Software Project Management (MCQS)

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Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves
IT8075 Software anticipating risks that might affect the
project schedule or the quality of the
Project Management software being developed, and then taking
action to avoid these risks.
CSE - Professional Which of the following is not considered as a
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risk in project management?
Elective - II a) Specification delays
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b) Product competition
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c) Testing
Regulations 2017 d) Staff turnover
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Testing is a part of project,
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thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
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UNIT I PROJECT The process each manager follows during
the life of a project is known as
EVALUATION AND es
a) Project Management
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b) Manager life cycle
PROJECT PLANNING
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c) Project Management Life Cycle

d) All of the mentioned
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TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE

Answer: c
OF SOFTWARE PROJECT
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Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle

MANAGEMENT
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is necessary to repeatedly implement and

manage projects successfully.
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Which of the following is not project

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management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)

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a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

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b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

the agreed time c) moderate
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c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

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development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
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Explanation: The probability of the risk

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Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),

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xplanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high

because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
always subject to organizational budget and
schedule constraints. Which of the following is/are main
parameters that you should use when
Project managers have to assess the risks computing the costs of a software
that may affect a project. development project?
a) True a) travel and training costs
b) False b) hardware and software costs
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effort costs (the costs of paying software and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
engineers and managers) identified.
all of the mentioned
An independent relationship must exist
Answer: d between the attribute that can be measured
Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute.
out how much effort is required to complete a) True
each activity and, from this, calculating the b) False
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total cost of activities.
Answer: b
Quality planning is the process of Explanation: The value of the quality
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developing a quality plan for attribute must be related, in some way, to the
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a) team b) value of the attribute than can be measured.
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project c)
customers .
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d) project manager
TOPIC 1.2 ACTIVITIES
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Answer: b
- METHODOLOGIES
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Explanation: The quality plan should set out
the desired software qualities and describe
how these are to be assessed. es
Which of these truly defines Software
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design?
Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Software design is an activity subjected to
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for the configuration management of a constraints

software system? b) Software Design specifies nature and
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a) Internship management composition of software product

b) Change management c) c) Software Design satisfies client needs and
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Version management d) desires

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System management d) All of the mentioned

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Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management
/t.
Explanation: Software design explains all of

policies and processes define how to record the statements as its definition.
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and process proposed system changes, how

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to decide what system components to change, Which of the following statement is false?
how to manage different versions of the a) A process is a collection of related tasks
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system and its components, and how to that transforms a set of inputs to the set of
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distribute changes to customers. output

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b) A design notation is a symbolic

Identify the sub-process of process
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representational system
improvement c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding
a) Process introduction guidance, with guarantee for achieving
b) Process analysis c) some end
De-processification d) d) Software design method is orderly
Process distribution procedure for providing software
design solutions
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed,

Answer: b Software Engineering)

Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed Wide support by CASE, More detailed and
but there is no guarantee that we get output. flexible processes
Which of these describes stepwise Answer: d
refinement? Explanation: Notations used are more
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first specialized and sophisticated one.
software engineering method as stepwise
refinement b) Stepwise refinement follows Which of the following is an incorrect
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its existence from 1971 method for structural design?
c) It is a top down approach a) Transition of problem models to
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d) All of the mentioned solution models
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b) Handling of larger and more complex
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Answer: d products
Explanation: It is top down approach and c) Designing Object oriented systems
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not bottom up. d) More procedural approach
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What is incorrect about structural design? a) Answer: b
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Structural design introduced notations and Explanation: It does not account for
heuristics larger and complex products.
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural
decomposition
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What is followed by the design task? a)
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c) The advantage is data flow representation Choosing specific classes, operations b)
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d) It follows Structure chart Checking model’s completeness

c) Following design task
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Answer: c heuristics d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: The biggest drawback or
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problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d

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design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed

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by a design task.
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What is the solution for Structural design?

a) The specification model following data Which of this analysis are not acceptable?
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flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better

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b) Procedures represented as bubbles c) approach compared to structural design

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Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always

showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow dominates structural design
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of data in and out of procedures c) Object oriented design are given more
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d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

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d) Object oriented uses more specific

Answer: c
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notations
xplanation: It is solution to central
problem. Rest others are problems. Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design
Which of these are followed by the latest is considered a far better approach but it
versions of structural design? never dominates structural approach.
a) More detailed and flexible
processes b) Regular Notations Which of these does not represent object
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided oriented design?

It follows regular procedural Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

decomposition in favor of class and reference to one of the eight principles as per
object decomposition the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
Programs are thought of collection of a) The product should be easy to use
objects b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
Central model represents class diagrams that products and related modifications meet the
show the classes comprising a program and highest professional standards possible
their relationships to one another c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
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Object-oriented methods incorporates products and related modifications satisfy
Structural methods the client
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d) It means that the product designed /created
Answer: a should be easily available
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Explanation: It does not follow
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regular procedural decomposition. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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TOPIC 1.3 CATEGORIZATION Identify an ethical dilemma from the
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OF SOFTWARE PROJECTS situations mentioned below:
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a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
Choose the correct option in terms of system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional es
system
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responsibility a) Confidentiality b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
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b) Intellectual property rights

c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual senior management
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property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
Answer: a
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Answer: c Explanation: None.

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Explanation: Engineers should normally

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respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
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or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

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formal confidentiality agreement has been a) act in a manner that is in the best
interests of his expertise and favour.”
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signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
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the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
SRS.”
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patents, copyright, etc.

d) all of the mentioned
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“Software engineers should not use their

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technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b

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computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in
a) Unauthorized access to computer a manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the
computer material public interest and shall ensure that their
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware products and related modifications meet the
d) All of the mentioned highest professional standards possible.Thus
options a & c are ruled out.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

engineers should Explanation: Software companies are
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside responsible for making policies and providing
your competence.” working atmosphere for the software
b) not use your technical skills to misuse development, so in turn these companies
other people’s computers.” become a part of software development
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
d) maintain integrity and independence thing. Thus option c answers the question.
in their professional judgment.”
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Company has latest computers and state-of
Answer: c the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
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Explanation:None. about the quality of the product
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a) True
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Efficiency in a software product does not b) False
include ________
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a) responsiveness Answer: b
b) licensing Explanation: The infrastructure is only
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c) memory utilization one of the several factors that determine
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d) processing time the quality of the product.
Answer: b . es
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Explanation: Licensing of a software product
comes under corporate part of the software
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TOPIC 1.4 SETTING

company.
BJECTIVES
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As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get

cancelled before they are completed, 53% Which of these are not among the eight
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overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering

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189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
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restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

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? b) PROFESSION
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a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT

engineering d) ENVIRONMENT
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b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

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c) Management issues in the company Answer: d

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d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for

software ethics, environment does not focus
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Answer: a on specific clause nor its of importace related

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Explanation: Option b & c are a part of to question.

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Software Engineering as a subject,hence

option a covers them both. 2. What is a Software ?
Software is set of programs
The reason for software bugs and failures is Software is documentation and
due to configuration of data
a) Software companies Software is set of programs, documentation &
b) Software Developers configuration of data
c) Both Software companies and None of the mentioned
Developers d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c engineering
Explanation: Software is not just set of Software engineering is concerned with the
program but it is also associated practicalities of developing and delivering
documentation and configuration of data to useful software
make program run.
Answer: c
Which of these does not account for Explanation: Software engineering is a vast
software failure ? sub domain which comes under computer
a) Increasing Demand
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science which is main domain.
b) Low expectation c)
Increasing Supply 7. Which of these is true ?
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d) Less reliable and expensive Generic products and customized products
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are types of software products
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Answer: c Generic products are produced by
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead organization and sold to open market
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to more production and not failure. Customized products are commissioned by
particular customer
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What are attributes of good software ? All of the mentioned
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a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality Answer: d
c) Software development es
Explanation: All of them are true.
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d) Software maintainability & functionality
Which of these does not affect different
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Answer: d types of software as a whole?

Explanation: Good software should deliver a) Heterogeneity
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the required functinality, maintainability. b) Flexibility

Software development is not an attribute but a c) Business and social
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fundamental. change d) Security

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Which of these software engineering Answer: b

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activities are not a part of software processes Explanation: Option b & c are a part of
? Software Engineering as a subject,hence
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a) Software dependence option a covers them both.

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b) Software development
The fundamental notions of software
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c) Software validation d)
engineering does not account for ?
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Software specification
a) Software processes
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Answer: a b) Software Security

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Explanation: Software dependence is an c) Software reuse

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attribute and not an engineering activity for d) Software Validation

process.
Answer: d
6. Which of these is incorrect ? Explanation: Software validation is an
oftware engineering belongs to Computer activity for software process and not the
science fundamental for engineering.
Software engineering is a part of more
general form of System Engineering 10. Which of these is not true ?
Computer science belongs to Software a) Web has led to availability of software

services and possibility of developing highly Answer: a

distributed service based systems Explanation: For systems with a long
Web based systems have led to degradation life, maintenance costs may be several
of programming languages times development costs.
Web brings concept of software as service
Web based system should be developed Which one of the following is not an
and delivered incrementally application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
Answer: b b) pattern recognition game playing
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Explanation: Web based systems has led c) digital function of dashboard display in a
car
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to important advances in programming
languages. d) none of the mentioned
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_Q
. Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses
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TOPIC 1.5 MANAGEMENT Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
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PRINCIPLES Purpose of process is to deliver software a)
_B
in time
Which one of the following is not a b) with acceptable quality
software process quality? es
c) that is cost efficient
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a) Productivity d) both in time & with acceptable quality
b) Portability
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c) Timeliness Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a
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d) Visibility
management issue & is not related to process
Answer: b activities.
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Explanation: Portability is a software

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product quality which means software can run The work associated with software
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on different hardware platforms or software engineering can be categorized into three

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environments. generic phases,regardless of application

area, project size, or complexity namely
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_____________&_____________ are two the phase which focuses on what,

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kinds of software products. the_________ phase which focuses on how

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a) CAD, CAM and the_________ phase which focuses on

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b) Firmware, Embedded change.

c) Generic, Customised d) support
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None of the mentioned development

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definition a)
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Answer: c 1, 2, 3
xplanation: rest all are sub b) 2, 1, 3
categories/applications of option c. c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
oftware costs more to maintain than it
does to develop. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: None.
b) False

Which of the following activities of a Answer: a

Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.
a) Communication
b) Planning .
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment TOPIC 1.6 MANAGEMENT
Answer: d CONTROL
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Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the 1. SCM stands for
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product and provides feedback based on the Software Control Management
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evaluation. Software Configuration Management
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Software Concept Management
Process adopted for one project is same as None of the mentioned
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the process adopted from another project. a)
True Answer: b
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b) False Explanation: In software engineering,
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software configuration management (SCM) is
Answer: b the task of tracking and controlling changes
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, es
in the software, part of the larger cross-
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actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to discipline field of configuration management.
the software team and the inter dependencies
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among two process can never be the same. When code is made available to others, it
goes in a/an
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Which one of the following is not an a) hard drive

Umbrella Activity that complements the five b) access-controlled
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process framework activities and help team library c) servers

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manage and control progress, quality, d) access control

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change, and risk.

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a) Reusability management Answer: b

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b) Risk management Explanation: None.

c) Measurement
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d) User Reviews Which of the following is not a main phase in

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Configuration Management (CM) Process? a)

Answer: d CM Planning
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Explanation: None. b) Executing the CM process

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c) CM audits
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Four types of change are encountered d) None of the mentioned

during the support phase.Which one of
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the following is not one that falls into Answer: d

such category? Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
a) Translation
b) Correction CM is about managing the different items
c) Adaptation in the product, and changes in them.
d) Prevention a) True
b) False

Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)

Explanation: None. By reviews
b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control Answer: c
c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
d) Version Control and Access control
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to description.
Answer: a Which of the following is a example of
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Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
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continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures
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when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
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Which of the following is not a change d) All of the mentioned
management process?
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a) Log the changes Answer: d
_B
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned es
CM controls only the products of the
development process.
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Answer: d a) True
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Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

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Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
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a) True
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b) False 12. CCB stands for

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Change Control Board

Answer: a
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Change Control Baseline

Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
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None of the mentioned

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What is one or more software configuration

items that have been formally reviewed and Answer: a
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agreed upon and serve as a basis for further Explanation: None.

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development?
What information is required to process a
:-
a) Baseline
change to a baseline?
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b) Cumulative changes
c) CM a) Reasons for making the changes
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d) Change Control b) A description of the proposed changes

c) List of other items affected by the
Answer: a changes d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In configuration management, a
“baseline” is an agreed-to description of the Answer: d
attributes of a product, at a point in time, Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to
which serves as a basis for defining change. description of the product, changes
require multiple reasons..

. of the solution, negotiate different

approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
TOPIC 1.7 PROJECT requirements.
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT 4. CLSS stands for
conveyor line sorting system
Which of the following is an important conveyor line sorting software
factor that can affect the accuracy and conveyor line sorting speed
conveyor line sorting specification
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efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
Answer: a
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b) Planning process c)
Project complexity Explanation: The conveyor line sorting
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d) Degree of structural uncertainty system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along
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a conveyor line. Each box is identified by
Answer: a a barcode that contains a part number and
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Explanation: As size increases, the is sorted into one of six bins at the end of
the line.
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interdependence among various elements
of the software grows rapidly.
_B
The project planner examines the statement
What describes the data and control to be of scope and extracts all important software
processed? es
functions which is known as
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a) Planning process a) Association
b) Software scope c) b) Decomposition
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External hardware d) c) Planning process

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Project complexity
Answer: b Answer: b
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Explanation: Functions described in the Explanation: None

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statement of scope are evaluated and in some

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cases refined to provide more detail prior to The environment that supports the software
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the beginning of estimation project is called

a) CLSS
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A number of independent investigators have b) SEE

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developed a team-oriented approach to c) FAST

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requirements gathering that can be applied to d) CBSE

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establish the scope of a project called

a) JAD b) Answer: b
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CLASS c) Explanation: Software engineering

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FAST environment (SEE), incorporates hardware

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d) None of the mentioned and software.
Answer: c Which of the following is not an option to

Explanation: Facilitated achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
application specification techniques Base estimates on similar projects that have
(FAST), this approach encourages the already been completed
creation of a joint team of customers b) Use one or more empirical models for
and developers who work together to identify software cost and effort estimation
the problem, propose elements c) Use relatively simple decomposition

techniques to generate project cost and effort TOPIC 1.8 COST-BENEFIT

estimates
The ability to translate the size estimate into EVALUATION TECHNOLOGY
human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Which one of the following is not an
Answer: d Evolutionary Process Model?
Explanation: None. a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
What can be used to complement
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c) Concurrent Development
decomposition techniques and offer a Model d) All of the mentioned
potentially valuable estimation approach
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in their own right? Answer: d
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a) Automated estimation tools Explanation: None.
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b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques The Incremental Model is a result of
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d) Both Automated estimation tools combination of elements of which two
and Empirical estimation models models?
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a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall
_B
Answer: b Model b) Linear Model & RAD Model
Explanation: An estimation model for Linear Model & rototyping Model
computer software uses empirically derived es
Waterfall Model & RAD Model
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formulas to predict effort as a function of
LOC or FP. Answer: c
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Explanation: Each linear sequence produces

Which of the following is not achieved by a deliverable “increment” of the software and
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an automated estimation tools? particularly when we have to quickly deliver

a) Predicting staffing levels a limited functionality system.
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b) Predicting software cost

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c) Predicting software schedules What is the major advantage of using

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d) Predicting clients demands Incremental Model?

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a) Customer can respond to each increment

Answer: d
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b) Easier to test and debug

Explanation: Demands can vary from client c) It is used when there is a need to get a
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to client. product to the market early

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d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when

Software project estimation can never be an
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there is a need to get a product to the market

exact science, but a combination of good early
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historical data and systematic techniques can

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improve estimation accuracy. Answer: d

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a) True Explanation: Incremental Model is generally

b) False easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively
Answer: a smaller changes are made during each
Explanation: None. iteration and is popular particularly when we
have to quickly deliver a limited functionality
.
system.However, option “a” can be seen in
other models as well like RAD model,hence
option “d” answers the question.

The spiral model was originally proposed Answer: a

by Explanation: All other options are the
a) IBM advantages of Spiral Model.
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman d) Spiral Model has user involvement in all its
Royce phases.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.
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Answer: b
The spiral model has two dimensions Explanation: None.
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namely _____________ and ____________
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a) diagonal, angular How is Incremental Model different from
Spiral Model?
_Q
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular a) Progress can be measured for Incremental
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d) diagonal, perpendicular Model
b) Changing requirements can be
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Answer: c accommodated in Incremental Model
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Explanation: The radial dimension of the c) Users can see the system early in
model represents the cumulative costs and the Incremental Model
angular dimension represents the progress es
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made in completing each cycle. Each loop of
the spiral from X-axis clockwise through Answer: a
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o Explanation: None.
360 represents one phase.
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How is WINWIN Spiral Model different If you were to create client/server

from Spiral Model? applications, which model would you go for?
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a) It defines tasks required to define a) WINWIN Spiral Model

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resources, timelines, and other project b) Spiral Model

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related information c) Concurrent Model

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b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at d) Incremental Model

/t.
the beginning of each pass around the spiral

Answer: c
c) It defines tasks required to assess both
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Explanation: When applied to client/server

technical and management risks
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d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, applications, the concurrent process model
defines activities in two dimensions: a system
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install, and provide user support

dimension and a component dimension.Thus
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Answer: b Concurrency is achieved by system and

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Explanation: Except option “b” all other component activities occurring

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tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model simultaneously and can be modeled using the
as well. state-oriented approach.
Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. .

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects b)
High amount of risk analysis TOPIC 1.9 RISK EVALUATION
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a
later date

Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are
a) Client common in the competitive environment
b) Investor of software engineering.
c) Production team
d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Answer: d more about the risk?
Explanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
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anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
nt
software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification
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_Q
Answer: a
Which of the following risk is the failure of a Explanation: None.
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purchased component to perform as
expected? Which of the following risks are derived
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a) Product risk from the organizational environment where
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b) Project risk the software is being developed?
c) Business risk a) People risks
d) Programming risk es
b) Technology risks c)
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Estimation risks d)
Answer: a Organizational risks
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Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or

performance of the software being developed. Answer: d
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Explanation: These risks are at

Which of the following term is best defined management level.
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by the statement: “There will be a change of

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organizational management with different Which of the following risks are derived
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priorities.”? from the software or hardware technologies

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a) Staff turnover that are used to develop the system?

a) Managerial risks b)
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b) Technology change
c) Management change Technology risks c)
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d) Product competition Estimation risks d)

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Organizational risks
Answer: c
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Explanation: None. Answer: b

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Explanation: The risks associated

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Which of the following term is best defined by with technology might affect the
the statement: “The underlying technology on
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product development.
which the system is built is superseded by new
technology.”? Which of the following term is best defined
a) Technology change b) by the statement: “Derive traceability
Product competition c) information to maximize information hiding
Requirements change d) in the design.”?
None of the mentioned a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring

Requirements changes Project managers have to assess the risks

None of the mentioned that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
Explanation: Tracing the requirements
can help us understand the risk. Answer: b
Which of the following strategies means anticipating risks that might affect the
that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
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a) Avoidance strategies software being developed, and then taking
b) Minimization strategies
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c) Contingency plans
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d) All of the mentioned Which of the following is not considered as a
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risk in project management?
Answer: b a) Specification delays
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Explanation: None. b) Product competition
c) Testing
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Risk management is now recognized as d) Staff turnover
one of the most important project
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management tasks. Answer: c
a) True
b) False
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Answer: a The process each manager follows during

Explanation: None. the life of a project is known as
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. b) Manager life cycle
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TOPIC 1.10 STRATEGIC d) All of the mentioned

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PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
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Answer: c
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Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and

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management goal? manage projects successfully.

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a) Keeping overall costs within budget

b) Delivering the software to the customer at A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
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the agreed time very low

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c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) low

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development team c) moderate

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d) Avoiding customer complaints d) high
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed Explanation: The probability of the risk
because professional software engineering is might be assessed as very low (<10%),
always subject to organizational budget and low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
schedule constraints. (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).

Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
computing the costs of a software Process distribution
development project?
a) travel and training costs Answer: b
b) hardware and software costs Explanation: The current process is assessed,
c) effort costs (the costs of paying and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
software engineers and managers) identified.
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Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute
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Answer: b
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project c)
customers . es
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d) project manager
TOPIC 1.11 STEPWISE
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Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out PROJECT PLANNING
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how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is an important
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factor that can affect the accuracy and

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Which of the following is incorrect activity efficacy of estimates?

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for the configuration management of a a) Project size

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software system? b) Planning process c)

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a) Internship management Project complexity

b) Change management c) d) Degree of structural uncertainty
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Version management d)
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System management Answer: a

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Explanation: As size increases, the

Answer: a interdependence among various elements
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Explanation: Configuration management of the software grows rapidly.

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policies and processes define how to record

What describes the data and control to be
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to decide what system components to change, processed?
how to manage different versions of the a) Planning process
system and its components, and how to b) Software scope c)
distribute changes to customers. External hardware d)
Project complexity
Identify the sub-process of process
improvement Answer: b
a) Process introduction Explanation: Functions described in the

statement of scope are evaluated and in some The environment that supports the software
cases refined to provide more detail prior to project is called
the beginning of estimation. a) CLSS
b) SEE
A number of independent investigators have c) FAST
developed a team-oriented approach to d) CBSE
requirements gathering that can be applied to
establish the scope of a project called Answer: b
a) JAD b) Explanation: Software engineering
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CLASS c) environment (SEE), incorporates hardware
FAST
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and software.
d) None of the mentioned
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Which of the following is not an option to
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Answer: c achieve reliable cost and effort estimate? a)
Explanation: Facilitated Base estimates on similar projects that have
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application specification techniques already been completed
(FAST), this approach encourages the b) Use one or more empirical models for
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creation of a joint team of customers software cost and effort estimation
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and developers who work together to identify c) Use relatively simple decomposition
the problem, propose elements techniques to generate project cost and effort
of the solution, negotiate different es
estimates
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approaches, and specify a preliminary set of d) The ability to translate the size estimate
requirements. into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
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4. CLSS stands for Answer: d

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conveyor line sorting system Explanation: None.

conveyor line sorting software
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conveyor line sorting speed What can be used to complement

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conveyor line sorting specification decomposition techniques and offer a

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potentially valuable estimation approach

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Answer: a in their own right?

/t.
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting a) Automated estimation tools

system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along b) Empirical estimation models
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a conveyor line. Each box is identified by c) Decomposition techniques

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a barcode that contains a part number and d) Both Automated estimation tools
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is sorted into one of six bins at the end of and Empirical estimation models
the line.
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Answer: b
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The project planner examines the statement Explanation: An estimation model for
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of scope and extracts all important software computer software uses empirically derived
functions which is known as formulas to predict effort as a function of
a) Association LOC or FP.
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process Which of the following is not achieved by
d) All of the mentioned an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
Answer: b b) Predicting software cost
Explanation: None

Predicting software schedules Firmware, Embedded

Predicting clients demands Generic, Customised
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client Answer: c
to client. Explanation: rest all are sub
categories/applications of option c.
Software project estimation can never be an
exact science, but a combination of good Software costs more to maintain than it
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historical data and systematic techniques can does to develop.
improve estimation accuracy. a) True
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a) True b) False
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b) False
Answer: a
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Answer: a Explanation: For systems with a long
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Explanation: None. life, maintenance costs may be several
times development costs.
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.
_B
application of embedded software product?
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a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
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UNIT II PROJECT LIFE c) digital function of dashboard display in a
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CYCLE AND EFFORT car

d) none of the mentioned
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ESTIMATION
Answer: b
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Explanation: Pattern recognition uses

TOPIC 2.1 SOFTWARE
A
Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.

e/
PROCESS AND PROCESS

Purpose of process is to deliver software a)
m
MODELS
in time
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b) with acceptable quality

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Which one of the following is not a c) that is cost efficient

software process quality?
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d) both in time & with acceptable quality

a) Productivity
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b) Portability Answer: d
c) Timeliness
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Explanation: Cost of a software is a

d) Visibility
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management issue & is not related to process

activities.
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Answer: b
xplanation: Portability is a software The work associated with software
product quality which means software can run engineering can be categorized into three
on different hardware platforms or software generic phases,regardless of application area,
environments. project size, or complexity namely
the__________ phase which focuses on what,
_____________&_____________ are two
the_________ phase which focuses on how
kinds of software products. and the_________ phase which focuses on
a) CAD, CAM

change. Answer: d
support Explanation: None.
development
definition a) Four types of change are encountered
1, 2, 3 during the support phase.Which one of
b) 2, 1, 3 the following is not one that falls into
c) 3, 2, 1 such category?
d) 3, 1, 2 a) Translation
b) Correction
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Answer: c c) Adaptation
Explanation: None.
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d) Prevention
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Which of the following activities of a Answer: a
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Generic Process framework provides a Explanation: Translation is done in
feedback report? the development phase.
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a) Communication
b) Planning .
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c) Modeling & Construction
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d) Deployment TOPIC 2.2 CHOICE OF PROCE
Answer: d esMODELS - RAPID
APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT
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Explanation: In Deployment the product is
delivered to the customer who evaluates the
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product and provides feedback based on the Build & Fix Model is suitable for
evaluation.
TU
programming exercises of ___________

LOC (Line of Code).
Process adopted for one project is same as
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a) 100-200 b)
the process adopted from another project. a)
200-400 c)
A
True
400-1000 d)
e/
b) False above 1000

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Answer: b
/t.
Answer: a
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
s:/
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable

actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to for small projects & programming exercises
tp
the software team and the inter dependencies of 100 or 200 lines.
among two process can never be the same.
ht
2. RAD stands for

:-

Relative Application Development
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Umbrella Activity that complements the five

Rapid Application Development
process framework activities and help team
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Rapid Application Document

manage and control progress, quality,
change, and risk.
a) Reusability management Answer: b
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews Which one of the following models is not
suitable for accommodating any change? a)
Build & Fix Model

Prototyping Model 5 phases

RAD Model 6 phases
Waterfall Model
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: RAD Model consists of five
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow phases namely:Business modeling,Data
the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model modeling,Process modeling,Application
proposes. generation and Testing & Turnover.
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Which is not one of the types of prototype What is the major drawback of using RAD
of Prototyping Model? Model?
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a) Horizontal Prototype a) Highly specialized & skilled
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b) Vertical Prototype c) developers/designers are required
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Diagonal Prototype d) b) Increases reusability of components
Domain Prototype c) Encourages customer/client feedback
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d) Increases reusability of components,
Answer: c Highly specialized & skilled
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Explanation: Their is no such thing as developers/designers are required
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Diagonal Prototype whereas other options
have their respective definitions. Answer: d
Which one of the following is not a phase

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Explanation: The client may create an
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unrealistic product vision leading a team to
of Prototyping Model? over or under-develop functionality.Also,
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a) Quick Design the specialized & skilled developers are not

b) Coding easily available.
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c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product 9. SDLC stands for
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Software Development Life Cycle

A
Answer: b System Development Life cycle

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Explanation: A prototyping model Software Design Life Cycle

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generates only a working model of a system. System Design Life Cycle

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Which of the following statements Answer: a

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regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? Explanation: None.

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a) No room for structured design

b) Code soon becomes unfixable & Which model can be selected if user is
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unchangeable involved in all the phases of SDLC?

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c) Maintenance is practically not possible a) Waterfall Model b)

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d) It scales up well to large projects Prototyping Model c)

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RAD Model
Answer: d d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
xplanation: Build & Fix Model is
suitable for 100-200 LOC Answer: c
Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a)
2 phases .
b) 3 phase
TOPIC 2.3 AGILE METHODS

Select the option that suits the Manifesto for to be able to respond quickly to changing
Agile Software Development requirements without excessive rework.
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software How is plan driven development different
c) Customer collaboration from agile development ?
d) All of the mentioned a) Outputs are decided through a process of
negotiation during the software
Answer:d development process
Explanation: None. b) Specification, design, implementation
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and testing are interleaved
Agile Software Development is based on c) Iteration occurs within
nt
a) Incremental Development activities d) All of the mentioned
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b) Iterative Development
_Q
c) Linear Development Answer:c
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Explanation: A plan-driven approach to
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Development software engineering is based around separate
development stages with the outputs to be
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Answer:d produced at each of these stages planned in
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Explanation: The software is developed in advance.
increments with the customer specifying the
requirements to be included in each increment es
How many phases are there in Scrum ? a)
Two
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and the highest priority is to satisfy the
customer through early and continuous b) Three
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delivery of valuable software. They are c) Four

iterative because they work on one iteration d) Scrum is an agile method which means it
TU
followed by improvements in next iteration does not have phases

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Which on of the following is not an agile Answer:b

A
method? Explanation: There are three phases in

e/
a) XP Scrum.The initial phase is an outline planning

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b) 4GT phase followed by a series of sprint cycles

/t.
c) AUP and project closure phase.

s:/
Agile methods seem to work best when

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Answer:b team members have a relatively high skill

Explanation: The 4GT approach does not level.
ht
incorporate iteration and the continuous a) True

:-
feedback,which is the fundamental aspect b) False

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of an agile method.
Answer:a
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Agility is defined as the ability of a project Explanation: None.

team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True Which of the following does not apply to
b) False agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
Answer:b b) Only essential work products are produced
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to c) Eliminate the use of project planning and
reduce overheads in the software process and

testing 2. RAD stands for

d) All of the mentioned Relative Application Development
Rapid Application Development
Answer:c Rapid Application Document
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each None of the mentioned
software development process which can’t be
avoided. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Which three framework activities are
um
present in Adaptive Software Which one of the following models is not
Development(ASD) ? suitable for accommodating any change? a)
nt
a) analysis, design, coding Build & Fix Model
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b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle b) Prototyping Model
_Q
planning, iterative development c) RAD Model
c) speculation, collaboration, learning d) Waterfall Model
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Answer: d
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Answer:c Explanation: Real projects rarely follow
_B
Explanation: None. the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model
proposes.
In agile development it is more important to
build software that meets the customers’
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Which is not one of the types of prototype
ot
needs today than worry about features that of Prototyping Model?
_N
might be needed in the future. a) Horizontal Prototype

a) True b) Vertical Prototype c)
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b) False Diagonal Prototype d)

Domain Prototype
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Answer:a
A
Explanation: None. Answer: c

e/
Explanation: Their is no such thing as

.
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Diagonal Prototype whereas other options

have their respective definitions.
/t.
TOPIC 2.4 DYNAMIC SYSTEM

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Which one of the following is not a phase

DEVELOPMENT METHOD
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of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
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Build & Fix Model is suitable for b) Coding

:-
programming exercises of ___________ c) Prototype Refinement

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LOC (Line of Code). d) Engineer Product

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a) 100 200 b)
200-400 c) Answer: b
400-1000 d) Explanation: A prototyping model
above 1000 generates only a working model of a system.
Answer: a Which of the following statements

Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
for small projects & programming exercises a) No room for structured design
of 100 or 200 lines. b) Code soon becomes unfixable &

unchangeable Waterfall Model

Maintenance is practically not possible Prototyping Model
It scales up well to large projects RAD Model
both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is Answer: c
suitable for 100-200 LOC Explanation: None.
RAD Model has a) .
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2 phases
b) 3 phase
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TOPIC 2.5 EXTREME
c) 5 phases
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d) 6 phases PROGRAMMING
_Q
Answer: c Incremental development in Extreme
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Explanation: RAD Model consists of five Programming (XP) is supported through
phases namely:Business modeling,Data a system release once every month.
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modeling,Process modeling,Application a) True
_B
generation and Testing & Turnover. b) False
What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model?
es
Answer: b
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Explanation: Incremental development is
a) Highly specialized & skilled supported through small, frequent system
_N
developers/designers are required releases.

b) Increases reusability of components
TU
c) Encourages customer/client feedback In XP, as soon as the work on a task is

d) Increases reusability of components, complete, it is integrated into the whole
K
Highly specialized & skilled system.

A
developers/designers are required a) True

e/
b) False
m
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an Answer: a
/t.
unrealistic product vision leading a team to Explanation: XP follows a continuous

s:/
over or under-develop functionality.Also, integration approach.After any such

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the specialized & skilled developers are not integration, all the unit tests in the system
easily available.
ht
must pass.
:-
9. SDLC stands for In XP Increments are delivered to

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Software Development Life Cycle customers every _______ weeks. a)

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System Development Life cycle One

Software Design Life Cycle b) Two
System Design Life Cycle c) Three
d) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP)
Which model can be selected if user is takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative
involved in all the phases of SDLC? development.New versions may be built

several times per day, hence delivering the Answer: a

increment for approval every 2nd week after Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very
testing the new version. difficult to write incrementally.For example,
in a complex user interface, it is often
User requirements are expressed as difficult to write unit tests for the code that
__________ in Extreme Programming. implements the ‘display logic’ and
a) implementation tasks workflow between screens.
b) functionalities
c) scenarios Tests are automated in Extreme
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d) none of the mentioned Programming.
a) True
nt
Answer: c b) False
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Explanation: User requirements are
_Q
expressed as scenarios or user stories.These Answer: a
are written on cards and the development Explanation: Automated test harnesses are
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team break them down into implementation used to run all component tests each time
tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule that a new release is built.
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and cost estimates.
_B
In XP an automated unit test framework is
Is a customer involved test development used to write tests for a new piece of
and validation in XP ? es
functionality before that functionality itself
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a) Yes is implemented.
b) No a) True
_N
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer b) False

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Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: XP follows Test-
K
Explanation: The role of the customer in the first development approach.

A
testing process is to help develop acceptance

e/
tests for the stories that are to be Developers work individually on a release
m
implemented in the next release of the system and they compare their results with other
developers before forwarding that release to
/t.
However, people adopting the customer role

have limited time available and so cannot customers.
s:/
work full-time with the development team. a) True

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They may feel that providing the b) False

ht
requirements was enough of a contribution

and so may be reluctant to get involved in the Answer: b
:-
testing process. Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair

in
programming which means developers work

in pairs, checking each other’s work and
Jo
Programmers prefer programming to

testing and sometimes they take shortcuts providing the support to always do a good
when writing tests. For example, they may job.
write incomplete tests that do not check for
all possible exceptions that may occur. Which four framework activities are
a) True found in the Extreme Programming(XP)
b) False ? a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding

c) planning, design, coding, testing 5. CIM and WBEM has been defined by ?
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing a) DMTF
b) SMI Standards Organization
Answer: c c) Open Standards Body
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four d) None of the mentioned
activities, and in the same in order.
Answer: a
.
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_________ instruments one or more aspects
of the CIM Schema
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TOPIC 2.6 MANAGING
a) Distributor
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b) Provider
This set of multiple choice SAN storage c) Manager
_Q
questions and answers focuses on Storage d) None of the mentioned
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Management aspects.
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Answer: b
A Subprofile can reference other subprofiles
_B
a) True The server can operate directly on the
b) False es
underlying system by calling the system’s
commands, services, and library functions. a)
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Answer: a True
_N
b) False
Clients use which protocol to discover SMI
TU
Agents on Storage Area Network? Answer: a

a) SLP (Service Location Protocol)
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b) AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol) Transport protocol used for XMLCIM is

A
c) SMIP (SMI Protocol) a) UDP

e/
d) None of the mentioned b) HTTP

m
c) SNMP
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
/t.
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Encoding mechanism of CIM Data as XML Answer: b

Elements ?
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a) CIM-XML A single CIM based management application

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b) xmlCIM can manage storage arrays from multiple

c) SGML
:-
vendors.
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a) True
b) False
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Answer: b
Answer: a
4. Can a vendor implement additional Classes 10. Collects responses from providers and
or support additional Properties than are returns to the client
defined in a Profile and still be considered a) xmlCIM
conformant? b) CIMOM
a) True c) DMTF
b) False d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: b
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nt
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_Q
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es
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TU
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A
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/t.
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tp
ht
:-
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Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Answer: c

Series – Storage Area Networks. Explanation: None.
A semaphore is a shared integer variable
TOPIC 2.7 INTERACTIVE __________
PROCESSES a) that can not drop below zero b)
that can not be more than zero c)
Which process can be affected by other that can not drop below one d)
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processes executing in the system? that can not be more than one
a) cooperating process
Answer: a
nt
b) child process
c) parent process Explanation: None.
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d) init process
6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
_Q
Answer: a
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Explanation: None. mutex locks
binary semaphores
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When several processes access the same both mutex locks and binary semaphores
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data concurrently and the outcome of the none of the mentioned
execution depends on the particular order
in which the access takes place, is called? es
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
ot
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition as mutex locks.
_N
c) essential condition
When high priority task is indirectly
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d) critical condition
preempted by medium priority task
Answer: b effectively inverting the relative priority
K
Explanation: None. of the two tasks, the scenario is called

A
e/
If a process is executing in its critical priority inversion

m
section, then no other processes can be priority removal

priority exchange
/t.
executing in their critical section This

condition is called? priority modification
s:/
a) mutual exclusion
Answer: a
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b) critical exclusion
Explanation: None.
ht
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion Process synchronization can be done on
:-
in
Answer: a __________
a) hardware level
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xplanation: None.
b) software level
Which one of the following is a c) both hardware and software
synchronization tool? level d) none of the mentioned
a) thread
b) pipe Answer: c
c) semaphore Explanation: None.
d) socket A monitor is a module that encapsulates
__________

shared data structures Costs of lunch time food

procedures that operate on shared data Costs of support staff
structure
synchronization between concurrent Answer: c
procedure invocation Explanation: This is a incurred by the
all of the mentioned employees.
Answer: d What is related to the overall functionality

Explanation: None. of the delivered software?
um
a) Function-related metrics
To enable a process to wait within the b) Product-related metrics
nt
monitor __________ c) Size-related metrics
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a) a condition variable must be declared as d) None of the mentioned
_Q
condition
b) condition variables must be used Answer: a
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as boolean objects Explanation: Productivity is expressed in
c) semaphore must be used terms of the amount of useful functionality
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d) all of the mentioned produced in some given time. Function
_B
points and object points
Answer: a are the best-known metrics of this type.
Explanation: None. es
4. A is developed using historical cost
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information that relates some software
_N
TOPIC 2.8 BASICS OF

metric to the project cost.
SOFTWARE ESTIMATION Algorithmic cost modelling
TU
Expert judgement
TOPIC 2.9 EFFORT AND COST Estimation by analogy
K
Parkinson’s Law
A
ESTIMATION TECHNIQUES
e/
Answer: a
m
Which of the following are parameters Explanation: The model uses a basic
regression formula with parameters that are
/t.
involved in computing the total cost of a

software development project? derived from historical project data and
s:/
a) Hardware and software current as well as future project

tp
costs b) Effort costs characteristics.

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c) Travel and training costs

It is often difficult to estimate size at an
:-
early stage in a project when only a

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Answer: d specification is available

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xplanation: All these are accounted for in a) True

estimating a software development cost. b) False
Which of the following costs is not part of Answer: a

the total effort cost? Explanation: Function-point and object-point
a) Costs of networking and estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
communications b) Costs of providing code size but are often still inaccurate.
heating and lighting office space

Which technique is applicable when other Answer: d

projects in the same analogy application Explanation: Estimates are based on function
domain have been completed? points, which are then converted to number
a) Algorithmic cost modelling of lines of source code. The formula follows
b) Expert judgement the standard form discussed above with a
c) Estimation by analogy simplified set of seven multipliers.
d) Parkinson’s Law
Which model is used to compute the effort
Answer: c required to integrate reusable components or
um
Explanation: The cost of a new project is program code that is automatically generated
by design or program translation tools?
nt
estimated by analogy with these completed
projects. a) An application-composition model
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b) A post-architecture model
_Q
Which model assumes that systems are c) A reuse model
created from reusable components, scripting d) An early design model
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or database programming?
a) An application-composition model Answer: c
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b) A post-architecture model Explanation: None.
_B
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model The COCOMO model takes into account
Answer: a
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different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
ot
Explanation: It is designed to make a) True
_N
estimates of prototype development. b) False

TU
Which of the following states that work Answer: b

expands to fill the time available. Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model.
K
a) CASE tools b) COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-

A
Pricing to win c) models that produce increasingly detailed

e/
Parkinson’s Law d) software estimates.

m
Expert judgement
.
/t.
Answer: c
s:/
Explanation: The cost is determined by TOPIC 2.10 COSMIC

tp
available resources rather than by objective

assessment. If the software has to be FULL FUNCTION POINTS
ht
delivered in 12 months and 5 people are

:-
available, the effort required is estimated to Which of the following is not a metric for
in
be 60 person-months. design model?

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a) Interface design metrics

Which model is used during early stages of the b) Component-level metrics
system design after the requirements have c) Architectural metrics
been established? d) Complexity metrics
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model Answer: d
c) A reuse model Explanation: Complexity metrics measure
d) An early design model the logical complexity of source code.

Statement and branch coverage metrics are Architectural Design Metrics are
part of ___________ in
a) Analysis Model nature. a) Black Box
b) Testing b) White Box
c) Design Model c) Gray Box
d) Source Code d) Green Box
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: These metrics lead to the Explanation: They are “black box” in that
um
design of test cases that provide program they do not require any knowledge of the
nt
coverage. inner workings of a particular software
component.
ua
Function Points in software engineering
_Q
was first proposed by Structural complexity of a module i is
a) Booch b) given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f
ks
Boehm c) symbolizes here?
Albrecht d) a) “fan check-out” of module i
oo
Jacobson b) “fan check-in” of module i
_B
c) “fan in” of module i
Answer: c d) “fan out” of module i
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in es
Answer: d
ot
1979, hundreds of books and papers have
been written on functions points since then. Explanation: Fan out is number of
_N
modules directly invoked by module i.

How many Information Domain Values are
TU
used for Function Point Computation? 8. SMI stands for

a) three Software Mature Indicator
K
b) four Software Maturity Index

A
c) five Software Mature Index

e/
d) six Software Maturity Indicator

m
Answer: c Answer: b
/t.
Explanation: The five values are: External Explanation: None.

s:/
Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries,

As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software
tp
Internal Logical Files and External Interface

product starts becoming unstable
ht
Files.
a) True
:-
Function Point Computation is given by the b) False

in
formula
Answer: b
Jo
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0,
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) the software product begins to stabilize.
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is
Answer: b the number of modules
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula a) in the current release
for Function Point Computation. b) in the current release that have been
changed

from the preceding release that were development team

deleted in the current release d) Avoiding customer complaints
none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Projects need to be managed
Explanation: None. because professional software engineering is
The amount of time that the software is schedule constraints.
available for use is known as
um
a) Reliability b) Project managers have to assess the risks
Usability c) that may affect a project.
nt
Efficiency d) a) True
ua
Functionality b) False
_Q
Answer: a Answer: b
ks
Explanation: None. Explanation: Risk management involves
anticipating risks that might affect the
oo
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the project schedule or the quality of the
degree to which the software
_B
software being developed, and then taking
a) stated needs action to avoid these risks.
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system
es
Which of the following is not considered as a
ot
resources d) none of the mentioned risk in project management?
_N
a) Specification delays
Answer: b b) Product competition
TU
Explanation: None. c) Testing

d) Staff turnover
K
.
A
Answer: c
e/

m

/t.
UNIT III ACTIVITY The process each manager follows during

s:/
the life of a project is known as

PLANNING AND RISK
tp
MANAGEMENT b) Manager life cycle
ht

:-
TOPIC 3.1 OBJECTIVES d) All of the mentioned

in
OF ACTIVITY PLANNING Answer: c

Jo

Which of the following is not project is necessary to repeatedly implement and
management goal? manage projects successfully.
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
b) Delivering the software to the customer at
very low
the agreed time
b) low
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning

moderate and process proposed system changes, how

high to decide what system components to change,
how to manage different versions of the
Answer: d system and its components, and how to
Explanation: The probability of the risk distribute changes to customers.
might be assessed as very low (<10%),
low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high Identify the sub-process of process
(50– 75%), or very high (>75%). improvement
a) Process introduction
um
Which of the following is/are main b) Process analysis c)
parameters that you should use when
nt
De-processification d)
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
Explanation: Estimation involves working es
and the external quality attribute.
ot
_N

Answer: b
TU

K

A
project c)
e/
customers .
m
d) project manager
/t.
TOPIC 3.2 PROJECT

Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The quality plan should set out SCHEDULES

tp

how these are to be assessed. Which of the following is the reason that
ht
software is delivered late?

:-
Which of the following is incorrect activity a) Changing customer requirements that

in
for the configuration management of a are not reflected in schedule changes

Jo
software system? b) Technical difficulties that could not

a) Internship management have been foreseen in advance
b) Change management c) c) Human difficulties that could not
Version management have been foreseen in advance
d) ystem management d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Configuration management Explanation: None.

Which of the following is an activity that What is used to determine the recommended
distributes estimated effort across the degree of rigor with which the software
planned project duration by allocating the process should be applied on a project?
effort to specific software engineering tasks? a) Degree of Rigor
a) Software Macroscopic schedule b) Adaptation
b) Software Project scheduling c) criteria c) Task Set
Software Detailed schedule d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation
d) None of the mentioned criteria
um
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Four different degrees of rigor
nt
are: casual, structured, strict, and quick
ua
Every task that is scheduled should be reaction.
_Q
assigned to a specific team member is
termed as What evaluates the risk associated with the
ks
a) Compartmentalization technology to be implemented as part of
b) Defined milestones project scope?
oo
c) Defined responsibilities a) Concept scoping
_B
d) Defined outcomes b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
Answer: c es
d) Customer reaction to the concept
ot
Explanation: These responsibilities
are domain specific. Answer: b
_N
Explanation: None.
What is a collection of software
TU
engineering work tasks, milestones, and Which of the following is not an adaptation
deliverables that must be accomplished to criteria for software projects?
K
complete a particular project? a) Size of the project

A
a) Task set b) Customers Complaints

e/
b) Degree of milestone c) Project staff

m
c) Adaptation criteria d) Mission criticality

/t.

Answer: b
s:/
Answer: a Explanation: These can vary from client

tp
Explanation: None. to client.

ht
Ensuring that no more than the allocated Which of the following is a project
:-
number of people are allocated at any given scheduling method that can be applied to
in
time in Software Scheduling is known as a) software development?

a) PERT
Jo
Time Allocation
ffort Validation b) CPM
Defined Milestone c) CMM
Effort Distribution d) Both PERT and CPM
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: Program evaluation and review
technique (PERT) and critical path method

(CPM) are two project scheduling methods TOPIC 3.4 SEQUENCING AND
that can be applied to software development.
SCHEDULING
A technique for performing quantitative
analysis of progress is known as Round robin scheduling falls under the
a) BCWS category of ____________
b) EVA a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) BAC b) Preemptive scheduling
um
d) CBSE c) All of the mentioned d)
Answer: b
nt
Explanation: The earned value system Answer: b
ua
provides a common value scale for every Explanation: None.
_Q
task, regardless of the type of work being
performed. The total hours to do the whole With round robin scheduling algorithm in a
ks
project are estimated, and every task is given time shared system
an earned value based on its estimated a) using very large time slices converts it into
oo
percentage of the total. First come First served scheduling algorithm
_B
b) using very small time slices converts it
What is the recommended distribution of into First come First served scheduling
effort for a project? es
algorithm c) using extremely small time
ot
a) 40-20-40 slices increases performance
b) 50-20-30 d) using very small time slices converts it
_N
c) 30-40-30 into Shortest Job First algorithm

d) 50-30-20
TU
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: All the processes will be able to
K
Explanation: A recommended distribution of get completed.

A
effort across the software process is 40%

e/
(analysis and design), 20% (coding), and The portion of the process scheduler in an
m
40% (testing). operating system that dispatches processes is

/t.
concerned with
A project usually has a timeline chart a) assigning ready processes to CPU
s:/
which was developed by b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue

tp
a) Henry Gantt c) assigning running processes to blocked

b) Barry Boehm
ht
queue
c) Ivar Jacabson d) all of the mentioned
:-

in
Answer: a
Answer: a
Jo
Explanation: None.
xplanation: Timeline chart, also called a
Gantt chart was invented by Henry Gantt, an Complex scheduling algorithms
industrial engineer in 1917 . ____________
a) are very appropriate for very
. large computers
b) use minimal resources
TOPIC 3.3 ACTIVITIES c) use many resources d)
all of the mentioned

IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017
Answer: a tQ = 45ms
Explanation: Large computers are tQ = 50ms
overloaded with a greater number of
processes. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. What is FIFO algorithm?
first executes the job that came in last in Orders are processed in the sequence they
the queue arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs. a)
first executes the job that came in first in earliest due date
um
the queue b) slack time remaining
first executes the job that needs minimal c) first come, first
nt
processor served d) critical ratio
ua
first executes the job that has maximum
Answer: c
_Q
processor needs
Explanation: None.
ks
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which of the following algorithms tends to
oo
minimize the process flow time?
_B
The strategy of making processes that are a) First come First served
logically runnable to be temporarily hortest Job First
suspended is called ____________ es
Earliest Deadline First
Longest Job First
ot
a) Non preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
_N
c) Shortest job first Answer: b

d) First come First served Explanation: None.
TU
Answer: b Under multiprogramming, turnaround time

K
Explanation: None. for short jobs is usually ________ and that

A
for long jobs is slightly ___________

e/
7. What is Scheduling? a) Lengthened; Shortened

m
allowing a job to use the processor b) Shortened; Lengthened

making proper use of processor c) Shortened; Shortened
/t.
all of the mentioned d) Shortened; Unchanged

s:/
none of the mentioned

Answer: b
tp
Answer: a Explanation: None.

ht
Explanation: None.
Which of the following statements are
:-
in
There are 10 different processes running on a true? (GATE 2010)

workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an
Jo
I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling

input event in the input queue. Busy
processes are scheduled with the Round- Preemptive scheduling may cause starvat III.
Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for Round robin is better than FCFS in ter
small response times, if the processes have a
short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? I only
a) tQ = 15ms I and III only
b) tQ = 40ms
um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
II and III only are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation,

I, II and III Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and
Physical layer. Each layer uses a protocol to
Answer: d perform its designated function, for example,
Explanation: I) Shortest remaining time first the data link layer uses error detection
scheduling is a preemptive version of shortest protocols for error control functions.
job scheduling. It may cause starvation as
shorter processes may keep coming and a TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer
long CPU burst process never gets CPU. but OSI model have this layer.
um
Preemption may cause starvation. If priority a) session layer b)
based scheduling with preemption is used,
nt
transport layer c)
then a low priority process may never get application layer
ua
CPU. d) network layer
_Q
Round Robin Scheduling improves response
time as all processes get CPU after a Answer: a
ks
specified time. Explanation: In SI reference model, there
. are two layers which are not present in
oo
TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and
_B
Session layer. The functions of
TOPIC 3.5 NETWORK
Presentation and ession layer in the OSI
PLANNING MODELS es
model are handled by the transport layer
ot
itself in TCP/IP.
OSI stands for __________
_N
a) open system interconnection Which layer is used to link the network

support layers and user support layers? a)
TU
b) operating system interface

c) optical service implementation session layer
b) data link layer
K
d) open service Internet

c) transport layer
A
Answer: a d) network layer

e/
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for

m
Open System Interconnection OSI model Answer: c

/t.
provides a structured plan on how Explanation: Physical, data link and network
layers are network support layers and session,
s:/
applications communicate over a network,

which also helps us to have a structured plan presentation and application layers are user
tp
for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the support layers. The transport layer links these
ht
ISO as the generalized model for computer layers by segmenting and rearranging the data.
network i.e. it can be modified to design any It uses protocols like TCP and UDP.
:-
kind of computer network.

in
Which address is used on the internet for

Jo
The number of layers in ISO OSI reference employing the TCP/IP protocols?
model is __________ a) physical address and logical
a) 4 address b) port address
b) 5 c) specific address
c) 6 d) all of the mentioned
d) 7
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The physical, logical, port
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP

IT8075 Software Project Management *************** Join:-
https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum
***************
protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is
physical (MAC) and logical address, port
address and specific address are employed in
both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In
TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on
the internet implementation of these
addresses.
TCP/IP model was developed _____ the
um
OSI model.
a) prior to
nt
b) after
ua
c) simultaneous to
_Q
d) with no link to
ks
Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes
oo
were developed at multiple research
_B
centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas
OSI reference model was developed in the
year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the es
ot
intention to create a model for the Internet
while OSI was intended to be a general
_N
network model.
TU
Which layer is responsible for process to

process delivery in a general network model?
K
a) network layer
A
b) transport layer
e/
c) session layer
m
d) data link layer

/t.
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: The role of Transport layer

tp
(Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end

ht
connection between two systems in a

network. The protocols used in Transport
:-
layer is TCP and UDP. The transport layer is

in
responsible for segmentation of the data. It

Jo
uses ports for the implementation of process-

to-process delivery.
Which address is used to identify a process
on a host by the transport layer?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
Regulations 2017
Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to
identify a specific process to which an
Internet or other network message is to be
forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some
examples of port numbers are port 20 which
is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for
SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is used
um
for TELNET.
Which layer provides the services to user? a)
nt
application layer
ua
b) session layer
_Q
c) presentation layer
d) physical layer
ks
Answer: a
oo
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly
_B
interacts with application layer to create and
send information to other computer or
network. Application layer provides the es
ot
interface between applications and the
network. It is the top-most layer in both the
_N
TCP/IP and the OSI model.

TU
10. Transmission data rate is decided by

K
network layer
A
physical layer
e/
data link layer

m
transport layer
/t.
Answer: b
s:/
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device

tp
which deals with network cables or the

ht
standards in use like connectors, pins, electric

current used etc. Basically the transmission
:-
speed is determined by the cables and

in
connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that

Jo
determines the transmission speed in network.

Some of the cables used for high speed data
transmission are optical fiber cables and twisted
pair cables.
TOPIC 3.6 | 3.7 | 3.8

FORMULATING NETWORK
MODEL, FORWARD PASS &
35
IT8075 Software Project Management Regulations 2017
BACKWARD PASS Retesting

Sanity testing
TECHNIQUES
Breadth test and depth test
Confirmation testing
Which of the following term describes
testing? Answer: c
a) Finding broken code Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors on the already deployed software. The
c) A stage of all projects deployed software needs to be enhanced,
um
d) None of the mentioned changed or migrated to other hardware. The
Testing done during this enhancement,
nt
Answer: b change and migration cycle is known as
ua
Explanation: Software testing is the process maintenance testing.
_Q
of evaluation a software item to detect
differences between given input and White Box techniques are also classified as
ks
expected output. a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
oo
What is Cyclomatic complexity? a) c) Error guessing technique
Black box testing
_B
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
es
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the
ot
testing of the structure of the system or
_N
Answer: b component. Structural testing is often

Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or
TU
measures the amount of decision logic in ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural

the program module.Cyclomatic complexity testing we are interested in what is happening
K
gives the minimum number of paths that ‘inside the system/application’.

A
can generate all possible paths through the

e/
module. Exhaustive testing is

m
a) always possible
Lower and upper limits are present in
/t.
b) practically possible
which chart? c) impractical but possible d)
s:/
a) Run chart b) impractical and impossible

tp
Bar chart c)
Control chart Answer: c
ht
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing

:-
where we execute single test case for multiple

in
Answer: a test data.It means if we are using single test

xplanation: A run chart is used to monitor
Jo
case for different product or module under

the behavior of a variable over time for a manual testing.
process or system. Run charts graphically testing .
display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random
patterns in behavior over time. It contains Which of the following is/are White box
lower and upper limits. technique?
a) Statement Testing
Maintenance testing is performed using b) Decision Testing
which methodology?
um
nt
ua
_Q
ks
oo
_B
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
Jo
Condition Coverage TOPIC 3.10 RISK

All of the mentioned
IDENTIFICATION
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision What is the main purpose of hazard
testing, condition coverage all of them identification?
uses white box technique. a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
What are the various Testing Levels?
um
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
a) Unit Testing d) To reduce probability of occurrence
b) System Testing
nt
c) Integration Testing Answer: c
ua
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
_Q
step in risk assessment. he goal is to
Answer: d understand the concentration of toxins,
ks
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing spatial distribution and there movement.
all of them are levels in testing.
oo
2. The process determines whether exposure
Boundary value analysis belong to?
_B
to a chemical can increase the incidence of
a) White Box Testing adverse health effect.
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box
es
Hazard identification
ot
Exposure assessment
Testing d) None of the mentioned
_N
Toxicity assessment
Answer: b Risk characterization
TU
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is Answer: a

based on testing at the boundaries Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
K
between partitions and checks the output path of the toxins and also determines the
A
with expected output. likelihood of occurrence in humans.

e/
Alpha testing is done at a)

m
Which of the following data is not required

Developer’s end
/t.
for hazard identification?

b) User’s end a) Land use
s:/
c) Developer’s & User’s end b) Contaminant levels

tp
d) None of the mentioned c) Affected population

ht
Answer: a d) Estimation of risk

:-
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the Answer: d

developer’s end. Developers observe the
in
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

users and note problems. Alpha testing is
Jo
risk characterization whereas land use,

testing of an application when development is contaminant level, affected population and
about to complete. Minor design changes can biota data play a major role while identifying
still be made as a result of alpha testing. a hazard.
TOPIC 3.9 CRITICAL Hazard is defined as the probability of

suffering harm or loss.
PATH (CRM) METHOD a) True
b) False

Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Explanation: Risk is the probability of Poses threat to surrounding
suffering harm whereas hazard is a Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
um
humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes results in catastrophic.
of contamination on site
nt
d) For determination of remedial actions The purpose of risk management is to
ua
identify potential problems before they occur
_Q
Answer: c so that risk-handling activities may be
Explanation: Site history provides precise planned.
ks
information about the activities that had been a) False
carried on the area. Most of the instance b) True
oo
contamination is due to past activities on site.
_B
Answer: b
What is the main objective of risk Explanation: The main goal of risk
assessment?
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the
es
management is to reduce the threats from an
ot
activity so that harm to the surrounding is
risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites minimized.
_N
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants 10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
TU
Answer: a Chemical source and concentration

K
Explanation: Risk assessment helps to Chemical exposure

A
understand possible problems and Chemical analysis

e/
provides alternatives as well as control Chemical pathway

m
measures to reduce the accident.

Answer: a
/t.
What is the first stage of risk assessment? Explanation: The main aim of hazard
s:/
a) Exposure assessment identification is to identify chemical

tp
b) Hazard identification source, concentration and its movement in

c) Toxicity study environment.
ht
d) Risk characterization
:-
TOPIC 3.11 ASSESSMENT

in
Answer: b
Jo
xplanation: Hazard identification is the first

stage of risk assessment. It provides clear What is the main purpose of hazard
understanding about chemical contaminants, identification?
their concentration and distribution in a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
environment. b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
An incident can be called hazardous only d) To reduce probability of occurrence
when?
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

Answer: c contamination on site

Explanation: Hazard identification is the first d) For determination of remedial actions
step in risk assessment. The goal is to
understand the concentration of toxins, Answer: c
spatial distribution and there movement. Explanation: Site history provides precise
information about the activities that had been
The ____________ process determines carried on the area. Most of the instance
whether exposure to a chemical can increase contamination is due to past activities on site.
the incidence of adverse health effect.
um
a) Hazard identification What is the main objective of risk
assessment?
nt
b) Exposure assessment
c) Toxicity assessment a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the
ua
d) Risk characterization risks b) Remediation of contaminated sites
_Q
c) Hazard management
Answer: a d) To know source of pollutants
ks
Explanation: Hazard identification traces the
path of the toxins and also determines the Answer: a
oo
likelihood of occurrence in humans. Explanation: Risk assessment helps to
_B
understand possible problems and
Which of the following data is not required provides alternatives as well as control
for hazard identification? es
measures to reduce the accident.
ot
a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels What is the first stage of risk assessment?
_N
c) Affected population a) Exposure assessment

d) Estimation of risk b) Hazard identification
TU
c) Toxicity study
Answer: d d) Risk characterization
K
Explanation: Estimation of risk is done at

A
risk characterization whereas land use, Answer: b

e/
contaminant level, affected population and Explanation: Hazard identification is the first
m
biota data play a major role while identifying stage of risk assessment. It provides clear
understanding about chemical contaminants,
/t.
a hazard.
their concentration and distribution in
s:/
Hazard is defined as the probability of environment.

tp
suffering harm or loss.

a) True An incident can be called hazardous only
ht
b) False when?
:-
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to

in
Answer: b humans and ecological systems

Jo
xplanation: Risk is the probability of b) Poses threat to surrounding

suffering harm whereas hazard is a c) Monitoring is failed
potential source of harm. d) Outburst of chemicals
Why does site history have to be Answer: a
considered for hazard identification? Explanation: An incident is called hazardous
a) To estimate the risk only when the contaminant poses threat to
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure humans and ecological systems which may
c) To know the probable source and causes of results in catastrophic.

The purpose of risk management is to Which of the following risk is the failure of a
identify potential problems before they occur purchased component to perform as
so that risk-handling activities may be expected?
planned. a) Product risk
a) False b) Project risk
b) True c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: b
Explanation: The main goal of risk Answer: a
um
management is to reduce the threats from an Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or
nt
activity so that harm to the surrounding is performance of the software being developed.
minimized.
ua
Which of the following term is best defined
by the statement: “There will be a change of
_Q
Hazard identification mainly focus on
______________ organizational management with different
ks
a) Chemical source and priorities.”?
concentration b) Chemical exposure a) Staff turnover
oo
c) Chemical analysis b) Technology change
_B
d) Chemical pathway c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: a es
Answer: c
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Explanation: The main aim of hazard
identification is to identify chemical Explanation: None.
_N
source, concentration and its movement in

environment. Which of the following term is best defined by
TU
the statement: “The underlying technology on

which the system is built is superseded by new
K
TOPIC 3.12 RISK PLANNING

technology.”?
A
a) Technology change b)
e/
TOPIC 3.13 RISK Product competition c)

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Requirements change d)
MANAGEMENT
/t.

s:/
Risk management is one of the most Answer: a

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important jobs for a Explanation: Technology changes are

common in the competitive environment
ht
a) Client
b) Investor of software engineering.
:-
c) Production team
in
d) Project manager What assess the risk and your plans for risk
mitigation and revise these when you learn
Jo
Answer: d more about the risk?

xplanation: Risk management involves a) Risk monitoring
anticipating risks that might affect the b) Risk planning
project schedule or the quality of the c) Risk analysis
software being developed, and then taking d) Risk identification
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Which of the following risks are derived Risk management is now recognized as
from the organizational environment where one of the most important project
the software is being developed? management tasks.
a) People risks a) True
b) Technology risks c) b) False
Estimation risks d)
Organizational risks Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
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Explanation: These risks are at .
nt
management level.
TOPIC 3.14 PERT TECHNIQUE
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Which of the following risks are derived
_Q
from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system? Which of the following is not a phase of
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a) Managerial risks b) project management?
Technology risks c) a) Project planning b)
oo
Estimation risks d) Project scheduling c)
_B
Organizational risks Project controlling d)
Project being
Answer: b es
Answer: d
ot
Explanation: The risks associated
with technology might affect the Explanation: There are three phases of
_N
product development. project management. These are project

planning, project scheduling and project
TU
Which of the following term is best defined controlling. Project management refers to a
by the statement: “Derive traceability highly specialised job to achieve the
K
information to maximize information hiding objectives of a project.

A
in the design.”?
e/
a) Underestimated development time Who introduced the bar charts? a)

m
b) Organizational restructuring Williams henry

b) Henry Gantt
/t.
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned c) Jane Gantt d)
s:/
Joseph henry
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Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements Answer: b
ht
can help us understand the risk. Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the
:-
bar charts around 1900 A.D. They give

in
Which of the following strategies means pictorial representation in two dimensions of

that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
Jo
a project by breaking it down into numerous

a) Avoidance strategies manageable units.
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans Bar charts were modified later to obtain the
d) All of the mentioned milestone charts.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: None.

Answer: a progress, black colour is used and for progress

Explanation: The various tools or techniques behind schedule, red colour is used.
used for project management are bar charts,
milestone charts and network diagrams. Bar A PERT network is activity-oriented while a
charts were modified later to obtain the CPM network is event-oriented.
milestone charts. a) True
b) False
The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology Answer: b
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b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique Explanation: A CPM network is activity-
oriented while a PERT network is event-
nt
c) Program Evaluation and Robot
Technology d) Program Evaluation and oriented. Event is the completion of an
ua
Review Technique activity or the commencement of an
_Q
activity. An event may be head event, tail
Answer: d event or dual role event.
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Explanation: There are various network
techniques that are called by various names are used to represent activity in a network
oo
like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS. diagram.
_B
Network technique is one of the major a) Circles
advancements in management science. The quares
full form of PERT is Program Evaluation es
Rectangles
ot
and Review Technique. Arrows
_N
The full form of CPM is Answer: d

a) Critical Path Method b) Explanation: A network is a flow diagram
TU
Control Path Method that consists of events and activities which

c) Critical Plan Management are connected sequentially and logically.
K
d) Control Path Management Arrows are used to represent activity in a

A
network diagram. Events are generally

e/
Answer: a represented by circles.

m
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the

The shortest possible time in which an
/t.
Critical Path Method. CPM networks are

mainly used for those projects for which a activity can be achieved under ideal
s:/
fairly accurate estimate of time of circumstances is known as ________

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completion can be made for each activity. a) Pessimistic time estimate

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b) Optimistic time estimate

In bar charts, which colour is used to show c) Expected time estimate
:-
the actual progress? d) The most likely time estimate

in
a) Red
Jo
b) Black Answer: b
c) Blue Explanation: There are three kinds of time
d) Green estimates made by PERT planners. These are
the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic
Answer: d time estimate and the most likely time
Explanation: In bar charts, different colours estimate. The shortest possible time in which
are sometimes filled in the bars for showing an activity can be achieved under ideal
various control information. For actual circumstances is known as the optimistic time
progress, green colour is used. For anticipated estimate.

According to the time estimates made by the A randomized algorithm uses random bits as
PERT planners, the maximum time that input inorder to achieve a _____________
would be needed to complete an activity is good performance over all possible choice of
called as __________ random bits.
a) The most likely time estimate a) worst case
b) Optimistic time estimate b) best case c)
c) Pessimistic time estimate average case
d) Expected time estimate d) none of the mentioned
um
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: According to the time estimates Explanation: A randomized algorithm is an
nt
made by the PERT planners, the maximum algorithm that employs a degree of
ua
time that would be needed to complete an randomness as a part of its logic using
_Q
activity is called the pessimistic time random bits as inputs and in hope of
estimate. This estimate does not include producing average case good performace.
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possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.
Which of the following options match the
oo
In a network, a critical path is the time- given statement:
_B
wise shortest path. Statement: The algorithms that use the
a) True random input to reduce the expected
b) False es
running time or memory usage, but always
ot
terminate with a correct result in a bounded
Answer: b amount of time.
_N
Explanation: In a network, a critical path is a) Las Vegas Algorithm

the time-wise longest path. The critical path b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
TU
in the Critical Path Method plays an essential c) Atlantic City Algorithm

role in scheduling and planning. d) None of the mentioned
K
A
The difference between the maximum time Answer: a

e/
available and the actual time needed to Explanation: The other type of algorithms
m
perform an activity is known as are probabalistic algorithms, which

/t.
a) Free float depending upon the random input, have a

b) Independent chance of producing incorrect results or fail
s:/
float c) Total float to produce a result.

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d) Half float
Which of the following are probalistic
ht
Answer: c algorithms?
:-
Explanation: The difference between the a) Las Vegas Algorithm

in
maximum time available and the actual time b) Monte Carlo Algorithm
Jo
needed to perform an activity is known as the c) Atlantic City Algorithm

total float. Hence, the total float is the excess d) All of the mentioned
of the maximum available time throughout
the time of the activity. Answer: d
Explanation: Monte Carlo algorithms are
TOPIC 3.15 MONTE CARLO very vast, but only probably correct. On thr
other side, Las Vegas algorithms are
SIMULATION always correct, but probably fast.

Which of the following algorithms are randomized algorithms as probalistic

probably correct as well as fast? turing machines. A probalistic turing
a) Las Vegas Algorithm machine is a non deterministic turing
b) Monte Carlo Algorithm machine which randomly chooses between
c) Atlantic City Algorithm the available transitions at each point
d) All of the mentioned according to some probalistic distribution.
Answer: c For the given algorithm, find the
Explanation: The atlantic city algorithms
um
probability of finding after k iterations:
which are bounded polynomial time
find_a(array A, n, k)
nt
algorithms are probably correct and probably
fast. It is correct more than 75% of the times.
ua
begin
Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the
_Q
i=0
following:
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a) cooperative behaviour repeat
b) graph theory
oo
Randomly select one element
c) Both (a) and (b)
_B
d) None of the mentioned out i=i+1
Answer: a
Explanation: Prisonner’s dilemma is a
es until i=k or a is found
ot
end
standard example of a game analysed in game
_N
theory where rational cooperative behaviour k

is judged on the basis of rewards and (1/2)
TU
k
punishment. (1-(1/3))
1-(1/2)k
K
6. Unix sort command uses as its None of the mentioned

A
sorting technique.
e/
a) Quick Sort Answer: c

m
b) Bucket Sort Explanation: The given is known as Monte

Carlo Algorithm. If a is fount, the algorithm
/t.
c) Radix Sort
d) Merge Sort succeeds, else the algorith fails. The
s:/
algorithm doesn not guarantee success but the

tp
Answer: a run time is bounded.

ht
Explanation: Quicksort is the method of

choice in many applications( Unix sort Which of the following can be solved in
:-
command) with O(nlogn) in worst case. computer science?

in
a) P=BPP problem
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7. State true or false: b) NP=co-NP problem

Statement: A turing machine has the c) Do one way problems exist?
capability of using randomly ‘generated’ d) All of the mentioned
numbers.
true Answer: d
false Explanation: There exists a list of unsolved
problems in computational theory which
Answer: a includes many problems including the ones
Explanation: Complexity theories models given.

Which of the following can be referred to as In _________ the embedded devices and
applications of Randomized algorithm? a) objects working under IoT are resource
Quicksort constrained.
b) Min Cut a) Health
c) Verifying Matrix Multiplication b) Industry
d) All of the mentioned c) Home
d) Information system
Answer: d
Explanation: Freivalds algorithm is a Answer: d
um
probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to Explanation: In the information system the
verify matrix multiplication. On the other
nt
embedded devices and objects working under
hand, Randomness can be useful in quicksort. IoT implementation are resource constrained.
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If the algorithm selects pivot element
_Q
uniformaly at random, it has a probably high What type of networks is interacting under
probabilty of finishing the work in O(nlogn) IoT?
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time regardless of the input. a) Heterogeneous only
b) Homogeneous nly
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TOPIC 3.16 RESOURCE c) Both hetero and homogeneous
_B
d) Neither hetero nor Homo
ALLOCATION
es
Answer: a
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What is the popular method of organizing Explanation: Due to the huge number of
heterogeneous network elements interacting
_N
wireless network topologies?

a) Software and working under IoT based information
systems, there is an enormous need for
TU
b) Synchronization
c) Network resource management for the smooth
running of IoT operations.
K
d) Cluster
A
Answer: d Managing of resources can be done by

e/
Explanation: Clustering is a popular implementing

m
method of organising wireless network a) Protocols

/t.
topologies, in which a few nodes, the cluster b) Algorithms

c) Networks
s:/
heads are elected as representing to route the

traffic originated in the entire network. d) Protocols and algorithms
tp
Answer: d
ht
_________ will enable the humans to

access, control and manage the Explanation: Managing of resources by
:-
operation. a) IoT implementing protocols, algorithms or

in
b) Bigdata techniques is required to enhance the

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c) Network scalability, reliability and stability in the

d) Communication operations of IoT across different domains
of technology.
Answer: a
This section is to solicit the efforts and
Explanation: IoT enables the humans to
access, control and manage the operations ongoing research work in the domain of
and data of the objects working under _______
different information systems of their a) Information Management
surroundings. b) Resource Management

Industrial Management –> QoS in communication

Network Management protocol –> Mac layer issues
–> Secure communication in D2D.
Answer: b
Explanation: The motivation of this section Which of the following is the future
is to solicit the efforts and ongoing research application of IoT?
work in the domain of resource management a) Role of green IoT system
in IoT. b) QoS in communication c)
Secure communication
um
Resource management will elaborate the d) Multimedia communication
key aspects of _________
nt
a) Industrial management Answer: a
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b) Energy management c) Explanation: Future applications of IoT:
–> IoT based information system for
_Q
Network management d)
Information management Ambient living
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–> Cyber Physical System in IoT
Answer: c –> Role of Green IoT system –>
oo
Explanation: Resource management will Fog computing.
_B
elaborate the key aspects of energy
management, communication protocols and 11. The object of IoT will be empowered by
future applications of IoT for information es
Network
ot
systems.
Cloud
_N
Resource management includes Devices

___________ Connectivity
TU
a) IoT Devices
b) IoT Cloud c) Answer: c
K
IoT Networks Explanation: The objects of the Internet of

A
d) IoT Web Things will be empowered by embedded

e/
devices whose constrained resources will

m
Answer: b need to be managed efficiently.

Explanation: Resource management includes
/t.
IoT Cloud, IoT based industrial and home The embedded devices will form _______
s:/
environment and integration of IoT concept in network.

tp
upcoming technologies of Cyber Physical a) ATM b)

System, Ambient living and Fog Computing. Ethernet c)
ht
FDDI d)
:-
What is the role of communication protocol Ad-hoc

in
in IoT?
Answer: d
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a) Smart cities
b) Cyber physical system Explanation: It is envisioned that these
c) Mac layer issue devices will be able to form ad-hoc network,
d) Managing energy and that the connection from these networks
to the Internet of Things infrastructure will
Answer: c not always be possible.
Explanation: Role of communication
protocol in IoT : _______ are used to overcome the
–> Multimedia communication challenges of managing the resources of the

IoT. Architectural design is a creative process

Clustering satisfying only functional-requirements of a
Software agents system.
Synchronization techniques a) True
Cluster, Software agent, and b) False
Synchronization techniques
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: In architectural design you
Explanation: The use of Cluster, Software
um
design a system organization satisfying the
agent, and Synchronization techniques in functional and non-functional requirements
order to overcome the challenges of
nt
of a system.
managing the resources of the Internet of
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Things objects. 2. A view shows the system hardware and
_Q
how software components are distributed
Which will reduce the energy across the processors in the system.
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expenditure?
a) Clustering physical
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b) Software agents logical
_B
c) Synchronization techniques process
d) Cluster, Software agent, and all of the mentioned
Synchronization techniques es
Answer: a
ot
Answer: a Explanation: A physical view is
_N
Explanation: Clustering will be beneficial to implemented by system engineers

reduce the energy expenditure and improve implementing the system hardware.
TU
the scalability and robustness of the object

networks. 3. The UML was designed for describing
K
A
Synchronization techniques will be necessary object-oriented systems

e/
to address the various challenges of architectural design

m
harmonising. SRS
/t.
a) False Both object-oriented systems and

b) True Architectural design
s:/
tp
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Synchronization techniques Explanation: The UML was designed for
ht
will be necessary to address the various describing object-oriented systems and, at

:-
challenges of harmonising plenty of copies the architectural design stage, you often want
in
of object data with potentially partially to describe systems at a higher level of

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disconnected Internet of Things architecture abstraction.

components.
Which of the following view shows that
the system is composed of interacting
TOPIC 3.17 CREATION processes at run time?
OF CRITICAL PATHS, a) physical
COST SCHEDULES. b) development
c) logical
d) process

Answer: d Which of the following pattern is the basis

Explanation: This view is useful for of interaction management in many web-
making judgments about non-functional based systems?
system characteristics such as performance a) architecture
and availability. b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
Which of the following is an architectural d) different operating system
conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves Answer: c
um
performance but reduces maintainability b) Explanation: Model-View-Controller
Introducing redundant data improves
nt
pattern is the basis of interaction
availability but makes security more management in many web-based systems.
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difficult c) Localizing safety-related features
_Q
usually means more communication so What describes how a set of interacting
degraded performance components can share data?
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d) All of the mentioned a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern c)
oo
Answer: d repository pattern
_B
Explanation: High availability architecture d) none of the mentioned
can be affected by several design factors
that are required to be maintained to ensure es
Answer: c
ot
that no single points of failure exist in such Explanation: The majority of systems that
design. use large amounts of data are organized
_N
around a shared database or repository.

Which of the following is not included in
TU
Architectural design decisions? Which view in architectural design shows the

a) type of application key abstractions in the system as objects or
K
b) distribution of the system object classes?

A
c) architectural styles a) physical

e/
d) testing the system b) development

m
c) logical
Answer: d
/t.
d) process
Explanation: Architectural design decisions
s:/
include decisions on the type of application, Answer: c

tp
the distribution of the system, the Explanation: It is possible to relate the

system requirements to entities in a
ht
architectural styles to be used, and the ways

in which the architecture should be logical view.
:-
documented and evaluated.

in
Which of the following is a type of

Architectural Model?
Jo
Architecture once established can be

applied to other products as well. a) Static structural model b)
a) True Dynamic process model c)
b) False Distribution model
Answer: b
Explanation: Systems in the same domain Answer: d
often have similar architectures that reflect Explanation: All these models reflects the
domain concepts.

basic strategy that is used to structure Answer: a

a system. Explanation: LOC or Line of Code is a
direct measure to estimate project size.
.
Which software project sizing approach
develop estimates of the information domain
characteristics?
a) Function point
UNIT IV PROJECT sizing b) Change sizing
um
MANAGEMENT AND c) Standard component sizing
nt
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
CONTROL
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Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: None.
TOPIC 4.1 FRAMEWORK FOR
ks
MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL The expected value for the estimation
variable (size), S, can be computed as a
oo
Why is decomposition technique required? weighted average of the optimistic(Sopt),
_B
a) Software project estimation is a form of most likely (Sm), and pessimistic (Spess)
estimates given as
problem solving
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a es
a) EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 b)
ot
EV = ( opt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 c)
software project is too complex
EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6 d)
_N
c) All of the mentioned d)

EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4
TU
Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: This assumes that there is a
K
Explanation: For these reasons, we

very small probability that the actual size
A
decompose the problem, re-characterizing it

result will fall outside the optimistic or
as a set of smaller problems.
e/
pessimistic values.
m
Cost and effort estimation of a software uses

How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s
/t.
only one forms of decomposition, either

COCOMO Model?
s:/
decomposition of the problem or

a) Two
decomposition of the process.
tp
b) Three
a) True
c) Four
ht
b) False
d) No form exists
:-
Answer: b
in
Answer: b
Explanation: Estimation uses one or both
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Explanation: The three forms include the

forms of partitioning.
basic, intermediate and advanced COCOMO
If a Direct approach to software project model.
sizing is taken, size can be measured in a)
Who suggested the four different
LOC
approaches to the sizing problem?
b) FP
a) Putnam
c) LOC and FP
d) None of the mentioned b) Myers

Boehm Answer: b
Putnam and Myers Explanation: The planner must determine the
cause of divergence and then reconcile the
Answer: d estimates.
Explanation: None.
Programming language experience is a
In many cases, it is often more cost- part of which factor of COCOMO cost
effective to acquire, rather than drivers?
develop, computer software. a) Personnel Factor
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a) True b) Product Factor c)
b) False
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Platform Factor d)
Project Factor
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Answer: a
_Q
Explanation: Managers are faced with a Answer: a
make-buy decision in such situations. Explanation: None.
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A make-buy decision is based on whether a) If an Indirect approach is taken, then the
oo
The software may be purchased off-the- sizing approach is represented as
_B
shelf a) LOC
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” b) FP
software components should be used
c) Customer-built software should
es
c) Fuzzy Logic
ot
d) LOC and FP
be developed
_N
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b

Explanation: A function point (FP) is a unit
TU
Answer: d of measurement to express the amount of

Explanation: None.. business functionality an information
K
system provides to a user.

A
Which of the following is not one of the

e/
five information domain characteristics of .

Function Point (FP) decomposition?
m
a) External inputs b)
/t.
TOPIC 4.2 COLLECTION OF

External outputs c)
s:/
External process d) DATA

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External inquiries
Project management involves the planning,
ht
Answer: c monitoring, and control of the people,

:-
Explanation: External inputs, external process, and events that occur as software
in
outputs, external inquiries, internal evolves from a preliminary concept to an

logical files, external interface files are
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operational implementation.
the five domains. a) True
The project planner must reconcile the b) False
estimates based on decomposition techniques Answer: a
to produce a single estimate of effort. Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus?

people Answer: c
product Explanation: A small number of
popularity framework activities are applicable to all
process software projects, regardless of their size or
complexity.
Answer: c
Explanation: Effective software project Who defines the business issues that often
management focuses on the four P’s: have significant influence on the project? a)
Practitioners
um
people, product, process, and project.
b) Project managers
3. PM-CMM stands for c) Senior managers
nt
people management capability maturity d) None of the mentioned
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model
_Q
process management capability maturity Answer: c
model Explanation: None.
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product management capability maturity
model Who delivers the technical skills that are
oo
project management capability maturity necessary to engineer a product or an
_B
model application?
a) Practitioners
Answer: a
Explanation: The people management
es
b) Project managers
ot
enior managers
maturity model defines the following key None of the mentioned
_N
practice areas for software people: recruiting,

selection, performance management, training, Answer: a
TU
compensation, career development, Explanation: None.

organization and work design, and
K
team/culture development. Which of the following paradigm attempts to

A
structure a team in a manner that achieves

e/
Which of the following is not a project some of the controls associated with the
m
manager’s activity? closed paradigm but also much of the

innovation that occurs when using the random
/t.
a) project control
b) project management paradigm?
s:/
c) project planning d) a) asynchronous paradigm

tp
project design b) open paradigm

c) closed paradigm
ht
Answer: d d) synchronous paradigm

:-
Explanation: The design part of any project

in
management is done by the project team. Answer: b

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Explanation: Open paradigm team structures

5. A software provides the framework from are well suited to the solution of complex
which a comprehensive plan for software problems but may not perform as efficiently
development can be established. as other teams.
people
product Which of the following is a people-
process intensive activity?
none of the mentioned a) Problem solving
b) Organization

Motivation Who interacts with the software once it is

Project management released for production use?
a) End-users
Answer: d b) Client
Explanation: For this reason, competent c) Project (technical) managers
practitioners often make poor team leaders. d) Senior managers
Which paradigm structures a team loosely Answer: a
and depends on individual initiative of the Explanation: A product is always built
um
team members? to satisfy an end-user.
a) random paradigm
nt
b) open paradigm c) Which of the following is not an effective
ua
closed paradigm project manager trait?
_Q
d) synchronous paradigm a) Problem solving b)
Managerial identity
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Answer: d c) Influence and team building
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
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Which of the following is not an approach to
_B
Answer: d
software cost estimation? Explanation: All are key traits of an effective
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
es
project manager.
ot
c) Analytical Which type of software engineering team has
_N
d) Critical a defined leader who coordinates specific

tasks and secondary leaders that have
TU
Answer: d responsibility for sub tasks?

Explanation: Critical is no such standard a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
K
approach of cost estimation. b) Democratic decentralized

A
(DD) c) Controlled centralized

e/
. (CC) d) None of the mentioned

m
Answer: a
/t.
TOPIC 4.3 VISUALIZING

Explanation: Problem solving remains a
s:/
PROGRESS group activity, but implementation of

tp
solutions is partitioned among subgroups

Which paradigm relies on the natural by the team leader.
ht
compartmentalization of a problem and

:-
organizes team members to work on pieces of Commitments to unrealistic time and

in
the problem with little active communication resource estimates may result in
Jo
among themselves? a) project delay

a) random paradigm b) poor quality work
b) open paradigm c) c) project failure
closed paradigm d) all of the mentioned
d) synchronous paradigm
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.

Which software engineering team has no the functionality that must be delivered and
permanent leader? the process that will be used to deliver it.
a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
b) Democratic decentralized Which of the following is not a sign that
(DD) c) Controlled Centralized indicates that an information systems project
(CC) d) None of the mentioned is in jeopardy?
a) Software people don’t understand
Answer: b their customers needs
Explanation: Here Communication among b) Changes are managed poorly
um
team members is horizontal. c) Sponsorship is gained
d) Users are resistant
nt
Which of the following is not a project factor
ua
that should be considered when planning the Answer: c
_Q
structure of software engineering teams? Explanation: Other options are contradictory
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved to the question.
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b) High frustration caused by personal,
business, or technological factors that 11. SPMP stands for
oo
causes friction among team members Software roject Manager’s Plan
_B
c) The degree of sociability required for the Software roject Management Plan
project oftware roduct Management Plan
d) The rigidity of the delivery date esoftware Product Manager’s Plan
ot
Answer: c Answer: b
_N
Explanation: Development is irrelevant of Explanation: After planning is complete,

social quotient. documenting of the plans is done in a
TU
Software Project Management Plan(SPMP)

Which of the following is a collection of document.
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project coordination technique?

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a) Formal approaches .
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b) Formal, interpersonal procedures

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c) Informal, interpersonal procedures TOPIC 4.4 COST MONITORING

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Answer: d Which of the following categories is part of

the output of software process?
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Explanation: None.
a) computer programs
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Which activity sits at the core of software b) documents that describe the computer
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requirements analysis? programs

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a) Problem decomposition c) data

b) Partitioning d) all of the mentioned
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c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None
Answer: d
Explanation: During the scoping activity Which is a software configuration
decomposition is applied in two major areas: management concept that helps us to control
change without seriously impeding
justifiable change?

Baselines Baseline
Source code None of the mentioned
Data model
None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the Which of the following is the process of
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a assembling program components, data, and
software configuration item becomes a libraries, and then compiling and linking
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baseline, change may be made quickly and these to create an executable system?
a) System building
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informally.
b) Release management
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Software Configuration Management can c) Change management
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be administered in several ways. These d) Version management
include
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a) A single software configuration Answer: a
management team for the whole Explanation: None.
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organization b) A separate configuration
Which of the following option is not tracked
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management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management by configuration management tools? a)
distributed among the project members es
Tracking of change proposals
toring versions of system components
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Tracking the releases of system versions to
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Answer: a customers
Explanation: None None of the mentioned
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What combines procedures and tools to Answer: d

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manage different versions of configuration Explanation: All the options are tracked.
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objects that are created during the software

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process? Which of the following is not a Software

Configuration Management Activity?
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a) Change control
a) Configuration item identification
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b) Version control
c) SCIs b) Risk management
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d) None of the mentioned c) Release management

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d) Branch management
Answer: b
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Explanation: Configuration management Answer: b

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allows a user to specify alternative Explanation: Risk management is an entirely

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configurations of the software system through different domain.

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the selection of appropriate versions.

The definition and use of configuration
What complements the formal technical management standards is essential for
review by assessing a configuration object for quality certification in
characteristics that are generally not a) ISO 9000
considered during review? b) CMM c)
a) Software configuration audit CMMI
b) Software configuration management d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d which components in the system have been

Explanation: It is defined in all the changed.
mentioned options.
Which of the following is not a Version
What involves preparing software for management feature?
external release and keeping track of the a) Version and release identification
system versions that have been released for b) Build script generation
customer use? c) Project support
a) System building d) Change history recording
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b) Release management
Answer: b
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c) Change management
d) Version management Explanation: All other options are a part
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of version management.
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Answer: b
Explanation: None. Which method recommends that very
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frequent system builds should be carried out
. with automated testing to discover software
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problems?
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TOPIC 4.5 EARNED a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
VALUE ANALYSIS es
c) Large systems method
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Which of the following process ensures
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that versions of systems and components are Answer: a

recorded and maintained? Explanation: In keeping with the agile
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a) Codeline methods notion of making many small

b) Configuration changes, continuous integration involves
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control c) Version rebuilding the mainline frequently, after

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d) Workspace small source code changes have been made.

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Answer: b Which of the following is not a build

system feature?
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Explanation: In configuration control

changes are managed and all versions of a) Minimal recompilation
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components are identified and stored for the b) Documentation generation

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lifetime. c) Storage management

d) Reporting
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Which of the following process is

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concerned with analyzing the costs Answer: c

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and benefits of proposed changes? Explanation: To reduce the storage space

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a) Change management required by multiple versions of components

b) Version management that differ only slightly, version management
ystem building systems usually provide storage
Release management management facilities.
Answer: a Which of the following is a collection of

Explanation: It involves approving those component versions that make up a
changes that are worthwhile, and tracking system? a) Version
b) Codeline

Baseline new codeline from a version in an

None of the mentioned existing codeline”?
Branching
Answer: c Merging
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which Codeline
means that the versions of the components Mainline
making up the system cannot be changed.
Answer: a
Which of the following is a configuration Explanation: The code may then
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item? be developed independently.
a) Design & Test
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specification b) Source code .
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c) Log information
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d) All of the mentioned TOPIC 4.6 PRIORI IZING
MONITORING
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Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an
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approved and accepted deliverable, changes “Robustness” answers which of the
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have to be made through formal procedure. following description?
a) CA E tools be used to support the process
Which of the following is a part of system
release?
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activities
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b) Process errors are avoided or trapped
a) electronic and paper documentation before they result in product errors
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describing the system c) Defined process is acceptable and usable

b) packaging and associated publicity that
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by the engineers responsible for producing

have been designed for that release the software
c) an installation program that is used to help d) Process continues in spite of
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install the system on target hardware unexpected problems

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Answer: d
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Answer: d Explanation: None.

Explanation: Release creation is the process
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of creating the collection of files and Process improvement is the set of activities,
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documentation that includes all of the methods, and transformations that

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components of the system release. developers use to develop and maintain

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information systems.
A sequence of baselines representing a) True
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different versions of a system is known b) False

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as a) System building
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b) Mainline Answer: b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI) Explanation: The definition is of a
d) None of the mentioned system development process.
Answer: b “Understandability” answers which of the
Explanation: None. following description?
a) The extent to which the process is
Which of the following term is best explicitly defined
defined by the statement “The creation of a b) Process errors are avoided or trapped

before they result in product errors Process analysis

Defined process is acceptable and usable by Process modelling
the engineers responsible for producing the None of the mentioned
software product
Process continues in spite of unexpected Answer: c
problems Explanation: Process models may be
presented from different perspectives.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. It is always best to start process analysis
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with a new test model.
How many stages are there in process a) True
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improvement? b) False
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a) three
Answer: b
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b) four
c) five Explanation: It is always best to start
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d) six process analysis with an existing model.
People then may extend and change this.
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Answer: a
What is a tangible output of an activity that is
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Explanation: Process measurement, analysis
and change are the three stages. predicted in a project plan?
In which stage of process improvement

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a) Deliverable
b) Activity c)
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bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? Condition d)
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a) Process measurement Process

b) Process analysis
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c) Process change Answer: a

d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
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Answer: b What is often undefined and is left to the

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Explanation: In Process analysis the ingenuity of the project managers and

engineers?
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current process is assessed and bottlenecks

and weaknesses are identified a) Role
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b) Exception
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Prototypes and 4GL business systems are c) Activity

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categorized under which process? d) Process

a) Informal b)
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Managed c) Answer: b
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Methodical d) Explanation: Exceptions are often undefined

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Supported and it is left to the ingenuity of the project

managers and engineers to handle the
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Answer: a exception.
xplanation: Here the development team
chose their own way of working. Which of the following is not a part of
process change?
The documentation of a process which a) Introducing new practices, methods or
records the tasks, the roles and the entities processes
used is called b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Process metric project

Introducing or removing deliverable Project managers have to assess the risks

Introducing new roles or responsibilities that may affect a project.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Adding more developers aid to
process completion rather than changing it. Answer: b
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a anticipating risks that might affect the
continuous model.
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a) True software being developed, and then taking
b) False
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Answer: b Which of the following is not considered as a
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Explanation: The CMM is discrete rather risk in project management?
than continuous. a) Specification delays
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b) Product competition
The CMMI assessment is based on a x- c) Testing
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point scale. What is the value of x? d) Staff turnover
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a) 0
b) 2 Answer: c
c) 4
d) 6
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Answer: d The process each manager follows during

Explanation: Not performed, performed, the life of a project is known as
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managed, defined, quantitatively managed, a) Project Management

and optimizing are the six points. b) Manager life cycle
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. d) All of the mentioned

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TOPIC 4.7 PROJECT Answer: c

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TRACKING is necessary to repeatedly implement and

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manage projects successfully.

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Which of the following is not project

management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)
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a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

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b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

in
the agreed time c) moderate

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c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk
Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),
Explanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high
because professional software engineering is (50– 75%), or very high (>75%).
schedule constraints.

Which of the following is/are main Process analysis

parameters that you should use when De-processification
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Explanation: Estimation involves working and the external quality attribute
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Answer: b
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project c)
customers . es
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d) project manager
TOPIC 4.8 CHANGE CONTROL
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Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out
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the desired software qualities and describe 1. SCM stands for

how these are to be assessed. Software Control Management
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Software Configuration Management

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Which of the following is incorrect activity Software Concept Management

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for the configuration management of a None of the mentioned

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software system?
Answer: b
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a) Internship management
b) Change management c) Explanation: In software engineering,
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Version management d) software configuration management (SCM) is

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System management the task of tracking and controlling changes

in the software, part of the larger cross-
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Answer: a discipline field of configuration management.

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When code is made available to others, it
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goes in a/an
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to decide what system components to change, a) hard drive
how to manage different versions of the b) access-controlled
system and its components, and how to library c) servers
distribute changes to customers. d) access control
Identify the sub-process of process Answer: b

improvement Explanation: None.
a) Process introduction

Which of the following is not a main phase in What is one or more software configuration
Configuration Management (CM) Process? a) items that have been formally reviewed and
CM Planning agreed upon and serve as a basis for further
b) Executing the CM process development?
c) CM audits a) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
Answer: d d) Change Control
Explanation: All are main phases of CM.
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Answer: a
CM is about managing the different items Explanation: In configuration management, a
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in the product, and changes in them. “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the
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a) True attributes of a product, at a point in time,
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b) False which serves as a basis for defining change.
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Answer: a How are baselines verified? a)
Explanation: None. By reviews
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b) By inspections
What allows different projects to use the
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c) By testing of code d)
same source files at the same time? All of the mentioned
a) Version Control
b) Access control
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Answer: c
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c) CM Process Explanation: Testing verifies the agreed-
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d) Version Control and Access control to description.

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Answer: a Which of the following is a example of

Explanation: It allows software engineers to Configuration Items ?
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continue development along a branch even a) SCM procedures

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when a line of development is frozen. b) Source code

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c) Software design descriptions

Which of the following is not a change
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management process?
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a) Log the changes Answer: d

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b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule Explanation: All are covered in CM.
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c) Review impact with stakeholders

d) None of the mentioned SCM controls only the products of the
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development process.
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Answer: d a) True
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Explanation: All are required for a change. b) False

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Configuration management (CM) is needed Answer: a

to deliver product to the client Explanation: None.
a) True
b) False 12. CCB stands for
Change Control Board
Answer: a Change Control Baseline
Explanation: None. Cumulative Changes in Baseline

Answer: a Software Configuration Management can

Explanation: None. be administered in several ways. These
include
What information is required to process a a) A single software configuration
change to a baseline? management team for the whole
a) Reasons for making the changes organization b) A separate configuration
b) A description of the proposed changes management team for each project
c) List of other items affected by the c) Software Configuration Management
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changes d) All of the mentioned distributed among the project members
Answer: d
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Explanation: A baseline is an agreed-to Answer: a
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description of the product, changes Explanation: None
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require multiple reasons..
What combines procedures and tools to
.
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manage different versions of configuration
objects that are created during the software
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TOPIC 4.9 SOFTWARE process?
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a) Change control
CONFIGURATION b) Version control
MANAGEMENT esCIs
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Which of the following categories is part of
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the output of software process? Answer: b

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a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer allows a user to specify alternative
configurations of the software system through
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programs
c) data the selection of appropriate versions.
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What complements the formal technical

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Answer: d review by assessing a configuration object for

characteristics that are generally not
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Explanation: None
considered during review?
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Which is a software configuration a) Software configuration audit

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management concept that helps us to control b) Software configuration

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change without seriously impeding management c) Baseline

justifiable change? d) None of the mentioned
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a) Baselines b)
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Source code c) Answer: a

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Data model Explanation: None.

Which of the following is the process of
Answer: a assembling program components, data, and
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the libraries, and then compiling and linking
kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a these to create an executable system?
software configuration item becomes a a) System building
baseline, change may be made quickly and b) Release management
informally.

Change management Answer: b

Version management Explanation: None.
Answer: a .
Explanation: None.
Which of the following option is not tracked TOPIC 4.10 MANAGING
by configuration management tools? a) CONTRACTS - CONTRACT
Tracking of change proposals MANAGEMENT.
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b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to
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A voluntary arrangement between two or
customers
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more parties that is enforceable by law as a
d) None of the mentioned binding legal agreement is known as
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Answer: d
job
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Explanation: All the options are tracked.
loan
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Which of the following is not a Software contract
Configuration Management Activity? mutual fund
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a) Configuration item identification Answer: c
b) Risk management
c) Release management
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Explanation: A contract arises when the
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parties agree that there is an agreement.
d) Branch management
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Formation of a contract generally requires an

Answer: b offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual
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Explanation: Risk management is an entirely intent to be bound. Each party to a contract

must have capacity to enter the agreement.
different domain.
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Minors, intoxicated persons, and those under a

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The definition and use of configuration mental affliction may have insufficient
capacity to enter a contract. Some types of
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management standards is essential for

quality certification in contracts may require formalities, such as a
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a) ISO 9000 memorialization in writing.

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b) CMM c)
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What is the type of mistake which occurs

CMMI
when only one party to a contract is mistaken
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as to the terms or subject-matter?
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Answer: d a) Mutual mistake b)

Unilateral mistake c)
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Explanation: It is defined in all the

Bilateral mistake d)
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mentioned options.
Individual mistake
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What involves preparing software for

external release and keeping track of the Answer: b
system versions that have been released for Explanation: The courts will uphold such a
customer use? contract unless it was determined that the non-
a) System building mistaken party was aware of the mistake and
b) Release management tried to take advantage of the mistake. It is
c) Change management also possible for a contract to be void if there
d) Version management was a mistake in the identity of the contracting
party. An example is in Lewis v.

Avery where Lord Denning MR held that the Which tender allows anyone to submit a
contract can only be voided if the plaintiff can tender to supply the goods or services that are
show that, at the time of agreement, the required?
plaintiff believed the other party’s identity a) Framework tendering
was of vital importance. A mere mistaken b) Selective tendering
belief as to the credibility of the other party is c) Open tendering
not sufficient. d) Close tendering
_______________ contract is one that has Answer: c
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automatic renewals until one party requests Explanation: On larger projects, there may
termination. then be a pre-qualification process that
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a) Uniform b) produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who
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Evergreen c) will be invited to prepare tenders his sort of
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Moderate d) pre-qualification process is not the same as
On-demand selective tendering.
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Open tendering has been criticised for
Answer: b attracting tenders / expressions of interest
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Explanation: If these are left unattended, they from large numbers of suppliers, some of
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can have significant cost impacts with little whom may be entirely unsuitable for the
value. If these agreements won’t work for the contract and as a result it can waste a great
company, the clauses stating the contract es
deal of time, effort and money. However,
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automatically renews should be removed. If open tendering offers the greatest competition
the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out,
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and has the advantage of allowing new or

alerts can still be set in a contract management emerging suppliers to try to secure work.
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platform as a reminder.
6. involves the preparation of tenders
How are final contracts signed in modern based on a typical or notional bill of
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business? quantities or schedule of works.

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a) e-Signatures
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b) Document scanning Framework tendering

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c) Thump impression Selective tendering

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d) Shaking hands Negotiated tendering

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Serial tendering
Answer: a
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Explanation: Electronic signatures, or e- Answer: d

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Signatures, have become crucial for Explanation: The rates submitted can then be
businesses as they seek to increase the speed used to value works over a series of similar
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of time to signature, e-Signatures are legally projects, often for a fixed period of time
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binding and have the same legal status as a following which the tendering procedure may
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written signature, as long as it fulfills the be repeated. Serial tendering can reduce
requirements of the regulation it was created tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to
under. submit low rates to secure an ongoing
A contract management platform should program of work.
include the ability to integrate with an e-
Signature software, or include e-Signatures as _______________ tendering is used when
part of the platform. all the information necessary to calculate a
realistic price is available when tendering
commences.

Single-stage The form of contract.

Double-stage A tender pricing document.
Framework A drawing schedule.
Serial Design drawings.
Specifications.
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-stage tendering is the Mutual mistake occurs when both parties
more traditional route, used when all the of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.
information necessary to calculate a realistic a) False
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price is available when tendering commences: b) True
An invitation to tender is issued to
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prospective suppliers (perhaps following Answer: b
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completion of a pre-qualification Explanation: Each believes they are
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questionnaire and/or a pre-tender contracting to something different. Courts
interview). The invitation to tender will usually try to uphold such mistakes if a
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include information describing the goods or reasonable interpretation of the terms can be
services required in sufficient detail to found. However, a contract based on a
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enable prospective suppliers to prepare an mutual mistake in judgment does not cause
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accurate tender. the contract to be voidable by the party that is
Tenders are prepared and returned by adversely affected.
prospective suppliers (this may involve es
10. In chedule contract the contractor
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questions and answers and a mid-tender
interview to clarify the client’s requirements). undertakes the execution or construction of
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Submitted tenders are then assessed and specific work with all its contingencies, to
complete it in all respect within a specified
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compared (this may involve further

interviews). time for a fixed amount.
The preferred tenderer is selected and False
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negotiations opened. True

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Subject to the outcome of those negotiations

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Answer: a
the preferred tenderer may then be appointed.
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Explanation: In lump sum contract the

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An invitation to tender might not include? contractor undertakes the execution or

a) Holiday packages construction of specific work with all its
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b) Preliminarie contingencies, to complete it in all respect

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c) A letter of invitation to tender within a specified time for a fixed amount. In

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d) Design drawing this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a

specified lump sum after the completion of
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Answer: a work without a cost breakdown. After work

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Explanation: An invitation to tender might no detailed measurements are required.

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be issued for a range of contracts,

including; equipment supply, the main
construction contract (perhaps including
design by the contractor), demolition,
enabling works and so on. UNIT V STAFFING IN
An invitation to tender might include:
A letter of invitation to tender.
SOFTWARE PROJECTS
The form of tender.
Preliminaries. TOPIC 5.1 MANAGING PEOPLE

Project management involves the planning, Answer: d

monitoring, and control of the people, Explanation: The design part of any project
process, and events that occur as software management is done by the project team.
evolves from a preliminary concept to an
operational implementation. A software ________ provides the
a) True framework from which a comprehensive plan
b) False for software development can be established.
a) people
Answer: a b) product
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Explanation: None. c) process
d) none of the mentioned
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Which of the following is not an effective
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software project management focus? Answer: c
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a) people b) Explanation: A small number of
product c) framework activities are applicable to all
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popularity software projects, regardless of their size or
d) process complexity.
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Answer: c Who defines the business issues that often
Explanation: Effective software project have significant influence on the project? a)
management focuses on the four P’s: es
Practitioners
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people, product, process, and project. b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
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3. PM-CMM stands for d) None of the mentioned

people management capability maturity
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model Answer: c
process management capability maturity Explanation: None.
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model
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product management capability maturity Who delivers the technical skills that are
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model necessary to engineer a product or an

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project management capability maturity application?

a) Practitioners
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model
b) Project managers
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Answer: a c) Senior managers

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Explanation: The people management d) None of the mentioned

maturity model defines the following key
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practice areas for software people: recruiting, Answer: a

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selection, performance management, training, Explanation: None.

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compensation, career development,

Which of the following paradigm attempts to
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organization and work design, and

team/culture development. structure a team in a manner that achieves
some of the controls associated with the
Which of the following is not a project closed paradigm but also much of the
manager’s activity? innovation that occurs when using the random
a) project control paradigm?
b) project management a) asynchronous paradigm
c) project planning d) b) open paradigm
project design

closed paradigm None

synchronous paradigm
Answer: b TOPIC 5.3 BEST METHODS OF
Explanation: Open paradigm team structures STAFF SELECTION
are well suited to the solution of complex
problems but may not perform as efficiently TOPIC 5.4 MOTIVATION
as other teams.
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Which of the following is a people- Interviews are conversations with a)
intensive activity? fun
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a) Problem solving b) purpose
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b) Organization c) c) friendliness
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Motivation d) informality
d) Project management
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Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: The correct statement is:
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Explanation: For this reason, competent Interviews are conversations with purpose.
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practitioners often make poor team leaders. For the employer the purpose is to determine
the most suitable person for the job.
Which paradigm structures a team loosely
and depends on individual initiative of the
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A job interview is a formal meeting
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team members? between a job seeker and an employer.
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a) random paradigm a) True

b) open paradigm c) b) False
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closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm Answer: a
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Explanation: The statement is true. Interview

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Answer: d is a formal face-to-face meeting. A job

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Explanation: None. interview is a formal meeting between a job

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seeker and an employer.

Which of the following is not an approach to
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software cost estimation? All job interviews have the same objective. a)
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a) Empirical True
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b) Heuristic b) False
c) Analytical
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d) Critical Answer: a
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Explanation: The statement is true. All job

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Answer: d interviews have the same objective, but

xplanation: Critical is no such standard
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employers reach that objective in a variety of

approach of cost estimation. ways.
. Which of these is not a type of interview? a)
Screening interview
TOPIC 5.2 ORGANIZATIONAL b) Stress interview
c) Music interview
BEHAVIOR d) Lunch interview

Answer: c Which of these interviews is adapted for

Explanation: Interviews can be of nine types: computer programmers?
They are Screening interview, stress interview, a) The stress interview b)
behavioural interview, the audition, group The group interview c)
interview, telephone, lunch interview, video The screening interview
interview and sequential interview. d) The audition
Which kind of interview includes a process Answer: d
in which the employability of the job Explanation: For some positions such as
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applicant is evaluated? computer programmers or trainers, companies
a) Stress interview
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want to see you in action before they make
b) Screening interview their decision. Here, the audition type is
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c) Group interview adapted.
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d) Behavioural interview
In which of these, more than one candidate is
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Answer: b interviewed?
Explanation: In the screening interview, a) The behavioural interview
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companies use screening tools to ensure b) The stress interview
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that candidates meet minimum qualification c) The group interview
requirements. d) The audition
How many styles are used in a screening

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Answer: c
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interview? Explanation: In group interview, more than
_N
a) Two one candidate is interviewed. Interviewing

b) Five simultaneously with other candidates can be
TU
c) Three disconcerting, but it provides the company

d) Four with a sense of your leadership potential
K
and style.
A
Answer: a
e/
Explanation: There are two styles used in a Which of these interviews is taken for a
m
screening interview. They are: the directive candidate far away?

/t.
style and the meandering style a) Lunch interview

b) Telephone
s:/
In which of these interviews, insults are c) Stress interview

tp
common? d) Group interview

a) Screening interview
ht
b) Stress interview Answer: b

:-
c) Behavioural interview Explanation: Many organizations will

in
d) Group interview conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a

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field of candidates. Telephone interviews

Answer: b may also be used as a preliminary interview
xplanation: In stress interview, insults for candidates who live far away.
and miscommunication is common. All this
is designed to see whether you have the TOPIC 5.5 THE OLDHAM-
mettle to withstand the company culture or
other potential stress. HACKMAN JOB
CHARACTERISTIC MODEL

https://study.com/academy/practice/quiz- Factor of safety is used to find out the

worksheet-hackman-oldham-s-job- reliability of the design.
characteristics-model.html a) True
b) False
TOPIC 5.6 STRESS , Answer: a
HEALTH AND SAFETY Explanation: Factor of safety tells us about
how much load the material can take before it
um
Which of the following is the numerator of fails. Basically, it states the load carrying
factor safety formula? capacity of a material beyond the actual load.
nt
a) Working stress
b) Shear stress c) What can understand by the factor of safety
ua
Tensile stress d) equal to one?
_Q
Ultimate stress a) It means that the structure will fail under
load
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Answer: d b) It means that the structure will only
support the actual load
oo
Explanation: Factor of safety is defined as
ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. c) it means that the structure will support
_B
It is also called as factor of ignorance. The more than the actual load
factor of safety is dependent on the type of d) There is no relation between factor
load. es
safety and load application
ot
Which of the following can be the factor of Answer: b
_N
safety for a dead load? Explanation: When the factor of safety is one
it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the
TU
a) 6
b) 2 working stress and therefore the body can
only support load up to actual load and no
K
c) 4
d) 7 more before failing.
A
e/
Answer: c For which of the following design factor of

m
Explanation: For dead load, the range in safety the design will work properly?
/t.
which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. a) 0.1

Therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 b) 1
s:/
are all values which are beyond that range. c) 2

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d) 0.9
ht
Which of the following can be the factor of

safety for shock loading? Answer: c
:-
a) 11 Explanation: If the design factor of safety is

in
b) 13 not more than 1 then the design may not work

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c) 4 and will fail under certain conditions.

d) 7
What is a safe factor of failure for a
Answer: b component which on failure can result in
Explanation: For shock loading, the range in financial loss or serious injury?
which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. a) 1
Therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, b) 2
7 are all values which are beyond that range. c) 3
d) 4

Answer: d Dissemination of viruses or other malware

Explanation: For components which on All of the mentioned
failing can be hazardous and can lead to
serious injuries, death and financial loss, the Answer: d
factor of safety should be taken equal to or Explanation: None.
more than 4.
Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with
Design factor for most aircraft structures is reference to one of the eight principles as per
the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
um
a) True a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their
nt
b) False
products and related modifications meet the
ua
Answer: b highest professional standards possible
_Q
Explanation: The design factor of safety for c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
most aircraft structures or components is products and related modifications satisfy
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taken to be 1.5 and not 2. More factors the client
affect this value, but it is most of the time d) It means that the product designed /created
oo
taken as 1.5. should be easily available
_B
Answer: b
TOPIC 5.7 ETHICAL AND
PROFESSIONAL CONCERNS OF
es
Explanation: None.
ot
WORKING IN TEAMS Identify an ethical dilemma from the
_N
situations mentioned below:

a) Your employer releases a safety-critical
TU
Choose the correct option in terms of

system without finishing the testing of the
Issues related to professional
system
K
responsibility a) Confidentiality
b) Refusing to undertake a project
A
b) Intellectual property rights

c) Agreement in principle with the policies of
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual
e/
senior management
property rights
m

d) Managing Client Relationships
/t.
Answer: a
s:/
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: Engineers should normally
tp
respect the confidentiality of their employers Identify the correct statement: “Software
ht
or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

formal confidentiality agreement has been
:-
a) act in a manner that is in the best

signed.
in
interests of his expertise and favour.”

They should be aware of local laws governing b) act consistently with the public interest.”
Jo
the use of intellectual property such as c) ensure that their products only meet the
patents, copyright, etc. SRS.”
“Software engineers should not use their d) all of the mentioned
technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to: Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a
a) Unauthorized access to computer manner that is in the best interests of their
material b) Unauthorized modification of client and employer consistent with the public
computer material

interest and shall ensure that their products The reason for software bugs and failures is
and related modifications meet the highest due to
professional standards possible.Thus options a) Software companies
a & c are ruled out. b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and
Select the incorrect statement: “Software Developers d) All of the mentioned
engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside Answer: c
your competence.” Explanation: Software companies are
um
b) not use your technical skills to misuse responsible for making policies and providing
other people’s computers.” working atmosphere for the software
nt
c) be dependent on their colleagues.” development, so in turn these companies
ua
d) maintain integrity and independence become a part of software development
_Q
in their professional judgment.” process.Bugs from developers side is no new
thing. Thus option c answers the question.
ks
Answer: c
Explanation:None. Company has latest computers and state-of
oo
the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry
_B
Efficiency in a software product does not about the quality of the product.
include ________ a) True
a) responsiveness es
b) False
ot
b) licensing
c) memory utilization Answer: b
_N
d) processing time Explanation: The infrastructure is only

one of the several factors that determine
TU
Answer: b the quality of the product.

Explanation: Licensing of a software product
K
comes under corporate part of the software .

A
company.
e/
As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get TOPIC 5.8 DECISION MAKING
m
cancelled before they are completed, 53%

/t.
overrun their cost estimates by an average of Software Maintenance includes

s:/
189% and for every 00 projects, there are 94 a) Error corrections

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics
tp
b) Enhancements of capabilities c)
? Deletion of obsolete capabilities
ht
Lack of adequate training in software d) All of the mentioned

:-
engineering
in
Lack of software ethics and understanding Answer: d

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Management issues in the company Explanation: None.

Maintenance is classified into how many
Answer: a categories ?
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of a) two
Software Engineering as a subject,hence b) three
option a covers them both. c) four
d) five

Answer: c Selective retest techniques may be more

Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective economical than the “retest-
and preventive are the four types of software all”technique.How many selective retest
maintenance. techniques are there?
a) two
The modification of the software to match b) three
changes in the ever changing environment, c) four
falls under which category of software d) five
maintenance?
um
a) Corrective Answer: b
b) Adaptive Explanation: The three categories include:
nt
c) Perfective Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.
ua
d) Preventive
_Q
Which selective retest technique selects
Answer: b every test case that causes a modified
ks
Explanation: None. program to produce a different output than its
original version?
oo
How many phases are there in Taute a) Coverage
_B
Maintenance Model? b) Minimization
a) six b) afe
seven c) es
Maximization
ot
eight d)
nine Answer: c
_N
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus

Answer: c on coverage criteria, instead they select every
TU
Explanation: None. test case that cause a modified program to

produce different output than its original
K
What type of software testing is generally version.

A
used in Software Maintenance?

e/
a) Regression Testing 9. measures the ability of a regression test

m
b) System Testing c) selection technique to handle realistic

Integration Testing d) applications.
/t.
Unit Testing Efficiency

s:/
Precision
Answer: a
tp
Generality
Explanation: All other options are known as
ht
Inclusiveness
levels of software testing which further have
:-
types of software testing. Answer: c

in
Explanation: Generality measures the ability

Regression testing is a very expensive
Jo
of a technique to handle realistic and diverse

activity. language constructs, arbitrarily complex
a) True modifications, and realistic testing
b) False applications.
Answer: a Which regression test selection technique
Explanation: As regression testing is exposes faults caused by modifications?
performed many times over the life of the a) Efficiency
software product, it becomes a costly affair. b) Precision

Generality An implementation exhibits an architecture if

Inclusiveness it conforms to the structural decisions
described by the architecture and the
Answer: d implementation must be divided into
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the prescribed components
extent to which a technique chooses test cases None of the mentioned
that will cause the modified program to
produce different output than the original Answer: c
Explanation: An implementation exhibits an
um
program, and thereby expose faults caused by
modifications. architecture if it conforms to the structural
nt
decisions described by the architecture, the
. implementation must be divided into
ua
prescribed components.
_Q
TOPIC 5.9 ORGANIZATIONAL
Why does architecture dictates
STRUCTURES
ks
organizational structure?
a) Architecture describes the structure of the
oo
Why is Software architecture so important? system being developed which becomes
_B
a) Communication among stakeholders engraved in the development project structure
b) Early Design decisions b) An implementation exhibits an architecture
c) Transferable abstraction of a es
if it conforms to the structural decisions
ot
system d) All of the mentioned described by the architecture
c) Architecture may not describe structure
_N
Answer: d as whole
Explanation: Reasons of the architecture to d) None of the mentioned
TU
be important are all the mentioned above.

Answer: a
K
Why is software architecture called vehicle Explanation: Architecture describes the

A
for stakeholder communication? structure of the system being developed

e/
a) Each stakeholder of a software system is which becomes engraved in the

m
concerned with different characteristics of development project structure.

/t.
the system affected by architecture

b) Architecture provides a common language Which of the following is right dependence
s:/
in which different concerns can be expressed relationship?

tp
c) All of the mentioned a) Performance depends on how strongly

ht
d) None of the mentioned components are coupled with other

components in system
:-
Answer: d b) Re-usability depends on the volume and

in
Explanation: All of the mentioned are complexity of the inter-component

Jo
correct. communication and coordination

c) Modifiability depends on
Which lines depict that architecture defines system’s modularization
constraints on an implementation? d) All of the mentioned
a) An implementation exhibits an
architecture if it conforms to the structural Answer: c
decisions described by the architecture Explanation: Performance depends on the
b) The implementation need not be volume and complexity of the inter-component
divided into prescribed components communication and coordination,

re-usability depends on how strongly Which change is accomplished by

components are coupled with other modifying a single component?
components in system and modifiability a) A local change
depends on system’s modularization. b) Non Local Change
c) Architectural change
Which of the following is correct for d) All of the mentioned
decisions made at life cycle level?
a) Decisions at all level of like cycle from Answer: a
high level design to coding, Explanation: A local change is accomplished
um
implementation affect system quality by modifying a single component.
b) Decisions at all level of like cycle from
nt
high level design to coding, implementation An architecture help in evolutionary
ua
may or may not affect system quality prototyping in which of the following ways?
_Q
c) Decisions at all level of like cycle from a) Potential performance problem can be
high level design to coding,implementation identified early in the product’s life cycle b)
ks
does not affect system quality The system is executable early in the
d) None of the mentioned product’s life cycle
oo
c) All of the mentioned d)
_B
Answer: a None of the mentioned
Explanation: Decisions at all level of like
cycle from high level design to coding, es
Answer: c
ot
implementation affect system quality. Explanation: All the mentioned are the
valid ways.
_N
Is it possible to make quality predictions

about a system based solely on evaluation Which of the following are software
TU
of its architecture? structures?

a) Yes a) Module Structure
K
b) No b) Conceptual or logical
A
c) May be structure c) Process structure

e/
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned

m
Answer: a Answer: d
/t.
Explanation: Yes it is possible to make Explanation: All of the mentioned are

s:/
quality predictions about a system based the valid structures.

tp
solely on evaluation of its architecture.

Which structure describes units as
ht
Every possible architecture partition abstraction of system’s functional

:-
possible changes into which of the requirements?

in
following categories? a) Conceptual structure

Jo
a) Local b) Module structure c)

b) Non Local Physical structure d)
c) Architectural Calls structure
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Conceptual structure-describes
Explanation: All of the mentioned are true. units as abstraction of system’s functional
requirements.

Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the as-you-go usage model allows for costs to
module and conceptual view? be applied to individual accounts directly.
a) Module Structure
b) Process Structure 2. Point out the correct statement.
c) Uses Structure d) Except for tightly managed SaaS cloud
Data flow providers, the burden of resource
management is still in the hands of the user
Answer: b Cloud computing vendors run very reliable
Explanation: Process Structure-view is networks
um
orthogonal to the module and conceptual The low barrier to entry cannot be
accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning
nt
view.
ua
Which structure’s view shows the
_Q
mapping of software onto hardware? Answer: b
a) Module Structure Explanation: Often, cloud data is load-
ks
b) Process Structure balanced between virtual systems and
c) Physical Structure replicated between sites.
oo
d) Class Structure
_B
captive requires that the cloud
Answer: c accommodate multiple compliance regimes.
Explanation: Physical Structure- view shows es
a) Licensed
ot
the mapping of software onto hardware. b) Policy-based
c) Variable
_N
Which structure describes units are d) All of the mentioned

programs or module?
TU
a) Calls Structure Answer: b

b) Uses Structure Explanation: Compliance with laws and
K
c) Data Flow policies varies by geographical area.

A
d) Control Flow
e/
Security methods such as private

m
Answer: d encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes

Explanation: Control Flow-structure under subject area.
/t.
describes units are programs or module. Accounting Management

s:/
Compliance
tp
TOPIC 5. 0 DISPERSED AND Data Privacy

ht
VI TUAL TEAMS
:-
Answer: c
in
Which of the following subject area deals Explanation: To ensure data privacy in the
Jo
with pay as you-go usage model? cloud, additional security methods such as
a) Accounting Management private encryption, VLANs, firewalls, and
b) Compliance local storage of sensitive data are necessary.
c) Data Privacy
d) All of the mentioned 5. Point out the wrong statement.
Large cloud providers with geographically
Answer: a dispersed sites worldwide, therefore, achieve
Explanation: For cloud computing, the pay- reliability rates that are hard for private
systems to achieve

Private data centers tend to be located in Cloud ________ are standardized in order to
places where the company or unit was appeal to the majority of its audience.
founded or acquired a) SVAs
A network backbone is a very low-capacity b) SLAs
network connection c) SALs
None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: On the Internet, an Internet Explanation: Custom SLAs that allow for
um
backbone consists of the high-capacity multiple data sources are difficult to obtain
routes and routers that are typically operated
nt
or enforce.
by an individual service provider such as a
ua
government or commercial entity. 10. is a function of the particular enterprise
_Q
and application in an on-premises
Which of the following captive area deals deployment.
ks
with monitoring? Vendor lock
a) Licensed Vendor lock-in
oo
b) Variable but under Vendor lock-ins
_B
control c) Low None of the mentioned
Answer: b
es
Answer: b
ot
Explanation: Vendor lock-in for a cloud
Explanation: For private systems, any computing solution in a PaaS model is very
_N
monitoring system the organization wishes high.

to deploy can be brought to bear.
TU
Network bottlenecks occur when PIC 5.11 COMMUNICATIONS

K
data sets must be transferred. GENRES

A
a) large
e/
b) small
TOPIC 5.12
m
c) big
COMMUNICATION PLANS
/t.

s:/
Answer: a Which of these is the external sounds

tp
Explanation: This is the case for staging, present in the channels of communication?
ht
The reputation for cloud computing a) Noise

b) Semantic problems
:-
services for the quality of those services is

c) Cultural barriers
in
shared by
d) Over communication
Jo
a) replicas
b) shards Answer: a
c) tenants Explanation: Noise is the external sounds
d) all of the mentioned present in the channels of communication,
Answer: c which results in the reduction of the audibility
Explanation: Clouds often have or omission of some words from the message.
higher reliability than private systems. Which of these should not be avoided for
effective communication?

Noise the jungle of information whereas in

Planning under communication the sender is
Semantic problems blamed for sharing less information.
Wrong assumptions
Communication should serve as a conflict-
Answer: b reduction exercise.
Explanation: Lack of planning must be a) True
avoided for effects communication. There b) False
are innumerable examples of people who
um
would give an ill planned, long winding Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true
nt
lecture while a short presentation with tables
or graphs would be sufficient. Communication should serve as a conflict-
ua
reduction exercise. When people start
_Q
__________ are problems arising from competing for the fulfillment of their narrow
expression. interests communication suffers.
ks
a) Cultural barriers b)
Semantic problems c) means to impart understanding of the
oo
Wrong assumptions d) message.
_B
Selecting perception a) Encoding
b) Receiver
Answer: b es
c) Decoding
ot
Explanation: The correct statement is: d) Feedback
Semantic problems are problems arising from
_N
expression or transmission of meaning in Answer: c

communication. Explanation: The correct statement is:
TU
Decoding means to impart understanding of

Both encoding and decoding of message the message. Receiver has to identify the
K
are influenced by our emotions. person, words symbols, etc..

A
a) True
e/
b) False When is the communication process

m
complete?
Answer: a a) When the sender transmits the
/t.
Explanation: The statement is true. Both message b) When the message enters the
s:/
encoding and decoding of message are channel c) When the message leaves the
tp
influenced by our emotions. Emotions play a channel d) When the receiver

very important role in our lives. understands the message.
ht
:-
In which of these problems, is the actual Answer: d

in
message lost in the abundance of Explanation: Communication is complete

Jo
transmitted information? only when the receiver understands the

a) Selecting perception b) message. Many communication problems
Over communication c) arise because of misunderstandings.
Under communication d)
Filtering ______ is the first enemy of
communication.
Answer: b a) Noise
Explanation: In the case of over b) Clarity
communication, the actual message is lost in

Politeness important. The sender of the message should

Completeness be careful to see that the receiver does not
have to go beyond the text of the message.
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct statement is: Noise Which of these is not a commandment of
is the first and foremost enemy of effective communication?
communication. Every possible effort must be a) Clarity in language
made to eliminate the element of noise that b) Listen poorly
c) Home communication skills
um
distorts communication.
d) Adequate medium
Which of these must be avoided for
nt
effective communication? Answer: b
ua
a) Sharing of activity Explanation: In order to ensure an effective
_Q
b) Listening communication one must take care of ten
c) Ambiguity commandments: Clarity in language, home
ks
d) Politeness communication skills, listen attentively, etc..
oo
Answer: c
_B
Explanation: Ambiguity must be avoided.
Clarity and crispness of the message is very
es
ot
_N
TU
K
A
e/
m
/t.
s:/
tp
ht
:-
in
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CSE - Professional Which of the following is not considered as a

c) Project Management Life Cycle

TOPIC 1.1 IMPORTANCE

Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle

is necessary to repeatedly implement and

Which of the following is not project

management goal? A 66.6% risk is considered as a)

a) Keeping overall costs within budget very low

b) Delivering the software to the customer at b) low

c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning d) high

Explanation: The probability of the risk

Answer: d might be assessed as very low (<10%),

xplanation: Projects need to be managed low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high

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for the configuration management of a constraints

a) Internship management composition of software product

Version management d) desires

System management d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: Software design explains all of

and process proposed system changes, how

distribute changes to customers. output

b) A design notation is a symbolic

*************** Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum *************** 2

Answer: b Software Engineering)

d) It follows Structure chart Checking model’s completeness

Answer: c heuristics d) All of the mentioned

problem is a data flow diagram of structure Answer: d

design. Explanation: All of these tasks are followed

What is the solution for Structural design?

flow diagram a) Object oriented design is a far better

b) Procedures represented as bubbles c) approach compared to structural design

Specification model is structure chart b) Object oriented design always

d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition preference than structural design

d) Object oriented uses more specific

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It follows regular procedural Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with

b) Intellectual property rights

Answer: c Explanation: None.

Explanation: Engineers should normally

or clients irrespective of whether or not a engineers shall

patents, copyright, etc.

“Software engineers should not use their

technical skills to misuse other people’s Answer: b

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Select the incorrect statement: “Software Answer: c

TOPIC 1.4 SETTING

As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get

overrun their cost estimates by an average of principles followed by Software Engineering

restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics a) PUBLIC

a) Lack of adequate training in software c) PRODUCT

b) Lack of software ethics and understanding

c) Management issues in the company Answer: d

d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Rest all are clauses for

Answer: a on specific clause nor its of importace related

Explanation: Option b & c are a part of to question.

Software Engineering as a subject,hence

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Answer: d types of software as a whole?

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_&_ are two the phase which focuses on what,

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