Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I

1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................

(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
J A 00
Time : 1 1/4 hours]
1 7
Test Booklet Series Y
(In words)
[Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) - /
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper - /
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag (ii) -
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period -
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number OMR -
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR
Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iv) - Y
(iv) The Series of this booklet is Y, make sure that the series - - , OMR
printed on OMR Sheet and Answer Sheet No. is same as .
that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy in Series and OMR .
Answer Sheet no., the candidate should immediately report -/OMR
the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of the Test
Booklet/OMR Sheet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) 4. (1), (2), (3) (4)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : : (3)
where (3) is the correct response. 5. OMR
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet only. If you mark your ,
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. (Rough Work)
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. OMR ,
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put ,
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space , ,
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your ,
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. OMR
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, -
however, allowed to carry original question booklet on
conclusion of examination. 10.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen. 11. ()
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ,
English version will be taken as final.
Y-00 P.T.O.
 Paper I
Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be
evaluated.

` in lakh) generated by a
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (`
publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and
journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 1 3 based on the data
contained in the table.
` in lakh)
Sales Revenue (`

Year
2012 2013 2014 2015
Items
Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines 31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78
Total

1. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year
2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately :
(1) ` 194 lakh
(2) ` 187 lakh
(3) ` 172 lakh
(4) ` 177 lakh

2. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books ?

(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%

3. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two
categories of items, is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Y-00 2
 I
: (60) , (2)
(50)
(50) (50)

2012-15 ,
( )
1 3

( )
2012 2013 2014 2015

46 47 45 44

31 39 46 51

73 77 78 78

1. 2016 2014 2015

, 2016 ?
(1) ` 194
(2) ` 187
(3) ` 172
(4) ` 177

2. 2015 ?
(1) 45%
(2) 55%
(3) 35%
(4) 25%

3. ?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Y-00 3 P.T.O.
 A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance
and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently
some of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be
recovered :
Number of MCA Students
Performance

Average Good Excellent Total

Gender
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which
decided that the following facts were self evident :
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females.
(c) One-third of the male students were average.
Answer questions 4 6 based on the data given above :
4. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.43 (4) 0.27

5. How many female students are excellent ?

(1) 0 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32

6. What proportion of female students are good ?

(1) 0 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75

7. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest
speed ?
(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers
(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)
(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage
(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

S1 : The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.
S2 : In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.
(1) S1 only (2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2 (4) Neither S1 nor S2
9. Read the following two statements :
I : Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of
Information Technology (IT).
II : The right to use a piece of software is termed as copyright.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT ?
(1) Both I and II (2) Neither I nor II
(3) II only (4) I only
Y-00 4
 ...
,
:
...



10
32
30
, ,
: :
(a)
(b) 40%
(c) -
4 6
4. ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.43 (4) 0.27

5. ?
(1) 0 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32

6. ?
(1) 0 (2) 0.25
(3) 0.50 (4) 0.75

7. () ?
(1) , (...), , ...
(2) ... , , , (...)
(3) ... , , (...),
(4) , ... , (...);
8. / / ?
S1 : 11 11
S2 : 1110.101 0.625
(1) S1 (2) S2
(3) S1 S2 (4) S1, S2
9. :
I : (...) (..)
II : - - ( )
/ ?
(1) I II (2) I, II
(3) II (4) I
Y-00 5 P.T.O.
10. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for
(1) Digital Vector Disc (2) Digital Volume Disc
(3) Digital Versatile Disc (4) Digital Visualization Disc

11. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.
Reason (R) : Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete
the natural resources.
Choose the correct code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

12. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOX) in urban areas is
(1) road transport (2) commercial sector
(3) energy use in industry (4) power plants

13. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease ?

(1) Typhoid (2) Hepatitis
(3) Cholera (4) Dengue

14. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications ?

(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share
information online.
(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to
create it.
(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

15. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in
a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged
publication is called
(1) Electronic mail (2) Data sourcing
(3) Mail merge (4) Spam mail

Y-00 6
10. ..

...
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

11. (A) :
(R) :

:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(4) (A) (R)

12. (NOX)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

13. - ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

14. 2.0 ?
(1) 2.0

(2) 2.0 -

(3) 2.0
(4) 2.0

15. ,

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Y-00 7 P.T.O.
16. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological ?
(1) Snow avalanche (2) Sea erosion
(3) Tropical cyclone (4) Tsunami

17. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

18. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

19. Indian governments target for power production from small hydro projects by the year
2022 is
(1) 1 Giga-Watt (2) 5 Giga-Watt
(3) 10 Giga-Watt (4) 15 Giga-Watt

20. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro
Carbons (HFCs) was signed ?
(1) Rwanda (2) Morocco
(3) South Africa (4) Algeria
Y-00 8
16. - ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

17. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (a), (c) (d)
(3) (b), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

18. ?
(a)
(b) -
(c) -
(d)
:
:
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (b), (c) (d)
(3) (a), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

19. - 2022
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 15

20. (HFCs)
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

Y-00 9 P.T.O.
21. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the
proclamation of the Presidents Rule in a State ?
(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

22. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following
hold(s) office during good behaviour ?
(a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

23. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.
(3) Concern for human values.
(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

24. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national
emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they
represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Y-00 10
21. :
?
(a) -
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (a), (b) (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) (d) (4) (b) (c)

22. - , - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
:
:
(1) (a) (2) (c)
(3) (a) (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

23. - ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)

24. / / ?
(a) , -
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
:
(1) (a) (d) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (b), (c) (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (d)

Y-00 11 P.T.O.
25. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of
(1) Course coverage
(2) Students interest
(3) Learning outcomes of students
(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

26. In which teaching method learners participation is made optimal and proactive ?
(1) Discussion method (2) Buzz session method
(3) Brainstorming session method (4) Project method

27. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the
(1) Social system of the country (2) Economic status of the society
(3) Prevailing political system (4) Educational system

28. Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.
Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly
reliable.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of
teaching-learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.
(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

30. Assertion (A) : Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Y-00 12
25. ?
(1) -
(2)
(3)
(4)
26. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
27. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
28. (A) :
(R) :
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) , (R)
(4) (A) , (R)
29. - ?

(i) ,
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v) ,
(vi)
:
(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) (vi)
30. (A) : -
(R) :
:
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(2) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(3) (A) , (R)
(4) (A) , (R)
Y-00 13 P.T.O.
31. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below ?
(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis
making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data
analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools,
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.

32. Below are given two sets research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II).
Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :
Set I Set II
(Research Methods) (Data Collection Tools)
a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources
b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire
c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests
d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) ii iv iii i

33. The issue of research ethics may be considered pertinent at which stage of research ?
(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(2) At the stage of defining the population of research
(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.

34. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed ?

(1) Doctoral level thesis (2) Conference of researchers
(3) Workshops and seminars (4) Symposia

35. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a
view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmes. This
endeavour may be related to which type of research ?
(1) Evaluation Research (2) Fundamental Research
(3) Action Research (4) Applied Research

36. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps ?

(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act (2) Plan, act, observe, reflect
(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act (4) Act, observe, plan, reflect
Y-00 14
31. ?
(1) , , , , ,

(2) , , , , ,

(3) , , , , ,

(4) , , ,

32. : ( I) ( II)

I II
( ) ( )
a. i.
b. ii.
c. iii.
d. () iv.
:
a b c d
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) ii iv iii i

33. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)
34. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
35.

?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

36. ?
(1) , , , (2) , , ,
(3) , , , (4) , , ,
Y-00 15 P.T.O.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 37 to 42 :
The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little
impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and
adding to the growing disillusionment with the humane pretensions of the Western World.
This was eloquently voiced in Tagores later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation.
The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help
sympathising with Englands dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting
with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the
heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military
occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the
opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of
loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came
in the wake of the Allies victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the
neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy.
No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition, with its
inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland,
followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistans
invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant
writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri,
Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great
literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been
mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great
literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in
volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past.
Based on the passage answer the following questions from 37 to 42 :
37. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war ?
(1) Indifference to Russias plight.
(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.
(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.
(4) They expressed sympathy for Englands dogged courage.
38. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.
(1) Military occupation of ones own soil.
(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.
(3) Great agony of partition.
(4) Victory of Allies.
39. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh ?
(1) Suspicion of other countries (2) Continuance of rivalry
(3) Menace of war (4) National reconstruction
40. The passage has the message that
(1) Disasters are inevitable.
(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.
(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.
(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.
41. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature ?
(1) It had no impact.
(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.
(3) It shook the foundations of literature.
(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.
42. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament ?
(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.
(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.
(3) Expressed loyalty to England.
(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.
Y-00 16
 37 42 :
,




, ,
, ;
, ,

1947
, - ,
: ,

, , , ,



,

(37 42) :
37. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) -
38.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

39. ?
(1) - (2)
(3) (4)
40. () ?
(1)
(2) -
(3)
(4) -
41. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
42. () ?
(1) (2) -
(3) (4)
Y-00 17 P.T.O.
43. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being
(1) Sedentary (2) Staggered
(3) Factual (4) Sectoral

44. Expressive communication is driven by

(1) Passive aggression
(2) Encoders personality characteristics
(3) External clues
(4) Encoder-decoder contract

45. Positive classroom communication leads to

(1) Coercion (2) Submission
(3) Confrontation (4) Persuasion

46. Classroom communication is the basis of

(1) Social identity
(2) External inanities
(3) Biased passivity
(4) Group aggression

47. Effective communication pre-supposes

(1) Non-alignment (2) Domination
(3) Passivity (4) Understanding

48. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe
in
(1) indeterminate messages (2) verbal messages
(3) non-verbal messages (4) aggressive messages

Y-00 18
43. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

44. ?
(1)
(2) ()
(3)
(4) - ()

45. ?
(1) / (2)
(3) - (4)

46. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -
(4)

47.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

48. - ,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Y-00 19 P.T.O.
49. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then
the code of COMPANIES will be
(1) SPEINMOAC (2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN (4) SEINCPAMO

50. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data :

(1) Number of languages a person speaks
(2) Number of children in a household
(3) Population of cities
(4) Weight of students in a class

51. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays ` 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a
cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays ` 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two
glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays ` 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups
will be
(1) ` 40
(2) ` 60
(3) ` 80
(4) ` 70

52. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is
different. Identify the odd one
(1) Lucknow
(2) Rishikesh
(3) Allahabad
(4) Patna

53. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a
characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning :
(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.
(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.
(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.
(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.

54. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, is
(1) 30 (2) 49
(3) 125 (4) 81

55. The next term in the following series

YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be
(1) TLO (2) QOL
(3) QLO (4) GQP

Y-00 20
49. A C , M I , N P , S O , I A , P N , E M , O E
C S , COMPANIES
(1) SPEINMOAC (2) NCPSEIOMA
(3) SMOPIEACN (4) SEINCPAMO

50. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

51. ` 21 ,
` 28 , ` 35 ,
10
(1) ` 40
(2) ` 60
(3) ` 80
(4) ` 70

52. ,

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

53.
:
(1)
(2) -/
(3) : -/
(4)

54. 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343,

(1) 30 (2) 49
(3) 125 (4) 81

55. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ?

(1) TLO (2) QOL
(3) QLO (4) GQP
Y-00 21 P.T.O.
56. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be
true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.
Propositions :
(a) Every student is attentive.
(b) Some students are attentive.
(c) Students are never attentive.
(d) Some students are not attentive.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)

57. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i),
(ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from
the premises (taking singly or jointly.)
Premises : (a) Untouchability is a curse.
(b) All hot pans are untouchable.
Conclusions : (i) All hot pans are curse.
(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.
(iii) All curses are untouchability.
(iv) Some curses are untouchability.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)

58. If the statement None but the brave wins the race is false which of the following
statements can be claimed to be true ?
Select the correct code :
(1) All brave persons win the race.
(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.
(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.
(4) No person who wins the race is brave.

59. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are
related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what
is their relation ?
(1) Contrary (2) Subcontrary
(3) Contradictory (4) Sub-altern

60. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered
inferior or superior to the other, any more than a birds wings can be considered superior
or inferior to a fishs fins. What type of argument it is ?
(1) Biological (2) Physiological
(3) Analogical (4) Hypothetical
__________
Y-00 22
56. ,

- :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(1) (a) (b) (2) (a) (c)
(3) (b) (c) (4) (c) (d)

57. (a b) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)

( )
: (a)
(b)
: (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
:
(1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iv)

58. ,
?

(1)
(2)
(3) ,
(4)

59. -
, , ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

60. - ,
,
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
____________

Y-00 23 P.T.O.
 Space For Rough Work

Y-00 24