ĐỀ BD HSG ANH NGÀY 15/7/2021 SỐ 2 MRS HƯƠNG

SECTION I. LISTENING. (3 points – 0.2/each)

There are two parts in this section. You will hear each part twice. After each part, you will have a
fifteen-second pause to do.
Part 1. Questions from 1 to 5. (1.0 points - 0.2/each)
Listen to Duncan talking to a friend about a tennis course. Choose the correct answer for each of
the following questions. You will hear the conversation twice.
1. Duncan stayed in a hotel________.
A. in a town B. near the sea. C. in the mountains
2. Duncan’s teacher comes from ________.
A. England B. France C. Canada
3. How much did Duncan pay for the course?
A. £185 B. £205 C. £265
4. Before the course, Duncan bought himself some tennis ________.
A. shoes B. clothes C. balls
5. On the last evening, there was ________.
A. a party B. a film show C. a tennis match
Part 2. Questions from 6 to 15. (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
You will hear a woman calling a local museum about children's art and craft workshops.
Complete the notes below. Write no more than ONE words, or numbers for each blank.

CHILDREN'S ART AND CRAFT WORKSHOPS

• Workshops organised every: (6) .....................................

• Children below (7) .....................................years of age are accompanied by an adult.
• Cost: £ (8) .....................................per child
• Workshops held in: Winter House, on (9) ..................................... Street
• Security device: must push the (10) ..................................... button to open door
• Should leave car at the back of the (11) .....................................
• Book workshops by calling the (12) ..................................... department (on 200765)

* Next two workshops

Date Workshop title Children advised to wear: Please bring (if possible):
16/11 Building castles (13) old ............................................... bottle tops

23/11 (14) ..................................... Worlds Nothing special (15) ..................................... paper

SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)

Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
16. The woman who was taken to hospital had been ________ for three hours.
A. indifferent B. insensitive C. unfeeling D. unconscious
17. We’re now attending evening classes to ________our English and computer skills.
A. improve B. learn C. know D. study
18. Mary rarely uses social networks, ________?
A. isn't she B. is she C. doesn't she D. does she
19. The doctor has advised________ less coffee.

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 A. me drink B. me to drink C. me drinking D. I will drink
20. Your hair needs ________. You’d better have it done tomorrow.
A. cut B. to cut C. being cut D. cutting
21. Regina, ________you have never met before, is a genius in painting.
A. that B. whose C. whom D. whomever
22. The student was ________ of understanding the theory even after the professor's profound
explanation.
A. incompetent B. incapable C. helpless D. unsuccessful
23. He refused to give up work, ________ he’d won a million pounds
A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though
24. If you go on ________me like this, I will never be able to finish writing my report.
A. disturbing B. afflicting C. concerning D. affecting
25. Turn off this machine, please. The harsh sound really ________ me crazy.
A. takes B. worries C. drives D. bothers
26. By half past ten tomorrow morning, I ________ along the motorway
A. will drive B. am driving C. will be driving D. drive
27. As soon as you hear the alarm, you all have to leave the building ________.
A. on the verge B. under law C. at no time D. without delay
28. You have to ________or you won’t understand the explanation.
A. contact B. consider C. involve D. concentrate
29. Jane really loves the ________, jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. wooden brown nice B. nice wooden brown
C. brown wooden nice D. nice brown wooden
30. - Susan: “________.” - Peter: “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.”
A. Do you like eating cookies? B. Would you like some cookies?
C. Do you have any cookies? D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?
31. She took a course in fine arts________starting her own business in interior design.
A. with a view to B. in terms of C. in order to D. with preference to
32. I can’t imagine________anywhere except here.
A. studying B. to study C. study D. that I stud
33. He _______making a decision till it was too late to do anything.
A. postponed B. arranged C. agreed D. failed
34. - Minh: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas: “________.”
A. Good Heavens! B. Never mind. Better job next time!
C. That’s brilliant enough. D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.
35. It is essential________ what to do when there is a fire.
A. that everyone knows B. that everyone know
C. he must know about D. that he knew
Part 2. Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each sentence.
36. We had an ..................................... day boating on the lake last weekend. ENJOY
37. Daily ..................................... of classes is desirable, if not compulsory. ATTEND
38. One must be highly ..................................... to write such an interesting essay. IMAGINE
39. We had a ..................................... time in Spain last summer vacation. WONDER
40. You have to do a lot of special exercise to ..................................... your muscles. STRONG
41. Insecure people often do things just to avoid other people's ................................. APPROVE
42. Without his teacher’s ....................................., he would have given up long ago. COURAGE
43. Police are investigating the ..................................... of the woman in our village. APPEAR
44. All members of our team played ....................................., so we lost the game. SUCCESS

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45. They are young and ..................................... parents so they need support. EXPERIENCE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50. (1 points - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. What is the percentage of Canadians who can say both English and French?
47. Now that I’ve become old, I can’t read as quick as I used to.
48. Why don’t you congratulate our son about passing his final exam?
49. Each of the members of the group are made to write a report every week.
50. He felt discouraging when he failed the exams the second time.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55. (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition.
51. She did a translation .................................. English of some ancient Chinese poems.
52. The neighbours were always complaining to us .................................. our dog.
53. .................................. mistake, I took the wrong book from my desk this morning.
54. When I realized that I was wrong, I apologized .................................. my fault.
55. If you want to be healthy, you should give .................................. your bad habits in your lifestyles.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Speech is one of the most important (56) ________ of communicating. It consists of far more
than just making noises. To talk and also to (57) ________ by other people, we have to speak a
language, that is, we have to use combinations of (58) ________ that everyone agrees to stand for a
particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language.
Learning a language properly is very (59) ________. The basic (60) ________ of English is not very
large, and not only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (61) ________. But the more idea
you can (62) ________ the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the (63)
________thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (64) ________ the words is
also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (65) ________ whether we are
pleased or angry, for instance.
56. A. reason B. tests C. rules D. ways
57. A. be spoken B. be examined C. be understood D. be talked
58. A. systems B. sounds C. languages D. talks
59. A. easy B. important C. simple D. expensive
60. A. grammar B. word C. vocabulary D. structure
61. A. fluent B. good C. perfect D. well
62. A. need B. grow C. express D. pass
63. A. main B. certain C. full D. most
64. A. talk B. say C. pass D. send
65. A. show B. ask C. understand D. know
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What
causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may die. The exact
causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an
environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be
adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a
species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment,
resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent
analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a
mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago

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with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the
one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass
extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the
close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of
the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not
living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years
have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be due to
intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some
researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be
eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do
with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of
essentially random events.

66. The word “it” in line 2 refers to ________.

A. environment B. species C. extinction D. 99 percent
67. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
68. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species
C. Temperature changes D. Competition among species
69. The underlined word “ultimately” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. exceptionally B. unfortunately C. finally D. dramatically
70. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that ________.
A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
71. The word “demise” is closest in meaning to________.
A. help B. death C. recovery D. change
72. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred________.
A. 65 million years ago B. 250 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago D. 26 million years ago
73. Why is “plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interrelationship of different species
74. The underlined word “finding” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. published information B. research method
C. scientific discovery D. ongoing experiment
75. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in
paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.

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Part 3: Questions 76 – 85. (2.0 points- 0.2/ each)
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap.
The world’s oceans are so vast that they can cope (76) .................................. the present levels of
pollution. However, little is known about the long-term effects of such slow poisoning. The (77)
.................................. serious problem of modern times is that man is destroying the earth’s (78) ..................................
resources and transforming huge areas into wasteland. As a (79) .................................., it is becoming
extremely difficult to grow (80) .................................. to feed the world’s rapidly increasing population. A way
of (81) .................................. all the wildlife on the earth must also be found as many species are in (82)
.................................. of disappearing completely from the face of the earth. The dangers, however, are not
confined solely to the land and the sea. for (83) .................................., the smoke in the atmosphere is
increasing so (84) .................................. that the amount of sunlight has been reduced in many cities. Man’s
whole environment is (85) .................................. changed in a serious way.
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 points)
Part 1: Questions 86 – 90. (1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to him.
 I wish ..........................................................................................................................................................................................................................
87. It is extremely difficult for them to cut down on smoking.
 They find ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................
88. It is said that he escaped to a neutral country.
 He ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
89. I haven’t gone to the cinema for two months.
 The ................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
90. I have seldom heard such a talented singer.
 Seldom .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Part 2: Questions 91 – 95. (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the given
word. Do not change the given word.
91. “It was Peter who left the door unlocked!” said Daisy. (accused)
 Daisy ……………………………………………..………………………. the door unlocked.
92. It’s Huong’s job to take care of her little brother. (responsible)
 Huong …………………………………………………….…………………. after her little brother.
93. I haven’t decided yet whether to move or not. (made)
 I haven’t ………………………………………………..………………………. whether to move or not yet.
94. They have postponed the match until the end of August. (put)
 The match………………………………………………..………………………. until the end of August.
95. George never pays any attention to his father’s advice. (notice)
 George ………………………………………………..…………………………. of his father’s advice.
Part 3: Paragraph writing. (2.0 points)
Write a paragraph (100-120 words) about how to improve your English.
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