Power Plant Economics Ans: c

1. While calculating the cost of electric power

generation, which of the following is NOT 6. When considering the economics of power
considered a fixed cost ? transmission, Kelvin's law is used for finding the
(a) interest on capital investment (a) cost of energy loss in bare conductors
(b) taxes and insurance (b) most economical cross-section of the conductors
(c) most of the salaries and wages (c) interest on capital cost of the conductor
(d) repair and maintenance (d) the maximum voltage drop in feeders
Ans: d Ans: b

2. Maximum demand of an installation is given 7. A 3-phase balanced system working at 0.9

by its lagging power factor has a line loss of 3600
(a) instantaneous maximum demand kW. If p.f. is reduced to 0.6, the line loss would
(b) greatest average power demand become ........................ kW.
(c) average maximum demand over a definite (a) 8100
interval of time during a certain period. (b) 1600
(d) average power demand during an interval (c) 5400
of 1-minute (d) 2400
Ans: c Ans: a

3. A diversity factor of 2.5 gives a saving of 8. Mark the WRONG statement.

............. percent in the generating equipment. While considering power factor improvement,
(a) 60 the most economical angle of lag depends on the
(b) 50 (a) cost/kVA rating of phase advancer
(c) 40 (b) rate of interest on capital outlay
(d) 25 (c) rate of depreciation
Ans: a (d) value of original lagging p.f. angle.
Ans: d
4. Mark the WRONG statement.
High load factor of a generating equipment 9. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) leads to lesser charges per kWh (a) maximum demand / average load
(b) implies lower diversity in demand (b) average load × maximum demand
(c) gives more profit to the owner (c) average load / maximum demand
(d) can be obtained by accepting off-peak (d) (average load × maximum demand)½
loads Ans: c
Ans: b
10. Load factor of a power station is generally
5. In a generating station, fixed, charges at 100% (a) equal to unity
load factor are 6 paise/kWh. With 25% load (b) less than unity
factor, the charges would become ............... (c) more than unity
paise/kWh. (d) equal to zero
(a) 1.5 Ans: b
(b) 10
(c) 24 11. Diversity factor is always
(d) 3 (a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity most of the time
(c) more than unity (d) none of the above
(e) more than twenty Ans: b
Ans: c
18. A load curve indicates
12.Load factor for heavy industries may be taken as (a) average power used during the period
(a) 10 to 20% (b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption
(b) 25 to 40% during the period
(c) 50 to 70% (c) either of the above
(d) 70 to 80% (d) none of the above
Ans: d Ans: b

13. The load factor of domestic load is usually 19. Approximate estimation of power demand can
(a) 10 to 15% be made by
(b) 30 to 40% (a) load survey method
(c) 50 to 60% (b) statistical methods
(d) 60 to 70% (c) mathematical method
Ans: a (d) economic parameters
(e) all of the above
14. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by Ans: e
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method 20. Annual depreciation as per straight line
(c) both (a) and (b) method,
(d) none of the above is calculated by
Ans: c (a) the capital cost divided by number of year
of life
15. Depreciation charges are high in case of (b) the capital cost minus the salvage value,
(a) thermal plant is divided by the number of years of life
(b) diesel plant (c) increasing a uniform sum of money per
(c) hydroelectric plant annum at stipulated rate of interest
Ans: a (d) none of the above
Ans: b
16. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load 21. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(b) maximum demand/connected load (a) flat rate tariff
(c) connected load/maximum demand (b) two part tariff
(d) average load × maximum load (c) maximum demand tariff
Ans: b (d) any of the above
Ans: c
17. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased 22. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will
(b) total plant capacity is utilized for most of the affect
time (a) fixed charges
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilized for (b) operating or running charges
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) nuclear power plant
(d) either (a) & (b) (b) hydro power plant
Ans: b (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
23. In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff Ans: d
the demand rate for fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed 29. Which of the following generating station has
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of minimum running cost?
the consumer (a) Nuclear
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) Hydro
(d) neither (a) and (b) (c) Thermal
Ans: b (d) Diesel
Ans: b
24. Which plant can never have 100 percent load
factor? 30. Power plant having maximum demand more
(a) Peak load plant than the installed rated capacity will have
(b) Base load plant utilization factor
(c) Nuclear power plant (a) equal to unity
(d) Hydro-electric plant (b) less than unity
Ans: a (c) more than unity
(d) none of the above
25. The area under a load curve gives Ans: c
(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed 31. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(c) maximum demand (a) operating schedule of generating units
(d) none of the above (b) sizes of generating units
Ans: b (c) total installed capacity of the plant
(d) all of the above
26. Different generating stations use following Ans: d
prime movers
(a) diesel engine 32. Load curve of a power plant has always
(b) hydraulic turbine (a) zero slope
(c) gas turbine (b) positive slope
(d) steam turbine (c) negative slope
(e) any of the above (d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e Ans: d

27. Diversity factor has direct effect on the 33. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant
(a) fixed cost of unit generated consists of
(b) running cost of unit generated (a) fixed charges
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) semi-fixed charges
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (c) running charges
Ans: a (d) all of the above
Ans: d
28. Following power plant has instant starting
 (b) size of the generating units
34. Maximum demand on a power plant is (c) operating schedule of generating units
(a) the greatest of all ‘‘short time interval (d) all of the above
averaged’’ demand during a period Ans: d
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA
supplied during a period 40. ......... can generate power at unpredictable or
(c) both (a) or (b) uncontrolled times.
(d) none of the above (a) Solar power plant
Ans: a (b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
35. Annual instalment towards depreciation (d) Any of the above
reduces as rate of interest increases with Ans: d
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation 41. Direct conversion of heat into electric power
(c) reducing balances depreciation is possible through
(d) none of the above (a) fuel cell
Ans: a (b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
36. Annual depreciation of the plant is (d) all of the above
proportional to the earning capacity of the plant Ans: c
vide
(a) sinking fund depreciation 42. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates
(b) straight line depreciation that
(c) reducing balances depreciation (a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(d) none of the above (b) plant is under maintenance
Ans: c (c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base
37. For high value of diversity factor, a power load
station of given installed capacity will be in Ans: a
a position to supply
(a) less number of consumers 43. Which of the following is not a source of
(b) more number of consumers power?
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (a) Thermocouple
(d) either (a) or (b) (b) Photovoltaic cell
Ans: b (c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
38. Salvage value of the plant is always Ans: a
(a) positive
(b) negative 44. Which of the following should be used for
(c) zero extinguishing electrical fires?
(d) any of the above (a) Water
Ans: d (b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
39. Load curve helps in deciding (d) CO2 fire extinguisher
(a) total installed capacity of the plant Ans: b
45. Low power factor is usually not due to 51. Air will not be the working substance in which
(a) arc lamps of the following?
(b) induction motors (a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(c) fluorescent tubes (b) Open cycle gas turbine
(d) incandescent lamp (c) Diesel engine
Ans: d (d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
46. Ships are generally powered by
(a) unclear power plants 52. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(b) hydraulic turbines (a) peak load plant
(c) diesel engines (b) base load plant
(d) steam accumulators (c) stand-by plant
(e) none of the above (d) spinning reserve plant
Ans: c (e) any of the above
Ans: b
47. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy
is possible through 53. ........power plant is expected to have the
(a) fuel cells longest life.
(b) solar cells (a) Steam
(c) MHD generators (b) Diesel
(d) none of the above (c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c (d) Any of the above
Ans: c
48. Which of the following place is not associated
with nuclear power plants in India? 54. ....... power plant cannot have single unit of
(a) Narora 100 MW.
(b) Tarapur (a) Hydroelectric
(c) Kota (b) Nuclear
(d) Benglore (c) Steam
(d) Diesel
49. During load shedding (e) Any of the above
(a) system power factor is changed Ans: d
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced 55. Which of the following, in a thermal power
(d) system frequency is reduced plant, is not a fixed cost?
Ans: b (a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
50. Efficiency is the secondary consideration in (c) Depreciation
which of the following plants? (d) Insurance charges
(a) Base load plants Ans: a
(b) Peak load plants
(c) Both (a) and (b) 56. ....... will offer the least load.
(d) none of the above (a) Vacuum cleaner
Ans: b (b) Television
(c) Hair dryer 62. ....... offers the highest electric load.
(d) Electric shaver (a) Television set
Ans: d (b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
57. In ........ fuel transportation cost is least. (d) Washing machine
(a) nuclear power plants Ans: b
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations 63. ....... industry has the least power consumption
Ans: a per tonne of product.
(a) Soap
58. Which of the following equipment provides (b) Sugar
fluctuating load? (c) Vegetable oil
(a) Exhaust fan (d) Caustic soda
(b) Lathe machine Ans: c
(c) Welding transformer
(d) All of the above 64. With reference to a power station which of the
Ans: c following is not a fixed cost?
(a) Fuel cost
59. The increased load during summer months is (b) Interest on capital
due to (c) Insurance changes
(a) increased business activity (d) Depreciation
(b) increased water supply Ans: a
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
(d) none of the above 65. ....... is invariably used as base load plant.
Ans: c (a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
60. ....... is the reserved generating capacity (c) Gas turbine plant
available for service under emergency (d) Pumped storage plant
conditions which is not kept in operation but Ans: b
in working order.
(a) Hot reserve 66. In a power plant if the maximum demand on
(b) Cold reserve the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
(c) Spinning reserve (a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(d) Firm power (b) diversity factor will be unity
Ans: b (c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
61. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars Ans: a
and ready to take load when switched on is
known as ....... 67. In case of ....... fuel transportation is the major
(a) firm power problem.
(b) cold reserve (a) diesel power plants
(c) hot reserve (b) nuclear power plants
(d) spinning reserve (c) hydro-electric power plants
Ans: d (d) thermal power plants
Ans: d (c) It should be small in size
68. Which of the following power plants need the (d) It should be capable of starting quickly
least period for installation? Ans: d
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant 74. Large capacity generators are invariably
(c) Nuclear power plant (a) water cooled
(d) Hydro-electric power plant (b) natural air cooled
Ans: b (c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
69. For which of the following power plants highly Ans: d
skilled engineers are required for running the
plants? 75. By the use of which of the following power
(a) Nuclear power plants factor can be improved?
(b) Gas turbine power plants (a) Phase advancers
(c) Solar power plants (b) Synchronous compensators
(d) Hydro-electric power plants (c) Static capacitors
Ans: a (d) Any of the above
Ans: d
70. In which of the following power plants the
maintenance cost is usually high? 76. An induction motor has relatively high power
(a) Nuclear power plant factor at
(b) Hydro-electric power plants (a) rated r.p.m.
(c) Thermal power plants (b) no load
(d) Diesel engine power plants (c) 20 percent load
Ans: c (d) near full load
(e) none of the above
71. ....... is invariably used for peak load Ans: d
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant 77. Which of the following is the disadvantage
(c) Pumped storage plant due to low power factor?
(d) None of the above (a) Poor voltage regulation
Ans: c (b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
72. Which of the following is not an operating cost? (d) All of the above
(a) Maintenance cost Ans: d
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials 78. In a distribution system, in order to improve
(d) Salaries of operating stall power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
Ans: c installed
(a) at the receiving end
73. Which of the following is the essential (b) at the sending end
requirement of peak load plant? (c) either (a) or (b)
(a) It should run at high speed (d) none of the above
(b) It should produce high voltage Ans: a
 (c) Cost of lubricants
79. Static capacitors are rated in terms of (d) All of the above
(a) kW Ans: d
(b) kWh
(c) kVAR 85. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor
(d) none of the above of the whole system
Ans: c (a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
80. Base load plants usually have ........ capital (c) increases
cost, ....... operating cost and ........ load factor. (d) none of the above
(a) high, high, high Ans: c
(b) high, low, high
(c) low, low, low 86. Generators for peak load plants are usually
(d) low, high, low designed for maximum efficiency at
Ans: b (a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
81. Which of the following is the disadvantage of (c) full load
a synchronous condenser? (d) 25 percent overload
(a) High maintenance cost Ans: b
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise 87. ........ will be least affected due to charge in
(d) All of the above supply voltage frequency.
Ans: d (a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder
82. For a consumer the most economical power (c) Ceiling fan
factor is generally (d) Room heater
(a) 0.5 lagging Ans: No answer
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging 88. For the same maximum demand, if load factor
(d) 0.95 leading is decreased, the cost generation will
Ans: c (a) remain unchanged
(b) decrease
83. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of (c) increase
the following? Ans: c
(a) Induction motor
(b) Underexcited synchronous motor 89. The connected load of a domestic consumer is
(c) Over excited synchronous motor around
(d) D.C. generator (a) 5 kW
(e) None of the above (b) 40 kW
Ans: c (c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
84. For a power plant which of the following Ans: a
constitutes running cost?
(a) Cost of wages 90. Which of the following is not necessarily an
(b) Cost of fuel advantage of interconnecting various power
stations? 96. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied power station is around
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity (a) 15 years
(c) Increased reliability (b) 30 years
(d) Economy in operation of plants (c) 60 years
Ans: a (d) 100 years
Ans: d
91. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW 97. In a load curve the highest point represents
(b) kVAR (a) peak demand
(c) kWh (b) average demand
(d) kVA (c) diversified demand
Ans: d (d) none of the above
Ans: a
92. ....... public sector undertaking is associated
with erection and sometimes running of 98. Which of the following source of power is
thermal power plants least reliable?
(a) NTPC (a) Solar energy
(b) SAIL (b) Geothermal power
(c) BEL (c) Wind power
(d) BHEL (d) MHD
Ans: a Ans: c

93. Most efficient plants are normally used as 99. In India production and distribution of
(a) peak load plants electrical energy is confined to
(b) base load plants (a) private sector
(c) either (a) or (b) (b) public sector
(d) none of the above (c) government sectors
Ans: b (d) joint sector
(e) none of the above
94. For a diesel generating station the useful life
is expected to be around 100. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for
(a) 15 to 20 years which of the following reasons?
(b) 20 to 50years (a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(c) 50 to 75 years (b) To provide requisite starting torque to
(d) 75 to 100 years main exciter
Ans: a (c) To provide requisite starting torque to
generator
95. Which of the following is not a method for (d) None of the above
estimating depreciation charges? Ans: a
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method 101. The primary reason for low power factor is
(c) Diminishing value method supply system is due to installation of
(d) Halsey's 50–50 formula (a) induction motors
Ans: d (b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors 107. The depreciation charges in diminishing value
(d) d.c. motors method are
Ans: a (a) light in early years
(b) heavy in early years
102. An over excited synchronous motor on no-load (c) heavy in later years
is known as (d) same in all years
(a) synchronous condenser Ans: b
(b) generator
(c) induction motor 108. The area under daily load curve divided by
(d) alternator 24 hours gives
Ans: a (a) average load
(b) least load
103. Which of the following is an advantage of (c) peak demand
static capacitor for power factor improvement? (d) total kWh generated
(a) Little maintenance cost Ans: a
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses 109. Maximum demand tariff is generally not
(d) All of the above applied to domestic consumers because
Ans: d (a) they consume less power
(b) their load factor is low
104. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is (c) their maximum demand is low
(a) two part tariff (d) none of the above
(b) three part tariff Ans: c
(c) block rate tariff
(d) any of the above 110. A 130 MW generator is usually ....... cooled
Ans: b (a) air
(b) oxygen
105. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern (c) nitrogen
when it is selected as (d) hydrogen
(a) peak load plant Ans: d
(b) casual run plant
(c) either (a) or (b) 111. For cooling of large size generators hydrogen
(d) base load plant is used because
Ans: c (a) it is light
(b) it offers reduced fire risk
106. Power generation cost reduces as (c) it has high thermal conductivity
(a) diversity factor increases and load factor (d) all of the above
decreases Ans: d
(b) diversity factor decreases and load factor
increases 112. Major share of power produced in India is
(c) both diversity factor as well as load factor through
decrease (a) diesel power plants
(d) both diversity factor as well as load factor (b) hydroelectric power plants
increase (c) thermal power plants
Ans: d (d) nuclear power plants
113. Which of the following may not be the effect (c) Diesel engines
of low plant operating power factor? (d) Batteries
(a) Improved illumination from lighting Ans: d
(b) Reduced voltage level
(c) Over loaded transformers 119. An alternator coupled to a ....... runs at slow
(d) Overloaded cables speed, as compared to as compared to others.
Ans: a (a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
114. Which of the following plants is almost (c) steam turbine
inevitably used as base load plant? (d) gas turbine
(a) Diesel engine plant Ans: b
(b) Gas turbine plant
(c) Nuclear power plant 120. The effect of electric shock on human body
(d) Pumped storage plant depends on which of the following
Ans: c (a) current
(b) voltage
115. Which of the following component, in a steam (c) duration of contact
power plant, needs maximum maintenance (d) all of the above
attention? Ans: d
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser 121. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?
(c) Water treatment plant (a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(d) Boiler (b) Indirect stroke on conductor
Ans: d (c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
116. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, Ans: a
which of the following engine will produce
least power? 122. Which of the following devices may be used
(a) Supercharged engine to provide protection against lightening over
(b) Diesel engine voltages?
(c) Petrol engine (a) Horn gaps
(d) All of the above engines will equal power (b) Rod gaps
Ans: d (c) Surge absorbers
(d) All of the above
117. The least share of power is provided in India, Ans: d
by which of the following power plants?
(a) Diesel power plants 123. When the demand of consumers is not met by
(b) Thermal power plants a power plant, it will resort to which of the
(c) Hydro-electric power plants following?
(d) Nuclear power plants (a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the
118. Submarines for under water movement, are generators
powered by which of the following? (c) Penalizing high load consumers by
(a) Steam accumulators increasing the charges for electricity
(b) Air motors (d) Efficient plant operation.
Ans: a (c) repair the machine
(d) reduce peak demand
124. Load shedding is possible through which of Ans: d
the following?
(a) Switching of the loads 130. when a plant resorts to load shedding it can
(b) Frequency reduction be concluded that
(c) Voltage reduction (a) peak demand is more than the installed capacity
(d) Any of the above (b) daily load factor is unity
Ans: d (c) diversity factor is zero
(d) plant is under repairs
125. In power plants insurance cover is provided Ans: a
for which of the following?
(a) Unskilled workers only 131. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
(b) Skilled workers only static capacitor for power factor improvement?
(c) Equipment only (a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(d) All of the above (b) Cannot be repaired
Ans: c (please confirm) (c) Short service life
(d) All of the above
126. A company can raise funds through Ans: d
(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares 132. If the tariff for electrical energy charges
(c) bonds provides incentive by way of reduced charges
(d) any of the above for higher consumption, then it can be conclude
Ans: d that
(a) Load factor is unity
127. Which of the following are not repayable after (b) power is generated through hydroelectric plant
a stipulated period? (c) plant has sufficient reserve capacity
(a) Shares (d) station has more than two generators
(b) Fixed deposits Ans: c
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds 133. Anything having some heat value can be
Ans: d used as fuel in case of
(a) open cycle gas turbines
128. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in (b) closed cycle gas turbines
determining (c) petrol engines
(a) plant capacity (d) diesel engines
(b) average load Ans: b
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated Illumination
(e) none of the above 1. Candela is the unit of
Ans: a (a) flux
(b) luminous intensity
129. Load shedding is done to (c) illumination
(a) improve power factor (d) luminance
(b) run the equipment efficiently Ans: b
2. The unit of illuminance is Ans: c
(a) lumen
(b) cd/m2 8. Floodlighting is NOT used for .................
(c) lux purposes.
(d) steradian (a) reading
Ans: c (b) aesthetic
(c) advertising
3. The illumination at various points on a (d) industrial
horizontal surface illuminated by the same Ans: a
source varies as
(a) cos3θ 9. Which of the following lamp has minimum
(b) cos θ initial cost of installation but maximum
(c) 1/r2 running cost ?
(d) cos2θ (a) incandescent
Ans: a (please confirm) (b) fluorescent
(c) mercury vapour
4. The M.S.C.P. of a lamp which gives out a total (d) sodium vapour
luminous flux of 400 π lumen is....... candela. Ans: a
(a) 200
(b) 100 10. An incandescent lamp can be used
(c) 50 (a) in any position
(d) 400 (b) on both ac and dc supply
Ans: b (c) for street lighting
(d) all of the above
5. A perfect diffuser surface is one that Ans: d
(a) diffuses all the incident light
(b) absorbs all the incident light 11. The average working life of a fluorescent lamp
(c) transmits all the incident light is about........................ hours.
(d) scatters light uniformly in all directions (a) 1000
Ans: d (b) 4000
(c) 3000
6. The direct lighting scheme is most efficient but (d) 5000
is liable to cause Ans: b
(a) monotony
(b) glare 12. The luminous efficiency of a sodium vapour
(c) hard shadows lamp is about .................... lumen/watt.
(d) both (b) and (c) (a) 10
Ans: d (b) 30
(c) 50
7. Total flux required in any lighting scheme (d) 70
depends inversely on Ans: d
(a) illumination
(b) surface area 13. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) utilization factor (a) Light is a form of heat energy
(d) space/height ratio (b) Light is a form of electrical energy
(c) Light consists of shooting particles Ans: b
(d) Light consists of electromagnetic waves
Ans: d 20. Filament lamps operate normally at a power
factor of
14. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is (a) 0.5 lagging
(a) 10 lumens/watt (b) 0.8 lagging
(b) 20 lumens/watt (c) unity
(c) 40 lumens/watt (d) 0.8 leading
(c) 60 lumens/watt Ans: c
Ans: d
21. The filament of a GLS lamp is made of
15. Candela is the unit of which of the following? (a) tungsten
(a) Wavelength (b) copper
(b) Luminous intensity (c) carbon
(c) Luminous flux (d) aluminium
(d) Frequency Ans: a
Ans: b
22. Fine diameter tungsten wires are made by
16. Color of light depends upon (a) turning
(a) frequency (b) swaging
(b) wave length (c) compressing
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) wire drawing
(d) speed of light Ans: d
Ans: c
23. What percentage of the input energy is
17. Illumination of one lumen per sq. metre is radiated by filament lamps?
called ....... (a) 2 to 5 percent
(a) lumen metre (b) 10 to 15 percent
(b) lux (c) 25 to 30 percent
(c) foot candle (d) 40 to 50 percent
(d) candela Ans: b
Ans: b
24. Which of the following lamps is the cheapest
18. A solid angle is expressed in terms of ....... for the same wattage?
(a) radians/metre (a) Fluorescent tube
(b) radians (b) Mercury vapour lamp
(c) steradians (c) GLS lamp
(d) degrees (d) Sodium vapour lamp
Ans: c Ans: c

19. The unit of luminous flux is ........ 25. Which of the following is not the standard
(a) watt/m2 rating of GLS lamps?
(b) lumen (a) 100 W
(c) lumen/m2 (b) 75 W
(d) watt
(c) 40 W duration or shorter duration of time
(d) 15 W (e) all above factors
Ans: b Ans: e

26. In houses the illumination is in the range of 31. On which of the following factors does the
(a) 2–5 lumens/watt depreciation or maintenance factor depend?
(b) 10–20 lumens/watt (a) Lamp cleaning schedule
(c) 35–45 lumens/watt (b) Ageing of the lamp
(d) 60–65 lumens/watt (c) Type of work carried out at the premises
Ans: d (d) All of the above factors
Ans: d
27. ‘‘The illumination is directly proportional to
the cosine of the angle made by the normal to 32. In lighting installation using filament lamps
the illuminated surface with the direction of 1% voltage drop results into
the incident flux’’. Above statement is (a) no loss of light
associated with (b) 1.5 percent loss in the light output
(a) Lambert's cosine law (c) 3.5 percent loss in the light output
(b) Planck's law (d) 15 percent loss in the light output
(c) Bunsen's law of the illumination Ans: c
(d) Macbeth's law of illumination
Ans: a 33. For the same lumen output, the running cost
of the fluorescent lamp is
28. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp (a) equal to that of filament lamp
is (b) less than that of filament lamp
(a) red (c) more than that of filament lamp
(b) pink (d) any of the above
(c) yellow Ans: b
(d) bluish green
Ans: c 34. For the same power output
(a) high voltage rated lamps will be more sturdy
29. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in (b) low voltage rated lamps will be more sturdy
(a) photography (c) both low and high voltage rated lamps will be
(b) cinema projectors equally sturdy
(c) domestic lighting Ans: b
(d) street lighting
Ans: b 35. The cost of a fluorescent lamp is more than
that of incandescent lamp because of which of
30. Desired illumination level on the working the following factors?
plane depends upon (a) More labour is required in its
(a) age group of observers manufacturing
(b) whether the object is stationary or moving (b) Number of components used is more
(c) Size of the object to be seen and its (c) Quantity of glass used is more
distance from the observer (d) All of the above factors
(d) whether the object is to be seen for longer Ans: d
36. Filament lamp at starting will take current 42. ....... photometer is used for comparing the
(a) less than its full running current lights of different colours?
(b) equal to its full running current (a) Grease spot
(c) more than its full running current (b) Bunsen
Ans: c (c) Lummer brodhum
(d) Guilds flicker
37. A reflector is provided to Ans: d
(a) protect the lamp
(b) provide better illumination 43. In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of
(c) avoid glare choke is primarily to
(d) do all of the above (a) reduce the flicker
Ans: d (b) minimize the starting surge
(c) initiate the arc and stabilize it
38. The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube (d) reduce the starting current
from inside with white power is Ans: c
(a) to improve its life
(b) to improve the appearance 44. ...... cannot sustain much voltage fluctuations.
(c) to change the colour of light emitted to (a) Sodium vapour lamp
white (b) Mercury vapour lamp
(d) to increase the light radiations due to (c) Incandescent lamp
secondary emissions (d) Fluorescent lamp
Ans: d Ans: c

39. ....... will need lowest level of illumination. 45. The function of capacitor across the supply to
(a) Audiotoriums the fluorescent tube is primarily to
(b) Railway platform (a) stabilize the arc
(c) Displays (b) reduce the starting current
(d) Fine engravings (c) improve the supply power factor
Ans: b (d) reduce the noise
Ans: c
40. Due to moonlight, illumination is nearly
(a) 3000 lumens/m2 46. ...... does not have separate choke
(b) 300 lumens/m2 (a) Sodium vapour lamp
(c) 30 lumens/m2 (b) Fluorescent lamp
(d) 0.3 lumen/m2 (c) Mercury vapour lamp
Ans: d (d) All of the above
Ans: a
41. Which of the following instruments is used for
the comparison of candle powers of different 47. In sodium vapour lamp the function of the leak
sources? transformer is
(a) Radiometer (a) to stabilize the arc
(b) Bunsen meter (b) to reduce the supply voltage
(c) Photometer (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Candle meter (d) none of the above
Ans: c Ans: c
48. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp (c) 200-300 lumens/m2
due to voltage change is (d) 400-500 lumens/m2
(a) wattage Ans: b
(b) life
(c) luminous efficiency 54. In electric discharge lamps light is produced
(d) light output by
Ans: b (a) cathode ray emission
(b) ionisation in a gas or vapour
49. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the arc (c) heating effect of current
(a) a reactive choke is connected in series with the (d) magnetic effect of current
supply Ans: b
(b) a condenser is connected in series to the supply
(c) a condenser is connected in parallel to the 55. A substance which change its electrical
supply resistance when illuminated by light is
(d) a variable resistor is connected in the circuit called .......
Ans: a (a) photoelectric
(b) photovoltaic
50. For precision work the illumination level (c) photoconductive
required is of the order of (d) none of the above
(a) 500-1000 lumens/m2 Ans: c
(b) 200-2000 lumens/m2
(c) 50-100 lumens/m2 56. In case of ...... power factor is the highest.
(d) 10-25 lumens/m2 (a) GLS lamps
Ans: a (b) mercury arc lamps
(c) tube lights
51. ...... is a cold cathode lamp. (d) sodium vapour lamps
(a) Fluorescent lamp Ans: a
(b) Neon lamp
(c) Mercury vapour lamp 57. A mercury vapour lamp gives ..... light.
(d) Sodium vapour lamp (a) white
Ans: b (b) pink
(c) yellow
52. In case of ...... least illumination level is (d) greenish blue
required. Ans: d
(a) skilled bench work
(b) drawing offices 58. Sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery,
(c) hospital wards under the influence of fluorescent lamps
(d) find machine work appear to be stationary. This is due to the
Ans: c (a) low power factor
(b) stroboscopic effect
53. For normal reading the illumination level (c) fluctuations
required is around (d) luminescence effect
(a) 20-40 lumens/m2 Ans: b
(b) 60-100 lumens/m2
59. Which of the following bulbs operates on least (c) its voltage keeps fluctuating
power? (d) it is impracticable to draw heavy currents
(a) GLS bulb Ans: d
(b) Torch bulb
(c) Neon bulb 3. A.C. welding machine cannot be used for
(d) Night bulb welding
Ans: b (a) MIG
(b) atomic hydrogen
60. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more (c) resistance
pronounced at (d) submerged arc
(a) lower frequencies Ans: a
(b) higher frequencies
(c) lower voltages 4. In electric welding, arc blow can be avoided
(d) higher voltages by
Ans: a (a) using bare electrodes
(b) welding away from earth ground
61. Which of the following application does not connection
need ultraviolet lamps? (c) using a.c. welding machines
(a) Car lighting (d) increasing arc length
(b) Medical purposes Ans: c
(c) Blue print machine
(d) Aircraft cockpit dashboard lighting 5. In DCSP welding
Ans: a (a) electrode is the hottest
(b) workpiece is relatively coole
62. Which gas can be filled in GLS lamps? (c) base metal penetration is deep
(a) Oxygen (d) heavily-coated electrodes are used
(b) Carbon dioxide Ans: c
(c) Xenon
(d) Any inert gas 6. Overhead welding position is thought to be the
Ans: d most
(a) hazardous
Electric Welding (b) difficult
(c) economical
1. The basic electrical requirement in arc welding is (d) useful
that there should be Ans: a
(a) coated electrodes
(b) high open-circuit voltage 7. The ultimate aim of using electrode coating is
(c) no arc blow to
(d) d.c. power supply (a) provide shielding to weld pool
Ans: b (b) prevent atmospheric contamination
(c) improve bead quality
2. Welding is not done directly from the (d) cleanse the base metal
supply mains because Ans: c
(a) it is customary to use welding machines
(b) its voltage is too high
8. In electrode-positive welding ........... of the Ans: d
total heat is produced at the electrode.
(a) one-third 14. MIG welding process is becoming increasingly
(b) two-third popular in welding industry mainly because of
(c) one-half (a) its easy operation
(d) one-fourth (b) its high metal deposit rate
Ans: b (c) its use in both ferrous and nonferrous metals.
(d) both (a) and (b)
9. Submerged arc process is characterised by Ans: d
(a) deep penetration
(b) high welding current 15. A weld bead of wineglass design is
(c) exceptionally smooth beads produced in ...................... welding.
(d) all of the above (a) plasma arc
Ans: d (b) electron beam
(c) laser
10. The major disadvantage of carbon arc welding (d) MAG
is that Ans: a
(a) there is occurrence of blow holes
(b) electrodes are consumed fast 16. Spot welding process basically depends on
(c) separate filler rod is needed (a) Ohmic resistance
(d) bare electrodes are necessary (b) generation of heat
Ans: a (c) application of forging pressure
(d) both (b) and (c)
11. In atomic hydrogen welding, electrodes are Ans: d
long-lived because
(a) two are used at a time 17. Electric resistance seam welding uses
(b) arc is in the shape of a fan ........................ electrodes.
(c) of a.c. supply (a) pointed
(d) it is a non-pressure process (b) disc
Ans: c (c) flat
(d) domed
12. Unlike TIG welding, MIG welding Ans: b
(a) requires no flux
(b) uses consumable electrodes 18. Projection welding can be regarded as a mass
(c) provides complete protection from production form of .............. welding.
atmospheric contamination (a) seam
(d) requires no post-weld cleansing (b) butt
Ans: b (c) spot
(d) upset
13. The major power supply used in MIG Ans: c
welding is
(a) a.c. supply 19. In the process of electroslag welding,
(b) DCSP theoretically there is no upper limit to the
(c) electrode-negative (a) thickness of weld bead
(d) DCRP (b) rate of metal deposit
(c) slag bath temperature (b) regulator
(d) rate of slag consumption (c) transformer
Ans: a (d) none of the above
20. High temperature metals like columbium Ans: a
can be easily welded by..................... welding.
(a) flash 26. ..... welding process uses consumable
(b) MIG electrodes.
(c) TIG (a) TIG
(d) electron beam (b) MIG
Ans: d (c) Laser
(d) All of the above
21. During resistance welding heat produced at Ans: b
the joint is proportional to
(a) I2R 27. Which of the following equipment is generally
(b) kVA used for arc welding?
(c) current (a) single phase alternator
(d) voltage (b) two phase alternator
Ans: a (c) three phase alternator
(d) transformer
22. Grey iron in usually welded by ....... welding Ans: d
(a) gas
(b) arc 28. Which of the following is not an inert gas?
(c) resistance (a) argon
(d) MIG (b) carbon dioxide
Ans: a (c) helium
(d) all of the above
23. The metal surfaces, for electrical resistance Ans: b
welding must be.......
(a) lubricated 29. Electronic components are joined by which of
(b) cleaned the following methods?
(c) moistened (a) brazing
(d) rough (b) soldering
Ans: b (c) seam welding
(d) spot welding
24. In a welded joint poor fusion is due to which (e) none of the above
of the following? Ans: b
(a) Improper current
(b) High welding speed 30. Resistance welding cannot be used for
(c) Uncleaned metal surface (a) dielectrics
(d) Lack of flux (b) ferrous materials
Ans: a (c) non-ferrous metals
(d) any of the above
25. For arc welding, D.C. is produced by which Ans: a
of the following?
(a) motor-generator set
31. Electric arc welding process produces (c) the amount of weld current
temperature upto (d) all above
(a) 1000oC Ans: d
(b) 1500oC
(c) 3500oC 37. Helium produces which of the following?
(d) 5550oC (a) deeper penetration
Ans: d (b) faster welding speeds
(c) narrower heat affected zone in base metal
32. Increased heat due to shorter arc is harmful on (d) all of the above
account of Ans: d
(a) under-cutting of base material
(b) burn through 38. Due to which of the following reasons
(c) excessive porosity aluminium is difficult to weld?
(d) all of the above (a) it has an oxide coating
Ans: d (b) it conducts away heat very rapidly
(c) both (a) and (b)
33. Arc blow results in which of the following? (d) none of the above
(a) Non-uniform weld beads Ans: c
(b) Shallow weld puddle given rise to weak weld
(c) Splashing out of metal from weld puddle 39. Welding leads have
(d) All of the above defects (a) high flexibility
Ans: d (b) high current handling capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
34. In seam welding (d) none of the above
(a) the work piece is fixed and disc electrodes Ans: d (please confirm)
move
(b) the work piece moves but rotating 40. Air craft body is
electrodes are fixed (a) spot welded
(c) any of the above (b) gas welded
(d) none of the above (c) seam welded
Ans: c (d) riveted
Ans: c
35. In arc welding major personal hazards are
(a) flying sperks 41. For arc welding current range is usually
(b) weld spatter (a) 10 to 15 A
(c) harmful infrared and ultra-violet rays from (b) 30 to 40 A
the arc (c) 50 to 100 A
(d) all of the above (d) 100 to 350 A
Ans: d Ans: d

36. In spot welding composition and thickness of 42. Spot welding is used for
the base metal decides (a) thin metal sheets
(a) the amount of squeeze pressure (b) rough and irregular surfaces
(b) hold time (c) costings only
(d) thick sections
Ans: a (c) current should increase, voltage should
decrease
43. Galvanising is a process of applying a layer of (d) voltage should increase, current remaining
(a) aluminium the same
(b) lead Ans: b
(c) copper
(d) zinc 49. In D.C. arc welding
Ans: d (a) electrode is made positive and workpiece
negative
44. A seamless pipe has (b) electrode is made negative and workpiece
(a) steam welded joint positive
(b) spot welded joint (c) both electrode as well as workpiece are
(c) arc welded joint made positive
(d) no joint (d) both electrode as well as workpiece are
Ans: d made negative
Ans: b
45. Motor-generator set for D.C. arc welding has
generator of 50. The purpose of coating on arc welding
(a) series type electrodes is to
(b) shunt type (a) stabilise the arc
(c) differentially compound type (b) provide a protecting atmosphere
(d) level compound type (c) provide slag to protect the molten metal
Ans: d (d) all of the above
Ans: d
46. Plain and butt welds may be used on materials
upto thickness of nearly 51. 50 percent duty cycle of a welding machine
(a) 5 mm means
(b) 10 mm (a) machine input is 50 percent of rated input
(c) 25 mm (b) machine efficiency is 50 percent
(d) 50 mm (c) machine work on 50 percent output
Ans: c (d) machine works for 5 minutes in a duration
of 10 minutes
47. In argon arc welding argon is used as a Ans: d
(a) flux
(b) source of heat Electric Heating
(c) agent for heat transfer 1. As compared to other methods of heating
(d) shield to protect the work from oxidation using gas and coal etc, electric heating is far
Ans: d superior because of its.
(a) cleanliness
48. During arc welding as the thickness of the (b) ease of control
metal to be welded increases (c) higher efficiency
(a) current should decrease, voltage should (d) all of the above.
increase Ans: d
(b) current should increases, voltage remaining
the same 2. Magnetic materials are heated with the help of
(a) hysteresis loss (b) electric arc (a) 3000-3500 (b) 2500-3000
(c) electric current (d) radiation (c) 2000-2500 (d) 1500-2000
Ans: a Ans: a

3. In the indirect resistance heating method, heat 9. Which of the following furnace suffers from
is delivered to the charge pinch effect?
(a) directly (b) by radiation (a) resistance furnace
(c) by convection (d) both (b) and (c) (b) core type induction furnace
Ans: d (c) coreless induction furnace
(d) vertical core type induction furnace
4. The main requirements of a good heating Ans: b
element used in a resistance furnaces are
(a) high resistivity 10. Which of the following induction furnace has
(b) high melting-temperature the lowest power factor?
(c) positive resistance-temperature (a) vertical core type
coefficient (b) indirect core type
(d) all of the above (c) coreless type
Ans: d (d) core type
Ans: d
5. Electric ovens using heating elements of
..... can produce temperatures up to 3000°C. 11. The coreless induction furnace uses high-
(a) nickel (b) graphite frequency electric supply in order to
(c) chromium (d) iron obtain high
Ans: b (a) flux density
(b) eddy-current loss
6. The temperature of resistance furnaces can be (c) primary resistance
controlled by changing the (d) power factor
(a) applied voltage Ans: b
(b) number of heating elements
(c) circuit configuration 12. Inflammable articles like plastic and wooden
(d) all of the above products etc, can be safely heated by
Ans: d using.................... heating.
(a) eddy-current (b) dielectric
7. Which of the following heating method is (c) induction (d) resistance
based on the transformer principle ? Ans: b
(a) resistance heating
(b) eddy-current heating 13. Which of the following is an advantages of
(c) induction heating heating by electricity?
(d) dielectric heating. (a) Quicker operation
Ans: c (b) Higher efficiency
(c) Absence of flue gases
8. When graphite electrodes are used in arc (d) All of the above
furnaces, the temperature obtained is in the Ans: d
range of ...............................degree centigrade.
14. ...... has the highest value of thermal (a) temperature of the two bodies must be
conductivity. different
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (b) both bodies must be solids
(c) Brass (d) Steel (c) both bodies must be in contact
Ans: a (d) at least one of the bodies must have some
source of heating
15. Which of the following heating methods has Ans: a
maximum power factor?
(a) Arc heating 21. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when
(b) Dielectric heating (a) bodies are kept in vacuum
(c) Induction heating (b) bodies are immersed in water
(d) Resistance heating (c) bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
Ans: d (d) temperatures of the two bodies are
identical
16. ...... method has leading power factor Ans: d
(a) Resistance heating
(b) Dielectric heating 22. A perfect black body is one that
(c) Arc heating (a) transmits all incident radiations
(d) Induction heating (b) absorbs all incident radiations
Ans: b (c) reflects all incident radiations
(d) absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident
17. ...... is used for heating non-conducting radiations
materials. Ans: b
(a) Eddy current heating
(b) Arc heating 23. Heat is transferred simultaneously by
(c) Induction heating condition, convection and radiation
(d) Dielectric heating (a) inside boiler furnaces
Ans: d (b) during melting of ice
(c) through the surface of the insulted pipe
18. Which of the following methods of heating is carrying steam
not dependent on the frequency of supply? (d) from refrigerator coils to freezer of a
(a) Induction heating refrigerator
(b) Dielectric heating Ans: a
(c) Electric resistance heating
(d) All of the above 24. The process of heat transfer during the re-entry
Ans: c of satellites and missiles, at very high speeds,
into earth’s atmosphere is known as
19. When a body reflects entire radiation incident (a) ablation
on it, then it is known as (b) radiation
(a) white body (b) grey body (c) viscous dissipation
(c) black body (d) transparent body (d) irradiation
Ans: a (please confirm) Ans: a

20. For the transmission of heat from one body to 25. Which of the following has the highest value
another of thermal conductivity?
(a) Water (b) Steam furnace walls will drop
(c) Solid ice (d) Melting ice (d) Energy consumption will increase
Ans: c Ans: c

26. Induction heating process is based on which 31. The material of the heating element for a
of the following principles? furnace should have
(a) Thermal ion release principle (a) lower melting point
(b) Nucleate heating principle (b) higher temperature co-efficient
(c) Resistance heating principle (c) high specific resistance
(d) Electro-magnetic induction principle (d) all of the above
Ans: d Ans: c

27. Which of the following insulating materials is 32. In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is .......
suitable for low temperature applications? (a) oxidizing (b) deoxidizing
(a) Asbestos paper (c) reducing (d) neutral
(b) Diatomaceous earth Ans: a
(c) 80 percent magnesia
(d) Cork 33. By which of the following methods the
Ans: b temperature inside a resistance furnace can
be varied?
28. A non-dimensional number generally (a) By disconnecting some of the heating elements
associated with natural convection heat transfer (b) By varying the operating voltage
is (c) By varying the current through heating elements
(a) Prandtl number (d) By any of the above method
(b) Grash off number Ans: d
(c) Pecelet number
(d) Nusselt number 34. In induction heating ...... is abnormally high.
Ans: b (a) phase angle (b) frequency
(c) current (d) voltage
29. The temperature inside a furnace is usually Ans: b
measured by which of the following?
(a) Optical pyrometer 35. By the use of which of the following high
(b) Mercury thermometer frequency power supply for induction
(c) Alcohol thermometer furnaces can be obtained?
(d) Any of the above (a) Coreless transformers
Ans: a (b) Current transformers
(c) Motor-generator set
30. Which of the following will happen if the (d) Multi-phase transformer
thickness of refractory wall of furnace is Ans: c
increased?
(a) Heat loss through furnace wall will 36. Induction furnaces are employed for which of
increase the following?
(b) Temperature inside the furnace will fall (a) Heat treatment of castings
(c) Temperature on the outer surface of (b) Heating of insulators
(c) Melting aluminium 42. In resistance heating highest working
(d) None of the above temperature is obtained from heating elements
Ans: a made of ........
(a) nickel copper (b) nichrome
37. In an electric room heat convector the method (c) silicon carbide (d) silver
of heating used is Ans: c
(a) arc heating
(b) resistance heating 43. For intermittent work which of the following
(c) induction heating furnaces is suitable?
(d) dielectric heating (a) Indirect arc furnace
Ans: b (b) Core less furnace
(c) Either of the above
38. In a domestic cake baking oven the (d) None of the above
temperature is controlled by Ans: a
(a) voltage variation
(b) thermostat 44. Due to which of the following reasons it is
(c) auto-transformer desirable to have short arc length?
(d) series-parallel operation (a) To achieve better heating
Ans: b (b) To increase the life of roof refractory
(c) To have better stirring action
39. In an electric press mica is used (d) To reduce problem of oxidation
(a) as an insulator (e) All of the above
(b) as a device for power factor improvement Ans: e
(c) for dielectric heating
(d) for induction heating 45. In the indirect resistance heating method,
Ans: a maximum heat-transfer takes place by
(a) radiation (b) convection
40. Induction heating takes place in which of the (c) conduction (d) any of the above
following? Ans: a
(a) Insulating materials
(b) Conducting materials which are magnetic 46. Property of low temperature co-efficient of
(c) Conducting materials which are nonmagnetic heating element is desired due to which of the
(d) Conducting materials which may or may following reasons?
not be magnetic (a) To avoid initial rush of current
Ans: d (b) To avoid change in kW rating with
temperature
41. For heating element high resistivity material (c) Both (a) and (b)
is chosen to (d) Either (a) or (b)
(a) reduce the length of heating element Ans: c
(b) increase the life of the heating element
(c) reduce the effect of oxidation 47. Which of the following methods is used to
(d) produce large amount of heat control temperature in resistance furnaces?
Ans: a (a) Variation of resistance
(b) Variation of voltage
(c) Periodical switching on and off of the
supply Ans: e
(d) All of the above methods
Ans: d 54. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used
in
48. It is desirable to operate the arc furnace at (a) induction heating of steel
power factor of (b) dielectric heating
(a) zero (b) 0.707 lagging (c) induction heating of brass
(c) unity (d) 0.707 leading (d) resistance heating
Ans: b Ans: a

49. Radiations from a black body are proportional 55. In heating the ferromagnetic material by
to induction heating, heat is produced due to
(a) T (b) T2 (a) induced current flow through the charge
(c) T3 (d) T4 (b) hysteresis loss taking place below curie
Ans: d temperature
(c) due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy
50. In arc furnace the function of choke is current loss taking place in the charge
(a) to stabilize the arc (d) one of the above factors
(b) to improve power factor Ans: c
(c) to reduce severity of the surge
(d) none of the above 56. Radiant heating is used for which of the
Ans: a following?
(a) Annealing of metals
51. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when (b) Melting of ferrous metals
(a) it is filled below core level (c) Heating of liquids in electric kettle
(b) it is filled above core level (d) Drying of paints and varnishes
(c) it is fully empty Ans: d
(d) none of the above
Ans: d 57. Which of the following devices is necessarily
required for automatic temperature control in
52. In electric press, mica is used because it is ....... a furnace?
conductor of heat but/and ....... conductor of (a) Thermostat
electricity. (b) Thermocouple
(a) bad, good (b) bad, bad (c) auto-transformer
(c) good, bad (d) good, good (d) Heating elements of variable resistance
Ans: c material
Ans: b
53. Resistance variation method of temperature
control is done by connecting resistance 58. For radiant heating around 2250oC, the heating
elements in elements are made of
(a) series (a) copper alloy (b) carbon
(b) parallel (c) tungsten alloy (d) stainless steel alloy
(c) series-parallel connections Ans: c
(d) star-delta connections
(e) all of the above ways
59. Which of the following is an advantage of eddy (b) poor power factor
current heating? (c) long delay of thyristor firing pulses
(a) The amount of heat generated can be (d) necessity of using a processor.
controlled accurately Ans: a
(b) Heat at very high rate can be generated
(c) The area of the surface over which heat is 3. In the current-fed frequency converter
produced can be accurately controlled arrangement for controlling the speed of an
(d) All of the above individual SCIM, the direction of rotation can
Ans: d be reversed by
(a) changing the output frequency of the inverter
60. The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made of (b) altering the phase sequence of pulses that
(a) tungsten trigger converter-2
(b) graphite (c) interchanging any two line leads
(c) silver (d) reversing the d.c. link current.
(d) copper Ans: b
Ans: b
4. In the chopper speed control method for a
61. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following WRIM, the motor speed inversely depends on
power factors? (a) fixed resistor across the rectifier
(a) Unity (b) chopper switching frequency
(b) Low, lagging (c) chopper ON time TON
(c) Low, leading (d) both (b) and (c)
(d) Any of the above Ans: d
Ans: b
5. In the synchronous motor drive using current fed
62. In direct arc furnace, which of the following dc link
has high value? (a) converter-2 functions as a selfcommutated
(a) Current inverter
(b) Voltage (b) converter-1 works as an uncontrolled rectifier
(c) Power factor (c) converter-3 is a controlled rectifier
(d) All of the above (d) gate triggering of converter-2 is done at
Ans: a motor frequency.
Ans: d
Electronic Motor Controls
1. The function of a cycloconverter is to convert 6. In the three cycloconverter drive of a
(a) ac power into d.c. power synchronous motor
(b) direct current into alternating current (a) each cycloconverter produces a 3-phase output
(c) high ac frequency directly to low ac frequency (b) all cycloconverters act as voltage sources
(d) a sine wave into a rectangular wave (c) a 3-phase controlled rectifier provides field
Ans: c exciting current.
. (d) air-gap flux is kept constant by controlling
2. Major disadvantage of using three sets of SCRs stator currents only
for variable-voltage speed control of a SCIM Ans: c
is the
(a) considerable I2R loss
Application of Industrial Motors (a) d.c. shunt motor
1. A steel mill requires a motor having high (b) double squirrel-cage motor
starting torque, wide speed range and precise (c) slip-ring induction motor
speed control. Which one of the following (d) three-phase synchronous motor
motors will you choose ? Ans: d
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) synchronous motor 7. Direct drive is used for power transmission
(c) d.c. series motor only when
(d) slip-ring induction motor. (a) negligible slip is required
Ans: c (b) large amount of power is involved
(c) speed of the driven machine equals the
2. Heavy-duty steel-works cranes which have motor speed
wide load variations are equipped with (d) high-speed motor is to drive a low-speed
................. motor. machine.
(a) double squirrel-cage Ans: c
(b) d.c. series
(c) slip-ring induction 8. Which type of enclosure will be most suitable
(d) cumulative compound for motors employed in atmospheres containing
Ans: b inflammable gases and vapours ?
(a) pipe-ventilated
3. A reciprocating pump which is required to (b) totally enclosed, fan-cool
start under load will need .........motor. (c) flame proof
(a) repulsion (d) screen-protected.
(b) squirrel-cage induction Ans: c
(c) synchronous
(d) double squirrel-cage induction. 9. While plugging d.c. motors, .................
Ans: d connections are reversed
(a) supply
4. Motors used in wood-working industry have (b) armature
................. enclosure. (c) field
(a) screen protected (b) drip proof (d) both armature and field
(c) TEFC (d) TE Ans: b
Ans: c
10. During rheostatic braking of a d.c., motor,
5. Single-phase synchronous motors are used in (a) its field is disconnected from the supply
teleprinters, clocks and all kinds of timing (b) its armature is reverse-connected
devices because of their (c) it works as a d.c. generator
(a) low starting torque (d) direction of its field current is reversed.
(b) high power factor Ans: c
(c) constant speed
(d) over-load capacity. 11. Rheostatic braking may be applied to an
Ans: c induction motor provided
(a) separate d.c. source for field excitation is
6. Which motor is generally used in rolling mills, available
paper and cement industries ? (b) it is a squirrel cage type
(c) it is slip-ring type (d) Speed control range and its nature
(d) variable external resistance is available (e) all of the above
Ans: a Ans: e

12. During regenerative braking of electric motors, 17. Which of the following motors is preferred for
they are traction work?
(a) disconnected from the supply (a) Universal motor
(b) reverse-connected to the supply (b) D.C. series motor
(c) made to run as generators (c) Synchronous motor
(d) made to stop. (d) three-phase induction motor
Ans: c Ans: b

13. Regenerative braking 18. Which of the following motors always starts
(a) can be used for stopping a motor on load?
(b) cannot be easily applied to d.c. series motors (a) Conveyor motor (b) Floor mill motor
(c) can be easily applied to d.c. shunt motors (c) Fan motor (d) All of the above
(d) cannot be used wen motor load has overhauling Ans: d
characteristics
Ans: c 19. ....... is preferred for automatic drives.
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
14. Net energy saved during regenerative braking (b) Synchronous motors
of an electric train (c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors
(a) increases with increase in specific resistance (d) Any of the above
(b) is high with high down gradient Ans: c
(c) decreases with reduction in train speed due
to braking 20. When the load is above ........ a synchronous
(d) is independent of the train weight motor is found to be more economical.
Ans: b (a) 2 kW (b) 20 kW
(c) 50 kW (d) 100 kW
15. The selection of an electric motor for any Ans: d
application depends on which of the following
factors? 21. The load cycle for a motor driving a power
(a) Electrical characteristics press will be .......
(b) Mechanical characteristics (a) variable load
(c) Size and rating of motors (b) continuous
(d) cost (c) continuous but periodical
(e) All of the above (d) intermittent and variable load
Ans: e Ans: d

16. For a particular application the type of electric 22. Light duty cranes are used in which of the
and control gear are determined by which of following?
the following considerations? (a) Power houses
(a) Starting torque (b) Pumping station
(b) Conditions of environment (c) Automobile workshops
(c) Limitation on starting current (d) all of the above
Ans: d 29. ....... need frequent starting and stopping of
electric motors.
23. While selecting an electric motor for a floor (a) Paper mills
mill, which electrical characteristics will be of (b) Grinding mills
least significance? (c) Air-conditioners
(a) Running characteristics (d) Lifts and hoists
(b) Starting characteristics Ans: d
(c) Efficiency
(d) Braking 30. Which feature, while selecting a motor for
Ans: d centrifugal pump, will be of least significance?
(a) Starting characteristics
24. Which of the following motors are preferred (b) Operating speed
for overhead travelling cranes? (c) Horse power
(a) Slow speed motors (d) Speed control
(b) Continuous duty motors Ans: d
(c) Short time rated motors
(d) None of the above 31. ...... motor is a constant speed motor.
Ans: c (a) Synchronous motor
(b) Schrage motor
25. ....... is preferred for synthetic fibre mills. (c) Induction motor
(a) Synchronous motor (d) Universal motor
(b) Reluctance motor Ans: a
(c) Series motor
(d) Shunt motor 32. The starting torque is case of centrifugal pumps
Ans: b is generally
(a) less than running torque
26. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are (b) same as running torque
generally used for ....... excavators. (c) slightly more than running torque
(a) Light duty (b) Medium duty (d) double the running torque
(c) Heavy duty (d) All of the above Ans: a
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors are best for the
27. Which of the following motors is used for rolling mills?
elevators? (a) Single phase motors
(a) Induction motor (b) Squirrel cage induction motors
(b) Synchronous motor (c) Slip ring induction motors
(c) Capacitor start single phase motor (d) D.C. motors
(d) Any of the above Ans: d
Ans: a
34. ....... is not a part of ball bearing?
28. Which part of a motor needs maximum (a) Inner race (b) Outer race
attention for maintenance? (c) Cage (d) Bush
(a) Frame (b) Bearing Ans: d
(c) Stator winding (d) Rotor winding
Ans: b
35. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is (b) D.C. shunt motor
independent of which of the following? (c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(a) Flux (d) Wound rotor induction motor
(b) Armature current Ans: c
(c) Flux and armature current
(d) Speed 42. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost
Ans: d invariably used for
(a) water pumps
36. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on ....... (b) jaw crushers
bearings. (c) centrifugal blowers
(a) ball or roller (b) needle (d) none of the above
(c) bush (d) thrust Ans: b
Ans: a
43. Which of the following is essentially needed
37. For which of the following applications D.C. while selecting a motor?
motors are still preferred? (a) Pulley (b) Starter
(a) High efficiency operation (c) Foundation pedal (d) Bearings
(b) Reversibility Ans: b
(c) Variable speed drive
(d) High starting torque 44. Reluctance motor is a ........
Ans: c (a) variable torque motor
(b) low torque variable speed motor
38. In a paper mill where constant speed is required (c) self starting type synchronous motor
(a) synchronous motors are preferred (d) low noise, slow speed motor
(b) A.C. motors are preferred Ans: c
(c) individual drive is preferred
(d) group drive is preferred 45. ....... method of starting a three phase induction
Ans: c motor needs six terminals.
(a) Star-delta
39. A reluctance motor ...... (b) Resistance starting
(a) is provided with slip rings (c) Auto-transformer
(b) requires starting gear (d) None of the above
(c) has high cost Ans: a
(d) is compact
Ans: d 46. In ....... method of starting three phase induction
motors the starting voltage is not reduced.
40. The size of an excavator is usually expressed (a) auto-transformer
in terms of (b) star-delta
(a) ‘crowd’ motion (b) angle of swing (c) slip ring
(c) cubic metres (d) travel in metres (d) any of the above
Ans: c Ans: c

41. For blowers which of the following motors in 47. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start
preferred? against
(a) d.C. series motor ...... load.
(a) heavy (b) medium (b) Cranes
(c) normal (d) low (c) Rolling mills
Ans: a (d) All of the above
Ans: d
48. For a motor-generator set which of the
following motors will be preferred? 54. Flame proof motors are used in
(a) Synchronous motor (a) paper mills
(b) Slip ring induction motor (b) steel mills
(c) Pole changing induction motor (c) moist atmospheres
(d) Squirrel cage induction motor (d) explosive atmospheres
Ans: a Ans: d

49. Which of the following motors is usually 55. Which of the following machines has heavy
preferred for kiln drives? fluctuation of load?
(a) Cascade controlled A.C. motor (a) Printing machine
(b) slip ring induction motor (b) Punching machine
(c) three phase shunt would commutator motor (c) Planer
(d) Any of the above (d) Lathe
Ans: d Ans: b

50. Heat control switches are used in ........ 56. For derries and winches which of the following
(a) transformers drives can be used?
(b) cooling ranges (a) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
(c) three phase induction motors (b) D.C. motors with Ward-leonard control
(d) single phase (c) A.C. slip ring motors with variable
Ans: b resistance
(d) Any of the above
51. ........ has relatively wider range of speed control Ans: d
(a) Synchronous motor
(b) Ship ring induction motor 57. Battery operated scooter for braking uses
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor (a) plugging
(d) D.C. shunt motor (b) mechanical braking
Ans: d (c) regenerative braking
(d) rheostatic braking
52. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the Ans: b
following methods of starting cannot be used?
(a) Resistance in rotor circuit 58. ....... has least range of speed control.
(b) Resistance in stator circuit (a) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Auto-transformer starting (b) Synchronous motor
(d) Star-delta starting (c) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: a (d) Schrage motor
Ans: b
53. In which of the following applications the load
on motor changes in cyclic order? 59. ....... has the least value of starting torque to
(a) Electric shovels full load torque ratio.
(a) D.C. shunt motor 65. the travelling speed of cranes varies from
(b) D.C. series motor (a) 20 to 30 m/s
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor (b) 10 to 15 m/s
(d) Slip ring induction motor (c) 5 to 10 m/s
Ans: c (d) 1 to 2.5 m/s
Ans: d
60. In case of ....... speed control by injecting e.m.f.
in the rotor circuit is possible. 66. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor
(a) d.c. shunt motor possesses which of the following advantages?
(b) schrage motor (a) Lower cost
(c) synchronous motor (b) Batter efficiency
(d) slip ring induction motor (c) High power factor
Ans: d (d) All of the above
Ans: c
61. A pony motor is used for the starting which
of the following motors? 67. By the use of which of the following D.C. can
(a) Squirel cage induction motor be obtained from A.C.?
(b) Schrage motor (a) Silicon diodes
(c) Synchronous motor (b) Mercury are rectifier
(d) None of the above (c) Motor generator set
Ans: c (d) any of the above
Ans: d
62. In ....... the speed can be varied by changing
the position of brushes. 68. Which of the following motors is preferred
(a) slip ring motor when quick speed reversal is the main
(b) schrage motor consideration?
(c) induction motor (a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) repulsion motor (b) Wound rotor induction motor
Ans: b (c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
63. In which of the following applications variable Ans: c
speed operation is preferred?
(a) Exhaust fan 69. Which of the following motors is preferred
(b) Ceiling fan when smooth and precise speed control over
(c) Refrigerator a wide range is desired?
(d) Water pump (a) D.C. motor
Ans: b (b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
64. Heavy duty cranes are used in (d) Synchronous motor
(a) ore handling plants Ans: a
(b) steel plants
(c) heavy engineering workshops 70. For crane travel which of the following motors
(d) all of the above is normally used?
Ans: d (a) Synchronous motor
(b) D.C. differentially compound motor
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor 76. Which of the following happens when stardelta
(d) A.C. slip ring motor starter is used?
Ans: d (a) Starting voltage is reduced
(b) Starting current is reduced
71. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms (c) Both (a) and (b)
of (d) None of the above
(a) type of drive Ans: c
(b) span
(c) tonnes 77. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following
(d) any of the above is incorrect?
Ans: c (a) Unsuitable for heavy duty starting
(b) Torque varies as armature current
72. the characteristics of drive for crane hoisting (c) Torque-armature current is a straight line
and lowering are which of the following? (d) Torque is zero for zero armature current
(a) Precise control Ans: a
(b) Smooth movement
(c) Fast speed control 78. For which of the following applications motor
(d) All of the above has to start with high acceleration?
Ans: d (a) Oil expeller
(b) Floor mill
73. Which of the following motors is preferred for (c) Lifts and hoists
boom hoist of a travelling crane? (d) centrifugal pump
(a) Single phase motor Ans: c
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) A.C. slip ring motor 79. Which of the following types of motor
(d) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor enclosure is safest?
Ans: c (a) totally enclosed
(b) Totally enclosed fan cooled
74. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, (c) Open type
as compared to squirrel cage induction motor, (d) Semi closed
when major consideration is Ans: b
(a) slop speed operation
(b) high starting torque 80. While selecting motor for an air conditioner
(c) low windage losses which of the following characteristics is of
(d) all of the above great importance?
Ans: b (a) Type of bearings
(b) Type of enclosure
75. Which of the following motors has series (c) Noise
characteristics? (d) Arrangement for power transmission
(a) Shaded pole motor (e) None of the above
(b) Repulsion motor Ans: c
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) None of the above 81. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric
Ans: b motor depends on which of the following?
(a) r.p.m. only
(b) Horse power only (c) identify the needs of various consumers
(c) Horse power and r.p.m (d) all of the above
(d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor Ans: d
Ans: c
4. Existing Distribution systems are
82. Which of the following alternatives will be (a) properly designed
cheaper? (b) chaotic
(a) A 100 H.P. A.C. three phase motor (c) optimally operated
(b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each (d) automated
(c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each Ans: b
(d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
Ans: a 5. Distribution systems are not radial
(a) true (b) false
83. The cost of an induction motor will increase as Ans: b
(a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
(b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m increases 6. The major aim of distribution automation is to
(c)horsepower rating and operating speed increases keep minimum area in dark for a minimum time
(d)horsepower rating and operating speed ecreases (a) true (b) false
Ans: a Ans: a

84. in series motor which of the following methods 7. Distribution automation is used for
can be used for changing the flux per pole? (a) electrical quantities only
(a) Tapped field control (b) physical quantities only
(b) Diverter field control (c) both of the above
(c) Series-parallel control Ans: c
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d 8. Sectionalizing switches are circuit breakers
(a) true (b) false
Distribution Automation Ans: b
1. Need based energy management is better than
demand based energy management 9. RTU is a -
(a) true (b) false (a) transmitter (b) receiver
Ans: a (c) trans-receiver
Ans: c
2. Round the clock power is required to
(a) agricultural uses 10. The main problem in implanting Distribution
(b) shift based industries Automation in metros is -
(c) commercial organisations (a) RTUs (b) communication
(d) essential services (c) D.A.S. (d) control computers
Ans: d Ans: b

3. Need based energy management would include 11. Distribution SCADA means –
(a) plan power generation as per forecast (a) data acquisition
(b) monitor matching of need with supply (b) man – machine interface
(c) data archiving (a) 5 (b) 10
(d) all of the above (c) 15 (d) 20
Ans: d Ans: d

12. Nowadays the trend is towards – 20. Major revenue losses in distribution system
(a) manned substation occur in –
(b) unmanned substation (a) domestic sector
Ans: b (b) industrial sector
(c) agricultural sector
13. Artificial Intelligence plays a pivotal data in (d) commercial sector
distribution automation Ans: c
(a) true (b) false
Ans: a AC Transmission
1. With same maximum voltage between
14. Distribution Automation means – conductors, the ratio of copper volumes in 3-phase,
(a) substation Automation 3-wire system and 1-phase, 2-wire system is
(b) feeder Automation (a) 4/3 (b) 3/4
(c) consumer side Automation (c) 5/3 (d) 3/5
(d) all of the above Ans: b
Ans: d
2. The volume of copper required for an a.c.
15. Distribution Automotive system are modular transmission line is inversely proportional to
(a) true (b) false (a) current (b) voltage
Ans: a (c) power factor (d) both (b) and (c)
(e) both (a) and (c).
16. Existing distribution systems are controlled Ans: d
(a) automatically (b) manually
Ans: b 3. For a.c. transmission lines less than 80 km in
length, it is usual to lump the line capacitance
17. Distribution Automotive systems operate in at
real time (a) the receiving end
(a) true (b) false (b) the sending end
Ans: a (c) the mid-point
(d) any convenient point.
18. Until recent years, much of the investment and Ans: a
technical exploitation was done in –
(a) generation 4. Corona occurs between two transmission wires
(b) transmission when they
(c) generation and transmission (a) are closely-spaced
(d) distribution (b) are widely-spaced
Ans: c (c) have high potential difference
(d) carry d.c. power.
19. Demand supply gap in power sector is expected Ans: c
to grow by - - - - percent every year.
5. The only advantage of corona is that it 11. By which of the following systems electric
(a) makes line current non-sinusoidal power may be transmitted?
(b) works as a safety-valve for surges (a) Overhead system
(c) betrays its presence by hissing sound (b) Underground system
(d) produces a pleasing luminous glow. (c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: b (d) None of the above
Ans: c
6. The sag produced in the conductor of a
transmission wire depends on 12. ....... are the conductors, which connect the
(a) weight of the conductor per unit length consumer's terminals to the distribution
(b) tension in the conductor (a) Distributors
(c) length of the conductor (b) Service mains
(d) all of the above (c) Feeders
(e) none of the above. (d) None of the above
Ans: d Ans: b

7. Suspension insulators are used when 13. The underground system cannot be operated
transmission voltage is above
(a) high (b) low (a) 440 V (b) 11 kV
(c) fluctuating (d) steady (c) 33 kV (d) 66 kV
Ans: a Ans: d

8. The string efficiency of suspension insulators 14. Overhead system can be designed for
can be increased by operation upto
(a) providing a guard ring (a) 11 kV (b) 33 kV
(b) grading the insulators (c) 66 kV (d) 400 kV
(c) using identical insulator disc Ans: d
(d) both (a) & (b).
Ans: d 15. If variable part of annual cost on account of
interest and depreciation on the capital outlay
9. An interconnector between two generating is equal to the annual cost of electrical energy
stations facilitates to wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost
(a) keep their voltage constant will be minimum and the corresponding size
(b) run them in parallel of conductor will be most economical. This
(c) transfer power in either direction statement is known as
(d) both (b) & (c) (a) Kelvin's law (b) Ohm's law
Ans: d (c) Kirchhoff's law (d) Faraday's law
(e) none of the above
10. The effective disruptive critical voltage of a Ans: a
transmission line does NOT depend on
(a) irregularity factor 16. The wooden poles well impregnated with
(b) conductor radius creosite oil or any preservative compound have
(c) distance between conductors life
(d) material of the conductors. (a) from 2 to 5 years
Ans: d (b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years loaded line is called the
(d) 60 to 70 years (a) Seeback effect
Ans: c (b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
17. Which of the following materials is not used (d) none of the above
for transmission and distribution of electrical Ans: b
power?
(a) Copper 24. The square root of the ratio of line impedance
(b) Aluminium and shunt admittance is called the
(c) Steel (a) surge impedance of the line
(d) Tungsten (b) conductance of the line
Ans: d (c) regulation of the line
(d) none of the above
18. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as Ans: a
(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire 25. Which of the following is the demerit of a
(c) structural components ‘constant voltage transmission system’?
(d) all of the above (a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
Ans: d (b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads
at the line terminals
19. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are (c) Possibility of better protection for the line
(a) 40–50 metres due to possible use of higher terminal
(b) 60–100 metres reactances
(c) 80–100 metres (d) Improvement of power factor at times of
(d) 300–500 metres moderate and heavy loads
Ans: c (e) Possibility of carrying increased power
for a given conductor size in case of long distance
20. The corona is considerably affected by which heavy power transmission
of the following? Ans: a
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor 26. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to
(c) Surface condition of the conductor (a) 1.1 kV
(d) All of the above (b) 3.3 kV
Ans: d (c) 6.6 kV
(d) 11 kV
21. Which of the following are the constants of the Ans: c
transmission lines?
(a) Resistance 27. The operating voltage of high voltage cables
(b) Inductance is upto
(c) Capacitance (a) 1.1 kV
(d) All of the above (b) 3.3 kV
Ans: d (c) 6.6 kV
(d) 11 kV
23. The phenomenon of rise in voltage at the Ans: d
receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly
28. The operating voltage of supertension cables Ans: e
is upto
(a) 3.3 kV 33. Which of the following D.C. distribution
(b) 6.6 kV system is the simplest and lowest in first cost?
(c) 11 kV (a) Radial system
(d) 33 kV (b) Ring system
Ans: d (c) Inter-connected system
(d) Non of the above
29. The operating voltage of extra high tension Ans: a
cables is upto
(a) 6.6 kV 34. A booster is a
(b) 11 kV (a) series wound generator
(c) 33 kV (b) shunt wound generator
(d) 66 kV (c) synchronous generator
(e) 132 kV (d) none of the above
Ans: d Ans: a

30. Which of the following methods is used for 35. Besides a method of trial and error, which of
laying of underground cables? the following methods is employed for
(a) Direct laying solution of network problems in interconnected
(b) Draw-in-system system?
(c) Solid system (a) Circulating current method
(d) All of the above (b) Thevenin's theorem
Ans: d (c) Superposition of currents
(d) direct application of Kirchhoff's laws
31. Which of the following is the source of heat (e) All of the above
generation in the cables? Ans: e
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) I2R losses in the conductor 36. Which of the following faults is most likely to
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and occur in cables?
armourings (a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(d) All of the above (b) Open circuit fault
Ans: d (c) Breakdown of cable insulation
(d) all of the above
32. Due to which of the following reasons the Ans: d
cables should not be operated too hot?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may 37. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a
start drawing off from higher levels cable is
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath (a) crystallization of the lead through vibration
to burst (b) chemical action on the lead when
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in (c) mechanical damage
the insulation which will lead to ionization (d) all of the above
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to Ans: d
the rapid increase of dielectric losses with
temperature
38. The voltage of the single phase supply to 44. Distribution lines in India generally use
residential consumers is (a) wooden poles
(a) 110 V (b) R.C.C. poles
(b) 210 V (c) steel towers
(c) 230 V (d) none of the above
(d) 400 V
Ans: c 45. The material commonly used for insulation in
high voltage cables is
39. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in (a) lead
India are (b) paper
(a) underground (c) rubber
(b) overhead (d) none of the above
(c) either of the above Ans: b
(d) none of the above
46. The loads on distributors systems are generally
40. The distributors for residential areas are (a) balanced
(a) single phase (b) unbalanced
(b) three-phase three wire (c) either of the above
(c) three-phase four wire (d) none of the above
(d) non of the above Ans: b
Ans: c
47. The power factor of industrial loads is
41. The conductors of the overhead lines are generally
(a) solid (a) unity
(b) stranded (b) lagging
(c) both solid and stranded (c) leading
(d) none of the above (d) zero
Ans: b Ans: b

42. High voltage transmission lines use 48. Overhead lines generally use
(a) suspension insulators (a) copper conductors
(b) pin insulators (b) all aluminium conductors
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) A.C.S.R. conductors
(d) none of the above (d) none of these
Ans: a Ans: c

43. Multicore cables generally use 49. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made
(a) square conductors of
(b) circular conductors (a) copper
(c) rectangular conductors (b) wood
(d) sector-shaped conductors (c) R.C.C.
(e) none of the above (d) steel
Ans: d Ans: d
50. The material generally used for armour of high Ans: c
voltage cables is
(a) aluminium 56. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer
(b) steel fields are cross-connected in order to
(c) brass (a) boost the generated voltage
(d) copper (b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
An: b (c) make both machines run as unloaded
motors
51. Transmission line insulators are made of (d) equalize voltages on the positive and
(a) glass negative outers
(b) porcelain Ans: d
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C. 57. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers
Ans: b and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
52. The material commonly used for sheaths of (b) both balancers run as motors
underground cables is (c) balancer connected to lightly-loaded side
(a) lead runs as a motor
(b) rubber (d) balancer connected to heavily-loaded side
(c) copper runs as a motor
(d) iron Ans: c
Ans: a
58. Transmitted power remaining the same, if
53. The minimum clearance between the ground supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is
and a 220 kV line is about increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 4.3 m (a) 25 percent
(b) 5.5 m (b) 50 percent
(c) 7.0 m (c) 75 percent
(d) 10.5 m (d) 100 percent
Ans: c Ans: b

54. The spacing between phase conductors of a 59. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at
220 kV line is approximately equal to both ends with equal voltages. As compared
(a) 2 m to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the
(b) 3.5 m drop at a middle point is
(c) 6 m (a) one-fourth
(d) 8.5 m (b) one-third
Ans: c (c) one-half
(d) twice
55. Large industrial consumers are supplied (e) none of the above
electrical energy at Ans: a
(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV 60. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a
(c) 66 kV 3-wire distributor with same maximum
(d) 400 kV voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper 66. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on
(b) 33.3 percent of copper (a) primary transmission
(c) 66.7 percent of copper (b) secondary transmission
(d) 125 percent of copper (c) primary distribution
Ans: a (d) secondary distribution
Ans: d
61. Which of the following is usually not the
generating voltage? 67. Which of the following materials is used for
(a) 6.6 kV overhead transmission lines?
(b) 8.8 kV (a) Steel cored aluminium
(c) 11 kV (b) Galvanised steel
(d) 13.2 kV (c) Cadmium copper
(d) Any of the above
62. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is Ans: d
taken as
(a) 20–40 ohms 68. Which of the following is not a constituent for
(b) 70–80 ohms making porcelain insulators?
(c) 100–200 ohms (a) Quartz
(d) 500–1000 ohms (b) Kaolin
(e) none of the above (c) Felspar
Ans: c (d) Silica
Ans: d
63. The presence of ozone due to corona is
harmful because it 69. There is a greater possibility of occurence of
(a) reduces power factor corona during
(b) corrodes the material (a) dry weather
(c) gives odour (b) winter
(d) transfer energy to the ground (c) summer heat
(e) none of the above (d) humid weather
Ans: b (e) none of the above
Ans: d
64. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power
to 70. Which of the following relays is used on long
(a) distributors transmission lines?
(b) generating stations (a) Impedance realy
(c) service mains (b) Mho's relay
(d) all of the above (c) Reactance relay
Ans: a (d) None of the above
Ans: b
65. The power transmitted will be maximum when
(a) corona losses are minimum 71. The steel used in steel cored conductors is
(b) reactance is high usually
(c) sending end voltage is more (a) alloy steel
(d) receiving end voltage is more (b) stainless steel
Ans: c (c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel Ans: d
(e) all of the above 78. In A.C.S.R. conductors, the insulation between
Ans: c aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
72. Which of the following distribution system is (b) bitumen
more reliable? (c) varnish
(a) Radial system (d) no insulation is required
(b) Tree system Ans: d
(c) Ring main system
(d) All are equally reliable 79. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has
Ans: c the lowest cost?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
73. Which of the followin characteristics should (b) Single bus-bar scheme
the line supports for transmission lines possess? (c) Breaker and a hlaf scheme
(a) Low cost (d) Main and transfer scheme
(b) High mechanical strength Ans: b
(c) Longer life
(d) All of the above 80. Owing to skin effect
Ans: d (a) current flows through the half crosssection of
the conductor
74. Transmission voltage of 11 kV is normally (b) portion of the conductor near the surface
used for distance upto carries more current and core of the
(a) 20–25 km conductor carries less current
(b) 40–50 km (c) portion of the conductor near the surface
(c) 60–70 km carries less current and core of the
(d) 80–100 km conductor carries more current
75. which of the following regulations is (d) none of the above
considered best? 81. By which of the following methods string
(a) 50% efficiency can be improved?
(b) 20% (a) Using a guard ring
(c) 10% (b) Grading the insulator
(d) 2% (c) Using long cross arm
76. Skin effect is proportional to (d) Any of the above
(a) (conductor diameter)4 (e) None of the above
(b) (conductor diameter)3 82. In aluminium conductors, steel core is
(c) (conductor diameter)2 provided to
(d) (conductor diameter)1/2 (a) compensate for skin effect
(e) none of the above (b) neutralise proximity effect
77. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, (c) reduce line inductance
takes the form of (d) increase the tensile strength
(a) semi-circle 83. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated?
(b) triangle (a) Current only
(c) ellipse (b) Current and voltage
(d) catenary (c) Current, voltage and frequency
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time the conductors are
current (a) dead ended
Ans: d (b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
84. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when (d) none of the above
(a) line is energize Ans: c
(b) there is no current in the line
(c) line is on full load 90. The current drawn by the line due to corona
(d) circuit breaker is not open losses is
Ans: b (a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
85. For which of the following equipment current (c) triangular
rating is not necessary? (d) square
(a) Circuit breakers Ans: a
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch 91. Pin type insulators are generally not used for
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches voltages beyond
Ans: b (a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
86. In a substation the following equipment is not (c) 22 kV
installed (d) 33 kV
(a) exciters Ans: d
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors 92. Aluminium has a specific gravity of
(d) voltage transformers (a) 1.5
Ans: a (b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
87. Corona usuall occurs when the electrostatic (d) 7.8
stress in air around the conductor exceeds Ans: b
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm 93. For transmission of power over a distance of
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm 200 km, the transmission voltage should be
(d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm (a) 132 kV
Ans: d (b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
88. The voltage drop, for constant voltage (d) 11 kV
transmission is compensated by installing 94. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the
(a) inductors following factors have higher values except
(b) capacitors (a) specific volume
(c) synchronous motors (b) electrical conductivity
(d) all of above (c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(e) none of the above (d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: c Ans: b

89. The use of strain type insulators is made where

 (b) 100 to 120 kV
95. Which of the following equipment, for (c) 60 to 100 kV
regulating the voltage in distribution feeder, (d) 20 to 50 kV
will be most economical? 101. In the analysis of which of the following lines
(a) Static condenser shunt capacitance is neglected?
(b) Synchronous condenser (a) Short transmission lines
(c) The changing transformer (b) Medium transmission lines
(d) Booster transformer (c) Long transmission lines
Ans: d (d) Modium as well as long transmission lines
102. When the interconnector between two stations
96. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are has large reactance
provided on (a) the transfer of power will take place with
(a) primary winding voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) secondary winding (b) the transfer of power will take place with
(c) high voltage winding least loss
(d) any of the above (c) the stations will fall out of step because
Ans: b of large angular displacement between the
stations
97. Constant voltage transmission entails the (d) none of the above
following disadvantage Ans: c
(a) large conductor area is required for same
power transmission 103. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of
(b) short-circuit current of the system is generators, can be increased by
increased (a) using reactors
(c) either of the above (b) increasing the load
(d) none of the above (c) adjusting the governor
Ans: b (d) reducing the terminal voltage
(e) none of the above
98. On which of the following factors skin effect Ans: c
depends?
(a) Frequency of the current 104. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar
(b) Size of the conductor is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material (a) fall
(d) All of the above (b) rise
Ans: d (c) remain uncharged
(d) none of the above
99. The effect of corona can be detected by Ans: c
(a) presence of zone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound 105. The angular displacement between two
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour interconnected stations is mainly due to
(d) all of the above (a) armature reactance of both alternators
100. for transmission of power over a distance of (b) reactance of the interconnector
500 km, the transmission voltage should be in (c) synchronous reactance of both the
the range alternators
(a) 150 to 220 kV (d) all of the above
Ans: b Ans: a

106. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are 112. When a live conductor of public electric supply
generally used in breaks down and touches the earth which of
(a) reactors the following will happen?
(b) generators (a) Current will flow to earth
(c) transformers (b) Supply voltage will drop
(d) all of the above (c) Supply voltage will increase
Ans: b (d) No current will flow in the conductor
Ans: a
107. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of
little use when the load VAR requirement is 113. 310 km line is considered as
(a) large (a) a long line
(b) small (b) a medium line
(c) fluctuating (c) a short line
(d) any of the above (d) any of the above
Ans: b Ans: a

108. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier 114. The conductors are bundled primarily to
type voltage regulator is effected by (a) increase reactance
(a) electromagnetic induction (b) reduce reactance
(b) varying the resistance (c) reduce ratio interference
(c) varying the reactance (d) none of the above
(d) variable transformer Ans: b
109. when a conductor carries more current on the
surface as compared to core, it is due to 115. The surge impedance in a transmission line
(a) permeability variation having negligible resistance is given as
(b) corona (a) LC
(c) skin effect (b) L C /
(d) unsymmetrical fault (c) 1/LC
(e) none of the above (d) L + C
110. The following system is not generally used (e) none of the above
(a) 1-phase 3 wire 116. The top most conductor in a high transmission
(b) 1-phase 4 wire line is
(c) 3-phase 3 wire (a) earth conductor
(d) 3-phase 4 wire (b) R-phase conductor
Ans: b (c) Y-phase conductor
(d) B-phase conductor
111. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as Ans: a (please confirm)
the
(a) resistivity of conductor material increases 117. In A.C.S.R. conductor the function of steel is
(b) permeability of conductor material to
increases (a) provide additional mechanical strength
(c) diameter increases (b) prevent corona
(d) frequency increases (c) take care of surges
(d) reduce inductance and subsequently (a) Lightening arresters
improve power factor (b) Ground wire
118. In transmission and distribution system the (c) Lightening arresters and ground wires
permissible voltage variation is (d) Earthing of neutral
(a) ±1 percent (d) None of the above
(b) ± 10 percent 125. In which of the following voltage regulators
(c) ± 20 percent the effect of dead zero is found?
(d) ± 30 percent (a) Electromagnetic type
(e) none of the above (b) Magnetic amplifier
119. By which of the following methods voltage of (c) Electronic type using integrated circuits
transmission can be regulated? (e) all of the above
(a) use of series capacitors to neutralies 126. Corona results in
the effect of series reactance (a) radio interference
(b) Switching in shunt capacitors at the (b) power factor improvement
receiving end during have loads (c) better regulation
(c) Use of tap changing transformers (d) none of the above
(d) Any of the above methods 127. Which of the following has least effect on
120. Which of the following distribution systems is corona?
the most economical? (a) Atmospheric temperature
(a) A.C. 1-phase system (b) Number of ions
(b) A.C. 3-phase 3 wire system (c) Size and charge per ion
(c) A.C. 3-phase 4 wire system (d) Mean free path
(d) Direct current system 128. In context of corona, if the conductors are
121. Which of the following is the main advantage polished and smooth, which of the following
of A.C. transmission system over D.C. statements is correct?
transmission system? (a) Hissing sound will be more intense
(a) Less instability problem (b) Power loss will be least
(b) Less insulation problems (c) Corona glow will be uniform along the
(c) Easy transformation length of the conductor
(d) Less losses in transmission over long (d) Corona glow will not occur
distances 129. Power loss due to corona is not directly
122. A tap changing transformer is used to proportional to
(a) supply low voltage current for instruments (a) spacing between conductors
(b) step up the voltage (b) supply voltage frequency
(c) step down the voltage (c) phase-neutral voltage
(d) step up as well as step down the voltage (d) all of the above
123. Which of the following bar schemes is the 130. Poles which carry transformers are usually
most expensive? (a) circular
(a) Double bus-bar double breaker (b) I-type
(b) Ringbus-bar scheme (c) A-type
(c) Single bus-bar scheme (d) H-type
(d) Main and transfer scheme (e) none of the above
124. By which of the following methods the 131. Out of the following which type of poles are
protection agains direct lightning strokes and bulky?
high voltage sweep waves is provided? (a) Transmission towers
(b) Concrete poles following is the major consideration?
(c) Tubular steel poles (a) Voltage drop
(d) Wooden poles (b) Current carrying capacity
132. The effect of ice on transmission line (c) Frequency
conductors is to increase the (d) kVA of system
(a) transmission losses (e) None of the above
(b) weight of the conductor 139. In a distribution system major cost is that of
(c) tendency for corona (a) earthing system
(d) resistance to flow of current (b) distribution transformer
133. If the height of transmission tower is increased (c) conductors
(a) the line capacitance will decrease but line (d) meters
inductance will remain uncharged 140. A booster is connected in
(b) the line capacitance and inductance will (a) parallel with earth connection
not change (b) parallel with the feeder
(c) the line capacitance will increase but line (c) series with the feeder
inductance will decrease (d) series with earth connection
(d) the line capacitance will decrease and line 141. With which of the following are step-up
inductance will increase substations associated?
134. If staring efficiency is 100 percent it means (a) Concentrated load
that (b) Consumer location
(a) potential across each disc is zero (c) Distributors
(b) potential across each disc is same (d) Generating stations
(c) one of the insulator discs is shorted (e) None of the above
(d) none of the above 142. Which of the following equipment should be
135. In a 70/6 A.C.S.R. conductor there are installed by the consumers having low power
(a) 35 aluminium conductors and 3 steel factor?
conductors (a) Synchronous condensers
(b) 70 aluminium conductors and 6 steel (b) Capacitor bank
conductors (c) Tap changing transformer
(c) 70 steel conductors and 6 aluminium (d) Any of the above
conductors (e) None of the above
(d) none of the above 143. Which of the following equipment is used to
136. On which of the following does the size of a limit short-circuit current level in a substation?
feeder depend? (a) Isolator
(a) Voltage drop (b) Lightning switch
(b) Voltage (c) Coupling capacitor
(c) Frequency (d) Series reactor
(d) Current carrying capacity 144. Steepness of the travelling waves is alternated
137. Which of the following are connected by the by .......... of the line
service mains? (a) capacitance
(a) Transformer and earth (b) inductance
(b) Distributor and relay system (c) resistance
(c) Distributor and consumer terminals (d) all of the above
(d) Distributor and transformer 145. The limit of distance of transmission line may
138. In the design of a distributor which of the be increased by the use of
(a) series resistances V-I characteristics
(b) shunt capacitors and series reactors (d) must work on non-linear portion of its
(c) series capacitors and shunt reactors V-I characteristics
(d) synchronous condensers 153. The purpose of using a booster is to
(e) none of the above (a) increase current
146. By which of the following feactors is the sag (b) reduce current
of a transmission line least affected? (c) reduce voltage drop
(a) Current through the conductor (d) compensate for voltage drop
(b) Ice deposited on the conductor (e) none of the above
(c) Self weight of conductor 154. Induction regulators are used for voltage
(d) Temperature of surrounding air control in
(e) None of the above (a) alternators
147. Which of the following cause transient (b) primary distribution
disturbances? (c) secondary distribution
(a) Faults (d) none of the above
(b) Load variations 155. A synchronous condenser is generally installed
(c) Switching operations at the ........ of the transmission line
(d) Any of the above (a) receiving end
148. A gay wire (b) sending end
(a) protects conductors against shortcircuiting (c) middle
(b) provides emergency earth route (d) none of the above
(c) provides protection against surges 156. The area of cross-section of the neutral in a
(d) supports the pole 3-wire D.C. system is generally ........ the area
149. Which of the following is neglected in the of cross-section of main conductor
analysis of short transmission lines? (a) same as
(a) Series impedance (b) one-fourth
(b) Shunt admittance (c) one half
(c) I2R loss (d) double
(d) None of the above 157. For which of the following, the excitation
(e) All of the above control method is satisfactory?
150. Basically the boosters are (a) Low voltage lines
(a) synchronous motors (b) High voltage lines
(b) capacitors (c) Short lines
(c) inductors (d) Long lines
(d) transformers 158. In which of the following cases shunt
151. Which of the following is a static exciter? capacitance is negligible?
(a) Rectifier (a) Short transmission lines
(b) Rotorol (b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Amplidyne (c) Long transmission lines
(d) D.C. separately excited generator (d) All transmission lines
152. For exact compensation of voltage drop in the 159. A lightning arrester is usually located nearer
feeder the booster to
(a) must be earthed (a) transformer
(b) must work on line voltage (b) isolator
(c) must work on linear portion of its (c) busbar
(d) circuit breaker to an insignificant value
(e) none of the above (c) the arcing faults to earth would not set up
160. The material used for the manufacture of dangerously high voltage on healthy phases
grounding wires is (d) for all above reasons
(a) cast iron 167. Which of the following can be used for
(b) aluminium bus-bars?
(c) stainlesssteel (a) Tubes
(d) galvanised steel (b) Rods
161. Surge absorbers protect against .......... (c) Bars
oscillations (d) Any of the above
(a) high voltage high frequency 168. If the height of transmission tower is
(b) high voltage low frequency increased,
(c) low voltage high frequency which of the following parameters is likely to
(d) low voltage low frequency change?
162. Skin effect is noticeable only at ......... (a) Capacitance
frequencies (b) Inductance
(a) audio (c) Resistance
(b) low (d) All of the above
(c) high (e) None of the above
(d) all 169. A.C.S.R. conductor having 7 steel stands
163. Per system stability is least affected by surrounded by 25 aluminium conductors will
(a) reactance of generator be specified as
(b) input torque (a) 25/7
(c) losses (b) 50/15
(d) reactance of transmission line (c) 7/25
164. When the load at the receiving end of a long (d) 15/50
transmission line is removed, the sending end 170. Impedance relay is used on ....... transmission
voltage is less than the receiving end voltage. lines
This effect is known as (a) short
(a) Ferranti effect (b) medium
(b) Proximity effect (c) long
(c) Kelvin effect (d) all
(d) Faraday effect 171. Corona is likely to occur maximum in
(e) Skin effect (a) transmission lines
165. In medium transmission lines the shunt (b) distribution lines
capacitance is taken into account in (c) domestic wiring
(a) T-method (d) all of the above
(b) π-method 172. The effect of wind pressure is more
(c) steinmetz method predominant on
(d) all of the above (a) supporting towers
166. System grounding is done so that (b) neutral wires
(a) inductive interference between power and (c) transmission lines
communication circuits can be controlled (d) insulators
(b) the floating potential on the lower voltage 173. As compared to cables, the disadvantages of
winding for a transformer is brought down transmission lines is
(a) inductive interference between power and (b) Line to ground short-circuit
communication circuits (c) Line to line short-circuit
(b) exposure to lightning (d) Line to line and ground short-circuit
(c) exposure to atmospheric hazards like (e) all of the above
smoke, ice, etc. 180. Due to which of the following reasons
(d) all of the above aluminium is being favoured as busbar
174. In overhead transmission lines the effect of material?
capacitance cand be neglected when the length (a) Low density
of line is less than (b) Low cost
(a) 80 km (c) Ease of fabrication
(b) 110km (d) None of the above
(c) 150 km 181. In case of transmission line conductors with
(d) 210 km the increase in atmospheric temperature
175. The effective resistance of a conductor will be (a) length decreases but stress increases
the same as ‘ohmic resistance’ when (b) length increases but stress decreases
(a) power factor is unity (c) both the length and stress increases
(b) current is uniformly distributed in the (d) both the length and stress decrease
conductor cross-section 182. Skin effect exists only in
(c) voltage is low (a) a.c. transmission
(d) current is in true sine wave from (b) high voltage d.c. overhead transmission
176. Conductors for high voltage transmission lines (c) low voltage d.c. overhead transmission
are suspended from towers to (d) cables carrying d.c. current
(a) increase clearance from ground 183. Floating neutral, in 3-phase supply, is
(b) reduce clearance from ground undesirable because it causes
(c) take care of extension in length during (a) low voltage across the load
summer (b) high voltage across the load
(d) reduce wind and snow loads (c) unequal line voltages across the load
(e) none of the above (d) none of the above
177. To increase the capacity of a transmission line 184. The surge resistance of cables is
for transmitting power which of the following (a) 20 ohms
must be decreased? (b) 50 ohms
(a) Capacitance (c) 200 ohms
(b) Line inductance (d) 300 ohms
(c) Voltage 185. The electrostatic stress in underground cables
(d) All of the above is
178. By using bundled conductors which of the (a) zero at the conductor as well as on the
following is reduced? sheath
(a) Power loss due to corona (b) same at the conductor and sheath
(b) Capacitance of the circuit (c) minimum at the conductor and minimum
(c) Inductance of the circuit at the sheath
(d) None of the above (d) maximum at the conductor and minimum
(e) All of the above at the sheath
179. Which of the following short-circuits is most 186. The ground ring transmission lines are used to
dangerous? (a) reduce the transmission losses
(a) Dead short-circuit (b) reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest
unit (b) brown
(c) increase the earth capacitance of the lowest (c) red
unit (d) black
(d) none of the above Ans: a
187. The string efficiency of an insulator can be 193. In the cablessheaths are used to
increased by (a) prevent the moisture from entering the
(a) correct grading of insulators of various cable
capacitances (b) provide strength to the cable
(b) reducing the number of strings (c) provide proper insulation
(c) increasing the number of strings in the (d) none of the above
insulator 194. The charging current in the cables
(d) none of the above (a) leads the voltage by 180o
188. High voltages for transmitting power is (b) leads the voltageby 90o
economically available from (c) lags the voltage by 90o
(a) d.c. currents (d) lags the voltage by 180o
(b) a.c. currents 195. Ground wire is used to
(c) carrier currents (a) avoid overloading
(d) none of the above (b) give the support to the tower
189. High voltage is primarily used, for long (c) give good regulation
distance power transmission, to (d) connect a circuit conductor or other
(a) reduce the time of transmission device to an earth-plate
(b) reduce the transmission losses 196. Earthing is necessary to give protection against
(c) make the system reliable (a) danger of electric shock
(d) none of the above (b) voltage fluctuation
(c) overloading
190. By using bundle conductors, the critical (d) high temperature of the conductors
voltage for the formation of corona will 197. Resistance grounding isused for voltage
(a) remain same between
(b) decrease (a) 3.3kV to 11 kV
(c) increase (b) 11 kV to 33 kV
(d) not occur (c) 33 kV to 66 kV
Ans: c (d) none of the above
198. Solid grounding is adopted for voltages below
191. If the voltage is increased x times, the size of (a) 100 V
the conductor would be (b) 200 V
(a) reduced to 1/x2 times (c) 400 V
(b) reduced to 1/x times (d) 660 V
(c) increased x times 199. The size of the earth wire is determined by
(d) increased to x2 times (a) the atmospheric conditions
(e) none of the above (b) the voltage of the service wires
Ans: a (c) the ampere capacity of the service wires
(d) none of the above
192. The colour of the neutral of three-core flexible 200. Transmission lines link
cable is (a) generating station to receiving and
(a) blue station
(b) receiving and station to distribution
transformer
(c) distribution transformer to consumer
premises
(d) service points to consumer premises
(e) none of the above
Ans: a