AERODYNAMICS 2 EXAM #1

1) What conditions exist when an airplane is flying a maximum range profile?

a) The aircraft operates at a stall speed and stalling angle of attack

b) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes total drag per
pound of fuel consumed
c) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that minimizes flying time per
pound of fuel consumed
d) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes velocity per pound
of fuel consumed

2) What change, if any, in engine thrust available (Ta) is necessary to maintain a constant altitude in the region of
reverse command as angle of attack increases and true airspeed decreases?

a) An increase in thrust available

b) A decrease in thrust available
c) No change is necessary

3) What conditions exist when an airplane is flying an endurance profile?

a) The aircraft is flying at stall speed and stalling angle of attack

b) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes flying time per
pound of fuel consumed
c) The aircraft operates at an angle of attack, velocity, and power setting that maximizes velocity per pound
of fuel consumed

4) What change, if any, in thrust available (Ta) occurs with an increase in aircraft weight?

a) Thrust available increases

b) Thrust available decreases
c) Thrust available is not affect by aircraft weight

5) The tower tells you to launch your T-34 immediately and climb to 15,000 feet MSL as quickly as possible. How
would you comply with this?

a) Execute a maximum angle of climb profile into the wind

b) Execute a maximum rate of climb profile into the wind
c) Execute a maximum rate of climb profile and disregard the wind
d) Execute a maximum power, CLMAX AOA, and climb into the wind

6) Operation of propeller driven aircraft at increased altitudes will _____ range and _____ endurance due to the
effects of _____.

a) Increase, increase, density

b) Not affect, decrease, density
c) Increase, increase, temperature
d) Increase, not affect, temperature

7) An airplane is gliding at its minimum glide angle at an airspeed of 100 kts. If the plane speeds up to 110 kts, what
will happen to the resultant glide path?

a) Become steeper
b) Remain the same
c) Become more shallow
d) Cause an increase in gliding distance because of a faster descent
8) Two aircraft are identical except for weight, and they are gliding for maximum distance. Both aircraft will be
gliding at:

a) L/D max, same airspeed, and will glide the same distance
b) Same AOA, same airspeed, and will glide the same distance
c) Same AOA, different airspeeds, and will glide different distances
d) L/D max AOA, different airspeeds, and the same distance

9) You are flying in your turboprop aircraft and you lose your engines. To give yourself maximum time aloft you
want to fly max glide endurance. How, if at all, can you increase glide endurance?

a) Turn into the wind to increase lift

b) Fly L/D max AOA
c) Jettison cargo and fuel
d) It is not possible

10) Max operating ceiling for the T-34c is:

a) 14,000'
b) 18,000'
c) 25,000'
d) 27,000'

11) The altitude where excess power permits only a 100 f.p.m. climb rate is called the:

a) Cruising ceiling
b) Combat ceiling
c) Service ceiling

12) What control surface controls the pitching moment around the airplane's CG?

a) The ailerons attached to the trailing edges of the wing

b) The elevator, attached to the trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer
c) The spoilers attached to the wing's upper surface
d) The rudder, attached to the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer

13) Trimming reduces the force required to hold control surfaces in a position necessary to maintain a desired flight
attitude.

a) True
b) False

14) The right aileron trim tab of the T-34 is set by:

a) The pilot after takeoff

b) The manufacturer
c) Maintenance
d) Gremlins

15) The right rudder trim tab is required for:

a) Power decreases and slower airspeeds

b) Power increases and slower airspeeds
c) Power reductions and faster airspeeds
d) Power increases and faster airspeeds
16) The control surfaces are balanced around the:

a) Aerodynamic center of gravity

b) Hingeline
c) Headline
d) Trimline

17) The T-34's control CG's are located:

a) Aft of the hingeline

b) In front of the hingeline
c) On the hingeline

18) Trim tabs provide artificial feel by creating or enhancing control feedback under various conditions.

a) True
b) False

19) The initial tendency of an object to move toward or away from its original equilibrium position is called:

a) Dynamic stability
b) Static stability
c) Divergent oscillation

20) The relationship between stability and instability is:

a) Inverse
b) Equal
c) Independent

21) If a component's aerodynamic center is in front of the airplane's CG, the component will be a _____ contributor
to longitudinal static stability.

a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Neutral

22) Which of the following have a positive affect on directional stability?

a) Straight wings, swept wing design, vertical stabilizer

b) Vertical stabilizer only
c) Straight wing design only
d) Fuselage only

23) A _____ mounted wing is a positive contribution, and a _____ mounted wing is a negative contributor to lateral
static stability.

a) Low, high
b) Low, center
c) High, center
d) High, center

24) A dutch roll occurs due to:

a) Strong lateral stability, and strong lateral stability

b) Strong lateral stability, and weak lateral stability
 c) Weak lateral stability, and strong lateral stability
d) Weak lateral stability, and weak lateral stability

25) If a pilot encounters pilot induced oscillations, he/she should:

a) Rely on his instinct and make the appropriate corrections

b) Rely on the inherent stability of the aircraft and release the controls
c) Kiss his/her *%& goodbye

26) During spin recovery, the control stick should be forward of neutral. If it is even slightly aft of neutral:

a) A progressive spin will result

b) Spin recovery may take as many as 6 turns
c) Your instructor will yell at you

27) Autorotation is:

a) An aggravated stall
b) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetric
stalling conditions on the wings
c) A combination of roll and yaw that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to symmetric
stalling conditions on the wings

28) Pitch attitude will have a direct impact on the speed an aircraft stalls.

a) True
b) False

29) In a stall the increased AOA on the down-wing decreases CL generated by that wing. The down-going wing also
has:

a) A higher CD due to its increased AOA

b) A lower CD due to its increased AOA
c) No change in CD

30) In a stall, the up-wing has:

a) A higher AOA, less lift, and more drag

b) A lower AOA, less lift, and more drag
c) A higher AOA, more lift, and more drag
d) A lower AOA and more lift

31) In an erect (normal) spin, what type of G's are experienced?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Transverse

32) How does the configuration of the empennage and the placement of the horizontal control surfaces affect spin
recovery?

a) The horizontal stabilizer deflects the relative wind towards or away from the vertical stabilzer
b) The horizontal control surface has no impact on the vertical components of the empennage
c) The empennage has no impact on spin recovery

33) How is load factor or G-load computed?

 a) Multiply lift by weight
b) Divide lift by weight
c) Add lift and weight
d) Subtract lift from weight

34) What velocity and angle of attack will result in the minimum radius turn and maximum rate of turn?

a) Redline airspeed and CLMAX AOA

b) Redline airspeed and CLMIN AOA
c) Maneuver airspeed and CLMAX AOA
d) Maneuver airspeed and L/D max AOA

35) If you create 16,000 lbs. of lift in your T-34 and it weighs 4000 lbs., you will experience:

a) 4.5 G's
b) 4 G's
c) 6 G's

36) If your aircraft's limit load is 12, how many G's could you pull before there is a possibility of overstress?

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 18

37) What change in limit load will occur during an hour long air combat maneuvering flight?

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant

38) The Vg/Vn diagram has no negative accelerated stall line.

a) True
b) False

39) What is true about redline airspeed?

a) Decreases with increasing altitude

b) Is measured in IAS
c) If exceeded could result in wing flutter
d) All of the above

40) The ultimate load factor for a given aircraft is always:

a) 1.0 times the load limit

b) Within the safe flight envelope
c) Greater than the maximum G limits for the aircraft
d) The same as the limit load

41) Maneuvering airspeed for the T-34 is:

a) 130 KIAS
b) 135 KIAS
c) 195 KIAS
 d) 280 KIAS

42) What type of strength concerns the cumulative effect of repeat or cyclical loads during service?

a) Static
b) Accelerated
c) Fatigue
d) Brute

43) What affect will an increase in aircraft weight, for a constant amount of lift, have on maneuvering load factor?

a) Maneuvering load factor will increase

b) Maneuvering load factor will decrease
c) Maneuvering load factor will remain constant
d) Weight has no affect on maneuvering load factor

44) What type of drag does ground effect reduce?

a) Parasite
b) Form
c) Skin friction
d) Induced

45) What affect will headwinds have on your TAS on takeoff?

a) Increase
b) Headwinds have no affect on TAS
c) Decrease
d) Explode

46) What effect will an increase in weight have on your takeoff IAS?

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) No effect

47) What factors determine the minimum takeoff distance for an aircraft with uniform acceleration?

a) Weight, velocity, thrust, drag, rolling friction

b) Weight, velocity, thrust drag, pressure
c) Weight, velocity, thrust drag, acceleration
d) Drag, friction, weight, velocity, temperature

48) What effect does an increase in airfield air density have on runway distance required for takeoff?

a) Increases
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant

49) What is the effect of an increase in altitude and abient temperature on landing performance?

a) Landing distance increases because density decreases

b) Landing distance increases because density increases
c) Landing distance decreases because density decreases
d) Landing distance decreases because density increases
50) What change in the aircraft's total lift force occurs in ground effect?

a) Total lift increases

b) Total lift decreases
c) Total lift remains constant

KEY

1) d
2) a
3) b
4) c
5) c
6) c
7) c
8) d
9) c
10) c
11) c
12) b
13) a
14) c
15) b
16) b
17) c
18) a
19) b
20) a
21) a
22) a
23) c
24) b
25) b
26) a
27) b
28) a
29) a
30) d
31) a
32) a
33) b
34) c
35) b
36) b
37) a
38) b
39) d
40) c
41) b
42) c
43) b
44) d
45) b
46) b
47) a
48) b
49) a
50) c