1. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A Full loadline current.

Its
initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:
A. 1000 A
B. 100 A
C. 5000 A
D. 200 A

2. A delta connected 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at

its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit)
occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be:
A. Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on
overload.
B. Line currents: 0 A, 150 A, 300 A. Trip condition: trip on
overload.
C. Line currents: 75 A, 75 A, 75 A. Trip condition: no trip but
speed falls.
D. Line currents: 150 A,150A,150 A. Trip condition: fuses blow on
short circuit.

3. A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on

overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay
immediately because the:
A. Bimetallic strips need time to cool down
B. Starter isolator automatically applies an interlock.
C. Oil dash-pot has to be reset.
D. Line contactor spring has to be reset
4. A ships 3 - phase a.c. electrical supply system has 440 V and 220 V
sections. The effect of a single short circuit fault to earth on a 220 V
line will cause which of the following earth lamp indications:
A. In 440 V section: all lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: Two
lamps bright one lamp dark.
B. In 440 V section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 V section:
One lamp dim.
C. In 440 V section: One lamp dim. In 220 V section: One lamp
dim.
D. In 440 section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 section: All
lamps dark.

5. After main power is restored (following a blackout), a timed sequential

restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid:
A. Generator overload due to many motors starting at
simultaneously
B. Overloading creating earth faults
C. Overvoltage due to current surges
D. Over-frequency due to overspeed of generator

6. An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A
second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan
circuit. Both systems are supplied from the ship's 440V supply. The
likely outcome is that:
A. A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan
fuse blows
B. An open circuit occurs between earth fault and both motors trip
out
C. Both motors trip out on overload
D. A short circuit occurs between earth fault and the bilge pump
fuse blows
7. An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because:
A. It satisfies the SOLAS (and other) requirements for ship
safety
B. The ship's total load can be shared between main and
emergency generators
C. The main diesel generator(s) can be taken out of service for
overhaul or repair
D. It satisfies the need to be environmentally "friendly"

8. Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to:

A. Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits
B. Permit faster paralleling of generators
C. Allow auto-synchronising to take place
D. Ensure fair equal sharing between generators

9. For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load

(kW) will be determined by the:
A. Governor droop settings on each prime mover
B. Voltage droop setting on each AVR
C. The power factor of the additional load
D. The temperature difference between the generator rotors

10. In terms of electrical units, what is Hz the abbreviation for?

A. Frequency in Cycles per second
B. Revolution per minute
C. Frequency in Direct Current (DC)
D. Measure for Resistance
11. Resistance thermometers are often installed in a thermo-well. Will it
matter to the accuracy of the measurement how you install a resistance
element in a thermo-well?
A. Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in
measurement
B. Will have a minor influence on the measurement
C. Will only result in mechanical problems
D. No influence at all

12. Salinometers are often used to monitor water supplies.The most

common type of sensing device they use is:
A. Electrodes
B. Strain gauge
C. Capacitance probe
D. Inductor capsule

13. The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the

synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position and is rotating slowly
clockwise. This to allow for:
A. Circuit breaker operating time
B. Synchroscope pointer time lag
C. Synchroscope error
D. Generator phase difference error

14. The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright
Yellow= dark Blue= dim . Which fault condition shown as red -
yellow - blue is correct?
A. no fault - hard earth - light earth
B. light earth - no fault - hard earth
C. hard earth - light earth - no fault
D. light earth - hard earth - no fault
15. The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide:
A. Short circuit protection.
B. Overload protection.
C. Undervoltage protection.
D. Over load protection.

16. The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is

measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates on the same
supply are tested together their combined IR will be:
A. 10 Mohm
B. 30 Mohm
C. 3 Mohm
D. 90 Mohm

17. When maintenance work is to be carried out on an electric motor

driving a centrifugal water pump with automatic start, should you;
A. In conjunction with the senior watchkeeper and electrician,
isolate valves, electrical supply, automatics and post 'Do not
operate' signs before commencing work.
B. Set in local control, isolate the suction and delivery valves then
commence work.
C. Isolate the suction and delivery valves then inform the electrician
that you are starting work.
D. Ascertain from the senior watchkeeper if it is okay to startwork,
isolate the valves then commence work.

18. A ship has an electrical system rated at 690 Volts. Which voltage level
is this?
A. Low voltage.
B. High voltage.
C. Medium voltage.
D. Intermediate voltage.
19. High Voltage (HV) cables are smaller than low voltage cables for a
given power rating. Why is this?
A. The HV cable carries a smaller current and therefore requires less
copper.
B. The HV cable uses higher quality copper conductors and
therefore requires them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
C. The HV cable uses Aluminium conductors and therefore requires
them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.
D. The HV cable has a thinner wall of special insulation material.

20. On finding a person apparently unconscious in a High Voltage switch

room, which of the following should be done?
A. Raise alarm, identify means of isolation
and apply before approaching victim.
B. Trip all breakers and approach victim.
C. Check if the victim is in contact with
live parts and if not apply first aid.
D. Raise alarm then drag the victim clear
so that they cannot reach live parts
while receiving aid.

21. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell ozone. This is likely to

indicate which of the following?
A. Arcing at badly connected bus bars
B. Transformer overload
C. Vacuum circuit breaker problems
D. Air circuit breaker problems

22. Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell rotten eggs. What may
this indicate?
A. Problems with a gas (SF6) circuit breaker
B. Burning of insulation
C. Problems with a vacuum circuit breaker
D. Arcing at badly coupled bus bars
23. The recognised definition of High Voltage equipment is anything that
operates at over which of the following levels?
A. 1000Volts ac or 1500Volts dc.
B. 1000Volts ac or 750Volts dc.
C. 33,000Volts ac or dc.
D. 440Volts ac or dc.

24. Which of the following voltage levels would be regarded as high

voltage likely to be found on a ship?
A. 6.6Kv
B. 690V
C. 660kV
D. 220V

25. Which of the following alternatives summarise the benefits of using

high voltage on ships?
A. Smaller conductors, machines and switchgear
B. Smaller conductors, insulators and transformers
C. More efficient transformers and electrical machines
D. Smaller cables and better power factors

26. Which of the following options may be used as a brief summary of how
to safely make high voltage equipment accessible?
A. Disconnect, isolate, earth (ground)
B. Shed load, isolate. Earth (ground)
C. Disconnect, earth (ground), isolate
D. Shed load, Earth (ground), disconnect, isolate
27. A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge.
The tester consists of a hydraulic pump and a hydraulic chamber and
balance weight system. After completing the calibration of the pressure
gauge the hydraulic pressure should be relieved before removing the
weights. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this
requirement.
A. To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from possible impact
damage as it may reach the end of its stroke.
B. To protect the pressure gauge from a surge in pressure as the
weights are removed.
C. To protect the hydraulic balance system from a pressure surge as
the weights are removed.
D. To protect the hydraulic pump from a pressure surge as the
weights are removed.

28. A power card taken from a diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical
indicator has a flat top. Which of the possible actions given in the
options is most likely to correct this irregularity on the power card?
A. Change the indicator spring for one with a higher rating.
B. Lengthen the cord for the indicator drum drive.
C. Shorten the cord for the indicator drum drive.
D. Lubricate the indicator piston and cylinder.

29. A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and
shows 2 bar when the pressure in the system is zero. There is no spare
available. Which of the options would be the best temporary remedy
for this situation?
A. Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the gauge
throughout the working range.
B. Subtract 2 bar from the gauge reading when checking the
pressure.
C. Remove the indicator needle and reposition it to read zero when
the system is unpressurised.
D. Bend the bourdon tube so that a zero reading is obtained when the
 system is unpressurised.

30. A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including

calibration, in order to ensure accuracy of measurement. How is the
accuracy of this type of instrument normally checked? Select the
answer from the options given.
A. By measuring a standard gauge block or
rod at a common temperature.
B. By trying a go/no go gauge between the
micrometer anvil and spindle at
maximum opening at a common
temperature.
C. By checking the distance between micrometer anvil and spindle
with an inside vernier gauge.
D. By checking the distance between the micrometer anvil and
spindle with an inside micrometer.

31. As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyser

used for measuring the oxygen content of exhaust gas it is important to
keep the sample line filter as clean as possible. Why is this necessary
with this type of instrument?
A. Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause errors so
restrictions must be kept to a minimum.
B. A high flow rate is required in order
to deflect the sensing element.
C. The filter may rupture due to the
high pressures generated by the
sample pump.
D. The pressure drop across the filter may damage the sampling
pump.
32. Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high
quality. In order to condition the air filter modules are usually fitted to
remove the contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the
final elements in the instrumentation air system what is the most likely
cause?
A. The coalescer module is saturated and
requires renewal.
B. The drier section of the module needs
to be regenerated.
C. The particle removal module is choked.
D. The air compressor piston rings need to
be renewed.

33. Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool

onboard ship as part of the approved planned maintenance system.
Many vibration measuring instruments are fitted with a harmonic
filter/analyser. How would these filters normally be used during
vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump?
A. To isolate a single frequency of vibration
associated with one of the pumps
components.
B. To sum up all the harmonics of a base
frequency to give total vibration for all
of the pump's components
simultaneously.
C. To block out any noise or vibration from the surrounding engine
room.
D. To generate an audible sound signal at the same frequency and
amplitude as the vibration.
34. When checking the zero point on a combustible gas indicator that is to
be used to detect hydrocarbon gases in an empty cargo tank which
method should be used from the options given?
A. Pass fresh air through the sample chamber.
B. Pass oxygen gas through the sample chamber
C. Pass methane gas through the sample chamber.
D. Pass carbon monoxide gas through the sample chamber.

35. Which of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the
check of the accuracy of a liquid filled thermometer used in the cold
rooms of the ships provisions stores?
A. Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled water and ice
made from distilled water to check the zero reading.
B. Place the thermometer in a hole drilled into a block of ice to check
the zero reading.
C. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading
matches the thermostat setting when the liquid line valve closes.
D. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading
when the refrigeration compressor cuts out.

36. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a
remote reading temperature gauge for the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas?
A. Check the resistance change in the sensor over a known
temperature range against the resistance values in the product
sheet.
B. Place the sensor in a test tank of water fitted with a heater element
and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different
temperatures.
C. Place the sensor in a test tank of oil fitted with a heater element
and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different
temperatures.
D. Fit a spare temperature gauge and see if the readings are the same.
37. Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate
test of the accuracy of a bourdon tube type pressure gauge with a range
of 0 to 20 bar?
A. Check the gauge on a deadweight tester.
B. Compare it with the reading from a similar gauge connected to the
same pressure source.
C. Use the fuel injector test pump to check the readings against the
test rig master gauge.
D. Check the readings against the output gauge from a pressure
regulator by connecting it to a regulated test supply.

38. With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems.
Complete the following statement from the options given. To protect a
bourdon tube type pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it

A. ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam pipe.
B. ..have its casing filled with water.
C. ..be fitted directly to the steam pipe.
D. ..be fitted to the steam pipe using a flexible hose.

39. A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever
with a float at one end and a filling valve at the other. The lever is
provided with an adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the
float. How will the 'offset' in the system be affected under changing
demand conditions if the pivot is moved closer to the filling valve?
A. It will increase the offset across the demand range.
B. It will increase the offset on high demand but reduce it on low
demand.
C. It will reduce the offset throughout the demand range.
D. It will reduce the offset on low demand but increase it during high
demand.
40. A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a
number of devices to give protection and control of the system. Which
of the methods given in the options should be used to test the high
pressure cut out during routine maintenance and checking of the
system?
A. Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the
condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely monitoring the
compressor discharge pressure.
B. Charge the system with refrigerant until the high pressure cut out
operates.
C. Manually close each of the evaporator coils by switching off the
electrical supply to the liquid line solenoid shut off valves and
monitor the condenser pressure.
D. Close the condenser outlet valve and closely monitor the
condenser pressure.

41. During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated

control valve the diaphragm is found to be split. Select, from the
options given, a suitable material to use to make a temporary
replacement if there is no spare diaphragm available.
A. Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness and
elasticity as the original diaphragm material.
B. Natural rubber sheet of greater thickness and lower elasticity as
the original diaphragm material.
C. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of approximately the
same thickness but less elasticity than the original diaphragm
material.
D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of smaller thickness but
similar strength as the original diaphragm material.
42. During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic
governor air is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit after draining and
flushing out the unit. Which of the actions given in the options is most
likely to assist in the removal of the air from the system?
A. With the governor in operation open the compensation needle
valve to introduce instability and disturb the engine load to make
the governor hunt.
B. Drain the governor again and slowly refill with fresh oil.
C. With the governor in operation close the compensation needle
valve and disturb the load to make the engine hunt.
D. Overfill the governor with fresh oil to force all of the air out.

43. Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is

test run on load. It is found that as the load is gradually increased the
voltage and the frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The
governor is a mechanical hydraulic type. Select from the options given
the correct adjustment to make to correct the situation.
A. The governor droop should be reduced.
B. The governor droop should be increased.
C. The governor load limit should be reduced.
D. The governor load limit should be increased.

44. The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number
of cold rooms served by a central refrigeration system. The evaporator
coils for the vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the
room is down to temperature and the liquid line valve has closed.
Select, from the options given, the automatic control component which
is likely to be malfunctioning and so cause this condition.
A. Back pressure control valve.
B. Thermostatic expansion valve for the meat room.
C. The low pressure cut out for the compressor.
D. The liquid line valve for the flour room.
45. The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when
setting up the system. Which of the system components given in the
options would this method be applied to during initial set up?
A. PID controller for tuning.
B. Valve and actuator to set the span of travel.
C. Valve positioner to optimise speed of operation.
D. Sensing unit to set the range.

46. What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running

continuously even though normal temperatures for the cold rooms have
been reached?
A. Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position.
B. The differential pressure switch for the
lubricating oil pressure cut-out is stuck
in the closed position.
C. High-pressure cut-out is stuck in open position.
D. Solenoid valve before the expansion valve stuck in closed
position.

47. With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control
system is giving an unacceptably large offset (difference between set
point and measured value) on high load resulting in a low system
temperature. Which of the actions given in the options should be taken
to reduce this effect and therefore achieve closer control of the
temperature?
A. Reduce the width of the proportional band for the controller.
B. Increase the width of the proportional band for the controller.
C. Increase the set point to a value above the actual desired value
D. Crack open the manual bypass valve for the control valve.
48. What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here ?

A. Pressure to open contact

B. Pressure to cross-connect contact
C. Pressure to close contact
D. Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how
it is connected

49. What are items F indicating in this starting box drawing ?

A. The front switch

B. The phase terminals
C. The fuses
D. The front connectors
50. What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram ?

A. Any of the above

B. A level switch
C. A pressostat
D. A thermostat

51. When will the left hand lamp 'L' illuminate ? (Assume there is no
defect in the installation)

A. When the engine is stopped

B. When the main breaker is switched on
C. When the engine is running
D. When an overload/trip occurs
52. What are items 'E' in this starting circuit diagram ?

A. An overload relay /stop button

B. A short-circuit trip
C. A low voltage relay
D. A reverse current trip

53. What are the items marked 'PM' in this electric starter diagram ?

A. Start push buttons

B. Start position switches
C. Stop position switches
D. Stop push buttons
54. What are the items 'PP' indicated in this electric starting diagram ?

A. Stop push buttons

B. Start push buttons
C. Stop relays
D. Start relays

55. What does item 'C' indicate in this electrical starting circuit ?

A. The overload
B. The auxiliary contactor
C. The main contactor
D. A thermal relay
56. What does item 'RT' represent in this schematic electrical starting
diagram ?

A. The overload relay

B. The signalling relay
C. The time relay
D. The measuring relay

57. What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship ?

A. 440 Vott and 220 Volt

B. Electric motors and lighting circuits
C. 4 x alternators, 2 x transformers
D. 12 Main Diesels, I Emergency Diesel, 1 Turbo alternator
58. What is the meaning of item 'CP' in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A. Control panel
B. Main switchboard
C. Switch panel
D. Control room

59. What does item 'CE' stands for in this ship's electric plant drawing ?

A. Control equipment power

B. Emergency Switchboard
C. Central emergency station
D. Common energy lighting distributor
60. Where is the shore power supply line to be connected to supply this
ship's electric plant ?

A. On TT
B. On CE
C. On CP
D. On T

61. What are the items 'CD' shown in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A. Distribution panels
B. Control desks
C. Transformers
D. Starting boxes
62. What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the
Emergency Switchboard.

A. 1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by Main switchboard

B. 1) Supply by Main Switchboard 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel
C. 1) Supply by Shore Power. 2) Supply by Main Switchboard
D. 1) Supply by main diesel engines 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel

63. What are items 'T' shown in this ships electric plant schematic
diagram?

A. Terminal boxes
B. Transit line connector units
C. Thyristor boosters
D. Transformers
64. The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the
electric power is...........

A. fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

B. fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes.
C. monitored and supplied via distributors.
D. generated as distributed.

65. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water, which
corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again ?
A. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.
B. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and revarnish windings.
C. Wash with fresh water, heat to 80 degree C and change bearings
and re-varnish windings.
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and revarnish windings.

66. A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor

frame is called ....
A. a winding breakdown.
B. a short circuit.
C. an insulation breakdown.
D. an earth.
67. A six-pole asynchronous motor is connected to a power supply with a
frequency of 50 Hz. If the rotor bar frequency is 2.3 Hz, what will be
the speed of the motor ?
A. 972 RPM
B. 954 RPM
C. 912 RPM
D. 928 RPM

68. A six pole asynchronous motor is fed from a 60 Hz circuit and has a
slip of 5 %. What is the motor speed ?
A. 1140 RPM
B. 1560 RPM
C. 960 RPM
D. 1720 RPM

69. Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation

possible?
A. Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux
B. Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor
and flux.
C. Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate
D. Current to induce flux, rotary movement

70. A star connected induction motor operates on 220 V with power factor
0.7 and efficiency of 82 %. Its output is 8 HP. What is the phase,
current and voltage ?
A. I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.
B. I phase is 15.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 Volt.
C. I phase is 12.8 Ampere , phase voltage is 220 Volt.
D. I phase is 22.7 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.
71. A 3-phase 60 cycle motor delivers 50 HP to a pump (shaft output).
What is the torque if the RPM is 1176 RPM ?
A. 275 pound feet
B. 223 pound-feet
C. 250 pound feet
D. 175 pound feet

72. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil ?
A. To smother the arc
B. To acts as insulation
C. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc
D. All of these.

73. Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs
in air because they......
A. isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over
B. confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling
C. control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc
D. extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation

74. In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15 milli-amps will ......
A. be fatal.
B. be totally harmless.
C. give you a faint shock.
D. burn your skin.

75. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system ?
A. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
B. The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload
D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.
76. What information would you find on the name plate of any electric
motor
A. Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, A speed,
impedance
B. Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed,
C. Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity
D. Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases,
speed RPM

77. What information would you find on the name plate of any industrial
transformer.
A. Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker
B. kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity
C. Power, current, horsepower, ampere
D. Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance

78. A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A. What will be the
rating of the branch fuses?
A. 112 Amps
B. 56 Amps
C. 63 Amps
D. 34 Amps

79. Three motors with full toad currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are
fed by an unidentified feeder. What is the minimum size of the
motor feeder current carrying capacity ?
A. Approx 134 Amps
B. Approx 175 Amps
C. Approx 235 Amps
D. Approx 350 Amps
80. split-phase motor is an in uses the motor to rotate. motor where the are
produced by that
A. the main and the auxiliary windings
B. the shunt and the series windings
C. the three stator windings
D. two permanent magnets

81. How many watts are there in one horse power ?

A. 860 Watts
B. 720 Watts
C. 760 Watts
D. 746 Watts

82. At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal
overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motors with service
factor 1.15 ?
A. 180 %
B. 115 %
C. VW %
D. 165%

83. What should be the minimum current carrying capacity of branch

circuit conductors supplying a single motor ?
A. 140 % of the full motor name plate rating
B. 125 % of the full load current name plate rating
C. 200 % of the full motor name plate rating
D. 110 % of the full motor name plate rating

84. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting'
for large AC motors ?
A. Line resistance starter
B. Star-Delta motor starter
C. Any of the above
D. Auto transformer
85. A clamp meter is usually in practice a
A. Volt meter.
B. Ammeter
C. Resistance meter.
D. Galvanometer.

86. Direct-online starting of motors will subject them to starting currents

which are higher than Their full load (name plate) current ?
A. 5 to 7 times
B. 9 to 12 times
C. 12 to 15 times
D. 2 to 3 times

87. In a Star-connected 3-phase motor

A. the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage
B. the line current is equal to the Phase current
C. the line voltage equal to the phase voltage
D. the phase current higher than the line current

88. The line to line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28

Amps. What is the phase current ?
A. 22.72 Amps
B. 48.44 Amps
C. 16.18 Amps
D. 28.00 Amps

89. Megger test readings of a motor or alternator are ideally done when the
machine is
A. cooled down to hand-warm.
B. hot after stopping.
C. running.
D. cooled down to environment temperature.
90. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, make
sure that the instrument indicates a test voltage of
A. 250 volts
B. 500 volts
C. 750 volts
D. 1000 volts

91. In an emergency insulation resistance readings lower than normal can

be acceptable, but what would the allowable minimum be ?
A. 0.5 Meg Ohm
B. 1.0 Meg Ohm
C. 10.0 Meg Ohm
D. 5.0 Meg Ohm

92. What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A

insulation
A. 80 degree C
B. 45 degree C
C. 105 degree C
D. 55 degree C

93. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and
insulation test ?
A. Conduct drop (mini-Volt)test on each phase
B. All of these.
C. Megger test each phase to phase separately
D. Megger test each phase separately to earth

94. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run
in parallel ?
A. No common earth is available
B. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship
C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
D. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not
95. When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run
and it may be operating
A. faster in overload
B. slower at too high a voltage
C. faster at overspeed
D. slower with too high a current.

96. Typically, how many times full load current are motor fuses rated in
order to withstand the large starting current ?
A. 3 - 5 times
B. 2 - 3 times
C. 5 - 7 times
D. 7- 9 times

97. If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) an electric motor, you should
A. replace two fuses if only two are found blown.
B. replace all three fuses, blown or not.
C. replace one fuse if only one is found blown.
D. not replace the fuses if they are not blown.

98. What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to
short circuit protection ?
A. Its very high speed breaking operation
B. It is less dangerous since there are no arcs
C. The broken fuse is easier to locate
D. It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts

99. For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current how long compared to
tripping a circuit breaker would a use take to blow ?
A. Very much longer
B. Lesser
C. Longer
D. No difference
100. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what
percentage of the total rated current is he device usually set ?
A. 115 %
B. 125 %
C. 110 %
D. 120 %

101. What voltages are accredited standard secondary voltages for voltage
transformers. ?
A. 380 Volt and 220 Volt
B. 230 Volt and 120 Volt
C. 240 Volt and 220 Volt
D. 220 Volt and 110 Volt

102. Current transformers supply ampere meters and the current operated
coils of instruments with a standard current of either
A. 2 or 1 Amps.
B. 5 or 1 Amps.
C. 20 or 5 milli-amps.
D. 20 or 5 Amps.

103. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCI3' S
circuit breakers ?
A. 7 - 10 Megaohm
B. 5 - 8 Megaohm
C. 4 - 6 Megaohm
D. I. 3 Megaohm

104. What is the purpose of the cable gland besides that it is designed to
provide a watertight seal ?
A. To provide a gas tight seal
B. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable
C. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement.
105. Between which points on this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp
is the STARTER fitted

A. Between points 3 and 4

B. Between points 9 and 1
C. Between points 7 and 8
D. Between points 5 and 6

106. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, through which points

is the electric current absorbed by the lamp during NORMAL operation
(lighting) ?

A. Through points 7 and 8

B. Through points 3 and 4
C. Through points 5 and 6
D. Through points 3 and 8
107. What is item No 11 called, shown here in this fluorescent lamp
assembly ?

A. The starting box or switching box

B. The lamp body or lamp box
C. The base
D. The lamp fitting or holder

108. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution

system?
A. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
B. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
C. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
D. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

109. What is the purpose of a preference load tripping system ?

A. To trip a generator if the load becomes too large
B. To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator
overload
C. To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can
cause damage
D. To re-connect essential equipment after a black out
110. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying our a Phase balance test
B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
D. By carrying out a Megger test

111. What is a Clamp meter used for ?

A. To measure current in a single cable
B. To measure moisture content in a cable
C. To measure current in a three phase cable
D. To measure cable temperature

112. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor ?

A. When the motor has been warmed up 5 degrees C above
operating temperature
B. When the motor has been carefully cleaned
C. When the motor has cooled down after use
D. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature

113. How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor?

A. By switching all three connections on the motor terminal
B. By reversing the frequency
C. By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal
D. The direction of rotation cannot be changed

114. A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced

three phase motor working at full Load. The motor is rated to consume
100 A. What will the meter show
A. 100 Amps
B. 110 Amps
C. 33.3 Amps
D. 0 Amps
115. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called 'insulated neutral"
type. What does this means?
A. The system is totally insulated from the ship's 22011 distribution
system
B. The system does not have a neutral point
C. The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull
D. The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the
generator

116. The ship's insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical
distribution system, advise the possible cause.
A. The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been
splashed with salt water
B. The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited
C. The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited
D. A connection box has been filled with salt water

117. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the

generator main bus-bars?
A. To prevent bus-bar overload
B. To measure the generator output voltage
C. To measure the temperature of the bus-bar
D. To measure the generator output current

118. That will happen if the connections between an ammeter and an

instrument transformer located on the nerator main bus-bars are
disconnected ?
A. Nothing will happen
B. The ammeter will go to zero
C. The ammeter will go to maximum
D. The ammeter will go to zero and the instrument transformer will
quickly become over heated
119. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature
exceeds 100 degrees C ?
A. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the
conductor life span formula
B. The insulation is likely to be severely damaged
C. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures
of more than 500 degrees Celsius
D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any
trace of humidity

120. What is the purpose of a "Melte "starter ?

A. To reduce the start time for an AC motor
B. To reduce the starting current in large AC motors
C. To start either a 0 or an V connected motor
D. To regulate large AC motors

121. What may happen if a megger insulation tester is used to measure the
insulation in an electronic circuit?
A. The wrong internal resistance may be shown
B. The megger may give an indication on how much current the
circuit will consume
C. The components in the circuit may be destroyed
D. The connections between components will show a high insulation
value

122. What is the purpose of a Tachogenerator ?

A. To measure the relation between impedance and frequency
B. To measure the direction of shaft rotation
C. To measure impedance
D. To measure revolutions per minute (RPM)
123. What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase
induction motor ?
A. At 10% below the rated current
B. At 200% of the rated current
C. At the rated current
D. At 5-15% over the rated current

124. The commutator of a DC motor is examined and is found to have a

smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would
you take ?
A. Change the brushes
B. None
C. Change the brush springs
D. Clean the commutator with a emery cloth until the colour
changes to clean metal

125. The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid battery for the emergency
generator is found to be 1250. What action would you take?
A. Clean the terminals
B. Add new acid
C. 110 action is required
D. Top up with water

126. A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions

would you take ?
A. Disconnect all cables to the motor
B. Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and
megger test
C. Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger
D. Use an 'AVO' meter instead of a 'Megger' for the test
127. A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as -
flame failure". Indicate the most possible reason.
A. The flame cell is dirty
B. The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage
C. The fuel oil temperature is too high
D. The fan blades of the fan motor are dirty

128. The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few
minutes even though the bilge is empty. Nat action would you take ?
A. Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board
B. Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps
C. Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit
board for this alarm group
D. Start the bilge pump

129. An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips

on the "over current" relay, What action would you take ?
A. Cool down the motor with an electrical fan
B. Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function
C. Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay
D. Replace the "over current" relay

130. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as

possible?
A. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow

B. It may damage the monitoring instruments

C. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate maybe
withdrawn
D. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
131. What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine
exhaust temperature?
A. A NiCr/NiAl -type K (Thermocouple) probe
B. A mercury thermometer probe
C. A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe
D. A T802 (Thermistor) probe

132. What type of electrolyte is used in a nickel cadmium battery?

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Dilute sulphuric acid
C. Distilled water
D. Potassium hydroxide solution

133. A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm.
What will the speed become at half load?
A. 1900 rpm
B. 475 rpm
C. 975 rpm
D. 1000 rpm

134. A flat lead acid battery can be revived by:

A. Adding distilled water.
B. Filling with dilute sulphuric acid and trickle charging.
C. Trickle charging.
D. Adding 'battery restorer".

135. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs as a result of:

A. Incomplete charging.
B. Fast charging.
C. Heavy discharging.
D. Lack of trickle charging.
136. What safety protection measure should be taken when connecting a
multimeter to an unknown voltage source ?
A. Set the muttimeter to DC and highest voltage range
B. Set the multimeter to AC
C. Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range
D. Set the multimeter to DC

137. Many maintenance on an motor what should you do ?

A. Switch off the main switch for the motor
B. Siang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor
should not be started
C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor
D. All of these.

138. Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be

caused by
A. the wrong types of brushes
B. current overload
C. any of the above
D. the strength of the field
139. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, in what location is the
BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the upptyterminals ?

A Between points 7 and 8

B Between points 5 and 6
C Between points 9 and 1
D Between points 3 and 4

140. What do items C represent in this starter diagram ?

A. Overloads
B. Contacts
C. Transformers
D. Relays
141. The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or
more coils inside an electric motor is called
A. an insulation breakdown.
B. an earth.
C. a short circuit.
D. a winding break.

142. If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the

windings of an
A. an earth fault.
B. a winding break.
C. an insulation breakdown.
D. a short circuit.