated immediately
b. the Local Chief Executive shall take the lead
c. incident scene shall be secured and isolated
d. unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident
scene
e. None of the above
 
124.Which of the following is not included in the duties of the territorial
police units specified under rule 22.5?
a. Provide assistance in the evacuation of the injured persons to the nearest
hospital;
b. Provide area security;
c. Provide security back-up to the SOCO
d. Control of the crowd at the crime scene;
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 22
125.In crisis management, as soon as the perpetrators surrendered, or when
they are captured neutralized, the On-Scene Commander shall ensure
the accomplishment of the following except ___________.
a. processing and debriefing of hostages/victims, perpetrators, witnesses;
and key participants in the incident
b. documentation of the sworn statement of the hostages, victims,
perpetrators, witnesses and key participants in the incident
c. development of talking points for the briefing of the media.
d. the venue of the processing, debriefing and investigation shall be at a
neutral and secured place
e. None of the above
 Rule 23
126.The SITGs (Special Investigation Task Group) shall spearhead and
coordinate the investigative and prosecutorial efforts of the PNP to
facilitate the speedy resolution and successful prosecution of
heinous/sensational cases.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
127.Before activating an SITG, the case must first undergo assessment by
the Chief of Police.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 23
128.Every SITG shall have five (5) months to resolve a case from the time it
takes cognizance of the said case.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
129.The creation of a SITG is not necessary for crimes that can be resolved
in the Police Station level.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 23
130. Which of the following cases is not included for investigation in the Regional
Level SITG?
a. Killing of a CA Justice
b. Violence committed against an Undersecretary
c. Abduction of a Journalist
d. Assassination of a Congressman
e. Violence committed against a Governor
 
131.What are the teams composing the SITG?
a. Investigation Team
b. Evidence Team
c. Technical/Legal Support Team
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
132.There are only three point plan in the CIPLAN.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 23
133.Which of the following is not part of the CIPLAN?
a. Contingency
b. Execution
c. Communication
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
134. A case is considered as "cold case" if the SITG fails to resolve it within ______.
a. one (1) month
b. two (2) months
c. three (3) months
d. six (6) months
e. one (1) year
 
135. The CIDG shall assume the responsibility of pursuing the investigation if the case
is not solved by the SITG which has been classified as cold case.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon Approval
e. On a Case to Case Basis
 Rule 24
136. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes in
general shall be limited to __________.
a. maintenance of peace and order
b. enforcement of laws
c. implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
137. The PNP shall only render assistance to labor disputes upon written request
addressed to__________.
a. the Regional Director/District Director concerned
b. the Chief of Police
c. the Chief, PNP
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
138. In case of actual violence during labor disputes, the police can respond
_________.
a. without the written request
b. upon written request
c. with or without the written request
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 24
139. In so far as practicable, PNP personnel shall be allowed to render police
assistance in connection with a strike or lockout if __________.
a. there is question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or
consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy
b. if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein
c. there is no question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or
consanguinity to any official/leader of the parties in the controversy or if he has
no financial or pecuniary interest therein
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
140. PNP personnel detailed as peace-keeping force in strike or lockout areas
shall be in ___________.
a. patrol uniform at all times
b. GOA “A” at all times
c. prescribed uniform at all times
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 24
141. PNP personnel shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the situation
or when all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers
may employ such means ____________.
a. as may be necessary to prevent any violence.
b. as may be reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression.
c. as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
142. The matter of determining whether a strike, picket or lockout is legal or not should be
left to the ____________.
a. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) and its appropriate agencies
b. Philippine Overseas Employment Agency (POEA)
c. National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
143.Whenever escorts are to be provided, all escorts shall _____________.
a. be provided to any of the parties to the controversy even without written request from
DOLE.
b. not inform the other party accordingly.
c. be in prescribed uniform at all times.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 24
144. The pertinent provisions of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as amended and
other applicable laws, shall be observed during rallies, strikes,
demonstrations or other public assemblies. Law enforcement agents shall,
at all times ____________.
a. exercise minimum tolerance
b. in case of unlawful aggression, force is employed to prevent or repel it
c. the employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made even without the
control and supervision of the Ground Commander.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
145.The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed _____________.
a. In the picket line
b. In such manner that their presence may deter the commission of criminal acts
or any untoward incident from either side
c. within 50-meter radius from the picket line
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 25
146. PCINSP PALABAN is the Ground Commander, when he saw that the rallyists are
pushing through the barricade of the CDM Contingent, he asked the leader of the
rallying group to prevent any disturbance or violence. The rallyists did not listen
to the warning and still tried to push their way through. As a solution, PCINSP
PALABAN immediately ordered the dispersal. Does the Ground Commander made
the right decision?
a. Yes, because it will prevent the situation to escalate into violence
b. No, because no actual violence occurred to disperse the rallyist.
 
147. Police contingent monitoring a public assembly may be detailed and stationed at
least _______ from the area of activity.
a. fifty (50) but not more than one hundred (100) meters away
b. one fifty (150) meters away
c. one hundred (100) meters away
d. fifty (50) meters away
 
148. An application for permit for a public assembly should be filed at least___ days at
the Office of the Mayor before the activity.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
 Rule 25
149. A public assembly in a ___________ 152. The PNP shall respect and protect
must have permit from the__________ human dignity, maintain and uphold
of the city or municipality. the human rights of all persons.
a. public place; governor a. True
b. private property; mayor b. False
c. public place; mayor  
d. private property; governor 153. Ground Commanders are not
  responsible in determining whether
150. Police officers are allowed to drink there is a permit for the holding of the
alcoholic beverages during peaceful public assembly.
assemblies. a. True
a. True b. False
b. False  
  154. Tear gas, smoke grenades, water
151. It is okay to gamble during a peaceful cannons, or any similar anti-riot
assembly while monitoring the device shall be used not only when
situation. the public assembly is attended by
a. True actual violence.
b. False a. True
  b. False
 Rule 26
155. Even when the rallyists and demonstrators become violent and deliberately
destruct properties, the use of tear gas, water cannons and other anti-riot
devices are still not allowed.
a. True
b. False
 
156. It shall be imperative for all the CDM contingent to perform their duties while
observing the rights of demonstrators.
a. True
b. False
 
157. To keep the situation under control, police officers assigned to monitor
public rallies and demonstrations are allowed to bring firearms.
a. True
b. False
 
158. In cases when violence erupts, police officers are allowed to hit the violators
head, shoulder blades and knees.
a. True
b. False
 Rule 27
159.You are in the front line during a demolition, then a higher ranking
officer commanded you to take part in the physical dismantling of the
houses. Will you follow his command?
a. Yes, because I must follow orders from higher ranking officers at all times.
b. No, because it is stated under the rule that the PNP personnel shall not
participate in the physical dismantling of any structure subject of
demolition.
 
160.To make the demolition situation easier, use of tear gas, water cannons
and reasonable force even before the demolition begins is appropriate
to push the opponents back.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 27
161.Police officers do not need to wear prescribed uniform during
demolitions for them to be able to move easily.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
162.Police assistance in the enforcement or implementation of a demolition
or ejectment order shall be granted only upon a written request of the
Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi-judicial and administrative bodies
accompanied by a valid order issued by a competent court.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 28
163. In case the final decision or order to be implemented is rendered by the Supreme
Court, where should the request for police assistance be submitted?
a. Office of the Ombudsman
b. Office of the President
c. Office of Chief PNP
d. None of the Above
 
164. Police assistance shall be rendered within ________ working days from the
receipt of the directive from the C, PNP.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
 
165. If you are the Chief of Police and you received a request for police assistance
from the Sheriff of the Municipal Trial Court who issued an order in a civil case,
what would you do?
a. Accept it, and provide necessary police assistance.
b. Reject it or send it back to the court of origin.
c. Refer it to the OCPNP
d. Refer it to the RD, PRO and wait for the directive to provide police assistance.
e. None of the Above
 Rule 29
166. The request for police assistance can only be granted upon the written request of
either of these two agencies.
a. LGU
b. DILG
c. COMELEC
d. a and b
e. b and c
 
167.The copy of the final decision or order or resolution to be implemented should be
_________.
a. original or authenticated
b. photocopied
c. with dry seal
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

168. The approving authority on request for police assistance from the DILG or
COMELEC is the __________.
a. SILG
b. COMELEC Chairman
c. Chief, PNP
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 29
169. The police assistance shall be rendered within___________ from receipt of the
directive from the C, PNP.
a. five (5) working days
b. two (2) days
c. three (3) working days
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
170. Police assistance can also be rendered for a longer period when required by
circumstances.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
171. This official is tasked to render police assistance and shall have the discretion to
employ sufficient number of PNP personnel.
a. The Director for Operations
b. Regional Director
c. Head of office or unit
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 29
172.The police team that will render police assistance shall be led by a
______________.
a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Inspector
b. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior Inspector
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
 
173. All members of the task group/unit shall be in prescribed uniform when rendering
police assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis

174. The role of the PNP when rendering police assistance shall be limited to
___________.
a. maintenance of peace and order
b. crowd control
c. security of the duly authorized officer of the COMELEC, DILG or LGU implementing
the decision/order/resolution
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 29
175.In performing their role, the PNP personnel shall at all times observe
___________.
a. maximum tolerance
b. respect for human rights
c. utmost impartiality and neutrality
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 30
176. The request for police assistance in the implementation of final orders by DAR
can only be granted upon the written request submitted by ___________.
a. any authorized officer of DAR
b. Agrarian Reform Officer
c. LGU
d. a and b
e. b and c
 
177.Which of the following are examples of preliminary agrarian activities?
a. Land survey
b. Post Installation
c. Ocular Inspection
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
178. Police assistance in the implementation of CARP can be provided even without
the request of DAR authorized officer or Agrarian Reform Officer.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 30
179.Police assistance in the implementation of CARP shall be provided only as requested
by DAR authorized officer or Agrarian Reform Officer.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
180. The scope of the resistance to be encountered and the general peace and order
condition in the area are the things to be considered by the head of office or unit
tasked to render police assistance in employing sufficient number of PNP personnel.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
181. There are cases when a higher ranking Officer is necessary to lead the police team
rendering assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 30
182. The police team that will render police assistance shall be led by a _________.
a. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Inspector
b. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior Inspector
c. Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Chief Superintendent
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
183. The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self-defense and
defense of strangers.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
184. PNP personnel can lead the conduct of the preliminary agrarian activity and
shall have the final disposition whether to proceed or not with the
implementation of the decision or the conduct of the activity.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 30
185.When the DAR personnel are refused admittance into the property, the
PNP personnel ___________.
a. Can encroach on the property
b. Need to get a permit or warrant to enter the property
c. Cannot encroach on the property without an order from DAR specifically
for the purpose
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 31
186. Which of the following are examples of decisions/orders of the court, quasi-
judicial or administrative bodies that are immediately executory?
a. Temporary Restraining Order
b. Replevin
c. Protection Order under the Anti-Child Pornography Act
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
187. Provisional remedies under the Human Security Act is not immediately
executory.
a. True d. Upon approval
b. False e. On a case to case basis
c. Maybe
 
188. Decisions/orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies
that are immediately executory shall be submitted to the _________.
a. OCPNP
b. RD, PRO having jurisdiction of the place where the decision/order shall be
implemented
c. Chief of Police who will be implementing the decision/order
 Rule 31
189. Decisions/Orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies that are
immediately executory shall be submitted to the Chief, PNP.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
190. The RD, PRO shall be the approving authority in rendering police assistance in the
implementation of decisions/orders of the court, quasi-judicial or administrative
bodies that are immediately executory.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
191. The written request of the Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi- judicial or
administrative bodies is not needed in the request for police assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 31
192.The original or duly authenticated copy of the
decision/order/resolution sought to be implemented is also required in
the request for police assistance.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
193.The use of reasonable force shall only be resorted to for self- defense
and defense of strangers.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 31
194.Dialogue with those who may be affected by the implementation of the
decision/order/resolution is encouraged to prevent violence, and the
assistance of local public officials, when warranted, should be
requested.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
195.The Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quasi-judicial or administrative
bodies does not have the final disposition whether to proceed with the
implementation of the decision/order/resolution or not.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 32
196.The __________ is the main 198.The __________ will act as the
person in-charge during referee between the negotiator
hostage/crisis operation. and the hostage-taker.
a. Ground Commander a. Mediator
b. Negotiator b. Ground Commander
c. Sniper c. Assault Team
d. None of the above d. All of the above
  e. None of the above
197.The __________ shall always be  
paramount during a hostage 199.__________ depends on the
situation. threat posed by the hostage-
a. arrest of the Hostage-Taker takers and need of the
b. safety of the hostage Negotiation Team and On-Scene
c. assassination of the Hostage- Commander.
Taker a. Breakout Plan
d. All of the above b. Delivery Plan
e. None of the above c. Emergency Response Plan
  d. Surrender Plan
e. None of the above
 Rule 33
200. Which PNP unit is in-charge of the 202.Under R.A. 7610, “children” refers to
investigation of complaints and those below ____ years of age or older
reports involving all forms of violence but are incapable of taking care of
against women and their children? themselves.
a. AKG a. 10
b. PCRG b. 13
c. WCPD c. 15
d. All of the above d. 18
e. None of the above e. None of the above
   
201. Under the Juvenile Justice and Welfare 203. The child-victim shall be handled
Act of 2006, a child aged ____ and preferably by a police officer of the
below shall be exempt from criminal ________ gender as the victim.
liabilities. a. Same
a. 10 b. Opposite
b. 13 c. Any
c. 15 d. All of the above
d. 17 e. None of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 34
204. It is a container filled with explosive, incendiary material, smoke, gas, or other
destructive substance, designed to explode.
a. Pyrotechnics
b. Firecrackers
c. Bomb
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
205. A bomb may also be referred to as ____________.
a. Ordnance
b. IED
c. Improvised Explosive Device
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
206. ___________ is either a written or verbal threat communicated through
electronic, oral or other means that threatens to place or use an IED at a certain
time, date or place against any specific person or place.
a. Bomb Scare
b. Bomb Threat
c. Bomb Explosion
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 34
207. Determined bombers do not frequently give warnings of possible
explosion/incendiary attack.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
208. The consequences of conviction for “threatening” are as serious as those that
could result from actual placement/initiation of a bomb.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
209.A bomb threat is considered only a threat until something visible is found.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 34
210.What is the number of options in considering evacuation?
a. 3 d. 6
b. 4 e. 7
c. 5
 
211. Unless a bomb is found, personnel may not order an evacuation of the affected area,
but may inform the person in-charge of the property of the need to evacuate.
a. True d. Upon approval
b. False e. On a case to case basis
c. Maybe
 
212. What is the minimum distance for evacuation if a suspected device is discovered?
a. 200 meters away d. 350 meters away
b. 250 meters away e. 400 meters away
c. 300 meters away
 
213. Which of the following information should be determined by the first responder if the
investigators have not yet arrived?
a. Time of detonation/explosion
b. Time when the call for bomb threat was received
c. Type of device
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 35
214. Which government agency is mandated by law to assume the responsibility for the
proper and effective implementation of the anti- terrorism policy of the country?
a. Armed Forces of the Philippines
b. Anti-Terrorism Council
c. Philippine National Police
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
215. Who is the Chairman of the Anti-Terrorism Council?
a. DILG Secretary
b. Executive Secretary
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
216. Who is in-charge of initially determining if there is a high degree of probability that
the incident is a terrorist attack?
a. Task Force Commander
b. Regional Director
c. On-Scene Commander
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 35
217. What is the meaning of CIMTG?
a. Critical Incident Management Task Group
b. Common Incident Management Technical Group
c. Critical Incident Maneuver Task Group
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
218. What is the meaning of CIMC?
a. Critical Incident Manager Circle
b. Critical Incident Management Committee
c. Crisis Incident Management Committee
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
219. Which PNP unit ensures the management and containment of the incident and
coordinates with the TF Commander during the development of the case?
a. Municipal Police Station
b. National Headquarters
c. Police Regional Office
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 35
220. This is being followed when investigating bombing attacks and explosions
perpetrated by the terrorists.
a. Inter-Agency Agreement on Investigation of Bombing Incidents
b. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosion and Bombing Incidents
c. Inter-Agency Protocol on Explosives and Related Incidents
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
221. What agency is involved in investigating bombing attacks and explosions
perpetrated by terrorists?
a. PNP
b. AFP
c. PCG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
222.What is the meaning of PBDC?
a. Philippine Bomb Data Center
b. Philippine Bomb Detail Collection
c. Philippine Bomb Data Committee
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 35
223.The fusion center for the reporting of ERIs.
a. PNP
b. PBDC
c. PCG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 36
224.It is the actual police intervention in a cybercrime incident.
a. Logging in the Police Blotter
b. Cybercrime Investigation
c. Cybercrime Response
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
225. The acquisition of evidentiary value is traceable within the computer’s
_______.
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Network
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
226. It is imperative for the First Responder (FR) to be able to ______ the
computers to be able to recognize potential evidence.
a. Protect
b. Seize
c. Search
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
 Rule 36
227. A warrant is not required to seize data from the electronic device, digital media
and other similar devices.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
228. The evidence seized shall be subjected to forensic examination by trained
personnel.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
229. The result of the forensic examination, as well as the testimony of the forensic
expert, shall be made available during the trial.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 36
230. In securing the computer as evidence, the FR should _________.
a. Turn the computer “ON” if it is “OFF”
b. Turn the computer “OFF” if it is “ON”
c. Touch the mouse or keyboard
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
231. Consult a computer specialist for assistance in the conduct of search and
seizure of networked computers.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
232. Only a computer forensic expert can search for any evidence contained in the
computer hardware.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 36
233.It is not necessary to note all the actions associated with the
manipulation of the electronic device.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 37
234.The PNP has authority to conduct anti-illegal drug operations. But
PDEA deputation is absolutely necessary or required for PNP personnel
assigned with anti-drug units.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
235.PNP units, prior to any anti-drug operations shall, as far as practicable,
coordinate with the PDEA.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 37
236. "The following are instances a PNP Unit can validly dispensed prior
coordination with PDEA, except _______________.
a. in remote places where coordination is not possible
b. when the PNP personnel police is suspicious of the PDEA operatives
c. when coordination will compromise the lives of police operatives, informant
and witnesses, involved in anti-drug operation
d. when coordination will prejudice the apprehension of drug suspects and
confiscation of dangerous drugs and CPECS
e. when prior coordination will compromise the entire police operation

237. The PNP anti-drug units shall inform the PDEA of the anti-drug operation
within 48-hours from the actual custody of the suspects or seizure of drugs
and substance as well as paraphernalia and transport equipment used in
illegal activities involving such drugs and/or substances and shall regularly
update the PDEA on the status of the cases involving the said anti-drug
operation.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 37
 
238.The physical inventory and photograph of the confiscated evidence
shall be conducted at ___________.
a. the place where the search warrant is served
b. or at the nearest police station or at the nearest office of the apprehending
officer/team
c. whichever is practicable, in case of warrantless seizures
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 38
239.The types of kidnappings are ___________.
a. Kidnapping by Organized Crime Group/Group/Criminal Group (with ransom)
b. Kidnapping by Threat Groups/Terrorists
c. Kidnapping by Other Individuals
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
240. Upon receipt of kidnapping incident report, the police officer shall ____________.
a. Make an incident recording
b. Deploy first responders
c. Alert all concerned authorities/ tasked groups
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
241. Upon initial assessment of the type of kidnapping, and upon confirmation that
the kidnapping is true, _________.
a. the case shall be referred to the AKG, other territorial units or to higher authority
b. the police officer shall deploy first responders
c. shall confirm the authenticity and the case shall be referred to the CIDG, other
territorial units or to higher authority
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 38
242. If the kidnapping was perpetrated by Organized Crime Group/Criminal Group and with
ransom demand, it shall be referred to the __________ for their initial
action/operational response.
a. PACER
b. AKG
c. other territorial units or to higher authority
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
243. If the kidnapping was perpetrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, it shall be referred to
the higher authorities for the activation of ____________.
a. AFP-PNP Joint Task Force
b. Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC)
c. or Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
244. If kidnapping was perpetrated by other individuals, it shall be referred to the
___________.
a. Concerned PNP territorial units for appropriate operational response.
b. AKG for appropriate operational response.
c. CIDG for appropriate operational response.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 38
245. If the incident is of grave national importance with implications to national
security including those with serious diplomatic, political and peace and order
ramifications it shall be referred to ___________.
a. CIMC
b. CMC
c. CIMTG
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
246. If the incident needs referral to higher authorities, who/what among the
authorities must be informed?
a. PNP Higher Authority, JTF and LCE and other concerned agencies.
b. PNP Higher Authority and other concerned agencies.
c. CMC, CIMC and other concerned agencies
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 39
247. What is the meaning of NDRRMC?
a. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Council
b. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council
c. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee
d. Nationwide Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Committee
e. National Defense and Risk Reduction Management Committee
 
248. Man-made critical incidents are the responsibilities of the National and Local
Peace and Order Council (NPOC).
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
249. The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis situations, must play an active role by
organizing its own Incident Management Committee (IMC).
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 39
250. The PNP CIMC acts independently and not in support to the NDRRMC and NPOC.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
251. Who is the Chairman of the PNP Critical Incident Management Committee (PNP
CIMC)?
a. CPNP
b. TDCA
c. TDCO
d. All of the above
e. None of the Above
 
252. The Peace and Order Council Chair is the Chairman of the Critical Incident
Management Committee.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 39
253.What is the alert level when a man-made Critical Incident has just
occurred or has just been pre-empted; or incidents are expected?
a. Level 1 (Low)
b. Level 2 (Moderate)
c. Level 3 (High)
d. Level 4 (Extreme)
e. None of the Above
 
254.There are three stages in Disaster Management.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
 Rule 39
255.Support to recovery efforts are at the Pro-Active Assessment Level.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 
256.In the conduct of man-made critical incident and disaster relief
operations, security and safety of personnel must always be
considered.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Upon approval
e. On a case to case basis
 Rule 40
257. The responsibility of addressing crisis can be ____________ during an incident if it grows beyond
the capability of the established CIMTG in handling the growing needs of the incident or if there
is jurisdictional change, when the incident moves location or area of responsibility.
a. Relocated
b. Transferred
c. Shifted
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

258. The responsibility of addressing crisis can be transferred during an incident if __________.
a. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMC in handling the growing needs of the incident
b. There is no jurisdictional change, when the incident moves location
c. It grows beyond the capability of the established CIMTG in handling the growing needs of the
incident
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

259. The transfer of responsibility during crisis must always include __________.
a. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that could be
attended by the key members of the CIMC/CIMTG.
b. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that should be
attended by all members of the CIMC/CIMTG.
c. Transfer of command briefing which may be oral, written or a combination of both that should be
attended by the key members of the CIMC/CIMTG.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 40
 260. To attain a smooth transition of command responsibility, the Regional
CMC takes over when the ____________.
a. Local PNP at the Municipal/City level are unable to resolve the crisis within
their capabilities
b. Municipal/City CMC recommends elevation of the crisis level
c. Highest terrorist threat level involving mass casualty attacks
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

261. The National CMC takes over when the ___________.

a. situation requires employment of security forces and utilization of resources
of the Regional level organizations and beyond
b. upon the recommendation of the Provincial CMC
c. incident involves foreign nationals, either perpetrators or victims
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 Rule 41
 
262.  Whose responsibility is it to respond to 264. In cases of inter-agency operations,
queries raised by the media during crisis? who will determine the dissemination
a. Police officer on duty of appropriate media lines?
b. Local government head a. Ranking officer present at the crime
c. Unit Head/Chief or Ground Commander or incident area.
d. All of the above
b. Officer-on-duty.
e. None of the above
c. The department/agency with primary
263. Where should the Ground Commander jurisdiction.
designate/establish a media area for pooled d. All of the above
coverage and ensure safety of all media e. None of the above
personnel covering the incident?
a. Designated area that is close to the firing 265. What could happen if the media
line. coverage goes out of control during a
b. Designated area away from the incident to crisis situation?
avoid airing live coverage of unfolding a. Media could interfere negatively in
event. the actual police operations.
c. Designated area accessible for airing live b. Ground Commander's attention will
coverage of the event as it unfolds. be divided.
d. All of the above c. Police operating on the ground will
e. None of the above become media conscious.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
END OF PRESENTATION