Code - P2

Roll No.

NEET - 2019
QUESTION PAPER (05 May, 2019)
Date : 05/05/2019
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 720
Important Instructions :
(i) The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total
scores. The maximum marks are 720.
(i) Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/marking responses.
(ii) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet only.
(iii) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
(iv) The CODE for this Booklet is P1.
(v) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else
except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
(vi) Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
(vii) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator,
would leave his/her seat.
(viii) Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
(ix) The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination
with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means
will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
(x) No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any
circumstances.
(xi) The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test
Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

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1. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant
external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is
(Given that 1 L bar = 100J)

(1) –30 J (3) 25 J

(2) 5 kJ (4) 30 J

2. A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp)
lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is :

(1) C2A3 (3) C3A4

(2) C3A2 (4) C4A3

3. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is:

(1) 0.5 × 10–15 (3) 0.125 × 10–15

(2) 0.25 × 10–10 (4) 0.5 × 10–10

4. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :

(1) 10 (3) 30
(2) 20 (4) 40

5. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :

(1) ∆mix S = 0 at constant T and P
(2) ∆mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
(3) ∆mix H = 0 at constant T and P
(4) ∆mix G = 0 at constant T and P

6. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is :

(1) 1.0 × 102 (3) 1.0 × 1010

(2) 1.0 × 105 (4) 1.0 × 1030

7. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is

(1) Nitrous oxide (3) Ozone

(2) Methane (4) Sulphur dioxide

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8. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is

(1) 10σ bonds and 3π bonds
(2) 8σ bonds and 5π bonds
(3) 11σ bonds and 2π bonds
(4) 13σ bonds and no π bonds

9. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular
Orbital Theory?

(1) O2 (3) C2
(2) N2 (4) Be2

10. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?

(1) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(2) 3MnO42– 4H+ → 2MnO4– MnO2 + 2H2O

(3) 2KMnO K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2

(4) 2MnO–4 + 3Mn 2+
+ 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H⊕

11. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is :

(1) Penicillin G (3) Amoxycillin

(2) Ampicillin (4) Chloramphenicol

12. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :
(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

13. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [Agl]l–
sol ?
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
(3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI

14. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are:

(1) OH– and H2F+, respectively
(2) H3O+ and F–, respectively
(3) OH– and F–, respectively
(4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively

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15. Which will make basic buffer?

(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

16. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is :

(1) (3)

(2) (4)

17. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is:

(1) Na/liquid NH3 (3) Zn/HCl

(2) H2,Pd/C, quinoline (4) Hg2+/H+,H2O

18. Which of the following species is not stable?

(1) [SiF6]2– (3) [Sn(OH)6]2–

(2) [GeCl6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2–

19. Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?

(1) Sr(OH)2 (3) Mg(OH)2

(2) Ca(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2

20. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is

(3)
(1)

(4)
(2)

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21. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to :

(1) The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese
(2) There is π-bonding
(3) The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese
(4) The π-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese

22. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

23. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of
99% of the reaction is given by:

(1) t = 0.693/k (3) t = 4.606/k

(2) t = 6.909/k (4) t = 2.303/k

24. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following:
(1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 120° with each other
(2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with each other
(3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds
(4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive

25. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is

(1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d (3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

(2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d (4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

26. The biodegradable polymer is:

(1) Nylon-6,6 (3) Nylon-6

(2) Nylon-2-Nylon 6 (4) Buna-S

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27. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct
code:
Column-I Column-II
(a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
(c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

28. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S

29. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is

(1) (3)

(2) (4)

30. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product
"B" is:

(1)
(3)

(2)
(4)

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31. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
cofactor. M is :

(1) Be (3) Ca
(2) Mg (4) Sr

32. Which one is malachite from the following?

(1) CuFeS2 (3) Fe3O4

(2) Cu(OH)2 (4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

33. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall n visible
region?
(1) Lyman series
(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

34. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is:

(1) Water + Nitric acid
(2) Ethanol + Water
(3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
(4) Heptane + Octane

35. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq)+2l–(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq)+l2(aq) E⊕cell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The
standard Gibbs energy (∆rG⊕) of the reaction is:
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]

(1) – 46.32 kJ mol–1 (3) 46.32 kJ mol–1

(2) – 23.16 kJ mol–1 (4)
23.16 kJ mol–1

36. In which case change in entropy is negative?

(1) Evaporation of water
(2) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
(3) Sublimation of solid to gas
(4) 2H(g) → H2(g)

37. Match the following :

(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide
Which of the following is the correct option?

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

38. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2
(4) SnF4 is ionic in nature

39. The non-essential amino acid among the following is:

(1) Valine (3) Alanine

(2) Leucine (4) Lysine

40. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is
:
(1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

41. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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42. The major product of the following reaction is:

(3)
(1)

(4)

(2)

43. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) The correct option is:

(1) (3)

(2) (4)

44. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal
field theory?

(1) t24ge2g (3) e3t32

(2) t62ge0g (4) e4t22

45. The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is :

(1) Calgon's method (3) Ion-exchange method

(2) Clark's method (4) Synthetic resins method

46. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

(1) Isothermal (3) Isobaric

(2) Adiabatic (4) Isochoric

47. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to :

(1) Increase in its mass
(2) Increase in its kinetic energy
(3) Decrease in its pressure
(4) Decrease in intermolecular distance

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48. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively:

(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV

(2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV

49. The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram

drawn is:

(1) AND (3) NAND

(2) OR (4) NOR

50. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 
 rad/s (3) 10 rad/s
 (4) 10π rad/s
(2)  rad/s


51. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest.
The collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by
the colliding body A is :

 
(1)  (3) 
 
 
(2)  (4) 
 

52. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is
flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the
shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :

(1) 30○ west (3) 60○ west

(2) 0○ (4) 45○ west

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53. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely
to break when:
(1) The mass is at the highest point
(2) The wire is horizontal
(3) The mass is at the lowest point
(4) Inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical

54. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

y = A0 + Asinωt + Bcosωt
 
(1) A0 + A   B  (3) A  A  B

(2) A   B  (4) A + B

55. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T.
When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
induced in the coil will be:

(1) 2v (3) 2 × 10–3 V

(2) 0.2v (4) 0.02 V

56. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :

A A
(1)  (3) 
 
(2) Aω (4) Zero

57. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free
surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value
of Z0 is :

(1) 100 cm (3) 1 cm

(2) 10 cm (4) 0.5 cm

58. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have increase in length
independent increase inof temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
(αcu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and αAl = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)

(1) 6.8 cm (3) 88 cm

(2) 113.9 cm (4) 68 cm

59. The unit of thermal conductivity is :

(1) J m K–1 (3) W m K–1

(2) J m–1 K–1 (4) W m–1 K–1

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60. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is :

(1) Mgl 
(4)  MgL
(2) MgL 

(3)  Mgl


61. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has
speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

(1) 3J (3) 2J
(2) 30kJ (4) 1J

62. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A,
B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%respectively. Then the maximum percentage of error in
A B 
the measurement X, where X =  will be
C D 

(1)   (3) –10%

(4) 10%
(2) 16%

63. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to
the centre of the earth ?

(1) 150N (3) 250N

(2) 200N (4) 100N

64. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1) Red (3) Green

(2) Blue (4) Violet

65. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm.
The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is

(1) 2 × 10–6 N m (3) 12 × 10–4 N m

(2) 2 × 10–3 N m (4) 2 × 106 N m

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66. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are
indicated in the fig.

y - projection of the radius vector of rotating particle P is :

(1) y(t) = –3 cos2πt, where y in m

 

(2) y(t) = sin  , where y in m


 

(3) y(t) = 3 cos  , where y in m


 

(4) (t) = 3cos  , where y in m


67. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at
a distance r from the centre
(1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R
(3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R
(4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R

68. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used?
(1) Induction furnace
(2) Magnetic braking in train
(3) Electromagnet
(4) Electric heater

69. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
internal resistance.
The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be :

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(1) 4 : 9 (3) 1 : 2
(2) 9 : 4 (4) 2 : 1

70. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, δ = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
surface the angle of dip, δ = –25°. We can interpret that:
(1) A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.
(3) A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.
(4) A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.

71. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y- direction where F is in newton and y in

meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is

(1) 30J (3) 25J

(2) 5J (4) 20

72. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow.

(1) When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow
is formed
(2) The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow
(3) An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun
(4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion refraction and reflection of sunlight

73. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of
the magnetic field. B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure :

(1) (3)

(4)
(2)

74. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio
of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

(1) rA : rB (3) rB : rA
(2) vA : vB (4) 1 : 1

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75. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with
each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the
two lenses is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index
(μ = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be:

(1) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4

76. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair
of media in contact, what will be angle of refraction?

(1) 180° (3) Equal to angle of incidence

(2) 0° (4) 90°

77. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities + λC/m and –λC/m are placed at
a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid-way between the two line
charges?

(1) Zero 
(3)  N/C
 R
(2)  N/C
R 
(4)  N/C
R

78. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true ?

(1) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(2) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(3) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(4) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.

79. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?

(1) Conductor (3) Switch

(2) Inductor (4) Fuse

80. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires,
and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively.

(1) Zero, 60 μA (3) 60 μA, zero

(2) 60 μA, 60 μA (4) zero, zero

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81. In the circuits shown below, the readings of the voltmeters and the ammeters will be

(1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 (3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2

(2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2 (4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2

82. α-particle consists of :

(1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
(3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
(4) 2 protons only

83. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength
is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 2.2 × 10–13 m (3) 12.2 × 10–14 m

(2) 12.2 × 10–12 m (4) 12.2 nm

84. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle
60°with horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance.
Then x1 : x2 will be:

(1) 1 : 
 (3) 1 : 

(2)  : 1 (4) 1 : 2 


85. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole
would be nearly

(1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s (3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s

(2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s

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86. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B,
then force between the charges becomes :

(1) F F
(3) 
F 
(2) 
 F
(4) 


87. Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant
magnetic field, B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be :

(1) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

88. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
The velocity of the particle will :

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain constant
(4) Change according to the smallest force

89. A The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
(1) mgR
(2) 2mgR

(3)  mgR


(4)  mgR


90. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of
the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the
angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water?
(μwater = 4/3)

(1) 0.266° (3) 0.05°

(2) 0.15° (4) 0.1°

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91. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat.
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins.

92. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

(1) Adenine and thymine
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Guanine and cytosine
(4) Cytosine and thymine

93. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent?

(1) GLUT l (3) GLUT lll

(2) GLUT ll (4) GLUT IV

94. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
enzymes.

(1) Chief Cells (3) Oxyntic Cells

(2) Goblet Cells (4) Duodenal Cells

95. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large
scale, for industrial production of enzymes?

(1) BOD incubator (3) Industrial oven

(2) Sludge digester (4) Bioreactor

96. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil
(2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
(4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice

97. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(1) Biosphere Reserve (3) Botanical Garden

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Sacred Grove

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98. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA?
5`AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3`
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

99. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Shoot the waste into space
(2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean
(4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below the Earth's surface

100. Match the following organisms with the products they produce
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) Curd
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
(v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(4) (i) (i) (iii) (v)

101. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.
(2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.
(3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.

102. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

(1) Vaults, LNG-20
(2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

103. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

(1) Trichoderma (3) Anabaena

(2) Chlorella (4) Lactobacillus

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104. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :

(1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences

105. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very
essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains

(1) Natural killer cells (3) Macrophages

(2) Monocytes (4) Immunoglobulin A

106. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any animal.
(3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity
(4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes

107. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus

108. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive
individuals in the population?
(1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)

109. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics

(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachila (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

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110. The and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as

(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively (3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively

111. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

(1) Lateral buds (3) Shoot apex

(2) Pulvinus (4) Leaves

112. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1) Cerebrum (3) Corpus callosum

(2) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla oblongata

113. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA?
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

114. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development
gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?

(1) Turner's syndrome (3) Edward syndrome

(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (4) Down's syndrome

115. Xylem translocates.

(1) Water only
(2) Water and mineral salts only
(3) Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only
(4) Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones
116. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?

(1) Ozone and Ammonia (3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

(2) Oxygen and Nitrogen (4) Carbon dioxide and Methane

117. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
the atmosphere?

(1) Montreal Protocol (3) Gothenburg Protocol

(2) Kyoto Protocol (4) Geneva Protocol

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118. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon
is known as

(1) Autogamy (3) Syngamy

(2) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis

119. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(1) Gonorrhoea (3) Genital herpes

(2) Genital warts (4) Chlamydiasis

120. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto-immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune response
(4) Cell-mediated immune response

121. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
(1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
(2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(3) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex
(4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration

122. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin
by recombinant DNA technology?

(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous (3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(2) Genetic code is redundant (4) Genetic code is specific

123. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
(3) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures
(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

124. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding cell division was first proposed by

(1) Rudolf Virchow (3) Schleiden

(2) Theodor Schwann (4) Aristotle

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125. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

(1) (a) and (b) are correct (3) (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a) and (d) are correct

126. What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

(1) Non-multidirectional
(2) Upward
(3) Downward
(4) Bi-directional

127. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

(1) Tetany (3) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy (4) Botulism

128. Consider following features

(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata

129. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes was explained by :

(1) T.H Morgan (3) Alfred Sturtevant

(2) Gregor J. Mendel (4) Sutton Boveri

130. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

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131. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.

132. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is

(1) Basal (3) Parietal

(2) Axile (4) Free central

133. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to
extinction?

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (3) Economic exploitation

(2) Drought and floods (4) Alien species invasion

134. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are

(1) random and directional (3) small and directional

(2) random and directionless (4) small and directionless

135. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is

(1) 0.9 (3) 0.07

(2) 0.7 (4) 0.09

136. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1
generation pink flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(1) This experiment does not follow the Principle of Dominance.
(2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
  
(3) Ratio of F2 is  (Red):  (Pink):  (White)
  
(4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment

137. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg
(4) Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other

138. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(1) M → G1 → G2 → S (3) S → G1 → G2 → M
(2) G1 → G2 → S → M (4) G1 → S → G2 → M

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139. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out

(1) Nitrogen fixation (3) Nitrification

(2) Chemoautotrophic fixation (4) Denitrification

140. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for

(1) Making plastic sacks (3) Construction of roads

(2) Use as a fertilizer (4) Making tubes and pipes

141. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young
embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in

(1) Liverworts (3) Pteridophytes

(2) Mosses (4) Gymnosperms

142. Select the correct option.

(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.
(4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of
vertebral ribs.

143. Concanavalin A is

(1) an alkaloid (3) a lectin

(2) an essential oil (4) a pigment

144. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs:

(1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
(2) after fertilization
(3) before entry of sperm into ovum
(4) simultaneously with first cleavage

145. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established without fungal association. This is because :
(1) its embryo is immature.
(2) it has obligate association with mycorrhizae.
(3) it has very hard seed coat.
(4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present germination.

146. The earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called
(1) to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
(2) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
(3) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
(4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer

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147. DNA precitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with

(1) Isopropanol (3) Methanol at room temperature

(2) Chilled ethanol (4) Chilled chloroform

148. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from
the following
(1) Closure of stomata
(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(4) Tyloses in vessels

149. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson’s Capsule (ii) Duodenum
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine
(d) Brunner’s Glands (iv) Liver
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

150. Match the following hormones with the respective disease

(a) Insulin (i) Addison’s disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct option
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

151. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency contraceptives.
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.

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152. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by

(1) methylation of morphine (3) glycosylation of morphine

(2) acetylation of morphine (4) nitration of morphine

153. In a species, the weight newborn ranges from 2 to 5kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weight from 2 to
2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5kg die. Which type selection process is taking place?

(1) Directional Selection (3) Disruptive Selection

(2) Stabilizing Selection (4) Cyclical Selection

154. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is

catalyzed by

(1) Aldolase (3) Enolase

(2) Hexokinase (4) Phosphofructokinase

155. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinacious convering the eye-ball.
(2) Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
(3) Cornea is convex. transparent layer which is highly vascularised.
(4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portinon the eye.

156. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland (3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest

(2) Pyramid of energy (4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

157. Consider the following statement:

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
Select the correct option.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(2) (A) is true but (B) is false. (4) (A) is false but (B) is true.

158. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering
from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.

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159. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering
plants is incorrect?
(1) Ovary develops into fruit
(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac

160. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells

161. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of
hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the
year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene
(2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid

162. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as

(1) Chalaza (3) Hilum

(2) Perisperm (4) Tegmen

163. Cell in G0 phase :

(1) exit the cell cycle (3) suspend the cell cycle
(2) enter the cell cycle (4) terminate the cell cycle

164. Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
(i) Symbiotic association of fungi
(a) Saprophyte
with plant roots
(ii) Decomposition of dead organic
(b) Parasite
materials
(iii) Living on living plants or
(c) Lichens
animals
(iv) Symbiotic association of algae
(d) Mycorrhiza
and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

165. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

(1) 50 beats per minute (3) 100 beats per minute

(2) 75 beats per minute (4) 125 beats per minute

166. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?

(1) Body temperature (3) Alkaline pH of gut

(2) Moist surface of midgut (4) Acidic pH of stomach

167. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans, these cells are mainly present in

(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles (3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct (4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

168. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
(2) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue early and late
wood respectively.
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
169. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
(1) One fuses with egg other (s) degenerate (s) in the synergid.
(2) All fuse with the egg.
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.

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170. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products:
(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

171. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth
(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum

172. Match the hominids with their correct brain size:

(a) Homo habilis (i) 900cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

173. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory
test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test

174. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

(1) Changing the permeability of the cell membrane
(2) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex
(3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane
(4) Using aquaporin channels as second messenger

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175. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?

(1) 1500 mL (3) 2200 mL

(2) 1700 mL (4) 2700 mL

176. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(1) Cyclosporia A (3) Streptokinase

(2) Statin (4) Lipases

177. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(1) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
(2) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane.
(3) Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.
(4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

178. Match the Column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(a) P-wave (i) Depolarisation of ventricles
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation ventricles
(c) T-wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
(d) Reduction in the size
(iv) Depolarisation of atria
of T-wave
(v) Repolarisation of atria
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

179. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.

(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
(2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

180. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus

(1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn. (3) Mangifera indica

(2) Mangifera indica Linn. (4) Mangifera Indica

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