Mark Scheme (Results)

January 2014

IAL Chemistry (WCH05/01)

Unit 5: General Principles of Chemistry II

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January 2014
Publications Code IA037636
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2014
 General Marking Guidance

 All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must

mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as they mark
the last.
 Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be
rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather than
penalised for omissions.
 Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries may
lie.
 There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
 All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded.
Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the
answer matches the mark scheme. Examiners should also be
prepared to award zero marks if the candidate’s response is not
worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
 Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide
the principles by which marks will be awarded and exemplification
may be limited.
 When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the
mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be
consulted.
 Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has
replaced it with an alternative response.

Mark schemes will indicate within the table where, and which
strands of QWC, are being assessed. The strands are as follows:

i) ensure that text is legible and that spelling, punctuation and

grammar are accurate so that meaning is clear
ii) select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to
purpose and to complex subject matter
iii) organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist
vocabulary when appropriate
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to

penalise. This does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate
answers, but it does mean allowing candidates to be rewarded for
answers showing correct application of principles and knowledge.
Examiners should therefore read carefully and consider every
response: even if it is not what is expected it may be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

 an idea of the types of response expected
 how individual marks are to be awarded
 the total mark for each question
 examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should
receive full credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the
mark, but helps the examiner to get the sense of the expected
answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the
actual word is essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in
an earlier part of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part
of the same question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain

the mark. Make sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit
for correct words/phrases which are put together in a meaningless
manner. Answers must be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect
candidates to:
 write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and
punctuation in order to make the meaning clear
 select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose
and to complex subject matter
 organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist
vocabulary when appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the
above abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are
indicated (QWC) in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude
others.
Section A (multiple choice)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
1 B 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
2 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
3 C 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
4 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
5 A 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
6 C 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
7 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
8 A 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
9 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
10 B 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
11 C 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
12 A 1
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
13 B 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14 B 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
15 C 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
17 D 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
18 A 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
19 A 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
20 B 1
Total for Section A = 20 marks
Section B

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
21(a)(i) In 21(a) Electrons
IGNORE omitted
State symbols even if incorrect
Working in half equations (e.g. multipliers &
cancelled e(−))

MnO4− + 8H+ + 5e(−)→ Mn2+ + 4H2O(Eo=1.51V)

OR
Multiples

ALLOW reversible and double headed arrows 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
21(a)(ii) H2O → ½O2 + 2H+ + 2e(−) (Eo=1.23V) Electrons
OR omitted
Multiples

ALLOW
reversible and double headed arrows Equation
reversed
H2O − 2e(−) → ½O2 + 2H+ 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
21(a)(iii) Uncancelled e(−)
4MnO4− + 12H+ → 4Mn2+ + 5O2 + 6H2O
OR
2MnO4− + 6H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5/2O2 + 3H2O

ALLOW
reversible and double headed arrows
other multiples
uncancelled H+ and H2O

TE only on MnO4−|MnO42− in (a)(i):

2MnO4− + H2O → 2MnO42− + ½O2 +

2H+
1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
21(a)(iv) Eocell = 1.51 – 1.23 = (+)0.28 (V)

ALLOW
TE
on Eocell = −0.67 (V) derived from using
MnO4−|MnO42−
if correct equation in (a)(iii) is reversed
(1)

Eocell is positive
so reaction is (thermodynamically)
feasible / manganate(VII) oxidizes the
water / water reduces manganate(VII)

ALLOW Just ‘reaction

so thermodynamically spontaneous goes’
so reaction goes / possible
so MnO4− unstable
(1)

No TE on negative Eocell unless correct

equation in (a)(iii) is reversed. 2
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
21(b)(i) Distilled / deionised water need only be
mentioned once.

Dissolve solid in (a suitable volume (< Just ‘water’

150 cm3) of) distilled / deionised water / conc H2SO4
dilute sulfuric acid in a beaker (1) conical flask

Transfer solution to a volumetric / Just ‘flask’

graduated flask (1)
add washings (1)
Make up to mark / 250 cm3 and mix (1)

Preparing the solution in the volumetric

flask max 2 (MP2 and MP4)

ALLOW
Any indication of mixing (e.g. swirl /
invert) 4

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
21(b)(ii) colourless /pale yellow to (first purple to pink
permanent pale) pink Purple / mauve
1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
21(b)(iii) MnO4− + 8H+ + 5Fe2+ Uncancelled e(−)
→ Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O

ALLOW
multiples
reversible and double headed
arrows

IGNORE state symbols even if

incorrect 1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
21(b)(iv) Check the method:

If the method is based on [MnO4−] being less

than 0.02 mol dm−3 then correct answer with
some working scores full marks.

% MnO4− remaining = 98.6855 (%) with some

correct working scores 3

Correct answer (1.31449 (%)) with no working

scores 3

Calculation of the % of the Mohr’s salt that has

reacted before the titration (assumes [MnO4−]
= 0.02 mol dm−3) gives (about) the same value
and scores max 3

Example of fully correct method

Mol Fe2+ in 25 cm3 = (10/392)x(25/250) (1)

= 2.55102 x 10−3 (*)

Mol MnO4− in 25.85 cm3 = Answer */5 (1)

= 2.55102 x 10−3 / 5 = 5.10204 x 10−4 (**)

Concn of MnO4− = 1000 x Answer **/25.85

= 0.019737 mol dm−3 (***)
(1)
% reacted prior to the titration
= 100 x (0.02 − Answer ***)/0.02
= 100 x (0.02 − 0.019737 ) / 0.02
= 1.31449 (%) (1)

TE at each stage in the calculation

unless concn MnO4− remaining greater than
0.02 (so % reacted negative) when max 2

Continued on next page 4

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
21(b)(iv) A common incorrect calculation is
continued Mol MnO4− in 25.85 cm3 = 25.85 x 0.02/1000
= 5.17 x10-4 (0)

Mol Fe2+ in 25 cm3 = 5 x 5.17 x10-4

= 2.585 x 10-3 (1)

Mol Fe2+ in 250 cm3 = 10 x 5 x 5.17 x10-4

= 2.585 x 10-2
Then
Actual mol Fe2+ in 250 cm3
= 10/392 = 2.551 x10-2
Difference = 2.585x10-2 - 2.551 x10-2
=0.034 x10-2

OR
Mass of Mohr’s salt = 392 x 2.585 x 10-2
= 10.1332 g
so difference = 10.1332 – 10
= 0.1332 g (1)

Percentage =100 x 0.034 x10-2 / 2.585x10-2

= 1.3153 (1) 1.3333

Where the calculation breaks down, marks

may often be possible for
MP1 (mol Fe2+ in 25 cm3)
MP2 (using 5:1 reacting ratio for Fe2+: MnO4−)

Ignore SF except 1 SF
Total for Question 21 = 15 marks
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
22(a)(i) If name and formula are given, both must
be correct

A = copper(II) chloride / CuCl2 (1)

B = CuCl2
2−
B = tetrachlorocuprate(II) (ion) / CuCl4
ALLOW
−
B = trichlorocuprate(II) / CuCl3 (1)

C = copper(II) hydroxide / Cu(OH)2 /

Cu(OH)2(H2O)4 (1)

D = tetraamminecopper(II) (ion) /
Cu(NH3)42+ / Cu(H2O)2(NH3)42+ (1)

E = copper(I) oxide / Cu2O (1)

−
F = iodine / I2 / triiodide (ion) / I3 / KI3
(1)

IGNORE
state symbols even if incorrect.
correct oxidation numbers with formula.
order of the ligands.

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(a)(ii) If name and formula are given, both
must be correct

X = (aqueous) ammonia / NH3(aq) X = NaOH

ALLOW
NH3 / ammonium hydroxide (1)

Y = potassium iodide / KI iodide / I−

ALLOW KI and acid
other soluble iodides (1) HI

IGNORE references to concentration 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
22(a)(iii) (Product is) ethanoic acid / CH3COOH /
−
ethanoate( ions) / CH3COO (1)
IGNORE carboxylic

Ethanal is a reducing agent / reduces

Cu2+ (1)

Stand alone marks

IGNORE
references to oxidation of ethanol
products of reduction (e.g. Cu) 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(a)(iv) (Iodine is formed quantitatively and is Colorimetry
determined by) titration against sodium
thiosulfate solution (of known
concentration) 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(b)(i) (3)d orbitals / (3)d subshell split (by the Orbital /
attached ligands) (1) shell is split

Electrons are promoted (from lower to

higher energy d orbital(s) / levels)
OR
Electrons move from lower to higher
energy d orbital(s) / levels)
ALLOW
d—d transitions occur (1)

Absorbing energy /photons of a certain

frequency (in the visible region)
ALLOW
Absorbing light (1)

Reflected / transmitted / remaining light is

coloured / yellow / in the visible region

ALLOW
Complementary colour seen
Reflected / transmitted / remaining light /
frequency is seen (1)

Penalise omission of (3)d once only.

Ignore reference to electrons relaxing /
dropping to the ground state 4
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
22(b)(ii) Colour depends on the frequency
/wavelength /energy of the absorbed
light (1)

Different ligands split the d orbitals to

a different extent (1) 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(c)(i) 2Cu+(aq) → Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq) Electrons

ALLOW
reversible arrows
1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(c)(ii) The copper(I) is oxidized to
copper(II) and (in the same reaction)
reduced to copper((0))
OR
Copper changes from +1 to 0 and +2

IGNORE
Reference to a Cu atom 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
22(c)(iii) Relevant reduction potentials are

Cu2+ + e− ⇌ Cu+ Eo = +0.15 (V)

Cu+ + e− ⇌ Cu Eo = +0.52 (V)

ALLOW single arrows (1)

Eocell = 0.52 – 0.15 = (+)0.37 (V) (1)

o o
TE on incorrect E values providing E cell is
positive

(Eocell positive so reaction

thermodynamically favourable)
2

Total for Question 22 = 21 marks

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
23(a)
Elem % mol Ratio
ent
C 40.44 ÷12 = 3.37 2.99
9
H 7.87 ÷1 = 7.87 7.00
4
O 35.96 ÷ 16 = 2.2475 2.00
0
N 15.73 ÷ 14 = 1.00
1.12357 0
(1) (1)

Empirical formula = C3H7O2N (1)

Symbols in any order
Stand alone mark
No TE on incorrect ratio
IGNORE significant figure and rounding
errors except 1sf in mole calculation 3

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
23(b)(i) Peak at m/e = 89 labelled M+

ALLOW
Any clear label e.g. C3H7O2N+ 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
23(b)(ii) Mr = 89 = Mr (C3H7O2N) so molecular Answer with no
formula is C3H7O2N explanation
Symbols in any order Mr = 90
+
C3H7O2N
IGNORE
structural and displayed formulae 1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
23(c)(i) Gas evolved is carbon dioxide / CO2 (1)

(so carboxylic) acid / -COOH group is

present (1)

Dark blue colour indicates the formation of a NH3

(copper(II)) complex complexes

ALLOW
indicates ligand exchange has occurred (1)

Suggests that an amine / -NH2 group is Amide group

present

ALLOW
NH (1)
IGNORE
ammine
amino acid 4
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
23(c)(ii) Any 2 of A, B, C or D (1 mark for each)

Molecules
A B

C D

Zwitterions
A B

C D

Or fully displayed structures 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
23(c)(iii) First mark
P has structure A

or

Second mark
EITHER
Splitting pattern quartet due to CH next to
CH3 and doublet due to CH3 next to CH

ALLOW
A comparison e.g
A has quartet & doublet but Just
B has two triplets quartet
& doublet
OR
As the areas / heights of the two peaks are
in a 3:1 ratio (approximately), there must Just two
be 3 protons in one environment and 1 in peaks
another

No TE if A is not one of the isomers given in

(c)(ii)

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
23(d) P (is an amino acid) exists as a zwitterion

ALLOW
Zwitterion formula

OR
molecules are held together by (strong)
ionic forces

IGNORE
Just ‘electrostatic forces’ 1

Total for Question 23 = 14 marks

Total for Section B = 50 mark
Section C

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(a)(i) M = chloro- /bromo- / iodo- methane
/ CH3Cl / CH3Br / CH3I 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(a)(ii) CH3X + AlCl3 → CH3+ + AlXCl3−
Ignore curly arrows even if incorrect
Ignore state symbols even if incorrect 1
Ques. Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
No.

24(a)
(iii)

TE on incorrect electrophile in (a)(ii)

If benzene used instead of methylbenzene

OR
If final product not 1,2-dimethylbenzene (max 2)

Curly arrow from on or within the circle to

positively charged carbon
ALLOW
Curly arrow from anywhere within the hexagon Curly arrow
on or
Arrow to any part of the CH3+ including to the + outside the
charge (1) hexagon

Intermediate structure including charge with Dotted

horseshoe covering at least 3 carbon atoms, and bonds to H
and CH3
facing the tetrahedral carbon and

some part of the positive charge must be within

the horseshoe (1)

Curly arrow from C―H bond to anywhere in the

benzene ring reforming delocalized structure (1)

Correct Kekulé structures score full marks

Ignore any involvement of AlX4− in the final step 3

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
24(a)(iv) The methyl group donates / pushes Mention of
electrons into the benzene ring (because lone pair
of its positive inductive effect / donating
inductive effect) (1)

(Increased electron density) makes the Just ‘reacts

ring more susceptible to electrophilic faster’
attack (1)

IGNORE
Activating group / ring activation 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(a)(v) Any identified (name or formula)
strong mineral acid: sulfuric acid /
H2SO4(aq) / hydrochloric acid /
HCl(aq) / nitric acid / HNO3(aq)

ALLOW
Formulae without (aq)
concentrated (acid)

IGNORE
dilute
‘acid’
H+(aq) / H+
addition of extra alkali before adding
acid 1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(b)(i) Oxidation state / oxidation number
/valency easily changed

ALLOW
‘Just’ variable oxidation state /
oxidation number /valency
OR
easily oxidized and reduced

IGNORE
references to d orbitals / active sites 1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
24(b)(ii) Surface area of catalyst decreases
OR
Number of active sites is reduced Active sites
saturated /
ALLOW occupied by
Active sites blocked reactants
OR
Catalyst is poisoned denatured
1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(c)(i)

ALLOW
COOCH3 for ester group
skeletal / displayed structures
omission of benzene ring circle.
1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(c)(ii) The forces between plasticiser / phthalate 2
and polymer molecules are weak (1)

So London /dispersion /van der Waals hydrogen

forces (rather than covalent bonds) bonds

ALLOW
dipole-dipole forces
OR
Forces between water and
plasticiser / phthalate molecules are
strong(er) / hydrogen bonds (1)
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
24(c)(iii) Any two of

The intermolecular forces between break cross-

the plasticiser and the polymer linking between
molecules are weaker than the those polymer
between polymer molecules (1) molecules /
(covalent) bonds
The polymer molecules move over
one another more easily (1)

Plasticiser molecules disrupt the

polymer structure (1) 2

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(d)(i) PCl5 / phosphorus(V) chloride /
phosphorus pentachloride
OR
PCl3 / phosphorus(III) chloride /
phosphorus trichloride
OR
SOCl2 / thionyl chloride / thionyl
dichloride
1

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(d)(ii) Reaction goes to completion / (much)
faster / not reversible / not an
equilibrium / higher yield / catalyst
not needed / uses less energy

ALLOW
Heat / increased temperature not
required.
Reverse arguments.

IGNORE
Cost / reacts easily.
More reactive.
1
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
24(d)(iii) Omission
of
benzene
ring
circle
OR

ALLOW
−COOCH2CH2OOC−  for diester link

three ester links (i.e. – CO-O-CH2-)

only if polymer is open-chained (non-cyclic) and
at least a dimer (1)

remaining structure (1)

this mark is not stand alone
2
IGNORE ()n

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
24(d)(iv) Methanol / CH3OH alcohol 1

Total for Question 24 = 20 marks

Total for Section C = 20 marks
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