MEETING 14

REVIEW ON LISTENING COMPREHENSION,

STRUCTURE &WRITTEN EXPRRESSION, AND
READING COMPREHENSION

A. OBJECTIVES OF THE STUDY

1. To master Listening Comprehension
2. To master Structure and Written Expression
3. To master Reading Comprehension
B. THE AIMS OF THE TOPIC
1. Students are expected to fully master the Listening Comprehension in TOEFL
test.
2. Students are expected to fully master the Structure and Written Expression in
TOEFL test.
3. Students are expected to fully master the Reading Comprehension in TOEFL
test.
C. GUIDANCE AND METHODS OF LEARNING
1. Lectures
2. Discussions
3. Presentations
4. Practices
D. MATERIAL DESCRIPTION

In this last meeting, the students are asked to review all the materials (listening,
structure and written expression, and reading). The mastery on this three are essential
for their success in TOEFL test.

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I. LISTENING COMPREHENSION
This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three
parts,each with its own directions. You are not permitted to turn the page during the
reading of thedirections or to take notes at any time.

Part A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two
speakers.Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear
the conversations andquestions only once, and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer
choices and selectthe one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on
what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your
answer sheet that matches the letter of theanswer that you have selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
You will read:
(A) Open the window.
(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.

Sample Answer

From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put
the chair over by the window. The best answer to the question, "What does the woman
think the man should do?" is (B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (B) on your
answer sheet.

1. (A) She doesn't have an appointment.

(B) Her problem is complicated.
(C) She must live somewhere else.
(D) Her apartment isn't far away.
2. (A) She can use his phone if she wants.
(B) There's no charge for phone calls.

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 (C) His phone is out of order too.
(D) She can call him later if she likes.
3. (A) He couldn't find it.
(B) It was too hard to solve.
(C) It was simpler than he'd thought.
(D) He solved it even though it was hard.
4. (A) He cleaned up after cooking.
(B) He forgot to put the pots and pans away.
(C) He was out in a terrible storm.
(D) He put some plants in the kitchen.
5. (A) He studied forestry in school.
(B) He worked in a forest.
(C) He read a lot of books about trees.
(D) His father taught him.
6. (A) How many pages he must write.
(B) What Professor Barclay discussed.
(C) How long the class lasted.
(D) When the paper is due.
7. (A) She doesn't like any music except classical.
(B) There is some classical music she doesn't like.
(C) She likes classical music, but she can't play it.
(D) Classical music doesn't interest her at all.
8. (A) He was too busy to take it.
(B) He did well on it.
(C) He left some questions unanswered on it.
(D) He took it two times.
9. (A) Breaking the glass.
(B) Warming the lid.
(C) Hitting the lid.
(D) Filling the jar.
10. (A) It was too expensive.
(B) She bought it at the shop next door.
(C) It was given to her as a gift.
(D) She paid very little for it.
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11. (A) She doesn't want to discuss the traffic.
(B) She didn't have to go downtown today.
(C) She was in the traffic herself.
(D) She thinks the traffic was better today.
12. (A) The classes aren't interesting.
(B) Classes have been canceled.
(C) The weather is pleasant.
(D) It isn't very sunny today.
13. (A) Gary doesn't need a audio player.
(B) She wants her audio player back.
(C) She's glad Gary is finally here.
(D) Gary can keep her audio player.
14. (A) Stay inside and read it.
(B) Look in it for advertisements forumbrellas.
(C) Cover her head with it.
(D) Throw it away.
15. (A) She originally supported Margaret.
(B) She can no longer support Ed.
(C) Ed has dropped out of the race.
(D) She's not interested in the election.
16. (A) She and her brother painted theapartment.
(B) Her brother owes her some money.
(C) Her brother painted the apartment byhimself.
(D) She painted her brother's apartment.
17. (A) Give him a map.
(B) Cut his hair for him.
(C) Drive him to the lake.
(D) Show him another route.
18. (A) Hanging it.
(B) Buying it.
(C) Painting it.
(D) Framing it.
19. (A) Borrow Stephanie's computer.
(B) Buy her own computer.
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 (C) Save some money.
(D) Stay home and complete herassignment.
20. (A) He doesn't need to practice anymore.
(B) His team has won a lot of games.
(C) He doesn't want to play volleyball.
(D) His team needs to improve.
21. (A) She seems to be feeling better.
(B) She has quite an imagination.
(C) She takes beautiful pictures.
(D) She's too sick to go out.
22. (A) Lou has been here once before.
(B) They'll start when Lou arrives.
(C) Lou has already started.
(D) Everyone is getting hungry.
23. (A) She thinks they're reasonably priced.
(B) She doesn't like them at all.
(C) She'd buy them if she had enoughmoney.
(D) She doesn't need them, but she stilllikes them.
24. (A) To improve his game quickly.
(B) To take more lessons.
(C) To train with a professional.
(D) To teach people to play tennis.
25. (A) Wrap the present.
(B) Playa game.
(C) Point out a problem.
(D) End the discussion.
26. (A) He wants to buy some books.
(B) Two of the books are the same.
(C) He needs some matches.
(D) The couple is a good match.
27. (A) Neither street goes downtown.
(B) California Street is better than OakStreet.
(C) There's not enough time to godowntown.
(D) He can take either street.
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28. (A) It was hard to hear.
(B) It wasn't true.
(C) It was surprising.
(D) It wasn't very interesting.
29. (A) The handle on the suitcase is broken.
(B) His hands are already full.
(C) The luggage is too heavy for him.
(D) He'll be happy to help.
30. (A) She had to prepare for an exam.
(B) She'd passed the physics test.
(C) She was going camping.
(D) She'd dropped the physics class.

Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two
speakers. After each of these conversations, there are a number of questions. You will
hear each conversation and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the
one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated
or on what canbe inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the
letter of the answer thatyou have selected.
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not
permitted.
31. (A) They are both studying socialanthropology.
(B) Both of them are going to the museumon Saturday.
(C) They both have the same teacher.
(D) Both of them have studiedanthropology before.
32. (A) In the morning.
(B) In the afternoon.
(C) In the evening.
(D) Only on Saturdays.
33. (A) Relationships between parents andchildren.
(B) The tools used by ancient people.
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 (C) Leadership in contemporary society.
(D) Marriage customs.
34. (A) He found it uninteresting.
(B) He found it useful.
(C) He found it fascinating.
(D) He found it difficult.
35. (A) At a university.
(B) At a television station.
(C) At a newspaper office.
(D) At a hospital.
36. (A) He needs a well-paying position.
(B) He was told to by a professor.
(C) He wants the experience.
(D) He recently lost another job.
37. (A) Drama.
(B) Journalism.
(C) Telecommunications.
(D) History.
38. (A) Talk to Ms. Wagner.
(B) Drop a class.
(C) Change his major.
(D) Complete a form.

Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single
speaker. After each of these talks, there are a number of questions. You will hear each
talk and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the
one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated
or on what can beinferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the
letter of the answer that youhave selected.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Now here is a sample question.
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 You will hear:
You will read: (A) Philosophy.
(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in
an astronomy class. The choice that best answers the question, "In what course is this
lecture probably being given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on your
answer sheet.
Here is an example.
You will hear:
Sample Answer
You will read: (A) The Earth's shadow moves across the moon
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The Moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.
From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves
between the Sun and the Moon and the shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon.
The choice that best answers the question, "According to the speaker, which of the
following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A),
"The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."

Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not
permitted.
39. (A) A football game.
(B) Jet transportation.
(C) The Hindenburg disaster.
(D) Lighter-than-air craft.
40. (A) Early twentieth century airships.
(B) Blimps.
(C) Jet aircraft.
(D) Modern airships.
41. (A) The age of zeppelins ended in disasterthere.
(B) It was there that the first blimp wasdesigned.

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 (C) Helium was first substituted forhydrogen there.
(D) It was there that the last zeppelin wasbuilt.
42. (A) They would be safer.
(B) They would use less fuel.
(C) They would be faster.
(D) They could fly higher.
43. (A) The Uniform Time Act.
(B) The role of daylight saving time inwartime.
(C) Ways to save energy.
(D) The history of daylight saving time.
44. (A) In the spring.
(B) In the summer.
(C) In the fall.
(D) In the winter.
45. (A) As confusing.
(B) As innovative.
(C) As amusing.
(D) As wasteful.
46. (A) To standardize daylight saving time.
(B) To establish year-round daylight savingtime.
(C) To abolish daylight saving time.
(D) To shorten daylight saving time.
47. (A) A program the city is starting.
(B) The uses of recycled materials.
(C) A proposed schedule.
(D) A recent newspaper article.
48. (A) Newspapers.
(B) Aluminum cans.
(C) Plastic bottles.
(D) Glass containers.
49. (A) The north.
(B) The east.
(C) The south.
(D) The central.
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 50. (A) Look in the local newspaper.
(B) Keep listening to radio.
(C) Stop by the recycling center.
(D) Call the radio station.

II. STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Time: 25 minutes

This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for
standard writtenEnglish. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own
directions.

Structure

Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of

these sentences, thereare four words or phrases. You should select the one word or
phrase-CA), (B), CC), or (D)-thatbest completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on
your answer sheet that matches the letter ofthe answer that you have selected.

Example!
Pepsin ____ an enzyme usedin digestion.
(A) that (C) of
(B) is (D) being

Sample Answer

This sentence should properly read "Pepsin is an enzyme used in

digestion." You should fill in (B)
on your answer sheet.
Example II
____ large natural lakes are found
in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no (C) It is not
(B) Not the (D) No

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Sample Answer
This sentence should properly read "No large natural lakes are found in the
state of South Carolina." You should fill in CD) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.
1. Team sports require cooperation.
(A) Of all (C) All
(B) They are all (D) Why are all
2. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from agarden roots firmly anchorplants to the
soil.
(A) is well aware of (C) well aware
(B) is well aware that (D) well aware that
3. Centuries of erosion have exposed____ rock surfaces in the PaintedDesert of
northern Arizona.
(A) in colors of the rainbow (C) rainbow-colored
(B) colored like a rainbow (D) a rainbow's coloring
4. The higher the temperature of a molecule,
(A) the more energy it has (C) more energy has it
(B) than it has more energy (D) it has more energy
5. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had toperform operations anesthesia.
(A) no (C) without
(B) not having (D) there wasn't
6. ____ young, chimpanzees are easilytrained.
(A) When are (C) They are
(B) When (D) When they
7. A person of ____ age may suffer fromdefects of vision.
(A) every (C) certain
(B) some (D) any
8. ____ have settled, one of their firstconcerns has been to locate an adequatewater
supply.
(A) Wherever people (C) Whether people
(B) There are people who (D) People
9. If a bar magnet is, the twopieces form two complete magnets, eachwith a north and
south pole.
(A) broken (B) broke
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 (C) breaking (D) break
10. The type of plant and animal life living inand around a pond depends on the soil
ofthe pond, , and the pond'slocation.
(A) what the quality of the water is (C) the quality of the water
(B) how is the water quality (D) what is the water quality
11. Clifford Holland, civil engineer,was in charge of the construction of thefirst tunnel
under the Hudson River.
(A) he was a (C) being a
(B) a (D) who, as a
12. parrots are native to tropicalregions is untrue.
(A) That all (C) Why all
(B) All (D) Since all
13. A major concern among archaeologiststoday is the preservation of
archaeologicalsites, are threatened bydevelopment.
(A) of which many (C) which many
(B) many of them (D) many of which
14. In 1775 Daniel Boone opened theWilderness Trail and made thefirst settlements in
Kentucky.
(A) possibly it was (C) possible
(B) as possible (D) it possible
15. Rarely seen far from water.
(A) spotted turtles
(B) spotted turtles are
(C) have spotted turtles
(D) are spotted turtles

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Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C),
and (D).
You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the
sentence to becorrect. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and
fill in the spacecorresponding to the letter.
Example I Sample Answer
Lenses may to have either concaveor convex shapes.
A BC D
This sentence should read "Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes."
You shouldtherefore select answer (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster
A B C

of a wall.
D
This sentence should read "When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to
the damp plaster of a wall." You should therefore select answer (B).As soon as you
understand the directions, begin work on this section.

16. Ceramics can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A B C D
17. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin.
A B C D
18. Mold is extremelydestruction to books in a library.
A B C D
19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony musician.
A B C D
20. The horses used play polo are not of any special breed or of any definite size.
A B C D

21. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, called the warp, which across are
A B
passed differentcolored threads, called the weft, forming decorative patterns.
C D
22. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these
A B
craftsmenprobably did not think of them as artists.

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 C D
23. Perhaps mankind's first important musical influence were the songs of birds.
A B C D
24. The techniques of science and magic are quite different, but their basic aims-to
A B C
understandand control nature-they are very similar.
D
25. It was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the oldestknown ears of
A B C
were discovered.
D
26. The fossil remains of much extinct mammals have been found in the tar pits at
A B C
Rancho La Breain Los Angeles.
D
27. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey.
A B C D
28. A dark nebula consists of a cloud of interstellar dust enough denseto obscure the
A B C
starsbeyond it.
D
29. Commercially honey is heated and filtered in order to stabilize and clarify it.
A B C D
30. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical
A B C D
specialtieshavedeveloped.
31.One reason birds have been so successful is because of their able to escape from
A B C
dangerquickly.
D
27. The wood of the rosewood tree is used to do fine musical instruments.
A B C D

28. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and

A B C
mathematics.
D
29. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts
A B C D
dancers.
30. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the
A B C D
Earth.
31. P T. Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous

A B C
showman of histime.
D

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 32. The way a child plays with other children reveals a lots about the child's
A B C
emotionaldevelopment.
D
33. Sheep have beendomesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
A B C D

34. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt, and strontium are responsible to many
A B C
of the vividcolors in fireworks.
D
35. Duke University in North Carolina has an outstanding collecting of documents
A B
concerningSouthern history.
C D

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON
SECTION 2 ONLY.
DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

III. READING COMPREHENSION

Time: 55 minutes
This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of
questions. Readthe passages and, for each question, choose the one best
answer-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-based onwhat is stated in the passage or on
what can be inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space onyour answer
sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.
Read the following passage:
Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. Abird's territory may be
small or large. Some birdsclaim only their nest and the area right around it,while
others claim far larger territories that includetheir feeding areas. Gulls, penguins,
and other waterfowlnest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,each
male and his mate have small territories of theirown immediately around their
nests.

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 Male birds defend their territory chiefly against othermales of the same
species. In some cases, a warning callor threatening pose may be all the defense
needed, but inother cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
Example I Sample Answer
What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds'mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds
The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your
answer sheet.
Example!!
According to the passage, male birds defend theirterritory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals
The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
males of the samespecies." You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.
Questions 1-11
(line)
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled bythermonuclear
reactions near its center that convert hydrogen tohelium. The Sun has existed in
its present state for about 4billion, 600 million years and is thousands of times
larger than
(5) the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the restof the Sun's life
will be like. About 5 billion years from now,the core of the Sun will shrink and
become hotter. The surfacetemperature will fall. The higher temperature of the
center will
(10) increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions ofthe
Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about thedistance to Mercury,
which is the closest planet to the Sun. TheSun will then be a red giant star.
Temperatures on the Earth willbecome too hot for life to exist.
(15) Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant,it will
begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth,it will become a white

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 dwarf star. The Sun may throw off hugeamounts of gases in violent eruptions
called nova explosions as itchanges from a red giant to a white dwarf.
(20) After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have usedup all its
fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is calleda black dwarf. After the Sun
has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere
remains there, it willhave frozen onto the Earth's surface.

1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?

(A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
(B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
(C) To present a theory about red giant stars
(D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through
2. The word "fueled" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) powered
(B) bombarded
(C) created
(D) propelled
3. The word "state" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) shape
(B) condition
(C) location
(D) size
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun
(A) is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
(B) has been in existence for 10 billion years
(C) is rapidly changing in size and brightness
(D) will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant?
(A) Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
(B) Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
(C) It will throw off huge amounts of gases.
(D) Its center will grow smaller and hotter.
6. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth?
(A) Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid.
(B) It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun.

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 (C) It will become too hot for life to exist.
(D) It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions.
7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be
(A) the same size as the planet Mercury
(B) thousands of times smaller than it is today
(C) around 35 million miles in diameter
(D) cold and dark
8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of
stages thatthe Sun will probably pass through?
(A) Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant
(B) Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion
(C) Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
(D) White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf
9. The phrase "throw off" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) eject
(B) burn up
(C) convert
(D) let in
10. The word "there" in line 23 refers to
(A) our own planet
(B) the outer surface of the Sun
(C) the core of a black dwarf
(D) the planet Mercury
11. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(A) Alarmed
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Comic
(D) Objective

Questions 12-23
It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realizehow
important the building of canals would be to the
nation'sdevelopment. In fact, before he became President, he headed

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 thefirst company in the United States to build a canal which was to
(5)connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed, but
itshowed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the countryexpanded
westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, andOhio
needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural
waterwaysseemed to offer an effective solution.
(10)In 1791 engineers commissioned by the state of New
Yorkinvestigated the possibility of a canal between Albany on
theHudson River and Buffalo on Lake Erie, which would link the
GreatLakes area with the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid
themountains that served as a barrier to canals from the
Delaware(15) and Potomac rivers.
The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Erie Canal,
was made by private companies, but only a comparatively small
portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds.The
cost of the project was an estimated five million dollars, an(20)
enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-
offagainFederal funding, but the War of 1812 put an end to this. In
1817DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and
persuaded thestate to finance and build the canal. It was completed
in 1825,costing two million dollars more than expected.
(25) The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors' faith, quickly
payingor itself through tolls. It was far more economical than any
other form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between
theGreat Lake region and East Coast, robbing the Mississippi River
ofmuch of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant Boston,
(30) Philadelphia, and other Eastern cities as the chief center of
bothdomestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the
canal.It also contributed in a number of ways to the North's victory
overthe South in the Civil War.An expansion of the canal was
planned in 1849. Increased traffic
(35) would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not
beenfor the development of the railroads.

12. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph?
(A) He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built.
(B) He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals.
(C) He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.
(D) He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal.
13. The word "feasibility" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) profitability

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 (B) difficulty
(C) possibility
(D) capability
14. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the
(A) Potomac and Ohio rivers
(B) Hudson River and Lake Erie
(C) Delaware and Potomac rivers
(D) Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River
15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "comparatively" in line
17?
(A) Relatively
(B) Contrarily
(C) Incredibly
(D) Considerably
16. The phrase "on-again-off-again" in line 20 could be replaced by which of the
following with theleast change in meaning?
(A) Intermittent
(B) Unsolicited
(C) Ineffectual
(D) Gradual
17. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by
(A) the state of New York
(B) private companies
(C) the federal government
(D) DeWitt Clinton
18. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was
(A) five million dollars
(B) less than had been estimated
(C) seven million dollars
(D) more than could be repaid
19. The word "tolls" in line 26 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Jobs

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 (B) Grants
(C) Links
(D) Fees
20. Which of the following is NOT given in the fourth paragraph as an effect of the
building of theErie Canal?
(A) It allowed the East Coast to trade with the Great Lakes area.
(B) It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
(C) It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
(D) It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.
21. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last
paragraph?
(A) They were being planned but had not yet been built.
(B) They were seriously underdeveloped.
(C) They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic.
(D) They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.
22. The word "warranted" in line 35 is closest in meaning to
(A) guaranteed
(B) justified
(C) hastened
(D) prevented
23. At what point in the passage does the author focus on the beginning of construction
of theErie Canal?
(A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 10-13
(C) Lines 16-18
(D) Lines 25-26

Questions 24-33
It's a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree
sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard
the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are
drawn to them like vultures to a dying animal.
(5) Researchers with the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Forest
Service fastened sensors to the bark of parched trees and
clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists,

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 most drought-stricken trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-
kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than
(10) 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make
slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface
of the wood.
The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the
water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break,
(15) a result of too little water flowing through them. These fractured
columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some
insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the
trees'vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are
now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of
(20) water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. "Waterstressed
trees also smell differently from other trees, and they
experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to
something other than sound," one scientist said.

24. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The vibrations produced by insects
(B) The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
(C) The effect of insects on trees
(D) The sounds made by distressed trees
25. The word "them" in line 4 refers to
(A) trees
(B) scientists
(C) insects
(D) cries
26. The word "parched" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Burned
(B) Dehydrated
(C) Recovered
(D) Fallen
27. The word "plight" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
(A) signal
(B) condition
(C) need
(D) agony
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees

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 (A) serve as a form of communication with other trees
(B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
(C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
(D) fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range
29. The word "fractured" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
(A) long
(B) blocked
(C) hollow
(D) broken
30. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees' distress signals?
(A) Torn roots
(B) Attacks by insects
(C) Experiments by scientists
(D) Lack of water
31. In line 17, the phrase "pick up" could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Perceive
(B) Lift
(C) Transmit
(D) Attack
32. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to
weakened trees, EXCEPT:
(A) thermal changes
(B) smells
(C) sounds
(D) changes in color
33. It can be inferred that, at the time the passage was written, research concerning the
distresssignals of trees
(A) had been conducted many years earlier
(B) had been unproductive up to then
(C) was continuing
(D) was no longer sponsored by the government

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Questions 34--41
The concepts of analogy and homology are probably easier to
exemplify than to define. When different species are structurally
compared, certain features can be described as either analogous or
homologous. For example, flight requires certain rigid aeronautical
(5) principles of design, yet birds, bats, and insects have all
conquered the air. The wings of all three types of animals derive
from different embryological structures, but they perform the same
functions. In this case, the flight organs of these creatures can
be said to be analogous. In contrast, features that arise from the
(10) same structures in the embryo but are used in different functions
are said to be homologous. The pectoral fins of a fish, the wings
of a bird, and the forelimbs of a mammal are all homologous
structures. They are genetically related in the sense that both
the forelimb and the wing evolved from the fin.

34. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A contrast is drawn between two concepts by means of examples.
(B) A general concept is introduced, examples are given, and a conclusion is
offered.
(C) Two definitions of the same concept are compared.
(D) Two proposals are suggested and support for both is offered.
35. According to the passage, the concepts of analogy and homology are
(A) difficult to understand
(B) easier to understand through examples than through definitions
(C) impossible to explain
(D) simple to define but hard to apply
36. The word "rigid" in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) inflexible
(B) ideal
(C) unnatural
(D) steep
37. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following would
mostprobably be considered analogous?
(A) A shark's fin and a tiger's claws
(B) A man's arms and a bird's wings
(C) A monkey's tail and an elephant's tail
(D) A spider's legs and a horse's legs

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38. According to the passage, one way in which homologous organs differ from
analogous organsis that they
(A) are genetically related
(B) are only found in highly developed animals
(C) perform the same general functions
(D) come from different embryological structures
39. As used throughout the passage, the term "structures" most nearly means
(A) buildings
(B) features of an animal's anatomy
(C) organizational principles
(D) units of grammar
40. The word "sense" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) feeling
(B) logic
(C) meaning
(D) perception
41. Where in the passage does the author first focus his discussion on the concept of
homology?
(A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 6-8
(C) Lines 9-1 1
(D) Lines 13-14
Questions 42-50
Probably the most famous film commenting on twentieth century
technology is Modern Times, made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was
motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing
him, happened to describe working conditions in industrial
(5) Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured
to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or
five years, these young men's health was destroyed by the stress of
work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way
(10) down a crowded ramp. Abruptly the scene shifts to a scene of
factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied
comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentler note of
satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.

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 (15) Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of
the footage of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most
pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No
one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to
keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his
(20) mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic
feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need
not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions,
hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped into his position on the
assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people's
(25) utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve
their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best
film treating technology within a social context. It does not
offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the
(30) sentiments of many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanized
world.
42. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) criticize the factory system of the 1930's
(B) analyze an important film
(C) explain Chaplin's style of acting
(D) discuss how film reveals the benefits of technology
43. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for the film Modern Times from
(A) a newspaper article
(B) a scene in a movie
(C) a job he had once held
(D) a conversation with a reporter
44. The word "abruptly" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) suddenly
(B) mysteriously
(C) finally
(D) predictably
45. It can be inferred from the passage that two-thirds of the film Modern Times
(A) is completely unforgettable
(B) takes place outside a factory
(C) is more critical than the other third
(D) entertains the audience more than the other third

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46. Which of the following could best replace the phrase "losing his mind" in lines 19-
20?
(A) Getting fired
(B) Doing his job
(C) Going insane
(D) Falling behind
47. The word "This" in line 24 refers to which of the following?
(A) The machine
(B) The food
(C) The assembly line
(D) The scene
48. According to the passage, the purpose of the scene involving the feeding machine is
to showpeople's
(A) ingenuity
(B) adaptability
(C) helplessness
(D) independence
49. The word "utter" in line 25 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Notable
(B) Complete
(C) Regrettable
(D) Necessary
50. The author would probably be LEAST likely to use which of the following words to
describethe film Modern Times?
(A) Revolutionary
(B) Entertaining
(C) Memorable
(D) Satirical

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