Code Xi18: Solutions Will Be Uploaded Soon
Code Xi18: Solutions Will Be Uploaded Soon
Code Xi18: Solutions Will Be Uploaded Soon
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SOLUTIONS WILL BE UPLOADED SOON
NTSE STAGE I – 2018 - 19
TAMIL NADU
PART – I MENTAL ABILITY TEST
3. Z, W, R, K,___?
(A) B (B) F (C) D (D) A
7.
8. PEN: WRITING::CYCLE:____
(A) REPAIRING (B) CAR (C) RIDING (D) ROAD
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12. 5 : 29 : : ? : 41
___________
16. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of the first three is 1001 and that of the last
three is 2431. The last number is:
(A) 17 (B) 19 (C) 23 (D) 13
17. The largest number which divides 62, 132 and 237 to leave the same remainder in each case is:
(A) 51 (B) 35 (C) 8 (D) 53
18. Traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 sec, 72 sec and 108 sec respectively. If they all
change simultaneously at 7 : 00 : 00 hours then at what time will they again change simultaneously?
(A) 7 : 14 : 00 Hrs (B) 7 : 14 : 12 Hrs
(C) 7 : 07 : 12 Hrs (D) 7 : 09 : 12 Hrs
19. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attended 60 sums in all, how many did he solve
correctly?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 20
1 1 1 1
20. ...... ?
56 67 78 24 25
(A) 0.36 (B) 0.16 (C) 0.016 (D) 1.6
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2x
21. If 3 then the value of x is :
1
1
x
1
1 x
5 6 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 5 5 4
23. Notebooks were distributed equally among children of a class. The notebooks each child got was one – eighth of the
number of children. If the number of children is half, each child would have got 16 notebooks. The total number of
notebooks distributed is:
(A) 512 (B) 312 (C) 248 (D) 428
5 4 5 4 2 2
24. If x and y then x +y is:
5 4 5 4
(A) 322 (B) 100 (C) 312 (D) 8 5
1 1 1 1 1
26. ?
9 8 8 7 7 6 6 5 5 4
(A) 8 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) – 3
28. A lead pencil is in the shape of right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 mm. If the lead is of
radius 1 mm, the volume of the wood used is:
3 3 3 3
(A) 0.352 cm (B) 7.04 cm (C) 3.52 cm (D) 70.4 cm
29. The difference between two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of its digits is 36.
The difference between the two digits of that number is:
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 5
30. A and B are two stations 390 km apart. A train starts from A at 10 am and travels towards B at 65 kmph. Another train
starts from B at 11 am and travels towards A at 35 kmph. At what time do they meet?
(A) 3.15 pm (B) 2.15 pm (C) 4.15 pm (D) 12.15 pm
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31. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder have equal bases. If the heights of the cone and the cylinder are equal to its
common radius, then the ratio between their volumes is:
(A) 2 : 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 1 : 3
32. One side of a rhombus is 20 cm and one diagonal is 24 cm. Find the area of the rhombus.
2 2 2 2
(A) 200 cm (B) 384 cm (C) 288 cm (D) 348 cm
33. E + K = ?
(A) O (B) M (C) N (D) P
34. B + U = ?
(A) U (B) W (C) V (D) X
35. A + C + F = ?
(A) O (B) G (C) H (D) I
36. L – S = ?
(A) U (B) T (C) R (D) S
37. – D – P = ?
(A) I (B) J (C) H (D) K
38. In a certain code GOOD is written as JRRG and JACK is written as MDFN, then FRUIT is written as:
(A) IUYLW (B) IUXLW (C) IUXMW (D) IVXLW
39. In a certain code JUNGLE is written as JNLEGU then FOREST is written as:
(A) ROFEST (B) FORTSE (C) TSEROF (D) FRSTEO
th
40. The 10 consonant from the first consonant of the English alphabet is:
(A) N (B) M (C) Q (D) R
42. Which letter would divide the letters between N and Z into two equal halves?
(A) V (B) I (C) T (D) W
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46. (A) Egypt (B) West Bengal (C) China (D) India
47.
48.
49.
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50.
51.
52.
53.
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54.
All the four figures in the set of problem figures have a definite sequence. Discover the sequence and pick-up one figure
from answer figures that completes the series.
55.
56.
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57.
58.
59.
60.
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61.
62.
63.
64.
65. First two words are related to each other. Choose the word which bears the same relationship.
Monk : Brotherhood : : letter : ___________
(A) jumble (B) gang (C) album (D) budget
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(ii) One is master of sports, one is master of current events and one is master of art and culture.
(iii) J and M are unmarried ladies and do not hold command in any subject.
(v) K is the brother of L and is neither master of current events nor art and culture.
(vi) None of the ladies has command over current events and sports.
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72. The number of people who can speak both Tamil and English is:
(A) 12 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 6
73. Find the number of people who can speak English, Malayalam and Telugu.
(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 82
74. Find the number of people who can speak either English or Malayalam.
(A) 66 (B) 53 (C) 60 (D) 56
75. If the total population is 100, how many do not speak either language?
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 4
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76. Find the missing terms in the table which follows some pattern.
77.
78. Select any one alternative whose alphabets when placed at the missing places, complete the series.
a _ aa _ a _ baa _ aaba
(A) bbba (B) bbab (C) bbaa (D) baab
80. TRUTH
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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Direction: (Question number 81 and 84)
Read the relations carefully and answer the questions.
(iv) T is daughter of U.
(vi) P is son of T.
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90. Mahesh starts walking towards east and after walking 30m takes right turn and walks again 30m. Then he turns left
and walks 30m. Again he takes left turn and after walking 15m finally turn to his left and walks 60m. How far and in
which direction is Mahesh from the starting point?
(A) 20m North (B) 30m West (C) 30m South (D) 15m South
91. Statements:
(i) Some goats are sheeps.
Conclusions:
(I) All cow are sheeps.
92. Statements:
(i) All mangoes are apples.
Conclusions:
(I) All apples are mangoes.
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94. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the face containing 5?
95. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
99. If a clock shows 6.45 AM, what is the angle between the needles?
(A) 90° (B) 45° (C) 22.5° (D) 67.5°
100. A ladder leaning against a vertical wall makes an angles of 60° with the ground. If the foot of the ladder is 3.5 m
away from the wall, the length of the ladder, is:
7
(A) 7 m (B) 3.5 m (C) 14 m (D) m
3
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NTSE STAGE I – 2018 - 19
TAMIL NADU
PART – II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
1
1
4
1 3
101. The value of 9 125 is :
31
64
(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 81 (D) 9 4 9
1 1
103. If x 2 14, then the value of x 3 3 is:
x2 x
(A) 52 (B) 42 (C) 24 (D) 25
104. The polynomials ax 3 4x 2 3x 4 and x 3 4x a leave the same remainder when divided by x – 3, then the
value of a is:
(A) – 1 (B) – 4 (C) 4 (D) 1
105. The bisectors of B and C of a triangle ABC meet at a point O. If A 60 then, BOC is :
(A) 30° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 120°
107. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC. If the side BA is produced to D such that AD = AB, then BCD
is:
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
108. In an A.P., the sum of m terms is equal to n and the sum of n terms is equal to m, then the sum of (m + n) terms
is:
(A) m + n (B) – (m + n) (C) (m - n) (D) (n - m)
109. If the roots of the equation (a 2 b2 )x 2 2b(a c)x (b 2 c 2 ) 0 are equal, then:
2ac
(A) 2b = a + c (B) b (C) b 2 ac (D) b = ac
ac
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110. A right triangle has hypotenuse of length p cm and one side of length q cm. If (p - q) = 1, then the length of third
side is:
(A) 2q + 1 (B) 2q 1 (C) 2p + 1 (D) 2p 1
111. The longest pole that can be kept in a room of dimensions 5 m 4 m 2 m is:
(A) 9 5 m (B) 6 5 m (C) 3 5 m (D) 5 3 m
112. If the volume of a sphere is equal to its surface area, then the circumference of a cross sectional circle whose
centre coincides with the sphere is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
113. A circle is inscribed in a triangle ABC with right angle at A. The length of the two sides containing the right angle
are 6 cm and 8 cm respectively. The radius of the circle is:
(A) 2 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm
114. A fair die is thrown once. The probability of getting neither a prime nor a composite number is:
5 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) (D)
6 6
3 2
115. If the product of two zeros of the polynomial x – 6x + 11 x – 6 is 2, then the third zero is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
116. If the HCF of 55 and 22 is expressed in the form of 55 m - 22 2 then the value of m is:
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 11 (D) 22
a x
118. If tan ,then the value of is:
x a x2
2
n
119. The remainder when x + n divided by x – 1 is:
(A) n (B) Cannot be determined
(C) n + 1 (D) 0
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120. Which of the following statements are not true?
(a) Sum of two irrational numbers is always irrational
(b) Difference between two irrational numbers is irrational
(c) Product of two irrational numbers is irrational
(d) Quotient of two irrational numbers is irrational
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only
(D) None of the above
121. A car travels from Chennai to Bengaluru with a speed of 60 km/hr and returns back along the same path with
speed of 40 km/hr. The average speed of the car is given by:
(A) 50 km/hr (B) 13.8 m/s (C) 48 km/hr (D) 172.8 m/s
122. What will be the percentage change in momentum of a body when both its mass and velocity are doubled?
(A) 400 (B) 75 (C) 500 (D) 300
123. The displacement – time graph for two particles are shown in
the figure. The ratio of velocity of A to velocity of B is:
(A) 1 (B) 3
1
(C) (D) 3
3
124. The velocity – time graph of a body moving along a straight line
is shown below. The acceleration of the body along OA,AB and
BC is:
(A) 5 m / s2 , 0, 5 m / s2
(B) 5 m / s2 , 0, 5 m / s2
(C) 5 m / s2 , 1.6 m / s2 , 5 m / s 2
(D) 5 m / s2 , 1.6 m / s 2 , 5 m / s2
125. Two bodies A and B having masses 2 kg and 4 kg respectively are separated by 2m. Where should a body of
mass 1 kg be placed so that the gravitational force on this body due to A and B is zero?
(A) 8.3 m (B) 0.83 m (C) 3.8 m (D) 0.38 m
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127. An electric bulb is rated 220 V, 110 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be:
(A) 55 W (B) 110 W (C) 25 W (D) 27.5 W
130. If 5 coulombs of charge flows through a conductor in 2 seconds, then the number of electrons flowing through a
conductor in one second approximately is:
(A) 30 1018 (B) 15 1018 (C) 6 1018 (D) 12 1018
131. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 490 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. The splash is
heard after
2
(Given g = 9.8 m/s , speed of sound = 350 m/s)
(A) 11.4 sec (B) 10 sec (C) 22.8 sec (D) 20 sec
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133. Among the statements which is/are correct? (FORUM FOR IIT-JEE)
Acceleration due to gravity:
(a) Decreases from equator to poles
(b) Decreases from poles to equator
(c) Is maximum at the centre of the earth
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (b) only
134. An element “X” has six electrons in the “M” shell. It belongs to:
rd th nd th
(A) 3 period, 16 group (B) 2 period, 14 group
rd th nd th
(C) 3 period, 13 group (D) 2 period, 15 group
139. The hardening of plaster of paris on reaction with water is due to the formation of:
(A) CaSO4 .H2O (B) CaSO4 .2H2 O
3 1
(C) CaSO 4 . H2 O (D) CaSO 4 . H2 O
4 2
140. Foul – smelling of eatable prepared by using oil and fat is due to:
(A) Reaction with Nitrogen in air
(B) Reaction with CO2 in air
(C) Reaction with sulphur di oxide in air
(D) Reaction with oxygen in air
141. Magnesium ribbon starts floating when it is placed in hot water. Why?
(A) Light metal (B) Highly reactive
(C) Hydrogen gas stick at the bottom of the metal (D) Neither light nor heavy
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142. Common Hydrogen is also called as: (FORUM FOR IIT-JEE)
(A) Prottium atom (B) Deuterium atom
(C) Tritium atom (D) None of the above
144. The ionic compounds are solids at room temperature on account of:
(A) Electrostatic force between the opposite ions
(B) Electrostatic force between the same ions
(C) Weak intermolecular forces between opposite ions
(D) Both electrostatic and intermolecular force between the opposite ions.
146. The best method to detect and identify of the drugs present in the blood of criminals in Forensic Science is:
(A) Sublimation (B) Evaporation (C) Chromatography (D) Filtration
148. Observe the diagram given below. Read the question and
select the correct answer.
(a) Which gives the nourishment for the developing embryo
sac?
(b) After fertilization, which develops into a seed coat?
(c) Name the nuclei which face towards the chalazal end.
(d) When soaked seed is pressed, the water oozes out through
(A) Nucellus, Integuments, Micropyle, Antipodals
(B) Antipodals, Micropyle, Nucellus, Integuments
(C) Integuments, Nucellus, Antipodals, Micropyle
(D) Nucellus, Integuments, Antipodals, Micropyle
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( F O R UWhen
149. Soil contains decomposed matter. Plants that grow from the soil absorb nutrient elements. M F Owe
R Ieat
I T -the
J E E plants,
)
the nutrients enter into our body. After our death, when our body are buried into the soil, our body will become
decomposed matter. This cyclic process refers to:
(A) Life cycle (B) Bio – Geo Chemical cycle
(C) Biological cycle (D) Geological cycle
151. Find out the true and false statements from the following:
(a) Pepo is developed from tricarpellary ovary
(b) Drupe is developed from pentacarpellary ovary
(c) Pome is called a pseudofruit
(d) Hesperidium is developed from multicarpellary ovary
(A) (a) True (b) False (c) True (d) False
(B) (a) True (b) False (c) True (d) True
(C) (a) False (b) True (c) False (d) True
(D) (a) False (b) False (c) True (d) True
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154. Centipede and earthworms have segmented body, but they are in two different phyla. Identify the phyla they belong
to.
(A) Arthropoda and Annelida (B) Arthroda and Aschelminthes
(C) Annelida and Aschelminthes (D) None of the above
155. Lysosomes are considered as suicidal bags of cell. The reason is:
(A) Lysosomes contain poison required to kill the cell.
(B) Lysosomes contain lytic enzyme to digest the whole cell content.
(C) Lysosomes contain genes to stop cellular activities.
(D) Lysosomes do not permit oxidation process of the cell.
158. The parental genotypes are BB bb . The probability of having bb genotype in the F1 generation is:
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 0%
159. Which of the following statement is not correct about vasopressin hormone?
(A) It constricts the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure.
(B) Vasopressin helps in the reabsorption of water
(C) Its less production results in diabletes insipidus.
(D) It dilates the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure.
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160. Subsequent generations show greater improvement in genetic characters. It is seen in( higher
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F O R particularly.
IIT-JEE )
This is due to:
(A) Crossing over process of sexual reproduction.
(B) Living in an area for many generations.
(C) Due to pressure for improvement of characters from peers.
(D) Asexual reproduction brings improvement.
163. The famous monument built to commemorate the end of plague in India in the year 1591.
(A) Buland Darwaza (B) Charminar
(C) Gol Gumbaz (D) Gol Konda
165. Name the Greek philosopher who was the teacher of Alexander the Great and the student of Plato.
(A) Aristotle (B) Socrates (C) Democritus (D) Pythagoras
167. Rabindranath Tagore surrendered his ‘Knighthood’ to the British after the event of:
(A) Jallianwalbagh Massacre (B) Surat Split
(C) Chouri Chaura Incident (D) Non Cooperation Movement
168. The dead bodies were preserved by the Egyptians using Nation salt. Its main constituents are:
(A) Sodium Carbonate and sodium bicarbonate
(B) Sodium Carbonate and sodium acetate
(C) Sodium bicarbonate and sodium benzoate
(D) Sodium carbonate and sodium phosphate
169. From which year Kamarajar’s birthday is celebrated as ‘Educational Development Day’?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006 (C) 2007 (D) 2008
170. The first Indian ruler who organized pilgrimage to Haj at the expense of the state.
(A) Humayun (B) Babar (C) Akbar (D) Jahangir
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171. Name the war fought between the period 1912-14. (FORUM FOR IIT-JEE)
(A) The Second Anglo Boer War (B) The Russian Civil War
(C) First balcan War (D) Jutland War
173. Kayal goes to her grandpa’s place, Coimbatore along with her sister. She says about the type of soil in Coimbatore
to her sister. What is the type of soil?
(A) Alluvial soil (B) Black soil (C) Laterite soil (D) Red loams
176. Which famous pass, between India and China was reopened for the trade after 44years?
(A) Nathu La (B) Shipki La (C) Jelep La (D) Karakoram
178. Which Wildlife Reserve in India was started in 1974 to protect Tiger population?
(A) Ranthambore National park (B) Bandipur National park
(C) Jim Corbet National park (D) Kanha Tiger Reserve
179.
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180. Which instrument is used to measure wind speed? (FORUM FOR IIT-JEE)
(A) Hygrometer (B) Beaufort scale (C) Wind vane (D) Bolometer
(A) A – S; B – P; C – R; D – Q (B) A – R; B – Q; C – P; D – S
(C) A – S; B – R; C – Q; D – P (D) A – Q; B – S; C – R; D – P
184. Pick out the wrong statement about Principles of Pancha Sheel.
(A) Each country should respect the territorial integrity and sovereignty of others.
(B) People’s representative should be elected through election.
(C) No one should try to interfere in the internal affairs of others.
(D) All country shall strive for equality and mutual benefits.
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187. Find the correct statement:
Statement: (a):
The Supreme Court cannot interfere in the Judgments declared by the Military Tribunals.
Statement: (b):
Appeal can be taken from Military Tribunals to Supreme Court.
(A) (a) and (b) are correct (B) (b) is correct
(C) (a) is correct (D) (a) and (b) are wrong
188. Who has the authority to give suggestions to the president on politically legal problems?
(A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) Prime Minister (D) Governor
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189. 61 amendment of the Constitution Act of _____________ has lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
(A) 1998 (B) 1978 (C) 1968 (D) 1988
192. Choose the two sovereign countries where Tamil is the official language.
(A) Srilanka, Singapore (B) Srilanka, Malaysia
(C) Singapore, Mauritius (D) Malaysia, Singapore
193. Which Chief Justice of India has acted as the Acting President of India?
(A) T.S. Thakur (B) Mohammad Hidayatullah
(C) Ranganth Mishra (D) Mirza Hameedullah Beg
195. Which is the tenth largest stock exchange in the world and oldest stock exchange in South Asia?
(A) National Stock Exchange (B) Madras Stock Exchange
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange (D) Calcutta Stock Exchange
196. Which Finance Minister has presented the maximum number of union budgets?
(A) Pranab Mukherjee (B) Moraji Desai (C) Yashwant Sinha (D) P. Chidambaram
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197. Expand – FERA:
(A) Foreign Exchange and Resources Act
(B) Financial Exchange and Regulation Act
(C) Fiscal Exchange Reserves Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
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NTSE STAGE I – 2018 - 19
TAMIL NADU
PART – II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
ANSWER KEY
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