GENERAL NAV CLASS TEST

BY CAPT. RAJ

1. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50° N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the
length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?
A) Spring equinox and autumn equinox. c
B) Summer solstice and winter solstice.
C) Summer solstice and spring equinox.
D) Winter solstice and autumn equinox.

2. In its path around the Sun, the axis of the Earth has an inclination:S
A) varying with the season of the year.
B) varying between zero and 23° 27 with the plane of the pat.
C) of 23º 27 with the plane of Equator.
D) of 66º 33 with the plane of the path c

3. Observed from a position on the surface of the Earth the heavenly bodies seems to:
A) move from East to West. c
B) not change their relative positions on the sky.
C) move from West to East on the southern hemisphere.
D) move from East to West on the northern hemisphere.

4. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?

A) They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available. c
B) They are eliminated using differential techniques.
C) Transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less than one
metre.
D) They are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM.

5. The mean sun:

A) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator.
B) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation.
C) Is the middle position of the sun.
D) Has a declination equal to the apparent sun.

6. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the
horizon at some time during the year?
A) 0°
B) 23° c
C) 66°
D) 45°

7. The length of a apparent solar day is not constant because:

A) The plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the Equator are inclined to each other.
B) The Suns declination is not constant.
C) The Earths speed of revolution in its orbit varies continuously, due to the orbit being elliptical. c
D) The Earths speed of rotation is not the same at all latitudes.

8. The planets move around the Sun:

A) In circular orbits.
B) At constant angular speed.
C) At constant velocity.
D) In elliptical orbits.

9. At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
A) Beginning of January.
B) Beginning of July.c
C) End of December.
D) End of September.

10. Seasons are due to the:

A) Earths elliptical orbit around the Sun.
B) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane. c
C) Earths rotation on its polar axis.
D) variable distance between Earth and Sun.

11. The direction of the Earths rotation on its axis is such that:
A) An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when observing sunrise.
B) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
C) Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.C
D) Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.

12. The suns declination is:

A) The distance between the sun and the horizon.C
B) The suns position relative to the plane of the Equator.
C) The angular distance between the sun and the celestial North Pole.
D) The suns position relative to the ecliptic.

13. When the length of the day is measured with reference to the passage of the apparent sun:
A) The length of the day will vary in the course of the year. c
B) The length of the day will be the same once every month.
C) The length of the day will vary with the latitude of the observer.
D) The length of the days, as indicated by our watches, will be exactly equal.

14. The term sidereal is used:

A) to describe a situation or relationship concerning the stars.c
B) to describe conditions with reference to the moon.
C) to describe the time interval between two successive transits of the real apparent sun at the same
meridian.
D) to describe how two positions of heavenly bodies are located sideways on the sky.

15. Sun rise at 50° N 072° E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will the sun rise at 50° N 007° E
on that day?
A) 0254 UTC
B) 0714 UTCC
C) 2154 UTC
D) 0514 UTC

16. the compression factor of the earth:

A) is about 1:300.
B) all 3 answers are correct.C
C) is so small that it may be ignored when making ordinary maps and charts.
D) makes the difference between the polar diameter and the equatorial diameter about 22 NM.

17. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A
(60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:
A) 5.2°
B) 7.8° C
C) 15.6°
D) 9°

18. Latitude may be defined as:

A) The displacement of a place from equator.
B) The angular distance measured along a meridian from the equator to a parallel of the latitude,
measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds and named North or South.C
C) The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the parallel of latitude.
D) The distance from equator to a place on the surface of the earth. 22.

19.You are flying from A (50N 10W) to B (58N 02E). What is the Convergency between A and B?
A) 6,5°
B) 6,8°
C) 9,7°
D) 10,2°

20. The convergency of meridians:

A) Is the distance between the meridians in degrees, minutes, and seconds.
B) Is independent of latitude and longitude.
C) Is the angular difference between the meridians.C
D) Is greater using rhumb line track than using great circle.

21. The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:
A) 0° North and South (equator).
B) 60° North and South.
C) 90° North and South.
D) 45° North and South.C

22. The poles on the surface of the earth may be defined as:
A) The points from where the distance to the equator is equal.
B) The points on the surface of the earth where all meridians intersect at right angles.
C) The points where the earths axis of rotation cuts the surface of the earth.C
D) The points at which the vertical lines runs through the centre of the earth.

23. What is the approximate latitude of the Antarctic Circle?

A) 23° S.
B) 23° N.
C) 66° N.
D) 66° S.C

23. A great circle track joins position A (59° S 141° W) and B (61° S 148° W). What is the difference between
the great circle track at A and B?
A) It increases by 3° .
B) It decreases by 6° .
C) It increases by 6° .C
D) It decreases by 3° .

24. Given: value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earths semi-major axis, as measured at the equator,
equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the Poles?
A) 6 367.0
B) 6 399.9
C) 6 378.4
D) 6 356.9

25. The suns declination is on a particular day 12.00 S. Midnight sun may this day be observed:
A) North of 7800N.
B) South of 7800S.C
C) At 7800S only.
D) North of 7800S.

26. The angle between the plane of the Equator and the plane of the Ecliptic is:
A) 65.6 deg.
B) 25.3 deg.
C) 66.5 deg.
D) 23.5 deg.C

27. Consider the following statements on longitude.

A) The largest value of longitude is 180º .C
B) The largest value of change of longitude is 90º .
C) The value of longitude will never exceed 90º .
D) Longitude is stated in degrees up to 360º .

28. An arc of 1 minute of a meridian equals:

A) 1 statute mile.
B) 10 kilometres.
C) 1 nautical mile.C
D) 1 kilometre.

29. Consider the following statements on meridians:

A) The meridians are parallel only at equator.C
B) The meridians are not of equal length.
C) Any two meridians will form a great circle.
D) Any two halves great circle will form a meridians.

30. The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately:
A) 25.3° .
B) 23.5° .C
C) 27.5° .
D) 66.5° .

31. Consider the following statements on meridians:

A) All meridians run in true direction from South to North.C
B) The relative direction between two selected meridians will be constant.
C) On the southern hemisphere the meridians run towards the south pole.
D) The distance, in nautical miles, between two selected meridians will be constant.

32. Conversion angle is:

A) twice convergency.
B) convergency.
C) 0,5 convergencyC
D) 4 times convergency.

33. The times given for Sunrise, Sunset, Morning and Evening twilight in the Air Almanac:
A) Are given in LMT.C
B) Must always be corrected for atmospheric refraction.
C) Are given in Standard time.
D) Are given in UTC.

34. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50° N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the length of
day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?
A) Winter solstice and autumn equinox.
B) Spring equinox and autumn equinox.C
C) Summer solstice and spring equinox.
D) Summer solstice and winter solstice.

35. Sun rise at 50° N 072° E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will the sun rise at 50° N 007° E
on that day?
A) 0254 UTC
B) 0714 UTCC
C) 0514 UTC
D) 2154 UTC

36. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following
points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:
A) 9°
B) 5.2°
C) 15.6°
D) 7.8°C

37. On a Transverse Mercator Chart scale is assumed to be constant within:

A) 300 nm of the Central MeridianC
B) 300 nm of the Poles
C) 200 nm of the Poles
D) 300 nm of the Parallel of Tangency

38. Transverse Mercator projections are used for:

A) maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas.
B) plotting charts in equatorial areas.
C) maps of large north/south extent.C
D) radio navigation charts in equatorial areas.

39. On a Lambert conformal conic chart the quoted scale is correct:

A) in the area between the standard parallels.
B) along the parallel of origin.
C) along the two standard parallels.C
D) along the prime meridian.

40. What is the most common use for an oblique Mercator chart?
A) Maps of equatorial areas only.
B) Selected great circle routes.C
C) Topographical maps of the British Isles.
D) Polar routes

41. The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what latitude on the
chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
A) 38° 15
B) 51° 45C
C) 52° 05
D) 80° 39
42. What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
A) 1.0C
B) 0.5
C) 0.866
D) 0.0

43. On a direct Mercator projection, the. distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart at
latitude 60° N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60° N is approximately:
A) 1 : 4 750 000
B) 1 : 6 000 000
C) 1 : 3 500 000C
D) 1 : 7 000 000

44. You are flying from A (50N 10W) to B (58N 02E). If Inital Great Circle track is 047° T what is
Final Great Circle track?
A) 29°
B) 52°
C) 43°
D) 57°C

45. The rhumb-line distance between points A (60° 00N 002° 30E) and B (60° 00N 007° 30W) is:
A) 600 NM.
B) 150 NM.
C) 450 NM.
D) 300 NMC

46. What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030°
W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
A) 1 HR 45 MIN.
B) 5 HR 00 MIN.
C) 1 HR 15 MIN.
D) 2 HR 30 MIN.C

47. What is the distance in kilometres from 49° S 180° E/W to 58° S 180º E/W?
A) 621 km.
B) 540 km.
C) 1000 km.C
D) 1112 km

48. Heading is 156° T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130° /45. What is your true track?
A) 222
B) 152
C) 160C
D) 104

49. An aircraft departs from position A (04° 10 S 178° 22 W) and flies northward following the
meridian for 2950 NM.
It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of
position B are?
A) 53° 20 N 172° 38 E
B) 45° 00 N 172° 38 EC
C) 53° 20 N 169° 22 W
D) 45° 00 N 169° 22 W
50. An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What
is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a
magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21° W?
A) 329°
B) 101°
C) 239°
D) 059°C

51. An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What
is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a
magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15° E?
A) 130°
B) 160°
C) 190°
D) 220°. C

52.Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as strapdown. This means that:
A) only the gyros ,and not the accelerometers, become part of the units fixture to the aircraft
structure.
B) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure.
C) gyros, and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft.C
D) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference.

53. What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in
order to obtain an W/V readout?
A) IAS.
B) TAS.C
C) Altitude and OAT.
D) Mach Number.

54. What measurement is used to carry out alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?
A) Acceleration sensed by the north gyro horizontal accelerometer.
B) Acceleration sensed by the north gyro vertical accelerometer.
C) Acceleration sensed by the east gyro horizontal accelerometer.c
D) Difference in magnitude of the value of gravity compared with the gravity at the last known

55. Given the following:

True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) +6° / 425
B) -6° / 425
C) -6° / 415
D) +6° / 415

56. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

57. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft

C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft.

58.Given the following:

True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) +6° / 425
B) -6° / 425
C) -6° / 415
D) +6° / 415

59. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

60. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft

61. Given the following:

True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) +6° / 425
B) -6° / 425
C) -6° / 415
D) +6° / 415

62. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

63. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft

64. Given the following:

True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots
What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) +6° / 425
B) -6° / 425
C) -6° / 415
D) +6° / 415

65. VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

66. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ftC
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft

67. In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable
transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:
A) B
B) P
C) C
D) A

68. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as H for HEAVY:

A) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg
B) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass
C) is of the highest wake turbulence categoryC
D) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

69. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:
A) The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan applies
B) EOBT
C) The time of requesting the flight plan
D) Actual time of departure

70. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:
A) The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan applies
B) EOBT
C) The time of requesting the flight plan
D) Actual time of departure

71. The navigation plan reads:

Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1h35min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
A) 1h 35min
B) 2h 04min
C) 2h 49minC
D) 2h 52min

72. An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off
mass 135000 kg.
In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is:
A) medium plus (M+)
B) heavy/medium (H/M)
C) medium (M)
D) heavy (H)C

73. The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:
Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg
Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h
Holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h
Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg
The minimum ramp fuel load is:
A) 77 800 kg
B) 77 200 kg
C) 79 800 kg
D) 74 800 kgC

74. The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:
Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg
Average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h
Holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8 000 kg/h
Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg
The minimum ramp fuel load is:
A) 77 800 kg
B) 77 200 kg
C) 79 800 kg
D) 74 800 kg

75. When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:
A) night.
B) awn.
C) dusk.
D) dawn or dusk.

76. The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075° (T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative bearing
to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is
A) 007 Relative.
B) 353 Relative.
C) 000 Relative.
D) 183 Relative

77. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
A) at both the VOR and aircraft.
B) at the aircraft location.
C) at the VOR.C
D) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station.

78. A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of
156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
A) 30,2 NM
B) 11,7 NM
C) 27,1 NMC
D) 15,0 NM

79. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
A) 24 minC
B) 10 min 40 sec
C) 20 min
D) 16 min

80. An aircraft flying at 7500 ft is cleared to descend to be level at 1000 ft, 6 NM before reaching a
beacon. If ground speed is 156 kt and Rate of Descent is 800 fpm, how many miles before the beacon should
descent begin?
A) 11.1
B) 15.0
C) 30.2
D) 27.1C