Tech KW

Basic laws & definition: (Oxford & KW)
1. An aircraft’s mass is a result of:

a. It’s weight
b. How big it is
c. How much matter it contains*
d. Its volume
2. The unit of mass is the:

a. Joule
b. Watt
c. Newton
d. Kilogram*
3. The definition of a force is:

a. That which causes a reaction to take place
b. Thrust and drag only
c. A push or a pull*
d. The result of an applied input
4. The unit of force is the:

a. Mass-kilogram
b. Newton-meter
c. Joule
d. Newton*
5. The unit of weight is the:

a. Kilogram
b. Newton*
c. Watt
d. Kilowatt
6. Weight is the result of:

a. The force on mass due to gravity*
b. The action of a falling mass
c. How much matter the object contains
d. The rate of mass per unit area
7. About which point does an aircraft rotate:

A. The wings
B. The main undercarriage
C. The centre of gravity*
D. The rudder
8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move:

A. Work is done even though there is no movement of the mass
B. Work is done only if the mass moves a long way
C. Power is exerted, but no work is done
D. No work is done*
9. The unit of work is called the:

A. Pascal
B. Joule*
C. Watt
D. Kilogram
10. The unit of power is called the:

A. Joule
B. Newton-metre
C. Watt*
D. Metre per second
11. If a force of 20 newton’s moves a mass 5 metres:

1 - the work done is 100 nm
2 - the work done is 100 joules
3 - the work done is 4 joules
4 - the work done is 0.25 joules
The correct statements are:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2*
D. 2 only
12. If a force of 50 newton’s is applied to a 10 kg mass and the mass moves 10 metres and a force of 50 newton’s is applied
to a 100 kg mass which moves 10 metres:
A. The work done is the same in both cases*
B. Less work is done to the 10 kg mass
C. More work is done to the 10 kg mass
D. More work is done to the 100 kg mass
13. The definition of power is:

A. The rate of force applied
B. The rate of movement per second
C. The rate of doing work*
D. The rate of applied force
14. If a force of 500 newton’s moves a mass 1000 metres in 2 mins, the power used is:
A. 4167 watts*
B. 250 kilowatts
C. 1 megawatt
D. 4 watts
15. Kinetic energy is:

A. The energy a mass possesses due to its position in space
B. The energy a mass possesses when a force has been applied
C. The energy a mass possesses due to the force of gravity
D. The energy a mass possesses because of its motion*
16. The unit of kinetic energy is the:

A. Joule*
B. Metre per second
C. Watt
D. Newton-metre per second
17. When considering kinetic energy:

1 - a moving mass can apply a force by being brought to rest
2 - kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of its motion
3 - if a body’s kinetic energy is increased, a force must have been applied
4 - kinetic energy = ½ m v2 joules
The combination of correct statements is:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4*
C. 4 only
D. 2 and 4
18. The property of inertia is said to be:

A. The energy possessed by a body because of its motion
B. The opposition which a body offers to a change in motion*
C. That every action has an equal and opposite reaction
D. The quantity of motion possessed by a body
19. Considering newton’s first law of motion:

1 - a body is said to have energy if it has the ability to do work
2 - the amount of energy a body possesses is measured by the amount of work it can do
3 - a body will tend to remain at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force
4 - to move a stationary object or to make a moving object change its direction, a force must be applied
The combination with the correct statements is:
A. 3 and 4*
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. Considering newton’s second law of motion:

1 - every action has an equal and opposite reaction
2 - if the same force is applied, the larger the mass the slower the acceleration
3 - if two forces are applied to the same mass, the bigger the force the greater the acceleration
4 - the acceleration of a body from a state of rest, or uniform motion in a straight line, is proportional to the applied force and
inversely proportional to the mass
The combination of true statements is:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4*
D. 3 and 4
21. Newton’s third law of motion states:

A. The energy possessed by a mass is inversely proportional to its velocity
B. Every force has an equal and opposite inertia
C. For every force there is an action
D. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction*
22. The definition of velocity is the:

A. Rate of change of acceleration
B. Rate of change of displacement*
C. The quantity of motion possessed by a body
D. The acceleration of a body in direct proportion to its mass
23. When considering acceleration:

1 - acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
2 - the units of acceleration are metres per second
3 - the units of acceleration are kilogram-metres per second
4 - the units of acceleration are seconds per metre per metre
A. 4 only
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 only*
D. 1 and 2
24. The definition of momentum is:

A. The quantity of mass possessed by a body
B. The quantity of inertia possessed by a body
C. The quantity of motion possessed by a body*
D. The opposition which a body offers to a change in velocity
25. A force of 24 newton’s moves a 10 kg mass 60 metres in 1 minute, the power used is:
1 - 24 watts
2 - 240 watts
3 - force times distance moved in one second
4 - force times the distance the mass is moved in one second
Which of the preceding statements are correct
A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 4*
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
26. When considering momentum:

1 - momentum is the quantity of motion possessed by a body
2 - momentum is the tendency of a body to continue in motion after being placed in motion
3 - a mass of 2000 kg moving at 55 m/s has 110,000 kg-m/s of momentum
4 - a large mass moving at 50 m/s will have less momentum than a small mass moving at 50 m/s
The correct combination of statements is:
A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3*
D. 2, 3 and 4
27. Which of these statements about weight and mass is correct?

A. The mass of a body can be determined by dividing its weight by the acceleration due to gravity.*
B. The mass of a body can be determined by multiplying its weight by the acceleration due to gravity.
C. The weight of a body can be determined by dividing its mass by the acceleration due to gravity.
D. The weight of a body can be determined by dividing the acceleration due to gravity by its mass.
28. Which of these statements about weight and mass is correct?

A. The weight of a body can be determined by multiplying its mass by the acceleration due to gravity.*
B. The mass of a body can be determined by multiplying its weight by the acceleration due to gravity.
C. The weight of a body can be determined by dividing its mass by the acceleration due to gravity.
D. The weight of a body can be determined by dividing the acceleration due to gravity by its mass.
29. The following unit of measurement kg-m/s2 is expressed in the si system as?
A. Newton.*
B. Pascal.
C. Joule.
D. Watt.
30. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (f), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
A. M=f.a.
B. A=f.m
C. F=m/a
D. F=m.a.*
31. The units of wing loading (i) w / s and (ii) dynamic pressure q are?
A. (i) n / m3, (ii) kg / m2.
B. (i) kg / m, (ii) n / m2.
C. (i) n / m, (ii) kg.
D. (i) n / m2, (ii) n / m2.*
32. The units of the density of the air (i) and the force (ii) are?
A. (i) n / kg, (ii) kg.
B. (i) kg / m3, (ii) n.*
C. (i) kg / m2, (ii) kg.
D. (i) n / m3, (ii) n.
33. The unit of measurement of pressure is?

A. Kg/d-m2,
B. Psi.*
C. Kg/m3,
D. Ib/gai.
34. The unit of density is?
A. Kg/m3,*
B. Psi.
C. Kg/cm2.
D. Bar.
35. What is the unit of measurement for power?

A. N/m.
B. Nm/s.*
C. Kgm/s2,
D. Pa/m2
The atmosphere: (Oxford & KW)
36. When considering air:
1 - air has mass
2 - air is not compressible
3 - air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4 - the viscosity of air is very high
5 - moving air has kinetic energy
The correct combination of all true statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 5*
37. Why do the lower layers contain the greater proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere?
A. Because air is very viscous
B. Because air is compressible*
C. Because of greater levels of humidity at low altitude
D. Because air has very little mass
38. With increasing altitude, up to about 40,000 ft, the characteristics of air change:
1 - temperature decreases continuously with altitude
2 - pressure falls steadily to an altitude of about 36,000 ft, where it then remains constant
3 - density decreases steadily with increasing altitude
4 - pressure falls steadily with increasing altitude
The combination of true statements is:
A. 3 and 4*
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 1 and 4
39. When considering static pressure:

1 - in aviation, static pressure can be measured in hectopascals
2 - the si units for static pressure is n/m2
3 - static pressure is the product of the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
4 - referred to as static pressure because of the air’s stationary or static presence
5 - the lower the altitude, the greater the static pressure
The correct statements are:
A. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5*
C. 1, 3 and 5
D. 1 and 5
40. When considering air density:

1 - density is measured in millibars
2 - density increases with increasing altitude
3 - if temperature increases the density will increase
4 - as altitude increases, density will decrease
5 - temperature decreases with increasing altitude, this will cause air density to increase
A. 4 only*
B. 4 and 5
C. 5 only
D. 2, 3 and 5
41. Air density is:

A. Mass per unit volume*
B. Proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to pressure
C. Independent of both temperature and pressure
D. Dependent only on decreasing pressure with increasing altitude
42. When considering isa and comparing it with the actual atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct:
1 - temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the actual atmosphere
2 - a requirement exists for a hypothetical ’standard’ atmosphere
3 - the values given in the isa exist at a the same altitudes in the actual atmosphere
4 - isa was designed for the calibration of pressure instruments and the comparison of aircraft performance calculations
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4*
43. When considering the icao international standard atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct:
1 - the temperature lapse rate is assumed to be uniform at 2°c per 1,000 ft (1.98°c. Up to a height of 11,000 ft)
2 - sea level temperature is assumed to be 15°c
3 - sea level static pressure is assumed to be 1.225 kg/m3
4 - sea level density is assumed to be 1013.25 hpa
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. No statements are correct
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2 only*
44. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject to
which of the following:
A. Dynamic pressure
B. Static pressure
C. Static pressure and dynamic pressure*
D. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure
45. Dynamic pressure is:

A. The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
B. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest*
C. The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
D. The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
46. Dynamic pressure is equal to:

A. Density times speed squared
B. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared
C. Half the true airspeed times the density squared
D. Half the density times the true airspeed squared*
47. A tube facing into an airflow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to:
A. Static pressure
B. Dynamic pressure
C. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure*
D. The difference between total pressure and static pressure
48. A static pressure vent must be positioned:

A. On a part of the aircraft structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface at right angles to the airflow direction
B. On a part of the structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface parallel to the airflow direction*
C. At the stagnation point
D. At the point on the surface where the airflow reaches the highest speed
49. The inputs to an air speed indicator are from:

A. A static source
B. Pitot pressure
C. A pitot and a static source*
D. Pitot, static and density
50. The deflection of the pointer of the air speed indicator is proportional to:
A. Dynamic pressure*
B. Static pressure
C. The difference between static and dynamic pressure
D. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
51. Calibration of the air speed indicator is based upon the density:
A. At the altitude at which the aircraft is flying
B. At sea level icao international standard atmosphere temperature*
C. At sea level
D. At sea level icao international standard atmosphere +15°c temperature
52. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
1 - true air speed (tas) is read directly from the air speed indicator
2 - equivalent air speed is indicated air speed corrected for position error
3 - indicated air speed is not a speed at all, it’s a pressure
4 - true air speed is the speed of the aircraft through the air
Which of the above statements are true:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4*
D. 1 and 4
53. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
1 - calibrated air speed is indicated air speed corrected for position error
2 - equivalent air speed is indicated air speed corrected for position error and compressibility
3 - position error, which causes false indicated air speed readings, is due to variations in the pressures sensed at the pitot and
static ports
4 - the air speed indicator is calibrated to read true air speed when the ambient density is that of the isa at sea level
A. None of the statements are correct
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4*
54. The speed of sound:

A. Is dependent upon the true air speed and the mach number of the aircraft
B. Is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature
C. Is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air*
D. Is directly proportional to the true air speed of the aircraft
55. Mach number is:

A. The aircraft true air speed divided by the local speed of sound*
B. The speed of sound in the ambient conditions in which the aircraft is flying
C. The tas of the aircraft at which the relative airflow somewhere on the aircraft first reaches the local speed of sound
D. The indicated air speed divided by the local speed of sound sea level
56. An aircraft’s critical mach number is;

A. The speed of the airflow when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
B. The speed of the aircraft when the airflow somewhere reaches the speed of sound
C. The indicated airspeed when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
D. The aircraft’s mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound*
57. The static pressure is acting?

A. Only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
B. Only in the direction of the total pressure.
C. In all directions.*
D. Only in direction of the flow.
Basic aerodynamics: (Oxford & KW)
58. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:
A. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases
B. The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases
C. The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases
D. The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases*
59. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

A. The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
B. The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase
C. The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will decrease*
D. The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
60. When considering a streamlined airflow, which of the following statements is correct:
1 a resultant decrease in static pressure is indicated by streamlines shown close together
2 an increase in velocity is indicated by streamlines shown close together
3 accelerating airflow with a resultant decreasing static pressure is indicated by converging streamlines
4 diverging streamlines indicate decelerating airflow with a resultant increasing static pressure
A. 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4*
61. If the pressure on one side of a surface is lower than on the other side:
A. A force per unit area will exist, acting in the direction of the lower pressure*
B. No force will be generated, other than drag
C. A force will be generated, acting in the direction of the higher pressure
D. The pressure will leak around the sides of the surface, cancelling-out any pressure differential
62. When considering a streamtube, which of the following statements is correct:

1 different sizes of streamtube are manufactured to match the wing span of the aircraft to which they will be fitted
2 a streamtube is a concept to aid understanding of aerodynamic force generation
3 there is no flow into or out of the streamtube through the “walls”, only flow along the tube
4 a streamtube is an imaginary tube made-up of streamlines
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4*
D. 1, 2 and 3
63. At flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound, the following will be insignificant:
A. Changes in static pressure due to temperature
B. Changes in density due to static pressure
C. Changes in density due to dynamic pressure*
D. Changes in static pressure due to kinetic energy
64. In accordance with the principle of continuity:

1 air accelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is reduced
2 when air accelerates the density of air in a streamline flow is increased
3 air decelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is increased
4 changes in cross-sectional area of a streamline flow will affect the air velocity
Which of the preceding statements are true:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4*
65. In accordance with bernoulli’s theorem:

1 if a streamline flow of air decelerates, its kinetic energy will decrease and the static pressure will increase
2 if a streamline flow of air accelerates, its kinetic energy will increase and the static pressure will decrease
3 if a streamline flow of air is accelerated, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will increase
4 if a streamline flow of air is decelerated, its dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
Combination of correct statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4*
D. 3 and 4
66. The statement, “energy and mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one form to another”, refers
to:
A. Bernoulli’s theorem
B. The equation of kinetic energy
C. The principle of continuity*
D. Bernoulli’s principle of continuity
67. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed flow.
Ii. The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed flow.
A. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
B. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.
C. I. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed flow.
Ii. The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed flow.
I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed flow.
Ii. The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed flow.
A. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.
B. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
70. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which of the following statements is correct?
I. The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat.
I. The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat.
A. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
B. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.*
Subsonic airflow: (Oxford & KW)
71. With reference to aerofoil section terminology, which of the following statements is true:
1 the chord line is a line joining the centre of curvature of the leading edge to the centre of the trailing edge, equidistant from
the top and bottom surface of the aerofoil.
2 the angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line and the horizontal datum of the aircraft.
3 the angle between the chord line and the relative airflow is called the aerodynamic incidence or angle of attack.
4 the thickness/chord ratio is the maximum thickness of the aerofoil as a percentage of the chord; the location of maximum
thickness is measured as a percentage of the chord aft of the leading edge.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4*
D. 2 and 4
72. The definition of lift is:

A. The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
B. The aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil
C. The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
D. The aerodynamic force which acts at 90° to the relative airflow*
73. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
A. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
B. Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
C. Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.*
D. Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
74. On an aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
A. Flight path.*
B. Longitudinal axis.
C. Chord line.
D. Aerofoil section upper surface.
75. When the angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:
A. Have very limited movement.
B. Move aft along the aerofoil surface.
C. Remain unaffected.*
D. Move forward to the leading edge.
76. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?

A. The increased impact of the relative wind on an aerofoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected
downward.
B. The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the static pressure, thus creating a
greater pressure differential between the upper and lower surface.*
C. The increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag.
D. Increasing speed decreases drag.
77. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift acts is the:
A. Midpoint of the chord.
B. Centre of gravity.
C. Centre of pressure.*
D. Aerodynamic centre.
78. The angle between the chord line of the aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as:
A. The angle of attack.
B. The angle of incidence.*
C. Dihedral.
D. Sweep back.
79. The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil section and the relative wind is known as the angle of:
A. Incidence.
B. Lift.
C. Attack.*
D. Sweepback
80. A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an aerofoil section and equidistant at all points from the upper
and lower contours is called the:
A. Chord line.
B. Camber.
C. Mean camber line.*
D. Longitudinal axis.
81. At zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a symmetrical aerofoil section would be:
A. Greater than atmospheric pressure.
B. Equal to atmospheric pressure.
C. Less than atmospheric pressure.*
D. Nonexistent.
82. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section directly controls:

A. Amount of airflow above and below the section.
B. Angle of incidence of the section.
C. Distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the section.*
D. The angle relative to the horizontal datum
83. When the angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:
A. Have very little movement.
B. Move forward along the chord line.*
C. Remain unaffected.
D. Move back along the chord
84. The term "angle of attack'' is defined as the angle:

A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the section.
B. Between the section chord line and the relative wind.*
C. Between the aeroplane's climb angle and the horizon.
D. Formed by the leading edge of the section and the relative airflow.
85. Which of the following statements is true:

1 relative airflow, free stream flow, relative wind and aircraft flight path are parallel.
2 aircraft flight path, relative airflow, relative wind and free stream flow are parallel, but the aircraft flight path is opposite in
direction.
3 the pressure, temperature and relative velocity of the free stream flow are unaffected by the presence of the aircraft.
4 the relative wind is produced by the aircraft moving through the air.
5 the direction of flight is parallel with and opposite to the relative airflow.
A. 5 only
B. 3, 4 and 5
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5*
86. Which of the following statements is correct:

1 maximum camber is the maximum distance between the top and bottom surface of an aerofoil section.
2 the thickness/chord ratio is expressed as a percentage of the chord.
3 it is easier for air to flow over a well-rounded leading edge radius than a sharp leading edge.
4 two dimensional airflow assumes a wing with the same aerofoil section along its entire span, with no spanwise pressure
differential.
5 air flowing towards the lower pressure of the upper surface is called upwash.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5*
D. 1 and 5
87. When considering an aerofoil section at a constant angle of attack, which of the following statements is true:
A. If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side, a pressure differential will exist.*
B. If dynamic pressure is increased, the pressure differential will decrease.
C. The pressure differential will increase if the dynamic pressure is decreased
D. Dynamic pressure and pressure differential are not related.
88. Considering an aerofoil section subject to a constant dynamic pressure, which of the following statements is correct:
A. If the angle of attack is increased from 4° to 14° the pressure differential will not change but lift will be greater due to
increased dynamic pressure acting on the lower surface.
B. Up to about 16°, increasing the angle of attack will increase the pressure differential between the top and bottom surface
of the aerofoil.*
C. Changing the angle of attack does not affect the pressure differential, only changes in dynamic pressure affect the pressure
differential.
D. Up to about 16°, increasing the angle of attack decreases the pressure differential between the top and bottom surface of
the aerofoil section.
89. When considering the effect of changing angle of attack on the pitching moment of an aerofoil, which of the following
statements is correct:
1 at ‘normal’ angles of attack the pitching moment is nose up.
2 the pitching moment about the aerodynamic centre is constant at >normal angles of attack.
3 the aerodynamic centre is located approximately at the 25% chord point.
4 the moment about the ac is a product of the distance between ac and cp and magnitude of the lift force.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 4 only
C. 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4*
90. Ice contamination of the leading portion of the aerofoil has which of the following consequences:
1 the profile of the leading portion of the surface can be changed, preventing normal acceleration of the airflow and
substantially reducing the magnitude of the lift force.
2 form (pressure) drag will be increased because of the increased frontal area of the aerofoil section.
3 loss of lift will have a greater effect than an increase in form (pressure) drag.
4 at ‘normal’ angles of attack lift can be lost entirely if enough ice accumulates.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4*
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
91. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects the location of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical
aerofoil section?
A. Is at approximately 50% chord irrespective of angle of attack
B. Moves forward when the angle of attack decreases.
C. Moves backward when the angle of attack increases.
D. Is at approximately 25% chord irrespective of angle of attack*
92. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects the location of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical
aerofoil section?
A. Is independent of angle of attack.*
B. Is at approximately 50% chord irrespective of angle of attack
C. Moves forward when the angle of attack decreases.
D. Moves backward when the angle of attack increases.
93. The lift coefficient cl versus angle of attack curve of a symmetrical aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis of the
graph?
A. To the left of the origin.
B. To the right of the origin.
C. At the origin.*
D. Nowhere.
94. The lift coefficient cl versus angle of attack curve of a negatively cambered aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis
of the graph?
A. To the right of the origin.*
B. To the left of the origin.
C. At the origin.
D. Nowhere.
95. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, which body will have the highest pressure
drag.
A. Body 1.
B. Body 2.*
C. Body 3.
D. Body 4.
96. Regarding a symmetrical aerofoil, which statements are correct or incorrect?

The angle of attack is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero.
The pitching moment is zero when the lift coefficient is zero.
A. I. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.
B. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
C. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.*
97. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which of these statements is correct?

I. The angle of attack is zero when the lift coefficient is zero.
Ii. A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient is zero.
A. I. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.*
C. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
98. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil, which statements are correct or incorrect?
I the angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
Ii a nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient is zero.
A. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.*
C. 1. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.
D. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.
99. Regarding a symmetrical aerofoil, which statements are correct or incorrect?

I. The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
Ii. A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient is zero.
A. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
B. 1. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
C. 1. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.
100. Regarding a symmetrical aero foil, which statements are correct or incorrect?
I. The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
Ii. A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient is zero.
A. 1. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
B. 1. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
101. Which statement is correct?

I. Stall speeds are determined with the cg at the forward limit.
Ii. Minimum control speeds are determined with the cg at the forward limit.
A. 1. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.*
B. 1. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
C. 1.is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
102. Assuming no flow separation, which statement about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are
correct or incorrect?
I. The stagnation point moves up.
Ii. The point of lowest static pressure move forward.
B. I. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.*
103. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack
decreases are correct or incorrect?
I. The stagnation point moves up.
Ii the point of lowest static pressure moves aft.
A. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.*
B. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
104. Assuming isa conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at the same
angle of attack at two different altitudes, the?
A. IAS is lower at the lower altitude.
B. IAS is higher at the lower altitude.
C. TAS is lower at the lower altitude.*
D. TAS is higher at the lower altitude.
105. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

A. The mass of an object depends on the acceleration due to gravity.
B. The weight of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.
C. In the sj system the unit of measurement of weight is the newton.*
D. In the si system the unit of measurement of weight is the kilogram.
106. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?

A. Increasing forward sweep increases stall speed.*
B. Increasing forward sweep/decreases stall speed.
C. Increasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
D. Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
107. The point on the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of drag is?
A. Point 4.
B. Point 1.
C. Point 3.
D. Point 2. *
108. The point on the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of drag coefficient is?
A. Point 1.*
B. Point 2.
C. Point 3.
D. Point 4.
109. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load factor diagram originate from a point where?
A. Speed = va, load factor +1.
B. Speed = vs, load factor 0.
C. Speed = 0, load factor 0.*
D. Speed = 0, load factor +1.
110. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct?

A. The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1, but will not become negative.
B. Vb is the design speed for maximum gust intensity.*
C. The load factor in turbulence cannot exceed the ultimate load factor.
D. In severe turbulence, speed should be reduced to approximately 1.2vs.
111. The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between?
A. The chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.
B. The chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.*
C. The chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
D. The fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
112. The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the?
A. Bottom surface and the chord line.
B. Chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.*
C. Bottom surface and the horizontal.
D. Bottom surface and the relative airflow.
113. Which one of the following statements about bernoulli's theorem is correct?
A. The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
B. The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.*
C. The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
D. The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
114. The lift formula is?

A. L=w.
B. L=cl2rhov2s.
C. L=n w.
D. L= cl ½ rho v2 s.*
115. The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and?
A. Aeroplane heading.
B. Principal direction of propeller blade.
C. Local air speed vector.*
D. Direction of propeller axis.
116. In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static
pressure (i) will ...and the velocity _(ii) will ... ?
A. (i) decrease, (ii) increase.*
B (i) increase, (ii) increase.
C. (i) increase, (ii) decrease.
D (i) increase, (ii) decrease.
117. The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is the?
A. Same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.
B. Angle of attack.*
C. Glide path angle.
D. Climb path angle.
118. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where?

A. Pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.*
B. Change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.
C. Aerodynamic forces are constant.
D. The aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.
119. Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when ci=o is?
A. Equal to zero.
B. Infinite.
C. Positive (pitch-up).
D. Negative (pitch-down).*
120. On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which ci=0 is?
A. Negative (pitch-down).
B. Zero.*
C. Equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.
D. Positive (pitch-up).
121. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the?
A. Climb path angle.
B. Angle of incidence.*
C. Glide path angle.
D. Angle of attack.
122. Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is v. An increase of temperature of the
stream at constant value of v will?
A. Increase the mass flow.
B. Not affect the mass flow.
C. Increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.
D. Decrease the mass flow.*
123. The CL - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the CL - alpha graph?
A. In the origin.
B. Below the origin.
C. Nowhere.
D. Above the origin.*
124. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

A. Turbulent boundary layer is thinner than laminar boundary layer.
B. Turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than laminar.
C. Turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than laminar.
D. Turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than laminar.*
125. Bernoulli's equation can be written as? (pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)
A. Pt = q - ps.
B. Pt = ps / q.
C. Pt=ps+q.*
D. Pt = ps - q.
126. Dihedral of the wing is?

A. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.
B. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
C. The angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.*
D. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.
127. The difference between las and tas will?

A. Decrease at increasing speed.
B. Decrease at decreasing altitude.*
C. Increase at decreasing temperature.
D. Increase at increasing air density.
128. How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind
it?
A. Density will increase, temperature will increase.*
B. Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
C. Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
D. Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.

A. The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
B. The stagnation point is always situated on the chord line, the centre of pressure is not.
C. As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards.*
D. The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.
130. "A straight line connecting the leading edge and the trailing edge of an aerofoil". This definition is applicable for?
A. The upper camber line.
B. The camber line.
C. The chord line.*
D. The mean aerodynamic chord line.
131. If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about?
A. The centre of gravity.*
B. The neutral point of the aeroplane.
C. The aerodynamic centre of the wing.
D. The centre of pressure of the wing.
132. Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct?
1. The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
2. The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
A. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
B. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.*
C. 1 and 2 are correct.
D. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
133. An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is?
A. Lighter wing construction.
B. Less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.*
C. Easier maintenance of the engines.
D. A wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
134. The aspect ratio of the wing?

A. Is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.
B. Is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.
C. Is the ratio between chord and root chord.
D. Is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.*
135. Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct?

A. Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° centigrade.
B. Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.*
C. Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
D. Is independent of altitude.
136. The induced angle of attack is the result of?

A. Downwash due to tip vortices.*
B. A large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.
C. Downwash due to flow separation.
D. Change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.
137. The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as?
A. The angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
B. The angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing.
C. The angle for maximum lift/drag ratio.
D. The angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow.*
138. The terms "q" and "s" in the lift formula are?
A. Static pressure and wing surface area.
B. Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
C. Dynamic pressure and the area of the wing.*
D. Square root of surface and wing loading.
139. Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack?
A. CL is much lower than CD.
B. CL is much greater than CD.*
C. CL has approximately the same value as CD.
D. CL is lower than CD.
140. Which statement is correct about the ci and angle of attack?

A. For an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, ci = 0.
B. For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, ci =0.*
C. For a symmetric aero foil, if angle of attack = 0, ci is not equal to 0.
D. For an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, ci =0.
141. The mean aerodynamic chord (mac) for a given wing of any planform is?
A. The chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift.*
B. The chord of a large rectangular wing.
C. The average chord of the actual aeroplane.
D. The wing area divided by the wing span.
142. The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air 'pressure on top and beneath the wing and its
direction of movement goes from?
A. The top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge.
B. Beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge.
C. The top to beneath the wing via the leading edge.
D. Beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip.*
143. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
A. Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer.*
B. Friction drag will be equal in both types of layers.
C. Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer.
D. Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer.
144. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
A. The mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases.
B. The boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases.
C. The mean speed and friction drag increases.*
D. The boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases.
145. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in?

A. Degrees cross section tail angle.
B. % chord.*
C. Camber.
D. Metres.
146. The (subsonic) static pressure?

A. Increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
B. Decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.*
C. Is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
D. Is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
147. The total pressure is?

A. Can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
B. Static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.*
C. Static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
D. ½ rho v2.
148. A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which?

A. The vortices are weak.
B. The velocity is constant.
C. The temperature varies constantly.
D. No velocity components exist, normal to the surface.*
149. The boundary layer of a wing is caused by?

A. The normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
B. A turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
C. Suction at the upper wing side.
D. A layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction.*
150. The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is?
A. The point of maximum thickness of the wing.
B. The suction point of the wing.
C. The centre of pressure.*
D. The c.g. Location.
151. The flight mach number is 0.8 and the tas is 400 kts. The speed of sound is?
A. 500 kts.*
B. 320 kts.
C. 480 kts.
D. 600 kts.
152. Load factor is?

A. Lift/weight.*
B. Weight/lift.
C. Libank angle.
D. Wing loading.
153. "A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil". This
definition is applicable for?
A. The upper camber line.
B. The camber line.*
C. The chord line.
D. The mean aerodynamic chord line.
154. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence?
A. Straight wings.
B. Wing dihedral.
C. Winglets.
D. Swept wings.*
155. High aspect ratio, as compared with low aspect ratio, has the effect of?
A. Increasing lift and drag.
B. Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack.
C. Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack.*
D. Increasing lift and critical angle of attack.
156. An aeroplane is descending at a constant mach number from fl 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?
A. It remains constant.
B. It increases as temperature increases.*
C. It decreases as pressure increases.
D. It decreases as altitude decreases.
157. An aeroplane per orms a continuous descent with 160 kts las and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition?
A. Lift is less than drag.
B. Drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward.
C. Weight is greater than lift.*
D. Lift is equal to weight.
158. Lift and drag on an aerofoil are respectively vertical and parallel to the?
A. Horizon.
B. Relative wind/airflow.*
C. Chord line.
D. Longitudinal axis.
159. Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow
velocities occur?
A. In the stagnation point.
B. Upper side.*
C. Lower side.
D. In front of the stagnation point.
160. Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
A. Laminar boundary layer
B. No difference.
C. Transition boundary layer.
D. Turbulent boundary layer.*
161. If the continuity equation is applicable, what happens to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube
changes? (low speed, subsonic incompressible flow).
A. Rho1 = Rho2.*
B. Rho1 < Rho2.
C. Rho1 > Rho2.
D. The density depends on the change of the tube area.
162. The continuity equation states, if the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow
inside is?
A. Sonic.
B. Decreasing.*
C. Not changing.
D. Increasing.
Lift & Drag: (Oxford, KW) Oxford Drag to be added.
163. To maintain altitude, what must be done as indicated air speed (ias) is reduced?
A. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag.
B. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.*
C. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
D. Reduce thrust.
164. If more lift force is required because of greater operating weight, what must be done to fly at the angle of attack
which corresponds to clmax:
A. Increase the angle of attack.
B. Nothing, the angle of attack for cl max is constant.
C. It is impossible to fly at the angle of attack that corresponds to cl max.
D. Increase the indicated air speed (ias).*
165. Which of the following statements is correct:

1 to generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in ias must be accompanied by a change in angle of attack.
2 for a constant lift force, each ias requires a specific angle of attack.
3 minimum ias is determined by cl max.
4 the greater the operating weight, the higher the minimum ias.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4*
166. What effect does landing at high altitude airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to
temperature, wind, and aeroplane weight:
A. Higher than at low altitude.*
B. The same as at low altitude.
C. Lower than at low altitude.
D. Dynamic pressure will be the same at any altitude.
167. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?
A. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
B. An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack.*
C. An increase in dynamic stability.
D. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack.
168. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed
is doubled. Lift will be:
A. Two times greater.
B. Four times greater.*
C. The same.
D. One quarter.
169. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased:
A. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.*
B. The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
D. A constant angle of attack and true air speed.
170. How can an aeroplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?
A. A lower angle of attack.*
B. A higher angle of attack.
C. The same angle of attack.
D. The same angle of attack, but a lower ias.
171. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s:
A. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
B. Lift, gross weight, and drag.
C. Lift, airspeed, and drag.*
D. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.
172. Which flight conditions of a large jet aeroplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of
the greatest strength?
A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.*
B. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
C. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
D. Weight, gear and flaps make no difference.
173. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:
A. Using high power settings.
B. Operating at high airspeeds.
C. Developing lift.*
D. Operating at high altitude.
174. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

A. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
B. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.*
C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
D. Dissipate very slowly when the surface wind is strong.
175. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip, when viewed from the rear?
A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B. Counterclockwise.
C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.*
D. Outward, downward and around the wingtip.
176. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?
A. Wake turbulence behind a propeller‑driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the
formation of vortices.
B. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft.
C. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.*
D. Vortices can be avoided by flying downwind of, and below the flight path of the generating aircraft.
177. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that has just taken
off?
A. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C. A crosswind will move both vortices clear of the runway.
D. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.*
178. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet aeroplane during takeoff, the pilot should:
A. Remain below the flightpath of the jet aeroplane.
B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane’s flightpath.*
C. Lift off at a point well past the jet aeroplane’s flightpath.
D. Remain below and downwind of the jet aeroplane’s flightpath.
179. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A. Light quartering headwind.
B. Light quartering tailwind.*
C. Direct tailwind.
D. Strong, direct crosswind.
180. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off:
A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
C. Before the point where the jet touched down and on the downwind edge of the runway.
D. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.*
181. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and:
A. Increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.*
D. An aircraft will always stall at the same indicated airspeed.
182. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:

A. Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
B. Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.*
C. Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an aerofoil, which acts perpendicular to the
mean camber.
D. Force acting parallel with the relative wind and in the opposite direction.
183. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

A. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
B. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
C. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.*
D. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient.
184. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:

A. Angle of incidence of the wing.
B. Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.*
C. Amount of airflow above and below the wing.
D. Dynamic pressure acting in the airflow.
185. In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at
the higher speed will be:
A. The same as at the lower speed.
B. Two times greater than at the lower speed.
C. Four times greater than at the lower speed.*
D. One quarter as much.
186. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
A. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing’s surface.
B. Vacuum below the wing’s surface and greater air pressure above the wing’s surface.
C. Higher air pressure below the wing’s surface and lower air pressure above the wing’s surface.*
D. Higher pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
187. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
A. Camber line.
B. Longitudinal axis.
C. Chord line.
D. Flightpath.*
188. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady‑state level flight?
A. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
B. These forces are equal.*
C. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
D. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal.
189. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:
A. Will be unchanged, but ground speed will be faster.*
B. Will be higher, but ground speed will be unchanged.
C. Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
D. Should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed.
190. An aeroplane leaving ground effect will:

A. Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
B. Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
C. Experience a reduction in induced drag and require a smaller angle of attack
D. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.*
191. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:
A. Increase, and induced drag will increase.
B. Increase, and induced drag will decrease.*
C. Decrease, and induced drag will increase.
D. Decrease and induced drag will decrease.
192. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight:
A. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain
altitude.*
B. An aerofoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in
speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
C. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
D. The lift force must be exactly equal to the drag force.
193. At a given indicated air speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag:
A. Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
B. Lift and drag will increase.
C. Lift and drag will decrease.
D. Lift and drag will remain the same.*
194. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to
support the weight of the aircraft:
A. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
B. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.*
C. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
D. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately.
195. Given that:

Aircraft a. Wingspan: 51 m average wing chord: 4 m
Aircraft b. Wingspan: 48 m average wing chord: 3.5 m
Determine the correct aspect ratio and wing area.
A. Aircraft a has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a larger wing area than aircraft b.
B. Aircraft b has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft a.*
C. Aircraft b has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft a.
D. Aircraft a has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft b.
196. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as the ratio of the:

A. Wingspan to the wing root.
B. Square of the chord to the wing span.
C. Wing span to the average chord.*
D. Square of the wing area to the span.
197. What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased:
A. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure.*
B. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack.
C. Increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight.
D. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the decrease in drag.
198. Take-off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in:
A. A longer take-off run.
B. A higher than standard ias before liftoff.
C. A higher tas for the same lift off ias.
D. A shorter take off run because of the lower tas required for the same ias.*
199. Which of the following statements about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane
is correct?
I. Parasite drag increases.
Ii. Induced drag decreases.
B.i. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.
D. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.*
200. Which of the following statements about the effects on drag of removal of external tip
Tanks from the wings of an aeroplane is correct?
I. Parasite drag decreases.
Ii. Induced drag increases.
201. Which of the following statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
I assuming no flow separation, the strength of the wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases.
Ii the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases.
202. Which of the following statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
I. Assuming no flow separation, the strength of the wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases.
Ii. The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio decreases.
C. I. Is correct. Ii. Is correct.
203. Which of the following statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
I. A rectangular span wise lift distribution generates more induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution.
Ii. Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio.
I. A induced drag increases as angle of attack increases.
Ii. At constant load factor, induced drag increases with increasing aeroplane mass.
I. A induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases.
Ii. At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass.
206. The lift of an aeroplane of weight w in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately?
A. Wcos.gamma.*
B. W(i-sin.gamma).
C. W(i-tan.gamma).
D. Wicos.gamma.
207. On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is
increased, the centre of pressure will (assume
A conventional transport aeroplane)?
A. Remain unaffected.
B. Move forward.*
C. Move aft.
D. Remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
208. The lift coefficient (cl) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, and an increase in angle of attack of 1
degree increases cl by 0.1. If a vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees, the load factor will be?
A. 1.71.*
B. 0.74.
C. 1.49.
D. 2.49.
209. Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (cdi) is the ratio of?
A. Cl2 and s (wing surface)
B. Cl2 and ar (aspect ratio).*
C. Cl and cd.
D. Cl and b (wing span).
210. When the c.g. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1
will be?
A. Larger.*
B. Smaller.
C. Unchanged.
D. Dependent on trim position.
211. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Di is proportional to 1 / (easi
B. Di is proportional to 1 / (ias)2
C. Di is proportional to 1 / (ras)2
D. Di is proportional to 1 / (tasi
212. What effect will increasing aircraft weight have on minimum drag speed (vmd) and speed stability?
A. Increase, increase.
B. Increase, decrease.*
C. Decrease, increase.
D. Decrease, decrease.
213. Complete the following statement. As airspeed changes from vmoto clmax ................ Increases and decreases.
A. Dp, di.
B. Di, dp*
C. Dtotal, dp
D. D total, di
214. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with
jet engines, the other one with corotating propellers?
A. The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
B. The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
C. Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
D. More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.*
215. The lift coefficient (cl) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will
increase cl by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be?
A. 1.45.*
B. 0.9.
C. 0.45.
D. 1.9.
216. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity andadj ustable stabiliser position?
A. A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane.*
B. Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is
dependent on flap position only.
C. A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane.
D. At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum nose down to obtain maximum elevator
authority at take off rotation.
217. Lift is generated when?

A. A certain mass of air is accelerated downwards.
B. The shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered.
C. An aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream.
D. A certain mass of air is retarded.
218. The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the?
A. Induced drag is lowest.
B. Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.*
C. Parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
D. Induced drag is equal to zero.
219. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the las is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be?
A. X 2.0.
B. X 0.5.
C. X 4.0.
D. X 0.25.*
220. Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
A. The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
B. The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the
wing in wing tip direction.*
C. Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
D. The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction.
221. Increase of wing loading will?

A. Decrease the minimum gliding angle.
B. Increase clmax.
C. Decrease take-off speeds.
D. Increase the stall speeds.*
222. Which of the following causes induced drag (d})?

A. Shock waves above and below the wing.
B. Friction due to the air passing over the wing.
C. Rotating airflow caused by wing tip vortices.*
D. The upwash of air caused by wingtip vortices.
223. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration is?
A. 4.4.*
B. 2.5.
C. 3.8.
D. 6.0.
224. Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (las and all other factors of importance remaining
constant) ?
1. The gust load increases, when the weight decreases.
2. The gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
A. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
B. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.*
C. 1 and 2 are correct.
D. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
225. If indicated airspeed is maintained constant while air density decreases by half what will be the effect on total drag?
A. Increase by a factor of 2.
B. Decrease by a factor of 2.
C. Increase by a factor of 4.
D. Remain unchanged.*
226. Entering ground effect causes?

A. Low pressure below the wings reduces lift.
B. Downwash is increased.
C. Downwash is reduced.*
D. The aircraft slows down.
227. Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable forward
centre of gravity limit, while the ths (trimmable horizontal stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable and
(aeroplane nose down) position.
A. The rotation will require extra stick force.*
B. If the ths position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system will be activated.
C. Early nose wheel raising will take place.
D. Nothing special will happen.
228. Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)?
A. Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max endurance.
B. The gliding angle is minimum.*
C. The cl/cd ratio is minimum.
D. Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
229. From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read?
A. The minimum cl/cd ratio and the minimum drag.
B. The maximum cllcd ratio and maximum lift coefficient.*
C. The minimum drag and the maximum lift.
D. The minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
230. How does the drag produced by a turbulent boundary layer compare with that of a laminar one?
A. Identical.
B. Greater friction drag.*
C. Less friction drag.
D. Less wave drag.
231. What is the principal benefit of a turbulent boundary layer?

A. Less friction drag.
B. Less form drag.
C. Later separation.*
D. Earlier transition.
232. The induced drag is the result of?

A. Downwash due to tip vortices.*
B. A large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.
C. Downwash due to flow separation.
D. Change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.
233. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is?
A. 1.5.
B. 2.5.
C. 3.75.
D. 2.0.*
234. Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being
constant)?
1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor.
2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor.
A. 1 and 2 are correct.*
B. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
C. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
235. What will happen in ground effect?

A. The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases.
B. An increase in strength of the wing tip vortices.
C. A significant increase in thrust required.
D. The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases*
236. The induced drag?

A. Increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
B. Increases as the lift coefficient increases.*
C. Increases as the aspect ratio increases.
D. Has no relation to the lift coefficient.
237. The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between?

A. Angle of attack and cl.
B. Cd and angle of attack.
C. Cl and cd.*
D. Tas and stall speed.
238. Which of the following causes induced drag (di)?

A. Shock waves above and below the wing.
B. Friction due to the air passing over the wing.
C. Downwash of airflow over the trailing edge caused by wing tip vortices.*
D. Upwash of airflow over the trailing edge caused by wingtip vortices.
239. In what ways are di and dp proportional to v?

A. Inversely.
B. V3 1/v3
2
C. V 1/v2
D. 1/v2 v2 *
240. What happens to total drag when increasing speed from v2 to vmd?
A. Decreases approximately with the square of speed.
B. Increases approximately with the square of speed.
C. Decreases approximately with the inverse of the square of speed.*
D. Remains constant.
241. If las decreases by a factor of 5 at constant angle of attack how would drag vary?
A. 5.
B. 25.*
C. 35.
D. 75.
242. If CL increased by a factor of 5 how would cdi vary?

A. 1/5.
B. 5.
C. 1/25.
D. 25.*
243. If aspect ratio increased by a factor of 2 how would cdi vary?

A. 1/2.*
B. 2.
C. 1/4.
D. 4.
244. How does total drag vary with air density?

A. Constant.
B. Directly.*
C. Inversely.
D. Conversely.
245. How does laminar boundary layer compare with turbulent boundary layer?
A. Thinner.*
B. Thicker.
C. Faster.
D. The same.
246. How does a vortex generator energise the boundary layer?

A. Mixes it with free stream air.*
B. Mixes it with laminar boundary layer.
C. Mixes it with turbulent boundary layer.
D. Prevents shock waves.
247. The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its
direction of movement goes from?
B. The top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge.
B. Beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge.
C. The top to beneath the wing via the leading edge.
D. Beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip.*
248. Induced drag may be reduced by?

A. A decrease of the aspect ratio.
B. The use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil.
C. An increase in aspect ratio.*
D. An increase in the taper ratio of the wing.
249. What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes?
A. Induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing weight.
B. Induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing weight.
C. Induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with increasing weight.
D. Induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with decreasing weight.*
250. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land wiii occur?
A. When a higher than normal angle of attack is used.
B. At a speed approaching the stall.
C. When the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface.*
D. When the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface.
251. Why does aspect ratio affect wingtip vortex strength?

A. Shorter tip chord length.*
B. Longer tip chord length..
C. Shorter root chord length.
D. Higher energy airflow.
252. At low angles of attack the major component of total drag is drag?
A. Induced.
B. Vortex.
C. Shock.
D. Profile.*
253. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
A. Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer.*
B. Friction drag will be equal in both types of layers.
C. Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer.
D. Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer.
254. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
A. The mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases.
B. The boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases.
C. The mean speed and friction drag increases.*
D. The boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases.
255. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The
aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor?
A. 1.4.
B. 2.*
C. 4.
D. 8.
256. Which of these statements about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack are correct or
incorrect?
I the lift coefficient cl decreases.
Ii. The induced drag coefficient cdi remains constant.
257. Which of the following statements about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?
I. The downwash angle increases.
Ii. The induced angle of attack increases.
258. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack is correct?
Ii the induced drag coefficient cdi increases.
259. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?

I the down wash angle decreases.
Ii the induced angle of attack decreases.
260. Assuming constant las, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect?

A. Downwash increases.*
B. Downwash does not change.
C. Induced drag decreases.
D. The effective angle of attack increases.
261. Which of these statements about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack is correct?
I the lift coefficient cl remains constant.
C. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
262. Which of these statements about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack is correct?
C. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.*
263. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, are correct or incorrect?
I the lift coefficient cl increases.
Ii the induced drag coefficient cdi remains constant.
C. I. Is correct. Ii. Is incorrect.*
264. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, are correct or incorrect?
I the lift coefficient cl increases.
incorrect?
I the lift coefficient cl remains constant.
Ii the induced drag coefficient cdi decreases.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.*
incorrect?
Ii the induced drag coefficient cdi decreases.
Stall: (Oxford, KW)
267. An aeroplane will stall at the same:

A. Angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
B. Airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
C. Angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon*
D. Indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor
268. A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is:
a. 4°
b. 16°*
c. 30°
d. 45°
269. If the aircraft weight is increased without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack will:
A. Remain the same.*
B. Decrease.
C. Increase.
D. The position of the CG does not affect the stall speed.
270. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

A. Lift and drag will both decrease.
B. Lift will decrease and drag will increase.*
C. Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
D. Lift and drag will both increase.
271. The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls:

A. Will occur at smaller angles of attack flying downwind than when flying upwind
B. Is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing
C. Is a function of speed and density altitude
D. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight*
272. An aircraft whose weight is 237402 N stalls at 132 kt. At a weight of 356,103 N it would stall at:
a. 88 kt
b. 162 kt*
c. 108 kt
d. 172 kt
273. For an aircraft with a 1g stalling speed of 60 kt IAS, the stalling speed in a steady 60° turn would be:
a. 43 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 84 kt*
d. 120 kt
274. For an aircraft in a steady turn the stalling speed would be:
A. The same as in level flight
B. At a lower speed than in level flight
C. At a higher speed than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack.
D. At a higher speed than in level flight and at the same angle of attack.*
275. Formation of ice on the wing leading edge will:

A. Not affect the stalling speed.
B. Cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a higher angle of attack.
C. Cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack.*
D. Cause the aircraft to stall at a lower speed.
276. Dividing lift by weight gives:

A. Wing loading
B. Lift/drag ratio
C. Aspect ratio
D. Load factor*
277. The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by:

A. Changes in air density
B. Variations in aeroplane loading*
C. Variations in flight altitude
D. Changes in pitch attitude
278. Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by:

A. Increasing the adverse pressure gradient
B. Increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
C. Distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
D. Increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer*
279. A stall inducer strip will:

A. Cause the wing to stall first at the root*
B. Cause the wing to stall at the tip first
C. Delay wing root stall
D. Re-energise the boundary layer at the wing root
280. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence:
A. Simultaneously across the whole span.
B. At the centre of the span.
C. At the root.
D. At the tip.*
281. Sweepback on a wing will:

A. Reduce induced drag at low speed.
B. Increase the tendency to tip stall.*
C. Reduce the tendency to tip stall.
D. Cause the stall to occur at a lower angle of attack.
282. The purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is:

A. To re-energise the boundary layer and prevent separation.
B. To control spanwise flow and delay tip stall.*
C. To generate a vortex over the upper surface of the wing.
D. To maintain a laminar boundary layer.
283. A wing with washout would have:

A. The tip chord less than the root chord.
B. The tip incidence less than the root incidence.*
C. The tip incidence greater than the root incidence.
D. The tip camber less than the root camber.
284. On an untapered wing without twist the downwash:

A. Increases from root to tip.*
B. Increases from tip to root.
C. Is constant across the span.
D. Is greatest at centre span, less at root and tip.
285. A wing of constant thickness which is not swept back:

A. Will stall at the tip first due to the increase in spanwise flow.
B. Could drop a wing at the stall due to the lack of any particular stall inducing characteristics.*
C. Will pitch nose down approaching the stall due to the forward movement of the centre of pressure.
D. Will stall evenly across the span.
286. Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by:

A. Increasing leading edge camber.
B. Delaying separation.*
C. Reducing the effective angle of attack.
D. Reducing span-wise flow.
287. A rectangular wing, when compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the:
A. Wing root providing adequate stall warning*
B. Wingtip providing inadequate stall warning
C. Wingtip providing adequate stall warning
D. Leading edge, where the wing root joins the fuselage
288. Vortex generators are used:

A. To reduce induced drag
B. To reduce boundary layer separation*
C. To induce a root stall
D. To counteract the effect of the wing-tip vortices.
289. A stick shaker is:

A. An overspeed warning device that operates at high Mach numbers.
B. An artificial stability device.
C. A device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning.*
D. A device to prevent a stall by giving a pitch down.
290. A stall warning device must be set to operate:

A. At the stalling speed.
B. At a speed just below the stalling speed.
C. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed.*
D. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed.
291. Just before the stall the wing leading edge stagnation point is positioned:
A. Above the stall warning vane
B. Below the stall warning vane*
C. On top of the stall warning vane
D. On top of the leading edge because of the extremely high angle of attack
292. A wing mounted stall warning detector vane would be situated:

A. On the upper surface at about mid chord.
B. On the lower surface at about mid chord.
C. At the leading edge on the lower surface.*
D. At the leading edge on the upper surface.
293. The input data to a stall warning device (e.g. stick shaker) system is:
a. angle of attack only.
b. angle of attack, and in some systems rate of change of angle of attack.*
c. airspeed only.
d. airspeed and sometimes rate of change of airspeed.
294. A stick pusher is:

A. A device to prevent an aircraft from stalling.*
B. A type of trim system.
C. A device to assist the pilot to move the controls at high speed.
D. A device which automatically compensates for pitch changes at high speed.
295. In a developed spin:

A. The angle of attack of both wings will be positive*
B. The angle of attack of both wings will be negative
C. The angle of attack of one wing will be positive and the other will be negative
D. The down going wing will be stalled and the up going wing will not be stalled
296. To recover from a spin, the elevators should be:

A. Moved up to increase the angle of attack
B. Moved down to reduce the angle of attack*
C. Set to neutral
D. Allowed to float
297. High speed buffet (shock stall) is caused by:

A. The boundary layer separating in front of a shockwave at high angles of attack
B. The boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave*
C. The shock wave striking the tail of the aircraft
D. The shock wave striking the fuselage
298. In a 30° bank level turn, the stall speed will be increased by:
A. 7%*
B. 30%
C. 1.07%
D. 15%
299. Heavy rain can increase the stall speed of an aircraft for which of the following reasons?
A. Water increases the viscosity of air
B. Heavy rain can block the pitot tube, giving false airspeed indications
C. The extra weight and distortion of the aerodynamic surfaces by the film of water*
D. The impact of heavy rain will slow the aircraft
300. If the tailplane is supplying a download and stalls due to contamination by ice:
A. The wing will stall and the aircraft will pitch-up due to the weight of the ice behind the aircraft CG
B. The increased weight on the tailplane due to the ice formation will pitch the aircraft nose up, which will stall the wing
C. Because it was supplying a download the aircraft will pitch nose up
D. The aircraft will pitch nose down*
301. Indications of an icing-induced stall can be:

1. An artificial stall warning device
2. Airspeed close to the normal stall speed
3. Violent roll oscillations
4. Airframe buffet
5. Violent wing drop
6. Extremely high rate of descent while in a ‘normal’ flight attitude
a. 1, 2, 4 and 5
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 1, 4 and 6
d. 3, 4, 5 and 6*
302. If a light single engine propeller aircraft is stalled, power-on, in a climbing turn to the left, which of the following is
the preferred recovery action?
A. Elevator stick forward, ailerons stick neutral, rudder to prevent wing drop.*
B. Elevator stick neutral, rudder neutral, ailerons to prevent wing drop, power to idle.
C. Elevator stick forward, ailerons and rudder to prevent wing drop.
D. Elevator stick neutral, rudder neutral, ailerons stick neutral, power to idle.
303. If the stick shaker activates on a swept wing jet transport aircraft immediately after take-off while turning, which of
the following statements contains the preferred course of action?
a. Decrease the angle of attack*
b. Increase thrust
c. Monitor the instruments to ensure it is not a spurious warning
d. Decrease the bank angle
304. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect?
I. The combination of a wing with sweepback and a t-tail make an aeroplane prone to deep stall.
Ii. A stick shaker system is fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stall characteristics.
305. Which of the following statements is correct?

I. A stick pusher activates at a higher angle of attack than a stick shaker.
Ii. A stick shaker prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further.
I a wing with forward sweep and a low horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall.
Ii a stick shaker system is fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits normal stall characteristics.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
I a wing with sweepback and a low horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall.
Ii an aeroplane with a canard is normally prone to deep stall.
D. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
I a wing with forward sweep and a low horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall.
Ii a stick pusher system can be fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stall characteristics.
309. Which statement are correct or incorrect?

I a stick pusher activates at a lower angle of attack than a stick shaker.
Ii a stick pusher prevents the pilot from increasing angle of attack further.
310. Stall speed (las) varies with?

A. Temperature.
B. Altitude (below approximately 10000 ft)
C. Weight.*
D. Density.
311. Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?

A. Decreasing forward sweep decreases stall speed.*
B. Decreasing forward sweep increases stall speed.
C. Decreasing wing anhedral increases stall speed.
D. Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
312. If va is 200 kts at a mass of 150000 kg, va at a mass of 242000 kg will be?
A. 163 kts.
B. 245 kts.
C. 345 kts.
D. 254 kts.*
313. Low speed pitch up is caused by the?
A. Wing tip vortex.
B. Mach trim system.
C. Spanwise flow on a swept back wing.*
D. Spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.
314. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon?
A. Is caused by wingtip stall.*
B. Never occurs, since a swept wing is a "remedy" to pitch up.
C. Is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
D. Is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
315. There are two types of boundary layer, laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent boundary
layer has over the laminar type is that?
A. It has less tendency to separate from the surface.*
B. It is thinner.
C. Skin friction drag is less.
D. Energy is less
316. For an aeroplane with one fixed value of va the following applies. Va is?
A. The speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at mtow.
B. The maximum speed in smooth air.
C. The speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum
manoeuvring limit load factor.
D. Just another symbol for the rough air speed
317. One disadvantage of swept back wings is its stalling characteristics. At the stall?
A. Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment.
B. Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch up moment.*
C. Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment.
D. Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose down moment.
318. Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows?
A. (1) increases (2) decreases.
B. (1) decreases (2) increases.*
C. (1) decreases (2) decreases.
D. (1) increases (2) increases.
319. When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed, which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a
percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (clmax) would be?
A. 77%.
B. 59%.*
C. 130%.
D. 169%.
320. Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start?
A. Lower side leading edge.
B. Upper side trailing edge.*
C. Upper side leading edge.
D. Lower side trailing edge.
321. Va is?
A. The maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.*
B. The maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
C. The speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
D. The speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
322. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (las)?
A. Increasing air density.
B. Increasing load factor.
C. Decreasing weight.*
D. Increasing altitude.
323. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?
A. All phases of the takeoff are equally critical.
B. The last part of the rotation.*
C. The take-off run.
D. During climb with all engines operating.
324. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is?
A. 200 kt.
B. 141 kt.*
C. 282 kt.
D. 70 kt.
325. Compared with stalling airspeed (vs) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is?
A. 1.20 vs.
B. 1.30 vs.
C. 1.12 vs.
D. Greater than vs.*
326. The stall speed?

A. Increases with the length of the wingspan.
B. Increases with an increased weight.*
C. Decreases with an increased weight.
D. Does not depend on weight.
327. The critical angle of attack?

A. Changes with an increase in gross weight.
B. Remains unchanged regardless of gross weight.*
C. Increases if the cg is moved forward.
D. Decreases if the cg is moved aft.
328. The following factors increase stall speed?

A. An increase in load factor, a forward c of g shift, decrease in thrust.*
B. A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c of g shift.
C. Increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
D. A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting.
329. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (las)?

A. Decreases.
B. Remains the same.
C. Decreases until the tropopause.
D. Increases.*
A. 163 kts.*
B. 245 kts.
C. 345 kts.
D. 254 kts.
331. When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed?
A. Decreases with increasing bank angle.
B. Increases with the load factor squared.
C. Increases with the square root of load factor.*
D. Increases with flap extension.
332. The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor?
A. 1.41.*
B. 1.07.
C.1.30.
D. 2.00.
333. The stall speed increases, when? (all other factors of importance being constant)
A. Minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10,000 ft.
B. Spoilers are selected from out to in.
C. Pulling up from a dive.*
D. Weight decreases.
334. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as?
A. The cas exceeds the power-on stall speed.
B. There is a nose-down attitude.
C. The angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.*
D. The las exceeds the power-on stall speed.
335. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wings in a stall is due to?
A. The wing tip stalling first.*
B. Aft movement of the centre of gravity.
C. Forward movement of the centre of gravity.
D. Wing root stalling first.
336. The stalling speed in las will change according to the following factors?
A. May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g.
Moves forward.*
B. May increase when the c.g. Moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine
located forward of the wing.
C. Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. Moves aft
D. Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn.
A. Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. Location.
B. Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn.
C. Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. Location.*
D. Decrease in a forward c.g. Location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located
forward of the wing.
A. Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. Location.
B. Will decrease with a forward c.g. Location, lower altitude and due to the slipstream from a propeller on an engine located
forward of the wing.
C. Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps.
D. May increase in turbulence and will increase when banking in a turn.*
339. What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of?

A. Spoilers.
B. Fuselage mounted speed brakes.
C. Slats.*
D. Flaps.
340. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 kts cas at its gross weight of 6850 ibs. What is the stall speed when the weight is
5000 ibs?
A. 91 kts cas.
B. 78 kts cas.
C. 57 kts cas.
D. 67 kts cas.*
341. A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a mach number that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In
order to increase the buffet margin to o.4g incremental the pilot must?
A. Fly at a larger angle of attack.
B. Fly at a lower altitude and the same mach number.*
C. Extend the flaps to the first selection.
D. Fly at a higher mach number.
342. Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
A. Swept wings.*
B. A low horizontal tail.
C. At-tail.
D. A canard wing.
343. By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of
45°?
A. 52%.
B. 19%.*
C. 31%.
D. 41%.
344. An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a
load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is?
A. 141 kt.
B. 82 kt.
C. 150 kt.
D. 122 kt.*
A. 163 kts.
B. 245 kts.*
C. 345 kts.
D. 254 kts.
346. Compared with the trailing edge flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration
is?
A. Unchanged.
B. Smaiier or larger depending on flap deflection.
C. Smaller.*
D. Larger.
347. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the?
A. Centre of lift.
B. Transition region.
C. Centre of gravity.
D. Stagnation point.*
348. By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level
flight?
A. 52%.
B. 41%.*
C. 19%.
D. 31%.
349. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
A. Slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.
B. Slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
C. Flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.*
D. Clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.
350. In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed vs will be?
A. N greater than 1, vs higher than in straight and level flight.*
B. N smaller than 1, vs lower than in straight and level flight.
C. N greater than 1, vs lower than in straight and level flight.
D. N smaller than 1, vs higher than in straight and level flight.
351. Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics
include?
A. Excessive wing drop and deep stall.*
B. Pitch down and yaw.
C. Pitch down and minor wing drop.
D. Pitch down and increase in speed.
352. The function of the stick pusher is?

A. To activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack.*
B. To activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.
C. To vibrate the controls.
D. To pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.
353. A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall
behaviour can be?
A. Tendency to increase speed after initial stall.
B. Nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.*
C. Nose down tendency.
D. Increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.
354. Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?
A. Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines.
B. Swept back wings and at-tail.*
C. Straight wings and at-tail.
D. Swept back wings and wing-mounted engines.
355. The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engine aeroplane is?
A. Idle power and stick roll neutral, nose-down and no other corrections.
B. Idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-down tendency.
C. Full power and stick roll neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder.*
D. Full power and stick roll neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick.
356. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the?
A. Point of lowest pressure.
B. Stagnation point.*
C. Centre of pressure.
D. Centre of gravity.
357. Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?

A. Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator.
B. Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.
C. Angle of attack sensor and stall strip.
D. Stick shaker and stall strip.*
358. Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct?
A. Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane.
B. The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.
C. The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.
D. Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down tendency.*
359. During an erect spin recovery?

A. The control stick is pulled to the most aft position.
B. The ailerons are held in the neutral position.*
C. The control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.
D. The control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.
360. Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?

A. Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
B. Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.*
C. Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
D. Use of at-tail will decrease the stall speed.
361. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
A. Low speed stall.
B. Deep stall.*
C. Shock stall.
D. Accelerated stall.
362. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if
this aeroplane decelerates?
A. Shock stall.
B. Deep stall.
C. Accelerated stall.*
D. Low speed stall.
363. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will?
A. (1) not move (2) move forward.
B. (1) move aft, (2) not move.
C. (1) move aft, (2) move forward*
D. (1) move aft, (2) move aft.
364. "tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the
downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
A. (i) aft (ii) decreasing.*
B. (i) forward (ii) decreasing.
C. (i) aft (ii) increasing.
D. (i) forward (ii) increasing.
365. "tuck under" may happen at?

A. Only at low altitudes.
B. High mach numbers.*
C. Low mach numbers.
D. All mach numbers.
366. "tuck under" is?

A. Shaking of the control column at high mach number.
B. The tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.
C. The tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.*
D. The tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
367. Shock stall is?

A. Separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.*
B. Separation of the flow behind the bow wave.
C. Separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high mach numbers.
D. Separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high mach numbers.
368. By what percentage does va (eas) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%?
A. 4.36% lower.
B. No change.
C. 19% lower.
D. 10% lower.*
369. The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are?
A. Increase of clmax and decrease of drag.
B. Decrease of clmax and increase of drag.*
C. Decrease of clmax and decrease of drag.
D. Increase of clmax and increase of drag.
370. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is?
A. Increase in drag.
B. Blocking of control surfaces.
C. Reduction in clmax.*
D. Increase in weight.
371. What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?
A. 3.75.
B. 6.
C. 2.5.*
D. 1.5.
372. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding va?
A. It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.*
B. It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
C. It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic pressure.
D. It will collapse if a turn is made.
373. Which load factor determines va?

A. Manoeuvring ultimate load factor.
B. Gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.
C. Manoeuvring flap limit load factor.
D. Manoeuvring limit load factor.*
374. The relationship between the stall speed vs and va (eas) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the
following formula? (sqrt= square root)
A. Vs= va sqrt(3.75).
B. Va= vs sqrt(3.75).
C. Va= vs sqrt(2.5).*
D. Vs= va sqrt(2.5).
375. When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing mach number the centre of the pressure of
the wing will move aft. This requires?
A. A pitch up input of the stabilizer.*
B. A stability augmentation system.
C. Much more thrust from the engine.
D. A higher las to compensate the nose down effect.
376. By what percentage does va (eas) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 10%?
A. 5% lower.*
B. No change.
C. 19% lower.
D. 10% lower.
377. By what percentage does vs alter when the aeroplane's weight increases by 20%?
A. 4.36% higher.
B. No change.
C. 19% higher.
D. 10% higher.*
378. By what percentage does va (eas) alter when the aeroplane's weight increases by 25%?
A. 4.36% higher.
B. 12% higher.*
C. 19% higher.
D. 10% higher.
379. By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 30° angle of bank, compared to straight and level
flight?
A. 52%.
B. 41%.
C. 8%.*
D. 31%.
380. What is the relationship in straight and level flight between the cl at any given speed and cl max?
A. Cl = 100%cl max
B. Cl = cl max(1 / (v / vs)) x 100%
C. Cl = cl max(vs2 / v2) x 100%*
D. Cl = cl max(v / vs) x 100%
381. A jar certificated commercial passenger aircraft is flying in straight and level flight when the stall warning system
activates the stick shaker. What will be its cl as a percentage of cl max?
A. 81%.
B. 85%.
C. 91%.*
D. 95%.
382. the sketch below represents a typical whole aircraft l:d polar diagram. Which of the points marked on it correspond
to the low speed stall condition?
A. A.*
B. B.
C. C.
D. D.
383. the sketch below represents a typical whole aircraft l:d polar diagram. Which of the points marked on it correspond
to the best l:d ratio and at what speed does this occur?
A. A.
B. B.*
C. C.
D. D.
384. Which of the following represents the relationship between the design manoeuvre speed (va) and the straight and
level ig stalling speed (v slg)?
A. Va = vs1g √(n limit).*
B. Vs1g = va √(n limit).
C. Va = vs1g (n limit).
D. Vs1g = va (n limit).
385. If the zero lift angle of attack and stalling angle of attack for a particular aerofoii section are -4 degrees and 16
degrees respectively, what will be its cl as a percentage of cl max when the angle of attack is 6 degrees?
A. 70%.
B. 60%.
C. 50%.*
D. 40%.
386. In straight and level flight the cl of an aerofoil is 0.44. If a 1degree increase in angle of attack gives an increase of
0.06 in cl what will be the load factor when subjected to an angle of attack increase of 5 degrees?
A. 1.58.
B. 1.68.*
C. 1.78.
D. 1.98.
387. A jar certificated passenger aircraft has a cl max of 2 and a ig (straight and level) stalling speed of 100 kts. What will
be its 2.5g stalling speed?
A. 138 kts.
B. 148 kts.
C. 158 kts.*
D. 168 kts.
388. Which of the following best defines vafor a jar certified passenger aircraft?
A. The design manoeuvre speed which is the maximum eas at which full nose up control deflection can be employed without
exceeding a load factor of 2.5.*
B. The design manoe~vre speed which is the maximum tas at which full nose up control deflection can be employed without
exceeding a load factor of 3.75.
C. The design manoeuvre speed which is the maximum eas at which a load factor of 2.5 can be achieved without stalling the
aircraft.
D. The design manoeuvre speed which is the minimum eas at which full nose up control deflection can be employed without
exceeding a load factor of 2.5.
389. If an aircraft stalls at 200 kts in a 3g pull up what will its stalling speed be in straight and level flight?
A. 67 kts.
B. 77 kts.
C. 115 kts.*
D. 125 kts.
390. If aircraft weight is doubled by what % will stalling speed increase?

A. 41%.*
B. 14%.
C. 21%.
D. 100%.
391. If stalling speed in a 3g pull up is 100 kts what is the maximum bank angle in level flight at 100 kts?
A. 50.5 degrees.
B. 60.5 degrees.
C. 70.5 degrees.*
D. 80.5 degrees.
Flaps: (Oxford, KW)
392. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

A) increase.
B) decrease.*
C) increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
D) remain the same.
393. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
A) Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
B) Increases and CLMAX increases.
C) Decreases, but CLMAX increases.*
D) Decreases, but remains the same.
394. With full flap, the maximum Lift/drag ratio:

A) Increases and the stalling angle increases
B) Decreases and the stalling speed decreases*
C) Remains the same and the stalling angle remains the same
D) Remains the same and the stalling angle decreases
395. When a leading edge slot is opened, the stalling speed will:
A) Increase
B) Decrease*
C) Remain the same but will occur at a higher angle of attack.
D) Remain the same but will occur at a lower angle of attack.
396. The purpose of a leading edge droop is:

A) To give a more cambered section for high speed flight.
B) To increase the wing area for take‑off and landing.
C) To increase wing camber, and delay separation of the airflow when trailing edge flaps are lowered.*
D) To decrease the lift during the landing run.
397. Lowering flaps sometimes produces a pitch moment change due to:
A) Decrease of the angle of incidence.
B) Movement of the centre of pressure.*
C) Movement of the centre of gravity.
D) Increased angle of attack of the tailplane.
398. Which type of flap would give the greatest change in pitching moment?
A) Split
B) Plain
C) Fowler*
D) Plain slotted
399. A split flap is:

A) A flap divided into sections which open to form slots through the flap.
B) A flap manufactured in several sections to allow for wing flexing.
C) A flap which can move up or down from the neutral position.
D) A flap where the upper surface contour of the wing trailing edge is fixed and only the lower surface contour is altered
when the flaps are lowered*
400. If the flaps are lowered in flight, with the airspeed kept constant, to maintain level flight the angle of attack:
A) Must be reduced.*
B) Must be increased.
C) Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
D) Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.
401. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run:

A) Lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne.
B) Lift would increase when the flaps are lowered.*
C) Lift would decrease.
D) Acceleration would increase.
402. When flaps are lowered the spanwise flow on the upper surface of the wing:
A) Does not change.
B) Increase towards the tip.
C) Increases towards the root.*
D) Increases in speed but has no change of direction.
403. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a) reduced.
b) increased.*
c) the same as for a landing with flaps.
d) the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.
404. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

A) Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed*
B) Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power
C) Eliminates floating
D) Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
405. Extension of fowler type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce?
A. No pitching moment.
B. A nose-up pitching moment.
C. A force which reduces drag.
D. A nose-down pitching moment.*
406. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant las and weight?
A. The stall speed increases.
B. The total boundary layer becomes laminar.
C. The centre of pressure moves aft.*
D. The lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.
407. Flap selection at constant las in straight and level flight will increase the?
A. Lift coefficient and the drag.
B. Stall speed.
C. Lift and the drag.
D. Maximum lift coefficient (clmax) and the drag.*

A. Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the tas has to be taken into account.
B. Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle.
C. Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces.*
D. Extension of flaps will increase (cl/cd)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease.
409. The trailing edge flaps when extended?

A. Worsen the best angle of glide.*
B. Increase the zero lift angle of attack.
C. Significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift.
D. Significantly lower the drag.
410. When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be?
A. Dependent on c.g. Location.
B. Nose down.*
C. Nose up.
D. Zero.
411. Deflection of leading edge flaps will?

A. Increase critical angle of attack.*
B. Decrease clmax.
C. Decrease drag.
D. Not affect critical angle of attack.
412. Slat extension will?

A. Increase critical angle of attack.*
B. Reduce tip vortices.
C. Create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.
D. Decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing.
413. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position?
A. Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing.*
B. Choose a lower landing speed than normal.
C. If possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.
D. Use the mach trimmer until after landing.
414. Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as?

A. Flaps and elevator.
B. Ailerons and flaps.*
C. Ailerons and elevator.
D. Flaps and speed brakes.
415. What trailing edge flap angle will give the minimum stalling speed?
A. Maximum deflection.*
B. Zero degrees.
C. 20 degrees.
D. 30 degrees.
416. A slat will?

A. Provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
B. Increase boundary layer energy and prolong stall to a higher angle of attack.*
C. Increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
D. Increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
417. Deployment of inboard trailing edge flaps will ........ Wing tip vortices?
A. Decrease.*
B. Not affect.
C. Increase.
D. Increase or decrease depending on flap angle.
418. Compared with the trailing edge flaps up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the trailing edge flaps down
configuration is?
A. Unchanged.
B. Smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
C. Smaller.*
D. Larger.
419. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to? (all other factors of
importance being constant)
A. Yaw.
B. Climb.*
C. Bank.
D. Sink suddenly.
420. During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to? (all other factors of
importance being constant)
A. Sink suddenly.*
B. Bank.
C. Climb.
D. Yaw.
421. A plain flap will?
A. Increase clmax by boundary layer control.
B. Centre of lift movement forward.
C. Increasing the camber of the aerofoil.*
D. Increase angle of attack.
422. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (l.e.) flaps. One possible efficient
way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is?
A. Wing roots: slats wing roots: l.e. flaps
B. Wing tips: no devices. Wing tips: no devices.
C. Wing roots: l.e. flaps wing tips: slats*
D. Wing tips: slats. Wing tips: l.e. flaps.
423. Full span krueger flaps will ……….lateral stability?

A. Improve.
B. Degrade.
C. Not affect.*
D. Improve or degrade depending on angle.
424. The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to?
A. Allow space for vibration of the slat.
B. Reduce the wing loading.
C. Slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.
D. Cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.*
425. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?

A. Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.*
B. Provide automatically slat in selection after take-off.
C. Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position.
D. Assist the ailerons during rolling.
426. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of
attack will?
A. Decrease.
B. Remain constant.
C. Increase or decrease depending on type of/flap.
D. Increase.*
427. A slotted flap will increase the clmax by?

A. Increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.*
B. Decreasing the skin friction.
C. Increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
D. Increasing the critical angle of attack,
428. Deploying a fowler flap, the flap will?

A. Just turn down.
B. Move aft, then turn down.*
C. Turn down, then move aft.
D. Just move aft.
429. What is the most effective flap system?

A. Fowler flap.*
B. Split flap.
C. Plain flap.
D. Single slotted flap.

A. Krueger flap increases critical angle of attack, slats do not.
B. Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a krueger flap does not.*
C. Deploying a krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
D. Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a krueger flap does not.
431. Trailing edge flap extension will?

A. Increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of cl max.
B. Decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of cl max.
C. Increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of cl max.
D. Decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of cl max.*
432. When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will?
A. Decrease.
B. Remain the same.
C. Vary as the square oflas.
D. Increase.*
433. Raising slats too soon after take-off might ........ ?

A. Increase stalling angle.
B. Cause stalling.*
C. Prevent flutter.
D. Increase rate of climb.
434. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant las, the lift coefficient will eventually?
A. Decrease.
B. First increase and then decrease.
C. Remain the same.*
D. Increase.
435. With stabiliser trim stuck in cruise position deployment of landing flap will ... ?
A. Increase stick forces in the flare.*
B. Decrease stick forces in the flare.
C. Decrease nose down control authority.
D. Reduce trim drag.
436. ......... Flaps offer the greatest increase in cl max?

A. Plain.
B. Split.
C. Fowler.
D. Slotted fowler.*
437. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because?
A. It delays the stall to a higher angle of attack.*
B. The laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker.
C. It decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
D. It changes the camber of the wing.
438. Use of outboard krueger flaps alone would ...... ?

A. Increase tip stall tendency.
B. Decrease tip stall tendency.
C. Not affect tip stall tendency.
D. Decrease wing root bending.
439. Slat deployment ......... The gradient of the cl : a curve?

A. Does not affect.*
B. Increases.
C. Decreases.
D. Increase or decreases depending on airspeed.
440. On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "full extended" position will produce?
A. An unaffected cd, at a given angle of attack.
B. An increase in wing area only.
C. An increase in wing area and camber.*
D. An unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
441. An aeroplane has the following flap settings 0°, 15°,30°,45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections
will produce the greatest negative influence on the cl/cd ratio?
A. The slats.
B. Flaps from 0° to 15°.
C. Flaps from 15° to 30°.
D. Flaps from 30° to 45°.*
442. A deployed slat will?

A. Increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that clmax is reached at higher angles of
attack.
B. Increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is
postponed to higher angles of attack.
C. Increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is
postponed to higher angles of attack.*
D. Decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that clmax is reached at lower angles of
attack.
443. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
A. Because ymca with slats extended is more favourable compared to the flaps extended situation.
B. Because flaps extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
C. Because slats extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.*
D. Because slats extended provides a better view from the cockpit than flaps extended.
444. If flaps are deployed at constant las in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually? (flap
span less than wing span)
A. Increase.
B. Remain the same.
C. Increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
D. Decrease.*
445. Extension of fowler trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce?
A. A force which reduces drag.
B. A nose-down pitching moment.*
C. No pitching moment.
D. A nose-up pitching moment.
446. Trailing edge flap deployment might cause nose down pitching due to ?
A. Downwash over the tailplane.
B. Up wash over the tailplane.
C. Forward movement of the c ofp.
D. Aft movement of the c of p.*
447. Full flap deployment in take-off will ..... ?

A. Increase climb performance.
B. Increase take-off distance required.*
C. Increase acceleration rate.
D. Increase climb gradient.
448. Leading edge slats the cl: alpha curve.

A. Extend.*
B. Shorten.
C. Flatten.
D. Do not affect.
449. Flap deployment..... The take-off run?

A. Increases.
B. Decreases.*
C. Does not affect.
D. Increases or decreases depending on deployment angle.
450. The purpose of leading edge slats is to?

A. Decreases stalling angle.
B. Increase stalling angle.*
C. Increase stalling speed.
D. Create turbulent boundary layer.
451. Pitch up on flap deployment is........ ?

A. Due to down wash over tailplane.*
B. Not possible.
C. Due to aft movement of c of p.
D. Due to forward movement of c of p.
452. Full flap deployment in landing will..... ?

A. Require a shallower approach.
B. Permit a steeper approach.*
C. Increase landing speed.
D. Increase landing run.
453. Failure of trailing edge flaps to deploy on landing will?

A. Decrease landing speed.
B. Decrease landing roll.
C. Increase nose up attitude.*
D. Increase angle of attack.
454. Compared with the leading edge flaps up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the leading edge
flaps down configuration is?
C. Unchanged.
D. Smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
C. Smaller.
D. Larger.*
455. The diagram below includes?

a. Double slotted plain flaps.
B. Leading edge flaps.
C. Double slotted split flaps.
D. Double slotted fowler flaps.*

a. Blown flap and slat.*
B. Plain flap and leading edge flap.
C. Slat and slotted split flap.
D. Slat and fowler flap.
457. the diagram below includes?

A. Slat.*
B. Leading edge flap.
C. Kruger flap. .
D. Double slotted split flaps.

A. Krueger flap.*
B. Leading edge slat.
C. Leading edge droop.
D. Drooped slat and plain flap.

a. Double slotted plain flaps.
C. Split flap.*
D. Double slotted fowler flaps.

A. Drooped leading edge and plain flap.
C. Double slotted split flaps.
D. Slat and plain flap.*
Flying controls: (Oxford, KW)
461. An elevon is:

A. An all moving tail plane that has no elevator
B. The correct name for a v - tail
C. A surface that extends into the airflow from the upper surface of the wing to reduce the lift
D. A combined aileron and elevator fitted to an aircraft that does not have conventional horizontal stabiliser (tail
plane)*
462. When rolling at a steady rate the:

A. Up going wing experiences an increase in effective angle of attack
B. Rate of roll depends only on aileron deflection
C. Down going wing experiences an increase in effective angle of attack*
D. Effective angle of attack of the up going and down going wings are equal
463. The control surface which gives longitudinal control is:

A. The rudder.
B. The ailerons.
C. The elevators.*
D. The flaps.
464. Ailerons give:

A. Lateral control about the lateral axis.
B. Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
C. Lateral control about the longitudinal axis.*
D. Directional control about the normal axis.
465. Aileron reversal would be most likely to occur:

A. With a rigid wing at high speed.
B. With a flexible wing at high speed.*
C. With a rigid wing at low
D. With a flexible wing at low speed.
466. If the ailerons are deflected to 10°, compared to 5°, this will cause:
A. An increased angle of bank.
B. An increased rate of roll.*
C. No change to either bank angle or roll rate.
D. A reduction in the adverse yawing moment.
467. Yawing is a rotation around:

A. The normal axis obtained by elevator.
B. The lateral axis obtained by rudder.
C. The longitudinal axis obtained by ailerons.
D. The normal axis obtained by rudder.*
468. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

A. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
B. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
C. The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator down.*
D. The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.
469. The secondary effect of yawing to port is to:

A. Roll to starboard
B. Pitch nose up
C. Roll first to starboard and then to port
D. Roll to port*
470. Due to the ac of the fin being above the longitudinal axis, if the rudder is moved to the right, the force
acting on the fin will give:
A. A yawing moment to the left but no rolling moment.
B. A rolling moment to the left.
C. A rolling moment to the right.
D. A yawing moment to the right but no rolling moment.
471. What should be the feel on a 'full and free' check of the controls?
A. A gradual stiffening of the controls.
B. Rebound on reaching the stops.
C. A solid stop.*
D. Controls should not be moved to the stops.
472. The purpose of control locks on a flying control system is:

A. To enable any free movement in the control system to be detected.
B. To prevent structural damage to the controls in gusty conditions when the aircraft is on the ground.*
C. To keep the control surface rigid to permit ground handling.
D. As a security measure.
473. An irreversible control:

A. May be moved by operating the cockpit control but not by the aerodynamic loads acting on the control surface.*
B. Has less movement in one direction than the other.
C. May be moved either by the cockpit control or by a load on the control surface.
D. Is when the control locks are engaged.
474. Ailerons may be rigged slightly down (drooped).

A. To increase the feel in the control circuit
B. To correct for adverse aileron yaw
C. To allow for up-float in flight to bring the aileron into the streamlined position
D. To give a higher cl max for take-off
475. The tail-plane shown has inverted camber. To cause the aircraft to pitch nose up the control column must
be:
A. The control column must be pushed forward
B. The control column must be pulled backwards*
C. The control wheel must be rotated
D. The incidence of the tail-plane must be decreased because the negative camber will make It effective in the
reverse sense
476. If an aileron is moved downward:

A. The stalling angle of that wing is increased
B. The stalling angle of that wing is decreased*
C. The stalling angle is not affected but the stalling speed is decreased
477. When rudder is used to give a coordinated turn to the left:

A. The left pedal is moved forward, and the rudder moves right
B. The right pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves left
C. The left pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves left*
478. The higher speed of the upper wing in a steady banked turn causes it to have more lift than the Lower wing.
This may be compensated for by:
A. Use of the rudder control
B. Operating the ailerons slightly in the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached*
C. Increasing the nose up pitch by using the elevators
479. The purpose of a differential aileron control is to:

A. Give a yawing moment which opposes the turn
B. Reduce the yawing moment which opposes the turn*
C. Give a pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn
D. Improve the rate of roll
480. When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

A. The up going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.
B. The down going aileron causes an increase in induced drag.*
C. Both cause an increase in induced drag.
D. Induced drag remains the same, the up going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile drag than the down
going aileron.
481. The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control is:

A. To get the aircraft into balance.
B. To prevent flutter of the flying control.
C. To reduce the control load to zero.
D. To make the control easier to move.*
482. A horn balance on a control surface is:

A. An arm projecting upward from the control surface to which the control cables are attached.
B. A projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.*
C. A rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
D. A projection of the leading edge of the control surface below the wing undersurface.
483. An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

A. Making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron.
B. Attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge.
C. Having the control hinge set back behind the control surface leading edge.*
D. Having springs in the control circuit to assist movement.
484. Control overbalance results in:

A. A sudden increase in stick force
B. A sudden reduction then reversal of stick force*
C. A sudden loss of effectiveness of the controls
D. A gradual increase in stick force with increasing IAS
485. A control surface is mass balanced by:

A. Fitting a balance tab.
B. Attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line.*
C. Attaching a weight acting on the hinge line.
D. Attaching a weight acting behind the hinge line.
486. If the control wheel is turned to the right, a balance tab on the port aileron should:
A. Move up relative to the aileron*
B. Move down relative to the aileron
C. Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned.
D. Move to the neutral position
487. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

A. Trim the aircraft
B. Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds
C. Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only
D. Give more feel to the controls*
488. When the control column is pushed forward a balance tab on the elevator:
A. Will move up relative to the control surface.*
B. Will move down relative to the control surface.
C. Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
D. Moves to the neutral position.
489. The purpose of a spring tab is:

A. To maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system.
B. To increase the feel in the control system.
C. To reduce the pilot’s effort required to move the controls against high air loads.*
D. To compensate for temperature changes in cable tension.
490. The purpose of a trim tab is:

A. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
B. To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.*
C. To provide feel to the controls at high speed.
D. To increase the effectiveness of the controls.
491. To Re‑trim after failure of the right engine on a twin-engine aircraft:

A. The rudder trim tab will move right and the rudder left.*
B. The trim tab will move left and the rudder right.
C. The trim tab will move left and the rudder remain neutral.
D. The trim tab will move right and the rudder remain neutral.
492. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should
be:
A. Moved forward to raise the nose and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator to
move up.
B. Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator
to move up.*
C. Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up, and the elevator to
move up.
D. Be moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move up and cause the
nose to rise.
493. To achieve the same degree of longitudinal trim, the trim drag from a variable incidence Trimming tail
plane would be:
A. Greater than that from an elevator.
B. The same as that from an elevator.
C. Less than that from an elevator.*
494. Following re-trimming for straight and level flight because of forward cg movement:
A. Nose up pitch authority will be reduced*
B. Nose down pitch authority will be reduced
C. Longitudinal stability will be reduced
D. Tail plane down load will be reduced
495. An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trimmed with a tab on the left aileron.
The trim tab will:
A. Move up, causing the left aileron to move up and right aileron to move down.
B. Move down, causing the left aileron to move up, right aileron remains neutral.
C. Move down causing the left aileron to move up, and right aileron to move down.*
D. Move up causing the left wing to move down, ailerons remain neutral.
496. An aircraft takes off with the elevator control locks still in position. It is found to be nose heavy:
A. Backward movement of the trim wheel would increase nose heaviness.*
B. It would not be possible to move the trim wheel.
C. Backward movement of the trim wheel would reduce nose heaviness.
D. Operating the trim wheel would have no effect.
497. On a servo tab operated elevator, if the pilot’s control column is pushed forward in flight:
A. The servo tab will move down causing the elevator to move up.
B. The elevator will move down causing the servo tab to move up.
C. The elevator will move up causing the servo tab to move down.
D. The servo tab will move up causing the elevator to move down.*
498. If a cockpit control check is made on an aircraft with servo operated controls, and it is found that the
cockpit controls move fully and freely in all directions:
A. The control surfaces and servo tabs are free.
B. The control surfaces are free but there could be locks on the servo tabs.
C. There could be locks on the control surfaces and on the servo tabs.
D. The servo tabs are free but there could be locks on the control surfaces.*
499. In a servo operated aileron control system, turning the cockpit control wheel to the right in flight will cause
the servo tab on the left aileron:
A. To move up and the left aileron to move down*
B. To move down and the left aileron to move down
C. To move down and the left aileron to move up
D. To move up and the right aileron to move down
500. Spoilers on the upper surface of the wing may be used on landing:
A. To give a nose down pitching moment
B. To reduce the lift and so put more weight on the wheels, making the brakes more effective
C. To cause drag and increase the lift from the flaps
D. To reduce the touchdown speed
501. Wing mounted spoiler surfaces may be used as:

A. Air brakes
B. Lift dumpers
C. Lateral control
D. All of the above*
502. Spoilers, when used for roll control will:

A. Reinforce the boundary layer
B. Create turbulence at the wing root
C. Increase the camber at the wing root
D. Decrease lift on the upper wing surface when deployed asymmetrically*
503. On an aircraft fitted with roll control spoilers, a roll to port is achieved by:
A. Deflecting the port spoiler up and starboard down
B. Deflecting the starboard spoiler down
C. Deflecting the port spoiler up*
D. Deflecting the port spoiler down
504. In a fully power operated flying control system control feel is provided by:
A. The friction in the control cable system.
B. An artificial feel unit (q - feel)*
C. The aerodynamic loads on the control surface.
D. The mass balance weights.
505. Which of these statements is correct regarding most gust lock systems?
a. When the gust lock is fitted there is protection to prevent take-off.*
b. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence.
c. A gust lock is only fitted to the elevators and rudder.
d. On reversible control systems gust locks are not required.
506. Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with an irreversible flight control system is:
a. An adjustment of the zero force rudder position.*
b. An adjustment of the rudder trim tab.
c. An adjustment of the rudder ratio changer.
d. Unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim.
507. Primary flight controls include:

a. Control wheel or stick, rudder pedals, flap and throttle.
b. Ailerons, elevators and flaps.
c. Ailerons, elevators and rudder.*
d. Control wheel or stick, rudder pedals and speed brake.
508. The automatic ground spoiler extension system is normally activated during landing by:
a. Idle rpm selection.
b. Ground spoiler lever.
c. Main wheel spin up.*
d. Brake pressure application.
509. Most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against flying control jamming. This means that:
a. In case of seizure, engine control is taken over automatically by an alternate circuit.
b. The flight control system has provisions to automatically disconnect the part of the control system that
becomes jammed.*
c. The aeroplane is protected against the adverse effects of strong electromagnetic fields.
d. Seized brakes can be released from the cockpit.
510. Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible to
trim these control surfaces?
a. No, because without trim tabs trimming is not possible.
b. Yes, but trimming is only possible when before flight, the respective auxiliary surfaces are correctly adjusted for
cruising conditions by the maintenance department.
c. Yes, but trimming is only possible when the autopilot is engaged.
d. Yes, trimming is possible by adjusting the neutral point of the artificial feel mechanism by means of a switch.*
511. The reason for a double switch on an elevator trim is:

a. To reduce the probability of trim runaway.*
b. Because there are two trim motors.
c. To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed.
d. To prevent both pilots from performing opposite trim inputs.
512. A Krueger flap is normally located at the:

a. Trailing edge.
b. Trailing edge close to the wing tip.
c. Trailing edge close to the wing root.
d. Leading edge.*
513. The expression "primary flight controls" applies to the:
1. Elevators.
2. Speed brakes.
3. Lift-augmentation devices.
4. Roll spoilers.
The combination regrouping all of the correct options is:
a. 2,4.
b. 1,4.*
c. 2,3.
d. 1,2,3,4.
514. A flight control surface is said to be "reversible" when:

a. There is feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface in flight.*
b. There is a need for an artificial feel system.
c. The flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam.
d. The pilot does not feel any force when moving that flight control surface in flight.
515. One design method to avoid control surface flutter is:

a. Providing a wing structure with sufficient flexibility.
b. Ensuring the correct mass distribution within the control surface.*
c. Through the use of balance tabs.
d. Through the correct use of trim tabs.
516. For JAR 25 aeroplanes, spoilers are:

a. Lower wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
b. Upper wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.*
c. Lower surface devices, their deflection always symmetrical.
d. Upper surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
517. Significant torsion effects in a wing are caused by:

a. Propwash.
b. Wing tip vortices.
c. Wing dihedral.
d. Aileron deflection.*
518. The expression "primary flight controls" applies to:

1. Stabiliser.
2. Rudder.
3. Speed Brake.
4. Aileron.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a. 2,4.*
b. 1,4.
c. 2,3.
d. 1,2,3,4.
519. Which of the following statements about a gust lock is correct and incorrect?
1. There is no need for gust locks on irreversible flight controls.
2. Manual flight controls should have gust locks.
a. 1 is correct 2 is correct.*
b. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.
c. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct.
d. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct.
520. Which of the following statements about a gust lock is correct and incorrect?
1. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with gust locks engaged.
2. Reversible flight controls should have gust locks.
a. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.
b. 1 is correct 2 is correct.*
521. Which of the following statements about trimming in an irreversible flight control system of a conventional
aeroplane are correct and incorrect?
1. The zero force position of the control column does not change when using elevator trim.
2. The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using aileron trim or rudder trim.
b. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct.
c. 1 is correct 2 is correct.*
522. Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?
1. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given pedal deflection as the lAS increases.
2. A variable stop system limits both the rudder pedal deflection and the rudder deflection as the lAS decreases.
a. 1 is correct 2 is correct.
c. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.*
523. A flight control system, is said to be irreversible when:

a. There is no need to lock the controls on the ground.
b. The pilot does not feel any force when moving the controls.
c. The flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of control jam.
d. There is no feedback to the pilots control of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surfaces.*
524. An aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls:

a. Does not require an artificial feel system.*
b. Is equipped with simple spring type feel units.
c. Does not have any mechanical back-up.
d. Need not be equipped with a separate gust-lock system.
525. The function of the rudder limiter system is:

a. To restrict rudder deflection during flight at high Mach number.
b. To restrict rudder deflection during flight at high lAS.*
c. To reduce the pilot workload during engine failure.
d. To limit rudder pedal movement in heavy turbulence.
526. The expression "secondary flight controls" applies to:

1. Elevator.
2. Speed Brake.
3. Lift-augmentation devices.
4. Roll Spoilers.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a. 2,4.
b. 1,2.
c. 2,3.*
d. 1,2,3,4.
527. Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines
running. Which of these statements about rudder trim actuation is correct?
a. The rudder moves, but the rudder pedals do not move.
b. The "zero force point" of the artificial feel system changes, but the rudder does not move.
c. The rudder moves, and the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction.*
d. The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move.
528. An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls (fully powered):

a. Requires an artificial feel system.*
b. Must be equipped with control locks.
c. May be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls.
d. Does not require an artificial feel system.
529. When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
a. Downwards because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is in front of the hinge line.
b. Downwards because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is behind the hinge line.*
c. Upwards because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is behind the hinge line.
d. Upwards because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is in front of the hinge line.
530. Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?
1. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given pedal deflection as the lAS increases.
2. A variable stop system limits both the rudder pedal deflection and the rudder deflection as the lAS increases.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is?
531. Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system:

a. Is not possible.
b. Is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the artificial feels system.*
c. Is not necessary.
d. Is achieved by adjusting the neutral point of the flight control actuator.
532. Which statement about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?

I. During VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used.
Ii. During VMCG determination, the cg should be on the aft limit.
533. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct and incorrect?
I during VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used.
Ii during VMCG determination, the cg should be on the forward limit.
C. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is incorrect.*
534. Consider two elevator control systems:

1 is fitted with a trim tab.
2 is fitted with fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal stabilizer.
For both cases and starting from the trimmed condition, how will the neutral position of the control column
change after trimming for a speed decrease?
A. 1 moves aft, 2 does not change.*
B. 1 does not change, 2 moves aft.
C. 1 moves aft, 2 moves forward.
D. 1 does not change, 2 does not change.
535. Consider the following statements about VMCG.

1. VMCG is determined with gear down.
2. VMCG is determined with the flaps in the landing position.
3. VMCG is determined by using the rudder and nose wheel steering.
4. During VMCG determination the aeroplane may not deviate from the straight line path by more than 30 ft.
A. 3.
B. 1,4*
C. 2,3.
D. 1,2,3,4.
536. In general, directional controllability with one engine inoperative on a multi-engine aeroplane is favorably
affected by:
1. High temperature.
2. Low temperature.
3. Aft cg location.
4. Forward cg location.
5. High altitude.
6. Low altitude.
A. 1,4,6.
B. 2,3,5.
C. 2,4,6.
D. 1,4,5.*
537. Aeroplane manoeuvrability decreases for a given control surface deflection when?
A. Las decreases.*
B. Las increases.
C. The cg moves aft.
D. Flaps are retracted at constant las.
538. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser, and an elevator with trim tab, which
of these statements are correct or incorrect?
I when trimmed for zero elevator stick force, an elevator trim tab causes more drag.
Ii a trimmable horizontal stabiliser enables a larger cg range.
I a trim tab is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their larger speed range.
Ii a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is a more powerful means of trimming.
I a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by high lift
devices on most jet transport aeroplanes.
Ii a trim tab runaway causes less control difficulty.
C. I. Is incorrect. Ii. Is correct.
I the effect of stabiliser trim runaway is more serious.
Ii a jammed trim tab causes less control difficulty.
542. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the cg at the aft limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiiiser
(ths) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose down position for take-off?
A. There will be a tendency to under-rotate.
B. Rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique.*
C. Rotation will require higher than normal stick force.
D. Early nose wheel raising will take place.
543. The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the?

A. Speed is low.
B. C.g. position is on the forward c.g. limit.
C. Flaps are down.
D. C.g. is on the aft c.g. limit.*
544. Which kind of "tab" is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls?
A. Servo tab.*
B. Spring tab.
C. Balance tab.
D. Anti-balance tab.
545. When the c.g. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor
greater than 1 will be?
A. Larger.*
B. Smaller.
C. Unchanged.
D. Dependent on trim position.
546. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser
position?
A. A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy
aeroplane.*
B. Because characteristic speeds at take-off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser
adjustment is dependent on flap position only.
C. A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy
aeroplane.
D. At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum nose down to obtain maximum
elevator authority at take-off rotation.
547. Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, which has experienced a right engine failure and continues
afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level?
A. Turn indicator right of neutral, slip indicator right of neutral.
B. Turn indicator right of neutral, slip indicator neutral.
C. Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.*
D. Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator right of neutral.
548. A c.g location beyond the aft limit leads to?

A. A too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take-off.
B. An increasing static longitudinal stability.
C. A better recovery performance in the spin.
D. An unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, fe/g).*
549. If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about?
A. The centre of gravity.*
B. The neutral point of the aeroplane.
C. The aerodynamic centre of the wing.
D. The centre of pressure of the wing.
550. Spoiler deflection causes?

A. An increase in lift only.
B. Decrease in lift and drag.
C. An increase in drag and decrease in lift.*
D. An increase in lift and drag.
Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are?

A. Spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
B. Servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.*
C. Balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
D. Mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
551. How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease?
A. The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trim tab.
B. The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trim tab.*
C. The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser.
D. Nothing changes in the exterior view.
552. An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams during
flight?
A. Pitch control reverses direction.*
B. Pitch control has been lost.
C. The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
D. The pitch control forces double.
553. Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable
forward centre of gravity limit, while the ths (trimmable horizontal stabilizer) has been positioned at the
maximum allowable and (aeroplane nose down) position?
A. The rotation will require extra stick force.*
B. If the ths position is just within the limits of the green band, the take-off warning system will be activated.
C. Early nose wheel raising will take place.
D. Nothing special will happen.
554. A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose?

A. To prevent flutter.
B. To obtain mass balancing.
C. To decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.
D. To decrease stick forces.*
555. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted
aeroplane, which is in trim?
A. The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.
B. At a forward cg the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft cg the elevator is deflected downward.
C. The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining flare capability.
D. The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the centre of gravity.*
556. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is?
A. 1.5.
B. 2.5.
C. 3.75.
D. 2.0.*
557. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
A. Increases, because at a lower density a larger las is necessary to generate the required rudder force.
B. Increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases.
C. Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.*
D. Decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density.
558. When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this?
A. Can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.
B. Ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.*
C. Makes trimming superfluous.
D. Makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless.
559. In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer
instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because?
A. Trim tab deflection increases MCRIT.
B. Effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes.*
C. The pilot does not feel the stick forces at all.
D. Mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems.
560. One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that?
A. It is a more powerful means of trimming.*
B. The structure weighs less.
C. It leads to greater stability in flight.
D. The system's complexity is reduced.
561. How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn?
A. Differential aileron deflection.*
B. Horn-balanced controls.
C. Anti-balanced rudder control.
D. Servo tabs.
562. Which statement is correct about a spring tab?

A. At high las it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator.
B. Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g.
C. At high las it behaves like a servo tab.*
D. At low las it behaves like a servo tab.
563. Which statement about stick force per g is correct?

A. The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
B. The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an
unacceptable value.
C. If the slope of the fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an
aeroplane.
D. The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control
characteristics.*
564. Why is VMCG determined with the nose wheel steering disconnected?
A. Because the nose wheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
B. Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nose wheel has already been lifted off the
ground.
C. Because nose wheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
D. Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.*
565. How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase?
A. Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab.*
B. The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab.
C. The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser.
D. The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change.
566. One method to compensate adverse yaw is a?

A. Balance panel.
B. Differential aileron.*
C. Balance tab.
D. Anti-balance tab.
567. Which statement about a control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct?
A. The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.*
B. The servo tab can also be used as a trim tab.
C. The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
D. Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.
568. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?

A. On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
B. Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
C. In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
D. In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum
deflection.*
569. When outboard ailerons (if present) are deactivated?

A. Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.*
B. Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value.
C. Landing gear retracted.
D. Landing gear extended.
570. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are?

A. Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface.
B. Horn balance.*
C. Upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface.
D. Weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance.
571. Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on?

A. Elevator deflection, static pressure.
B. Stabilizer position, total pressure.
C. Elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.*
D. Stabilizer position, static pressure.
572. During initiation of a turn with speed brakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler
deflection?
A. Downward on the up-going wing and upward on the down-going wing.*
B. Upward on the up-going wing and downward on the down-going wing.
C. On the up-going wing only.
D. On the down-going wing only.
573. In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly
increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
A. It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
B. Down.*
C. Up.
D. No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.
574. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes?

A. At same angle of attack, cl remains unaffected.
B. At same angle of attack, cd is increased and cl is decreased.*
C. Clmax of the polar curve is not affected.
D. They do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
575. Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing?

A. Cd is increased and cl is decreased.*
B. Only cl is decreased (cd remains unaffected).
C. Both cl and cd are increased.
D. Cd is increased, while cl remains unaffected.
576. Which aeroplane behavior will be corrected by a yaw damper?

A. Spiral dive.
B. Buffeting.
C. Dutch roll.*
D. Tuck under.
577. Lf the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes?

A. A roll to starboard (right).
B. A roll to port (left).*
C. A decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
D. An increase in lift on the port (left) wing.

I when the critical engine fails during takeoff the speed vmcl can be limiting.
Ii the speed vmcl is always limited by maximum rudder deflection.
A. I is correct, ii is incorrect.
B. I is incorrect, ii is correct.
C. I is incorrect, ii is incorrect.*
D. I is correct, ii is correct.

I when the critical engine fails during take-off the speed vmcl can be limiting.
Ii the speed vmcl can be limited by the available maximum roll rate.
A. I is correct, ii is correct.
B. I is incorrect, ii is incorrect.
C. I is correct, ii is incorrect.
D. I is incorrect, ii is correct*
I vmcl is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration.
Ii the speed vmcl can be limited by the available maximum roll rate.
A. I is incorrect, ii is incorrect.
B. I is correct, ii is incorrect.
C. I is incorrect, ii is correct.
D. I is correct, ii is correct.*
581. The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the?
A. Maximum elevator deflection.
B. Too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.
C. Minimum value of the stick force per g.*
D. Maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
582. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the?

A. Wing axis.
B. Longitudinal axis.*
C. Vertical axis.
D. Lateral axis.
583. Rotation about the lateral axis is called?

A. Yawing.
B. Slipping.
C. Pitching.*
D. Rolling.
584. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could
be limited by the?
A. Wing surface, stabilizer surface.
B. Elevator capability, elevator control forces.*
C. Engine thrust, engine location.
D. Trim system, trim tab surface.
585. If the total sum of moments about one of its axes is not zero, an aeroplane?
A. Would be difficult to control.
B. Would fly a path with a constant curvature.
C. Would not be affected because the situation is normal.
D. Would experience an angular acceleration about that axis.*
586. The centre of gravity moving aft will?

A. Increase the elevator up effectiveness.*
B. Decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
C. Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
D. Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
587. In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because?
A. Behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
B. Aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
C. Aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
D. Aileron deflection only partly affects pressure distribution around wing.*
588. Rotation about the normal or vertical lateral axis is called?

A. Pitching.
B. Slipping.
C. Yawing.*
D. Rolling.
589. Control surface mass balance weights are fitted?

A. Above the hinge.
B. Behind the hinge.
C. In front of the hinge.*
D. Below the hinge.
590. The centre of gravity moving forward will?

A. Increase the elevator up effectiveness.
B. Decrease the elevator up effectiveness.*
C. Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
D. Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
591. When is the manoeuvrability of an aeroplane best?

A. Speed is low.
B. C.g. is on the aft c.g. limit.*
C. C.g. position is on the forward c.g. limit.
D. Flaps are down.
592. Which of the following in as example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn? .
A. Left aileron: 2° up right aileron: 5° down.
B. Left aileron: 5° down right aileron: 2° up.
C. Left aileron: 2° down right aileron: 5° up.
D. Left aileron: 5° up right aileron: 2° down.*
593. Differential aileron deflection?

A. Increases the clmax.
B. Is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
C. Equals the drag of the right and left aileron.*
D. Is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
594. If the elevator trim tab is deflected down, the cockpit trim indicator presents?
A. Neutral.
B. Nose-down.
C. Nose-left.
D. Nose-up.*
595. A c.g location beyond the aft limit leads to?

A. An unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, fe/g).*
B. A too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take-off.
C. An increasing static longitudinal stability.
D. A better recovery performance in the spin.
Limitations (Gust Load, Flutter): (Oxford, KW)
596. "flutter" may be caused by?

A. Roll control reversal.
B. High airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
C. Distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.*
D. Low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
597. If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed V A :

A. It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high ‘g’ manoeuvres.
B. It is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent increases in incidence,
i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive.
C. It is not possible to exceed the limit load.*
D. It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load at high TAS.
598. The speed VNE is:

A. The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive
B. The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out
C. The maximum airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown*
D. The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended
599. Maximum structural cruising speed VNO is the maximum speed at which an aeroplane can be operated
during:
A. Normal operations.*
B. Abrupt manoeuvres.
C. Flight in smooth air.
D. Flight in rough air.
600. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (V FE) is lower than cruising speed because:
A. They are used only when preparing to land
B. The additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher speeds*
C. Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed
D. Too much drag is induced
601. Why is VLE greater than VLO on the majority of large jet transport aircraft?
A. VLO is used when the aircraft is taking off and landing when the IAS is low.
B. Extending the gear at too high an airspeed would cause excessive parasite drag.
C. Flying at too high an airspeed with the gear down would prevent retraction of the forward retracting nose gear.
D. VLO is a lower IAS because the undercarriage doors are vulnerable to aerodynamic loads when the gear is in
transit, up or down.*
602. The phenomenon of flutter is described as:

A. Rapid oscillatory motion involving only rotation of the control surfaces, associated with the shock waves
produced around the control surfaces.
B. Oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structure.*
C. Rapid movement of the airframe caused by vibration from the engines.
D. Reversal of the ailerons caused by wing torsional flexibility.
603. What is the purpose of fitting the engines to an aircraft using wing mounted pylons?
A. They give increased ground clearance in roll.
B. They give improved longitudinal mass distribution.
C. The wing structure can be lighter because the engine acts as a mass balance and also relieves wing bending
stress.*
D. They enable a longer undercarriage to be used which gives an optimum pitch attitude for take-off and landing.
604. Aileron reversal at high dynamic pressures is caused by:
A. The down-going aileron increasing the semi-span angle of attack beyond the critical.
B. Flow separation ahead of the aileron leading edge.
C. Uneven shock wave formation on the top and bottom surface of the aileron, with the attendant movement in
control surface CP, causing the resultant force to act in the opposite direction from that intended.
D. Dynamic pressure acting on the aileron twisting the wing in the opposite direction, possibly causing the aircraft
to bank in a direction opposite to that intended.*
605. Controls are mass balanced in order to:

A. Eliminate control flutter.*
B. Aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls.
C. Provide equal control forces on all three controls.
D. Return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released.
606. If an aircraft weight is reduced by 15%, VA will:

A. Not change.
B. Increase by 15%.
C. Increase by 7.5%.
D. Decrease by 7.5%.*
607. VLO is defined as:

A. Maximum landing gear operating speed.*
B. Maximum landing gear extended speed.
C. Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
D. Maximum flap speed.
608. If flutter is experienced during flight, the preferable action would be:
A. Immediately increase speed beyond VMO / MMO, by sacrificing altitude if necessary.
B. Immediately close the throttles, deploy the speed brakes and bank the aircraft.
C. Rapidly pitch-up to slow the aircraft as quickly as possible.
D. Reduce speed immediately by closing the throttles, but avoid rapid changes in attitude and/or configuration.*
609. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. It is a design requirement that control reversal speeds must be higher than any speed to be achieved in flight.
2. The airframe must be made strong and stiff enough to ensure that the wing torsional divergence speed is higher,
by a substantial safety margin, than any speed which will ever be achieved in any condition in flight.
3. Flying control surfaces are aerodynamically balanced to prevent flutter.
4. An aircraft is not a rigid structure.
5. Aero elasticity affects are inversely proportional to IAS.
6. Control reversal speed is higher if the aircraft is fitted with outboard ailerons which are locked-out as the aircraft
accelerates, the inboard ailerons alone controlling the aircraft in roll at higher speeds.
A. All the above statements are correct.
B. 1, 2, 3 and 6.
C. 1, 2, 4 and 6.*
D. 1, 3, 5 and 6.
610. Which of the following statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?
I. Wing mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter suppression.
II. Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which control surface flutter occurs.
D. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.*
611. Which of the following statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?
I If flutter occurs the lAS should be reduce.
II Resistance to flutter increases with increasing wing stiffness.
D. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.
612. Which statement about flutter are correct or incorrect?

I. Moving the engines from the wing to the fuselage improves wing flutter suppression.
II Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which control flutter occurs.
D. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.
613. Which statement, about flutter, are correct or incorrect?

I. Aero-elastic coupling affects flutter characteristics.
II. Occurrence of flutter is independent of lAS.
D. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.
614. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?

I Aero-elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics.
II The risk of flutter increases as lAS increases.
615. Which statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
I When the mass increases, the gust load factor decreases.
II When the altitude increases, the gust load factor decreases.
I. When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor increases.
II. When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor decreases.
I. When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor decreases.
II When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor increases.
I When the wing area increases, the gust load factor increases.
II When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases.
619. Which statement concerning flight in turbulence is correct?

A. The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1 and can even become negative.*
B. When encountering turbulence during flight, the speed should be adjusted to the design speed for maximum
gust intensity vb.
C. Above vb the aeroplane can never be overstressed by a gust.
D. In severe turbulence, speed should be reduced to approximately 1.2 VS.
620. Which statements about the gust load factor are correct or incorrect?
I When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases.
II When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases.
Stability: (Oxford, KW)
621. An aeroplane which is inherently stable will:

A. Require less effort to control.
B. Be difficult to stall.
C. Not spin.
D. Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force.*
622. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:
A. Statically and dynamically unstable.
B. Statically stable but dynamically unstable.*
C. Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
D. Statically and dynamically stable.
623. Longitudinal stability is given by:

A. The fin.
B. The wing dihedral.
C. The horizontal tailplane.*
D. The ailerons.
624. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide:

A. Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.*
B. Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
C. Lateral stability about the normal axis.
D. Directional stability about the normal axis.
625. Lateral stability is reduced by increasing:

A. Anhedral.*
B. Dihedral.
C. Sweepback.
D. Fuselage and fin area.
626. If the wing AC is forward of the CG:

A. Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to reduce the change of lift.
B. Changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift.*
C. Changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment.
D. When the aircraft sideslips the CG causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus applying a restoring moment.
627. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft:

A. Is reduced by the effects of wing downwash.*
B. Is increased by the effects of wing downwash.
C. Is not affected by wing downwash.
D. Is reduced for nose up displacements, but increased for nose down displacements by the effects of wing
downwash.
628. To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG:
A. Must always coincide with the AC.
B. Must be forward of the neutral point.*
C. Must be aft of the neutral point.
D. Must not be forward of the aft CG limit.
629. When the CG is close to the forward limit:

A. Very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
B. Longitudinal stability is reduced.
C. Very high stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable.*
D. Stick forces are the same as for an aft CG.
630. The static margin is equal to the distance between:

A. The CG and the AC.
B. The AC and the neutral point.
C. The CG and the neutral point.*
D. The CG and the CG datum point.
631. If a disturbing force causes the aircraft to roll:

A. Wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which reduces the sideslip.*
B. The fin will cause a rolling moment which reduces the sideslip.
C. Dihedral will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip.
D. Dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment.
632. With flaps lowered, lateral stability:

A. Will be increased because of the effective increase of dihedral.
B. Will be increased because of increased lift.
C. Will be reduced because the centre of lift of each semi-span is closer to the wing root.*
D. Will not be affected.
633. Dihedral gives a stabilizing rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:

A. On the up going wing when the aircraft rolls.
B. On the down going wing when the aircraft rolls.
C. On the lower wing if the aircraft is sideslipping.*
D. On the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude.
634. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral, will
provide:
A. Greater longitudinal stability.
B. The same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives longitudinal stability.
C. Less lateral stability than a low wing configuration.
D. Greater lateral stability due to the airflow pattern around the fuselage when the aircraft is sideslipping
increasing the effective angle of attack of the lower wing.*
635. At a constant IAS, what affect will increasing altitude have on damping in roll:
A. Remains the same.
B. Increases because the TAS increases.
C. Decreases because the ailerons are less effective.
D. Decreases because the density decreases.*
636. Sweepback of the wings will:

A. Not affect lateral stability.
B. Decrease lateral stability.
C. Increases lateral stability at high speeds only.
D. Increases lateral stability at all speeds.*
637. At low forward speed:

A. Increased downwash from the wing will cause the elevators to be more responsive.
B. Due to the increased angle of attack of the wing the air will flow faster over the wing giving improved aileron
control.
C. A large sideslip angle could cause the fin to stall.*
D. A swept back wing will give an increased degree of longitudinal stability.
638. Following a lateral disturbance, an aircraft with Dutch roll instability will:
A. Go into a spiral dive.
B. Develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw.*
C. Develop oscillations in pitch.
D. Develop an unchecked roll.
639. To correct Dutch roll on an aircraft with no automatic protection system:

A. Use roll inputs*
B. Use yaw inputs
C. Move the CG
D. Reduce speed below MMO
640. A yaw damper:

A. Increases rudder effectiveness.
B. Must be disengaged before making a turn.
C. Augments stability.*
D. Increases the rate of yaw.
641. A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have:
A. Wash out.
B. Taper.
C. Sweep.
D. Anhedral.*
642. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

A. Passes through the wing tips.
B. Passes through the centre of pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow.
C. Passes through the quarter chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis.
D. Passes through the centre of gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.*
643. Loading an aircraft so that the CG exceeds the aft limits could result in:
A. Loss of longitudinal stability, and the nose to pitch up at slow speeds*
B. Excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose to pitch down
C. Excessive load factor in turns
D. High stick forces
644. The tendency of an aircraft to suffer from Dutch roll instability can be reduced:
A. By sweeping the wings
B. By giving the wings anhedral*
C. By reducing the size of the fin
D. By longitudinal dihedral
645. What determines the longitudinal static stability of an aeroplane?

A. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag
B. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab
C. The location of the CG with respect to the AC*
D. The size of the pitching moment which can be generated by the elevator
646. Dihedral angle is:

A. The angle between the main plane and the longitudinal axis
B. The angle measured between the main plane and the normal axis
C. The angle between the quarter chord line and the horizontal datum
D. The upward and outward inclination of the main planes to the horizontal datum*
647. Stability around the normal axis:

A. Is increased if the keel surface behind the CG is increased*
B. Is given by the lateral dihedral
C. Depends on the longitudinal dihedral
D. Is greater if the wing has no sweepback
648. The Centre of Gravity of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-off::
A. The C of G will be within limits for landing
B. The C of G for landing must be checked, allowing for fuel consumed*
C. The C of G will not change during the flight
D. The flight crew can adjust the CG during flight to keep it within acceptable limits for landing
649. The ailerons are deployed and returned to neutral when the aircraft has attained a small angle of bank. If
the aircraft then returns to a wings-level attitude without further control movement it is:
A. Neutrally stable
B. Statically and dynamically stable*
C. Statically stable, dynamically neutral
D. Statically stable
650. The property which tends to decreases rate of displacement about any axis, but only while displacement is
taking place, is known as:
A. Stability
B. Controllability
C. Aerodynamic damping*
D. Manoeuverability
651. If an aircraft is loaded such that the stick force required to change the speed is zero
A. The cg is on the neutral point*
B. The cg is behind the neutral point
C. The cg is on the manouevre point
D. The CG is on the forward CG limit
652. Which of the following statements about static longitudinal stability is correct?
I. A requirement for positive static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is, that the neutral point is behind the
centre of gravity.
II. A wing with positive camber provides a positive contribution to static longitudinal stability, when the centre of
gravity of the aeroplane is in front of the aerodynamic centre of the wing.
a. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.
b. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.
c. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.*
d. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.
653. Which statements are correct or incorrect regarding sideslip, with relative airflow coming from the right,
on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
I The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to go to the right.
II The initial tendency of the left wing is to go down.
a. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.*
c. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.
654. Sweepback of a wing positively influences:

1. Static longitudinal stability.
2. Static lateral stability.
3. Dynamic longitudinal stability.
The combination that regroups- all of the correct statements is?
a. 3
b. 1,2,3.
c. 1
d. 2*
655. A forward CG shift?

a. Decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability.*
b. Increases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
c. Decreases longitudinal stability.
d. Has no influence on longitudinal stability.
656. Which of these statements are correct and incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming
from the left on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
I The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right.
II . The initial tendency of the left wing is to move down.
a. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.
b. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.
c. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.
d. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.*
657. As the stability of an aeroplane increases?

a. Its manoeuvrability also increases.
b. Its tendency to tuck under increases.
c. There is no effect on manoeuvrability.
d. Its manoeuvrability decreases.*
658. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be?
a. Larger at low lAS compared to high lAS.*
b. The same at all speeds.
c. Larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
d. The same for all CG positions.
659. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be?
a. The same at all speeds.
b. Larger at high lAS when compared to low lAS.
c. Smaller for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.*
d. Larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
660. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm

versus angle of attack diagram?
a. Line 4 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at very high
angles of attack
b. Line 3 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at very high
angles of attack
c. Line 1 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at very high
angles of attack
d. Line 1 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at very high
661. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal
stability.
a. Part 1.*
b. Part 1.
c. Part 3.
d. The whole curve.
662. Static lateral stability will be increased by?

a. Reducing the size of the vertical fin.
b. Increasing wing anhedral.
c. The use of a low, rather than a high, wing mounting.
d. Increasing wing sweep back.*

a. Reducing the size of the vertical fin.
b. The use of a low, rather than a high, wing mounting.
c. Reducing wing anhedral.*
d. Reducing wing sweep back.

a. The use of a high, rather than a low, wing mounting.*
b. Increasing wing anhedral.
c. Reducing the size of the vertical fin.
d. Reducing wing sweepback.
665. Which statements are correct or incorrect regarding sideslip, with relative airflow coming from the left, on
an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to go to the left.
The initial tendency of the right wing is to go down.
666. Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?
a. Increased wing span.
b. Anhedral.*
c. Dihedral.
d. High wing.
667. Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral stability?
a. Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing plan form.
b. Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
c. Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.
d. High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.*
668. In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil?
a. Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
b. Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.
c. No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of
angle of attack.*
d. Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack.
669. The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows?
1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional
a. 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive.*
b. 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative.
c. 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive.
d. 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative.
670. Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll?

a. Pitching and yawing.
b. Pitching and rolling.
c. Pitching and adverse yaw.
d. Rolling and yawing.*
671. Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct?
a. An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to
spiral dive. (spiral instability)*
b. The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of each other because
they take place about different axis.
c. An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to
"Dutch roll".
d. Static directional stability can be increased by more powerful engines.
672. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where?

a. Pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.*
b. Change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.
c. Aerodynamic forces are constant.
d. The aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.
673. On a non-swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of
pressure?
a. Remains unchanged.
b. Slightly shifts forward.
c. Shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.*
d. Shifts aft by about 10%.
674. Dihedral of the wing is?

a. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.*
b. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
c. The angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.
d. The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.
675. Dihedral of the wing?

a. Decreases the static lateral stability.
b. Increases the static lateral stability.*
c. Is the only way to increase the static lateral stability.
d. Is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings.
676. Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the
geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased?
a. The required lateral control force increases.*
b. The required lateral control force decreases.
c. The required lateral control force does not change.
d. The stick force per g decreases.
677. Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"?
a. Rudder limiter.
b. Yaw damper.*
c. Roll spoilers.
d. Spoiler mixer.
678. What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more
aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
a. The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller.
b. The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger.
c. The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger.
d. The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller.*
679. Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability?
a. The horizontal tailplane.*
b. The engine.
c. The fuselage.
d. The wing.
680. Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when?

a. The static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
b. The static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
c. The Dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
d. The static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak.*
681. Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the?

a. Centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.
b. Wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.
c. Aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.
d. Centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.*
682. For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located?

a. At the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b. Between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c. With a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.*
d. Aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
683. With the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing/fuselage in straight and
level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane is?
a. Zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
b. Downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity.
c. Downwards.*
d. Upwards.
684. An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight
and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is?
a. Upwards.*
b. Zero.
c. Downwards.
d. Upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
685. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes?

a. A roll to starboard (right).
b. A roll to port (left).*
c. A decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
d. An increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
686. The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows?

a. Negative dihedral effect.
b. Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading.
c. Zero dihedral effect.
d. Positive dihedral effect.*
687. The effect of a forward wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows?
a. Stabilizing effect.
b. No effect.
c. Destabilizing dihedral effect.
d. Negative dihedral effect.*
688. The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the?
a. Maximum elevator deflection.
b. Too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.
c. Minimum value of the stick force per g.*
d. Maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
689. With increasing altitude and constant lAS the static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional
stability (2) with sweptback wing will?
a. (1) decrease (2) decrease.
b. (1) decrease (2) increase.
c. (1) increase (2) decrease.*
d. (1) increase (2) increase.
690. Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?

a. The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static
lateral stability.*
b. Effective dihedral is the angle between the 114 chord line and the lateral axis of the aeroplane.
c. Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.
d. Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip free turns.
691. "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change
of the down wash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
a. (i) aft (ii) increasing.
b. (i) forward (ii) increasing.
c. (i) aft (ii) decreasing.*
d. (i) forward (ii) decreasing.
692. One of the requirements for dynamic stability is?

a. A small C.G. range.
b. Effective elevator.
c. Positive static stability.*
d. A large deflection range of the stabilizer trim.
693. A statically unstable aeroplane is?

a. Never dynamically stable.*
b. Always dynamically stable.
c. Sometimes dynamically stable.
d. Sometimes dynamically unstable.
694. An aeroplane that has positive static stability?

a. Is always dynamically unstable.
b. Can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.*
c. Is always dynamically stable.
d. Is never dynamically stable.
695. The centre of gravity moving aft will?

a. Increase the elevator up effectiveness.*
b. Decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
c. Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
d. Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
696. The "short period mode" is an?
a. Oscillation about the lateral axis.*
b. Oscillation about the vertical axis.
c. Oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
d. Unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.
697. Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a conventional aeroplane about the
lateral axis is correct?
a. An aft CG. position shortens the period time of the phugoid.
b. Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.*
c. Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.
d. Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.
698. After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant
amplitude. The aeroplane is?
a. Statically stable - Dynamically neutral.*
b. Statically unstable - Dynamically stable.
c. Statically stable - Dynamically unstable.
d. Statically unstable - Dynamically neutral.
699. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight
is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve
the load factor of 3.5 is?
a. 450 N.
b. 150 N.
c. 225 N.
d. 375 N.*
700. The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by?
a. (1) aft CG. position (2) aft CG. position.
b. (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
c. (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position.*
d. (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
701. An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip to the right, initially the?
a. Nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.
b. Nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.
c. Nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.*
d. Right wing tends to go down.
702. Which of the following statements regarding stability is true?

a. Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically stable about the relevant axis.
b. Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return
to that condition without oscillation.
c. A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.
d. Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis.*
703. What is meant by the term rolling?

a. Motion about the wing axis.
b. Motion about the longitudinal axis.*
c. Motion about the vertical axis.
d. Motion about the lateral axis.
704. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable C of G position is limited by the?
a. Wing surface, stabilizer surface.
b. Elevator capability and the elevator control forces.*
c. Engine thrust, engine location.
d. Trim system, trim tab surface.
705. Rotation about the lateral axis is called?

a. Yawing.
b. Slipping.
c. Pitching.*
d. Rolling.
706. During landing of a low winged jet aeroplane, the maximum elevator up deflection is normally required
when the flaps are?
a. Fully down and the C.G. is fully forward.*
b. Up and the C.G. is fully forward.
c. Fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.
d. Up and the C.G. is fully aft.
707. Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the?
a. Tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.
b. Tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of increasing amplitude.
c. Initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position.*
d. Initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position.
708. Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
a. Shock stall.
b. Dutch roll.*
c. Tuck under.
d. Mach buffet.
709. The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime
will?
a. Decrease the static lateral stability.
b. Increase the static longitudinal stability.*
c. Decrease the longitudinal stability.
d. Decrease the static lateral stability.
710. Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?
a. Increased wing span.
b. Dihedral.
c. High wing.
d. Anhedral.*
711. Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral stability?
a. Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.
b. High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.*
c. Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
d. Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
Propeller: (Oxford, KW)
712. The blade angle:

a. Is constant along the propeller blade.
b. Decreases from root to tip.*
c. Increases from root to tip.
d. Varies with changes in engine rpm.
713. The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is:

a. The distance it would move forward in one revolution at the blade angle.*
b. The angle the propeller chord makes to the plane of rotation.
c. The distance the propeller actually moves forward in one revolution.
d. The angle the propeller chord makes to the relative airflow.
714. A right hand propeller:

a. Rotates in a clockwise direction when viewed from the rear.*
b. Is a propeller fitted to the right hand engine.
c. Rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when viewed from the rear.
d. Is a propeller mounted in front of the engine.
715. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

a. Depends on forward speed only.
b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed.*
c. Depends on engine rotational speed only.
d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller.
716. During the take-off run a fixed pitch propeller is:

a. At too coarse an angle for maximum efficiency.*
b. At too fine an angle for maximum efficiency.
c. At the optimum angle for efficiency.
d. At the optimum angle initially but becomes too coarse as speed increases.
717. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, an increase in rev/min during the take-off run at full throttle is
due to:
a. An increase in propeller blade slip.
b. The engine overspeeding.
c. A more efficient propeller blade angle of attack.*
d. The propeller angle of attack increasing.
718. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, propeller efficiency will be:
a. Low at low speed, high at high speed.
b. High at low speed, low at high speed.
c. Constant at all speeds.
d. Low at both low and high speed, and highest at cruising speed.*
719. The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller would be set to give the optimum angle:
a. During take-off.
b. During the cruise.*
c. At the maximum level flight speed.
d. For landing.
720. Propeller torque results from the forces on the propeller:

a. Caused by the airflow, giving a moment around the propeller’s longitudinal axis.
b. Caused by centrifugal effect, giving a moment around the propellers’ longitudinal axis.
c. Caused by the airflow, giving a moment around the aircraft’s longitudinal axis.*
d. Caused by centrifugal effect, giving a moment around the aircraft’s longitudinal axis.
721. The thrust force of a propeller producing forward thrust:

a. Tends to bend the propeller tips forward.*
b. Tends to bend the propeller tips backward.
c. Tends to bend the propeller in its plane of rotation.
d. Causes a tension load in the propeller.
722. A propeller which is windmilling:

a. Rotates the engine in the normal direction and gives some thrust.
b. Rotates the engine in reverse and gives drag.
c. Rotates the engine in reverse and gives some thrust.
d. Rotates the engine in the normal direction and gives drag.*
723. To counteract the effect of slipstream rotation on a single engine aircraft.

a. The fin may be reduced in size.
b. A “T” tail may be employed.
c. The fin may be off-set.*
d. The wings may have washout.
724. The gyroscopic effect of a right hand propeller will give:

a. A yawing moment to the left whenever the engine is running.
b. A yawing moment to the left when the aircraft rolls to the right.
c. A nose-up pitch when the aircraft yaws to the right.
d. A yaw to the right when the aircraft pitches nose up.*
725. The alpha range of a variable pitch propeller is between:

a. Feather and flight fine pitch stop.*
b. Feather and ground fine pitch stop.
c. Flight fine pitch stop and reverse stop.
d. Ground fine pitch and reverse stop.
726. When the CSU is running “on speed”:

a. The governor weight centrifugal force balances the CSU spring force.*
b. The CSU spring force balances the oil pressure.
c. The governor weight centrifugal force balances the oil pressure.
d. The supply of oil to the CSU is shut off.
727. If engine power is increased with the propeller lever in the constant speed range, rpm increase, then:
a. The governor weights move out, blade angle decreases, rpm decreases, weights remain out.
b. The governor weights move in, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights move out.
c. The governor weights move out, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights move in.*
d. The governor weights move out, blade angle increases, rpm decreases, weights move in, blade angle decreases
again.
728. The purpose of the Centrifugal feathering latch on a single acting propeller is to prevent:
a. CTM turning the propeller to fine pitches.
b. The propeller from accidentally feathering at high rpm.
c. The propeller from feathering on shut down.*
d. The propeller from overspeeding if the flight fine pitch stop fails to reset.
729. A hydraulic accumulator may be fitted to a single acting propeller to provide pressure for:
a. Normal constant speed operation of the propeller.
b. Operation of the propeller in the event of failure of the CSU pump.
c. Feathering and unfettering the propeller.
d. Unfettering the propeller.*
730. If it is required to increase the rpm of a variable pitch propeller without moving the power lever, the
propeller lever must be moved:
a. Forward, the governor weights move inwards, blade angle increases.
b. Backward, the governor weights move outwards, blade angle decreases.
c. Forwards, the governor weights move inwards, blade angle decreases.*
d. Forwards, the governor weights move outwards, blade angle decreases.
731. The CSU incorporates an oil pump. Its purpose is:

a. To provide pressure to feather the propeller.
b. To provide pressure to unfeather the propeller.
c. To increase the engine oil pressure to a higher pressure to operate the propeller pitch change mechanism.*
d. To ensure adequate lubrication of the CSU.
732. A propeller blade is twisted along its length:

a. To compensate for the Centrifugal Twisting Moment.
b. To maintain a constant angle of attack from root to tip of the blade.*
c. To increase the thrust given by the tip.
d. To maintain constant thrust from root to tip.
733. Propeller torque is:

a. The tendency of the propeller to twist around its longitudinal axis.
b. The helical path of the propeller through the air.
c. The turning moment produced by the propeller about the axis of the crankshaft.*
d. The thrust produced by the propeller.
734. The greatest stress on a rotating propeller occurs:

a. At the tip.
b. At about 75% of the length.
c. At the midpoint.
d. At the root.*
735. The Beta range of a propeller is from:

a. The feather stops to the Flight Fine Pitch stop.
b. The feather stops to the Ground Fine Pitch stop.
c. The feather stops to the reverse pitch stop.
d. The Flight Fine Pitch stop to the reverse pitch stop.*
736. An ‘Auto - Feathering’ system senses:

a. Low rpm.
b. Decreasing rpm.
c. High torque.
d. Low torque.*
737. What happens to the pitch of a variable pitch propeller in order to maintain constant rpm when
(i) IAS is increased and (ii) Power is increased?
a. increases decreases
b. decreases increases
c. increases increases*
d. decreases decreases
738. Propellers may have an ‘avoid’ range of rpm:

a. To avoid resonance peaks which could lead to fatigue damage to the propeller.*
b. To avoid excessive propeller noise.
c. Because the engine does not run efficiently in that rpm range.
d. To avoid the possibility of detonation occurring in the engine.
739. As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that:

A. Any pitching around the longitudinal axis results in a yawing moment
B. Any yawing around the normal axis results in a pitching moment*
C. Any pitching around the lateral axis results in a rolling moment
D. Any rolling around the longitudinal axis results in a pitching moment
740. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the
aeroplane to the:
A. Right around the normal axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis
B. Right around the normal axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis
C. Left around the normal axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis
D. Left around the normal axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis*
741. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it:
A. Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.
B. Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.*
C. Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
D. Minimizes the gyroscopic effect.
742. Propeller ‘slip’ is:

A. The air stream in the wake of the propeller.
B. The amount by which the distance covered in one revolution falls short of the geometric pitch.*
C. The increase in rpm which occurs during take-off.
D. The change of blade angle from root to tip.
743. The distance a propeller actually advances in one revolution is:

A. Twisting.
B. Effective pitch.*
C. Geometric pitch.
D. Blade pitch.
744. Blade angle of a propeller is defined as the angle between the:

A. Angle of attack and chord line.
B. Angle of attack and line of thrust.
C. Chord line and plane of rotation.*
D. Thrust line and propeller torque.
745. Propeller efficiency is the:

A. Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
B. Ratio of thrust horsepower to shaft horsepower.*
C. Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
D. Ratio of TAS to rpm.
746. A fixed‑pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of:
A. Airspeed and RPM.*
B. Airspeed and altitude.
C. Altitude and RPM.
D. Torque and blade angle.
747. When does asymmetric blade effect cause the aeroplane to yaw to the left?
a. When at high angles of attack.*
b. When at high airspeeds.
c. When at low angles of attack.
d. In the cruise at low altitude.
748. The left turning tendency of an aeroplane caused by asymmetric blade effect is the result of the:
A. Gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was
applied.
B. Clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the aeroplane counterclockwise.
C. Propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.*
D. The rotation of the slipstream striking the tail on the left.
749. With regard to gyroscopic precession, when a force is applied at a point on the rim of a spinning disc, the
resultant force acts in which direction and at what point?
a. In the same direction as the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation.*
b. In the opposite direction of the applied force, 90° ahead in the plane of rotation.
c. In the opposite direction of the applied force, at the point of the applied force.
d. In the same direction as the applied force, 90° ahead of the plane of rotation when the propeller rotates
clockwise, 90° retarded when the propeller rotates counterclockwise.
750. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

A. Depends on forward speed only.
B. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed.*
C. Depends on engine rotational speed only.
D. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller.
751. Counter-rotating propellers are:

A. Propellers which rotate counter clockwise.
B. Propellers which are geared to rotate in the opposite direction to the engine.
C. Two propellers driven by separate engines, rotating in opposite directions.*
D. Two propellers driven by the same engine, rotating in opposite directions.
752. If engine rpm is to remain constant on an engine fitted with a variable pitch propeller, an increase in engine
power requires:
a. a decrease in blade angle.
b. a constant angle of attack to be maintained to stop the engine from overspeeding.
c. an increase in blade angle.*
d. the prop control lever to be advanced.
753. The blade angle of a propeller blade is the angle between the:
a. Reference chord line and the propeller axis of rotation.
b. Plane of rotation and the relative airflow.
c. Reference chord line and the relative airflow.
d. Reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.*
754. In case of an engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine
aeroplane, not fitted with a feathering system:
a. Move to the lowest pitch position by centrifugal force and/or spring force.*
b. Move to certain pitch position, depending on the windmilling rpm.
c. Move to the highest pitch position by aerodynamic forces.
d. Move to the lowest pitch position by oil pressure produced by the windmilling engine.
755. Concerning a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a single acting pitch
control unit:
a. Oil pressure drives the blades towards higher pitch angle.
b. Oil pressure drives the blades towards smaller pitch angle.*
c. Spring force drives the blades towards smaller pitch angle.
d. Aerodynamic force drives the blades towards higher pitch angle.
756. The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is
operated:
a. Manually by the pilot.
b. Hydraulically by engine oil.*
c. By aerodynamic forces.
d. Hydraulically by hydraulic fluid.
757. The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a:
a. High efficiency in a much wider speed range of the aeroplane.*
b. Lower propeller blade stress.
c. Higher efficiency in cruising range.
d. Constant efficiency in the whole speed range of the aeroplane.
758. When TAS increases in flight, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and throttle levers
are not moved):
a. Increase.*
b. Decrease.
c. Remain unchanged.
d. First decrease then after a short period increase to its previous value.
759. With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto fails
completely. This will cause:
a. Loss of approximately 100 rpm*
b. Excessive vibration.
c. An additional load on the other magneto.
d. The engine will overheat.
760. With an aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto
fails completely. This will cause:
a. Loss of approximately 100 rpm
b. An additional load on the other magneto.
c. The engine will overheat.
d. A slight decrease in blade angle but no change in rpm.*
761. When a turbo-prop aeroplane decelerates during the initial part of the landing roll, a constant speed
propeller with Beta range:
a. Produces zero thrust.
b. Is feathered.
c. Produces reverse thrust.*
d. Produces negative thrust.
762. During take-off the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimized for cruise conditions
is:
a. Relatively small.
b. Relatively high.*
c. Zero.
d. Negative.
763. In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers the 'minimum control speed'?
a. Is determined by the failure of the right engine.
b. The right engine is the critical engine.
c. The left engine is the critical engine.*
d. The left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.
764. An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists?

a. Only for counter-rotating propeller.
b. Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.
c. If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.*
d. If there is an unbalanced propeller.
765. The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at?

a. Low airspeeds with low power setting.
b. Low airspeeds with high power setting.*
c. High airspeeds with low power setting.
d. High airspeeds with high power setting.
766. What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed propeller" if the manifold pressure is
increased?
a. It will increase.*
b. It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again.
c. It will decrease so that the engine can increase.
d. It will remain the same.
767. The 'constant speed propeller' has its best efficiency?

a. During climb only above and below the design point.
b. A better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same design speed.*
c. In general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.
d. Only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.
768. In general, in twin engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'?

a. The spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
b. The oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
c. The oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.*
d. The aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
769. Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at?
a. Cruising speed.*
b. Idling.
c. Full throttle.
d. Take-off.
770. When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is
said to be?
a. Feathered.*
b. WindmiIIing.
c. Transparent.
d. At zero drag.
771. A propeller blade is twisted, so as to?

a. Avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
b. Decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.
c. Allow a higher mechanical stress.
d. Keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.*
772. A pilot normally uses the propeller auto feather system during?
a. Cruise.
b. Take-off.
c. Landing.
d. Take-off and landing.*
773. When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller?
a. Reduces.*
b. Increases.
c. .Stays constant.
d. Stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
774. The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable pitch propeller?

a. Is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative*
b. Is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant speed.
c. Controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.
d. Is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems.
775. To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to?

a. Gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
b. Gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
c. Use the electric unfeathering pump.*
d. Manually release the blade latch.
776. For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release
is?
a. (1) high (2) forward.
b. (1) low (2) forward.*
c. (1) low (2) aft.
d. (1) high (2) aft.
777. The procedure for un-feathering a propeller is to?

a. Release the blade latch.
b. Operate the un-feathering electric pump.
c. Increases TAS before using the electric un-feathering pump.*
d. Decrease TAS before operating the un-feathering pump.
778. The purpose of a synchroscope is to?

a. Indicate the RPM of each engine relative to that of the master engine.
b. Indicate the RPM of each engine.
c. Indicate the RPM of each propeller.
d. Indicate the RPM of each propeller relative to that of the master propeller.*
779. The RPM lever is used to control the indications on the while the fuel lever is used to control indications on
the?
1. MAP gauge.
2. Tachometer.
3. ASI
4. EPR gauge.
a. 1,2.
b. 2,1.*
c. 1,3.
d. 2,4.
780. To feather the propeller the pilot must?

a. Pull the throttle lever fully back.
b. Push the throttle lever fully forward.
c. Pull the RPM lever fully back.*
d. Push the throttle lever fully forward.
781. The drag on the propeller of a failed engine is?

a. Greatest when at fine pitch (high RPM)*
b. Greatest when feathered.
c. Least when at fine pitch.
d. Greatest when stopped.
782. If the engine of a light aircraft fails and is allowed to stop in flight?
a. It must be feathered.*
b. It cannot be feathered.
c. No advantage will be gained by feathering it.
d. Glide range will be less if it is feathered.
783. What is the most common reason for increasing the number of blades on a propeller?
a. Increase aerodynamic efficiency.
b. Reduce propeller noise.
c. Increase power absorption capability.*
d. Increase the effectiveness of the constant speed unit.
784. Which of the following will increase the gyroscopic precession effect of a propeller?
a. Increased angle of attack.
b. Decreased TAS.
c. Pitch and roll.
d. Increased RPM.*
785. A constant speed propeller aircraft is descending with the throttle closed and RPM lever set at 2000 RPM.
What would be the effect of retarding the propeller lever?
a. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would increase.
b. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would decrease.
c. Rate of descent and RPM would increase.
d. Rate of descent and RPM would decrease.*
786. Which of the following conditions will occur when a propeller is feathered?
a. The highest windmilling speed.
b. The maximum D:L ratio.
c. Minimum aerodynamic drag on the propeller.*
d. Lowest blade angle.
787. Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller?
a. Decrease TAS and RPM.
b. Increase TAS and RPM.
c. Increase RPM and decrease TAS.*
d. Decrease RPM and increase TAS.
788. Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller?
a. Pull up into a climb without increasing power.*
b. Push down into a dive without decreasing power.
c. Decrease RPM while descending.
d. Decrease RPM while climbing.
789. Propeller efficiency is?

a. SHP/THP.
b. THP/SHP.
c. SHP/BHP.
d. BHP/THP.*
790. Increasing propeller RPM setting in a glide will range and L:D ratio.
a. Increase, Increase.
b. Decrease, Decrease.*
c. Increase, Decrease.
d. Decrease, Increase.
791. For a constant speed propeller?

a. Blade angle increases with increasing RPM.*
b. Angle of attack increases with increasing RPM.
c. Blade angle decreases with increasing RPM.
d. Angle of attack decreases with increasing RPM.
792. If the propeller RPM lever is pushed forward in a glide it will?

a. Increase range.
b. Increase drag.*
c. Decrease RPM.
d. Improve cooling.
793. If propeller pitch is increased in a glide?

a. RPM and range will increase.
b. RPM and range will decrease.
c. RPM will decrease and range will increase.*
d. RPM will increases and range will decrease.
794. A constant speed propeller ......... compared to a fixed pitch propeller?

a. Is lighter.
b. Is more efficient.*
c. Is stronger.
d. Turns faster.
795. In reverse thrust?

a. Angle of attack is greatest at the blade tips.
b. Angle of attack is greatest at the blade roots.
c. Angle of attack is greatest at the 70% radius point.
d. Angle of attack is zero.
796. Which of the following statements about a propeller is correct?
I Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased.
II Asymmetric bade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through the
propeller disc.
b. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.*
c. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.

I Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased.
II Asymmetric blade effect reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through the
propeller disc increases.
a. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.*
b. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.

I A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch.
II A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch.
799. Which statements is correct?

I A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch.
II A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch.
c. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.*
800. For a given RPM of a fixed pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack will
a. Increases when the TAS decreases.*
b. Decreases when the TAS decreases.
c. Remains constant when the TAS decreases.
d. Remains constant when the TAS increases.
801. A typical curve representing propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller versus TAS
at constant RPM is?
a. Diagram 1.
b. Diagram 3.*
c. Diagram 2.
d. Diagram 4.
802. Which statements about propeller noise are correct or incorrect?

I Propeller noise increases when the blade tip speed increases.
II For a given engine and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of blades allows for a reduction in
propeller noise.
b. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.
d. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.

I Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit.
II Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit.
a. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*
804. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller?
I A constant speed propeller reduces fuel consumption over a range if cruise speeds.
II A constant speed propeller improves hike-off performance compared with a coarse fixed pitch propeller.
b. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.*
d. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.
805. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller?

I Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller noise.
II Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed decreases propeller efficiency.
806. Which statement about propeller icing is correct?

I Propeller icing increases the blade element drag and decreases blade element lift.
II Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency.
a. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.
d. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.*
807. Which statement are correct or incorrect regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller
on a single engine aeroplane?
I Pitch down produces right yaw.
II Left yaw produces pitch up.
c.I. Is correct. II. Is correct.
808. Which statement are correct or incorrect for a propeller of a given diameter and at constant RPM?
I. Assuming blade shape does not change, power absorption is independent of the number of blades.
II Power absorption increases if the mean chord of the blades increases.
c. I. Is correct. II. Is correct.
809. Which statement are correct or incorrect?

I Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during flight at constant aeroplane attitude.
II Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during flight at low speed at high propeller RPM..
810. Which statement are correct or incorrect when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed
propeller?
I A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller efficiency over a range of cruise speeds.
II A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared to a coarse pitch propeller.
b. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*
811. Which statement about propeller noise are correct or incorrect?

I Propeller noise remains constant when the blade tip speed increases.
II For a given engine and blade shape, a decrease in the number of blades allows for a reduction in propeller noise.
a. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.
b. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.*
812. Which statement regarding gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane
are correct or incorrect?
I Pitch up produce left yaw.
II Right yaw produces pitch up.
a. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.*
813. Which of these statements about propellers are correct or incorrect?

I A cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch compared with a take-off and climb propeller.
II A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during take-off and climb compared with a fine pitch propeller.
c. I. Is correct. II. Is incorrect.*
814. The correct sequence of cross-sections representing propeller blade twist is?
a. Sequence 2.*
b. Sequence 1.
c. Sequence 3.
d. Sequence 4.
815. For a fixed pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of attack will?
a. Decreases if RPM decreases.*
b. Increases if RPM decreases.
c. Remain constant if RPM decreases.
d. Remain constant if RPM increases.
816. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of
them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers?
a. The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.
b. The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.
c. Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.
d. More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.*
817. The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and?
a. Aeroplane heading.
b. Principal direction of propeller blade.
c. Local air speed vector.*
d. Direction of propeller axis.
818. Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?

a. Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of propeller blade occurs.
b. Geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is traveling in forward direction
in one propeller revolution.*
c. Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis.
d. Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane.
819. Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
a. The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
b. The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
c. The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.
d. The blade angle increases with increasing speed.*
820. Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?
a. No.
b. Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.
c. Yes slightly.*
d. Yes strongly.
821. The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when?
a. Velocity and RPM increase.
b. Forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing.
c. Velocity and RPM decrease.
d. RPM increases and forward velocity decreases.*
822. Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades?
a. Increased noise.
b. Less power can be absorbed by the propeller.
c. Higher tip-speed.
d. Decrease propeller efficiency.*
823. If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant lAS the lift to drag ratio will?
a. Increase and the rate of descent will increase.
b. Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
c Decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
d. Increase and the rate of descent will decrease.*
824. A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will?
a. Yaw the aeroplane to the left.*
b. Roll the aeroplane to the left.
c. Yaw the aeroplane to the right.
d. Roll the aeroplane to the right.
825. Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by?

a. Pitching and rolling.
b. Increasing RPM and yawing.
c. Increasing RPM and rolling.
d. Pitching and yawing.*
826. Increasing the number of propeller blades will?

a. Increase the maximum absorption of power.*
b. Increase the propeller efficiency.
c. Increase the noise level at maximum power.
d. Decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.
827. When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position?

a. The RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.
b. The drag of the propeller is then minimal.*
c. The propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.
d. The windmilling RPM is the maximum.
828. An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non-rotating (2) propeller. Which
statement about propeller drag is correct?
a. (1) is larger than (2).*
b. (1) is equal to (2).
c. (2) is larger than (1).
d. It is impossible to say which one is largest.
829. Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between?

a. The usable (power available) power and the maximum power.
b. The thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.
c. Usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.*
d. The thrust and the maximum thrust.
830. If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and
constant airspeed, the propeller pitch will?
a. Decrease and the rate of descent will increase.*
b. Increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
c. Increase and the rate of descent will increase.
d. Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
831. If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant
airspeed, the propeller pitch will?
a. Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
b. Decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
c. Increase and the rate of descent will decrease.*
d. Increase and the rate of descent will increase.
832. Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?

a. To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
b. To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
c. Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment's speed in the
plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane.*
d. Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment's speed in the
plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
833. A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by?
a. High angles of attack.*
b. High speed.
c. Large angles of yaw.
d. Large angles of climb.
834. For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference
section?
a. Decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
b. Is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
c. Is always positive during idling descent.
d. Is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.*
835. What effect does the torque reaction of a single right handed tractor propeller have during the take-off
roll?
a. Weight on the right wheel increases while that on the left decreases.
b. Weight on the right wheel decreases while that on the left increases.*
c. Weight on the right and left wheels decreases.
d. Weight on the right and left wheels increases.
836. Which will increase the gyroscopic precession effect of a propeller?

a. Increased angle of attack.
b. Decreased TAS.
c. Pitch and roll.
d. Increased RPM.*
837. A constant speed propeller aircraft is descending with throttle closed and RPM lever at 2000 RPM. What
would be the effect of retarding the propeller lever?
a. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would increase.
b. Rate of descent would remain constant and RPM would decrease.
c. Rate of descent and RPM would increase.
d. Rate of descent and RPM would decrease.*
838. Which of the following statements about propellers is true?

a. Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the plane of rotation.
b. Critical tip speed is the RPM at which there is a risk of some part of the blade stalling.
c. Geometric pitch is the distance that a propeller would move forward in one turn if there were no slip.*
d. Blade angle is the angle between the chord line of the blade and the shaft axis.
839. Which of the following conditions will occur when a propeller is feathered?
a. The highest windmilling speed.
b. The maximum D:L ratio.
c. Minimum aerodynamic drag on the propeller.*
d. Lowest blade angle.
840. What is the critical tip speed of a propeller?

a. The RPM at which the angle of attack at the blade tip is equal to the stalling angle of the blades.
b. Critical tip speed is the lowest combination of RPM and inflow speed at which the airflow over the tips of the
blades first reaches the local speed of sound.*
c. The speed at which the blade tips experience low speed stall.
d. The speed at which the blade tip angle is the equal to the stalling angle of the blades.
841. Which of the following is true of a constant speed propeller?

a. RPM decreases with decreasing TAS.
b. RPM increases with increasing TAS.
c. Blade angle increases with increasing TAS.*
d. Blade angle decreases with increasing TAS.
842. Which will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller?
a. Pull up into a climb without increasing power.*
b. Push down into a dive without decreasing power.
c. Decrease RPM while descending.
d. Decrease RPM while climbing.
843. How do propellers convert engine horsepower into thrust horsepower?

a. By using aerodynamic processes to generate forward facing lift which is thrust.
b. By using aerodynamic means to generate lift, the forward facing component of which is thrust.*
c. By producing a low pressure area in front of the propeller disk which causes the aircraft to be sucked forward.
d. By using aerodynamic means to generate a forward facing total reaction which is thrust.
844. Which of the following produces best propeller efficiency?

a. Ensuring that the propeller wash has maximum velocity.
b. Ensuring that the propeller wash velocity is less than TAS.
c. Ensuring that the propeller affects the minimum practicable mass flow of air.
d. Ensuring that the velocity of the propeller wash is just higher than TAS.*
845. An aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller is in straight and level flight. What will happen if air density suddenly
increases, assuming that engine power output is not immediately affected?
a. The propeller RPM will decrease.*
b. The propeller RPM will increase.
c. The propeller blade angle will increase.
d. The propeller blade angle will decrease.
846. How does drag on a windmilling propeller compare with that on a stationary one?
a. Lower.
b. Higher.*
c. Lower or higher depending on TAS.
d. Lower or higher depending on blade angle.
847. If propeller pitch is decreased in a glide, rate of descent and L:D ratio will?
a. Decrease Decrease.
b. Increase Increase.
c. Decrease Increase
d. Increase Decrease.*
848. Propeller efficiency is?

a. SHP/THP.
b. THP/SHP (BHP).*
c. SHPIBHP.
d. BHP/THP.
849. Increasing propeller RPM setting in a glide will....... range and ... L:D ratio.
a. Increase, Increase.
b. Decrease, Decrease.*
c. Increase, Decrease.
d. Decrease, Increase.
850. During take-off using a right handed tractor propeller, torque reaction will cause?
a. Right roll.
b. Left roll.
c. Right roll and yaw.
d. Left roll and yaw.*
851. During take-off using a right handed tractor propeller, the slipstream effect will cause?
a. Right roll and left yaw
b. Left roll and right yaw.
c. Right roll and yaw.
d. Left roll and yaw.*
852. During take-off using a tail wheel and right handed tractor propeller, the asymmetric blade effect will
cause?
a. Right roll.
b. Left roll.
c. Right yaw.
d. Left yaw.*
853. During take-off using a nose wheel and right handed tractor propeller the asymmetric thrust effect will
cause?
a. Right roll.
b. Left roll.
c. Right yaw.
d. Left yaw.*
Pressurisation: (Oxford, KW)
854. Main and nose wheel bays are:

A. Pressurized.
B. Unpressurised.*
C. Conditioned.
D. Different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised.
855. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:

A. When atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted by the system controls.*
B. Where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time the inward relief valve opens.
C. When the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 PSI.
D. The pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate.
856. When would the negative differential limit be reached/exceeded:

A. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude.*
B. During ground pressure testing.
C. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs.
D. When changing to manual operation.
857. A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increases does pressure diff:
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.*
C. Remain the same.
D. Nil.
858. In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:

A. Close.
B. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open.*
C. Open to increase air conditioning.
D. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed.
859. In a turbo cooler system is the cooling air:

A. Ram air.*
B. Engine by pass air.
C. Cabin air.
D. Compressor air.
860. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:
A. In descent.*
B. In climb.
C. In periods when the dehumidifier is in use.
D. In cruise.
861. Is a cabin humidifier:

A. On the ground in conditions of low relative humidity.
B. At high altitude.*
C. At low altitude.
D. On the ground in high ambient temperatures.
862. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

A. Number of pressurisation cycles.*
B. Number of explosive decompressions.
C. Number of landings only.
D. Number of cycles at maximum differential.
863. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, will air be:
A. Contaminated.*
B. Unaffected.
C. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used.
D. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted.
864. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

A. Special gauge.*
B. Aircraft VSI.
C. Cabin pressure controller.
D. Gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure.
865. Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic. is supplied with):

A. Air data computer output information.
B. Cabin and static pressure.*
C. Cabin pressure, static and air speed information.
D. Cabin pressure only.
866. On what principle does the vapour cycle cooling system work on:
A. Liquid into vapour.*
B. Vapour into liquid.
C. Vapour into gas.
D. Cold gas into hot gas.
867. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:

A. To protect the undercarriage bay.
B. To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated.
C. To prevent damage to the ducts.*
D. To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line.
868. What system is installed to control the air conditioning:

A. Emulsifier and water extractor.
B. Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier.*
C. Dehydrator only.
D. Humidifier only.
869. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

A. By expanding over turbine.
B. By expanding over turbine driving compressor.*
C. Via an air cooled radiator.
D. By passing it through the fuel heater.
870. At the max differential phase, is the discharge valve:

A. Open.*
B. Closed.
C. Under the control of the rate capsule.
D. Partly open.
871. What is the purpose of inward relief valves:

A. To prevent negative differential.*
B. To back up the duct relief valve.
C. To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency.
D. To back up the outflow valve.
872. On a ground pressurisation test, if the cabin suffers a rapid de-pressurisation:
A. The temperature will rise suddenly.
B. Water precipitation will occur.*
C. Damage to hull may occur.
D. Duct relief valve may jam open.
873. A heat exchanger functions by:

A. Combining ram and charge air.
B. Mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger.
C. Passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts.*
D. Removing the static charge.
874. Maximum Differential pressure:

A. Is the maximum authorised pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient
pressure.*
B. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump.
C. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit.
D. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry.
875. A humidifier is fitted to:

A. Extract the moisture content in the air.
B. Filter the air.
C. Increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude.*
D. To ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude.
876. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

A. The duct relief valve will take control.
B. The inward relief valve would assume control.
C. The safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference.*
D. The safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference.
877. Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:

A. The engine compressor or cabin compressor.*
B. The engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct.
C. The engine compressor or ram turbine.
D. The engine turbine or cabin compressor.
878. Safety valves are biased:

A. Inwards.*
B. Outwards.
C. In the direction sensed by the svc.
D. Neither a nor b.
879. Cabin compressors:

A. Increase their flow in cruise conditions.
B. Decrease their flow in cruise conditions.
C. Increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure and reduction in engine RPM in
order to maintain the mass flow.*
D. Deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit.
880. In a pressurisation circuit the sequence of operation is for the:

A. Inward relief valve to open before the safety valve.
B. Outflow valve to operate before the safety valve.*
C. Outflow valve to operate after the safety valve.
D. Outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve.
881. With the QFE set on the cabin controller, against an altitude of zero:
A. The fuselage will be pressurised on landing.
B. A ground pressurisation will automatically take place.
C. The cabin will be unpressurised on landing.*
D. The flight deck will be depressurised.
882. In the cruise at 30,000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000 ft to 6,000 ft:
A. Cabin differential will increase.
B. Cabin differential will not be affected.
C. Cabin differential will decrease.*
D. Nil.
883. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000 ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to climb at
500 ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000 ft is:
A. The same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.*
B. Half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
C. Twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
D. Three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
884. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
A. Allows the aircraft to be pressurised on the ground.
B. Stops pressurising on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure differential.*
C. Ensures that the discharge valve is closed.
D. Cancels out the safety valve on the ground.
885. Negative differential is limited by:

A. Dump valve.
B. Inward relief valve.*
C. Outflow valve.
D. Safety valve.
886. Sequence of air through a vapour cooling system is:

A. Turbine then expansion valve.*
B. Tank then evaporator.
C. Turbine then evaporator.
D. Compressor then turbine.
887. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:
A. A duct relief valve is fitted.
B. A venturi device is fitted.
C. A mass flow controller is fitted.*
D. A thermostatic relief valve is fitted.
888. The term “pressurisation cycle” means:

A. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only.
B. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released.*
C. Air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi.
D. The frequency in hz the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter the fuselage.
889. Inward Relief Valves operate:

A. In conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a negative diff.
B. In conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative diff.
C. When manually selected during the emergency descent procedure.
D. Automatically when there is a negative diff.*
890. Safety valves operate:
A. At higher diff than discharge valve.*
B. As soon as initiation takes place.
C. At a lower diff than a discharge valve.
D. At a set value, which is selected.
891. Ditching Cocks are operated:

A. Automatically when the soluble plugs disolve.
B. To shut all outflow valves.*
C. To direct pressure into flotation bags.
D. For rapid depressurisation.
892. Duct Relief Valves operate when:

A. Excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply ducts.*
B. To keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure.
C. To prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open.
D. The cooling modulator shutters reach the optimised position.
893. During a normal pressurised cruise, the discharge valve position is:
A. At a position pre-set before take off.
B. Partially open.*
C. Open until selected altitude is reached.
D. Closed until selected altitude is reached.
894. A dump valve:

A. Automatically opens when fuel is dumped.
B. Is controlled manually.*
C. Is opened automatically when the safety valve opens.
D. Is controlled by the safety valve integrating line.
895. When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Remains the same.*
D. Nil.
896. If pressure is manually controlled:

A. An extra member is required to monitor system operation.
B. The climb rate would be maintained automatically.
C. Climb rate could not be maintained.
D. Care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe.*
897. An aircraft is prevented from pressurising on the ground by:

A. The auto deflating valve on the main oleos.
B. Inhibiting micro switches on the landing gear.*
C. Inhibiting micro switches on the throttles.
D. The pressure control master switch.
898. If the pressurisation air is passed over the cold air unit compressor does it:
A. Increase the charge air temperature.*
B. Decrease the charge air temperature.
C. Decrease the charge air pressure.
D. Make no change to the charge air condition.
899. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI show:
A. Rate of climb.
B. No change unless the aircraft climbs.
C. Rate of descent.*
D. Nil.
900. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

A. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.*
B. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter.
C. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.
D. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to msl isa conditions.
901. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

A. Pressurisation of the flight deck only.
B. The ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure.*
C. The passenger cabin on an airliner.
D. The ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes.
902. A pressurisation system works by:

A. Essentially constant input mass flow and variable output.*
B. Essentially constant output mas flow and variable input.
C. Does not start until an altitude of 8,000 ft has been reached.
D. Supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system.
903. When air is pressurised by an engine driven compressor, it is also:

A. Moisturised.
B. Heated.*
C. Cooled.
D. The temperature is not affected.
904. In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) the supply air behind the primary heat
exchanger is:
a. Compressed, passed through the secondary heat exchanger then through the expansion turbine.*
b. Compressed, passed through the expansion turbine, then through the secondary heat exchanger.
c. Passed through the expansion turbine then directly to the secondary heat exchanger.
d. Passed through the expansion turbine, then compressed, then passed through the secondary heat exchanger.
905. Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experience a malfunction of the
pressure controller. If the cabin rate of climb indicator read -200 ftlmin:
a. A descent must be initiated to prevent the passenger oxygen masks from dropping when the cabin altitude
reaches 14000 ft.
b. The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its original level.
c. The crew must intermittently cut of the incoming air flow, in order to maintain zero cabin rate of climb.
d. The differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety valves to open.*
906. Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experience a malfunction of the
pressure controller. If the cabin rate of climb indicator read 200 ftlmin:
a. The differential pressure will rise to its maximum vale, thus causing the safety valves to open.
b. The differential pressure will fall to zero.*
c. A descent must be initiated to prevent the passenger oxygen masks from dropping when the cabin altitude
reaches 14000 ft.
d. The crew must intermittently cut of the incoming air flow, in order to maintain zero cabin rate of climb.
907. A cabin rate of descent:

a. Results in a cabin pressure increase.*
b. Results in a cabin pressure decrease.
c. Is always the same as the aeroplane's rate of descent.
d. Is not possible at constant aeroplane altitude.
908. Cabin pressurisation is regulated by the:

a. Engine bleed valves.
b. Cabin outflow valves.*
c. Engine RPM.
d. Cabin inlet valves.
909. Cabin air for JAR 25 aeroplanes is usually taken from:

a. The high pressure compressor and from the low pressure compressor if necessary.*
b. The second stage fan.
c. The high pressure compressor.
d. The low pressure compressor.
910. An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack):

a. Causes a pressure and temperature drop in the bleed air.*
b. Decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
c. Increases the outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
d. Does not affect the bleed air.
911. The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions:
1. Control the cabin altitude.
2. Control the rate of change of cabin altitude.
3. Limit the differential pressure.
4. Balance aircraft altitude with cabin altitude.
5. Ventilate the cabin.
6. Keep a constant differential pressure throughout all phases of flight.
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
a. 1,5,6.
b. 1,2,3.*
c. 3,4,5.
d. 2,4,6.
912. The pressurisation system of an aeroplane:

a. Will maintain a sea level cabin pressure at all altitudes.
b. Only pressurises the flight deck area.
c. Has the capability to maintain a cabin pressure that is higher than ambient pressure.*
d. Will maintain a zero cabin differential pressure at all altitudes.
913. The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit?
a. Outlet and uses a centrifugal process.*
b. Inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
c. Outlet and uses an evaporation process.
d. Inlet and uses an evaporation process.
914. In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to?

a. Allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
b. Cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.*
c. Allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation.
d. Cool bleed air.
915. If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the?
a. Negative pressure relief valve will close.
b. Outflow valve open completely.
c. Air cycle machine will stop.
d. Negative pressure relief valve will open.*
916. An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure controller,
the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given: VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication, Zc: Cabin pressure
altitude DELTA P: Differential pressure. This will result in a? .
a. VZc increase, Zc increase, DELTA P decrease.*
b. VZc decrease, Zc increase, DELTA P decrease.
c. VZc increase, Zc increase, DELTA P increase.
d. VZc decrease, Zc decrease, DELTA P increase.
917. In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for?
a. Pressure.
b. Temperature.
c. Humidity.*
d. Purity.
918. In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion?
a. Of Freon in a heat exchanger.
b. Of Freon in the turbine.
c. In the turbine.
d. In a pressure relief valve.
919. The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by?
a. Roots type compressors.
b. Single radial compressors.
c. Main engine compressors.*
d. Piston compressors.
920. Main cabin temperature is?

a. Controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.*
b. Controlled by individual passenger.
c. Not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
d. Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
921. Cabin altitude means the?

a. Difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
b. Flight level the aircraft is flying at.
c. Flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
d. Cabin pressure expressed as altitude.*
922. The "cabin differential pressure" is?

a. The pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
b. Cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.*
c. Approximately 5 psi at maximum.
d. Approximately 15 psi at maximum.
923. The cabin rate of descent is?

a. A cabin pressure increase.*
b. Always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c. A cabin pressure decrease.
d. Is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.
924. The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category aeroplane is approximately?
a. 15.5 psi.
b. 9.0 psi.*
c. 3.5 psi.
d. 13.5 psi.
925. What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
a. Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.
b. Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
c. Cooling of the APU compartment.
d. Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.*
926. The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine)?

a. Drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
b. Increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
c. Drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.
d. Drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.*
927. A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude?
a. 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m).
b. 8000 ft (approx. 2400 rn).
c. 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m).
d. 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m).*
928. The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components. These include two heat
exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat
exchangers are as follows?
a. P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo
compartment (animals).
b. P: precools the engine bleed air S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary exchanger or from the
pack's compressor.*
c. P: warms up engine bleed air S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
d. P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.
929. "Conditioned" air is air that has?

a. Oxygen content increased.
b. Oxygen content reduced.
c. Been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.*
d. Oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
930. The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane?

a. Has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.
b. Has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
c. Has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure.*
d. Is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
931. When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is?
a. Increased.
b. Dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
c. Unaffected.*
d. Decreased.
932. The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurization system, refers to
the?
a. Source of the charge air.
b. Means by which pressurisatien is controlled.
c. Charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
d. Cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.*
933. If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due
to the maximum?
a. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
b. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.*
c. Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
d. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
934. In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is
achieved by?
a. An expansion turbine.*
b. A compressor.
c. A condenser.
d. An evaporator.
935. In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to?
a. Ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.*
b. Increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
c. Ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
d. Maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
936. A turbo-fan cold air unit will?

a. Not affect the charge air pressure.
b. Increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
c. Decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
d. Cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.*
937. The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from?
a. Hot air coming from the engine's compressors.*
b. Hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
c. A fuel heater system.
d. An electrical heater system.
938. On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the?
a. Airflow entering the cabin.
b. RPM of the engine.
c. Bleed air valve.
d. Airflow leaving the cabin.*
939. The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to?
a. Regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
b. Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.*
c. Regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
d. Discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
940. Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude is maintained?
a. A constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.*
b. The outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c. The pressurization system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
d. The outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
941. Cabin pressure is controlled by?
a. The cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
b. Delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.*
c. Controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
d. The cabin air recirculation system.
942. During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level),
the cabin outflow valves are?
a. Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
b. Partially open.*
c. Fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
d. At the pre-set position for take-off.
Ice & Rain Protection: (Oxford, KW)
943. The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:
A. Is controlled to give an intermittent supply.*
B. Must be taken directly from the apu generator.
C. Must only be selected on for short periods.
D. Is continuous to all blades.
944. Propeller blade heating elements are:

A. Fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs.
B. Fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs.
C. Usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is fitted to a mid-section.*
D. Fitted to the complete leading edge.
945. When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 C in precipitation, which type of fluid
and application method will provide the longest holdover period:
a. Type I fluid at 100% cold spray application.
b. Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
c. Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
d. Type II fluid at 100% cold spray application.*
946. The effect of frost on an aircraft:

A. Is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset of the stall.
B. Can be generally ignored.
C. Has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or cl max.
D. Is to cause an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin friction and reduces the kinetic
energy of the boundary layer.*
947. In flight airframe icing does not occur:

A. Above 25,000 ft.
B. Above 40,000 ft.*
C. Above 35,000 ft.
D. Above 30,000 ft.
948. The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:

A. Mechanical or pneumatic or fluid.
B. Pneumatic or thermal or fluid.*
C. Electrically heated or air heated or oil heated.
D. Centrifugally forced or ram air heated.
949. Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:
A. That they are approaching airframe icing conditions.
B. That they are approaching engine icing conditions.
C. That engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine system.
D. That airframe icing conditions exist.*
950. Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:

A. A centrifugal slipper ring and pipes.
B. Integral passages within the propeller dome.
C. A small reservoir contained within the spinner.
D. A slinger ring and pipes.*
951. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure:

A. The aircraft can be de-iced with the engines running.
B. The aircraft can be de-iced with the apu running.
C. The aircraft can be de-iced with the apu running and the bleed air off.*
D. Neither the apu or main engines can be running during the procedure.
952. With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected “ON”:
a. whenever the igniters are on.
b. whenever the IOAT is +10 C or below and the air contains visible moisture. *
c. whenever the TOAT is +10 C or below and it is raining.
d. whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.
953. In a pneumatic de-icing system:

A. The boots remain inflated while the system operates.
B. The boots are inflated and deflated repeatedly.*
C. Vacuum inflates the boots and pressure deflates them repeatedly.
D. When the boots are fully inflated the pressure is released and they collapse due to their elasticity.
954. When the pneumatic de-icer system is switched off:

A. The relief valves admit ram air to the boots.
B. A small flow of hot air continuously flows through the boots.
C. The dynamic pressure on the leading edge ensures that the boots lie flat.
D. Vacuum deflates the boots to minimise drag.*
955. Propeller electrical de-icing systems:

A. Use only continuous loads to the elements.
B. Use a cyclic timer.*
C. Convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
D. Transfer power to the elements via a commutator in dc systems.
956. To prevent propeller elements overheating:

A. Use only when all other services are switched off.
B. Carry out a load check before starting engines.
C. Use only when the propellers are rotating.*
D. Use only when in flight.
957. A thermal wing de-icing system:

A. Feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface.
B. Feeds the engine exhaust through the leading edge ducts only.
C. Can use air taken from the engine compressor.*
D. Relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow.
958. Pilots cockpit windows are heated:

A. Only to prevent condensation occurring.
B. By agitating the window molecules with an AC current.
C. With a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.
D. By passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating.*
959. For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:
a. normally kept to a minimum size.
b. specially treated during construction.
c. heated internally to increase their elasticity.*
d. only heated when the IOAT falls below 0°C in precipitation.
960. Pilots cockpit windows are:

A. Only heated by air from the de-misting fan.
B. Constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.
C. Made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.*
D. Made of polarised glass.
961. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure:

a. the aircraft can be de-iced with engines running.
b. the aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running.
c. the aircraft can be de-iced with APU running and bleed air selected off.*
d. neither APU or engines can be running.
962. An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-ice fluid will have the best
holdover time at 0°C with precipitation:
A. Type i fluid at 100% cold spray.
B. A 50%/50% solution of type ii fluid hot spray.
C. A 50%/50% solution of type i fluid hot spray.
D. Type ii fluid at 100% cold spray.*
963. During flight the wing anti-icing system has to protect:

a. The whole wing leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.
b. Slats and leading edge flaps only.
c. The whole upper surface of the wing and flaps.
d. A part of the whole wing leading edge.*
964. The wing ice protection systems currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is a(n):
a. Pneumatic system with inflatable boots.*
b. Hot air system.
c. Electrical anti-icing.
d. Liquid de-icing system.
965. The wing ice protection system currently used for most large jet transport aeroplanes is a(n):
a. Electrical anti-icing.
b. Liquid de-icing system.
c. Pneumatic system with inflatable boots.
d. Hot air system.*
966. Windshield heating of a transport aeroplane is:

a. Essential to improve the strength of the cockpit windows.*
b. Only used when hot air demisting is insufficient.
c. Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
d. Not affecting the strength of the windows.
967. The sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices:
1. Prevent the formation of ice.
2. Can be triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3. Will inflate each pneumatic boot for a few seconds.
4. Will repeat more than ten times per second.
a. 1,3.
b. 1,4.
c. 2,4.
d. 2,3.*
968. Ice formation on turbofan engine intakes is usually:

a. Prevented using turbine bleed air.
b. Removed using pneumatic boots.
c. Prevented using compressor bleed air.*
d. Removed using electrical heating.
969. With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the
only correct statement is:
a. The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.*
b. The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain.
c. The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
d. The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to the leading
edges.
970. The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1. Engine air intake and pods.
2. Front glass shield.
3. Radome.
4. Pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5. Leading edge of wing.
6. Cabin windows.
7. Trailing edge of wing.
8. Electronic equipment compartment.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is?
a. 1, 2, 4, and 5.*
b. All of the above statements
c. None of the above statements.
d. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 8.
971. Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on?

a. Pitot tubes.*
b. Elevator leading edges.
c. Slat leading edges.
d. Fin leading edges.
972. The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is?

a. Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the
components.*
b. Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
c. Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
d. Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
973. The advantages of thermal anti-icing are:

1. Simple and reliable.
2. Profiles maintained.
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor ..
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrust.
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?
a. 1,2.*
b. 2,3.
c. 3,4.
d. 1,4.
974. The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for?

a. Engine intakes.
b. Wings.*
c. Pitot tubes.
d. Propellers.
975. Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is?
a. On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces
(pitotstatic, windshield ...).*
b. On modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large
surfaces de-icing.
c. On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little
energy.
d. On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static
ports, windshield.
976. On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by?
a. Vinyl coating.
b. Anti-icing fluid.
c. Rain repellent system.
d. Electric heating.*
977. The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the?
a. Electrical de-icing system.
b. Hot air system.*
c. Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
d. Liquid de-icing system.
978. During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect?

a. Leading edges only.
b. Leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.*
c. The whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
d. Slats and the leading edge flaps only.
979. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by?
a. Turbo compressors.
b. Ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
c. The APU.
d. Bleed air from the engines.*
980. The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works?
a. Pneumatically.
b. With hot air.
c. With anti-icing fluid.
d. Electrically.*
981. A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated?

a. When there are approximately 5 em of ice on leading edges.
b. Only at take-off and during approach.
c. When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.*
d. When entering areas with icing conditions.
982. The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that?
a. The alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
b. Rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy.*
c. Wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows.
d. The electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
983. Windscreen heating systems?

a. Increase the danger of damage in the event of a bird strike.
b. Use engine bled air to heat the centre section only.
c. Use engine bleed air to heat the entire screen.
d. Use electrical system to maintain constant temperature across the entire screen.*
984. Electrically heated turbo-prop propeller system?

a. Provide de-icing and use a 10 second working cycle.*
b. Provide de-icing using a frequency to 10 cycles per second.
c. Provide anti-icing and use a 10 second working cycle.
d. Provide anti-icing using a frequency of 10 cycles per second.
985. Thermal de-icing systems include?

1. Electrical heating.
2. Bled air.
3. Fluids.
4. Pneumatic boots.
a. 1,2.*
b. 1,2,3.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.
986. Electrical de-icing is most commonly used?

a. Horizontal stabilisers and fins.
b. Wings leading edges.
c. Air intakes.
d. Propellers.*
987. What type of air is used in air intake anti-icing systems.

a. Combustion chamber air.
b. Bypass air.
c. Compressor air.*
d. Air-conditioning pack air.
988. Pneumatic boot de-icing systems are normally used?

a. Windscreens and nose cones.
b. Propellers.
c. Air intakes.
d. Wing leading edges.*
989. The use of bleed air anti-icing is likely to result in?

a. Excessive engine temperatures.
b. Excessive decreases in thrust.
c. Increased JPT.
d. Decreased EPR.
Oxygen: (Oxford, KW)
990. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 25,000 ft is approximately:
A. Twenty seconds.
B. Eighty seconds.
C. Three minutes.*
D. Six minutes.
991. With out added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40,000 ft is approximately:
A. Twenty seconds.*
B. Three minutes.
C. Eighty seconds.
D. Six minutes.
992. The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:
a. 10,000 ft.*
b. 17,500 ft.
c. 25,000 ft.
d. 30,000 ft.
993. In a pressure demand oxygen system:

A. Each member of the crew has a regulator.*
B. Each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply.
C. Oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
D. Oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise.
994. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

A. Only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection.*
B. Only on passenger inhalation through the mask.
C. Only when the cabin altitude is above 18,000 ft.
D. Only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.
995. In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in:
A. Air mix supplied at emergency pressure.
B. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user.
C. 100% oxygen at positive pressure.
D. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.*
996. If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:

A. Are released by the passengers.
B. Automatically drop to a half hung (ready position).*
C. Are handed out by the cabin staff.
D. Must be removed from the life jacket storage.
997. Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

A. 1,000 psi.
B. 1,200 psi.
C. 1,800 psi.*
D. 2,000 psi.
998. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

A. Litres/minute.*
B. Pounds/minute.
C. Litres/second.
D. Kilos/hour.
999. The colour of American oxygen cylinders is:

A. Red.
B. Blue.
C. Green.*
D. Brown.
1000. The colour of British oxygen cylinders is:

A. White with black lettering.
B. Grey with silver lettering.
C. Black with white neck.*
D. Blue with white lettering.
1001. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:

A. Is relieved by a thermostat.
B. Is relieved by under pressurising the bottle.
C. Is relieved by a bursting disc.*
D. Is controlled by a thermal relief valve.
1002. To leak test an oxygen system use:

A. Fairy liquid and de-ionised water.
B. Thin oil.
C. Acid free soap and distilled water.*
D. Acid free soap and water.
1003. Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

A. Soap water.
B. Grease.
C. Oil.
D. Graphite.*
1004. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:

A. Flow indicators.*
B. Lack of anoxia.
C. Aural reassurance.
D. Pressure indicators.
1005. If the pressurisation system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14,000 ft oxygen will be available to
the passengers by:
A. The stewardess who will hand out masks.
B. The passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers.
C. Portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs.
D. Masks automatically ejected to a ½ hung position.*
1006. When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

A. Increases.
B. Decreases.
C. Remains the same.*
D. Nil.
1007. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:
A. Sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter.*
B. Potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter.
C. Sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then filtered.
D. Sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system.
1008. Passenger oxygen masks will present:

A. Only when the cabin altitude reaches 14,000.
B. Only if selected by the crew.
C. Only if selected by the cabin staff:
D. If selected manually / electrically / barometrically.*
1009. The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:

A. 500 psi.
B. 1,200 psi.
C. 1,800 psi.*
D. 3,000 psi.
1010. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of:
A. 60 mins.
B. 30 mins.*
C. 12 mins.
D. 3 mins.
1011. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen:
A. 10,000 ft.
B. 14,000 ft.
C. 24,000 ft.
D. 34,000 ft.*
1012. A Flow Indicator fitted to an Oxygen regulator indicates:

A. That exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member.
B. That oxygen is flowing through the regulator.*
C. That the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator.
D. That the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to the regulator.
1013. What is the approximate time of useful conciousness when hypoxia develops at the specified altitudes.
18,000 ft 30,000 ft
A. 2-3 min 10-15 sec
B. 10 min 2 min
C. 30 min 90-45 secs*
D. 40 min 5 min
1014. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30,000 ft:
A. Sudden and extreme drop.*
B. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes.
C. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating ceases.
D. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin heating continues.
1015. Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:

A. Heat.
B. Noise.
C. Smoking.*
D. Under-breathing.
1016. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100% oxygen if you are to maintain
an alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea level:
A. 26,000 ft.
B. 30,000 ft.
C. 34,000 ft.*
D. 38,000 ft.
1017. The replenishment of an onboard oxygen bottle must be done:

a. With the engines at idle.
b. With the engines on.
c. With the engines off.*
d. With ground power unit connected, electrical power supplied.
1018. An oxygen supply system must be kept absolutely free of oil and grease as:
a. These substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen.*
b. These substance could block the oxygen mask filters.
c. These substance mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
d. The breathing oxygen would be contaminated by these substances.
1019. The demand valve of a diluter demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode operates when the:
a. User breathes out.
b. User breaths in.*
c. User requires 100% oxygen.
d. Pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi.
1020. A passenger oxygen mask is:

a. A continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
b. An on demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
c. An on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
d. A continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.*
1021. Regarding the oxygen system of a JAR25 aeroplane:

a. With the setting "NORMAL" the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.*
b. The passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen.
c. The seals must be greased to prevent sparks.
d. The same source of supply is used for the crew and passengers.
1022. A pilot can determine the amount of oxygen in a bottle by observing its:
a. Pressure.*
b. Temperature.
c. Volume.
d. Level.
1023. A passenger aeroplane is cruising at FL370 when it experiences a rapid decompression. Which of the
following statements is correct regarding the oxygen system?
a. Manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is generally not possible.
b. The oxygen masks are automatically presented to the flight deck crew.
c. Automatic presentation of the passenger oxygen masks has been activated, the oxygen will begin tom flow after
three minutes.
d. The oxygen masks will be automatically presented to the passengers and cabin crew.*
1024. In jet transport aeroplanes oxygen for the flight deck crew is stored as:
a. Gas*
b. Liquid.
c. Chemical.
d. Chemical compound or gas.
1025. The advantages of a gaseous oxygen system compared to a chemical source for the passenger cabin are:
1. No risk of fire or explosion.
2. Possibility to regulate the flow.
3. More capacity.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3.*
c. 1,2.
d. 1,4.
1026. When using an emergency oxygen mask, a pilot is able to

a. Neither transmit nor receive.
b. Both transmit and receive.*
c. Receive only.
d. Transmit only.
1027. Fixed oxygen systems in pressurised aeroplane are used to provide oxygen:
1. In the event of depressurization at altitude.
2. In the event of a passenger becoming indisposed.
3. During normal flight.
4. In the event of smoke or toxic fumes in the cockpit.
a. 2,3.
b. 1
c. 1,2,4.
d. 1,4.*
1028. Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must:
a. Firmly pull the mask towards his/her face.*
b. Turn the oxygen valve to open.
c. Firmly pull the compartment door of the oxygen mask stowage.
d. Operate the relevant switch in the armrest.
1029. The contents of an oxygen bottle can be ensured by the:

1. Weight.
2. Pressure.
3. Volume.
4. Level.
a. 1 and 3 only.
b. 1 and 4 only.
c. 1 and 2 only.*
d. 2 and 3 only.
1030. Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct and incorrect?
1. Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen.
2. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off.
d. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect.
1031. From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a
pressurized aircraft?
a. FL 300.
b. FL 390.
c. FL 100.
d. FL 250.*
1032. What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

a. Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
b. A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
c. Cabin air and oxygen.*
d.100% oxygen.
1033. In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment?

a. Gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.
b. Protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
c. Protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
d. Protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.*
1034. An oxygen regulator has 3 controls – a Supply Lever: ON/OFF - an "O2" lever: NORMAL/100% - an
emergency lever: ON/OFF. Among the following statements, the correct proposition is?
a. The "02" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.
b. With the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe. ,
c. The Supply Lever on ON, and, the "02" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables
breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.*
d. The EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
1035. In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to?
a. Emergency.
b. On demand.
c. 100%.*
d. Normal.
1036. Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight?
a. 490.
b. 410.*
c. 300.
d. 250.
1037. A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected
Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide
breathing supply for at least?
a. 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
b. 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.*
c. No first aid required.
d. 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
1038. As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through
a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed
before?
a. The aircraft reaches FL 250.
b. Take-off.*
c. the aircraft reaches FL 100.
d. The aircraft reaches FL 140.
1039. A diluter demand oxygen regulator?

a. Mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
b. Delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.*
c. Delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
d. Is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
1040. Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of
demand and altitude) is to:
1. Decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system).
2. Supply pure oxygen.
3. Supply diluted oxygen.
4. Supply oxygen at normal pressure.
5. Supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure.
6. Trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude.
a. 2,3,4,5.*
b. 3,4,5,6.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 3, 4, 6.
1041. A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in
the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of?
a. Seats exceeded by 10%.*
b. Seats.
c. Passengers.
d. Passengers exceeded by 10%.
1042. A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the
passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds?
a. 12000 ft.
b. 14000 ft.*
c. 15000 ft.
d. 13000 ft.
1043. The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are?

1. Refrain from smoking, avoid sparks.
2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.
4. Avoid greasy matter.
a. 2,3,4.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 1,3,4.*
d. 1,2,3.
1044. In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to?

a. Protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
b. Protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
c. Protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
d. Give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.*
1045. What is the maximum altitude at which flights may be conducted in a pressurised aircraft which is not
equipped with first aid oxygen equipment?
a. 8000 ft.
b. 10000 ft.
c. 25000 ft.*
d. 32000 ft.
1046. Smoke masks?
a. Cover the face and provide a continuous oxygen supply.*
b. Cover only the mouth and nose and provide continuous oxygen supply.
c. Cover the whole head and provide a demand oxygen supply.
d. Cover the whole head and provide a continuous oxygen supply.
1047. The normal charge pressure and capacity of portable crew oxygen sets are?
a. 1000 psi 100 Iitres.
b. 10 bars 100 litres,
c. 1800 psi 120 litres.*
d. 2000 psi 200litres.
1048. The chemical oxygen supply in a smoke hood is activated by?

a. Pulling the hood from its stowage.
b. A pull cord.*
c. Breathing in after fitting the hood.
d. Heat or smoke detectors.
1049. Correct operation of the oxygen system is indicated by?

a. Crew challenge and response routines.
b. Flow indicators.*
c. Pressure gauges.
d. Visually checking the condition of passengers.
1050. Chemically generated oxygen systems?

a. Can be switched on and off as required.
b. Cannot be switched off after activation and last for 15 minutes at full flow.*
c. Can be switched off after activation and last for 15 minutes at full flow.
d. Cannot be switched off after activation and last for 25 minutes at full flow.
1051. A passenger aircraft cabin oxygen system will?

a. Activate automatically, causing the mask to drop down if cabin altitude reaches 14000 ft.
b. Be activated by the pilot if toxic fumes fill the cabin, and automatically causing the masks to drop down if cabin
altitude reaches 14000 ft.*
c. Activate automatically causing the mask to drop down if cabin altitude reaches 10000 ft.
d. Activate automatically causing the mask to drop down if the cockpit oxygen masks are activated.
1052. Crew efficiency will be impaired if oxygen is not used at cabin altitude of more than?
a. 5000 ft.
b. 8000 ft.*
c. 18000 ft.
d. 24000 ft.
1053. When the "Test" button is pushed on a diluter oxygen system control panel?
a. 100% oxygen is supplied at atmospheric pressure.
b. 100% oxygen is supplied at greater than ambient pressure.*
c. Diluted oxygen is supplied at greater than ambient pressure.
d. Air is supplied at ambient pressure.
1054. Over pressurisation of a fixed fire extinguisher system is indicated by?

a. Green disc.
b. Blue disc.
c. Black and yellow disc.
d. Red disc.*
1055. At what altitude in an un-pressurised aircraft must the flight deck crew be provided with a constant oxygen
supply?
a. 10000 ft.*
b. 13000 ft.
c. 14000 ft.
d. 15000 ft.
1056. In what form will oxygen be provide to passengers in the event of a decompression?
a. 100% pressure fed.
b. 100% at ambient pressure.
c. Diluted with cabin air.*
d. Diluted with conditioned air.
1057. At what altitude in an un-pressurised aircraft must 100% of the passengers be provided with an oxygen
supply?
a. 13000 ft.*
b. 10000 ft.
c. 14000 ft.
d. 15000 ft.
1058. An over pressurised fixed oxygen system?

a. Will discharge excess oxygen overboard.*
b. Will explode.
c. Will not provide oxygen to passengers in the event of cabin decompression.
d. Will provide oxygen to crew in the event of cabin decompression.
1059. The stowage doors for drop down oxygen masks are activated?
a. Electrically if the supply is pressurised.
b. By the falling cabin pressure in the event of decompression.*
c. Pneumatically if the supply is from chemical oxygen generators.
d. Electrically if the supply is from chemical oxygen generators.
Fire & Smoke Detection & Protection: (KW)
1060. The bimetal strip detectors of an engine fire detection system:

1. Are. arranged in series.
2. Are arranged in parallel.
3. Open during a fire.
4. Close during a fire.
a. 2 and 4 only.*
b. 1 and 4 only.
c. .2 and 3 only.
d. 1 and 3 only.
1061. A continuous loop fire detection system is a:

a. Firefighting system.
b. Smoke detection system.
c. Carbon dioxide detection system.
d. Overheat detection system.*
1062. An engine fire is indicated by a(n):

a. Bell
b. Warning and an aural alert.*
c. Warning only.
d. Aural alert only.
1063. Halon is used as a fire extinguishing agent because it?

a. Acts as a very effective flame inhibitor.*
b. Is highly volatile.
c. Is an electrical conductor.
d. Uses the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
1064. A gaseous fire loop system is tested by:

a. Checking the continuity of the system.
b. Heating up the sensor.*
c. Checking the wiring harness for faults but not testing the sensor ..
d. Checking the sensor with external pressurised gas.
1065. Power plant fire extinguishers are operated by:

a. An electrically fired cartridge rupturing a seal in the head of the bottle.*
b. A mechanical link withdrawing a safety pin and allowing a spring plunger to rupture a seal in the head of the
bottle.
c. Manual remote control opening a discharge valve.
d. An electrically heated capsule rupturing a seal in the pipeline at the engine.
1066. The purpose of the floor proximity emergency escape path marking system is to:
a. Mark only the thresholds exits.
b. Replace the overhead emergen.cy lighting in event of failure.
c. Give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with reduced cabin visibility.*
d. Give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation at night only.
1067. A smoke hood is a device covering:

a. The whole head and with an on demand oxygen flow.
b. The whole head and with a continuous oxygen flow.*
c. Only the nose and the mouth and with an oxygen/air mix.
d. Only the nose and the mouth and with a continuous oxygen flow.
1068. A smoke mask is a:

a. Mask with flow on demand and it covers the whole face.*
b. Mask with continuous flow and it covers the whole face.
c. Mask with flow on request and it covers the nose and mouth only.
d. Mask with continuous flow and it covers the nose and mouth only.
1069. The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they?

a. Are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
b. Act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.*
c. Use the cooling effect created by the venture during discharge.
d. Are electrical conductors.
1070. With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge?

a. Is automatic & immediate.
b. Is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine.
c. Does not need the engine to be stopped.
d. Is the pilot's task.*
1071. The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and
extinguishes immediately, is the?
a. Fire point.
b. Self-ignition point.
c. Flash point.*
d. Combustion point.
1072. If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the following extinguisher
types should be used for firefighting?
a. Water type extinguishers.
b. Dry and water type extinguishers.
c. Co2 and water type extinguishers.
d. BCF and Co2 type extinguishers.*
1073. How many fire extinguishers are required in the passenger compartment of an aircraft configured with
between 61 and 200 passenger seats?
a. 2.
b. 3.*
c. 4.
d. 5.
1074. What kind of extinguisher should be used in a liquid fuel fire?

a. Foam.*
b. Freon.
c. Carbon dioxide.
d. Dry powder.
1075. On what principle do fire detection systems operate?

a. As temperature increase, resistance increases and current decreases.*
b. As temperature increases, resistance decreases and current increases.*
c. As temperature increases, resistance and current increase.
d. As temperature increases, resistance and temperature decrease.
Both a & b are correct
1076. What type of extinguisher should be used on a wheel fire?
a. Dry powder.*
b. Water.
c. Foam.
d. Carbon dioxide.
1077. What type of extinguisher should be used on a magnesium fire?

a. Dry powder.*
b. Water.
c. Foam.
d. Carbon dioxide.
1078. The requirement for fire extinguishers in a passenger cabin is based on?
a. Number of seats.*
b. Number of rows of seats.
c. Number of compartments.
d. Number of cabin crew.
1079. How does an ion detector operate?

a. Detection ions in smoke.
b. Detection ions in smoke or flames.
c. Detecting ions released by high temperatures.
d. Detection of ions is reduced by smoke.*
1080. A smoke detector uses the ....... principle?

a. Refraction of light passing through smoke.*
b. Diffraction of light passing through smoke.
c. Reflection of light passing through smoke.
d. Magnification of light passing through smoke.
1081. A firewire system operates on the........ principle?

a. Negative coefficient of resistance.*
b. Seebeck effect.
c. Positive coefficient of resistance.*
d. Ion breakdown.
Both a & b are correct
1082. Smoke detectors in aircraft are of the ...... type?
a. Magnetic.
b. Thermionic.
c. Ionisation or optical.*
d. Seebeck effect.
1083. Aircraft cabins with passenger seating capacity between 31 and 60 must carry .... fire extinguishers?
a. 2.*
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.
1084. Flight deck fire warnings include?

a. Continuous lights.
b. Continuous bells.
c. Continuous lights and bells.*
d. Continuous lights and hooters or c1axons.
1085. Double loop bi-metallic strip firewires, employ a two second delay between initial detection and activation
of warnings?
a. Allow sensors to cool down.
b. Allow second sensor to activate to confirm fire.
c. Allow for vibration effects.*
d. Allow for thermal expansion of detectors.
1086. An aircraft fitted with more than 500 passenger seats requires?
a. A minimum of 5 fire extinguishers in the cabin.
b. A minimum of 6 fire extinguishers in the cabin.
c. A minimum of 7 fire extinguishers in the cabin.*
d. A minimum of 8 fire extinguishers in the cabin.
1087. Fire axes are used?

a. To open extinguisher stowages.
b. To open emergency exits if they jam.
c. To subdue hijackers.
d. To gain access to fires in inaccessible parts of the aircraft and as a general purpose evacuation tool.*
1088. Flight deck indications of an overheated engine are?

a. Light.*
b. Bell.
c. Bell or light.
d. Bell and light.
1089. An aircraft of take-off mass greater than 5700 Kg and between 9 and 200 passenger seats must carry a fire
axe?
a. In the cabin crew area.
b. In the flight deck area.*
c. Plus a crowbar in the flight deck area.
d. Plus a crowbar in each crew compartment.
Structure: (Oxford & KW)
1090. What is the purpose of the wing main spar?

a. To withstand bending and torsional loads.*
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads.
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads.
d. To withstand bending and shear loads.
1091. What is the purpose of wing ribs?

a. To withstand the fatigue stresses.
b. To shape the wing and support the skin.*
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear.
d. To provide local support for the skin.
1092. What is the purpose of stringers?

a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres.
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.*
d. To support the primary control surfaces.
1093. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:
A. The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.
B. The design limit load plus the design ultimate load.
C. Three times the safety factor.
D. The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.*
1094. In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:
A. Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels.
B. Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.*
C. Form the entrance door posts.
D. Support the wings.
1095. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as possible.
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last.*
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down-float’.
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first.
1096. Regarding a safe life structure:

1. Will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use.
2. Should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved.
3. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
4. Is changed before its predicted life is reached.
A. 1 and 2 apply.
B. 1 and 3 apply.
C. 2, 3 and 4 apply.*
D. All of the above apply.
1097. A fail safe structure:

1. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
2. Is changed before its predicted life is reached.
3. Has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural damage.
4. Is secondary structure of no structural significance.
A. 1 and 2 apply.
B. 1 and 3 apply.*
C. 3 and 4 apply.
D. All of the above apply.
1098. The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:

A. Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.
B. Houses the crew and the payload.
C. Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.
D. Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.*
1099. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

A. Support the wings.
B. House the crew and payload.*
C. Keep out adverse weather.
D. Provide access to the cockpit.
1100. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A. A means of locating airframe structure and components.*
B. Passenger seat locations.
C. Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.
D. Compass alignment markings.
1101. Flight deck windows are constructed from:

A. An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.
B. Strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals.*
C. Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals.
D. Strengthened glass with rubber seals.
1102. A cantilever wing:

A. Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires.
B. Is supported at one end only with no external bracing.*
C. Has both an upper an lower airfoil section.
D. Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces.
1103. A torsion box:

A. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.
B. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.*
C. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.
D. Is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
1104. A lightening hole in a rib:

A. Prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage.
B. Provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead.
C. Collects and disposes of electrical charges.*
D. Lightens and stiffens the structure.
1105. Control surface flutter:

A. Provides additional lift for take off and landing in the event of engine failure.
B. Occurs at high angles of attack.
C. Is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.
D. Is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.*
1106. Control surface flutter is minimised by:

A. Reducing the moment of the critical engine.
B. Aerodynamic balance of the control cables.
C. Changing the wings before they reach their critical life.
D. Mass balance of the control surface.*
1107. A damage tolerant structure:

A. Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.*
B. Is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft.
C. Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life.
D. Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance.
1108. Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

A. Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
B. Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength.
C. Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.*
D. Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
1109. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

A. The maximum permissible take off mass of the aircraft.
B. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel.*
C. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload.
D. The maximum permissible landing mass.
1110. Loads imposed on the cylindrical, part of the fuselage by pressurisation are carried by the:
a. Skin.*
b. Spars.
c. Ribs.
d. Stringers.
1111. The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the:
1. Upper skin.
2. Lower skin.
3. Wing root fairing.
4. Spar or spars.
a. 3,4.
b. 2,3.
c. 1,2,4.*
d. 1,3,4.
1112. For fail safe designed structural components:

1. There is more than one load-carrying component.
2. One load-carrying component is enough provided it is strong enough.
3. The component is removed at the end of its calculated lifetime or number of cycles.
4. The design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.
a. 2,3.
b. 1,4.*
c. 1,3.
d. 2,4.
1113. The inner surface of a heat treated windscreen is:

a. Soft polycarbonate.*
b. Glass.
c. Hard Perspex.
d. Triplex.
1114. VLE is the maximum:
a. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b. Speed authorised for flight.
c. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
d. Flight speed with landing gear down.*
1115. VLO is the maximum:

a. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
b. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
c. Flight speed with landing gear down.
d. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.*
1116. Torsion in a wing can be caused by:

a. Positive sweep.*
b. Dihedral.
c. Prop wash.
d. Wing tip vortex.
1117. Flutter results from two deformation modes which are:

a. Torsion and shearing.
b. Bending and elongation.
c. Torsion and bending.*
d. Shearing and elongation.
1118. The purpose the stringers, used in fuselage construction is to:

a. Provide sound and thermal insulation.
b. Withstand shear stresses.
c. Assist the skin withstand longitudinal compressive loads.*
d. Carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile loads.
1119. The wing of an aeroplane in flight, powered by engines located under the wings, is subjected to bending
moments due to thrust and drag, The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from wing root to wing tip is:
a. Compression then tension.*
b. Compression.
c. Tension.
d. Tension then compression.
1120. When the skin of a wing is not able to carry loads, the structural elements of the wing which carry the
bending loads are:
a. Ribs.
b. Spars.*
c. Webs.
d. Rivets.
1121. The fuselage section of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of:

a. A pure monocoque structure.
b. A semi-monocoque structure.*
c. A sandwich structure.
d. A truss structure.
1122. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing:

a. Shear loads.
b. Bending loads.
c. Torsional loads.
d. Concentrated loads.*
1123. A structure in which the skin takes all of the loads is:
a. A semi-monocoque structure.
b. A box structure.
c. A semi-spaced structure.
d. A monocoque structure.*
1124. A cantilever wing is?

a. A wing attached to the fuselage at the wing root only.*
b. A low wing configuration.
c. A high wing configuration.
d. A wing planform other than rectangular.
1125. A sandwich structural part:

a. Consists of two thin sheets separated by a light core material.*
b. Is unsuitable for fuel tanks.
c. Always uses a honeycomb as the core material.
d. Is a so-called integral construction.
1126. The principle of the "safe life" design of an aircraft is based on the:
a. Redundancy of the structure or equipment.
b. Replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.*
c. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
d. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts is a certain value is exceeded.
1127. Which of the following statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect?
1. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional airspeed restriction, related to bird impacts when
the window heating system is inoperative.
2. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system.
a. 1 is correct 2 is correct
b. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct
c. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect*
d. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect
1128. Which of the following statements concerning sandwich structural components are correct or incorrect?
1. The main core material is for sound insulation.
2. A sandwich structure is particularly suitable for absorbing concentrated point loads.
a. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct
b. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect
c. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect*
d. 1 is correct 2 is correct
1129. Which of the following statements about structural design are correct and incorrect?
1. The damage tolerance design principle takes cracking of the structure into account.
2. The safe life principle is based on replacement of parts after a certain number of cycle or hours of use.
a. 1 is incorrect 2 is correct
b. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect
c. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect
d. 1 is correct 2 is correct*
1130. A sandwich type structure is often used in aircraft because of its:

a. Low mass and high stiffness.*
b. Low mass and low stiffness.
c. High temperature resistance.
d. Ease of deformation under load.
1131. The principle of damage tolerance in aircraft structural design is based on the:
a. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.*
b. Replacement of parts after a certain number of cycles or flying hours.
c. Fact that there is no need to inspect the structure.
d. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts is a certain value is exceeded.
1132. The principle of fail safe design of an aircraft is based on the:

a. Redundancy of the structure or equipment.*
b. Replacement of parts after a certain number of cycles or flying hours.
c. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
d. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
1133. A semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage usually consists of:

a. Ribs, front spar, and rear spar.
b. Ribs, spars and skin.
c. Frames, fittings and stringers.
d. Skin, frames and stringers.*
1134. Whilst stationary in the hangar on the ground, the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
a. Compression in the upper surface and tension in the lower surface.
b. Tension in both the upper surface and in the lower surface.
c. Compression in both the upper surface and in the lower surface.
d. Tension in the upper surface and compression in the lower surface.*
1135. What are the three elements of the fuselage structure of a large transport aeroplane?
a. Skin, spars and ribs.
b. Skin, frames and stringers.*
c. Skin, girders and webs.
d. Skin, formers and ribs.
1136. A composite structural component consists of?

a. Two metal sheets bonded together.
b. Two thin sheets and a light core material.
c. A matrix and fibres.*
d. Aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium.
1137. A sandwich structural part is:

a. A so-called integral construction.
b. Well suited for absorbing point concentrated loads.
c. Composed of two thin sheets and a light core material.*
d. Composed of resin and fibres.
1138. Control surface flutter can be avoided by:

1. A high torsional stiffness of the structure.
2. A low torsional stiffness of the structure.
3. Locating a balancing mass forward of the hinge.
4. Locating a balancing mass aft of the hinge.
a. 2,4.
b. 2,3.
c. 1,4.
d. 1,3.*
1139. The function of ribs in a wing is to:

a. Give the wing its desired aerodynamic shape.*
b. Withstand the structural loads.
c. Withstand the torsional loads.
d. Allow installation of fuel cells in the wing.
1140. Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct?

a. A wing spar consists of a web with stringers.
b. A torsion box is formed by wing spars, ribs and wing skins reinforced by stringers.*
c. The slats are part of the torsion box.
d. A serni-monocoque structure consists of skin and frames.
1141. Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct and incorrect?
1. In structural design, fail-safe implies redundant load paths.
2. A safe life structure is based on a declared number of cycles or time period.
1142. Which of these statements about sandwich structure are correct and incorrect?
1. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material.
2. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
Which of these statements about sandwich structure are correct and incorrect?
1. The main function of the core material in a sandwich structure is to stabilize the covering sheets.
2. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
1143. The pressurization load on the skin of a fuselage.is:

a. Compression.
b. Torsion.
c. Tension.*
d. Bending.
1144. According to JAR25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding
flight crew could be:
a. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.*
b. Multiple fatalities.
c. Physical distress, possibly including injuries.
d. Physical discomfort.
1145. A non-cantilever wing:

a. A wing supported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage.*
b. A wing plan form other than rectangular.
c. A high wing configuration.
d. A low wing configuration.
1146. When a wing beds downwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
a. Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is in front of the hinge line.
b. Upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is behind the hinge line.*
c. Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is behind the hinge line.
d. Downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity is in front of the hinge line.
1147. For "safe-life" designed structural components:

1. There is more than one load-carrying component.
2. One load-carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough.
3. The component is removed at the end of a calculated lifetime or number of cycles.
4. The design is based on the principle of redundancy of components:
a. 1,4.
b. 2,3.*
c. 2,4.
d. 1,3.
1148. Control surface flutter can be avoided by:

1. A high torsional stiffness structure.
2. A low torsional stiffness structure.
3. Locating a balance mass in front of the hinge of the control surface.
4. Locating a balance mass behind the hinge of the control surface.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is.
a. 2,4.
b. 1,4.
c. 1,3.*
d. 2,3.
1149. According to JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the flight crew could be:
a. Physical distress or excessive workload, or impaired ability to perform tasks.*
b. Fatalities or incapacitation.
c. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
d. A slight increase in workload.
1150. According to JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the aeroplane could be:
a. A slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
b. A significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
c. Hull loss.
d. A large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.*
1151. Which of the following statements about composite and metal structures are correct and incorrect:
1. For a structural component with given dimensions made of composite materials, the strength is the same in all
directions.
2. Composite materials enable structures with lower strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
a. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect.*
b. 1 is correct 2 is correct.
c. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.
1152. Which of the following statements is correct about structural design principles?
1. In structural design fail-safe implies parallel structural parts.
2. In structural design safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of
cycles.
a. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.*
c. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect.
d. 1 is correct 2 is correct.
1153. According to JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on flight crew could be:
a. A slight increase in workload.*
b. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
c. No effect on flight crew.
d. Possible fatalities.
1154. According to JARICS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on flight crew could be:
a. A slight increase in workload.
d. No effect on flight crew.
c. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.*
d. Physical distress or excessive workload, impaired ability to perform tasks.
1155. According to JARICS 25 the worst effect of a major failure could be:
a. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.*
b. Hull loss.
c. Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
d. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
1156. The principle of "on condition" maintenance is based on"

a. Redundancy of the structure or equipment.
b. Replacement of parts atter a given number of cycles or hours of use..
c. Capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
d. Monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value has been exceeded.*
1157. According to JARICS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding the
a. Physical discomfort.*
b. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
c. Inconvenience.
d. Physical distress, possibly including minor injuries.
1158. According to JARICS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding the
a. Physical distress, possibly including minor injuries.*
b. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
c. Inconvenience.
d. Physical discomfort.
1159. According to JARICS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure could be:
a. Significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
b. Large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
c. Slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
d. Hull loss.*
1160. According to JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on occupants of an aeroplane excluding
a. Physical discomfort.
b. Physical distress, possibly including injuries.
c. Multiple fatalities.*
d. Serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
1161. A wing spar typically consist of:

a. A web and girders.*
b. Frames and a web.
c. rubs and stiffeners.
d. Ribs and frames.
1162. According to JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on flight crew could be:
a. Fatalities or incapacitation.*
b. A slight increase in workload.
c. Physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
d. Physical distress or excessive workload, impaired ability to perform tasks.
1163. Which of the following statements concerning a sandwich structure is correct'!

1. The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets.
2. A sandwich structure is well suited to absorbing concentrated loads.
a. 1 is correct 2 is correct.
b. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect.
d. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.*
1164. Which of the following statements is correct about cockpit windows?

1. On some aeroplane the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when
window heating is inoperative.
2. Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only.
a. 1 is incorrect 2 is incorrect.
d. 1 is Incorrect 2 is correct.
1165. Which of the following statements about composite and metal structures are correct and incorrect:
1. For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable structural strength to be tailored
to the direction of the load.
2. Coinposite materials enable structures with higher strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
1166. In straight and level flight the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
a. Compression in the upper skln and tension in the lower skin.*
b. Compression in the upper and in the lower skin.
c. Tension in the upper skin and compression in the lower skin.
d. Tension in the upper skin and in the lower skin.
1167. What are the loads in the upper girder and in the lower girder in the spar of a wing in flight?
a. Compression in the upper and in the lower.
b. Tension in the upper and compression in the lower.
c. Tension in the upper and in the lower.
d. Compression in the upper and tension in the lower.*
1168. Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the?
1. Normal bending stresses.
2. Tangent bending stresses.
3. Torsional moment.
4. Shear stresses.
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?
a. 1,2,3.*
b. 1, 2, 4.
c. 2,3,4
d. 1,3,4.
1169. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass?

1. Is a limitation set by regulation.
2. Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3. Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4. Requires to empty external tanks first.
5. Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is?
a. 2,4.
b. 1,3,5.
c. 1,2,3.*
d. 2,5.
1170. On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are?
a. The ribs.
b. The webs.
c. The skin.
d. The spars.*
1171. The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in?
a. Compression, then in tension.*
b. Tension, then in compression.
c. Tension.
d. Compression.
1172. DURALUMIN alloys?

1. Have an aluminum copper base.
2. Have an aluminum magnesium base.
3. . Are easy to weld.
4. Are difficult to weld.
5. Have a good thermal conductivity.
6. Have a poor air corrosion resistance.
a. 1,4,5.*
b. 2,4,5.
c. 1,3,6.
d. 2,3,6.
1173. In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending
moment which is?
a. Equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.
b. Equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span.
c. Lowest at the wing root .
d. Highest at the wing root.*
1174. The advantages of fly-by wire control are?

1. Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces.
2. Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike.
3. Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems.
4. Immunity to different interfering signals.
5. Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope.
The combination regrouping allthe correct statements is?
a. 3 and 5.*
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1 and 5.
d. 2 and 3.
1175. An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when?

a. The elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
b. The elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
c. There is a trimmable stabilizer.
d. The elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
Hydraulics: (Oxford & KW)
1176. A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02m 2and the other is 0.04m2.
A. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2,000Pa and the larger 4,000 Pa.
B. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5,000 Pa and the larger 2,500 Pa.*
C. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
D. Both have the same load.
1177. A pre charge pressure of 1,000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The system is then
pressurised to 1,500 bar, so the accumulator will read:
A. 500 bar.
B. 1,000 bar.
C. 1,500 bar.*
D. 2,500 bar.
1178. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of:
A. The air in the accumulator.
B. The air and hydraulic fluid in the system.
C. The proportional pressure in the system.
D. The hydraulic fluid in the system.
1179. A shuttle valve:

A. Is used to replace NRVs.
B. Allows two supply sources to operate one unit.*
C. Allows one source to operate two units.
D. Acts as a non-return valve.
1180. Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based:

A. Red , mineral*
B. Red , synthetic
C. Green, mineral
D. Purple, synthetic
1181. A restrictor valve:

A. Is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure.
B. Controls the rate of movement of a service.*
C. Controls the rate of build up of pressure in the system.
D. Controls the distance a jack moves.
1182. With a hyd lock there is:

A. Flow, but no jack movement.
B. No flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
C. No flow, jack is stationary.*
D. Constant flow.
1183. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
A. High operating fluid temperature.
B. System failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion.*
C. A rise in the reservoir fill level.
D. Normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used.
1184. Accumulator floating piston:

A. Pushes the fluid up when being charged.
B. Pushes the fluid down when being charged.
C. Provides a seal between the gas and fluid.*
D. Prevents a hydraulic lock.
1185. A relief valve:

A. Relieves below system pressure.
B. Maintains pressure to a priority circuit.
C. Relieves at its designed pressure.*
D. Prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature.
1186. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

A. To compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion.*
B. To allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored.
C. To indicate system contents.
D. To maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.
1187. With air in the hydraulic system you would:

A. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
B. Bleed the air out of the system.*
C. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
D. Expect it to operate faster.
1188. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

A. Filters the fluid returning to the tank.
B. Is fitted down stream of the pump.*
C. Can be by passed when maximum flow is required.
D. Clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir.
1189. Pascal’s law states that:

A. Pressure is inversely proportional to load.
B. Liquid is compressible.
C. Oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators.
D. Applied force acts equally in all directions.*
1190. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

A. An automatic cut out.
B. Engine RPM.
C. A control piston.*
D. A swash plate that senses the fluid temperature.
1191. A high pressure hydraulic pump:

A. Needs a positive fluid supply.*
B. Does not need a positive fluid supply.
C. Outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force.
D. Does not need a cooling fluid flow.
1192. Case drain filters are:

A. Fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system.
B. Designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere.
C. To enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.*
D. Fitted in the reservoir outlet.
1193. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

A. Relieve excess pressure.
B. Store fluid under pressure.*
C. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation.
D. Remove air from the system.
1194. With a one way check valve (NRV):

A. Flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
B. Flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump.
C. Flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
D. Flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.*
1195. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:

A. U/c up line and flap up line.*
B. U/c down line and flap up line.
C. U/c down line and flap down line.
D. Supply line to the u/c retraction actuator.
1196. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

A. A full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it.*
B. A full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it.
C. A full flow relief valve is not required.
D. The terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM.
1197. Hydraulic pressure of 3,000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the same
pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2
A. Both have the same force.
B. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
C. The smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1,200N.
D. The smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.*
1198. A separator in an accumulator:

A. Isolates the gas from the fluid.*
B. Reduces the size of the accumulator required.
C. Removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.
D. Maintains the fluid level in the reservoir.
1199. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
A. Greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack.
B. Greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator.
C. High initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel.
D. The same at all points.*
1200. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level.
The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:
A. Fall below the “full” mark.*
B. Fall to a position marked ‘full accs charged’.
C. Remain at the same level.
D. Rise above the “full” mark.
1201. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

A. Enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.
B. Is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.*
C. Is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
D. Is used to increase pressure in the system.
1202. A hydraulic lock occurs:

A. When the thermal RV operates.
B. When fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank.
C. When flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move.*
D. When fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir.
1203. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

A. More at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
B. More at the cylinder end than the piston head.
C. More when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.
D. The same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.*
1204. A non-return valve:

A. Can only be fitted if provided with a bypass selector.
B. Closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.
C. Opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure.
D. Closes if inlet pressure ceases.*
1205. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:

A. Rapid jack movements.
B. No effect on system.
C. Rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.*
D. Rapid and smooth operation of system.
1206. Hammering in system:

A. Is normal and does not affect the systems efficiency.
B. Is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
C. Is an indication that a further selection is necessary.
D. Is detrimental to the system.*
1207. The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:
A. Always distinguishable by taste and smell.
B. Generally distinguishable by colour.
C. Generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer.
D. Cannot be distinguished by colour alone.*
1208. An ACOV will:

A. Provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.
B. Extend the life of the accumulator.
C. Provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged.*
D. Ensure the pump is always on load.
1209. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

A. Allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required.
B. Allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the wheels locking.
C. Prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases.
D. Prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured.*
1210. A shuttle valve will allow:

A. The accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down.
B. The pressure pump to off-load when the system pressure is reached.
C. Two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component.*
D. High pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the full flow relief valve fails.
1211. The purpose of a reservoir is to:

A. Compensates for temperature changes.
B. Compensates for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement.*
C. Compensates for fluid loss.
D. To minimise pump cavitation.
1212. When the hydraulic system pressure is released:

A. Reservoir air pressure will increase.
B. Reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system.*
C. Reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system.
D. Reservoir contents are dumped overboard.
1213. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:

A. Is greater in pipes of larger diameters.
B. Is greater in pipes of smaller diameters.
C. Does not vary with pipe diameter.*
D. Varies in direct proportion to the system demands.
1214. Skydrol hydraulic fluid:

A. Needs no special safety precautions or treatment.
B. Is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.*
C. Is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
D. Is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way.
1215. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:

A. Any hydraulic system without restriction.
B. Hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only.*
C. Any hydraulic system in an emergency.
D. Hydraulic systems that have neoprane seals only.
1216. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:

A. Minimum stroke.
B. An optimised position depending on fluid viscosity.
C. Maximum stroke.*
D. Mid stroke.
1217. The purpose of a reservoir is:

a. to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters.
b. to enable the contents to be checked.
c. to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring.*
d. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps.
1218. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:

A. To release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
B. To release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation.
C. To relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation.
D. In isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises.*
1219. A main system hydraulic pump:

A. Does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup.
B. Always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.*
C. Does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
D. Can be run dry without causing any damage.
1220. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
A. Exert the same force.
B. Will lift equal loads.
C. Will move at the same speed.
D. Exert different forces.*
1221. A force of 1,500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002m² and generates a force of-----(1)------Non a piston of
area 0.003m². The pressure generated is -----(2)-----and, if the smaller piston moves 0.025m, the work done is--
---(3)------.
a. (1) 56.25J (2) 750,000Pa (3) 750,000N
b. (1)750,000N (2) 2,250 P (3) 56.25J
c. (1) 225N (2) 75,000Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (1) 2,250N (2) 750,000Pa (3) 37.5 J*
1222. The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of a accumulator is to:
1. Store fluid under pressure
2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut out
9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure
Which of the following applies?
a. All of the statements are correct.
b. None of the statements are correct.
c. Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct.
d. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct.*
1223. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification are
respectively:
A. Natural rubber and neoprene.
B. Neoprene and natural rubber.
C. Butyl and neoprene.
D. Neoprene and butyl.*
1224. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:

A. Pressurised.
B. Bootstrapped.
C. Above the pump.
D. All of the above.*
1225. A hand pump is usually fitted:

A. For ground servicing purposes.*
B. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency.
C. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air.
D. Retracting the gear after take-off.
1226. In a hydraulic system overheat detectors are most commonly installed:

a. At the actuators.
b. In the reservoir.
c. At the coolers.
d. At the pumps.*
1227. Parameters to monitor the hydraulic system in the cockpit can be:
a. Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity.*
b. Pressure and fluid viscosity.
c. Pressure and hydraulic pump output.
d. Pressure and RPM of hydraulic pump.
1228. Should a hydraulic pump seize during operation:
a. The inner barrel of the pump will rotate this offloading and protecting the gearbox.
b. The quill drive will shear to offload the gearbox.*
c. A red light will illuminate in the cockpit to warn the pilot of the failure.
d. The freewheel unit will disengage the pump from the gearbox.
1229. The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as:

a. An energy storage.*
b. A pressure storage.
c. A volume storage.
d. A fluid storage.
1230. The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:

a. The lowest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
b. The highest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
c. The highest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.
d. The lowest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.*
1231. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:

a. To eliminate the fluid flow variations.
b. To by-pass the pumps in the hydraulic system.
c. To damp the fluid pressure variations.*
d. To enable starting of hydraulic devices.
1232. The fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir will:

a. Increase initially when the system is being pressurised.
b. Fluctuate with accumulator pressure.*
c. Increase slightly with any decrease in ambient temperature.
d. Always be the same.
1233. Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic
system is lost due to a hydraulic leak.
a. The remaining systems will take over control.*
b. Sufficient reserve hydraulic fluid is available to compensate the effects of the leak.
c. By switching the flight control system to the reversible mode.
d. By switching to the manual back-up control system.
1234. Which of the following statements about an aeroplanes hydraulic system is correct?
a. A hydraulic leak in a return line does not affect the functioning of the system.
b. The pumps are always electrically driven because they need to deliver high pressure of 3000 psi.
c. The filters, pressure relief valves, by-pass valves, and fire shut-off valves are safety features installed in the
system.*
d. The hydraulic reservoir contains a membrane and is pressurised on one side of that membrane.
1235. A single acting actuator:

a. Is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only.
b. Cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of travel.
c. It is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under another force.*
d. Travels in one direction under one application of hydraulic power, and in the opposite direction under the
second application.
1236. Purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are:

1. To damp out pressure fluctuations.
2. To cool the hydraulic fluid.
3. To serve as a limited source of pressure.
4. To serve as the main source of pressure for normal operations.
a. 1,3.*
b. 2,4.
c. 1,4.
d. 2,3.
1237. Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are?

a. Purple.*
b. Pink.
c. Blue.
d. Red.
1238. In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are?
a. Water and glycol.
b. Synthetic oil.*
c. Mineral oil.
d. Vegetable oil.
1239. Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics?

1. Thermal stability.
2. Low emulsifying characteristics.
3. Corrosion resistance
4. Good resistance to combustion.
5. High compressibility.
6. High volatility.
7. High viscosity.
a. 1,3,4,6.
b. 1,2, 3, 4.*
c. 1,2, 5, 7.
d. 2,3,4,5.
1240. Hydraulic fluids?

a. Cause high fire risk.
b. Do not require special care.
c. Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
d. Are irritating to eyes and skin.*
1241. Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately?
a. 3000 psi.*
h. 4000 psi.
c. 2000 psi.
d. 1000 psi.
1242. In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is?
a. To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
b. To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
c. To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to
the system.
d. To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.*
1243. In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to?

a. Prevent pump cavitation.*
b. Seal the system.
c. Keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum.
d. Temperature reduce fluid combustibility.
1244. Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are?

a. Water base fluids.
b. Vegetable base fluids.
c. Mineral base fluids.
d. Phosphate ester base fluids.*
1245. The purpose of a shuttle valve is to?

a. Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.
b. Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.
c. Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.
d. Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.*
1246. Shuttle valves will automatically?

a. Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.*
h. Shut down systems which are overloaded.
c. Guard systems against overpressure.
d. Reduce pump loads.
1247. Hydraulic power is a function of?

a. Pump size and volume flow.
b. System pressure and volume flow.*
c. Pump RPM only.
d. System pressure and tank capacity.
1248. The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if?
a. The pump output pressure is insufficient.*
b. The reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
c. There is a leak in the reservoir return line.
d. The pump power accumulator is deflated.
1249. Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :
A. Fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.*
B. Always remain the same.
C. Initially increase with system pressurisation.
D. Increase as ambient temperature decreases.
1250. Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:

A. An increased fluid temperature.*
B. Fluid loss.
C. A decreased fluid temperature.
D. An increased fluid pressure.
1251. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is?
a. The regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only
those considered as essential.
b. The reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure
(air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
c. The security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the bypasses, and the fire shut-off
valve.*
d. The pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/em").
1252. The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized?

a. In flight only.
b. By the air conditioning system.
c. By an auxiliary system.
d. By bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.*
1253. The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance agamst cavitation is?
a. Synthetic fluid.*
b. Mineral oil based fluid.
c. Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
d. Water and glycol based fluid.
1254. The pneumatic system accumulator is useful?

a. In emergency cases.
b. To eliminate the fluid pressure variations.*
c. To eliminate the fluid flow variations.
d. To offset for the starting of some devices.
1255. The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a?

a. Distribution valve.
h. Shutoff valve.
c. Check valve.*
d. Flow control valve.
1256. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
A. Flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.*
B. Nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
C. Undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
D. Flap extension only.
1257. The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called?
a. A hydraulic pump.
b. An accumulator.
c. A Pressure regulator.
d. An actuator or jack.*
1258. The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce?

a. Small pressure and large flow.
b. Small pressure and small flow.
c. High pressure and large flow.*
d. High pressure and small flow.
1259. The function of the selector valve is to?

a. Select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
b. Automatically activate the hydraulic system.
c. Discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.
d. Communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.*
1260. A shuttle valve is used to?

a. Switch from one supply to another.*
b. Switch from one service to another.
c. Operate components in sequence.
d. Move components backwards and forwards.
1261. A hydraulic fuse?

a. Minimises loss of fluid in the event of a hose failure.*
b. Prevents excessive fluid flow rates when jacks become unloaded.
c. Limits the rate at which services operate.
d. Permits gravity lowering of landing gear.
1262. In addition to collecting excess fluid from the system, a hydraulic reservoir also?
a. Relieves excessive pressures.
b. Prevents pressure surges & Reserve supply of fluid.*
c. Minimizes the amount of fluid that must be carried.
d. Keeps fluid up to working temperature.
1263. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised in order to?

a. Prevent foaming of fluid.*
b. Prevent freezing of fluid.
c. Maintain constant supply when inverted.
d. Minimise pressure rise necessary in pumps.
1264. Mineral based hydraulic fluid is and must be used with ....... seals?
a. Purple synthetic rubber.
b. Red synthetic rubber.*
c. Blue natural rubber.
d. Green natural rubber.
1265. What services can be operated by the RAT?

1. Landing gear.
2. Flaps.
3. Flying controls.
4. Spoilers.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2,3,4.*
c. 1,2,4.
1266. If compressed air is used to operate a hydraulic system in an emergency, it will use a?
a. Tilt valve.
b. Rotary valve.
c. Slide valve.
d. Shuttle valve.*
1267. The RAT supplies?

a. Nosewheel steering.
b. Flaps.
c. Landing gear.
d. Primary flight controls.*
1268. Modern transport aircraft hydraulic systems typically use?

a. 1000 to 2000 psi.
b. 2000 to 3000 psi.
c. 3000 to 4000 psi.*
d. 4000 to 5000 psi.
Fuel System: (Oxford & KW)
1269. If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to be 0.7, 100 Imperial Gallons of it will weigh:
a. 700 lb*
b. 70 lb
c. 7000 lb
d. 7,100 lb
1270. A fuel grade which is used in typical aircraft engines is:

a. D.T.D. 585/100
b. D.E.R.D. 2479
c. AVGAS 100*
d. D.E.R.D. 2484
1271. The “anti-knock” value of a fuel is its:

a. Degree of resistance to pre-ignition.
b. Resistance to adiabatic combustion.
c. Ability to oppose burning.
d. Resistance to detonation.*
1272. The differences between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100LL are:
Colour Anti-Knock value
a. Same Same
b. Same Different
c. Different Same*
d. Different Different
1273. The Octane rating of a fuel is determined by comparison with mixtures of:
a. Methane and orthodentine.
b. Heptane and iso octane.*
c. Methane and iso octane.
d. Heptane and orthodentine.
1274. In the internal combustion engine, detonation occurs due to:

a. The use of too high an R.P.M. with too little manifold pressure.
b. The use of the wrong grade of oil.
c. The cylinder temperatures and pressures being too low.
d. Excessive combustion temperatures and pressures.*
1275. The calorific value of a fuel is the:

a. Kinetic energy contained within it.
b. Heat energy in the fuel.*
c. Heat energy required to raise the temperature of the fuel to its boiling point.
d. Heat energy required to raise the temperature of the fuel to its boiling point from absolute zero.
1276. The octane rating of a particular grade of fuel is given as 100/130, this indicates that:
a. It will act as both 100 octane and 130 octane fuel at take-off power settings.
b. With a rich mixture it will act as 100 octanes, and with a weak mixture it will act as 130 octanes.
c. Its “anti-knock” qualities are identical to iso-octane.
d. With a weak mixture it will act as 100 octane, and with a rich mixture it will act as a 130 octane fuel.*
1277. Tetra ethyl lead is added to some aviation fuel to:

a. Decrease its octane rating.
b. Decrease the risk of detonation.*
c. Increase its calorific value.
d. Increase its specific gravity.
1278. If the vent pipe of an aircraft’s fuel tank becomes blocked, it will cause:
a. The pressure in the tank to fall when fuel is used.*
b. The pressure in the tank to rise when fuel is used.
c. The evaporation rate of the fuel to decrease as fuel is used from the tank.
d. The fuel pressure at the carburettor to rise.
1279. Detonation is liable to occur in the cylinders:

a. With an over rich mixture at idle power.
b. With a weak mixture and high cylinder head temperature.*
c. With a rich mixture at high power settings.
d. At very low engine speed.
1280. Pre-ignition refers to the condition when:

a. A rich mixture is ignited by the spark plug.
b. The spark plug ignites the mixture too early.
c. The mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the normal ignition point.*
d. The mixture burns in the inlet manifold.
1281. An exhaust gas temperature gauge is powered by:

a. 12v DC
b. 115v AC
c. 28v DC
d. A thermocouple which generates its own voltage*
1282. “Flame Rate” is the term used to describe the speed at which:
a. The mixture burns within the cylinder.*
b. The combustion pressure rises within the cylinder.
c. Peroxide forms within the cylinder.
d. Fulminates form with the cylinder.
15. The colour of 100 / 130 grade low lead fuel is:
a. Green.
b. Blue.*
c. Red.
d. Straw yellow.
1283. Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

A. To assist in correct fuel distribution.
B. To prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres.*
C. To prevent the static build up in the tank during refueling.
D. To channel fuel to the vent valve.
1284. A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:
A. Show full scale deflection high.
B. Fluctuate between high and low readings.
C. Remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure.
D. Show full scale deflection low.*
1285. A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilised to:
A. Jettison and transfer fuel.*
B. Jettison and heat the fuel.
C. Transfer and heat the fuel.
D. Transfer and recycle the fuel.
1286. During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
A. High level float switches.
B. Preset jettison quantity switches.
C. The crew remaining alert.
D. Low level float switches.*
1287. To indicate that a refueling bowser carries JET A1 aviation kerosene:

A. Yellow and black stripes are marked on the refueling hose.
b. JET A1 would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the container.
c. JET A1 is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on the vehicle.*
D. The driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.
1288. Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft’s engine fuel system if it has been refueled with JET B instead
of its normal JET A1 fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:
A. The change in the specific gravity of the fuel.*
B. The change in the calorific value of the fuel.
C. The change in the viscosity of the fuel.
D. The lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.
1289. The differences between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100LL are:
Colour Anti-knock value
a. Same Same
b. Same Different
c. Different Same*
d. Different Different
1290. The aircraft cannot be refueled while:

A. A ground power unit is operating on the ramp.
B. Passengers are walking through the refueling zones.*
C. Passengers are boarding.
D. The A.P.U. is running.
1291. The disadvantage of refueling the aircraft to “tanks full” the night before a departure in the heat of the day
is that:
A. The change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight.
B. The change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system.*
C. The change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient.
D. The R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative.
1292. An aircraft using MOGAS:

A. Is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power.
B. Must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks.
C. Is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburetor icing.*
D. Will suffer from a loss of power during take off.
1293. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
A. Water contamination.*
B. Anti-microbiological additives.
C. Mixing different fuel grades.
D. Oil in the fuel.
1294. On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system graduated to
read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by 10%,
the gauges will show:
A. An increase of 10%.
B. A decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity.
C. A decrease.
D. The same amount.*
1295. The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go into the refueling zone. The A.P.U:
a. must be switched OFF throughout the refueling operation.
b. can be started while refueling is carried out.
c. must be started before fuelling is carried out, and can be run throughout the refueling operation.*
d. can be started only after the refueling operation has been terminated.
1296. De-fuelled fuel:

A. Can only be used in domestic heating systems.
B. Can only be used by aircraft from the same operators fleet.
C. Must be put back into storage.
D. Cannot be re-used until its quality has been verified.*
1297. The background colour scheme for fuelling system pipelines carrying the following fuels is:
JET A1 AVGAS
a. Red Black
b. Black Red*
c. Red Yellow
d. Yellow Red
1298. AVGAS:
A. Is coloured red for identification purposes.
B. Is coloured green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low lead fuel.*
C. Has no artificial colouring and appears either clear or a straw yellow colour.
D. Can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-knock properties.
1299. Information relating to the use of MOGAS can be found in:

a. C.A.A. General Aviation Safety Sense Leaflets.*
b. Advisory Information Circulars.
c. Notams.
d. C.A.A. Airworthiness Publications.
1300. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
A. The use of fuel from any tank to any engine.*
B. Refueling when only one bowser is in use.
C. Isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
D. Transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.
1301. Refueling with passengers on board is not permissible:

A. On a fixed wing aircraft.
B. If AVGAS is being used.*
C. If the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to passengers is greater than 1:50
and it is a wide bodied jet.
D. In any of the above cases.
1302. While refueling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:
a. two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of the aircraft.
b. the rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant ready for use as an emergency exit
using the inflatable escape slide.*
c. ground servicing must not be carried out.
d. catering and cleaning must not be carried out.
1303. A “wide-cut” fuel is:

A. More flammable than a kerosene type fuel.*
B. Less volatile than a kerosene type fuel.
C. Coloured red for identification purposes.
D. Commonly used in civilian transport aircraft.
1304. The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:

A. Prevent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration.
B. Allow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective of the aircraft attitude.
C. Dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing tanks during a sideslip.*
D. Maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the wing tanks
1305. Fuel is heated:

A. To stop cavitation in the high pressure fuel pump.
B. To maintain a constant viscosity.
C. To prevent water contamination.
D. To stop ice blocking the low pressure fuel filter.*
1306. What is the function of a collector tank (feeder box):

A. Prevent detonation during take off.
B. Prevent cavitation of the booster pumps.*
C. Prevent fuel surge due to extreme aircraft attitude.
D. Allow suction feeding of the engine pump.
1307. Fuel tank booster pumps are:

A. Centrifugal, low pressure.*
B. Centrifugal, high pressure
C. Gear type, low pressure
D. Gear type, high pressure
1308. The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:
A. Responds to changes in specific gravity.
B. Compensates for high altitude flight.
C. Responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.
D. Compensates for aircraft attitude changes.*
1309. The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

A. Backs up in case the engine high pressure pump fails.
B. Backs up in case of a double booster pump failure.*
C. Assists in the refueling operation if only low pressure refueling systems are available.
D. Pressurises the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps.
1310. The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:

A. Heat the oil and cool the fuel.
B. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.*
C. Cool the oil.
D. Heat the fuel.
1311. If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would
indicate:
A. Full scale low (zero).
B. It would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel c. Full scale high (max).
C. It would freeze at the last known indication.*
1312. AVTUR or JET A1:

A. Varies in colour between clear and straw yellow.*
B. Is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft.
C. Is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point.
D. Is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines.
1313. The fuel cross-feed system enables:

a. The transfer of fuel only from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
b. The supply of the outboard engines from any outboard fuel tank.
c. The supply of any engine from any fuel tank.*
d. The supply of the engine mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
1314. On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
a. Centrifugal pumps.*
b. Piston pumps.
c. Gear type pumps.
d. Diaphragm pumps.
1315. One of the purposes of the fuel booster pumps being submerged in fuel is:
a. To improve efficiency.*
b. To facilitate priming of the pumps.*
c. To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
d. To cool the pumps.*
All a, b, d are correct
1316. Vapour lock is the phenomenon by which:

a. Heat produces vapour bubbles in the fuel line.*
b. Water vapour bubbles are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in the fuel tanks
that have been recently drained.
c. Abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.
d. Burned gas bubbles are formed and remain in the exhaust manifold following an overheat, thereby disturbing
the exhaust.
1317. The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three fuel listed is:
a. Jet AI, Jet A, Jet B.
b. Jet B, Jet AI, Jet A.
c. Jet AI, Jet B, Jet A.
d. Jet A, Jet AI, Jet B.*
1318. Vapour locking is caused by:

a. The formation of water vapour in a fuel system.
b. Vaporising of fuel prior to the engine.*
c. Vaporising of fuel at the nozzles.
d. The inability of fuel to vaporise in the nozzles.
1319. The vapour lock is:

a. A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.*
b. The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
c. The exhaust gasses obstructions caused by engine overheating.
d. The effect of water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation of water in the fuel
tanks.
1320. The fuel tanks of aircraft must be checked for water:
a. Before the first flight of the day and after a long turnaround period.*
b. Immediately after refuelling.
c. During refuelling.
d. Before each flight.

1. The freezing point of Jet A fuel is at a higher temperature than that of Jet B.
2. The flash point for Jet A fuel is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B.
d. 1 is correct 2 is incorrect.
1322. The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel?

a. Vent system.*
b. Tank drains.
c. Top off unit.
d. Dump system.
1323. The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made?

a. Through the refueling cap of every tank.
b. By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
c. By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).
d. Through a unique point (an underwing refueling centre).*
1324. The fuel system boost pumps are used to?

a. Avoid the bubbles accumulation.
b. Feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
c. Feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
d. Avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive
pressure.*
1325. The cross-feed fuel system is used to?

a. Automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.*
b. Feed every engine from any fuel tank.
c. Allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency
d. Allow the unusable fuel elimination.
1326. The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:

A. Increase the fuel level at the boost pump location*
B. Trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
C. Distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
D. Ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
1327. The automatic fuelling shut off valve?

a. Stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
b. Stops fueIling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.*
c. Cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
d. Stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line.
1328. On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through?
a. Bleed air from the engines.
b. The return lines of the fuel pumps.
c. Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.*
d. A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
1329. The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are?
a. Integral tanks.*
b. Cell tanks.
c. Combined fuel tanks.
d. Fixed built-in tanks.
1330. Fuel dump systems are required?

a. On aircraft with a maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
b. On all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the
Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).*
c. On all transport category aircraft.
d. On all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
Landing Gear, Wheels, Tyres, Brakes: (Oxford & KW)
1331. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A. Support the weight of the aircraft.
B. Limit the speed of compression of the strut.
C. Lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
D. Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.*
1332. The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:
A. There is limited space in the nose wheel bay.*
B. The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
C. The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
D. It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.
1333. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

A. Prevent the fluid becoming aerated.
B. Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.*
C. Make the lowering time greater than the raising time.
D. Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.
1334. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

A. Not possible because the system is not powerful enough.
B. Prevented by the ground/air logic system.
C. Always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.*
D. The responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.
1335. Creep (Slippage):

A. Is not a problem with tubeless tyres.
B. Refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes.
C. Can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate the tyre.*
D. Can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre.
1336. Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced:

A. Restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers.
B. Taxying at less than 40 kmph.*
C. Staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway.
D. Taxying at less than 25 knots.
1337. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying, you should:

A. Use tyres with fusible plugs.
B. Make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted.
C. Turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.*
D. Deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure.
1338. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

A. Co
B. Dry powder.*
C. Freon.
D. Water.
1339. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should bemodified by:
A. 10psi.
B. 10%.
C. 4psi.
D. 4%.*
1340. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

A. Oil or grease on the brake drums.
B. Worn stators.
C. The pilot reducing the brake pressure.
D. The brake pads overheating.*
1341. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
A. The aircraft main hydraulic system.*
B. The pilots brake pedals.
C. A self-contained power pack.
D. The hydraulic reservoir.
1342. Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run:
I. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
Ii. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
Iii. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid
Iv. The use of cadence braking
V. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure towards the end
Vi. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
Vii. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run
A. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)*
B. (i), (iii), (vi), (vii)
C. (i), (iv), (vi), (vii)
D. (i), (v), (vi), (vii)
1343. The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:
a. Vp = 9 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.
b. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in mph.
c. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.*
d. Vp = 34 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.
1344. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
a. 135 mph.
b. 135 knots.*
c. 145 knots.
d. 145 mph.
1345. Landing gear ground locking pins are:

A. Fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked.
B. Removed prior to flight and returned to stores.
C. Fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack.
D. Removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew.*
1346. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:

A. Dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies.
B. Grease on the rotor assembly.
C. The brake pressure being too high.
D. Incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.*
1347. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

A. Aircraft is overweight.
B. The tyre pressures are too high.
C. The aircraft is incorrectly loaded.
D. A torque link is worn or damaged.*
1348. Creep (slippage):

A. Can damage the braking system.
B. Can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.*
C. May cause excess wear.
D. Never occurs on new tyres.
1349. The anti-skid system would be used:

A. On landing runs only.
B. On take off runs only.
C. For take off on icy runways.
D. For both take off and landing runs.*
1350. A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:
A. An anti-skid braking system.
B. Downlocks.*
C. Torque links.
D. A shock absorber.
1351. A nose wheel steering control system:

A. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times.
B. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.*
C. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times.
D. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised.
1352. At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is:
A. Inoperative.*
B. Operative.
C. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes.
D. Operative only on the main wheel brakes.
1353. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:
A. Fallen by 15% from their rated value.
B. Risen by 15% from their rated value.
C. Remained constant.
D. Risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.*
1354. The ply rating of a tyre:

A. Always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.
B. Never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass.
C. Indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted.
D. Is the index of the tyre strength.*
1355. To avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating there is:
a. A thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature.*
b. A pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
c. The "Emergency burst" function of the anti-skld system that adapts braking to the tyre pressure.
d. Water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower the temperature.
1356. The function of a scissor link (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:
a. Transfer rudder pedal deflection into the nose wheel steering commands.
b. Make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20 degrees.
c. Create a wheel pitch on bogie gears.
d. Prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber.*
1357. Overcentre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to:
a. Lock the landing gear in the up position only.
b. Lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions.*
c. Ensure that the nose wheel steering does not exceed the maximum steering arc.
d. Create a wheel pitch on bogie gears.
1358. Brake disks are manufactured from:

a. Steel or carbon fibre.*
b. Boron aluminium or titanium.
c. Steel or titanium.
d. Aluminium or steel.
1359. The working principle of the anti-skid system is:

a. Reduction of brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.*
b. Reduction of brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.
c. Increase of brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.
d. Increase of brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.
1360. The system used for emergency extension of landing gear may comprise:
1. Compressed Co2.
2. Compressed nitrogen.
3. Compressed oxygen.
4. Auxiliary hydraulic system.
5. Freefall.
a. 2,3,4.
b. 1,2,5.
c. 1,3,4.
d. 2,4,5.*
1361. During hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tyre and runway surface is approximately:
a. 0.25
b. 0*
c. 0.5
d. 1
1362. Shimmy occurs on nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when:
1. The nose wheels tend 'to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground.
2. The wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions.
This effect is overcome by means of:
3. The torque link.
4. An accumulator associated with the steering cylinder.
a. 1,4.
b. 2,3.
c. 1,3.*
d. 2,4.
1363. The auto-brake system is disconnected after landing:

a. Below a specific speed.
b. After a preset elapsed time.
c. When selecting the reverse thrust.
d. By pilot action.*
1364. Emergency extension of landing gear systems can be performed:
1. With compressed Co2.
2. With compressed nitrogen.
3. With compressed oxygen.
4. By mechanical means.
5. By freefall.
a. 2,4,5.*
b. 1,2,5.
c. 1,3,4.
d. 2,3,4.
1365. The purpose of an accumulator in a landing gear hydraulic system.is to:

a. Store energy.*
b. Store fluid.
c. Store pressure.
d. Cool the fluid.
1366. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a?

a. Belt brake.
b. Multiple disk brake.*
c. Drum type brake.
d. Single disk brake.
1367. A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to?

a. Avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.*
b. Absorb the spring tension.
c. Control the wheels.
d. Lock the landing gear.
1368. In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually?
a. Mechanically driven.
b. Pneumatically driven.
c. Electrically driven.
d. Hydraulically driven.*
1369. Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete
hydraulic system failure?
a. Mechanically.*
b. Electrically.
c. Pneumatically.
d. By hydraulic accumulators.
1370. If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be?
a. Used on the nose wheel only.
b. Repaired several times.*
c. Repaired once.
d. Never repaired.
1371. The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they?
a. Release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
b. Release air from the tyre in case of overheating.*
c. Prevent the brakes from overheating.
d. Prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
1372. Thermal plugs are installed in?
a. Cabin windows.
b. Cargo compartments.
c. Wheel rims.*
d. Fire warning systems.
1373. In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi.

An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure
gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads?
a. 1200 psi.
b. 4200 psi.
c. 1800 psi.
d. 3000 psi.*
1374. A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to?

a. Make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.
b. Prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.*
c. Create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
d. Transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel.
1375. On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre?

a. Will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed.
b. Will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway.
c. Will wear at the shoulders.*
d. It's tread will deteriorate faster
1376. The function of a fusible plug is to?

a. Protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.
b. Protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.*
c. Protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
d. Function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system.
1377. Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics?
1. High heating.
2. Valve fragility.
3. Lower risk of bursting.
4. Better adjustment to wheels.
The combination containing all the correct statements is?
a. 2-3.
b. 2-4.
c. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4.
d. 3 -4.*
1378. A tubeless tyre is a tyre?

1. Which requires solid or branched wheels.
2. Whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations.
3. Whose mounting rim must be flawless.
4. Which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device
5. Which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture.
6. Which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire.
a. 1, 5, 6.
b. 3,4,6.*
c. 1,2,5.
d. 2,3,6.
1379. The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is?
a. Locked-down.*
b. In the required position.
c. Locked-down and its door is locked.
d. Not in the required position.
1380. A tubeless tyre has?

1. A built-in-air tube.
2. No built-in-air tube.
3. A crossed side casing.
4. A radial side casing.
The combination of correct statements is?
a 2,3.
b. 1,3.
c. 2,4.*
d. 1,4.
1381. In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is?

a. An accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.*
b. A damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.
c. Designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.
d. A buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
1382. A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when?

a. The actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
b. The corresponding indicator lamp is amber.
c. The strut is locked by an over centre mechanism.*
d. It is in the down position.
1383. Landing gear torque links are used to?

a. Maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.
b. Prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.*
c. take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
d. Prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
1384. The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:
1. Idle wheel speed (measured).
2. Braked wheel speed (measured).
3. Brake temperature (measured).
4. Desired idle wheel train slipping rate.
5. Tyre pressure.
a. 1,3.
b. 1,2,4.*
c. 1,2,3,4,5.
d. 2,4.
1385. Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?
a. Springs.
b. Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.*
c. Nitrogen.
d. Oxygen.
1386. In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the
ground. It consists of?
a. A bolt.
b. A latch located in the landing gear lever.*
c. An aural warning horn.
d. A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
1387. The advantages of tubeless tyres include?

1. The tube cannot rotate within the tyre.
2. The tyre cannot rotate relative to the wheel.
3. The tyre will deflate if there is excessive creep.
4. They are more easily fitted to wheels.
5. The valves cannot be sheared off by excessive braking.
a. 1,2,3,4,5.
b. 1,2,4,5.
c. 1,3,4,5.
d. 1,5.*
1388. How is gear retraction prevented on the ground?

a. A warning sign on the lever.
b. An aural warning system.
c. Isolation of hydraulic power when on the ground.
d. Microswitches.*
1389. A brake accumulator?

a. Permits use of brakes when engines are stopped.*
b. Allows for thermal contraction of fluid after shut down.
c. Maintain braking effect in the event of small leaks when parked.
d. Prevents excessive use of brakes.
1390. Landing gear legs are locked down by?

a. An amber warning light.
b. The actuating cylinder reaching the end of its range.
c. An over-centre geometric locking mechanism.*
d. Putting in the ground locks.
1391. How is the anti-skid system disconnected?

a. Automatically when spoilers are deployed.
b. Automatically upon touch-down.
c. Automatically when a specified speed is reached after touch-down.*
d. Manually. After the end of the landing run.
1392. Tubeless tyres?

a. Can be deflated by creep.
b. Explode if punctured.
c. Can be deflated due to the valve being torn out by excessive braking.
d. Are lighter than tubed ones.*
1393. Anti-skid systems?

a. Increase fluid pressure to the slower wheel.
b. Increase fluid pressure to the faster wheel.
c. Decrease fluid pressure to the slower wheel.*
d. Decrease fluid pressure to the faster wheel.
1394. Shimmy is a potentially damaging oscillation that occurs when?

a. Landing gear is retracted.
b. Landing gear is extended.
c. Moving at low speeds on the ground.
d. Moving at high speeds on the ground.*
1395. A tubed tyre is compared to a tubeless tyre?

1. Gets hotter.
2. Is more resistant to blowouts.
3. Is more permeable.
4. Is less likely to tear out the valve during landings.
a. 1,2,3.*
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1, 2, 4.
1396. The indication for gear down and locked is/

a. All lights out.
b. Three reds.
c. Three greens.*
d. Gear down caption illuminated.
1397. Power for the landing gear is usually provided by means of?
a. HP Pneumatic systems.
b. DC electrics.
c. AC electrics.
d. HP hydraulics.*
1398. Emergency landing gear extension in modern passenger aircraft is usually powered by?
a. Essential services AC busbar.
b. Essential service DC bus bar.
c. Stored HP air.
d. Gravity.*
1399. Overheating of the wheel brakes is indicated by?

a. EFIS PFD.
b. EFIS ND.
c. EICAS or ECAM.*
d. Red gear lights.
1400. A tyre inflated to 3.5 bars will hydroplane at? (1 bar = 15 psi)
a. 56 Kts when the grooves are half filled with water.
b. 56 Kts when the grooves are filled with water.*
c. 126 Kts when the grooves are half filled with water.
d. 126 kts when the grooves are filled with water.
1401. Shimmy is often prevented in light aircraft with single nose wheels by?
a. A marstrand tyre.*
b. Shimmy dampers.
c. Power steering.
d. Non-castoring nose wheel.
1402. Shimmy is often prevented in light single nose wheel aircraft by?
a. A trailing nose wheel.*
b. Shimmy dampers.
c. Power steering.
d. Non-castoring nose wheel.
1403. A marstrand tyre must be replaced when it is worn to?

a. The bottom the bracing plies.
b. The top of the bracing plies.
c. The bottom of the indicator grooves.
d. The bottom of the central groove.*
1404. Carbon fibre disc brakes are most efficient?

a. At low ambient temperatures.
b. At high ambient temperatures.
c. When hot.*
d. When wet.
1405. Inadvertent gear selection in flight is prevented in light aircraft by?

a. Squat switches.
b. Ground locks.
c. Micro-switches.
d. Detented selector levers.*
1406. Single acting hydraulic actuators are used for?

a. Gear retraction.
b. Gear extension.
c. Nose wheel steering.
d. Brakes.*
1407. The maximum taxiing speed to reduce tyre wear is?

a. 20 kts.
b. 22 Kts.*
c. 30 Kts.
d. 45 Kts.
Piston Engines: (Oxford & KW)
1408. The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke will:
a. Be constant.
b. Decrease.*
c. Increase.
d. Follow Charles’s Law.
1409. The number of revolutions of the crankshaft required to complete a full cycle in a four stroke engine is:
a. 6
b. 4
c. 2*
d. 8
1410. The inlet valve opens before T.D.C. in the exhaust stroke to:
a. Increase the pressure in the cylinder on completion of the induction stroke.
b. Reduce engine vibration.
c. Allow the incoming mixture to mix with a certain proportion of the exhaust gases.
d. Induce a greater amount of mixture into the cylinder.*
1411. The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

a. Exhaust, power, induction, compression.
b. Compression, power, exhaust, induction.*
c. Induction, power, compression, exhaust.
d. Power, exhaust, compression, induction.
1412. Valve overlap is incorporated in the valve timing of a piston engine to:
a. Improve volumetric efficiency.*
b. Reduce wear on the big end bearings.
c. Increase the engines compression ratio.
d. Prevent a weak cut when the engine is accelerated rapidly.
1413. With an increase in the rotational speed of a four stroke engine, the valve overlap:
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains constant.*
d. Increases up to ground idle and thereafter decreases.
1414. In a normally aspirated engine, exhaust back pressure:

a. Decreases as an aircraft climbs and thereby reduces the rate of decline of the engine power output.*
b. Increases as an aircraft climbs and thereby reduces the engine power output.
c. Is affected by the power lever position.
d. Decreases as an aircraft descends and thereby improves the engine power output.
1415. When the spark ignites the mixture:

a. The explosion pushes the piston down.
b. The mixture changes from rich to weak forward of the flame front.
c. Complete combustion occurs within 8 to 10 microseconds.
d. Temperature and pressure increase within the cylinder.*
1416. If the volume of a quantity of gas is halved during compression:

a. Its pressure is approximately doubled.*
b. Its temperature remains constant.
c. Its mass is approximately doubled.
d. Its pressure is approximately halved.
1417. The term Indicated Mean Effective Pressure refers to:

a. The maximum working pressure in the engine cylinder.
b. The effective working pressure in the cylinder during the power stroke.*
c. The pressure achieved during compression.
d. The minimum working pressure applied to the piston during the cycle.
1418. The degrees of rotation to complete a full cycle on a nine cylinder engine will be:
a. 180
b. 360
c. 720*
d. 80
1419. The firing interval of a six cylinder horizontally opposed engine will be:
a. 180
b. 120*
c. 60
d. 360
1420. Which of the following statements would be correct for a double banked radial engine?
a. There will always be an odd number of cylinders.
b. Radial engines are generally liquid cooled.
c. The linear distance from TDC to BDC will accommodate two throws.*
d. Radial engines cannot suffer from hydraulicing.
1421. On a four cylinder engine with a total volume of 9600cc, bore area of 100cm2 and a crank throw
of 10cm, what would the Compression Ratio be?
a. 7:1
b. 8:1
c. 24:1
d. 6:1*
1422. With an increase in outside air temperature, specific fuel consumption will:
a. Increase.*
b. Decrease.
c. Stay the same.
d. Stay the same for all temperatures up to and including 15°C and thereafter increase.
1423. Combustion, in a four stroke engine, theoretically occurs at:

a. A constant pressure.
b. A constant temperature.
c. A constant volume.*
d. A constant velocity.
1424. In a convergent duct:

a. The pressure and velocity increase, the temperature decreases.*
b. The pressure and temperature decrease, the velocity increases.
c. The temperature and velocity increase, the pressure decreases.
d. The pressure and velocity remain constant, the temperature decreases.
1425. During the compression stroke:

a. The temperature of the gases remains constant.
b. The volume of the gases increases.
c. The mass of the mixture decreases.
d. The mass of the mixture remains constant.*
1426. From Top Dead Centre (TDC) to Bottom Dead Centre (BDC) on the practical power stroke:
a. The temperature of the gases rises for a short time then decreases.*
b. The pressure of the gases remains constant.
c. The temperature of the gases decreases from TDC to BDC.
d. The density of the gas remains constant.
1427. In a divergent duct:

a. The velocity and temperature increase, the pressure decreases.
b. The temperature and pressure increase, the velocity decreases.*
c. The temperature and pressure decrease, the velocity increases.
d. The velocity and temperature decrease, the pressure increases.
1428. During the induction stroke:

a. The mixture becomes weaker.
b. The volume of the gases becomes smaller.
c. The temperature of the gases reduces.*
d. The pressure of the gases increases.
1429. Ideally, maximum pressure is attained within the cylinder:

a. When combustion is complete.*
b. At the end of the compression stroke.
c. During the period of valve overlap.
d. When combustion temperature is at a minimum.
1430. The power output of an internal combustion engine:

a. Is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.
b. Increases with increased humidity.
c. Falls as the charge temperature falls.
d. Is proportional to the weight of the mixture induced into the cylinder.*
1431. During the period of valve overlap:

a. The action of the exhaust gases flowing past the exhaust valve increases the pressure within the cylinder.
b. The temperature of the exhaust gases increases the mass of incoming mixture.
c. The action of the exhaust gases flowing out past the exhaust valve tends to reduce the pressure in the cylinder.*
d. The crankshaft is moving past Bottom Dead Centre.
1432. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:
a. Increasing the area of the cylinder.
b. Increasing the length of the stroke.
c. Increasing the engine R.P.M.
d. All of the above.*
1433. Valve Overlap is:

a. The number of degrees of camshaft rotation during which the inlet and exhaust valves are open at the same
time.
b. The number of degrees of crankshaft movement during which the inlet and exhaust valves are open at the same
time.*
c. The distance the piston travels while the inlet valve remains open after B.D.C.
d. The number of degrees of crankshaft rotation during which the inlet and exhaust valves are open at the same
time around B.D.C.
1434. The purpose of a valve spring is to:

a. Close the valve.*
b. Cause a snap opening of the valve.
c. Allow the valve timing to vary with changing R.P.M.
d. Maintain the valve clearance within tolerance.
1435. Excessive blue smoke from the exhaust of an engine that has been warmed up to normal operating
temperature may indicate that:
a. The mixture is too rich.
b. The oil pressure relief valve has stuck in the open position.
c. The piston rings are worn or stuck in their grooves.*
d. The oil pressure is too low.
1436. The camshaft of a horizontally opposed four stroke engine rotates at:
a. Twice engine speed.
b. Engine speed.
c. Twice magneto speed.
d. Half engine speed.*
1437. A reduction gear is fitted:

a. Between the camshaft and the propeller.
b. Between the pushrods and the valves.
c. Between the crankshaft and propeller.*
d. Between the connecting rod and the crankshaft.
1438. Prolonged use of low R.P.M. could cause contamination of the:

a. Oil filter.
b. Spark plug.*
c. Carburetor.
d. Oil pump.
1439. If the Starter Engaged Light remains on after engine start, you should:
a. Shut the engine down immediately.*
b. Ignore it if it remains on for longer than 30 seconds.
c. Shut the engine down if the light remains on for more than 30 seconds.
d. Shut the engine down if the light remains on for more than 60 seconds.
1440. The crankshaft of an in line four cylinder aircraft engine:

a. Rotates at half the speed of the camshaft.
b. Will have the crank throws spaced 90 degrees apart.
c. Allows a firing order of 1-3-4-2.*
d. Will not flex or twist.
1441. Two valve springs are fitted to each valve:

a. To minimise camshaft wear.
b. To allow a greater cam rise.
c. To prevent valve rotation.
d. To reduce valve bounce.*
1442. Excessive valve clearance:

a. Will prevent the valve closing completely.
b. Is eliminated when the engine reaches working temperature.
c. Will cause the valve to open early and close late.
d. Will cause the valve to open late and close early.*
1443. Valve lead occurs when:

a. The inlet valve opens before bottom dead centre.
b. The exhaust valve opens before the inlet valve.
c. The exhaust valve opens before top dead centre.
d. The inlet valve opens before top dead centre and the exhaust valve opens before bottom dead centre.*
1444. Insufficient tappet clearance at the inlet valve would cause:

a. The valve to open early and close late.*
b. The valve to open late and close early.
c. The mixture in that cylinder to be weak.
d. Misfiring.
1445. The length of the stroke is:

a. Equal to the length of the cylinder.
b. Determined by the size of the piston.
c. Equivalent to twice the crank throw.*
d. Inversely proportional to the engine power output.
1446. Tappet clearance is measured between the:

a. Push rod and the valve tip.
b. Valve tip and the rocker pad.*
c. Valve spring and the rocker pad.
d. Valve tip and the rocker cover.
1447. The number of revolutions required to complete the induction and compression stroke in a six cylinder four
stroke engine is:
a. 1*
b. 2
c. 6
d. 4
1448. The purpose of a crankcase breather is to:

a. Maintain the oil tank pressure at atmospheric.
b. Prevent distortion of the crankcase.
c. Allow the oil to breathe.
d. Prevent pressure building up inside the crankcase.*
1449. Tappet clearance is provided in a piston engine to:

a. Adjust the valve timing.
b. Allow for expansion of the valve gear as the engine warms up.*
c. Allow for manufacturing tolerances.
d. Prevent valve bounce.
1450. Piston rings are manufactured from cast iron:

a. Because it has a negative coefficient of expansion.
b. To take advantage of its extreme malleability.
c. Because of its self-lubricating qualities.*
d. To take advantage of its brittleness.
1451. The exhaust valves:

a. Are opened directly by the action of push rods which are in turn operated by cams on the crankshaft.
b. Are less affected by the heat of combustion than the inlet valves.
c. Are opened by the valve springs and closed by the rocker gear.
d. Sometimes have their stems partly filled with sodium to assist cooling.*
1452. Hydraulic valve tappets are used on some engines to:

a. Eliminate valve bounce.
b. Eliminate constant valve adjustment and checks.*
c. Give a more positive closing action.
d. Give a more positive opening action.
1453. The swept volume of a cylinder is:

a. The area of the piston crown x the stroke.*
b. The area of the cylinder cross section x the cylinder length.
c. Half of the clearance volume.
d. The total volume + the piston volume.
1454. The thermal efficiency of a piston engine can be increased by:

a. Increasing the R.P.M.
b. Increasing the combustion chamber volume.
c. Advancing the ignition point into the direction of rotation.
d. Increasing the compression ratio.*
1455. A normally aspirated engine is one which:

a. Has four cylinders.
b. Is not supercharged.*
c. Is never air cooled.
d. Is all of the above.
1456. The Compression Ratio of an engine may be defined as the:

a. Swept volume + clearance volume ÷ swept volume.
b. Swept volume + clearance volume ÷ clearance volume.*
c. Total volume - clearance volume ÷ clearance volume.
d. Swept volume ÷ (swept volume + clearance volume).
1457. An engine has a total volume of 2,100 cm3 and a swept volume of 1,800 cm3. Its compression ratio is:
a. 7:6
b. 6:1
c. 7:1*
d. 6:7
1458. Volumetric efficiency may be defined as:

a. The ratio of the volume of the mixture drawn into the cylinder during normal engine working, to the volume of
the mixture which would be required to fill the cylinder under normal temperatures and pressures.*
b. The ratio of the volume of air and the volume of fuel drawn into the cylinder.
c. The ratio of the volume of one of the cylinders to the volume of all of the cylinders in the engine.
d. The efficiency with which the air and fuel mix together in the cylinder.
1459. The ratio of the power produced by an engine to the power available in the fuel is known as the:
a. Specific fuel consumption.
b. Indicated horse power.
c. Volumetric efficiency.
d. Thermal efficiency.*
1460. Specific Fuel Consumption (S.F.C.)

a. Is the inability of the internal combustion engine to use any fuel other than that specified by the manufacturer.
b. Becomes greater as the efficiency of the engine improves.
c. Is the weight of fuel used by an engine per unit horse power per unit time.*
d. Increases in proportion to the thermal efficiency.
1461. Brake Horsepower is:

a. Theoretical power in the cylinder.
b. Useful power at the propeller.*
c. Power lost in the engine.
d. Power required to slow the aircraft down.
1462. A method of improving Volumetric Efficiency is:

a. Valve overlap.*
b. The use of carburettor heat.
c. Weakening the mixture.
d. To make the mixture richer.
1463. From the following list select the correct combination of statements.
The primary task of the lubrication is to:
1. Reduce friction
2. Cool the engine
3. Clean the engine
4. Reduce component wear
5. Act as a hydraulic medium
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 5
c. 1 and 4*
d. 1 and 5
1464. In a piston engine dry sump oil system, the oil temperature and pressure are sensed:
a. When the oil is leaving the sump.
b. For the temperature when the oil is leaving the tank, and for the pressure when the oil is leaving the pressure
pump.*
c. For the oil temperature when the oil is entering the tank and for the pressure when it is entering the pressure
pump.
d. At the same point.
1465. Oil returning to the oil tank is filtered by:

a. The oil pressure filter.
b. The oil tank filter.
c. A micron size multi-bore filters assembly.
d. The scavenge filter.*
1466. Engine oil pressure is:

a. Low at idle R.P.M. and high at high R.P.M.
b. Controlled by the oil cooler.
c. Substantially decreased when the oil pressure relief valve opens.
d. Relatively unaffected by engine speed.*
1467. The purpose of the crankcase breather is to:

a. Maintain the pressure in the oil tank at atmospheric pressure.
b. Ease the task of the oil scraper ring.
c. Prevent pressure building up inside the crankcase.*
d. Prevent distortion of the crankcase.
1468. The most probably cause of small fluctuations in the oil pressure would be:
a. Lack of oil.
b. The pressure relief valve sticking.*
c. Air in the oil tank.
d. The scavenge pump working at a greater capacity than the pressure pump.
1469. The extra space in the oil tank is to cater for:

a. Frothing and aeration of the oil as it passes through the engine.*
b. Fire protection.
c. The accommodation of extra oil contents on long duration flights.
d. Anti-surge action.
1470. The scavenge pump system in a lubrication system has:

a. A by-pass in case of blockage.
b. A smaller capacity than the pressure pump.
c. A bifurcated tertiary drive system.
d. A larger capacity than the pressure pump.*
1471. In a “wet sump” oil system, the oil is contained in the:

a. Engine and tank.
b. Tank and oil cooler.
c. Sump and tank.
d. Engine and sump.*
1472. The oil contents of a piston engine (wet sump) are checked:
a. When the engine is running at idle power.
b. As soon as possible after the engine is stopped because the oil will drain away from the sump.
c. After approximately 15 minutes once the engine has stopped.*
d. When the oil has reached a specific temperature.
1473. The most efficient method for cooling a piston engine is to use_____________. However, the most
common method of cooling is to use_________ because of the _________ involved.
a. air cooling liquid cooling reduced costs
b. liquid cooling air cooling reduced costs*
c. fuel cooled air cooling reduced costs
d. liquid cooling fuel cooling reduced costs
1474. At take off Cowl flaps should be selected:

a. Fully closed to decrease drag.
b. Open*
c. Partially closed
d. Fully closed to increase drag.
1475. A typical piston engine has a maximum thermal efficiency of:

a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 30%*
1476. In a four cylinder in line engine air cooled, (No 1, 2, 3, 4 from the front) the coolest cylinder while running
will be:
a. 1*
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
1477. The device utilised to measure temperature on a piston engine is:

a. Thermometer.
b. Barometer.
c. Thermocouple.*
d. Thermostat.
1478. The temperature measuring device fitted in a four cylinder in line engine, (No 1, 2, 3, 4 from the front),
would normally be fitted to which cylinder:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4*
1479. The spark appears at the plug electrodes when:

a. The contact breaker closes.
b. The contact breaker opens.*
c. The contact breaker stays open.
d. The magneto switch is made.
1480. The ignition switch is fitted in:

a. The primary coil circuit.*
b. The secondary coil circuit.
c. The engine starter motor circuit.
d. The battery circuit.
1481. When the ignition switch is placed in the ‘ON’ position it:
a. Isolates the breaker points.
b. Makes the engine starter motor circuit.
c. ‘Earths’ or ‘grounds’ the secondary winding.
d. Breaks the primary to earth circuit.*
1482. The purpose of a condenser as fitted in a magneto is:

a. To assist in the rapid collapse of the primary current and prevent arcing at the contact breaker points.*
b. To prevent the rapid collapse of the primary circuit and arcing at the points.
c. To reduce the high tension voltage of the secondary circuit.
d. To earth the primary circuit.
1483. The engine is checked for dead cut at:

a. A power check.
b. Slow running.*
c. Cruising RPM.
d. Full throttle.
1484. The distributor directs:

a. Voltage from the primary winding to the spark plug.
b. Voltage from the secondary winding to the primary winding.
c. Voltage from the magneto secondary winding to the spark plug.*
d. Voltage from the secondary winding to the contact breaker.
1485. To obtain a spark across the gap between two electrodes:

a. The circuit must have high EMF.*
b. The circuit must have high ohms.
c. The circuit must have high current flow.
d. The circuit must have an impulse union.
1486. The purpose of an ignition switch is:

a. To control the primary circuit of the magneto.*
b. To prevent condensation.
c. To connect the secondary coil to the distributor.
d. To connect the battery to the magneto.
1487. In a complex engine as RPM increases the ignition timing may be:
a. Advanced.*
b. Retarded.
c. Not altered.
d. Only retarded.
1488. An impulse starter is a device to assist in starting an engine which uses:

a. A leaf spring.
b. A coil spring to increase temporarily the speed of rotation of the magneto.*
c. A special starting battery which provides a sudden impulse of electricity to the plugs.
d. An explosive inserted in a special tube.
1489. Weakening the mixture below the best fuel/air ratio will cause the engine power to:
a. Decrease.*
b. Increase initially, but decrease below take off power.
c. Increase.
d. Be unaffected by altitude increase.
1490. For maximum endurance the mixture control should be set to:
a. Weak.*
b. The chemically correct state.
c. Between rich and weak.
d. Rich.
1491. An air/fuel ratio of 9:1 would be considered:

a. Chemically correct.
b. Extravagant.
c. Rich.*
d. Weak.
1492. Because of the reduction in the density of the atmosphere associated with an increase in altitude:
a. The mixture control must be moved towards the weak position.*
b. The throttle must close progressively to maintain the best air/fuel ratio.
c. The mixture must be progressively richened to compensate for the power loss.
d. The octane rating of the fuel must be increased.
1493. A chemically correct mixture is:

a. 15:1 (fuel : air)
b. 15:1 (air : fuel)*
c. 13:1 (fuel : air )
d. 13:1 (air : fuel)
1494. While weakening the mixture from the chemically correct mixture the EGT will ______ and the cylinder
head temperature will __________ with a ________ in Thermal efficiency.
a. Increase increase decrease
b. Decrease increase decrease*
c. Decrease increase increase
d. Increase increase increase
1495. Which of the following mixtures theoretically would produce the maximum RPM?
a. 14:1 (air : fuel)
b. 14:1 (fuel : air)
c. 15:1 (fuel : air)
d. 15:1 (air : fuel)*
1496. A weak mixture is used for which of the following?
a. take off
b. climbing
c. engine starting
d. cruising*
1497. While using a weak mixture which of the following would be an incorrect statement?
a. The charge would be cooled due to a larger proportion of Nitrogen in the cylinder.
b. The charge would burn slower due to a larger proportion of Nitrogen in the cylinder.
c. The ignition may have to be advanced.
d. The ignition may have to be retarded.*
1498. While using a rich mixture which of the following would be a correct statement?
a. The charge would burn slower.
b. All of the fuel would be used during combustion.
c. All of the oxygen would be used during combustion.*
d. Cylinder head temperature increases while richening further.
1499. The pressure in the induction manifold of a normally aspirated engine:

a. Remains constant as the throttle is opened.
b. Decreases as the throttle is opened.
c. Initially increases as the throttle is opened but decreases after approximately the half open position.
d. Increases as the throttle is opened.*
1500. The purpose of an accelerator pump is to:

a. Assist in the atomisation of the fuel before it leaves the discharge nozzle.
b. Prevent a rich cut when the throttle lever is advanced rapidly.
c. Prevent dissociation and detonation.
d. Prevent a weak cut when the throttle lever is advanced rapidly.*
1501. The fuel flow to a piston engine will vary according to:
a. The R.P.M. and the throttle position only.
b. The R.P.M., the throttle position and the mixture setting.*
c. The R.P.M. and the mixture setting only.
d. The R.P.M. only.
1502. The primary function of a diffuser in a carburettor is to:

a. Control the mixture strength over part of the engine speed range.*
b. Vent air from the float chamber.
c. Emulsify the fuel during engine acceleration.
d. Enable adjustment of the engine slow running speed.
1503. The Venturi in the carburettor choke tube creates:

a. A positive pressure over the discharge nozzle.
b. A depression over the fuel discharge nozzle.*
c. A positive pressure at the throttle valve.
d. A decrease in the velocity of the air entering the engine.
1504. The fuel priming pump supplies fuel directly to:

a. The throttle butterfly valve.
b. The exhaust manifold.
c. The induction manifold.*
d. The inside of the combustion chamber in the region of the spark plug.
1505. A weak mixture would be indicated by:

a. A drop in engine speed.*
b. White smoke in the exhaust manifold.
c. Detonation and black smoke from the exhaust.
d. An increase in engine speed with black smoke from the exhaust.
1506. The presence of an engine driven fuel pump on an engine fitted with a carburettor:
a. Dispenses with the need for a carburettor float chamber.
b. Ensures a positive flow of fuel to the discharge nozzles.
c. Ensures a positive flow of fuel to the carburettor float chamber.*
d. Dispenses with the need for a fuel priming system.
1507. It would normally be considered dangerous to pump the throttle lever when starting an engine because:
a. It could increase the risk of fire in the carburettor air intake.*
b. It would prevent the engine starting.
c. The engine would start too rapidly.
d. It would richen the mixture to the point where spontaneous combustion would occur in the combustion
chamber.
1508. A typical air/fuel ratio for normal engine operation would be:
a. 15 parts of air to one of fuel by weight.
b. 20 parts of air to one of fuel by volume.
c. 15 parts of air to one of fuel by volume.
d. 12 parts of air to one of fuel by weight.*
1509. Excessive cylinder head temperatures are caused by:

a. The prolonged use of weak mixtures.*
b. The ignition timing being too far advanced.
c. The prolonged use of rich mixtures.
d. The ignition being too far retarded.
1510. The mixture supplied by the carburettor to the engine is said to be weak when:
a. The proportion of air in the mixture is insufficient to allow full combustion of the fuel.
b. The proportion of air in the mixture is greater than that needed for full combustion of the fuel.*
c. A grade of fuel lower than that specified for the engine is used.
d. There is insufficient power in the engine for take off.
1511. In an attempt to maintain the correct air/fuel ratio while climbing into the decreased density air of higher
altitude:
a. The valve timing can be changed.
b. An accelerator pump can be fitted.
c. A mixture control is used.*
d. A diffuser is fitted.
1512. The greater the weight of combustible mixture in the cylinders:

a. The weaker is the mixture.
b. The more the power decreases.
c. The lower the cylinder head temperature will be.
d. The greater the power developed by the engine.*
1513. A rich mixture is supplied to the cylinders at take off and climb:
a. To give greater thermal efficiency.
b. To cool the charge temperature and prevent detonation.*
c. To increase the volumetric efficiency.
d. To give excess power.
1514. A fuel stainer should be fitted:
a. In the inlet manifold.
b. At the air intake.
c. Before the main jet.*
d. After the main jet.
1515. The correct air/fuel ratio for an engine running at idle is:
a. Weak.
b. Chemically correct.
c. 16:1
d. Rich.*
1516. The method of priming an engine not fitted with a priming pump is to:
a. Activate the mixture control lever several times.
b. Turn the engine over several times on the starter motor before selecting the ignition on.
c. Pump the throttle several times.*
d. Position the throttle lever midway between open and close.
1517. A possible cause of the engine backfiring could be:

a. An exhaust valve sticking open.*
b. A broken push rod.
c. A blocked float chamber.
d. A sticking inlet valve.
1518. An overly rich mixture at slow running could be caused by:

a. The priming pump being left open.*
b. Low fuel pressure.
c. The float chamber level being too low.
d. A partially blocked main jet.
1519. The engine driven fuel pump supplies:

a. The exact amount of fuel required for all running conditions.
b. More fuel than is required by the engine; the excess fuel is recycled.*
c. The exact amount of fuel required for all running and starting conditions.
d. More fuel than is required by the engine, the excess being used as priming fuel.
1520. When an engine is fitted with a fuel injection system:

a. It does not require priming.
b. A separate priming system must be fitted.
c. A separate priming system is not required.*
d. Priming fuel originates from the excess supplied from the engine driven pump.
1521. The mixture control on an engine fitted with fuel injection is:
a. Automatic.
b. Operated by a pneumatic plunger system.
c. Hydro-pneumatically operated.
d. Necessary.*
1522. In the intake of a fuel injected engine:

a. There will be a throttle valve but no Venturi.*
b. Neither a throttle valve nor a Venturi is required.
c. There will be a Venturi but no throttle valve.
d. Both a throttle valve and a Venturi are required.
1523. The discharge nozzle injects fuel:

a. Continuously into the inlet manifold as close to the inlet valve as possible.*
b. Into the inlet manifold when the inlet valve opens.
c. Into the combustion chamber during the compression stroke.
d. Continuously into the combustion chamber during the induction stroke.
1524. The Fuel Control Unit meters fuel to the discharge nozzles in proportion to:
a. The position of the throttle valve only.
b. The position of the mixture control lever only.
c. The positions of both the throttle lever and the mixture control lever.*
d. The number of strokes applied to the priming pump.
1525. The discharge nozzles of a fuel injected engine are matched to:
a. Supply exactly the same amounts of fuel as each other.
b. The type of engine they are fitted to.
c. The octane rating of the fuel supply.
d. The engine they are fitted to and to the nozzles on the other cylinders.*
1526. A fuel injected engine can be primed by:

a. A manual priming pump which delivers fuel to the discharge nozzles.
b. An electric fuel pump delivering fuel to the discharge nozzles.*
c. The excess fuel delivered by the engine driven fuel pump.
d. Pumping the throttle lever while turning the engine over on the starter motor.
1527. The Fuel Manifold Valve:

a. Meters the amount of fuel delivered to the engine in proportion to the amount of air being delivered to the
engine.
b. Distributes fuel to each cylinder in the correct firing order.
c. Distributes fuel continuously to all of the cylinders continuously.*
d. Is kept entirely separate from the priming system.
1528. An engine which is fitted with fuel injection:

a. Will never encounter hydraulicing.
b. Will not suffer from refrigeration icing.*
c. Cannot be started by swinging the propeller.
d. Does not require priming.
1529. The Manifold Pressure Gauge fitted to a supercharged engine measures:

a. The absolute pressure in the induction manifold.*
b. The differential pressure across the supercharger compressor.
c. The ratio between the atmospheric pressure and the cam rise at the supercharger inlet.
d. The pressure upstream of the throttle valve.
1530. An Automatic Boost Control Unit:

a. Prevents detonation and dissociation in the cylinder.
b. Maintains an automatic preset boost pressure.*
c. Maintains the correct mixture strength for the boost pressure set.
d. Sets the posiion of the waste gate to ensure the preset boost is maintained.
1531. The use of a turbo-charger on an engine will:

a. Improve the exhaust scavenging efficiency.
b. Raise the volumetric efficiency of the engine.*
c. Cause an automatic rise in the engine R.P.M. as altitude is gained.
d. Cause an automatic rise in engine power as altitude is gained.
1532. The motive force used to drive the turbo-charger is:

a. Torque from the crankshaft via a spring drive unit.
b. Torque from the accessory gearbox.
c. Energy from the exhaust that would otherwise have been wasted.*
d. Energy from the reduction gearbox.
1533. The power increase that occurs with initial increase in altitude when an engine has an internal supercharger
fitted, is due to:
a. The reduced weight of mixture being passed to the engine.
b. The decreasing density of the atmosphere.
c. The reducing exhausts back pressure.*
d. The increasing charge temperature.
1534. Rated Altitude is:

a. The height at which the boost pressure ceases to be effective with a specific R.P.M. set.
b. A comparison between the boost pressure at sea level and that at a given altitude.
c. The maximum altitude at which Rated Boost can be maintained with a specific R.P.M. set.*
d. The altitude at which the waste gate becomes fully shut.
1535. The speed of the turbine of a turbo-charger is controlled by:

a. The diversion of exhaust gases.*
b. Controlling the exit of the exhaust gas passing out of the eye of the impeller.
c. The use of a variable controller.
d. An automatic gearbox positioned between the turbine and the impeller.
1536. The turbo-charger waste gate is spring loaded towards:

a. The open position.*
b. The closed position.
c. A neutrally balanced partly open position.
d. The maximum boost position.
1537. The turbo-charger bearing is lubricated and cooled by:

a. Its own internal self contained oil system.
b. The engine oil.*
c. A total loss system.
d. A tapping in the scavenge oil system.
1538. Static Boost is:

a. Always the I.S.A. atmospheric pressure for the airfield altitude.
b. Obtained by opening the throttle to give a boost gauge reading of 30”He or 0 psi.
c. The boost pressure gauge reading when the engine is not running.Selecting a suitable throttle position will give
the same boost gauge reading when the engine is running.*
d. The difference between the induction manifold pressure and the exhaust manifold pressure.
1539. The automatic boost pressure control capsules are made sensitive to:
a. Atmospheric pressure.
b. Carburettor inlet pressure.
c. Boost pressure.*
d. Cabin pressure differential.
1540. In order to maintain a constant boost pressure with increasing altitude, the A.B.C.:
a. Holds the throttle valve at a constant position.
b. Progressively opens the throttle valve.*
c. Progressively closes the waste gate.
d. Progressively closes the throttle valve.
1541. “Boost pressure” is the:
a. Inlet manifold pressure in pounds per square inch above or below standard mean sea level pressure.*
b. Absolute pressure in the inlet manifold measured in inches of mercury.
c. Absolute pressure in the inlet manifold measured in millibars.
d. Inlet manifold pressure in pounds per square inch above or below atmospheric pressure.
1542. “Full Throttle Height” is:

a. The height at which the engine is at Rated Boost.
b. The maximum height at which a specified boost can be maintained at a specified R.P.M.*
c. The height at which the waste gate is fully closed.
d. The cruising height for any specific boost.
1543. The purpose of an intercooler is:

a. To minimise the risk of detonation.*
b. To increase the volume of the charge.
c. To decrease the density of the charge.
d. To prevent overheating of the exhaust manifold.
1544. The function of a diffuser in a supercharger is:

a. To decrease the temperature and increase the velocity of the charge.
b. To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the charge.
c. To decrease the velocity and decrease the pressure of the charge.
d. To decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the charge.*
1545. Air enters the compressor of a turbo-supercharger:

a. At the tip and passes across the impeller blades to exit at the eye.
b. At the diffuser and exits at the impeller.
c. At the eye and passes across the diffuser blades before exiting at the impeller tip.
d. At the eye and passes across the impeller blades to exit at the tip.*
1546. The waste gate of a turbo-supercharger is fitted:

a. In the turbine by-pass.*
b. In the inlet manifold.
c. To maximise exhaust back pressure.
d. In series with the turbine.
1547. The waste gate is operated by:

a. The automatic boost control unit.
b. The waste gate actuator.*
c. Inlet manifold pressure.
d. Exhaust gas temperature.
1548. With a turbo-charger installed on the engine, its exhaust back pressure:
a. Remains the same.
b. Is decreased.
c. Is increased.*
d. Decreases in the climb.
1549. A high performance supercharger may require an intercooler to be placed:

a. Between the supercharger and the inlet valve.*
b. At the carburettor intake.
c. Between each cylinder.
d. Between the engine block and the exhaust manifold.
1550. With an increase of compressor discharge pressure the fuel flow will:
a. Increase.*
b. Remain constant.
c. Decrease.
d. Increase, but only in proportion to altitude increase.
1551. A turbo-charger’s rotational speed is determined by:

a. The diversion of exhaust gas.*
b. The position of the throttle valve.
c. The density of the air at the compressor intake.
d. Bleeding off excess exhaust pressure.
1552. During take-off from a sea level airfield with I.S.A. conditions, the position of the waste gate of a turbo-
charged engine is:
a. Fully open.
b. Almost fully open.*
c. Controlled by the throttle position.
d. Fully closed.
1553. Maximum Continuous Power (M.C.P.) is:

a. Unrestricted, but only if economical cruising power is set.
b. The maximum power the engine will give at any time.
c. Given a 5 minute limitation.
d. Unrestricted.*
1554. The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:

a. Raise the temperature of the charge entering the cylinder.
b. Increase the mass of the charge entering the cylinder.*
c. Improve the engine’s exhaust scavenging capability, and hence increase its power output.
d. Allow the use of high octane fuel.
1555. The type of fuel used in a turbo-charged engine would be:

a. AVTUR.
b. AVGAS.*
c. AVTAG.
d. AVPIN.
1556. At an idle or low power condition, the turbo-charger waste gate is normally:
a. Partially open.
b. Fully open.
c. Closed.*
d. Half open.
1557. When the air or the mixture passes through the diffuser shroud, the energy conversion is from:
a. Kinetic to pressure.*
b. Heat to potential.
c. Mechanical to heat.
d. Potential to kinetic.
1558. The construction of a turbo-charger ensures that the turbine and the compressor:
a. Are on the same shaft.*
b. Are on different shafts.
c. Are connected by mechanical gearing.
d. Are controlled by the A.B.C.
1559. The waste gate fitted to a turbo-charger regulates the quantity of:
a. The mixture that enters the induction manifold.
b. The atmosphere that can enter the compressor.
c. The exhaust gas that will by-pass the turbine.*
d. The exhaust gas that leaves the compressor.
1560. The main function of a supercharger is to:

a. Increase the thermal efficiency of the engine.
b. Increase the compression ratio of the engine.
c. Maintain sea level pressure in the engine to above rated altitude.
d. Increase the volumetric efficiency of the engine.*
1561. The response of a turbo-charged engine to rapid throttle opening, when compared to a normally aspirated
engine:
a. Is initially better, but exhaust back pressure will cause a flat spot.
b. Is always better.
c. Is worse.*
d. Is identical.
1562. With a constant manifold pressure set during the climb, the power output from a supercharged engine:
a. Decreases.
b. Increases.*
c. Remains constant.
d. Is unaffected by altitude change.
1563. An internal supercharger is one which:

a. Is driven by exhaust gases.
b. Compresses the air.
c. Compresses the exhaust gases.
d. Compresses the mixture.*
1564. If the waste gate of a turbo-charged engine seizes in the climb before critical altitude has been reached:
a. Engine power will be automatically adjusted by the A.B.C.
b. Engine power will rise by approximately 10%.
c. Reducing back pressure will compensate for any loss in power.
d. Engine power will fall as the climb continues.*
1565. To prevent large acceleration loads on the compressor and the drive shaft of an internal supercharger, it is
usual to:
a. Prohibit “slam” acceleration.
b. Incorporate a spring drive mechanism in the driving gears.*
c. Rely on the inertia absorbing qualities of the exhaust gases.
d. Use a Vernier drive coupling.
1566. The rotational speed of the turbo-charger of an engine which is at full throttle at low altitude is:
a. Between minimum and maximum.*
b. Maximum.
c. Controlled by the A.B.C.
d. Minimum.
1567. Maintaining a constant manifold pressure in a turbo-charged engine during the climb will cause:
a. The exhaust gas temperature to decrease due to a decrease in exhaust back pressure.
b. The waste gate to open.
c. The waste gate to progressively close.*
d. The diffuser rotational speed to increase.
1568. Over boosting an engine fitted with a turbo-charger is prevented by the installation of:
a. An automatic boost control unit.
b. A manifold pressure gauge.*
c. A waste gate pressure controller
d. A suck in flap.
1569. A turbo-charger which is designed to maintain sea level pressure at altitude is termed:
a. An altitude-boosted turbo-charger.*
b. A turbo-supercharger.
c. An internal supercharger.
d. A ground boosted turbo-charger.
1570. With the power lever opened for take-off power at sea level, the throttle butterfly of an engine fitted with
an internal supercharger would be:
a. Fully open.
b. In a choked position.*
c. Partially open.
d. Fully closed.
1571. “Static Boost” is the manifold pressure indicated on the boost pressure gauge when:
a. The engine is stopped.*
b. The engine is running at the manufacturer’s recommended idle speed.
c. The engine is running at its rated power.
d. The manifold gauge needle is opposite the lubber line.
1572. The limit of the amount of supercharging that an engine can tolerate is reached when:
a. Maximum R.P.M. is reached.
b. The engine is at its rated altitude.
c. Maximum boost pressure is obtained.*
d. The engine starts to suffer from detonation.
1573. The rotational speed of a turbo-charger is dependant upon:

a. Engine R.P.M. and waste gate position.*
b. Engine R.P.M. only.
c. Throttle position only.
d. Propeller pitch and altitude.
1574. The inlet manifold pressure of a turbo-charged engine in an aircraft which is climbing will:
a. Increase to full throttle height and then fall.
b. Increase to critical height and then remain constant.
c. Remain constant to critical altitude and then fall.*
d. Decrease to critical altitude and then remain constant.
1575. The type of compressor normally used in a supercharger is:

a. An axial compressor.
b. A Rootes compressor.
c. A centrifugal compressor.*
d. A reciprocating thrunge compressor.
1576. The compressor output pressure of an internal supercharger is:

a. The same as manifold pressure.*
b. Greater than the manifold pressure.
c. Sometimes greater, sometimes less than the manifold pressure.
d. Less than the manifold pressure.
1577. The position of the waste gate in a turbo-charged engine is:
a. In the inlet manifold.
b. Downstream of the turbine.
c. In parallel with the turbine.*
d. In parallel with the compressor.
1578. The maximum engine Brake Horse Power with a specified R.P.M. and manifold pressure set which permits
continuous safe operation is termed:
a. Maximum Power.
b. Take Off Power.
c. Critical Power.
d. Rated Power.*
1579. The compressor output of a turbo-charger unit is:

a. The same as the manifold pressure.
b. Greater than the manifold pressure.*
c. Sometimes greater, sometimes less than the manifold pressure.
d. Less than manifold pressure.
1580. Within the compressor of a turbo-charger:

a. The pressure increases and the temperature decreases.
b. Both the pressure and the temperature increase.*
c. Both the pressure and the temperature decrease.
d. The pressure increases and the temperature remains constant.
1581. The type of compressor normally fitted to turbo-chargers and superchargers would compress the air:
a. Axially.
b. Co-axially.
c. In the diffuser only.
d. Centrifugally.*
1582. If the waste gate of a turbo-charged engine seizes during the climb, the manifold pressure will:
a. Remain constant.
b. Decrease.*
c. Increase.
d. Initially increase and then decrease.
1583. To maintain the Rated Boost of a supercharged engine while reducing the R.P.M.:
a. The throttle valve must be opened.*
b. The waste gate must be closed.
c. The waste gate must be opened.
d. The throttle valve must be closed.
1584. The effect of selecting Rated Boost, but less than Rated R.P.M. on the climb, would be that:
a. The Rated Altitude would be lower.
b. The Full Throttle Height would be less.*
c. The Rated Altitude would be higher.
d. The Full Throttle Height would be higher.
1585. The Automatic Boost Control Unit operates:

a. The Boost Control Lever.
b. The waste gate.
c. The throttle butterfly.*
d. The R.P.M. gauge and the manifold pressure gauge.
1586. Boost pressure is indicated on:
a. The cylinder head temperature gauge.
b. The manifold pressure gauge.*
c. The fuel pressure gauge.
d. The R.P.M. gauge and the manifold pressure gauge.
1587. With an increase of compressor discharge pressure, the fuel flow will:
a. Decrease.
b. Remain constant.
c. Initially increase, but subsequently decrease.
d. Increase.*
1588. Superchargers are used to overcome:

a. The decrease in density due to the increase in altitude.*
b. The increase in temperature due to the increase in altitude.
c. The fuel density variation that occurs with an increase in altitude.
d. The exhaust back pressure.
1589. The boost pressure of a turbo-charged engine is controlled by:

a. Adjusting the throttle position.*
b. Varying the speed of the turbo-charger.
c. The A.B.C.
d. Changing engine R.P.M.
1590. In a supercharger, the mixture:

a. Enters through the eye of the impeller and leaves at the periphery.*
b. Enters at the periphery and leaves through the eye.
c. Enters through the turbine and leaves through the compressor.
d. Enters through the compressor and leaves through the turbine.
1591. What is the preferred direction for aircraft parking prior to start-up?
a. Tail into wind.
b. Nose into wind.*
c. 1st engine to be started on windward side.
d. Facing towards the duty runway threshold to enable easy taxi-out.
1592. Prior to starting a piston aero engine (in line inverted) and after ensuring that the ignition is “OFF”, which
check may have to be carried out?
a. Check that the pilot’s flying licence is still in-date.
b. No further checks are necessary.
c. Obtain start-up permission from the Tower.
d. Carry out a check for engine hydraulicing.*
1593. When an engine starts up and the starter key is released, to what position does the key return?
a. “OFF”.
b. “ON”.
c. “BOOSTER”.
d. “BOTH”.*
1594. Immediately an engine has started up, what is the first instrument reading to be checked?
a. Oil pressure.*
b. Battery volts.
c. Gyro erection.
d. Vacuum.
1595. What would be the likely effect of prolonged running with a weak mixture?
a. Overheating.*
b. Failure to come up to correct running temperature.
c. Carburettor icing.
d. High oil pressure.
1596. Should over-priming cause a fire to start in the engine’s carburettor during starting, what is the best
immediate action?
a. Evacuate the aircraft and make a “flash” call to the airport fire services.
b. Shut down the engine. The fire will extinguish itself.
c. Keep the engine turning on the starter motor and select “idle cut-off”. The fire should be drawn through the
engine.*
d. Select weak mixture on the mixture control and rapidly increase RPM.
1597. When is the “Reference RPM” of an engine established?

a. Before the first flight of the day.
b. During engine warm-up.
c. By the engine’s manufacturer during “Type Testing”.
d. When the engine is first installed in an aircraft.*
1598. When is “Static Boost” noted?

a. Before engine start.*
b. Just after engine start, while warming up.
c. It is permanently marked on the boost gauge.
d. It must be calculated from the airfield QNH.
1599. At what RPM is a Magneto “dead cut” check carried out?

a. At ground warm-up RPM.*
b. At Reference RPM.
c. At Take-off RPM.
d. During the “Mag. drop” check.
1600. If, during a “Mag. drop” check the engine cuts, what action must be taken?
a. Immediately switch to “Both” and recheck.
b. Select the other magneto, increase RPM to burn off the plug fouling and recheck.
c. The engine must be stopped.*
d. Decrease RPM to idle for no more than 1 minute. Reselect reference RPM and recheck.
1601. If, during a “Mag. drop” check there is no drop in RPM, what is the most likely cause?
a. A really good ignition system.
b. One of the switches being seized in the open circuit position.*
c. One of the switches being seized in the closed circuit position.
d. The plug leads from that magneto have not been connected.
1602. What are the main reasons to exercise a propeller from fine to coarse pitch after warm-up?
a. In order that a pilot may practise propeller control technique before take-off.
b. To pre-set the feathering signal before take-off, in case of an emergency.
c. To check that a full range of control is available at take-off boost.
d. To replace the cold oil in the pitch change mechanism and check RPM control.*
1603. At what mixture and carb. heat setting is a take-off normally carried out?
a. Fully weak and carb. heat fully off.
b. Fully rich and carb. heat fully on.
c. Fully rich and carb. heat fully off.*
d. Fully weak and carb. heat fully off.
1604. Why, when climbing, is the engine temperature monitored carefully?
a. A low temperature will be the only sign that pre-ignition is occurring.
b. Decreasing air density will reduce the engine cooling system’s efficiency.
c. A low engine temperature can give rise to poor atomisation of fuel, and thus adversely affect Specific Fuel
Consumption.
d. Use of high power at relatively low speed can allow engine temperature to creep up.*
1605. When cruising in a fixed-pitch propeller equipped aircraft, what, from the list below, would be the
symptoms of carburettor icing?
1. Increase in manifold temperature.
2. Decrease in RPM.
3. Loss of airspeed.
4. Increase in engine temperature.
5. Loss of altitude.
6. Loss of oil temperature.
7. Increase in RPM.
Choose from the following:
a. (2), (3) and (5)*
b. (1), (2) and (7)
c. (4), (5), (6) and (7)
d. (3), (4), (5) and (7)
1606. What is the main danger from using a weak mixture at a high power setting?
a. Low cylinder head temperature.
b. Low fuel pressure.
c. Pre-ignition.
d. Detonation.*
1607. What are the most likely effects on an engine of a low power, high speed descent?
a. Engine over-speeding and consequent damage.
b. Engine overcooling and carburettor icing.*
c. Engine overheating and oil cooler coring.
d. High oil temperature and piston ring gumming up.
1608. What problem is prevented by the use of the correct running down procedure?
a. Spark plug fouling.*
b. Oil cooler coring.
c. Very high rate of piston ring wear.
d. Over high temperatures on next start-up.
1609. What is the correct way to shut down an engine?

a. Switch off both magnetos together.
b. Switch off the fuel booster pump.
c. Move the mixture control to Idle Cut Off.*
d. Feather the propeller when at idle RPM.
1610. What are the two main symptoms of an excessively rich mixture?
a. Loss of power and a drop in cylinder head temperature.*
b. Gain in power and a drop in cylinder head temperature.
c. Loss of power and a rise in cylinder head temperature.
d. Gain in power and a rise in cylinder head temperature.
1611. The lubrication system of an air cooled piston engine is used to:
a. To operate the fuel control unit.
b. Operate constant speed propellers.
c. Keep the engine warm.
d. Reduce friction and provide cooling.*
1612. The function of the primer pump in a reciprocating engine is to:

a. Provide additional fuel for an engine start.*
b. To serve as main supply in a fuel injection system.
c. Inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.
d. Serve as an alternate pump in case of an engine driven pump failure.
1613. The use of too low octane rating fuel may cause:
a. A cooling effect on cylinders.
b. Detonation.*
c. Vapour locking.
d. Higher manifold pressure.
1614. The most common material used in the construction of gearbox casings is:
a. Steel alloy.
b. Titanium alloy.
c. Magnesium alloy.*
d. Aluminium alloy.
1615. The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal limits if:
a. The engine is operated at too rich a mixture.
b. The engine is operated at higher than normal oil pressure.
c. A higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
d. A lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used.*
1616. The first indication of carburettor icing, in aeroplanes equipped with constant speed propellers, during
cruise would be a:
a. Decrease in manifold pressure.*
b. Rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure.
c. Decrease in rpm.
d. Rough running engine followed by drop in rpm.
1617. Vents in oil tanks are primarily to:

a. Prevent excessive pressure from building up in the tank.*
b. Eliminate foaming.
c. Allow expansion of the oil.
d. Prevent overflow.
1618. The ignition system generally used for small aircraft is:
a. High intensity system.
b. Battery ignition system.
c. High tension system.*
b. Low tension system.
1619. Excessive priming of a piston engine should be avoided because:

1. It drains the carburettor float chamber.
2. It increases the risk of an engine fire.
3. It risks flooding the engine.
4. It risks fouling the spark plugs.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 2,3,4.*
c. 1,3,4.
d. 1,2,4.
1620. In very cold weather, a slightly higher than normal engine oil pressure during start up:
a. Is unacceptable and requires the engine to be shut down immediately.
b. Is acceptable if it decreases after start up.*
c. Requires an oil change.
d. Is unacceptable but does not require the engine to be shut down.
1621. When excessively leaning the mixture for better fuel economy, but still on the rich side of peak EGT, the
following engine parameters may exceed their normal operating limits.
a. Cylinder head and exhaust gas temperatures.*
b. Oil temperature.
c. Manifold pressure.
d. Engine RPM.
1622. The ignition system of a running piston engine receives electrical energy from:
a. Rotating permanent magnets.*
b. Batteries.
c. Capacitors.
d. Generators.
1623. The lubrication system of an aircraft engine is used to:

a. Aid in the dissipation of heat.*
b. Keep the engine warm.
c. Operate the ground adjustable propeller.
d. Prevent inter-crystalline corrosion.
1624. Viscosity is:

a. The temperature dependence of an oil.
b. The pressure resistance of an oil.
c. The tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow.*
d. The flow velocity inside the oil lines.
1625. Which of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring
within a piston engine?
a. Using an engine with a low compression ratio.
b. Using too lean a fuel/air mixture.*
c. Slightly retarding the ignition timing.
d. The use of fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating.
1626. The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is about:

a. 0.7
b. 0.8
c. 0.3*
d. 0.5
1627. On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum compression ratio of
a piston engine is:
a. The higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is.
b. The maximum compression ratio is independent of fuel octane rating.
c. The lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is.
d. The higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is.*
1628. A magnetic plug in an engine oil system can be used to:

a. Collect carbon particles.
b. Prevent metallic particle from entering the engine.
c. Collect static electricity.
d. Collect ferrous particles.*
1629. The application of carburettor heat reduces the:

a. Density of the air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture.*
b. Density of the air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture.
c. Volume of the air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture.
d. Volume of the air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture.
1630. On a normally aspirated piston engine, the manifold air pressure gauge always indicates:
a. A lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine running.*
b. A greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine running.
c. Zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
d. A value equal to atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground.
1631. In a four-stroke engine the only driving stroke is the:

a. Power.*
b. Induction.
c. Compression.
d. Exhaust.
1632. The operating principle of magnetos in a piston engine ignition system consists of:
a. Creating a brief, very high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate
time.
b. Obtaining a high amperage, low voltage current to create a spark.
c. Accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high voltage current at
the moment the spark is generated.
d. Breaking the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is distributed to the
spark plugs.*
1633. To maintain the correct air/fuel mixture ratio in a piston engine, independent of power setting, a
carburettor is fitted with:
a. A power jet.
b. An accelerator pump.
c. A mixture control.
d. A diffuser (compensating jet).*
1634. The octane rating of a fuel characterises its:

a. Resistance to detonation.*
b. Volatility.
c. Electrical conductivity.
d. Energy content.
1635. The mixture control for a carburettor achieves control by:

a. Varying the supply of air to the main discharge tube.
b. Altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
c. Varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.*
d. Moves the butterfly valve through a separate control linkage to the main throttle control.
1636. If an engine detonates during a climb, the normal corrective action would be to:
a. Lean the mixture.
b. Apply carburettor heat.
c. Retard the throttle.*
d. Increase the rate of climb.
1637. A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in:
a. Lower cylinder head temperature.*
b. Increased power.
c. Higher torque.
d. Higher efficiency.
1638. Once the engine has started, the ignition systems of piston engines are:
a. Independent of the aircraft electrical system.*
b. Dependent on an AC generator.
c. Dependent on a DC generator.
d. Dependent on the battery.
1639. A pressure relief valve that does not seat correctly in an oil system could result in:
a. High oil pressure.
b. Low oil temperature.
c. Excessive oil consumption.
d. Low oil pressure.*
1640. Assuming an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if
the altitude is decreased while throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise position:
a. The power of the engine will decrease.
b. The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.*
c. The blade angle may reach the fully fine limit.
d. The manifold absolute pressure will remain constant.
1641. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the application of carburetor heat?
a. The density of the incoming air will decrease, thus leaning the mixture.
b. The volume of the incoming air will decrease, thus leaning the mixture.
c. The density of the incoming air will decrease, thus enriching the mixture.
d. The volume of the incoming air will increase, thus leaning the mixture.
a. High cylinder head temperatures.*
b. Slightly retarded ignition timing.
c. Using a low compression ratio engine.
d. The use of fuel with a high octane rating as compared to one with a low octane rating.
1643. When starting the engine, or when running the engine at idle rpm on the ground, the mixture is:
a. Rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling.*
b. Rich, because the carburettor heat is switched on.
c. Weak, to prevent the engine from consuming too much fuel.
d. Rich, because the choke tube is closed.
1644. When leaning the mixture for the most economical cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will, cause:
a. High cylinder head temperature.*
b. High manifold pressure (MAP).
c. Low cylinder head temperature.
d. High RPM.
1645. The relationship between the compression ratio of an engine and the octane of the fuel required to run it
is:
a. The higher the compression ratio, the lower will be the required octane rating
b. The lower the compression ratio, the higher will be the required octane rating
c. Required octane rating is not related to compression ratio in any way.
d. The higher the compression ratio, the higher will be the required octane rating*
1646. What may happen during a continuous climb with the mixture set to fully rich?
a. The engine will overheat.
b. Increase in power available.
c. The engine will operate more smoothly even though fuel consumption is increased.
d. Fouling of the spark plugs.*
1647. When detonation is recognised in a piston engine, the correct procedure is to:
a. Reduce manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.*
b. Reduce manifold pressure and fully lean the mixture.
c. Increase manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.
d. Increase manifold pressure and fully lean the mixture.
a. The use of fuel with a high octane rating as compared to one with a low octane rating.
b. High MAP combined with low RPM.*
c. Slightly retarded ignition timing.
d. Using a low compression ratio engine.
1649. An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:

a. Absorb starting loads.
b. Facilitate quick removal and installation.
c. Provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.*
d. Advance ignition timing.
1650. The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal limits if:
a. The engine is operated at too rich a mixture.
b. The engine is operated at higher than normal oil pressure.
c. A higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
d. A lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used.*
1651. Diesel engine always produce a certain amount of soot because:

a. The fuel droplets coming out of the atomisers do not burn completely.*
b. The intake air is too cold.
c. The mixture is always too rich.
d. The fuel droplets are too small.
1652. Given the following statements about diesel engines:

1. Power is regulated by the throttle valve.
2. There is no throttle valve.
3. Power is set by fuel flow.
4. Thermal efficiency is lower than that for a petrol engine.
5. Diesel fuel is less inflammable than petrol.
a. 2,3,5.*
b. 1,3,5.
c. 1,2,3.
d. 2,4,5.
1653. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is higher than that of a petrol engine because:
a. The calorific value of the fuel is higher.
b. The compression ratio is much higher.*
c. The air mass flow through the engine is higher.
d. The EGT is higher.
1654. Assuming the same swept volume and no turbo charger, diesel engines compared to petrol engines:
a. Produce more maximum power output.
b. Operate at a higher exhaust gas temperature.
c. Produce less maximum power output.*
d. Show a higher fuel flow at the same power output.
1655. Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine:
a. Is never heated because a diesel engine is an injection engine.*
b. Needs to be heated to prevent ice on the air filter.
c. Needs to be heated at low power settings, due to vaporisation heat.
d. Is never heated because diesel engines operate at very high temperatures.
1656. The power output of a diesel engine without a turbo charger is regulated by:
a. Fuel flow only.*
b. Fuel and airflow.
c. Mixture.
d. Airflow only.
1657. Diesel engines, compared to petrol engines have:

a. The same compression ratio.
b. A variable compression ratio.
c. A higher compression ratio.*
d. A lower compression ratio.
1658. Given the following statements about diesel engines:

1. Power is set by the mixture control.
2. There is no mixture control.
3. The amount of power is determined by the fuel flow only.
4. Thermal efficiency is higher than that for a petrol engine.
5. Diesel fuel is more inflammable than petrol.
a. 2,4,5.
b. 1,2,3.
c. 2,3,4.*
d. 1,3,5.
1659. The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the?

a. Mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
b. Volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
c. Volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.
d. Real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.*
1660. The crank assembly consists of?

a. Propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
b. Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
c. Crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.
d. Crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.*
1661. In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is?

a. Intake.
b. Compression.
c. Exhaust.
d. Firing-expansion.*
1662. On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to
increase the?
a. Compression ratio.
b. Piston displacement.
c. Engine r.p.m.
d. Overall efficiency.*
1663. Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of?

a. A worn oil pump.*
b. Too large oil pump.
c. Restricted oil passage.
d. Too small scavenger pump.
1664. In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by?
a. Pulling the RPM lever backwards.*
b. Pushing the RPM lever forward.
c. Pushing the power lever forward.
d. Pulling the power levers backwards.
1665. An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for?

a. Advancing ignition timing.
b. Quick removal and installation.
c. Absorbing starting loads.
d. Providing a retarded spark for engine starting.*
1666. The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the?
a. Lower losses during the gas change.
b. Lower friction losses.
c. Leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
d. Lower back pressure.*
1667. The conditions which can cause knocking are?

High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
b. Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
c. Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
d. High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.*
1668. During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the?
a. Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.*
b. RPM decreases.
c. Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
d. RPM increases.
1669. An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to?
a. Control the fuel temperature.
b. Assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.*
c. Control the cylinder head temperature.
d. Control the carburettor inlet air flow.
1670. With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch
propeller?
a. RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
b. RPM and MAP indicator.
c. RPM and EGT indicator.
d. RPM indicator.*
1671. One of the advantages of a turbocharger is that?

a. There is no danger of knocking.
b. It uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.*
c. It has a better propulsive efficiency.
d. There is no torsion at the crankshaft.
1672. What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized?
a. The turbine shaft will break.
b. The turbine blades will separate.
c. The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.*
d. The power of the motor will decrease.
1673. During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and constant mixture setting,
the power output of a piston engine?
a. Stays constant.
b. Increases.*
c. Decreases.
d. Only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward.
1674. The global output of a piston engine is of, (global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available
shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced)?
a. 0.50.
b. 0.75.
c. 0.90.
d. 0.30.*
1675. When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved)?
a. Stays constant.
b. Increases.*
c. Reduces.
d. First reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
1676. For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight
ratio of?
a. 1/9
b. 1/10
C. 1/12
d. 1/15
1677. The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are?
a. Cold and dry air at high pressure.*
b. Warm and humid air at low pressure.
C. Cold and humid air at high pressure.
d. Warm and dry air at high pressure.
1678. The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the
decreasing?
a. Temperature.
b. Air density.*
c. Engine temperature.
d. Humidity.
1679. The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the?
a. Propeller blades.
b. Accessory gear box.
c. Camshaft.
d. Gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.*
1680. The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is?
a. Heat loss power.
b. Indicated horse power.
c. Brake horse power.*
d. Friction horse power.
1681. The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by?

a. Torque times RPM.*
b. Work times velocity.
c. Force times distance.
d. Pressure times arm.
1682. The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre)?
a. Before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
b. Behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
c. Behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
d. Before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.*
1683. The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state
change lines?
a. 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
b. 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
c. 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.
d. 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.*
1684. The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is?

a. A hybrid compressor.
b. A piston compressor.
c. A radial compressor.*
d. An axial compressor.
1685. The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the?
a. Contact breaker points closing.
b. Rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
c. Contact breaker points opening.*
d. Distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
1686. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the?

a. Area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
b. Weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
c. Volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre.*
d. Diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
1687. Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the?
a. Oil pump.
b. Fuel filter.
c. Sparking plugs.*
d. Carburettor.
1688. The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to?
a. Ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system.
b. Create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.
c. Create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburetor jets.*
d. Prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
1689. The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute?

a. Primary current to the sparking plugs.
b. Secondary current to the sparking plugs.*
c. Primary current to the condenser.
d. Secondary current to the condenser.
1690. The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the?

a. Pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
b. Pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
c. Pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.*
d. Difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
1691. A turbocharger is normally driven by?

a. An electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
b. The exhaust system.*
a. An electric motor.
b. An hydraulic motor.
1692. A Turbocharger consists of a?

a. Compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
b. Compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
c. Turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.
d. Compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.*
1693. The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by?
a. Moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.
b. Altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
c. Varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.
d. Varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.*
1694. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most
noticeable result will be that the engine?
a. Cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.
b. Cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.*
c. Will not operate at the left magneto.
d. Will not operate at the right magneto.
1695. If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be?
a. Defective condenser.
b. Fouled spark plugs.
c. Excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.*
d. Switch wire grounded.
1696. A condenser in parallel with breaker points will?

a. Permit arcing across points.
b. Assist in negative feedback to secondary coil.
c. Assist in collapse of secondary winding.
d. Intensity current in secondary winding.*
1697. Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the?
a. Faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced.*
b. Slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced.
c. Faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs.
d. Faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
1698. An aircraft magneto is switched off by?

a. Grounding the secondary circuit.
b. Grounding the primary circuit.*
c. Opening the primary circuit.
d. Opening the secondary circuit.
1699. An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging
pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by?
a. Centrifugal force.*
b. Engine oil pressure.
c. A coil spring.
d. Electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
1700. With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor?

a. Will only form at OAT's below +100 C.
b. Will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
c. Will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
d. May form at OAT's higher than +100 C.*
1701. When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause?
a. Low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature.
b. High manifold pressure.
c. High cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature.*
d. High engine rpm.
1702. The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted?
a. Between the oil tank and the pressure pump.
b. After the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine.
c. After the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump.
d. In the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump.*
1703. To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air flowing through the choke,
thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with?
a. A diffuser.*
b. A power jet.
c. An accelerator pump.
d. A mixture control.
High Speed Flight: (Oxford & KW)
1704. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a
sweptwing aircraft?
a. a severe nose-down pitching moment or "tuck under"*
b. a high-speed stall and sudden pitch up
c. severe porpoising
d. pitch-up
1705. Mach number is:

a. the ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at sea level.
b. the ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.*
c. the ratio of the aircraft’s IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
d. the speed of sound.
1706. For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS the Mach number will:
a. increase.*
b. decrease.
c. remain constant.
d. initially show an increase, then decrease.
1707. The term ‘transonic speed’ for an aircraft means:

a. speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic.
b. speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic.
c. speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic.*
d. speeds between M 0.4 and M 1.0
1708. At M 0.8 a wing has supersonic flow between 20% chord and 60% chord. There will be a shockwave:
a. at 20% chord only.
b. at 20% chord and 60% chord.
c. at 60% chord only.*
d. forward of 20% chord.
1709. As air flows through a shockwave:

a. static pressure increases, density decreases, temperature increases.
b. static pressure increases, density increases, temperature increases.*
c. static pressure decreases, density increases, temperature decreases.
d. static pressure decreases, density decreases, temperature decreases.
1710. For a wing section of given thickness, the critical Mach number:
a. will decrease if angle of attack is increased.*
b. will increase if angle of attack is increased.
c. will not change with changes of angle of attack.
d. is only influenced by changes in temperature.
1711. At speeds just above the critical Mach number, the lift coefficient:
a. will start to increase.
b. will start to decrease.*
c. will remain constant.
d. is directly proportional to the Mach number.
1712. As air flows through a shockwave:

a. its speed increases.
b. its speed decreases.*
c. its speed remains the same.
d. it changes direction to flow parallel with the Mach cone.
1713. If an aeroplane accelerates above the Critical Mach number, the first high Mach number characteristic it
will usually experience is:
a. a nose up pitch or "Shock Stall".
b. a violent and sustained oscillation in pitch (porpoising).
c. Dutch roll and/or spiral instability.
d. a nose down pitching moment (Mach, or high speed tuck).*
1714. High speed buffet is caused by:

a. the shock waves striking the tail.
b. the high speed airflow striking the leading edge of the wing.
c. wing flutter caused by the interaction of the bottom and top surface shock waves.
d. the airflow being detached by the shock wave and the turbulent flow striking the tail.*
1715. The “area rule” applied to high speed aircraft requires:

a. that the cross sectional area shall be as small as possible.
b. that the variation of cross sectional area along the length of the aircraft follows a smooth pattern.*
c. that the maximum cross sectional area of the fuselage should occur at the wing root.
d. that the fuselage and the wing area be of a ratio of 3 : 1.
1716. An all-moving tailplane is used in preference to elevators on high speed aircraft:

a. because the effect of the elevator is reversed above the critical Mach number.
b. because shock wave formation on the elevator causes excessive stick forces.
c. because shock wave formation ahead of the elevator causes separation and loss of elevator effectiveness.*
d. because it would be physically impossible for a pilot to control the aircraft in pitch with a conventional tailplane
and elevator configuration.
1717. Mach Trim is a device which:

a. moves the centre of gravity to maintain stable lateral stick forces in the transonic region.
b. automatically compensates for pitch changes while flying in the transonic speed region.*
c. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach number.
d. switches out the trim control to prevent damage in the transonic region.
1718. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing aeroplane are shock-
stalled first?
a. outward and forward
b. inward and aft
c. outward and aft
d. inward and forward*
1719. The airflow behind a normal shock wave will:

a. always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.*
b. always be supersonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
c. may be subsonic or supersonic.
d. always be subsonic and will be deflected from the direction of the original airflow.
1720. As airflow passes through a normal shock wave, which of the following changes in static
pressure (i), density (ii), and Mach number (iii) will occur:
(i) (ii) (iii)
a. decrease increase < 1.0
b. increase decrease < 1.0
c. increase decrease > 1.0 or < 1.0
d. increase increase < 1.0*
1721. An aerofoil travelling at supersonic speed will:
a. have its centre of pressure at 50 % chord.*
b. have its centre of pressure at 25% chord.
c. give a larger proportion of lift from the lower surface than from the upper surface, and have its centre of
pressure at 50 % chord.
d. give approximately equal lift from the upper and lower surfaces, and have its aerodynamic centre at 50% chord.
1722. A bow wave is:

a. a shock wave which forms on the nose of the aircraft at M CRIT.
b. the shape formed when the shock waves on the upper and lower wing surface meet at the trailing edge.
c. a shock wave that forms immediately ahead of an aircraft which is travelling faster than the speed of sound.*
d. the shape of a shock wave when viewed vertically.
1723. When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will the area of influence of any pressure disturbance
due to the presence of the aircraft be located?
a. Within the Mach Cone.*
b. In front of the Mach Cone.
c. In front of the bow wave.
d. In front of the Mach Cone only when the speed exceeds M 1.0
1724. The temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave:

a. increases.
b. decreases.*
c. is inversely proportional to the square root of the Mach number.
d. remains the same.
1725. The influence of weight (wing loading) on the formation of shockwaves is:
a. a higher wing loading will increase MCRIT
b. low wing loading will give a higher MCRIT *
c. wing loading does not influence MCRIT
d. wing loading and MCRIT are directly proportional
1726. What influence does an oblique shock wave have on the streamline pattern (i), variation of pressure (ii),
temperature(iii), density (iv) and velocity (v)?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
a. parallel to surface increase increase increase decrease*
b. normal to wave decrease decrease decrease increase
c. parallel to wave decrease decrease decrease increase
d. parallel to chord increase decrease increase decrease
1727. Wave drag is caused by:

a. shock waves interfering with the smooth airflow into the engine intakes.
b. flying faster than MMO.
c. the conversion of mechanical energy into thermal energy by the shock wave.*
d. flying faster than VMO
1728. What is the effect of a shock wave on control surface efficiency?

a. Increase in efficiency, due to increased velocity.
b. Increase in efficiency, due to the extra leverage caused by the shock wave.
c. Decrease in efficiency, due to the bow wave.
d. loss of efficiency, due to control deflection no longer modifying the total flow over the wing.*
1729. At what speed does an oblique shock wave move over the earth surface?
a. Aircraft ground speed*
b. The TAS of the aircraft plus the wind speed
c. The TAS of the aircraft less the wind speed
d. The TAS relative to the speed of sound at sea level
1730. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect?
I. A contributing factor to tuck under is a forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing.
II. A contributing factor to tuck under is an increase in downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser.
1731. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
I. Increasing wing sweep back decreases Mcrit.
II. Increasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number.
c. I. Is incorrect. II. Is incorrect.*
1732. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
I. Decreasing wing sweepback increases Merit,
II. Decreasing wing sweep back increases the drag divergence Mach number.
1733. Which of the following statements about "tuck under" is correct or incorrect?
I A contributing factor to tuck under is an aft movement of the centre of pressure of the wing.
II A contributing factor to tuck under is an increase in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal
stabiliser.
1734. Which statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
I The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
II The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it.
1735. The sonic boom of an aeroplane flying at supersonic speed is created by?
a. Shock waves around the aeroplane.*
b. The expansion flow behind the aeroplane.
c. Aerodynamic heating.
d. The centre of pressure, which is moving aft on the aerofoil.
1736. Which statement about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?

I Increasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit.
II Increasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence mach number.

I Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit.
II Decreasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence mach number.
1738. Which statement about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
I The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
II The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
1739. Which statement about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
I The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than the density behind it.
II The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
c. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*
1740. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct and incorrect?
I The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
II The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
I The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
II The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
I The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it.
II The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
I The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it.
II The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
I The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it.
II The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
1745. Which statement about wing sweepback are correct and incorrect?
I Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit.
II Decreasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence mach number.
1746. Which statement about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect?

I A contributing factor to tuck under is forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing.
II A contributing factor to tuck under is a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal
stabiliser.
b. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*

I Decreasing sweepback angle increases Mcrit.
II Decreasing wing sweepback angle decreases the drag divergence mach number.
1748. Which statements about an oblique shock wave, are correct or incorrect?
I The static temperature in front of the shock wave is lower than behind it.
II The static pressure in front of the shock wave is higher than behind it.
I The local speed of sound in front of the shock wave is lower than behind it.
II The Mach number in front of the shock wave is lower than behind it.
I The density behind the shock wave is higher than in front of it.
II The local speed of sound behind the shock wave is lower than in front of it.
I The Mach number behind the shock wave is lower than in front of it.
II The total pressure behind the shock wave is higher than in front of it.
I The static temperature behind the shock wave is higher than in front of it.
II The static pressure behind the shock wave is lower than in front of it.
1753. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect about an oblique shock wave?
I The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
II The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it.
I The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
II The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it.
d. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*
I The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it.
II The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it.
d. I. Is incorrect. II. Is correct.*
I The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it.
II The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it.
I The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it.
II The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it.
1758. The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of?
a. Uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting.
b. compressibility effects on the stabilizer.
c. Changes in the position of centre of pressure.*
d. Increased drag due to shock wave formation.
1759. Critical Mach-number is the?

a. Highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.*
b. Speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane (Mach number < 1).
c. Speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.
d. Highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).
1760. How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave
to behind it?
a. Density will increase, temperature will increase.*
b. Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
c. Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
d. Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.
1761. A normal shock wave?

a. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.
b. Can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.*
c. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.
d. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.
1762. The Mach number?

a. Is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.*
b. Is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
c. Is the ratio between the lAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
d. Increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.
1763. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow?

1. The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
2. The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
a. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
b. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
c. 1 and 2 are correct.*
d. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
1764. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow?

1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it.
2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
a. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.*
b. 1 and 2 are correct.
c. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
d. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
a. Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.
b. Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.*
c. Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
d. Is independent of altitude.
1766. Which statement with respect to the climb is correct?

a. At constant lAS the TAS decreases.
b. At constant Mach number the lAS increases.
c. At constant TAS the Mach number decreases.
d. At constant lAS the Mach number increases.*
1767. In case the Mach trimmer fails?

a. The Mach number must be limited.*
b. Try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.
c. The speed must be kept constant.
d. The aeroplane weight must be limited.
1768. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a?
a. Higher total temperature.
b. Lower static temperature.
c. Higher loss in total pressure.*
d. Higher total pressure.
1769. What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Merit at n=l, when flying at constant lAS? The value
of Mcrit?
a. Increases.*
b. Remains constant.
c. Is independent of the angle of attack.
d. Decreases.
1770. The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease?
a. Skin friction drag.
b. Induced drag.
c. Form drag.
d. Wave drag.*
1771. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will?

a. Decrease the shock wave induced separation.*
b. Decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
c. Decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
d. Increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
1772. Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage to?
a. Improve the low speed characteristics.
b. Apply area rule.*
c. Increase the strength of the wing root junction.
d. Fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
1773. The critical Mach number can be increased by?

a. A T-tail.
b. An increase in wing aspect ratio.
c. Sweepback of the wings.*
d. Positive dihedral of the wings.
1774. To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should?
a. Be used with a high angle of attack.
b. Have a large leading edge radius.
c. Have a low thickness to chord ratio.*
d. Have a large camber.
1775. Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number? .
a. No, this is not acceptable.*
b. Yes, this causes no problems.
c. Yes, but only during approach.
d. Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.
1776. In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to?
a. The first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing.
b. The appearance of the bow wave.
c. Separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves.*
d. Attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing.
1777. Shock induced separation results in?

a. Decreasing drag.
b. Decreasing lift.*
c. Constant lift.
d. Increasing lift.
1778. If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side
of the wing?
a. Moves into trailing edge direction.*
b. Moves into leading edge direction.
c. Stays all the time at the same position.
d. Disappears.
1779. Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the?
a. Upper side of the wing.*
b. Lower side of the wing.
c. Leading edge of the wing.
d. Trailing edge of the wing.
1780. The high speed buffet is induced by?

a. A shift of the centre of gravity ..
b. Boundary layer separation due to shock waves.*
c. Boundary layer control.
d. Expansion waves on the wing upper side.
1781. In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can
be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is?
a. Exactly 1.
b. Small but still supersonic.*
c. High (supersonic).
d. Lower than 1.
a. Smaller expansion.
b. Higher compression.*
c. Higher expansion.
d. Smaller compression.
1783. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature?
a. Will stay constant.
b. Decreases and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
c. Decreases.*
d. Increases.
1784. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will?
a. Decrease.
b. Stay constant.
c. Decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
d. Increase.*
1785. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will?
a. Decrease.*
b. Increase.
c. Stay constant.
d. Decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
1786. The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that?
a. The static pressure decrease is comparatively high.
b. The friction in the boundary layer is higher.
c. Kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.*
d. The speed reduction is too high.
1787. If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock wave angles will?
a. Increase.
b. Stay constant.
d. Decrease.*
1788. When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is?
a. Increased.*
b. Not affected.
c. Decreased.
d. Decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
1789. When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will
a. Decrease.
b. Stay constant.
d. Increase.*
1790. When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will?
a. Decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
b. Increase.*
c. Decrease.
d. Stay constant.
1791. When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is?
a. Lower than before but still greater than 1.
b. Equal to 1.
c. Higher than before.
d. Less than 1.*
1792. The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is?
a. 500 kts.*
b. 320 kts.
c. 480 kts.
d. 600 kts.
1793. The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the?
a. Transonic range.*
b. Supersonic range.
c. Hypersonic range.
d. Subsonic range.
1794. Tuck under will happen?

a. Above or below critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.
b. Only above the critical Mach number.*
c. Only at the critical Mach number.
d. Only below the critical Mach number.
1795. Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave?

a. The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic.
b. The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil.
c. The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic.*
d. The airflow changes direction.
1796. An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?
a. It remains constant.
b. It increases as temperature increases.*
c. It decreases as pressure increases.
d. It decreases as altitude decreases.
1797. If a symmetrical aero foil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the centre of lift will move?
a. Aft to the mid chord.*
b. Aft to the trailing edge.
c. Forward to the leading edge.
d. Forward to the mid chord.
1798. A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number.
In this case?
a. Only the inboard ailerons are active.*
b. Only the outboard aileron are active.
c. The inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
d. Only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
1799. The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which?
a. Sonic speed (M=l) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.*
b. The maximum operating temperature is reached.
c. A shock-wave appears on the upper surface.
d. A "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.
1800. The buffet margin?

a. Increases during a descent with a constant lAS.*
b. Is always greatest after a step climb has been executed.
c. Decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
d. Is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
1801. At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
a. The true air speed of the aeroplane.
b. The ground speed of the aeroplane.*
c. The speed of sound at ground level.
d. The speed of sound at flight level.
1802. When outboard ailerons (if present) are deactivated?

a. Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.*
b. Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value.
c. Landing gear retracted.
d. Landing gear extended.
1803. What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant lAS?
a. Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.
b. Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.*
c. Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
d. Mcrit decreases.
1804. A Mach trimmer?

a. Corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers.*
b. Increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.
c. Is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.
d. Has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (lAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled
aeroplane.
1805. If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move?
a. To a position near the leading edge.
b. To a position near the trailing edge.
c. To the mid chord position.*
d. Forward.
1806. The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept ..wing aeroplane may be? (assume no corrective devices,
straight and level flight)
a. An increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.
b. Engine unbalance and buffeting.
c. Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
d. Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.*
1807. When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur?
a. On the underside of the wing.
b. Somewhere on the fin.
c. Somewhere on the horizontal tail.
d. At the wing root segment, upper side.*
1808. Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?
a. Shock stall.*
b. High speed stall.
c. Low speed stall.
d. Deep stall.
1809. Which (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Merit values?
a. (1) thick and (2) large.*
b. (1) thick and (2) small.
c. (1) thin and (2) large.
d. (1) thin and (2) small.
1810. Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which?
a. Shock stall occurs.
b. The critical angle of attack is reached.
c. Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.*
d. Mach buffet occurs.
1811. What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
a. The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes.*
b. The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.
c. The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
d. The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes.
1812. A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant lAS and constant weight. The operational limit
that may be exceeded is?
a. VMO.
b. VA.
c. MD.
d. MMO.*
1813. Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?

a. The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch up.
b. A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach
number.*
c. A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.
d. A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.
1814. "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change
of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
a. (i) aft (ii) increasing.
b. (i) forward (ii) increasing.
c. (i) aft (ii) decreasing.*
d. (i) forward (ii) decreasing.
1815. "Tuck under" may happen at?

a. Low Mach numbers.
b. All Mach numbers.
c. Only at low altitudes.
d. High Mach numbers.*
1816. "Tuck under" is?

a. The tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.*
b. The tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.
c. Shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.
d. The tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back. -
1817. The Mach trim system will?

a. Pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.
b. Adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.
c. Adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.*
d. Keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
1818. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will?
a. Decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.*
b. Increase the critical Mach Number.
c. Decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.
d. Increase the magnitude of the shock wave.
1819. To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the?

a. Mach Number.*
b. EAS.
c. TAS.
d. lAS.
1820. In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because?
a. Behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
b. Aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
c. Aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
d. Aileron deflection only partly affects the wing pressure distribution.*
1821. In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are?

a. In front of the aeroplane.
b. Very weak and negligible ..
c. In between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.*
d. Outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.
1822. The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by?

a. Dihedral of the wings.
b. Sweep back of the wings.*
c. Vortex generators.
d. Control deflection.
1823. The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first
evidence of?
a. Buffet.
b. Shock wave.
c. Supersonic flow.
d. Local sonic flow.*
1824. Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will?

a. First increase, then decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease.*
1825. The Mach trim system will prevent?

a. Dutch roll.
b. Buffeting.
c. Shock stall.
d. Tuck under.*
1826. Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
a. Shock stall.
b. Dutch roll.*
c. Tuck under.
d. Mach buffet.
1827. Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach
Number?
a. Elevator stall.
b. Mach buffet.*
c. Dutch roll.
d. Speed instability.
1828. In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by?
a. The lAS.
b. The CAS.
c. The Mach Number.*
d. The TAS.
1829. Shock stall is?

a. Separation of the flow behind the bow wave.
b. Separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach numbers.
c. Separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach numbers.
d. Separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.*
1830. In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is?

a. Rectangular.*
b. Irregular.
c. Triangular.
d. The same as in subsonic flight.
1831. The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime
will?
a. Decrease the static lateral stability.
b. Increase the static longitudinal stability.*
c. Decrease the longitudinal stability.
d. Increase the static lateral stability.
1832. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing?

a. Increase critical Mach Number.
b. Decrease critical Mach Number.
c. Decrease wave drag.*
d. Increase wave drag.
1833. When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is?
a. Increased.
b. Unchanged.
c. Decreased.*
d. Decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.
1834. The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed?
a. VC.
b. VFLUTTER.
c. VMO.
d. VD.*
1835. The formula for the Mach Number is? (a= speed of sound)
a. M=TAS/a.*
b. M=a/TAS.
c. M= TAS x a.
d. M= lAS / a.
1836. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number
will?
a. Not change.
b. Increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.
c. Increase.*
d. Decrease.
1837. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant
weight. The limit that may be exceeded is?
a. MMO.
b. VMO.*
c. VNE.
d. VD
1838. Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are?

a. Thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
b. Positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing.
c. Thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
d. Thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing.*
1839. The bow wave will appear first at?

a. M= 1.3.
b. M= 1.0.*
c. M= Mcrit.
d. M= 0.6.
1840. Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The pressure decreases.
b. The temperature decreases.
c. The velocity increases.
d. The temperature increases.*
1841. The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach number is due to?
a. Wave drag.*
b. Increased angle of attack.
c. Increased interference drag.
d. Increased skin friction.
1842. When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach number the centre of the
pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires?
a. Much more thrust from the engine.
b. A higher lAS to compensate the nose down effect.
c. A pitch up input of the stabilizer.*
d. A stability augmentation system.
1843. The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets to compensate for?
a. Changes in the position of centre of pressure.*
b. Increased drag due to shock wave formation.
c. Uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting.
d. Compressibility effects on the stabilizer.
1844. Critical Mach-number is the?

a. Speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.
b. Highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).
c. Highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.*
d. Speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane with a mach number more than 1.
1845. How do density and temp change as supersonic air flows through a shock wave?
a. Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
b. Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.
c. Density will increase, temperature will increase.*
d. Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
1846. A normal shock wave?

a. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.
b. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.
c. Is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.
d. Can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.*
1847. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow?

1. The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
2. The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
a. 1 and 2 are correct.*
b. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
c. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
d. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
1848. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow?

1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it.
2. Speed in front ',ofan expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
a. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
b. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
c. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.*
d. 1 and 2 are correct.

a. Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
b. Is independent of altitude.
c. Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.
d. Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.*
1850. When climbing?

a. At constant TAS the Mach number decreases.
b. At constant lAS the Mach number increases.*
c. At constant lAS the TAS decreases.
d. At constant Mach number the lAS increases.
1851. In case the Mach trimmer fails?

a. The speed must be kept constant.
b. The aeroplane weight must be limited.
c. The Mach number must be limited.*
d. Try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.
a. Higher loss in total pressure.*
b. Higher total pressure.
c. Higher total temperature.
d. Lower static temperature.
1853. What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Merit at n=1, when flying at constant lAS? The value
of Mcrit?
a. Is independent of the angle of attack.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.*
d. Remains constant.
1854. The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease?
a. Induced drag.
b. Form drag.
c. Wave drag.*
d. Skin friction drag.
1855. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will?

a. Decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
b. Increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
c. Decrease the shock wave induced separation.*
d. Decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
1856. Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage to?
a. Apply area rule.*
b. Fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
c. Improve the low speed characteristics.
d. Increase the strength of the wing root junction.
Jet Engine: (Oxford)
1857. When gases pass through a convergent duct their:

a. Velocity and temperature increase and their pressure decreases.
b. Their velocity increases and their temperature and pressure decrease.*
c. Their velocity decreases and their temperature and pressure increase.
d. They expand adiabatically.
1858. Select the correct order of best propulsive efficiency, from low to high airspeed
a. High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio turbo jet, Pure turbo jet, Turbo-prop.
b. Low by-pass ratio turbo jet, Pure turbo jet, Turbo-prop, High by-pass ratio turbo jet.
c. Pure turbo jet, Turbo-prop, High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio turbo jet.
d. Turbo-prop, High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio turbo jet, Pure turbo jet.*
1859. The highest pressure in a gas turbine engine occurs:

a. Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.*
b. In the combustion chamber.
c. In the jet pipe.
d. At the P1 probe.
1860. In a turbo-fan engine, the fan speed is controlled by:

a. A reduction gear.
b. A waste gate.
c. The turbine.*
d. Varying the pitch.
1861. In a high ratio by-pass engine:

a. All of the air goes through both the low and high pressure compressors.
b. Not all the air goes through the high pressure compressor.*
c. Not all the air goes through the low pressure compressor.
d. All the air goes through the high pressure compressor.
1862. Modular construction:

a. Is only used on turbo-prop engines.
b. Cannot be used on high ratio engines.
c. Has a weight saving function.
d. Enables malfunctioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.*
1863. Gas turbine engine efficiency increases with:

a. An increase in volumetric efficiency.
b. An increase in ambient temperature.
c. A decrease in ambient temperature.*
d. A decrease in ambient air pressure.
1864. On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas turbine engine which has no fuel control unit compensation:
a. Is unaffected by temperature.
b. Will increase.
c. Will decrease.*
d. Will increase by no more than 4%.
1865. The By-Pass Ratio of an engine is the ratio of:

a. Primary air to tertiary air.
b. Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.*
c. Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure.
d. Primary air to secondary air.
1866. The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle of:

a. Newton’s Third Law of motion.*
b. Creating thrust equal to the weight of the aircraft.
c. Expelling air at the same speed as that of the aircraft.
d. The fluid flywheel.
1867. The addition of heat in a combustion chamber allows a:

a. Large expansion at a substantially constant pressure.*
b. Large expansion at a constant volume.
c. Large expansion at a decreasing static pressure.
d. Minimum expansion at a constant volume.
1868. In a divergent duct:

a. The pressure decreases and the temperature and velocity increases.
b. The pressure, velocity and temperature increases.
c. The pressure temperature increases and the velocity decreases.*
d. The pressure decreases, the temperature increases and the velocity remains constant.
1869. In a twin spool engine:

a. The L.P. compressor is connected to the H.P. compressor.
b. The H.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. compressor, the L.P. turbine is connected to the H.P. compressor.
c. The L.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. compressor, the H.P. turbine is connected to the H.P. compressor.*
d. The H.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. turbine, the H.P. compressor is connected to the L.P. compressor.
1870. A By-Pass Ratio of 5:1 means that:

a. 5 pounds of air is by-passed for every 10 pounds entering the engine intake.
b. 5 pounds of goes through the H.P. compressor for every 10 pounds that enters the intake.
c. 10 pounds of air goes through the by-pass for every 5 pounds that enters the intake.
d. 5 pounds of air is by-passed for every 1 pound that goes through the hot core of the engine.*
1871. Aft of the compressor:

a. The velocity of the airflow remains the same.
b. The velocity of the airflow decreases before the combustion chamber.*
c. The velocity increases before the combustion chamber.
d. The air pressure decreases before the combustion chamber.
1872. The fan in a ducted fan engine, is driven by:

a. The high pressure turbine.
b. The rearmost turbine.*
c. The intermediate pressure turbine.
1873. In a by-pass engine, the by-pass air:

a. Increases the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency.*
b. Cools the combustion chamber and therefore increases the thermal efficiency.
c. Reduces the air mass flow and therefore increases the propulsive efficiency.
d. Increases the air mass flow and therefore reduces the propulsive efficiency.
1874. The majority of the thrust of a:

a. Turbo-fan engine comes from the turbine exhaust.
b. Turbo-prop engine comes from the turbine exhaust.
c. Turbo-shaft engine comes from the free power turbine exhaust.
d. Turbo-fan engine comes from the by-pass air.*
1875. A Pure Turbo-Jet engine gives:
a. A small acceleration to a large mass of air.
b. A large acceleration to a large mass of air.
c. A small acceleration to a small mass of air.
d. A large acceleration to a small mass of air.*
1876. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place:

a. Continuously.*
b. Once every revolution.
c. Once every other revolution.
d. Only during the start cycle.
1877. In a high by-pass engine with a ‘pitot’ intake, with the engine running and the brakes on, what will P1 be in
relation to P0?
a. Same
b. Greater
c. Less*
d. 14.7psi
1878. A pitot intake forms a ____________ duct______ the fan to ensure that the airflow ______ to ________
and achieves a ________
a. convergent before speeds up subsonic pressure rise
b. divergent after slows down subsonic pressure rise
c. divergent before speeds up sonic pressure drop
d. divergent before slows down subsonic pressure rise*
1879. What effect will severe icing in the intake have on a high by-pass engine?
a. The axial velocity of the air will increase with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
compressor blades and a possible stall.
b. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
c. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase in the angle that the resultant airflow forms with the
compressor blades chord line and a possible stall.*
d. The axial velocity of the air will increase with an increase in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
1880. Which of the following would be classed as prudent when carrying out Engine Ground Runs?
a. Only carry out engine runs with a tail wind
b. Fit debris guards when running*
c. Only do ground runs on Tarmac
d. Only do ground runs on concrete
1881. With an ‘S’ type intake, if the pilot selects max RPM while standing still, there is a strong possibility that:
a. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too small, which will cause
the engine to stall and surge.
b. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too small, which will cause
the engine to surge then stall.
c. The angle which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades will become too large, which will cause
the engine to stall and surge.*
d. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too large, which will cause
the engine to surge then stall.
1882. Secondary air inlet doors are utilised:

a. When an aircraft is in the cruise
b. When the aircraft is near its maximum IAS.
c. When the rpm of the engine is low while stationary.
d. When the rpm of the engine is high when stationary.*
1883. What is the purpose of the supersonic diffuser in the variable throat intake?
a. Final reduction in velocity prior to compressor face.*
b. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach 1 prior to a further reduction in the subsonic diffuser.
c. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach .5 prior to a further reduction in the subsonic diffuser.
d. Increase in velocity prior to compressor face.
1884. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a relatively ________ supply of air to the ________ of the ________
compressor.
a. turbulent free face low pressure*
b. turbulent face low pressure
c. turbulent free rear low pressure
d. turbulent free face high pressure
1885. In a pitot intake the term ‘Ram Pressure Recovery’ refers to the time when:
a. EPR has attained the take-off setting.
b. The HP Compressor has reached its maximum.
c. The EPR has recovered to its optimum figure.
d. Intake pressure has been re-established to ambient pressure.*
1886. The effect on EPR with an iced up P1 probe with the RPM of the engine increasing
a. EPR would decrease.
b. No change.
c. EPR would momentarily decrease then increase.
d. EPR would increase.*
1887. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:

a. Equal to the number of compression stages.
b. The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.*
c. The ratio between exhaust inlet and exhaust outlet pressure.
d. Never greater than 5 to 1.
1888. The compressor idling speed of a gas turbine engine will increase:
a. At higher ambient temperature.*
b. With higher than sea level density.
c. At altitudes lower than sea level.
d. At lower ambient temperature.
1889. One stage of an axial flow compressor consists of:

a. One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes.*
b. One stator assembly and one row of guide vanes.
c. One rotor and one impeller assembly.
d. One impeller and one diffuser assembly.
1890. The pressure rise across each stage of an axial flow compressor is:
a. Greater than that of a centrifugal compressor.
b. Between 3 and 5 to one.
c. Twice the inlet pressure.
d. Between 1.1 and 1.2 to one.*
1891. The ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor are called:
a. The first stage stator blades.
b. The inlet guides vanes.*
c. First stage diffuser blades.
d. Nozzle guide vanes.
1892. As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure rise takes place in:
a. The impeller and the diffuser.
b. The rotor blades only.
c. Both the rotor blades and the stator vanes.*
d. The stator vanes only.
1893. In the event of a surge occurring the correct action to be taken is:
a. To close the throttle quickly.
b. To close the throttle slowly.*
c. To open the throttle fully.
d. To close the LP fuel valve.
1894. Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to:

a. Prevent tip turbulence.
b. Ensure adequate cooling.
c. Minimise vibration.*
d. Prevent tip losses.
1895. The cross sectional area of the air annulus is reduced as it approaches the combustion chamber:
a. To maintain the volume of the air under rising pressure.
b. To prevent an increase of the velocity of the air under rising pressure.
c. To maintain the speed of the air entering the engine.*
d. To allow longer blades to be used in the latter stages of the compressor.
1896. The attachment of blades to the compressor disc:

a. Allows slight movement to relieve stress concentration.*
b. Is rigid.
c. Prevents them being contaminated by the atmosphere.
d. Allows slight movement because of the different expansion rates of the blades and the disc, which would
otherwise cause center line closure.
1897. Compressor blades are designed to produce:

a. A given pressure and velocity rise.
b. A constant flow over the engine speed range.
c. A steady velocity with a pressure rise over the engine speed range.*
d. Turbulent flow into the combustion chamber.
1898. A compressor blade will stall when:

a. The air axial velocity and rotational speed relationship is disturbed.*
b. The mass air flow and speed relationship is constant.
c. The speed of the gas flow through the turbine falls below 0.4 Mach.
d. The compression ratio exceeds 10 to 1.
1899. Compressor surge will occur when:

a. All stages are at maximum efficiency.
b. All stages are at maximum RPM.
c. There is a partial breakdown of airflow through the compressor.
d. All stages have stalled.*
1900. Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of the centrifugal compressor?
a. The air inlet
b. The outlet elbow*
c. The impeller
d. The diffuser
1901. The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a centrifugal compressor is to:

a. Increase the charge temperature.
b. Convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
c. Increase the air velocity.
d. Convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.*
1902. The pressure rise across a centrifugal compressor:

a. Occurs in the impeller only.
b. Occurs in the diffuser only.
c. Is shared almost equally by the impeller and the diffuser.*
d. Is always greater in the diffuser than in the impeller.
1903. To gain a greater pressure ratio than 4:1:

a. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in parallel.
b. The compressor diameter must be reduced.
c. The cascade vanes must be convergent.
d. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in series with each other.*
1904. The major disadvantage of a centrifugal compressor is that:

a. It cannot cope with a large mass flow of air.*
b. It cannot be used for a turbo jet engine.
c. A larger turbine must be used.
d. It is more prone to damage than the axial flow compressor
1905. The purpose of cascade vanes is to:

a. Increase the velocity of the airflow prior to it entering the combustion chambers.
b. Turn the air smoothly through 90 degrees and complete diffusion.*
c. Remove swirl from the airflow.
d. Swirl the air, ready for the next compression stage.
1906. The type of compressor used to create radial airflow would be:
a. Positive displacement.
b. Axial.
c. Centrifugal.*
d. Constant volume.
1907. Under ideal conditions the pressure rise across a centrifugal compressor can be:
a. 1.1 or 1.2 to 1.
b. Not more than 4 to 1.*
c. 1.5 to 1.
d. 30 to 1.
1908. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is that it is:

a. Dynamically balanced.
b. More robust and is easier to develop and manufacture.*
c. Unaffected by turbulence.
d. Able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow compressor.
1909. A compressor stall causes:

a. The vibration level to increase with a decrease in the turbine gas temperature.
b. An increase in the turbine gas temperature and the vibration level.*
c. The rotation of the engine to stop suddenly.
d. The airflow through the engine to stop suddenly.
1910. Air passing through a convergent duct experiences:

a. A decrease in temperature and pressure with an increase in velocity.*
b. An increase in temperature and velocity with a decrease in pressure.
c. An increase in temperature and pressure with a velocity decrease.
d. Adiabatic expansion.
1911. Fuel is regulated on rapid engine acceleration:

a. To prevent detonation in the combustion chambers.
b. Because the rapid response of the compressor might cause a flame out.
c. Because the cooling effect of too much fuel would cause a drop in pressure in the combustion chamber.
d. To prevent inducing a compressor stall and surge.*
1912. A compressor stall:

a. Is overcome by increasing the fuel flow.
b. Is a complete breakdown of the airflow through the compressor.
c. May only affect one stage or several stages of a compressor.*
d. Is mechanical failure of the compressor.
1913. Compressor blades increase in size:

a. From the root to the tip to increase the temperature.
b. From the high pressure section of the compressor to the low-pressure section.*
c. From the low-pressure section of the compressor to the high-pressure section to maintain a constant airflow
velocity.
d. From the tip to the root to decrease the temperature.
1914. The occurrence of compressor stalls is limited by:

a. Bleed valves.*
b. Nozzle guide vanes.
c. Swirl vanes.
d. Cascade vanes.
1915. Bleed valves are automatically opened:

a. At maximum R.P.M. to prevent compressor stall.
b. At low R.P.M. to prevent the turbine stalling.
c. During engine acceleration to prevent turbine surge.
d. At low engine R.P.M to prevent the compressor stalling.*
1916. To prevent compressor stall at the rear of the compressor, bleed valves must be positioned:
a. At the rear stages of the compressor.
b. At the front stages of the compressor.
c. At the mid stages of the compressor.*
d. At the intake of the engine.
1917. A complete breakdown of airflow through a compressor is known as:

a. Compressor turbulence.
b. Compressor buffet.
c. Compressor surge.*
d. Compressor seizure.
1918. One indication that a compressor bleed valve has stuck closed at low R.P.M. is:
a. Possible compressor stall.*
b. An inability to achieve full power.
c. That bleed air is reduced.
d. That the engine will stop.
1919. Within the compressor:

a. Bleed valves are set to open at high R.P.M.
b. Pressure decreases.
c. Temperature decreases.
d. Temperature increases.*
1920. Bleeding compressor air for anti-icing will cause:

a. An increase in T.G.T., a decrease in thrust and an increase in S.F.C.*
b. A decrease in T.G.T., an increase in thrust and a decrease in S.F.C.
c. An increase in R.P.M. and fuel flow.
d. An increase in R.P.M. and a decrease in fuel flow.
1921. Variable inlet guide vanes:

a. Deflect air past the compressor.
b. Prevent compressor stall.*
c. Deflect air past the turbine.
d. Induce air into a centrifugal compressor.
1922. Compressor blades are twisted from root to tip:

a. To decrease the pressure.
b. To maintain a correct angle of attack.*
c. To reduce the relative airflow.
d. To give added rigidity to the blade structure.
1923. In a compressor:
a. The air temperature is steady with a pressure rise.
b. The air temperature falls with a pressure rise.
c. The drop in air temperature is inversely proportional to the pressure rise.
d. The air temperature rises with a pressure rise.*
1924. A stall in a gas turbine engine is most likely to occur with:

Pressure Ratio Location in Compressor
a. High Front
b. High Back
c. Low Back*
d. Low Front
1925. Contamination of the compressor:

a. Is not likely to prove a problem if the aircraft is not flown at low level over the sea.
b. Will not decrease the performance of the engine if the fuel sulphur content does not exceed .001%.
c. Can seriously reduce the efficiency of the engine.*
d. Can be reduced by periodically flying through thunderstorms.
1926. The low pressure compressor of a high ratio by-pass engine:

a. Is driven by the high pressure turbine.
b. Rotates faster than the high-pressure compressor.
c. Is always a centrifugal compressor.
d. Is driven by the rearmost turbine.*
1927. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the greatest heat release during combustion is:
a. 45 : 1.
b. 130 : 1.
c. 12.5 : 1.
d. 15 : 1.*
1928. One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is that:

a. The diameter of the engine is reduced.
b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum r.p.m.
c. There are no flame propagation problems.*
d. The air casing area is greater.
1929. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber the percentage that is mixed with the fuel and burnt
is:
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 20%*
d. 60%
1930. The combustion chamber drain valve is closed:

a. By combustion chamber gas pressure.*
b. By a return spring.
c. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.
d. During a blow out cycle.
1931. A cannular combustion system is:

a. A set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted in a separate air casing.
b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing.*
c. One common flame tube enclosed in a common air casing.
d. Superior to the annular system because it only requires one igniter.
1932. It is necessary to have a combustion drain system:

a. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
b. To allow moisture content in the fuel to drain away.
c. To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut down or a wet start.*
d. To prevent the igniters becoming wetted by excess fuel.
1933. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber is to:
a. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube.*
b. Form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and stabilises the flame.
c. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner head.
d. Ensure complete combustion of the fuel.
1934. A re-light envelope:

a. Shows the flame stability limits.
b. Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart.*
c. Shows fuel / air mixture limitations for an in-flight restart.
d. Contains the in flight re-start igniter plugs.
1935. Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber:

a. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. Reduce the velocity of the airflow.*
c. Prevent compressor stall.
d. Help to stabilize combustion.
1936. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small percentage is used in combustion, the rest:
a. Is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes.
b. Is used only for cooling the gases before they exit the combustion chamber.
c. Is used to reduce the oil temperature and cool the turbine blades.
d. Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the walls of the air casing.*
1937. The effect on the temperature and pressure of the gases as they pass across the turbine is:
a. Their temperature decreases and their pressure rises.
b. Both their temperature and pressure increase.
c. Both their temperature and pressure decrease.*
d. Their temperature increases and their pressure falls.
1938. Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before the turbine:

a. To increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. To decrease the velocity of the gas flow therefore increasing its pressure.
c. To increase the velocity of the gas flow therefore reducing its pressure.*
d. To increase the temperature of the gas flow.
1939. One reason for shrouding turbine blades is:

a. To reduce “creep” which may occur in the blades.
b. To improve efficiency and reduce vibration.*
c. To enable thinner blades to be used.
d. To minimise blade end erosion.
1940. The blades are usually attached to the turbine disc by a “Fir Tree” root. A tight fit is ensured during
operation:
a. By the action of centrifugal force.*
b. By thermal expansion of the disc.
c. By blade compression loads and thermal expansion.
d. By torque loading and thermal expansion.
1941. The main contributory factors which cause creep in turbine blades are:
a. High temperature and tensile loading.*
b. High rpm and torque loading.
c. High rpm and high gas speeds.
d. High temperature and high gas speeds.
1942. A free power turbine:

a. Has a clutch between the compressor and the power output shaft.
b. Has no mechanical connection with the other turbine or compressor shafts.*
c. Has a direct drive with a free wheel unit.
d. Comes free with every 2,000 gallons of AVTUR.
1943. The mixture of impulse and reaction blade shape in the average turbine blade is such that:
a. The inner half is impulse and the outer half is reaction.*
b. The inner half is reaction and the outer half is impulse.
c. The leading edge is reaction and the trailing edge is impulse.
d. The trailing edge is reaction and the leading edge is impulse.
1944. Blade creep is:

a. Movement of the turbine blades around the turbine disc.
b. Temporary expansion due to temperature change.
c. Temporary elongation due to centrifugal forces.
d. Permanent elongation due to heat and centrifugal force.*
1945. The net operating temperature of a gas turbine engine is limited by:
a. The materials from which the combustion chamber is constructed.
b. The amount of fuel which can be fed into the combustion chamber.
c. The ability of the compressor to pass sufficient air rearwards.
d. The materials from which the nozzle guide vanes and the turbine blades are constructed.*
1946. The impulse-reaction blade is twisted along its length so that:

a. There is a greater angle at the base than at the tip.
b. The gas flow is accelerated through the turbine.
c. The gas does equal work along the whole of its length.*
d. The gas flow is decelerated through the nozzle guide vanes.
1947. The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit is held to:
a. 0.5 Mach to minimise turbulence.*
b. 0.75 Mach to optimise the pressure distribution.
c. 0.85 Mach to maximise thrust.
d. Mach 1 to maximise acceleration.
1948. The exhaust cone:

a. Straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine assembly.
b. Prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face.*
c. Increases the velocity of the gases.
d. Decreases the pressure of the gas.
1949. The propelling nozzle is designed to:

a. Increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream.*
b. Decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream.
c. To increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
d. To decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
1950. A nozzle is said to be “choked” when:

a. The gas flow through it is subsonic.
b. The gas flow through it reaches its sonic value.*
c. The gas temperature rises.
d. The gas flow through it is supersonic.
1951. A choked nozzle:

a. Decreases thrust.
b. Gives additional pressure without the addition of heat.
c. Has no effect on thrust.
d. Implies that no further increase in velocity can be obtained without the increase of heat.*
1952. The exhaust gasses pass to atmosphere via the propelling nozzle which:
a. Is a convergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.*
b. Converts kinetic energy into pressure energy.
c. Is a divergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.
d. Is a divergent nozzle, thus it increases the gas pressure.
1953. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:

a. Heat insulation materials.
b. A cooling air jacket.
c. A combination of cooling air and insulating material.*
d. Semi-conducting geodetic structures.
1954. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine:

a. Is created mainly in the exhaust section.
b. Is high in the exhaust section because of the high velocity gas flow.
c. Is predominantly from the fan and the turbine.*
d. Is greater than that from a turbo-jet engine of comparable power output.
1955. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe casing immediately to the rear of the turbine:
a. Is convergent to accelerate the gases towards the propelling nozzle.
b. Is divergent to accelerate the gases away from the turbine blades.
c. Is convergent to increase the pressure of the gases in the jet pipes.
d. Is divergent to reduce the velocity of the gases leaving the turbine.*
1956. The turbine rear support struts:

a. Add swirl to the gases before they travel down the jet pipe.
b. Prevent the hot gases flowing across the rear face of the rear turbine bearing.
c. Allow entry of the by-pass air into the exhaust system.
d. Straighten out any residual whirl in the gas stream.*
1957. An exhaust nozzle is said to be choked when the velocity at the throat is:
a. Mach.5.
b. Below Mach 1.
c. At Mach 1.*
d. Above Mach 1.
1958. A centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine:

a. To circulate the oil smoothly.
b. To minimise oil loss.*
c. To emulsify the oil and air mixture for greater viscosity.
d. To allow oxidisation of the oil.
1959. A high oil temperature would indicate that:

a. The oil pressure was high.
b. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T.) was high.
c. The oil filter was blocked.
d. The air intake of the oil cooler was blocked.*
1960. Oil seals are pressurised:

a. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
b. To ensure minimum oil loss.*
c. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing housing.
d. To minimise heat loss in the bearing housing.
1961. In the event that damage occurs to the matrix of the fuel cooled oil cooler:
a. A pressure-maintaining valve ensures that the oil pressure is always higher than the fuel pressure.*
b. The fuel pressure is always kept higher than the oil pressure to ensure that the fuel will leak into the oil system.
c. A differential pressure switch will illuminate a light in the cockpit.
d. The oil by-pass valve will prevent a complete loss of oil pressure.
1962. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine engine are vented:

a. Via the auxiliary gear box drive.
b. Via the centrifugal breather.*
c. Via the air seals, into the gas stream.
d. To prevent oil loss.
1963. The main bearings in an axial flow gas turbine engine are normally pressurised by:
a. Compressor by-pass air.
b. Air at intake pressure.
c. Air from an intermediate stage of the compressor.*
d. Gas from the second stage turbine section.
1964. Magnetic Chip Detectors are fitted in the engine:
a. To facilitate early detection of cracks in the compressor blades.
b. To facilitate early warning of cracks in the turbine blades.
c. To provide a warning of impending failure in the engine bearings.*
d. To prevent a build up of starch in the scavenge oil filter.
1965. An inter-stage air seal is used where:

a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.*
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same value.
c. It is more convenient.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.
1966. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:

a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
d. The engine to be shut down.*
1967. If engine run down time is short, coupled with high oil consumption, the most probable cause is:
a. Compressor blade rub.
b. Incorrect relief valve setting.
c. Excessive sealing air pressure.
d. Bearing chamber labryinth seal rubbing.*
1968. Gas turbines use for lubrication:

a. Mineral oil with additives (compound).
b. Mineral oil straight.
c. Multi-grade 20/50.
d. Synthetic oil.*
1969. For a pressure relief lubricating system, select the correct statement:
a. The flow and pressure change with engine speed.
b. The pressure relief valve is fitted in series with the pump.
c. The pressure remains the same for all engine operating parameters.*
d. The relief valve opens when pressure has reached the required pressure. Any excess flow is returned by a
dedicated line to the base of the engine for scavenging.
1970. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the engine:

a. Will continue to operate at a lower RPM because the engine will be able to suck the oil from the reservoir and be
sufficiently lubricated.
b. Should be shut down.*
c. Will be unaffected because the scavenge pumps have a larger operating capacity than the pressure pumps and
will ensure the engine is lubricated sufficiently.
d. Should be monitored for a period of time to record oil temperature.
1971. In a Gas Turbine engine oil temperature is measured:

a. As it leaves the fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC).*
b. Before entering the engine.
c. Immediately after leaving the engine.
d. In the engine.
1972. In a Gas Turbine engine oil pressure is measured:

a. In the engine.
b. In the return line.
c. After the pressure pump.*
d. In the FCOC to ensure oil pressure is always above fuel pressure.
1973. The magnetic chip detectors are fitted in:

a. The pressure line between the pressure pump and the engine.
b. Suction line between the reservoir and the pressure pump.
c. Return line between the engine and the scavenge pump.*
d. Return line after the FCOC.
1974. Gas Turbines use:

a. Wet sump and mineral oil.
b. Dry sump and synthetic oil.*
c. Wet sump and synthetic oil.
d. Dry sump and mineral oil.
1975. EPR is a
a. Ratio between ambient pressure and exhaust pressure.
b. Ratio between ambient pressure and fan pressure.
c. Ratio between intake pressure and compressor delivery pressure.
d. Ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure.*
1976. In a high by pass engine whose fan max rpm is 20000rpm, when turning at 5000rpm will develop approx.
a. 25% take off thrust.
b. 50% take off thrust
c. 5% take off thrust*
d. 15% take off thrust.
1977. With an increase in altitude which of the following statements are correct for a jet aircraft with constant
engine speed for a fixed throttle setting?
1. Temperature and pressure reduce with a resulting drop in thrust.
2. Fuel consumption will increase.
3. Fuel consumption will decrease.
4. Specific fuel consumption will increase.
5. Specific fuel consumption will decrease.
6. Specific fuel consumption stays relatively the same
7. Temperature and pressure will reduce, resulting in an increase in thrust.
a. 1, 3, 6.*
b. 2, 4, 1.
c. 7, 2, 4.
d. 1, 2, 5
1978. The maximum thrust that a jet engine can develop will be:
a. Take off thrust.
b. Go around thrust.
c. Max climb thrust.
d. Max Static Thrust.*
1979. As temperature ___________air density ____________ and the mass of air for given engine speed
__________ therefore thrust ___________. To maintain the compressor speed however _______ fuel must be
added or the compressor will _________.
a. decreases decreases increases increases less slow down
b. increases decreases decreases increases more slow down
c. decreases increases increases increases more slow down*
d. increases decreases increases decreases less speed up
1980. From a standing start with an increase in forward speed jet thrust will:
a. Increase.
b. Stay the same.
c. Decrease.
d. Decrease then recover but will never achieve its initial setting.*
1981. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor while climbing it will experience:
a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust increase fuel consumption
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust decrease fuel consumption*
c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust decrease fuel consumption
d. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust increase fuel consumption
1982. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor while increasing forward speed, it will
experience:
a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust
c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust
d. Increase shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust*
1983. On a part throttled engine, take off thrust would be achieved:

a. Later than normal due to pressure in the compressor being low.
b. Later than normal due to the EPR being low.
c. Earlier than normal.*
d. Later than normal due to the EPR being high.
1984. In a gas turbine engine:

a. Ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take off run.
b. Ram pressure is unaffected by airspeed.
c. Thrust is unaffected by the aircraft’s forward speed.
d. Thrust is maximum and ram pressure at minimum at the start of the take off run.*
1985. When after burning the jet pipe will:

a. Close to allow for the decreased volume of gas
b. Open to allow for the increased volume of gas.*
c. Remain the same
d. Remain the same until the temperature reaches 1700C then open.
1986. When does the variable nozzle open?

a. When the exhaust temperature reaches 1700C
b. Automatic when after burning selected.*
c. Automatic on take-off.
d. Automatic when approaching Mach 1.
1987. When leaving the turbine the gas stream:

a. Increases velocity immediately to maximise thrust.
b. Is diffused to ensure the afterburning flame is stabilised.*
c. Goes through a convergent duct to ensure the after-burning flame is stabilised.
d. Goes through a divergent duct to maximise thrust.
1988. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to after-burning?
1. Fuel consumption increases
2. Fuel consumption decreases.
3. Pressure thrust decreases
4. Thrust increases.
5. Pressure thrust increases.
6. EGT increases
7. EGT decreases
8. Thrust decreases.
a. 1, 3, 4 and 6
b. 2, 4, 5 and 6
c. 8, 1, 5 and 7
d. 6, 5, 4 and 1*
1989. On a turbojet aircraft which of the following statements would be correct with the introduction of water
into the combustion chamber?
a. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, and is prevented from exceeding its limitations due to a
pressure sensor at the high pressure outlet.*
b. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a pressure sensor at the combustion chamber outlet.
c. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a pressure sensor in the exhaust.
d. Power can be augmented above100% due to the denser mixture impinging on the turbine, which consequently
drives the compressor quicker.
1990. In a turboprop aircraft with water methanol injection in the combustion chamber, which of the following
statements would be correct?
a. SHP can be re-established up to 100% only, when operating in warmer climates.
b. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining the RPM and increasing the blade angle.*
c. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by increasing RPM and decreasing the blade angle.
d. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining RPM and decreasing the blade angle.
1991. Water Methanol is injected into an engine so that the combustion chamber inlet temperature is reduced
and there is:
a. A substantial power decrease.
b. A substantial power increase with no increase in fuel flow.*
c. A substantial power increase which is due solely to the combustion of methanol.
d. An increase in power output solely due to the increased fuel flow, since methanol does not burn.
1992. When methanol is added to a water injection system:

a. It is an important source of fuel.
b. It is an anti-freeze.
c. It is an important source of fuel and an anti-freeze.*
d. The temperature of combustion remains the same.
1993. Water injection is used for take off:

a. To cool the combustion chambers.
b. To cool the turbine blades.
c. Only at high altitude airfields where the prevailing temperature is high.*
d. At airfields with an ambient temperature above 30°F
1994. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:
a. Over stressing of the gear oleos.
b. Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects.*
c. More fuel to be provided to the burners.
d. The T.G.T. limit to be exceeded, in which case the reverse thrust lever will return to the forward thrust position.
1995. A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by:

a. Reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor.
b. Deflecting the exhaust gases.
c. Blocking the by-pass air.*
d. Reversing the hot stream gases.
1996. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be:
a. Pulled back to idle power.*
b. Positioned to reverse minimum power.
c. Put back to the reverser deploy position.
d. Positioned to reverse maximum power.
1997. An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to:

a. Direct the gas flow rearwards.
b. Block the flow of exhaust gas.
c. Absorb any change in thrust.
d. Change the direction of the exhaust gas.*
1998. A Reverse Thrust Warning Light illuminates:

a. Only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the reverse thrust position.
b. When the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust position.
c. When the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust position.*
d. Whenever reverse thrust is selected.
1999. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase in RPM, which of the following statements
would be incorrect?
a. Forward thrust from the hot gases would increase.
b. Forward thrust from the hot gases would decrease.*
c. Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increase.
d. TGT will increase.
2000. The effect of modifying a Gas Turbine engine to include one further hydraulic pump will result in:
a. Increase in specific fuel consumption.*
b. Decrease in specific fuel consumption.
c. Decrease in RPM.
d. Increase in EGT.
2001. The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is normally taken from.
a. LP fan.
b. Intermediate compressor.
c. HP compressor.*
d. HP turbine.
2002. The low energy ignition system would be used:

a. Only for starting the engine on the ground.
b. During take off from wet runways.*
c. For re-light at high altitude.
d. During a blow out (motoring over) cycle.
2003. A typical APU can provide:

a. Air for air conditioning on the ground.
b. Air for engine starting.
c. Electrical power for ground or in flight use.
d. All of the above.*
2004. The advantage of an air starter system is that:

a. It is safer in operation than other systems, and no fire risk.
b. It is light, simple and economical.*
c. It provides a more rapid start.
d. It is totally self contained and needs no external source of power.
2005. A “Hung Start” is indicated by:

a. High E.G.T. - high fuel flow - low R.P.M.
b. Low E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M.
c. Low E.G.T. - high fuel flow - high R.P.M.
d. High E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M.*
2006. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up within the specified time:
a. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut.
b. The fuel system must be drained.
c. No further attempt to start may be made until the fuel has evaporated.
d. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut and no igniters selected.*
2007. A Re-light is:

a. The action of re-starting a flamed out engine, usually while airborne.*
b. What occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open.
c. The initiation of the after-burning system.
d. What must be prevented after a “wet start”.
2008. Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

a. Flight through heavy tropical rainstorm.*
b. Ground running.
c. Flight through sandy conditions.
d. Flight through very dry air.
2009. A “Hung Start” occurs when:

a. The engine accelerates but does not light up.
b. The engine stabilises above self sustaining speed.
c. The engine lights up but does not accelerate to self sustaining speed.*
d. There is a double igniter failure.
2010. After engine start, the engine igniters are normally deactivated by:
a. An electric interlock system.
b. A speed switch.*
c. The time switch.
d. Centrifugal force.
2011. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

a. The failure of the engine to turn and no T.G.T.
b. Low R.P.M. fuel flow indication, and no T.G.T.*
c. T.G.T. increasing but no R.P.M.
d. No R.P.M. and no T.G.T.
2012. The term “Self Sustaining Speed” means that:

a. The aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the throttles.
b. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to full power within 5 seconds.
c. The engine will run independently of external help.
d. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle without the help of the starter motor.*
2013. A high energy ignition system works on the principle of:

a. Obtaining power from a step up transformer from the aircraft’s A.C. power system.
b. Magneto static induction.
c. Fleming’s Right Hand Rule.
d. Obtaining energy from the discharge of a capacitor.*
2014. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut off valve during the engine start:
a. The compressor must be turning at the correct RPM in the right direction.*
b. The Low-Pressure compressor must be stationary.
c. The Low Pressure fuel cock must be shut.
d. The Low Pressure compressor must be rotating faster than the High-Pressure compressor.
2015. A gas turbine engine which has both high and low energy ignition systems uses the high energy system for
(i), and the low energy system for (ii):
(i) (ii)
a. Engine starting High altitude relighting
b. High altitude relighting Take off from contaminated runways*
c. Take off from snowy runways Engine start
d. Take off from flooded runways Take off from snowy runways.
2016. The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from:
a. An external installation.
b. Storage bottles carried in the aircraft.
c. The auxiliary power unit.*
d. A cross bleed start.
2017. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the discharge resistors:

a. Allow sufficient energy to be stored in the capacitor to provide re-light facilities up to 55 000 ft.
b. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c. Allow the capacitor to discharge when the unit is switched off.*
d. Prolong the discharge.
2018. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the choke:

a. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
b. Prolongs the discharge to the plug.*
c. Prolongs the life of the igniter
d. Protects the unit from excessive current.
2019. The rate of discharge of a High Energy Ignition Unit is:

a. 60-100 times per minute.*
b. 4 discharges per revolution.
c. 60 - 100 per second.
d. Governed by the resistance of the igniter plug.
2020. The air supply for an air start system is:

a. At a relatively low pressure, but high volume.*
b. Filtered to prevent damage to the starter motor.
c. Preheated to avoid icing in the starter nozzle guide vanes.
d. At a high pressure but low volume.
2021. The starter motor is disengaged from the engine start system:
a. As soon as the engine lights up.
b. Just above self-sustaining speed.*
c. At 26% H.P. R.P.M.
d. Just below self-sustaining speed.
2022. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber is:
a. Low volts high current
b. Low volts low current
c. High volts low current
d. High volts high current*
2023. In a twin spool engine self-sustaining speed is normally reached at:

a. 60% N2
b. 60% N1
c. 30% N2*
d. 30% N1
2024. In a twin spool engine the typical idle speeds are:

a. 60% N2 25% N1*
b. 25% N2 60% N1
c. 40% N2 30% N1
d. 80% N2 45% N1
2025. Which of the following statements would be more correct with regard to an APU?
a. APU’s provide emergency hydraulics power for the brakes only.
b. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground use only.
c. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for air use only and can provide an amount of thrust.
d. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground and air use and can provide an amount of
thrust.*
2026. In the event of a fire in an APU:

a. Will need to be shut down immediately.
b. Will shut down immediately.
c. Will shut down immediately and if the fire persists the fire bottles will automatically be fired.*
d. Will need to be shut down immediately and the fire bottles will be required to be fired immediately.
2027. Which of the following would result in an automatic shut down of an APU?
1. overspeed of compressor
2. over-temp of lubrication system
3. turbine over-temp
4. combustion chamber over-temp
5. Compressor outlet pressure exceeded
6. low pressure of lubrication system
a. 1, 2, 3 and 6*
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6
c. 2, 3, 5 and 6
d. 2, 3, 4 and 6
2028. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide:

a. Emergency hydraulic power for the flaps and slats only.
b. Emergency hydraulic power for the undercarriage.
c. Emergency hydraulic power for the elevator, rudder and ailerons along with possible emergency electrical
power.*
d. Emergency hydraulic power for the brakes along with possible emergency electrical power.
2029. The power to start an APU comes from:

a. Ground power unit.
b. Aircraft main DC battery.*
c. Aircraft main engine generator.
d. Aircraft main AC battery.
2030. Water in the fuel tanks is:

a. Added with FS11 when refuelling.
b. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the engine.
c. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the vent system.*
d. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the feeder box.
2031. Water in the fuel tank is removed:
a. Via a drain valve at the lowest point in the tank.*
b. Via a drain tank at the base of the engine.
c. Via a scoop at the top of the tank.
d. Every major servicing only.
2032. The flash point of Avtur is:

a. -38.7°C
b. 38.7°C*
c. -40°C
d. -20°C
2033. When using which of the following fuels can refuelling be carried out with passengers on board?
a. Avtag
b. Jet B
c. Wide cut
d. Jet A1*
2034. With an increase in altitude the boiling point of fuel will:

a. Stay the same.
b. Increase
c. Decrease.*
d. Increase up to FL80 then remain the same.
2035. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurised:

a. By air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation.
b. By air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation.
c. By ram air to prevent cavitation.*
d. By ram air to stabilise the boiling point.
2036. Fuel is heated from which of the following?

a. Air conditioning air.
b. Air from the compressor.*
c. Air from the Bootstrap.
d. Air from the turbine.
2037. Fuel is heated to:

a. Prevent waxing.*
b. Ensure vapour losses are minimised.
c. Make it more viscous.
d. Make it easier to flow under all conditions.
2038. Fuel booster pumps are situated in:

a. The fuel tanks.*
b. In the line between the main fuel tanks and the engine.
c. Low pressure side of the engine.
d. High-pressure side of the engine.
2039. In a fuel cooled oil cooler the________ is maintained________ than the ____________.
a. Fuel pressure higher oil pressure
b. Oil pressure lower fuel
c. Fuel pressure same oil pressure
d. Oil pressure higher fuel pressure*
2040. In a high by pass engine fuel pumps are driven by:

a. High pressure turbine.
b. High pressure compressor.*
c. Low pressure compressor.
d. Intermediate compressor.
2041. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its maximum value would be:
a. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU reduce fuel, reduce RPM.*
b. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU increase fuel, increase RPM.
c. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU). Bleed valve open, bleed off excess volume of air.
d. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU). Bleed valve open, bleed off excess pressure.
2042. Which of the following is a normal stopping device for a gas turbine?
a. LP shut off valve close.
b. Fuel tank booster pumps select off.
c. HP shut off valve close.*
d. Isolate electrics from engine.
2043. Which of the following is a correct statement?

a. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is closed by a pressure operated NRV.*
b. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drains tank is opened by a pressure operated NRV.
c. When the engine is shut down the drains tank closes to minimise fuel losses.
d. When the engine is shut down, residual fuel is syphoned directly back to the fuel tanks to minimise fuel losses.
2044. The fuel flow-meter is situated:

a. Between LP pump and the FCOC.
b. Between LP pump and HP pump.
c. Just after FCU.
d. Between HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles.*
2045. An overheat in the turbine will result in:

a. An electrical signal from the thermocouple sent directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced.
b. An electrical signal from the thermocouple amplified then sent directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced.*
c. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently throttling back the engine, therefore reducing
fuel.
d. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently increasing RPM to increase airflow, to
increase cooling air, to decrease turbine temperature.
2046. Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster pumps feeding the engine cease to work:
a. The engine would close down immediately.
b. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure
and low boiling point of the fuel.*
c. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure
and higher boiling point of the fuel.
d. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the higher pressure
and higher boiling point of the fuel.
2047. The fuel cooled oil cooler:

a. Heats the oil and cools the fuel.
b. Heats the fuel only.
c. Cools the oil only.
d. Heats the fuel and cools the oil.*
2048. An inter-stage air seal is used where:

a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.*
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same value.
c. It is more convenient.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.
2049. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:

a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
d. The engine to be shut down.*
2050. Turbine blades are cooled by:

a. H.P. compressor air internally ducted through the blades.*
b. H.P. air tapped from the combustion chambers.
c. Air ducted from just before the intake guide vanes.
d. Intermediate pressure air taken from the bleed valves.
2051. Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by:

a. The bleed valves.
b. The turbine stages.
c. The compressor.*
d. The combustion chambers.
2052. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its mechanical design and:
a. The fuel pressure.
b. Compressor bleed air pressure.*
c. The engine compression ratio.
d. The engine oil pressure.
2053. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’ while maintaining thrust will:
a. Decrease fuel consumption.
b. Decrease specific fuel consumption.
c. Increase specific fuel consumption.*
d. Specific fuel consumption will remain the same.
2054. Which of the following ice removal methods does a modern jet aircraft normally utilize?
a. Hot air.*
b. Rubber boots.
c. Electrical thermal blankets.
d. FPD freezing point depressant fluid.
2055. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’ will have what effect?
a. EGT will decrease.
b. EGT will increase.*
c. EGT will remain the same.
d. The ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure will increase.
2056. The air obtained from the engine for air conditioning is essentially:
a. High pressure low volume
b. High pressure high volume
c. Low pressure low volume
d. Low pressure high volume*
DC, (Oxford) AC, Radio: (KW)
2057. All effects of electricity take place because of the existence of a tiny particle called the:
a. electric.
b. proton.
c. neutron.
d. electron.*
2058. The nucleus of an atom is:

a. positively charged.*
b. negatively charged.
c. statically charged.
d. of zero potential.
2059. An atom is electrically balanced when:

a. its protons and electrons balance each other.*
b. the protons outnumber the electrons.
c. the electrons outnumber the protons.
d. the electric and static charges are balanced.
2060. The electrons of an atom are:

a. positively charged.
b. neutral.
c. negatively charged.*
d. of zero potential.
2061. A material with a deficiency of electrons becomes:

a. positively charged.*
b. negatively charged.
c. isolated.
d. overheated.
2062. A material with a surplus of electrons becomes:

a. positively charged.
b. negatively charged.*
c. over charged.
d. saturated.
2063. Heat produces an electric charge when:

a. like poles are joined.
b. a hard and soft glass is heated.
c. the junction of two unlike metals is heated.*
d. hard and soft material are rubbed together.
2064. Friction causes:

a. mobile electricity.
b. basic electricity.
c. static electricity.*
d. wild electricity.
2065. Chemical action produces electricity in:

a. a light meter.
b. a generator.
c. a primary cell.*
d. starter generator.
2066. A photo electric cell produces electricity when:

a. two metals are heated.
b. exposed to a light source.*
c. a light source is removed.
d. exposed to the heat of the sun.
2067. The difference in electric potential is measured in:

a. KVAR’s
b. watts
c. amps
d. volts*
2068. The units of electrical power is measured in:

a. watts*
b. amperes
c. ohms
d. volts
2069. The unit measurement of electrical resistance is:

a. the volt
b. the watt
c. the ohm*
d. the ampere
2070. An ammeter measures:

a. current*
b. power dissipation
c. differences of electrical potential
d. heat energy
2071. Materials containing ‘free electrons’ are called:

a. insulators
b. resistors
c. collectors
d. conductors*
2072. The unit used for measuring the E.M.F. of electricity is:
a. the ohm
b. the ampere
c. the volt*
d. the watt
2073. The unit used for measuring:

a. current - is the volt.
b. resistance - is the ohm.*
c. electric power is the capacitor.
d. E.M.F. - is the amp.
2074. Three resistors of 60 ohms each in parallel give a total resistance of:
a. 180 ohms
b. 40 ohms
c. 30 ohms
d. 20 ohms*
2075. A voltmeter measures:
a. electro-motive force.*
b. the heat loss in a series circuit.
c. the current flow in a circuit.
d. the resistance provided by the trimming devices.
2076. Watts =
a. resistance squared x amps
b. volts x ohms
c. ohms x amps
d. volts x amps*
2077. The total resistance of a number of power consumer devices connected in series is:
a. the addition of the individual resistances.
b. the addition of the reciprocals of the individual resistance.
c. twice the reciprocal of the individual resistances.*
d. the reciprocal of the total.
2078. In a circuit fitted with a non trip free circuit breaker if a fault occurs and persists:
a. if the reset button is depressed and held in, the circuit will be made.*
b. the trip button may be pressed to reset, but not permanently.
c. a non trip free circuit breaker can never be by-passed.
d. the reset button may be pressed to make the circuit permanent.
2079. A trip-free circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:

a. can be reset and held in during rectification.
b. can never be reset.
c. can be reset after overhaul.
d. maybe reset manually after fault has been cleared.*
2080. Circuit breakers and fuses

a. are used in DC circuits only
b. are used in AC or DC circuits
c. are used in AC circuits only*
d. are used in low current circuits only
2081. A trip-free circuit breaker is one which:

a. cannot be reset by holding the lever in while the fault persists.*
b. can be reset by holding the lever in while the fault persists.
c. must be held in during checks to find faults.
d. can be by passed.
2082. If the reset button is pressed in the trip-free circuit breaker, the contacts with the fault cleared will:
a. be made and kept made.*
b. only be made if there is a fuse in the circuit.
c. reset itself only after a delay of 20 seconds.
d. not be made and the reset will remain inoperative.
2083. A circuit breaker is a device for:

a. controlling rotor movement only.
b. isolating the service on overload.*
c. isolating the battery when using the ground batteries.
d. earthing the magnetos when switching off.
2084. A non-trip free circuit breaker is:
a. one which can make a circuit in flight by pushing a button.*
b. a wire placed in a conductor which melts under overload.
c. another type of voltage regulator.
d. an on-off type tumbler switch.
2085. A non-trip-free circuit breaker that has tripped due to overload:

a. can never be reset.
b. can only be reset on the ground by a maintenance engineer.
c. can be reset and held in if necessary.
d. cannot be reset while the fault is still there.*
2086. A thermal circuit breaker works on the principle of:

a. differential expansion of metals.*
b. differential thickness of metals.
c. differential density of metals.
d. differential pressure of metals.
2087. Circuit breakers are fitted in:

a. series with the load.*
b. parallel with the load.
c. across the load.
d. shunt with the load.
2088. A fuse is said to have blown when:

a. an excess current has burst the outer cover and disconnected the circuit from the supply.
b. the circuit is reconnected.
c. a current of a higher value than the fuse rating has melted the conductor and disconnected the circuit from the
supply.*
d. the amperage has been sufficiently high to cause the fuse to trip out of its holder and has therefore,
disconnected the circuit from the supply.
2089. In a fused circuit the fuse is:

a. in parallel with the load.
b. in series with the load.*
c. in the conductor between generator and regulator.
d. only fitted when loads are in series.
2090. Overloading an electrical circuit causes the fuse to ‘Blow’. This:

a. increases the weight of the insulation.
b. fractures the fuse case.
c. disconnects the fuse from its holder.
d. melts the fuse wire.*
2091. What must be checked before replacing a fuse:

a. the ohms of the circuit.
b. the amps being used in the circuit.
c. the amps capacity of the consuming device in the circuit.*
d. the correct fuse volt or watts rating.
2092. The size of fuse required for an electrical circuit whose power is 72 watts and whose voltage is 24 volts is:
a. 24 amps
b. 10 amps
c. 5 amps*
d. 15 amps
2093. When selecting a fuse for an aircraft circuit the governing factor is:
a. the voltage of the circuit.
b. cable cross sectional area.
c. resistance of the circuit.
d. power requirements of the circuit.*
2094. A fuse in an electrical circuit is ‘Blown’ by:

a. cooler air.
b. the breaking of the glass tube.
c. excess voltage breaking the fuse wire.
d. excess current rupturing the fuse wire.*
2095. A fuse is used to protect an electrical circuit, it is:

a. of low melting point.*
b. of high capacity.
c. of high melting point.
d. of low resistance.
2096. Fuses:
a. protect the load.
b. protect the cable.
c. protect the generator.
d. protect both the circuit cable and load.*
2097. A current limiter:

a. is a fuse with a low melting point.
b. is a circuit breaker.
c. is a fuse with a high melting point.*
d. is a fuse enclosed in a quartz or sand.
2098. Battery voltage is tested with:

a. a megometer.
b. a voltmeter on rated load.*
c. an ammeter with a rated voltage.
d. a hygrometer.
2099. Two 12V 40 amp/hour batteries connected in series will produce:

a. 12V 80 amp/hr
b. 12V 20 amp/hr
c. 24V 80 amp/hr
d. 24V 40 amp/hr*
2100. Two 12V 40 amp/hour batteries connected in parallel will produce:

a. 12V 80 amp/hr*
b. 24V 80 amp/hr
c. 12V 20 amp/hr
d. 24V 40 amp/hr
2101. A battery capacity test is carried out:

a. 6 monthly
b. 2 monthly
c. 3 monthly*
d. every minor check
2102. An aircraft has three batteries each of 12 volts with 40 amp/hr capacity connected in series. The resultant
unit has:
a. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 120 amp/hr.
b. a capacity of 120 amp/hr and a voltage of 12.
c. a capacity of 36 amp/hr and 120 watts.
d. a voltage of 36 and a capacity of 40 amp/hr.*
2103. An aircraft has a battery with a capacity of 40 amp/hr. Assuming that it will provide its normal capacity and
is discharged at the 10 hour rate:
a. it will pass 40 amps for 10 hrs.
b. it will pass 10 amps for 4 hrs.
c. it will pass 4 amps for 10 hrs.*
d. it will pass 40 amps for 1 hr.
2104. Battery capacity percentage efficiency must always be:

a. 10% above saturation level
b. above 70%
c. above 80%*
d. above 90%
2105. The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by checking:
a. the voltage on open circuit.
b. the current flow with a rated voltage charge.
c. the voltage off load.
d. the voltage with rated load switched ON.*
2106. A battery is checked for serviceability by:

a. using an ammeter.
b. measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.*
c. a boric acid solution.
d. using an ohmmeter.
2107. In an AC circuit:
a. the battery is connected in series.
b. a battery cannot be used because the wire is too thick.
c. a battery cannot be used because it is DC.*
d. only NICAD batteries can be used.
2108. The specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid cell is:
a. 1.270*
b. 1.090
c. 1.120
d. 0.1270
2109. The nominal voltage of the lead acid cell is:

a. 1.2 volts
b. 1.5 volts
c. 1.8 volts
d. 2.0 volts*
2110. A lead acid battery voltage should be checked:

a. on open circuit
b. using a trimmer circuit
c. with an ammeter
d. on load*
2111. In an aircraft having a battery of 24 volts nominal ( off load. and fully charged the voltmeter would read:
a. 22 volts
b. 24 volts
c. 26 volts*
d. 28 volts
2112. The system used to maintain aircraft batteries in a high state of charge is the:
a. constant current system.
b. constant load system.
c. constant resistance system.
d. constant voltage system.*
2113. If you connect two identical batteries in series it will:

a. double the volts and halve the capacity.
b. reduce the voltage by 50%.
c. double the volts and leave the capacity the same.*
d. double the volts and double the amps flowing in a circuit with twice the resistance.
2114. The nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is:

a. 2.2 volts
b. 1.8 volts
c. 1.2 volts*
d. 0.12 volts
2115. The specific gravity of a fully charged alkaline cell is:

a. 0.120 - 0.130
b. 1.160
c. 1.240 - 1.30*
d. 1.800
2116. The electrolyte used in the lead acid cell is diluted:

a. hydrochloric acid.
b. sulphuric acid.*
c. boric acid.
d. potassium hydroxide.
2117. The electrolyte used in an alkaline battery is diluted:

a. a saline solution.
b. sulphuric acid.
c. cadmium and distilled water.
d. potassium hydroxide solution.*
2118. The number of lead acid cells required to make up a Twelve Volt Battery is:
a. 8
b. 12
c. 6*
d. 10
2119. A Voltmeter across the terminals of a battery with all services off will indicate:
a. electromotive force.*
b. resistance.
c. a flat battery.
d. residual voltage.
2120. The voltage of a secondary cell is:
a. determined by the number of plates.
b. determined by the area of the plates.
c. determined by the diameter of the main terminals.
d. determined by the active materials on the plates.*
2121. The level of the electrolyte must be maintained:

a. just below the top plate.
b. above the plates level with the filler cap.
c. one inch below the top of the plates.
d. just above the top of the plates.*
2122. To top up the electrolyte add:

a. sulphuric acid.
b. distilled water.*
c. sulphuric acid diluted with distilled water.
d. boric acid.
2123. Non-spill vents are used on aircraft batteries to:

a. prevent spillage of electrolyte during violent manoeuvres.*
b. stop spillage of the water only.
c. prevent the escape of gases.
d. prevent spillage during topping-up.
2124. The capacity of a lead acid battery is:

a. determined by the area of the plates.*
b. determined by the active materials on the plates.
c. determined by the size of the series coupling bars.
d. determined by the number of separators.
2125. Acid spillage in an aircraft can be neutralised by using:

a. caustic soda.
b. soap and water.
c. soda and water.
d. bicarbonate of soda and water.*
2126. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight:

a. the generators are disconnected from the bus bar.
b. the ammeter reads maximum.
c. the battery is isolated from the bus bar.*
d. the battery is discharged through the bonding circuit diodes.
2127. When the generator is on line the battery is:

a. in parallel with the other loads.*
b. in series with the generator.
c. in series when the generator is on line and is relayed when the generator is off line.
d. load sharing.
2128. The area of force around a magnet is termed:

a. conductance.
b. stable.
c. magnetic resistance.
d. magnetic field.*
2129. When a magnet is unable to accept any further magnetism it is termed:

a. reluctance.
b. saturation.*
c. active.
d. reactance.
2130. Permanent magnets are manufactured from:

a. steel.*
b. plastic.
c. liquid.
d. glass.
2131. Magnetic lines of force flow externally from:

a. one main line station to another.
b. the master station.
c. the north to the south pole.*
d. in a random direction.
2132. Which of the two poles has the greatest strength:

a. north seeking pole.
b. south seeking pole
c. both poles have the same strength.*
d. the saturated pole.
2133. Electromagnetism is a product of:

a. voltage.
b. current.*
c. resistance.
d. engine resistance.
2134. To increase electromagnetic force one would:

a. increase coil resistance.
b. reduce current flow.
c. lower EMF.
d. increase current flow.*
2135. If you bring two magnets together:

a. like poles will attract.
b. unlike poles will attract.*
c. over heating will occur.
d. their magnetic fields will adjust to avoid overcrowding.
2136. A soft iron core in an electromagnet:

a. increases flux density.*
b. decreases flux density.
c. reduces arcing.
d. increases the lines of strength.
2137. An EMF is induced in a conductor rotating in a magnetic field by:

a. capacitive reaction.
b. the reverse current relay.
c. electro transmission.
d. electro magnetic induction.*
2138. Magnetic field strength is controlled by:

a. battery bus bar current.
b. current in the field coil.*
c. current in the armature.
d. current flow to the battery.
2139. If a conductor is placed in a magnetic field:

a. an EMF is induced in the conductor.
b. an EMF is induced in the conductor only when the conductor rotates.*
c. the applied resistance assists the back EMF.
d. an EMF is induced in the conductor only when the conductor is stationary.
2140. The output of a basic generator before commutation is:

a. AC*
b. DC and after commutation is AC.
c. DC
d. synchronised AC and DC.
2141. An internally excited generator is one where:

a. the field is produced within the distribution.
b. the field is initiated by a HT and LT coil.
c. the field is initiated by the battery.
d. the field is initiated within the generator.*
2142. A DC generator has a commutator whose purpose is to:

a. change AC to give a generator output of DC.*
b. change DC to AC.
c. transmit the generator output to the electrical circuit and to cool the generator.
d. maintain a constant resistance.
2143. Another name for a number of conductors rotating in a magnetic field is:
a. a capacitor.
b. an armature.*
c. a condenser.
d. a commutator.
2144. A generator is governed so that:

a. the EMF is constant and the rate of flow varies.*
b. the rate of flow is constant and the EMF varies.
c. the generator voltage reduces generator temperature.
d. back EMF is equal and opposite to the applied EMF.
2145. The voltage regulator:

a. senses cut out pressure and adjusts field current.
b. senses generator output pressure and adjusts field current.*
c. senses generator output current and adjusts the field voltage.
d. senses back EMF.
2146. The generator master switch is normally:

a. fitted with a mechanical safety catch.
b. in the field circuit which is connected in parallel with the generator output.*
c. in the field circuit which is in parallel with the voltage regulator.
d. fitted in series with the commutator.
2147. The voltage regulator:

a. provides a constant current flow from the generator with changes of generator speed.
b. senses current output.
c. maintains a steady generator voltage with changes of generator speed.*
d. regulates the amount of current supplied by the battery to operate the generator.
2148. Voltage is controlled in a generator by:

a. a reverse current relay.
b. moving the brushes.
c. a voltage regulator.*
d. it is uncontrollable.
2149. On aircraft, generator voltage is regulated by:

a. varying the generator field strength.*
b. increasing and decreasing the load.
c. changing the generator speed.
d. changing generator load.
2150. In an aircraft having a battery with a nominal voltage of 24v, generator output would be:
a. 24 volts.
b. 28amps.
c. 28 volts.*
d. 24 amps.
2151. In DC electrical generating systems, the voltage regulator controls the system voltage within prescribed
limits:
a. regardless of varying engine RPM and electrical load, by varying the current in the generator field windings.*
b. by means of a relay which closes contacts in the output line when a certain RPM is reached.
c. by temperature.
d. by a variable resistance which limits the voltage given by the batteries.
2152. A voltage regulator is fitted to:

a. prevent high circulating currents.
b. prevent backlash.
c. to ensure correct voltage output to battery.*
d. to prevent battery feedback to the generator.
2153. If an aircraft electrical system is quoted as 24 volts DC the output of the generator is:
a. 12 volts with the generators connected in series.
b. 28 volts with the generators connected in parallel.*
c. 36 volts with the generators connected in series/parallel.
d. 42 volts.
2154. If a circuit is designed for 12 volts - the generator will:

a. give parallelled output only.
b. give controlled 14 volts.*
c. 14 volts wild DC.
d. give controlled 12 volts.
2155. The aircraft electrical generator output is controlled in flight by:

a. sensing the generator output pressure.*
b. ram air.
c. a resistance in the generator output circuit.
d. the resistance of the armature circuit.
2156. In a generator control circuit the strength of the magnetic field is controlled by:
a. the commutator.
b. the voltage regulator*
c. the reverse current contactor.
d. the output C/B.
2157. Rotary actuators are used for:

a. undercarriage retraction.
b. centre of gravity assessment.
c. operation of fuel cocks.*
d. movement of control surfaces.
2158. Actuator normal travel is controlled by:

a. a clutch.
b. limit micro switches.*
c. mechanical indicators.
d. mechanical stops.
2159. AC current from an engine driven generator is converted to DC current by:

a. a commutator*
b. a convertor.
c. an alternator.
d. a rotary actuator.
2160. On a twin engined DC aircraft having two DC generators load sharing is achieved by:
a. equalising engine RPM’s
b. an equalising circuit to sense the difference and equalise the voltages of the two generators*
c. synchronising relays and voltage coil tuners
d. an equalising circuit to sense the difference and equalise the field currents of the two generators
2161. Pilots are informed of rotary actuator positions by:

a. non return valves.
b. lights or dolls eye indicators.*
c. travel indicators.
d. veger counters.
2162. To supply direct current from a generator giving alternating current it is normal to fit:
a. a commutator*
b. a rotary inverter.
c. an alternator.
d. a static inverter.
2163. Press to test lights are used:

a. to indicate to the pilot that the circuit has power and is complete.*
b. to control the movement of a rotary actuator.
c. to indicate to the pilot that the circuit has operated.
d. only to indicate to the pilot that the equipment has malfunctioned.
2164. A device for changing AC to DC is:

a. an inverter.
b. a rotary transformer.
c. a rectifier.*
d. an alternator.
2165. An inching control is used in conjunction with:

a. a linear actuator.*
b. a rotary actuator.
c. a combination of linear and rotary actuator.
d. a rectifier.
2166. Friction clutches are fitted to actuators for:

a. protection against mechanical overload.*
b. protection against brake on loads.
c. protection against non return valve failure.
d. protection against supply failures.
2167. In an electrical circuit the reverse current cut-out relay will open:
a. when battery voltage exceeds generator voltage.*
b. when circuit voltage is less than generator voltage.
c. when the main output C/B is reset.
d. when the batteries are flat.
2168. A generator cut-out is provided:

a. to prevent the battery over heating.
b. to prevent the battery from being overcharged.
c. to allow the generator to be isolated in a crash.
d. to prevent discharge of the battery through the generator.*
2169. A generator cut-out will open when:

a. circuit loads equal the battery voltage.
b. the air temperature reaches 45 C.
c. circuit loads equal the generator voltage.
d. generator voltage falls below battery voltage.*
2170. A generator cut-out is fitted to prevent:

a. the battery discharging through the generator windings.*
b. the generator overcharging the battery.
c. fire in the event of overloading the system.
d. out of phasing.
2171. In the event of the cut-out points sticking in the closed position, the most probable results, when the engine
stopped would be:
a. gain of engine power.
b. a burnt out generator.*
c. loss of residual magnetism.
d. no apparent reaction.
2172. To prevent circulating currents when more than one generator is being connected to the same bus bar:
a. reverse current relays are fitted.
b. the generators are connected in series.
c. rectifiers are fitted.
d. differential cut-outs are used.*
2173. A generator cut-out is fitted:

a. in series with the generator output.*
b. in the diode circuit.
c. in parallel with the generator output.
d. in the field circuit.
2174. On a 28 volt system with a 24 volt battery the cut-out contacts close at approximately:
a. 36 volts.
b. 24 volts.
c. 28 volts.
d. 26 volts.*
2175. A component whose job is similar to a generator cut out is:

a. a rectifier.
b. a converter.
c. an inverter.
d. a reverse current relay.*
2176. If the cut-out is open, the battery is feeding the loads which are:
a. in series with the battery.
b. in parallel with the battery.*
c. in sequence with the cut-out.
d. cross coupled.
2177. In a two engine aircraft with two generators, there would be:
a. one ammeter for each generator and one voltmeter switchable to indicate either generator voltage or battery
voltage.*
b. one voltmeter for each generator. and one ammeter switchable to indicate either generator current or battery
current.
c. one ammeter showing the total output and one switchable voltmeter .
d. one ammeter and one voltmeter each showing the average current and voltage output.
2178. A generator converts mechanical energy to electrical by:

a. electro magnetic spring action.
b. electro magnetic induction.*
c. electrostatic induction.
d. electro dynamic induction.
2179. In an aircraft electrical system which incorporates a voltmeter, the voltmeter indicates:
a. the flow in the electrical system before the battery cut-out contacts close.
b. the rate of flow at all times.
c. the pressure in the electrical system before and after the cut-out contacts close.*
d. the flow in the electrical system after the battery cut-out contacts close.
2180. If the generator warning light comes on in flight it indicates that:

a. the generator is feeding the battery bus bar.
b. the generator is not feeding the battery bus bar.*
c. the battery has failed.
d. a rectifier is faulty.
2181. A generator failure is usually indicated by:

a. the ammeter reading decreasing or showing a discharge and a red warning lamp lighting. *
b. the voltmeter reading increasing, the ammeter reading showing discharge and a red lamp lighting.
c. the current consuming devices failing to operate.
d. the motor speed increasing.
2182. A generator warning light will be illuminated:

a. when the battery voltage exceeds that of the generator and the cut-out has opened.*
b. at night only.
c. when the generator is supplying current to a fully charged battery, and no electrical loads are switched on.
d. when the battery charge current is lower than required to maintain its fully charged state.
2183. If a generator fails in flight:

a. the voltmeter will read maximum.
b. the ammeter reading will decrease.*
c. load sharing circuits will operate.
d. the watt metre will show a increase.
2184. If one generator fails you should:

a. switch off the good generator.
b. stop and feather the engine concerned.
c. switch off the failed generator and continue normal use of the electrical system.
d. switch off the failed generator, and cut down on the electrical services being used.*
2185. A generator is brought ‘on the line’ when it is:

a. connected in series with other generators.
b. switched into the electrical circuit in parallel with the other generators.*
c. connected with the ground batteries for starting.
d. connected to a phase reducer.
2186. In a twin engine aircraft, fitted with two generators, if one should fail:
a. the failed generator must be isolated.*
b. cut down the air supply to reduce five risks.
c. the failed generator must be stopped.
d. both generators must be switched off.
2187. A generator is brought ‘on line’ via the battery cut-out by an increase in:
a. the battery voltage.
b. the radio by pass switch.
c. the generator voltage.*
d. the generator field voltage.
2188. Generator failure is indicted by:

a. load sharing circuits connecting.
b. a decrease or discharge in ammeter readings and generator warning light on.*
c. an increase in voltmeter readings, a discharge in ammeter reading and generator warning light on.
d. failure of electrically driven instruments.
2189. In a twin engine aircraft, with a generator fitted to both engines, the starboard generator fails. Will:
a. the starboard engine cut.
b. the port engine cut.
c. both engines run normally.*
d. the engine with the failed generator will automatically feather.
2190. Loads on a bus bar are:

a. in series with the generator so that the voltage can be reduced.
b. in parallel so the voltage can be varied.
c. in parallel so the current can be reduced.*
d. determined by the cross sectional area of the lead cable.
2191. When the battery master switch is switched off in flight:

a. the generators are disconnected from the bus bar.
b. the battery is isolated from the bus bar.*
c. the battery is discharged through the bonding circuit diodes.
d. the battery may overheat.
2192. A generator is taken ‘off’ line by:

a. the battery switch.
b. operation of the field switch.
c. opening of the cut-out.*
d. removing of all loads.
2193. If the ammeter reads plus 5 amp after engine shut down:
a. some switches have been left ‘on’.
b. the battery is charging.
c. the generator field switch is ‘on’.
d. the ammeter is defective.*
2194. If the ammeter shows ‘no’ charge, yet the battery remains charged. Would you look for:
a. loose battery connections.
b. defective voltage regulator.
c. defective C/B.
d. defective ammeter.*
2195. A field switch in the generator circuit is:

a. kept in the ‘on’ position.
b. connected in the armature circuit.
c. to ‘shut off’ the generator field.*
d. to disconnect the battery.
2196. During flight a malfunction of the generator cut-out would be indicated by:
a. overheating of the battery.
b. the ammeter.*
c. lights going out.
d. the current limiter.
2197. A short circuit in a “single pole” electrical circuit would be caused:

a. by a broken conductor between the source of supply and an item of equipment.
b. by an open circuit between loads in parallel.
c. when wiring between the source of supply and an item of equipment goes down to earth.*
d. by an open circuit between an item of equipment and earth.
2198. In a “2 pole” electrical circuit, a short of the conductors would result in:
a. an item of equipment operating automatically without switches.
b. the component not working.*
c. an increase in voltage.
d. an item of equipment burning out because of a large current flow.
2199. The indicating range of an ammeter can be increased by fitting;

a. A shunt fitted in parallel with the instrument.*
b. A shunt fitted in parallel with the load
c. A shunt fitted in series with the instrument
d. A multiplier fitted in parallel with the instrument
2200. An electrical system which uses the aircraft structure as a return path for current, is known as:
a. a diode pole circuit.
b. an earth return circuit.*
c. a single phase circuit.
d. a dipole circuit.
2201. On a single pole circuit, if the positive conductor is shorted to the aircraft structure:
a. the electrical component will operate.
b. the fuse will blow.*
c. the circuit will be under loaded.
d. the load will only operate at half speed.
2202. In a double pole circuit:
a. the systems polarity will change.
b. the current is supplied by one wire and the current is returned through the aircraft bonding system.
c. the current passes out through one wire and is returned through a second wire.*
d. the current passes out through one wire and is returned via the aircraft’s immune circuit.
2203. In a earth return circuit if the conductor is open circuited:

a. the fuse will blow.
b. the bus bars will overheat.
c. the load will not operate.*
d. the generator will burn out.
2204. A ‘hot bus’ is:

a. the bus bar always connected to the battery*
b. the bus bar that supplies the galley power
c. the bus bar that supplies the essential loads
d. the bus bar that supplies the nom-essential loads
2205. The earth return system of aircraft wiring is that:

a. one lead from the battery and one lead from the component is connected to the aircraft structure.*
b. one lead from the battery is earthed and both leads of the components are earthed.
c. the negative sides of the system are connected direct to the positive side of the battery.
d. rectifiers are cross connected.
2206. A dipole circuit is one where:

a. diode valves are used.
b. three conductors are used.
c. the aircraft structure is used for the earth return.
d. two conductor wires are used.*
2207. Why are static wick dischargers fitted to aircraft:

a. to smooth the generator output.
b. to prevent tyres bursting on landing.
c. to minimise radio interference.*
d. to act as an earth return in a single pole electrical system.
2208. Bonding is used to protect the aircraft against fire from arcing of static electricity by:
a. providing an earth return.
b. shortening the negative strips.
c. maintaining different electrical potential throughout the structure.
d. ensuring the same electrical potential of all metal components.*
2209. Static electricity constitutes a fire hazard because:

a. metal components become very hot and ignite inflammable gases and materials.
b. sparks occur due to differences of potential and could ignite inflammable gases and materials.*
c. of colour charged electrons.
d. aircraft tyres become heavily charged and may burst on landing.
2210. Static electrical charges and currents in an aircraft structure are evened out by:
a. hardening
b. screening
c. bonding*
d. anodizing
2211. The electrical components of aircraft systems are screened to:
a. bond the circuit to reduce risk of fire.
b. prevent them discharging.
c. prevent short circuits in radio equipment.
d. prevent them interfering with the function of radio equipment.*
2212. Bonding is a method of:

a. heat screening.
b. providing a positive reaction.
c. ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at a different potential.
d. ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at the same potential.*
2213. When refuelling an aircraft:

a. the refuelling nozzle must be bonded to the fuel tank.*
b. the bonding plug must be connected to the earth terminal.
c. the continuity between nozzle and hose must be infinity.
d. only use plastic nozzles.
2214. The purpose of electrical bonding on an aircraft is:

a. to prevent compass malfunctioning and accumulation of local static charges.
b. to reduce the anodising effect.
c. to isolate all components electrically and therefore make static potential constant.
d. to provide a low resistance path for earth return circuits and safely dissipate local static charges and lightning
strikes.*
AC KW
2215. When a persistent under-excitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains
with another AC generator, the protection device opens:
a. The generator breaker and the tie breaker.
b. The generator control relay and the generator breaker.
c. The tie breaker.
d. The exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.*
2216. The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in a modern constant frequency alternator is
directly controlled by:
a. The voltage regulator.*
b. An excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.
c. A battery.
d. An AC generator.
2217. A static inverter is powered by:

a. Direct current input, direct current output.
b. Direct current input, alternating current output.*
c. Alternating current input, alternating current output.
d. Alternating current input, alternating current output.
2218. On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main bus bar and
another AC generator, the protection device that opens is/are the:
a. Tie breaker(s).*
b. Generator breaker and the tie breaker.
c. Generator breaker.
d. Exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
2219. The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC generator in flight are:
1. Low oil pressure in the CSD.
2. Slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
3. High oil temperature in the CSD.
4. Excessive variation of voltage and kVAR:
a. 2,3.
b. 1,4.
c. 2,4.
d. 1,3.*
2220. In the event of an AC generator fault, on a twin engine aeroplane, the protection device will open:
a. The exciter control relay and the generator breaker.*
b. The bus tie breaker
c.The generator breaker and the bus tie breaker.
d. The exciter control relay and the generator breaker, and the bus tie breaker.
2221. A constant speed drive (CSD) that has been disconnected in flight:
a. Automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
b. Can be reset only on the ground after engine shutdown.*
c. Can be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
d. Automatically resets itself on engine shutdown.
2222. Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments of an AC busbar, isolation of individual
equipments:
a. Decreases the busbar current consumption.*
b. Increases the busbar voltage.
c. Increases the busbar current consumption.
d. Decreases the busbar voltage.
2223. The static inverter is powered by:

a. Direct current and it produces an alternating current output.*
b. Direct current and it produces a direct current output.
c. Alternating current and it produces an alternating current output.
d. Alternating current and it produces a direct current output.
2224. Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:

a. An alternating current motor.
b. A series wound motor.
c. The use of relays.
d. An inverter.*
2225. When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
a. Voltage regulator.
b. Excitation current.*
c. Frequency or load controller.
d. Torque of the constant speed unit (CSD)
2226. When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the real loads are balanced by means of the:
a. Voltage regulator.
b. Frequency or load controller.
c. Torque of the constant speed unit (CSD)*
d. Excitation current.
2227. Generators when connected to the same busbar are usually connected:
a. In parallel mode.*
b. In series mode.
c. Dependent on the type of engine.
d. Dependent on the type of generator.
2228. In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD)?

1. May be disconnected from the engine shaft.
2. May be disconnected from the generator.
3. Is a hydro-mechanical system.
4. Is an electronic system.
5. May not be disconnected in flight.
6. May be disconnected in flight.
a. 1, 2, 5.
b. 2,3,4.
c. 1,4,5.
d. 1,3,6.*
2229. A static inverter is a?

a. Transistorised unit used to convert DC into AC.*
b. Device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
c. Static discharger.
d. Filter against radio interference.
2230. The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to?

a. Take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
b. Mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
c. Take part in the voltage regulation.
d. Maintain a constant frequency.*
2231. When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated?

1. Its resistance decreases.
2. Its resistance increases.
3. The leakage current increases.
4. The leakage current decreases.
a. 2,3.
b. 1,4.
c. 2,4.
d. 1,3.*
2232. The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is?

a. 1.8 volts.
b. 1.2 volts.
c. 2.2 volts.*
d. 1.4 volts.
2233. It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if?

a. There is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
b. Static noises can be heard on the radio.*
c. A circuit breaker pops out.
d. There is interference on the VOR receiver.
2234. A Yaw Damper is?

a. A rudder damper designed to avoid the "Dutch roll".*
b. An elevator augmentor.
c. An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greaterthan M=0.8.
d. A roll trim tab.
2235. In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the?
a. Pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
b. Pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.*
c. Pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
d. Pilot has to throttle back.
2236. When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the?
a. Frequency.
b. Voltage.
c. Torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
d. Energizing current.*
2237. A relay is?

a. A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
b. An electrical energy conversion unit.
c. An electromagnetic ally operated switch.*
d. An electrical security switch.
2238. In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is?

a. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
b. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.
c. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.*
d. The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
2239. On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power
of the following type?
a. 28 VDC.
b. 115 V DC.
c. 115 V AC.*
d. 28 V AC.
2240. A relay is?

a. A unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
b. A device which is used to increase electrical power.
c. A magnetically operated switch.*
d. Another name for a solenoid valve.
2241. The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are?

1. Simple connection.
2. High starting torque.
3. Flexibility in use.
4. Lighter weight of equipment.
5. Easy to convert into direct current.
6. Easy maintenance of machines.
The combination of correct statements is?
a. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.
b. 1,4,6.
c. 3,4,5,6.*
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
2242. When a persistent over-excitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device opens
the?
a. Tie breaker.
b. Generator breaker and tie breaker.
c. Exciter breaker and generator breaker.*
d. Exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
2243. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which?
a. Must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.
b. Supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.*
c. Is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.
d. Is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
2244. When an under speed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the
protection device opens the?
a. Exciter breaker.
b. Exciter breaker and generator breaker.
c. Exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
d. generator breaker.*
2245. On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by?
a. The stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
b. The auxiliary winding.
c. A set of permanent magnets.*
d. The main field winding.
2246. On detection of a persistent over-voltage fault on an AC generator connected to the . aircraft AC busbars,
the on-board protection device opens?
a. The exciter breaker and the generator breaker.*
b. The exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
c. The generator breaker and tie breaker.
d. The generator breaker.
2247. When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC
generator, the over-excitation protection device opens?
a. The exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.*
b. The tie breaker.
c. The exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
d. The generator breaker.
2248. In an alternator rotor coil you can find?

a. AC.*
b. Three-phase AC.
c. Only induced current.
d. DC.
2249. As regards the Generator Control Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that?
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage.
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure.
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release.
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts up.
a. 2,3.*
b. 3,4.
c. 2,4.
d. 1,3.
2250. A magnetic circuit breaker is?
a. A protection system that has a quick tripping response.*
b. Permits an overcurrent limited in time.
c. Can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
d. Is a system with a slow response time.
2251. The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the?
a. Induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field)
coil.*
b. Induced windings ofthe alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.
c. Alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
d. The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
2252. The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the?
a. Density variation of the fuel.
b. Resistivity variation of the fuel.
c. Electrical resistance change.
d. Dielectric change between fuel and air.*
2253. The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is?

a. To avoid a short circuit.
b. To change DC into AC.*
c. To change the DC voltage.
d. To change AC into DC.
2254. When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay.
The purpose of this delay is to?
a. Delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency.
b. Wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire.
c. Avoid false alarms in case of vibrations.*
d. Allow temperatures to equalize.
2255. Smoke detector systems are installed in the?

a. Engine nacelles.
b. Fuel tanks.
c. Upper cargo compartments (class E).*
d. Wheel wells.
2256. In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay
allows?
a. Power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.*
b. Connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
c. Connection of the ground power truck to its distribution bus bar.
d. Connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.
2257. Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it
can be said that the?
a. Exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
b. Exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.*
c. Exciter control relay opens ..
d. Generator breaker opens.
2258. What is the speed of rotation of a four pole induction motor when it is operating at a frequency of 400 Hz?
a. 1800 RPM.
b. 3400 RPM.
c. 6000 RPM.
d. 12000 RPM.*
2259. The output of an AC generator is rated in?

a. KW and volts.
b. KVAor KW.
c. Volts and amperes.
d. KVA and amps.*
2260. AC Busbar loads are connected?

a. In series so that current is proportional to load.
b. In parallel so that current is proportional to load.*
c. In series so that voltage is proportional to load.
d. In parallel so that voltage is proportional to load.
2261. A busbar is.

a. A common connection to a number of loads.*
b. A common connection for a number of power supplies.
c. An integral part of a generator.
d. Fed by a circuit breaker.
2262. The frequency of the output of an AC generator is determined by?

a. RPM.
b. Number of poles.
c. Field excitation amplitude.
d. Number of poles and RPM.*
2263. The phases in a three phase AC generator are?

a. 45 degrees apart.
b. 60 degrees apart.
c. 90 degrees apart.
d. 120 degrees apart.*
2264. If DC is the primary source of electrical power in a aircraft, the AC instruments may be fed from?
a. ATRU.
b. An inverter.*
c. A rectifier.
d. A transducer.
2265. As load increases, the regulator of a constant speed AC generator?

a. Remains constant.*
b. Increases field excitation.
c. Decreases field excitation.
d. Stops field excitation.
2266. A transistorised static inverter is used to supply?

a. Square wave AC.
b. Sinusoidal wave AC.
c. AC instruments.*
d. Power transformers.
2267. The correct action to be taken when the temperature of a CSDU goes into the red is to?
a. Disconnect then reconnect when it has cooled sufficiently.
b. It will disconnect automatically and reconnect when cooled down.
c. Reduce engine RPM to allow it to cool down.
d. Disconnect it and do not reconnect until on the ground.*
2268. AC generator frequency depends on?

a. Number of poles.
b. Number of phases.
c. RPM.
d. RPM and number of poles.*
2269. Poor bonding will be indicated by?

a. Repeated tripping of circuit breakers.
b. Corrosion of skin joints.
c. Fuses blowing.
d. Static interference on radios.*
2270. The advantages of AC generators over DC generator include?

1. Less complex.
2. Better power to weight ratio.
3. Higher starting torque.
4. Longer service lives.
5. Less RF interference.
a. 1,2,4,5.*
b. 1,3,5.
c. 2,4,6.
2271. A relay allows?

a. A serviceable generator to power the bus bar of an unserviceable one.
b. To prevent excessive currents from flowing in a circuit.
c. The battery to charge the generators.
d. Low voltages and currents to control the switching of high voltages and currents.*
2272. How many poles must an AC generator have to produce a 400 Hz output at 6000 RPM?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 8.*
d. 12.
2273. In a star wound generator?

1. Line frequency is greater than phase frequency.
2. Line voltage is greater than phase voltage.
3. Line current is greater than phase current.
4. Phase frequency is greater than line frequency.
5. Phase voltage is greater than line voltage.
6. Phase current is greater than line current.
a. Only 2 is true.*
b. Only 1is true.
c. Only 1 and 3 are true.
d. All are true.
2274. What does the APU produce when load shedding?

a. AC and DC.
b. DC.
c. AC.*
d. Hydraulic power only.
2275. A differential relay?
a. To prevent paralleling of AC generators.
b. To ensure that generator voltages are matched before paralleling.*
c. To enable paralleling of DC generators.
d. To prevent the battery from driving the generators.
Logic (KW)
2276. What is an EPROM?

a. A memory that erases itself when the computer is switched off.
b. A memory that cannot be erased.
c. A memory that retains data when the computer is switched off but that can be re-programmed when
necessary.*
d. A memory that retains data when the computer is switched off and cannot be re-programmed.
2277. What is a ROM?

a. A memory that erases itself when the computer is switched off.
b. A memory that cannot be erased.
c. A memory that retains data when the computer is switched off but that can be re-programmed when necessary.
d. A memory that retains data when the computer is switched off and cannot be re-programmed.*
2278. An AND gate is sometimes referred to as?

a. An anything or nothing gate.
b. An all or nothing gate.*
c. An everything and nothing.
d. A something or nothing gate.

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Basic laws & definition: (Oxford & KW)

1. An aircraft’s mass is a result of:

2. The unit of mass is the:

3. The definition of a force is:

4. The unit of force is the:

5. The unit of weight is the:

6. Weight is the result of:

7. About which point does an aircraft rotate:

8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move:

9. The unit of work is called the:

10. The unit of power is called the:

11. If a force of 20 newton’s moves a mass 5 metres:

13. The definition of power is:

15. Kinetic energy is:

16. The unit of kinetic energy is the:

17. When considering kinetic energy:

18. The property of inertia is said to be:

19. Considering newton’s first law of motion:

20. Considering newton’s second law of motion:

21. Newton’s third law of motion states:

22. The definition of velocity is the:

23. When considering acceleration:

24. The definition of momentum is:

26. When considering momentum:

27. Which of these statements about weight and mass is correct?

28. Which of these statements about weight and mass is correct?

33. The unit of measurement of pressure is?

35. What is the unit of measurement for power?

39. When considering static pressure:

40. When considering air density:

41. Air density is:

45. Dynamic pressure is:

46. Dynamic pressure is equal to:

48. A static pressure vent must be positioned:

49. The inputs to an air speed indicator are from:

54. The speed of sound:

55. Mach number is:

56. An aircraft’s critical mach number is;

57. The static pressure is acting?

59. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

62. When considering a streamtube, which of the following statements is correct:

64. In accordance with the principle of continuity:

65. In accordance with bernoulli’s theorem:

72. The definition of lift is:

76. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?

82. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section directly controls:

84. The term "angle of attack'' is defined as the angle:

85. Which of the following statements is true:

86. Which of the following statements is correct:

96. Regarding a symmetrical aerofoil, which statements are correct or incorrect?

97. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which of these statements is correct?

99. Regarding a symmetrical aerofoil, which statements are correct or incorrect?

101. Which statement is correct?

105. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

106. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?

110. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct?

114. The lift formula is?

118. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where?

124. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?