Paper-1 Set A Key: General Instructions

Paper-1 Set A Key
Regn No: ____ _____________

Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit
Date: 23.05.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150
General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place
Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50
(i) Answer all 50 questions

(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions
1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves
a) 0.1 b) 2 c) 0.4 d) 4
2. The average operating Station Heat Rate (SHR) of a Thermal Power Plants is 3000
kCal/kWh; corresponding to this the station thermal efficiency in percentage is
a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%

3. Which of the following may not be a suitable energy security option for India ?
a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation

c) increasing Renewable Energy use d) increasing oil fired thermal power stations
4. The Sector which is not a Designated consumer as per the latest Gazette is
a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings

5. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manger is
mandatory for
a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies
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Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key
c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees

6. Which of the following could be a better index of Building Energy Performance?
a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof

b) ratio of air-conditioned to total carpet area
c) kWh per unit area of the building per year(kWh /Sq. meter/year)
d) ratio of Captive generation to grid power consumed
7. Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 1 bucket (20 lit) of hot water from 30-
0
50 C
a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh

8. Which of the following energy storage methods has the highest energy densities (kWh per
kg)?
a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery

9. The rate of energy transfer is measured in
a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above

10. A three phase induction motor is drawing 15 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.80 and the motor efficiency is 90%, then the power drawn by the
motor is
a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW

11. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
12. Water flow in pipes is measured by
a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer

13. The generally accepted energy performance parameter for thermal power plants would be
a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
14. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic

15. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing
a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs

c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
16. In general Specific Energy Consumption of a process plant for a given product mix and
raw material mix
a) increases with increasing capacity utilization

b) decreases with increasing capacity utilization
c) remain almost constant irrespective of capacity utilization
d) has no relation with capacity utilization
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17. Which of the following will not motivate employees to conserve energy?
a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives

18. Which of the following best defines the role of an energy manager ?
a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant

b) intermediate player between top management, energy and cost centers of the plant
c) in charge of the captive power plant and mediator between plant and Electricity boards
d) mediator between production manager and project manager
19. Ten barrels of crude oil is equivalent to
a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters

20. If feed of 100 tonnes with 40% moisture, is dried to 20% moisture, the amount of water
vapour evaporated would be
a) 20 b) 28 c) 30 d) 40
21. The force field analysis in energy action planning considers
a) positive forces only b) negative forces only

c) both negative and positive forces d) no forces
22. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 20%. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is
14 and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler
chimney in kg/ hour would be
a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660

23. Which of the following is false?
a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J

c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kCal = 1 kWh
24. The contract in which the ESCO provides financing and is paid an agreed fraction of
actual savings as they are achieved is called
a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms

c) shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
25. Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
n n n n
a) NPV (1 – i) b) NPV + (1 – i) c) NPV (1 + i) d) NPV/ (1 + i)
26. The cost of installation of a variable speed drive in a plant is Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings are Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of
a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions

c) capital investment d) best financing source
28. For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which of these
analysis would be the best option
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a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR

29. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate
a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation

30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 10%
interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no
money is withdrawn?
a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000

31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called
a) performance contract
b) traditional contract
c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the
plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?
a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above

33. In Project Management the critical path in the network is
a) the quickest path b) the shortest path

c) the path from start to finish d) the path where no activities have slack
34. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects is called
a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT

35. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,
a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above

36. The calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/ kg. Find out the coal equivalent to replace 1 kg of
oil (Coal GCV = 16000 KJ/kg) assuming same efficiency
a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above

O O
37. In a heat exchanger, inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water are 28 C & 33 C. The
cooling water circulation is 200 litres /hr. The process fluid enters the heat exchangers at
O O
60 C and leaves at 45 C. Find out the flow rate of the process fluid?
(Cp of process fluid =0.95)
a) 70 b) 631 c) 63 d) 570
38. Which of these is not a duty of an energy manager
a) Report to BEE
b) Provide support to accredited energy auditing firm
c) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
d) Sign an energy policy
39. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates
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a) poor process control b) many forced outages

c) poor process monitoring d) none of the above
40. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then
a) nothing can be said

b) energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is increasing
d) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
41. Due to high oil prices, a firm goes for substitution of oil and with biomass in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely
a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency

c) higher energy consumption d) less smoke in the stack
42. Which of the following Financial Analysis Techniques fails to consider the time value of
money
a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

c) Net Present Value (NPV) d) none of the above
43. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of
25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available
and project technical life is the same?
a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense

44. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
company is to produced 80,000 Tons of product
a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000

45. Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance
a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning

c) Loss of Biodiversity d) Suspended particulate Matter
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of annex-I countries as per Kyoto protocol
is
a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022

47. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Nitrous Oxide gas is
a) 1 b) 21 c) 270 d) 100
48. The national inventory of greenhouse gases in India indicates that about __ % of the total
CO2 emissions come from energy sector
a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible

49. Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between
a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground

c) 50 to 100 km above the ground d) 100 to 200 km above the ground
50. In CDM terminology CER means
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Paper 2 – Set A Key
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – MAY, 2009

FOR
Paper – 2: Energy Efficiency in Thermal Utilities
Date: 23.05.2009 Timings: 1400 to 1700 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

1 The amount of theoretical air required for complete combustion of one ton of coal as compared
to that required for one ton of fuel oil is:
a) higher b) lower c) equal d) none of the above

2 2
2 If saturated steam at a pressure of 20 Kg/cm (a) is reduced to 10 Kg/cm (a), through a pressure
reducing valve, the steam will
a) condense b) remain saturated

c) get superheated d) be a mixture of 50% steam and 50% condensate
3 The unit of specific gravity in SI system is ___________
3 3 2
a) N/m b) kgf/m c) kg/m d) no unit
4 In a furnace, an oxygen rich combustion air (Oxygen – 30% vol. and Nitrogen – 70% vol) is
supplied instead of normal air (oxygen – 21% vol. and Nitrogen – 79% vol). By maintaining the
other parameters same, the % age of carbon dioxide in the flue gases will be
a) same b) lower c) higher d) zero

5 What type of steam is generally used for electrical power generation?
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a) high pressure steam with super heat b) dry saturated steam

c) dry saturated steam with high pressure d) wet steam with very high pressure
6 In a low temperature waste heat recovery system, which of the following device is the most
suitable
a) Economiser b) heat wheels c) regenerator d) ceramic recuperator

7 Heat transfer rate for drying application will be less if we heat with
a) saturated steam b) dry steam c) superheated steam d) high pressure steam

8 An oil fired boiler is operating at 5% O2 in the flue gas. The percentage excess air supplied to the
boiler is approximately
a) 15 % b) 25 % c) 31 % d) 42 %
9 Which of the following is used as insulation in low temperature applications ?
a) ceramic fibre b) calcium silicate c) fibre glass d) polystyrene

10 The coefficient of thermal expansion of refractory material should be
a) low b) high c) medium d) very high

11 One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% Hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?
a) 0.2 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.65 kg d) none of the above

12 A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates
a) drop in the contamination of feed water

b) greater purity of feed water
c) rise in the contamination of feed water
d) it has got no relation with the contamination of feed water
13 Pick the boiler, which can be considered as most combustion efficient?
a) fluidized bed combustion boiler b) lancashire boiler

c) stoker fired boiler d) chain grate boiler
14 Instrument used for measuring temperature in a glass furnace is
a) Leaf type thermocouple b) Infrared pyrometer

c) Pt/Pt-Rh thermocouple with indicator d) Chrome alumnel thermocouple with indicator
15 Recuperator will be more efficient if the flow path of hot and cold fluids is in:
a) co-current mode b) counter current mode

c) cross current mode d) none of the above
16 Which of the following best indicates the overall efficiency of a Combined Cycle thermal power
plant?
a) 33 % b) 42 % c) 55% d) 60%
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17 When pure hydrogen is burnt with stoichiometric air, percentage CO 2 on volume basis in flue gas
on dry basis will be
a) 79% b) 21% c) 0% d) 100%

18 Which of the following heat recovery equipment works on a refrigeration cycle ?
a) thermocompressor b) heat wheel c) heat pump d) heat pipe

19 High % of carbon monoxide presence in the flue gas of boiler is an indicator of
a) high excess air b) complete combustion

c) good control of pollutants d) low excess air
20 The difference between mean solid and mean gas velocity in FBC boiler is called
a) fluidization factor b) slip velocity c) settling velocity d) none of the above
21 The minimum capacity of any closed vessel which generates steam under pressure as covered
under Indian Boilers Regulation Act is
a) 22.75 litres b) 2.275 litres c) 22.75 kilo litres d) 227.5 litres

22 The temperature at which refractory will deform under its own weight is its softening temperature
indicated by
a) melting point b) PCE c) reform temperature d) critical point

23 When 1 kg of pressurized hot water at 120ºC is supplied with 50 kCal of heat at same pressure,
its temperature will be
a) 220ºC b) 190ºC c) 170ºC d) 120ºC

24 The purpose of venting air from steam systems is because air is a
a) insulator b) good conductor c) inert substance d) dilutant
25 Oxygen (O2) percentage measurement by volume basis can be done by using:
a) ultrasonic tester b) potassium oxide probe

c) copper tubes d) zirconium oxide probe
26 ““Turndown ratio” for oil fired burner is the ratio of
a) air to fuel
b) maximum fuel input to actual fuel input
c) maximum fuel input over minimum fuel input at same percentage of excess air
d) maximum air input over minimum air input
27 The type of firing used for a pulverized coal fired boiler is
a) over firing b) tangential firing

c) vertical firing d) mixed firing for effective heat transfer
o
28 The percentage raise in boiler efficiency by a 20 C raise in combustion air temperature is
a) 0.1% b) 0.2% c) 10% d) 1%

29 The steam generation in a boiler is 16 tonnes for four hours. The oil consumption for the same
period is 1.3 Tonnes. The evaporation ratio is
3
_____________________
a) 12.3 b) 11.5 c) 9.2 d) 14

30 The normal velocities encountered in pipes for saturated steam is
a) 60 to 80 m/sec b) 10-20 m/sec c) 5 to 10 m/sec d) 30 to 40 m/sec

31 In industrial applications the type of trap used for main steam lines are
a) thermodynamic b) thermostatic c) bimetallic d) float

32 Which steam trap operates on the principle of difference in density between steam and
condensate
a) thermodynamic trap b) inverted Bucket c) thermostatic trap d) none of the above

33 Which of the following will be the ideal pressure to be maintained in a reheating furnace
a) –20 mm b) +1 mm c) +30 mm d) +20 mm

O
34 When the furnace is operated below 370 C, then it is called
a) muffle furnace b) kiln c) oven d) all the above

35 The percentage efficiency of a reheating furnace, operating at 10 tonnes per hour and
consuming furnace oil of 230 kg/hour for reheating the material from 40 °C to 1100 °C (specific
heat of material is 0.13 kCal / kg °C and calorific value of furnace oil is 10,000 kCal /kg) is
a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 50
36 The emissivity of ceramic coatings used in furnace
a) decreases with increase in temperature b) Increases with increase in temperature

c) remains constant irrespective of temperature d) decreases with increase in furnace pressure
37 Which is not a property of Ceramic fibre insulation
a) low thermal conductivity b) light weight

c) high heat storage d) thermal shock resistant
38 In a CFBC Boiler the capture and recycling of bed materials is accomplished by
a) settling chamber b) cyclone c) back filter d) scrubber

39 In FBC boiler the combustion is carried out at a temperature
a) closer to steam temperature b) at adiabatic combustion temperature

c) at and above ash fusion temperature d) below ash fusion temperature of fuel used
40 Reverse osmosis for water treatment involves
a) removal of total salts b) removal of only hardness causing salts

c) removal of alkali salts d) removal of non-hardness salts
41 The percentage of energy consumed by air compressor in gas turbine plants is typically
a) 10% b) 22% c) 55% d) 80%

42 Capillary wick is a part of
a) heat pump b) heat wheel c) heat pipe d) regenerator
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43 Thermo-compressor is commonly used for
a) compressing hot air b) upgrading low pressure steam

c) distillation d) reverse compression of CO2
44 Which of the following is not required in the boiler efficiency evaluation by direct method
a) steam flow b) fuel flow c) feed water temperature d) O2 % in flue gas

45 The inlet gas temperature in a gas turbine is around
o o o o
a) 1700 C b) 1000 C c) 650 C d) 500 C
46 Controlled wetting of coal (during the coal preparation) would result in
a) reduction in flue gas exit temperature b) decrease in the percentage of unburnt carbon
c) improper combustion d) increase in the fines of coal
47 Ceramic fibre gives the maximum savings when used in
a) continuous furnace b) batch furnace c) arc furnace d) induction furnace

48 The major limitation of metallic recuperator is
a) handling COx, NOx etc.

o
b) reduced life for handling temperature more than 650 C
c) manufacturing difficulty of the required design
d) none of the above
49 Which of the following when added to alumino silicate helps to reduce the shrinkage level of
ceramic fibre
a) Zr O2 b) SiO2 c) Al2O3 d) CaSO4

50 In flue gas the theoretical CO2 is 15% and the measured CO2 is 9% by volume. The % excess
air is:
a) 66% b) 150% c) 25% d)20%
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Paper 3 –Set A Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

FOR
PAPER – 3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities
1 All parts of a question should be answered at one place

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or Black
HB Pencil, as per instructions
1 Select the wrong statement:
a) ‘Heat Rate’ reflects the efficiency of generation.

b) ‘Heat Rate’ is the heat input in kilo Calories or kilo Joules, for generating ‘one’ kilo
Watt of electrical output.
c) ‘Heat Rate’ is inverse of the efficiency of power generation.
d) design ‘Heat Rate’ of a 500MW thermal generating unit is lower than that of a 110 MW
thermal generating unit.
2 In an industry, if the drawl over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is :
2500 kVA for 10 minutes

The MD recorder will be computing MD as
a) 3446 b) 3600 c) 3800 d) 4100

3 A bulk power factor correction system which is left connected to an installation where the load
has reduced considerably may result in
_______________________ 1
a) leading power factor at input electric supply

b) damage to the installation cables
c) considerable reduction in maximum demand
d) a reduced supply tariff
4 The total loss for a transformer loading at 60% and with no load and full load losses of 3 kW
and 25 kW respectively, is
a) 3 kW b) 12 kW c) 18 kW d) 25 kW
5 A pure resistive load in an alternating current (AC) circuit draws only
a) lagging reactive power b) active power

c) leading reactive power d) active apparent power
6 The nearest kVAr compensation required for improving the power factor of a 1000 kW load
from 0.95 leading power factor to unity power factor is
a) 328 kVAr b) 750 kVAr c) 1000 kVAr d) none of the above
7 The ratings of the PF correction capacitors at motor terminals for a 37 kW induction motor at
3000 rpm synchronous speed will be---------------------in comparison to the same sized induction
motor at 1500 rpm synchronous speed
a) more b) less c) same d) dependant on the connected load
8 The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally in
a) variable torque applications b) constant torque applications

c) conveyor belt applications d) balance torque applications
9 A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 15 A, 970 RPM, 3 phase rated induction motor with full load efficiency of
86% draws 7.5 A and 3.23 kW of input power. The percentage loading of the motor is about
a) 37 % b) 43 % c) 50% d) none of the above

10 Select the correct statement?
a) efficiency of an induction motor remains same at all the loading

b) squirrel cage induction motors are comparatively more efficient than Slip ring induction
motors of the same ratings.
c) power factor of an induction motor remains constant during 50 -100% loading conditions
d) slip of the induction motor is more at the full load than at the part load
11 A two pole induction motor operating at 50 Hz, with 1% slip will run at an actual speed of
a) 3000 RPM b) 3030 RPM c) 2970 RPM d) none of the above
12 A super thermal power station of 2500 MW installed capacity generated

14,000 million units in a year. Its annual Plant Load Factor (PLF) is:
a) 60% b) 79% c) 64% d) none of the above
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13 Select the incorrect statement
a) low speed Squirrel cage induction motors are normally less efficient than high speed
Squirrel cage induction motors
b) the capacitor requirement for PF improvement at induction motor terminals
decreases with decrease in rated speed of the induction motors of the same sizes
c) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
d) totally-enclosed, fan cooled (TEFC) motors are more efficient than Screen–protected, drip-
proof (SPDP) induction motors
14 The efficiency of compressed air system is around
a) 10% b) 50% c) 60% d) 90%
15 FAD refers to the compressed air at
a) at ISO stated conditions b) Inlet conditions c) at outlet conditions d) at STP

16 Select the incorrect statement:
a) compressor efficiency will be reduced by about 2 percent for every 250 mm WC pressure
drop across the air inlet filters.
0
b) every 4 C rise in inlet air temperature results in a higher energy consumption by 1 % to
achieve equivalent output
0
c) an increase of 5.5 C in the inlet air temperature to the second stage results in a 2 %
increase in the specific energy consumption.
d) compressed air receiver volume should be 100% of the rated hourly free air output
17 Which of the following is not a part of the vapour compression refrigeration system
a) compressor b) evaporator c) condenser d) absorber

18 The refrigerant used in vapour absorption systems is
a) steam b) pure water c) freon d) lithium bromide

19 The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.0. If the power input to
compressor is 100 kW , the tonnage of refrigeration system is given by
a) 85.3 b) 9.48 c) 300 d) none of the above

3 o o
20 The refrigeration load in TR when 30 m /hr of water is cooled from a 14 C to 6.5 C is about

21 The term Refrigeration means
a) addition of cooling b) removal of heat

c) removal and relocation of heat d) replacement of heat
22 For fans, the relation between power P and speed N is
2 3
P N1 P N1 P N1
a) 1 = b) 1 = c) 1 = d) none of the above
P2 N 2 P2 N 2 2 P2 N 2 3
23 Friction loss in a piping system carrying fluid is proportional to
_______________________ 3
2
a) fluid flow b) (fluid flow) c) 1 d) 1
2
fluid flow (fluid flow)
24 _____ fans are known as “non-overloading“ because change in static pressure do not overload
the motor
a) radial b) forward- curved c) backward-inclined d) tube- axial

25 Ammonia can be used as a refrigerant in
a) vapour compression chiller b) vapour absorption chiller

c) both vapour compression and absorption chillers d) none of them
26 The value, by which the pressure in the pump suction exceeds the liquid vapour pressure, is
expressed as
a) net positive suction head available b) static head

c) dynamic head d) suction head
27 When the local static pressure in a fluid reaches a level below the vapor pressure of the liquid
at the actual temperature, ____________ may occur in a pump.
a) water hammering b) water chilling c) cavitation d) none of the above

28 Installation of "exclusive" transformer for lighting has following advantage
a) "Voltage" fluctuations in lighting circuit can be minimized by isolating from the power
feeders.
b) This will reduce the voltage related problems, which in turn increases the efficiency of the
lighting system.
c) With proper control device “over voltage” that might occur during lean load or off-peak can
be avoided, in turn excess energy consumption and improved lamp life
d) all the above
29 Parallel operation of two identical fans in a ducted system
a) will double the flow b) will double the fan static pressure
c) will not double the flow d) will increase flow by more than two times
30 Normally the guaranteed best approach a cooling tower can achieve is
o o o o
a) 5 C b) 8 C c) 12 C d) 2.8 C
31 Select the wrong statement ---
a) for a given heat rejection duty, a higher range will reduce the circulating water flow rate
b) when the cycle of concentration is left at one, all water left in the cooling tower after
evaporation needs to be removed as blowdown.
c) a better indicators for cooling tower performance is Range
o o
d) a cooling tower size will be greater for 20 C Wet bulb temperature (WBT) than for a 30 C
WBT, for the same circulation, range and approach
32 Which of the following ambient conditions will evaporate minimum amount of water in a cooling
tower
o o o o
a) 35 C DBT and 30 C WBT b) 38 C DBT and 31 C WBT
o o o o
c) 38 C DBT and 37 C WBT d) 35 C DBT and 29 C WBT
_______________________ 4
33 Input power to the motor driving a pump is 30 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9. The power
transmitted to the water is 16.2 kW. The pump efficiency is

34 A 500 cfm reciprocating compressor is operating to meet a constant demand of 300 cfm. The
least cost energy efficient solution will be
a) load and unload

b) reducing the speed of compressor by increasing the compressor pulley size appropriately
c) variable frequency drive
d) reducing the speed of compressor by reducing the motor pulley size appropriately
35 Which of the following lamp has the highest efficacy?
a) metal halide b) halogen lamps c) HPMV d) HPSV
36 Harmonics are generated by
a) variable frequency drive b) fluid coupling

c) eddy current drive d) energy efficient motor
37 The inputs required for an automatic power factor controller using kVAR control
a) current b) voltage c) capacitance d) both a and b

38 The unit of one lux is
a) 1000 lumen per square feet b) 10 lumen per square meter

c) 1 lumen per square meter d) 1 lumen per square feet
39 The efficiency of a pump does not depend on
a) suction head b) discharge head c) density of fluid d) motor efficiency

40 The flow output of which of the following changes with the discharge pressure
a) reciprocating compressor b) centrifugal compressor

c) screw compressor d) none of the above
3
41 A fan is operating at 970 RPM developing a flow of 3000 Nm /hr. at a static pressure of 650
mmWC. If the speed is reduced to 700 RPM, the static pressure (mmWC) developed will be

42 Luminous efficacy of a lamp is given by
a) Lux/Watt b) lumens/Watt c) Watt/Lux d) Watt/lumens

43 A fluorescent tube light fitted with an electronic choke will
a) operate at 50 Hz b) not need a starter

c) operate at 0.5 power factor d) none of the above
44 An engineering industry which was operating with a maximum demand of 500 kVA at 0.9
power factor improved its power factor to 0.99 by installing power factor correction capacitors
near the load centres. The percentage reduction in distribution losses within the plant will be
a) 17.35% b) 1.21% c) 86.75% d) none of the above
_______________________ 5
45 Lower load side power factor for a DG Set:
a) demands higher excitation currents and results in increased losses

b) results in higher kVA loading of generator
c) results in lower operating efficiency and higher specific fuel consumption of DG set
d) all the above
46 The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacturer to
prevent the problem in a DG set during operation is:
a) voltage unbalance on generator b) back pressure on engine

c) excessive steam generation d) turbulence in exhaust gases
47 Use of soft starters for induction motors results in
a) lower mechanical stress b) lower power factor

c) higher maximum demand d) all the above
48 Which of the following refrigeration systems uses vacuum for operation ?
a) vapour compression system using R-11

b) vapour compression system using HFC 134A
c) vapour absorption system using lithium bromide –water
49 Which of the following electrical equipment has the highest efficiency ?
a) synchronous motor b) dc shunt motor

c) induction motor d) transformer
a) transformers operating near saturation level create harmonics

b) devices that draw sinusoidal currents when a sinusoidal voltage is applied create harmonics
c) harmonics are multiples of the supply frequency
d) harmonics occur as spikes at intervals which are multiples of the supply frequency
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….
_______________________ 6
Paper 4 – Energy Auditor – Set A Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________
8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS – May, 2009
PAPER – 4: ENERGY PERFORMANCE ASSESSMENT FOR EQUIPMENT AND

UTILITY SYSTEMS
Section - I: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 1 = 10
(i) Answer all Ten questions

(ii) Each question carries One mark
(iii) Answer should not exceed 50 words
S-1 Between a thermal power plant and a cogeneration plant with a back pressure
turbine, which will have a higher heat rate?
Ans: A cogeneration plant will have a higher heat rate
S-2 Which loss is considered the most unreliable or complicated to measure in electric
motor efficiency testing?
Ans. The stray load loss, because this loss is only estimated and not measured
S-3 How is the Overall Heat transfer Coefficient related to surface area?
Ans Inversely proportional.
S-4 The inclined manometer connected to a pitot tube is sensing which pressure in a gas
stream?
1
_____________________
Ans: The difference between total and static pressure (also called velocity pressure)
S-5 The more fouling fluid should be on which side of a shell & tube heat exchanger and
why?
Ans. Tube side, because it is easier to clean
S-6 For which fuel the sulphur dew point of the flue gases is lower: Furnace oil or Natural
gas.
Ans : Natural gas , because the sulphur content is less
S-7 What is the range of conversion efficiency of the gasification process using biomass?
Ans. 60 - 70 %
S-8 Calculate the annual power generated from a 100 kW wind turbine generator with a
capacity factor of 20% ?
Ans : 100 x .20 x 8760 = 175200 kWhr
S-9 Define Profitability Index?
Ans. Profitability Index is defined as the Sum of the discounted net savings to the
Capital Cost
S-10 In a power plant boiler if there is air ingress in the flue duct, which auxiliary system
would be most affected?
Ans: Induced Draft Fan
-------- End of Section - III ---------
Section - II: Long Questions Marks: 2 x 5 = 10
(i) Answer all Two questions

(ii) Each question carries Five marks
L-1 The suction head of a pump is 5 m below the pump centerline. The discharge
pressure is 4 kg/cm2. The flow rate of water is 100 m3 /hr. Find out the pump
efficiency if the actual power input at the shaft is 15 kW.
Ans: Discharge Head = 4 kg/cm2
= 40 metre head.
Suction Head = - 5 metre.
2
_____________________
Paper 1 –Set A Solutions
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidate)
9th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – December, 2009

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS AND ENERGY AUDITORS
(i) Answer all 50 questions.

(ii) Each question carries one mark.
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
pencil, as per instructions
1 To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas needs to be
done?
a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO

2 Which of the following is not a primary energy source?
a) electricity b) coal c) wood d) natural gas

3 Which one of the following is not an example of air pollution from furnace oil fired boilers
and furnaces?
a) sulphur dioxide (SO2) b) chloro-fluro carbons (CFC)

c) nitrous oxide(NOX) d) carbon monoxide (CO)
4 Which industry among the following is not a designated consumer as per EC Act-2001?
a) fertilisers b) chlor alkali c) cement d) nuclear power stations
1
_______________________
5 Propane is an example of
a) nuclear energy b) radiant energy

c) chemical energy d) thermal energy
6 The density of a fuel oil is 0.86. Its specific gravity will be
a) 0.75 b) 0.86 c) 1.75 d) 0.0086

7 An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is
a) wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature

c) density of air d) dry bulb temperature
8 The total mechanical energy of a body free falling in a vacuum
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains the same d) depends on the shape of the body
9 How much carbon emission will be reduced per year by replacing 60 Watt incandescent
lamp with 15 Watt CFL Lamp, if emission per unit is 1 kg CO2 per kWh and annual burning
is 3000 hours?
a) 45 ton b) 3 ton c) 0.135 ton d) 183 ton

10 Which of the following is false?
a) electricity is high-grade energy

b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact
c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals rather than
heating water for bath
d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the molecules of
carbon in coal
11 The present value of equipment is Rs. 10,000 and discount rate is 10%. The future value
of the cash flow at the end of 2 years is:
a) Rs. 10000 b) Rs. 12,100 c) Rs. 8100 d) Rs. 8264

12 What will be the energy saving if one 1500 watts, 25 liter water heater , which is normally
put on for 20 minutes per day and 250 days in an year, is replaced with one 100 liter
capacity solar water heater?
a) 581units b) 750 units C) 125 units d) 169 units
13 An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not include
a) action plan to reduce energy consumption

b) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) implementation of all the recommendations of energy audit
14 The difference between GCV and NCV of coal is
a) the heat of vaporization of the moisture and hydrogen in coal

b) the difference in calorific value with theoretical air and with allowable excess air
c) difference in accounting the un-burnt content in the ash
2
_______________________
15 A public expression of organization’s commitment to energy conservation would be
a) reduce contract demand b) energy audit

c) energy policy d) improve power factor
16 For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required
a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production

c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization
17 Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels?
a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow.

b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature
c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value
d) viscous fuels need heat tracing
18 Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by
a) odometer b) tachometer c) stroboscope d) oscilloscope

19 In the first two months the cumulative sum is 4 and 12 respectively. In each of the next
two months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 3. The energy savings at end of the fourth
month would be
a) -6 b) 0 c) 6 d) none of the above

20 The statement not applicable in the case of Sankey diagram
a) useful tool to represent an entire input and output energy flow

b) represents visually various outputs and losses
c) depicts rejection and wastage of material flow
d) helps energy manager to focus on finding improvements in a prioritized manner
21 The Designated National Agency (DNA) of India for Clean Development Mechanism
(CDM) is
a) Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF)

b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
c) Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
d) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
22 Which among the following can be best implemented through an ESCO (Energy Service
Company) route:
a) coal procurement contract for captive power plant

b) energy efficient design of a municipal lighting system
c) large Waste Heat Recovery System in a large process plant, where external
financing is sought
d) energy and mass balance study of a Steel Plant
23 A CUSUM graph follows a random fluctuation trend and oscillates around
a) 50% b) 100% c) 0 d) mean value

24 Statement not applicable to TOD (Time of the Day) in electricity tariff structure?
a) higher energy charges during peak period

b) it is an incentive to maximize off- peak consumption
c) it is an incentive to minimize peak time power draw from the grid by consumers
3
_______________________
d) it is a disincentive for Distribution Company
25 Which of the following will be true of load factor for a continuous process
a) higher than batch process plants

b) comparable to that of a five star hotel with 60% occupancy
c) less than that of an energy efficient municipal lighting system
d) closer to the regional grid load factor
26 In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient temperature
of 30 °C. Considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C, what is the energy
content in one kg of material after heating?
a) 700 kCal b) 250 kCal c) 350 kCal d) 100 kCal

27 In an industry the average electricity consumption is 4.6 lakh kWh for the period, the
average production is 40000 tons with specific electricity consumption of 10 kWh /ton for
the same period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is :
a) 60000 kWh b) 46000 kWh c) 20000 kWh d) none of the above

28 The process by which Annex 1 countries can invest in the GHG mitigation projects in
developing countries is called:
a) green trading b) clean development mechanism

c) conference of parties d) certified emission reduction
29 All the activities falling in the critical path of the PERT network will have
a) ES = LS and EF = LF b) LF = LS and ES=EF

c) only ES=LS d) only EF = LF
30 The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a plant was
Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on investment is:
a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above

31 Condensation of saturated steam releases
a) sensible heat b) super heat c) latent heat d) none of the above

32 Calorific Value of coal is measured by a device called
a) bomb calorimeter b) calorifier

c) infrared thermometer d) none of these
33 The first vital step in an energy management program is
a) measurement b) setting goals

c) energy audit d) top management commitment
34 The calorific value of coal is 5000 kCal /kg .Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of coal if
the calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/kg.
a) 100 kg b) 108 kg c) 105 kg d) none of the above

35 Which gas has the least impact on global warming?
a) carbon dioxide b) methane

c) ozone d) carbon monoxide
4
_______________________
36 Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?
a) kCal/kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ deg C.

c) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kWh/kg of yarn
o
37 Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 100 litres of hot water from 20 to 60 C
a) 4.65 kWh b) 0.465 kWh c) 465 kWh d) 2 kWh

38 A person can do the following with wind energy
a) destroy it b) convert it c) create it d) burn it

39 In a force field analysis in energy action planning, high price of energy acts as
a) positive force b) negative force

c) neutral forces d) none of the above
40 The four pillars of successful energy management are technical ability, monitoring system,
top management support and ______
a) strategy plan b) energy audit plan c) quality plan d) financial plan

41 The 80/20 Rule in management means
a) few (20%) are vital and many (80%) are trivial

b) many (80%) are vital and few (20%) are trivial
c) 80% of work is outsourced
d) 20% of work is outsourced
42 The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as
a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service

c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
43 In project financing ,sensitivity analysis is applied because
a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty

b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters
c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) all the above situation
44 One thousand liters of fuel oil cost Rs 20,000. How much does one kg of fuel oil cost if
density is 0.98

45 Installed capacity of nuclear power plants in India as a % of total installed capacity is
a) 10% b) 25% c) 3% d) 55%

46 Name the sector which is the biggest consumer of commercial energy
a) industry b) agriculture c) transport d) residential

47 To calculate internal rate of return , the net present value is set to
a) 1 b) 0 c) 10 d) 100
5
_______________________
48 Project management technique which uses three time estimates.
a) PERT b) CUSUM c) CPM d) none of the above

49 One Certified Emission Reduction (CER) in equivalent of CO2 emission is
a) 1 ton of CO2 b) 1 kg of CO2 c) 10 kg of CO2 d) 10 ton of CO2

50 A system uses 100 kg of raw material A, 200 kg of raw material B and 220 kg of raw
o
material C. The mix is heated to 220 C. The air is blown to cool which carries away on an
average 60% of raw material A and 30% of raw material B through the chimney. The
output product would be
a) 520 kg b) 400 kg c) 312 kg d) 208 kg
……. End of Section – I …….
Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40
(i) Answer all Eight questions

S-1 Explain the difference between contract demand and maximum demand.
Ans
Contract Demand
Contract demand is the amount of electric power that a customer demands from
utility in a specified interval. Unit used is kVA or kW. It is the amount of electric
power that the consumer agreed upon with the utility. This would mean that utility
has to plan for the specified capacity.
(2.5 Marks)
Maximum Demand
Maximum demand is the highest average kVA recorded during any one-demand
interval within the month. The demand interval is normally 30 minutes, but may
vary from utility to utility from 15 minutes to 60 minutes. The demand is measured
using a tri-vector meter / digital energy meter.
(2.5 Marks)
S-2 An induction motor draws 8 kW with a lagging reactive power of 4 kVAr.
Calculate the operating power factor of the motor.
kW
Ans. Power factor =
(kW ) 2  (kVAr ) 2
(2 Marks)
8
=
(8) 2  ( 4) 2
6
_______________________
Paper 2 –Set B Solutions
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR
PAPER – 2: Energy Efficiency in Thermal Utilities
Section - I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

1 The material used to control SO x in the FBC boiler is
a) lime b) alumina c) silica d) limestone

2 Carpet loss occurs in
a) coal combustion b) atomization of oil c) furnaces d) coal storage

3 In industrial applications the commonly used trap for main steam lines is
a) thermostatic trap b) inverted bucket trap

c) thermodynamic trap d) open bucket trap
4 Mark the best choice of insulation material for electric heat treatment furnace among the
following
a) glass wool b) calcium silicate c) fire bricks d) ceramic fibre
1
_______________________
5 The low combustion temperature in FBC boilers results in minimal formation of
a) CO b) SOx c) NOx d) CO2

6 For same inlet conditions of the steam which of the following will generate the maximum power
a) condensing turbine b) back pressure turbine

c) extraction-cum-condensing turbine d) extraction-cum-back pressure turbine
7 Demineralisation of water is the process to remove
a) dissolved oxygen b) dissolved salts c) carbon-dioxide d) chlorine

8 In a glass industry waste heat is used for power generation. This type of cogeneration is called
a) topping cycle b) bottoming cycle

c) gas turbine cycle d) reheat cycle
o
9 If the furnace temperature is T ( K) and the area of opening is A, quantity of radiation loss in a
reheating furnace is directly proportional to
4 4 2
a) T b) T c) A d) A
10 Water hammer is common in
a) water pipes b) condensate pipes

c) steam pipes with steam and condensate d) main steam lines with good traps
11 Which of the following requires the least amount of oxygen/ kg of substance for combustion
a) methane b) carbon c) sulphur d) hydrogen

12 Good opportunity for energy savings from continuous blow down of boiler is by
a) recovery of flash steam for use in deaerator

b) using the blow down steam to run steam turbine
c) reusing the hot water so formed as make-up water
13 Which of the following benefits is not achieved by maximizing condensate recovery?
a) minimization of boiler exit flue gas temperature b) maximization of boiler output

c) reduction in water treatment costs d) reduction in energy input costs
14 Furnace wall heat loss does not depend on
a) temperatures of external wall surfaces b) velocity of air around the furnace

c) material of stock to be heated d) brick thermal conductivity of wall
15 Which fuel requires the lowest amount of excess air for combustion?
a) pulverised coal b) bagasse c) fuel oil d) natural gas.

16 One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?
a) 0.65 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.2 kg d) none of the above
2
_______________________
17 Which data is not required to calculate the efficiency of boiler by indirect method?
a) flue gas temperature b) ambient temperature

c) calorific value of fuel d) blow down rate
18 The pour point of furnace oil is
o o o o
a) 100 C b) 25 C c) 50 C d) 20 C
19 Which property is the most important for an insulating brick?
a) mechanical strength b) chemical resistance

c) compact strength d) porosity
20 In which of the following equipment is stored heat used for preheating combustion air
a) convective recuperator b) radiation recuperator

c) regenerator d) heat pump
21 “Turndown ratio” for oil fired burners is the ratio of
a) air to fuel input

b) maximum fuel input to actual fuel input
c) maximum air input to minimum air input
d) maximum fuel input to minimum fuel input with same excess air
22 Flame flickering occurs in an oil fired burner because of
a) oil not preheated b) moisture in oil

c) oil pressure not sufficient d) high excess air
23 The unit of specific heat is
3 o
a) kCal/kg b) kCal/m c) kCal/kg C d) kCal
24 LPG is predominantly a mixture of propane and ___
a) isopropane b) methane c) ethane d) butane

25 The amount of oxygen required to burn one kg of hydrogen is
a) 3 b) 9 c) 8 d) 0.5
26 An axial compressor is used in conjunction with which of the following
a) back pressure steam turbine b) condensing turbine

c) gas turbine d) none of the above
27 If the pressure of saturated steam is reduced through a pressure reducing valve
a) enthalpy of evaporation will reduce b) it will get superheated

c) enthalpy will reduce d) it will produce wet steam
28 What is the average yield in re-rolling mill furnace?
a) 40-50% b) 70-80% c) 80-85% d) 90-95%

29 Radiation losses from a boiler practically
a) increase with increase in its % loading b) decrease with increase in its % loading
c) are independent of its % loading d) none of the above.
3
_______________________
30 Scale losses in reheating furnaces will
a) increase with CO in combustion gases b) increase with excess air

c) decrease with excess air d) have no relation with excess air
31 Ceramic fibre gives the maximum energy savings when used in
a) continuous furnace b) annealing furnace c) arc furnace d) re-heating furnace

32 Air compressor alone consumes about _____ of the energy generated in a gas turbine
a) 5-10% b) 10-20% c) 20-30% d) 50-60%
33 Drain pockets are provided in a steam line for
a) effective removal of line condensate b) effective removal of steam

c) removal of dirt d) checking of steam line
34 Which of the following heat recovery equipment works on a vapour compression cycle?
a) thermocompressor b) heat wheel c) heat pump d) heat pipe

35 Maximum heat transfer to the stock in a reheating furnace is by
a) radiation b) conduction c) convection d) none of these

36 What should be the appropriate coal size for fixed grate coal firing?
a) 25-50 mm b) 50-75 mm c) 75-100 mm d) 100-125 mm

37 Which type of the following co-generation system has high heat-to-power ratio?
a) gas turbine b) back pressure turbine

c) extraction condensing turbine d) reciprocating engine
38 When 100 kg of fuel with 60% carbon is burnt with theoretical air, the mass of CO2 released will
be
a) 319 kg b) 4400 kg c) 4500 kg d) 220 kg

39 The efficiency of a typical FBC boiler is of the order of
a) 80% b) 30% c) 40% d) 70%

40 Flash steam can be recovered from
a) leaking steam b) condensate at vacuum

c) condensate at high pressure d) condensate at atmospheric pressure
41 In a chain grate coal firing system primary air pressure is 75 mmWC. What should be the
secondary air pressure with respect to primary air pressure?
a) lower b) same c) double d) more than double

42 The pressure in the heating zone of a furnace should be
a) slightly positive b) slightly negative

c) highly negative d) highly positive
4
_______________________
43 Which of the following will be an ideal heating medium for heat transfer in a heat exchanger?
a) hot water b) super heated steam

c) dry saturated steam d) wet steam
44 Which of these fuels has the highest heating value?
a) LPG b) methane c) hydrogen d) diesel oil

45 The viscosity of furnace oil will be maximum at which of the following temperatures
o o o o
a) 40 C b) 60 C c) 90 C d) 110 C
46 For coal fired boilers the flame length is influenced by
a) moisture b) ash content c) volatile matter d) fixed Carbon

47 The difference in temperature between steam and condensate is the principle of operation in a
a) temperature trap b) thermodynamic trap

c) thermostatic trap d) orifice type trap
48 Fluidized bed combustion takes place in the temperature range of
0 0 0 0
a) above 1000 C b) below 500 C c) 600-700 C d) 800-900 C
49 In an equipment with steam consumption of 1 ton/hr, the steam trap capacity will be
a) < 1 ton/hr b) equal to 1 ton/ hr c) 1.5 ton/hr d) 2 ton/hr

50 Latent heat of any vapour at its critical point will be
a) highest b) above zero c) zero d) less then zero

S-1 An oil fired boiler with a rated capacity of 12 ton/hr steam generation is switched over to
rice husk firing. The boiler is de-rated to 7 ton/hr. List down five major reasons for de-
rating.
Ans: (a) The external combustion zone reduces radiation heat transfer
(b) Rice husk ash deposition in heat transfer area
(c) High excess air as compared to oil firing
(d) Moisture content and fuel quality variation
(e) Boiler furnace temperature drops down during ash cleaning.
(1 Mark each)
5
_______________________
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________

FOR

1 In the city electrical distribution scheme, a proposal is being prepared to upgrade 33 kV

network to 66 kV. The distribution loss, corresponding to the same quantum of load in
the proposed upgraded system will be
a) less by 25% b) less by 33%

c) less by 75% d) none of the above
2 Rating of power factor correction capacitors at induction motor terminals should be
a) 100% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor

b) 90% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
c) 120% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
3 Select the correct statement:
a) the advantage of PF improvement by capacitor addition in an electric network is that

active power component of the network is reduced
b) the power factor indicated in the monthly electricity bill is the lowest power factor
recorded at any time during the billing month
_______________________ 1
c) PF capacitors operating at lower voltage then their rated values have higher operating
kVArs then their rated values
d) the power factor of an induction motor decreases with decrease in percentage motor
loading
4 If the efficiencies of a power plant, transmission and distribution systems are 30%, 95%
& 85% respectively, the cascade efficiency of power generation, and transmission
system is given by
a) 24.23% b) 28.5 % c) 80.75% d) 95%

5 Which of the following is not likely to create harmonics in an electrical system?
a) soft starters b) variable frequency drives

c) uninterrupted power supply source (UPS) d) induction motors
6 What is the % slip of a 4 pole induction motor if the shaft speed at 49.5 Hz supply
frequency is 1460 rpm?

7 During induction motor operation, magnetic field is established in
a) stator winding only b) rotor winding only

c) stator and rotor windings d) at carbon brushes
8 An induction motor rated for 7.5 kW and 90 % efficiency at full load, was drawing 5 kW.
The percentage loading on the motor is
a) 60 % b) 66.66% c) 74% d) none of the above

9 If the apparent power drawn over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is 3000kVA for 10
minutes, 2400kVA for 15 minutes and 2900 for 5 minutes, the MD recorder will commute
MD as
a) 3000 kVA b) 2400 kVA c) 2683 kVA d) none of the above

10 The performance of rewinding of an induction motor can be assessed by which of the
following factors?
a) load current b) stator resistance

c) no load current d) both no load current and stator resistance
11 The pressure drop in mains header at the farthest point of an industrial compressed air
network shall not exceed
d) 2 bar b) 0.3 bar c) 0.5 bar d) 1.0 bar

12 The Free Air Delivery capacity of a reciprocating compressor is directly proportional to
a) pressure b) volume c) speed d) all of the above

o
13 The inlet air temperature to a two stage reciprocating air compressor is 35 C. At which
nd
of the following 2 stage inlet temperatures the compressor will consume least power?
o o o o
a) 75 C b) 65 C c) 60 C d) 50 C
_______________________ 2
14 At which of the following discharge pressures, the reciprocating air compressor will
consume maximum power
2 2
a) 3 bar b) 3.5 kg/cm c) 150 psi d) 6 kg/cm
15 Which of the following is not true of air receivers?
a) smoothens pulsating air output b) stores large volumes of air

c) a source for draining moisture d) increases the pressure of air
16 A 1.5 ton air conditioner installed in a room and working continuously for two hours will
remove heat of
a) 3024 kCals b) 6048 kCals c) 9072 kCals d) none of the above

17 Which of the following can be used as refrigerant both in vapour compressor and vapour
absorption systems
a) Ammonia b) R – 11 c) R-12 d) Lithium Bromide

0 0
18 Chilled water enters evaporator at 12 C and leaves at 6 C. The flow rate of chilled water
3
was measured as 300 m /hr. The tons of refrigeration capacity is

19 Centrifugal compressors are most efficient when they are operating at_____.
a) 50% load b) full load c) 75% load d) all load conditions

20 The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of Vapour Absorption Refrigeration System (VAR)
a) is higher than that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System

b) is lower than that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System
c) is same as that of Vapour Compression Refrigeration (VCR) System
d) is normally 4 to 4.5
21 Backward-inclined fans are known as _____ because change in static pressure does not
overload the motor
a) overloading b) non-overloading
c) radial d) axial
22 The fan characteristic curve is a plot of
a) static pressure vs flow b) dynamic pressure vs flow

c) total pressure vs flow d) suction pressure vs flow
23 A fan is drawing 16 kW at 800 RPM. If the speed is reduced to 600 RPM then the power
drawn by the fan would be
a) 12 kW b) 9 kW c) 6.75 kW d) none of the above

24 The hydraulic power of a motor pump set is 8.5 kW. If the power drawn by the motor is
15.5 kW at a 89% efficiency, the pump efficiency is given by
_______________________ 3
25 For the same flow through which of the following diameter pipes, the pump will work with
maximum pressure
a) 80 mm b) 100 mm c) 120 mm d) 1400 mm

o o
26 If inlet and outlet water temperatures of a cooling tower are 44 C and 38 C respectively
o o
and atmospheric DBT and WBT are 40 C and 35 C respectively, then the effectiveness
of cooling tower is
a)54.5 % b) 66.6% c) 75% d) none of the above

27 In which of the following fans air enters and leaves the fan with no change in direction
a) forward curved b) backward curved c) radial d) propeller

28 The motor efficiency is 0.9 and the pump efficiency is 0.6.The input power to the motor
driving the pump is 28 kW. The power transmitted to the water is
a) 15.12 kW b) 28 kW c) 25.2 kW d) none of the above

3
29 A water pump is delivering 200 m /hr at ambient conditions. The impeller diameter is
trimmed by 10%. The water flow at the changed conditions is
3 3 3
a) 220 m /hr b) 180 m /hr c) 162 m /hr d) none of the above
30 The operating point in a pumping system is identified by
a) point of intersection of system curve and efficiency curve

b) point of intersection of pump curve and theoretical power curve
c) point of intersection of pump curve and system curve
d) point of intersection of NPSH curve and pump curve
31 Increasing the Cycles of Concentration (C.O.C) in circulating water in a cooling tower,
the blow down quantity will
a) increase b) decrease c) not change d) none of the above

32 At which of the following condenser temperatures, the power consumption of a vapour
compression refrigeration system will be the least
o o o o
a) 26 C b) 28 C c) 29 C d) 25 C
33 Which of the following ambient conditions will not evaporate maximum amount of water
in a cooling tower
o o o o
a) 41 C DBT and 38 C WBT b) 38 C DBT and 37 C WBT
o o o o
c) 36 C DBT and 30 C WBT d) 36 C DBT and 31 C WBT
o o
34 If inlet and outlet water temperatures of a cooling tower are 39 C and 33 C respectively
o o
and atmospheric DBT and WBT are 35 C and 28 C respectively then the approach of
cooling tower is
o o o o
a) 3 C b) 4 C c) 5 C d) 6 C
3 o
35 If flow rate is 100m /hr and the range is 8 C for a cooling tower, then its heat load in
kCal/hr will be.
a) 800 b) 8,000 c) 80,000 d) 800,000
_______________________ 4
36 Which method uses infrared, acoustic, ultrasonic or microwave sensors for lighting
control?
a) time-based control b) daylight-linked control

c) occupancy-linked control d) localized switching
37 If voltage is increased from 230 V to 250 V for a fluorescent tube light, it will result in
a) reduced power consumption b) increased power consumption

c) decreased light levels d) no change in power consumption and light levels
th th
38 The 5 and 7 harmonic in a 50 Hz power supply system will have:
a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz

b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
39 Automatic power factor controller using kVAr control, requires sensing of
a) current b) voltage c) capacitance d) both a and b

40 The COP of a vapour compression system is 3.0. If the motor draws power of 11 kW at
90% motor efficiency, the cooling effect of vapour compression system will be
a) 29.7 kW b) 37.8 kW
c) 0.36 kW d) none of the above as cooling effect is always measured in TR
41 Which of the following can also act as a heat pump?
a) centrifugal pump b) centrifugal compressor

c) air conditioner d) none of the above
42 A slide valve is used for capacity control in which of the following refrigeration
compressors?
a) reciprocating b) centrifugal c) screw d) scroll

43 In a DG set, a 3 phase alternator is supplying on an average 100 A at 420 V and 0.9 pf
to a load. If the specific fuel consumption of this DG set is 0.30 lts/ kWh at that load, then
how much fuel is consumed while delivering generated power for one hour?
a) 11.34 litre b) 19.64 litre c) 21.82 litre d) 218.23 litre

44 The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally for:
a) variable torque applications b) constant torque loads

c) constant power load d) combination of above
45 The electronic ballast fitted in a tube light fitting does not have one of the following
characteristics
a) lower operational losses than conventional ballasts

b) tuned circuit to deliver power at 28-32 KHz
c) requiring a starter
d) low temperature rise
_______________________ 5
46 Maximum demand controller is used to
a) switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence

b) switch off essential loads in a logical sequence
c) controls the reactive power of the plant
d) all the above.
47 In a fluid coupling, connecting an induction motor and a fan
a) motor speed can be changed by the fluid coupling

b) fan speed can be changed by the fluid coupling
c) both motor and fan speed can be changed by the fluid coupling
d) none of the above is possible
48 In a "V" belt coupled fan drive, the measured speed at motor end 6" diameter pulley is
1480 rpm and that at fan end 10" diameter pulley is 820 RPM. What is the slippage loss
in %?
a) 7.66 b) 8.29 c) 6.67 d) insufficient data, cannot be worked out
a) slip ring induction motors are normally less efficient than squirrel cage induction
motors
b) high speed squirrel cage induction motors are normally less efficient than low speed
Squirrel cage induction motors
c) the capacitor requirement for PF improvement at induction motor terminal increases
with decrease in rated speed of the induction motor
d) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
50 Coefficient of Performance (COP) for a refrigeration compressor is given by
a) kW/TR
b) power input to compressor (kW) / cooling effect (kW)
c) cooling effect (kW) / Power input to compressor (kW)

S-1 a) A 10 kVAr, 415 V rated power factor capacitor was found to be having terminal supply
voltage of 440 V. Calculate the capacity of the power factor capacitor at the operating
supply voltage.
_______________________ 6
Paper 4 – Energy Auditor – Set A Solutions
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________
9TH NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION– December, 2009

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – 4: Energy Performance Assessment For Equipment and Utility

Systems

S-1 A cogeneration plant with a back pressure turbine has a constant steam demand and
fluctuating power demand. What is the common option to meet the fluctuating power
demand?
Ans
Parallel operation with grid
S-2 What are the two major sources of waste heat available from a water-cooled Diesel
Generator set?
Ans
Exhaust flue gases and jacket cooling water
S-3 For determining heat loss in flue gases due to incomplete combustion which flue gas
constituent needs to be measured?
Ans
Carbon monoxide
1
_______________________
Paper 4 – Energy Auditor – Set A Solutions
S-4 Which parameter needs to be measured to assess the percentage loading of a motor
by slip method neglecting voltage correction?
Ans
Motor speed
S-5 How many volt-amperes (VA) does a 100 Watt incandescent light require?
Ans
100 VA
S-6
In the indirect method of boiler efficiency evaluation, list any two additional losses
computed for solid fuel fired boilers as compared to liquid and gas fired boilers?
Ans.
Unburnt losses in fly ash (Carbon)
Unburnt losses in bottom ash (Carbon)
S-7 Why do biomass combustion projects qualify for CDM benefits even though they emit
carbon dioxide?
Ans:
Because it absorbs the same amount of carbon in growing as it releases when
consumed as fuel
Or
Biomass is carbon neutral
S-8 Name two most common bio fuels used for transportation
Ans
1. Biodiesel
2. Ethanol
S-9 Which loss is assumed in the determination of electric motor efficiency?
Ans
The stray load loss is estimated and not measured for testing electric motor
efficiency.
S-10 In a shell and tube heat exchanger, engaged in heat transfer between fouling fluid and
clear fluid, the fouling fluid should be put on shell side or tube side?
Ans
Tube side
…………. End of Section - I ………….
2
_______________________
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________
11th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – February, 2011

FOR
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management and Energy Audit

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with
Black Pen or HB pencil, as per instructions.
1. The Government of India levies Clean Energy Cess on which of the following
a) electricity b) coal c) Diesel d) biodiesel

2. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating is:
a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above

3. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of
4000 kCal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
4. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 deg. C
is known as:
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat

5. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench Marking?
a) scale of operation b) energy pricing

c) raw materials and product quality d) vintage of technology
_______________________
6. A sling psychrometer is used to measure :
a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature

c) both a & b d) relative humidity
7. A solution of common salt in water is prepared by adding 20 kg of salt to 80 kg of water.
The concentration of salt as w/w fraction is:
a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.8 d) 0.6

8. The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply
voltage is reduced to 220 V.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
10. The proposed ISO standard for Energy Management System is:
a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 14000 d) ISO 14001

11. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the project manager must consider:
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows

c) salvage value d) all the above
12. Which of the following is not true of natural gas?
a) it is denser than air b) contains mainly methane c) can be transported

through pipelines d) compressed natural gas can be used in IC engines
13. Which of the following is not a part of the definition of energy audit as per the Energy
Conservation Act 2001?
a) verification of energy use b) implementation of energy saving measures

c) submission of technical report d) monitoring of energy use
14. Availability Based Tariff (ABT) is applicable to pricing of :
a) oil b) coal c) natural gas d) electricity

15. Which among the following is not a typical performance contract?
a) fixed fee b) liquidation for damage c) shared savings d) guaranteed savings

16. An activity in a project has an optimistic time of 10 days, a most likely time of 15 days and
a pessimistic time of 20 days. Its expected time of completion is-------
a) 10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) 35 days.

17. Network diagrams show logic clearly but does not have -------- like Gantt chart.
a) nodes b) arrows c) time scale d) events

18. A chart in Scatter Diagram shows a low degree of scatter. It is indicative of------
a) good fit b) poor fit c) skewed fit d) normal fit

19. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production - 1200
pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy consumption - 950
kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month is -------
_______________________
a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh

20. A single CFC molecule can destroy about ------------ ozone molecules.
a) 10,000 b) 100,000 c) 1 million d) 10 million

21. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?
a) CO2 b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluride (SF 6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)

22. Which of the following is not a commercial form of energy
24
a) Oil b) Lignite c) Electricity d) Solar energy
23. Which of the following is the least predominant loss in oil fired boiler?
25
a) dry flue gas losses b) heat loss due to moisture in air
c) heat loss due to hydrogen in fuel d) none of the above
24. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is known as
26
a) apparent power b) active power
c) reactive power d) none of the above
25. Identify the wrong statement
27
a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency
b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption
26. If a feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 9% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product
28 obtained at 36% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 27 b) 25 c) 36 d) 45
27. The annual energy consumption of a plant was 2.00 Lakh GJ in the reference year
29 2008/2009. In the next year 2009/2010, it was 2.20 Lakh GJ. The plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity is ____
a) 10% b) - 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above

28. In force field analysis of energy action planning, one of the actions below does not fall
30 under positive force?
a) high price of energy b) availability of energy efficient technology

c) commitment of top management d) lack of awareness
29. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency drops
31 from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in energy consumption to generate
the same output
a) 12% increase b) 14.6% increase

c) 17.1% decrease d) 17.1% increase
30. Doppler effect principle is used in which of the following instrument
33
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter
c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer
31. ROI must always be ________ borrowing interest rate for economic feasibility of any
34 project
_______________________
a) lower than b) higher than

c) equal to d) no relation
32. The reagent used to absorb CO2 in a fyrite is
35
a) chromous chloride b) potassium hydroxide
c) potassium permanganate d) pyrogallol
33. The Critical Path in PERT indicates _____.
36
a) minimum time required for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) maximum time required for the completion of the project
34. The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 requires that all the notified designated consumers to
37 get mandatory energy audits conducted by
a) a certified energy manager b) an accredited energy auditor

c) a certified energy auditor d) a state designated agency
35. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
38 factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
power output of the motor is
a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
36. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manager is
39 mandatory for all
a) industrial units b) commercial buildings

c) notified designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
37. Which among the following raw materials is used for bio-diesel production
40
a) leaves b) coal c) light Diesel oil (LDO) d) jatropha seeds
38. Input to Fuel Cell is
42
a) bio-gas b) hydrogen c) oil –gas mix d) oxygen
39. Wind speed for commercial exploitation for electricity production has to be :
43
a) Up to 15 km/hr b) 15- 18 km/hr c) 25-30 km/hr d) no limit , whatsoever
40. Which of the following is not a national mission under the Prime Minister’s National Action
45 Plan on Climate Change
a) national solar mission b) national mission for enhanced energy efficiency

c) national mission on CFC alternatives d) national mission for green India
41. Which among the following renewable energy routes accounts for the maximum
47 contribution to power generation in India
a) wind b) geothermal c) solar thermal d) solar PV

42. Producer gas is basically :
48
a) Only CH4 b) CO and CH4 c) CO, H2 and CH4 d) only CO and H2
43. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?
_______________________
49
a) bitumen b) wood c) nuclear fuels d) lignite
44. What is the load factor of a continuously operating facility that consumed 400,000 kWh of
energy during a 30-day billing period and established a peak demand of 1000 kW?
a) 0.55 b) 0.40 c) 0.65 d) 0.50

45. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of sulfur hexafluoride is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 22,000
46. The amount of solar energy that strikes a square meter of the earth’s surface in a single
day is called
a) solar window b) solar constant c) solar insolation d) solar radiation

47. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on
a) solar energy insolation b) inverter c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power
output
48. The exhaust from a fuel cell would contain
a) Hydrogen b) Water vapour c) CO2 d) Oxygen

49. The management tool that focuses on optimizing the effectiveness of manufacturing
equipment is
a) 5S b) TQM c) TPM d) Kaizen

50. The following industry/establishment is not covered in the notified list of nine designated
consumers under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
a) chlor alkali b) fertilizer c) paper and pulp d) hydel power station
_______________________
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR

1. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called
a) tachometer b) hydrometer c) anemometer d) none of the above

2. When the liquid LPG evaporates the volume of gas occupied will be about
a) 25 times b) 250 times c) 100 times d) None of the above

3. The air to natural gas (stoichiometric) ratio, by volume, for complete combustion varies between
a) 14:1 to 15:1 b) 7:1 to 8:1 c) 9.5:1 to 10:1 d) None of the above

4. The draft caused solely by the difference in weight between the column of hot gas inside the
chimney and column of outside air is known as;
a) balanced draft b) induced draft c) forced draft d) natural draft

5. The type of boiler in which water passes through the tubes and hot gases pass outside the tubes is
known as;
1
_______________________
a) water tube b) fire tube c) packaged boiler d) none of the above

6. CO2 percentage (by volume) measurement in flue gases can be done by using;
a) ultrasonic probe b) potassium oxide probe

c) portable fyrite d) zirconium oxide probe
7. For optimum combustion of fuel oil, O2 percentage in flue gases should be maintained at;
a) 2-3% b) 14-15% c) 21-23% d) none of the above

8. The mode of heat transfer from hot body to cold body without a conveying medium is;
a) conduction b) radiation c) convection d) none of the above

9. A recuperator in a furnace is used to extract heat from flue gases for preheating;
a) the charge b) fuel oil c) air for combustion of fuel d) feed water
10. In a Mollier diagram, the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapour lines meet is
known as the;
a) vapour point b) liquid point c) critical point d) sub-critical point

11. The steam pressure drop in a steam pipe is inversely proportional to the _____ of pipe diameter
a) 4th power b) 6 th power c) 5 th power d) none of above

12. The best quality of steam for indirect process heating is;
a) dry saturated steam b) super heated steam c) wet steam d) super critical steam
13. The emissivity of conventional refractories used in a furnace;
a) increases with increase in temperature b) decreases with increase in temperature

c) remains constant d) decreases with increase in furnace pressure
14. The main constituent of natural gas, accounting for about 95% of the total volume, is;
a) methane b) iso-octane c) propane d) hexane

15. Steam generated in a boiler is 36 tonnes in 3 hours. Fuel consumption in the same period is 1
tonne per hour. Continuous blow down is 8% of feed water input. The boiler evaporation ratio is;
a) 12 b) 11.7 c) 36 d) 24
16. Heat loss through furnace openings is directly proportional to;
a) fourth power of furnace temperature b) fourth power of absolute furnace temperature

c) absolute furnace temperature d) square of absolute furnace temperature
17. A power generation system which uses first a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine is called;
a) topping cycle b) combined cycle c) Brayton cycle d) bottoming cycle

18. Magnesite, chrome magnesite and dolomite are ________ type of refractory;
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of the above

19. In a steam system, the purpose of venting air is because air is a;
a) good conductor b) inert substance c) dilutant d) insulator

2
_______________________
20. Latent heat at the critical point of a steam phase diagram is;
a) 640 kCal/kg b) zero c) 540 kCal/kg d) 584 kCal/kg

21. What is the most effective way to avoid ambient air infiltration into a fuel fired furnace;
a) slight negative pressure should be maintained b) operate at about 90% capacity

c) increase the chimney height d) slight positive furnace pressure should be
maintained
22. Which loss is the highest in a typical forging furnace operating at 1300 oC?
a) flue gas loss b) wall loss c) cooling water loss d) unavoidable opening loss
23. Scale losses in a reheating furnace will;
a) increase with CO in combustion gases b) increase with excess air

c) have no relation with excess air d) decrease with excess air
24. Molecular weight of SO2 in kg/kg mole is;
a) 34 b) 32 c) 12 d) 44
25. A process plant needs 4 bar and 15 bar steam in addition to electric power. The most suitable co-
generation option for this process plant among the following, will be;
a) extraction cum back pressure turbine b) back pressure turbine

c) condensing turbine d) none of the above
26. Proximate analysis of a fuel is determination of
a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture b) Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter and moisture
c) higher calorific value d) lower calorific value
27. Suitable atomizing viscosity of furnace oil (100 Redwood seconds-1) for use in LAP/MAP burners
requires an oil preheating temperature of about;
a) 80 oC b) 105 oC c) 125 oC d) 135 oC

28. With increase in the percentage of excess air for combustion of coal, percentage of CO 2 in flue gas.
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the above

29. The presence of Calcium and Magnesium Bicarbonates in boiler feed water would form:
a) acidic solution b) alkaline solution c) neutral solution d) none of the above

30. F & A (from and at) rating of the boiler is the amount of steam generated from;
a) water at 0 ºC to saturated steam at 100 ºC

b) water at feed water temperature to saturated steam at 100 ºC
c) water at 100 ºC to saturated steam at 100 ºC
d) water at ambient temperature to saturated steam at 100 ºC
31. Condensate, at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160 oC temperature, when exposed to atmosphere will;
a) fully convert into flash steam b) partially convert into flash steam
c) remain as condensate d) immediately cool down to ambient temperature
32. The lowest level of excess air is required in a;
3
_______________________
a) coal burner b) low pressure oil burner

c) high pressure gas burner d) high pressure oil burner
33. Velocity of steam in steam pipe is directly proportional to;
a) number of bends in pipe b) specific volume of steam

c) length of pipe d) diameter of the pipe
34. As the pressure of steam increases from 4 kg/cm 2 to 8 kg/cm2, the value of total enthalpy and latent
heat of steam respectively;
a) increases & remains the same b) increases & decreases

c) decreases & increases d) decreases & remains the same
35. The difference in temperature between steam and condensate refers to the principle of operation of
a;
a) thermodynamic trap b) thermostatic trap c) orifice type trap d) float trap

36. Pinch analysis uses the ______ law of Thermodynamics
a) first b) second c) third d) both first & second

37. Which of the following is not a property of ceramic fibre insulation?

c) high heat capacity d) thermal shock resistant
38. The working media in a thermocompressor is
a) electricity b) compressed air c) high temperature oil d) steam

39. The turbine heat rate is expressed as
a) kWh/kCal b) kg/kCal c) kCal/kWh d) none of the above

40. Auxiliary power consumption for coal preparation will be highest in a;
a) stoker fired boiler b) AFBC boiler c) CFBC boiler d) pulverized coal fired boiler
41. In a heat exchanger, for the same heat duty, higher the heat transfer coefficient;
a) higher will be the heat transfer area needed b) higher will be the LMTD
c) lower will be the heat transfer area needed d) lower will be the LMTD
42. Correction factor for LMTD is commonly applicable for;
a) parallel flow type b) counter flow type c) cross flow type d) both (a) and (b)
43. Alumina is a …….. type of refractory.
a) acid b) basic c) neutral d) none of the above

44. Which of the following does not contribute to steam savings
a) insulation of steam pipe lines b) superheated steam for indirect process heating
c) providing dry steam for process d) none of the above
45. Which of the following fuel requires maximum air for stochiometric combustion?
a) butane b) propane c) hydrogen d) coal
4
_______________________
46. In a cogeneration system, with extraction condensing turbine, the highest heat rate is recorded
when;
a) maximum power output and maximum extraction to process

b) maximum power output and normal extraction to process
c) maximum power output and minimum extraction to process
47. A bottoming cycle is one in which fuel is used for producing
a) power primarily followed by byproduct heat output

b) heat primarily followed by byproduct power output
c) power, heat and refrigeration simultaneously
48. In a reheating furnace, soaking time of a cycle depends typically on;
a) excess air level b) preheat temperature of charge

c) thickness of the charged material d) furnace atmosphere
49. A supercritical boiler has parameters beyond critical point which refers to;
a) 221.2 bar (a) pressure and 374.18 0C temperature

b) 246 bar (a) pressure and 538 0C temperature
c) 306 bar (a) pressure and 598 0C temperature
d) 170 bar (a) pressure and 538 0C temperature
50. A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates
a) drop in the total dissolved solids in boiler water b) more steam generation
c) rise in the total dissolved solids in boiler water d) greater purity of feed water
5
_______________________
Regn No: _________________
Name: ___________________

FOR

Black HB Pencil, as per instructions.
1. Select the wrong statement:
a) lower the heat rate of a power generating unit, higher is the generation efficiency.
b) one kilo Watt hour of electrical energy being equivalent to 3600 kilo Joules of thermal energy
c) ‘Heat Rate’ is directly proportional to the efficiency of power generation.
d) design ‘Heat Rate’ of a 210 MW thermal generating unit is higher than that of a 110 MW thermal
generating unit.
2. If power factor is improved from PF1 to PF2 then the reduction in distribution losses in an electric
network is proportional to :
a) ratio of PF1 to PF2 b) square root of (PF1/PF2)

c) square of (PF1/PF2) d) none of the above
3. In the BEE labeling programme for distribution transformers, the total transformer losses at
a) 50% and 100% loading have been defined.

b) only 50% loading have been defined.
c) only 100% loading have been defined.
d) 25%, 50% and 100% loading have been defined.
4. A 5 kVAr, 415 V rated power factor capacitor was found to be having 5.5 kVAr operating capacity.
The operating supply voltage at the same supply frequency would approximately be
a) 400 V b) 415 V c) 435 V d) none of the above

5. Busbar Voltages at the main electrical panel were balanced but at the following Motor Control
Circuit (MCC), fitted with PF Correction capacitors, the voltages were unbalanced by about 3%.
_______________________
The possible reason for this could be
a) motors connected to MCC were operating at partial loads

b) motors connected to MCC were overloaded
c) excessive kVAr of Capacitors than required at MCC
d) blown fuse in one phase of the 3 phase capacitor bank connected to the MCC.
6. The iron losses in a transformer are proportional to :
a) kVA load b) square of kVA load

c) cube of kVA load d) none of the above
7. The synchronous speed (rpm) of a 2 pole induction motor at 49.5 Hz supply frequency is :
a) 3000 b) 2970 c) 1500 d) none of the above

8. kW rating indicated on the name plate of an induction motor indicates
a) rated input of the motor b) maximum input power which the motor can draw
c) rated output of the motor d) maximum instantaneous input power of the motor
9. A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 14.0 A, 1480 RPM, three phase rated squirrel cage induction motor, after
decoupling from the driven equipment, was found to be drawing 3.5 A at no load. The current
drawn by the motor at no load is high because of
a) very high supply frequency at the time of no load test b) faulty ammeter reading
c) very poor power factor as the load is almost inductive d) loose motor terminal connections
10. A six pole induction motor operating at 49.6 Hz, with 980 RPM actual speed , will have operating %
slip of
a) 1.21% b) 2% c) 0% d) none of the above

11. The total loss for a transformer loading at 60% and with no load and full load losses of 3 kW and 25
kW respectively, is
a) 3 kW b) 12 kW c) 18 kW d) 25 kW
12. Eff1 (as per IS 12615:2004) induction motor is
a) endorsed by BEE as high efficiency label b) having same efficiency as of Eff2

c) having less efficiency than Eff 2 motor d) not covered in BEE labeling scheme for motors
13. Select the incorrect statement
a) required PF capacitor kVAr at induction motor terminal increases with decrease in speed of the
motor
b) PF capacitor improves power factor from the point of installation back to the load side.
c) induction motor efficiency increases with increase in its rated capacity
d) The largest potential for electricity savings with variable speed drives is generally in variable
torque applications
14. The adsorption material used in an adsorption air dryer is
a) calcium chloride b) magnesium chloride

c) activated alumina and silica gel d) potassium chloride
15. In a textile mill, two 150 cfm belt driven reciprocating compressors are seen to be working
constantly with a loading time of 20 seconds and unloading time of 30 seconds. The best economic
option for energy savings would be:
a) switch off one compressor

b) switch off one compressor and reduce motor pulley size of the other compressor appropriately
c) adopt variable speed drive for one of the compressors
16. Which of the following pipe fittings used in compressed air pipeline offers maximum resistance
_______________________
a) Gate Valve b) Tee 90 deg long bend c) Elbow d) Return bend

17. A package air conditioner of 5 TR capacity delivers a cooling effect of 4 TR. If EER (W/W) is 2.90,
the power in kW drawn by compressor would be:

18. In an air washer of textile humidification system airflow of 3000 m3/h at 25 oC and 10% relative
humidity is humidified to 60% relative humidity by adding water through spray nozzles. The specific
humidity of air at inlet and outlet are 0.002 kg/kg and 0.0062 kg/kg respectively .The amount of
water required in kg/hr is
a) 14.9 b) 6 c) 10 d) none of the above

19. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the component where the refrigerant fluid
experiences no heat loss or gain is
a) compressor b) condenser c) expansion valve d) evaporator

20. The refrigeration load in TR when 20 m3/hr of water is cooled from 13 oC to 8 oC is about
a) 33 b) 80.3 c) 39.6 d) none of the above

21. In an engine room 15 m long, 10 m wide and 4 m high, ventilation requirement in m 3/hr for 20 air
changes/hr is:

22. The specific ratio as defined by ASME and used in differentiating fans, blowers and compressors,
is given by
a) discharge pressure/suction pressure b) suction pressure/discharge pressure

c) discharge pressure/ (suction pressure + discharge pressure)
d) suction pressure/ (suction pressure + discharge pressure)
23. Friction loss in a piping system carrying fluid is proportional to
a) fluid flow b) (fluid flow)2 c) 1/fluid flow d) 1/(fluid flow) 2

24. The efficiency of backward-inclined fans compared to forward curved fans is__
a) lower b) higher c) same d) none of the above

25. For centrifugal fans, the relation between shaft input Power (kW) and Speed (N) is given by
2 3
kW1 N1 kW1 N1 kW1 N1
a) = b) = c) = d) none of the above
kW2 N2 kW2 N2
2 kW2 N2
3
26. The value, by which the pressure in the pump suction exceeds the liquid vapour pressure, is
expressed as
a) static head b) dynamic head c)suction head d) net positive suction head available
27. In a pumping system the static head is 10 m and the dynamic head is 15 m. If the pump speed is
doubled, then the total head will be
a) 50 m b) 70 m c) 40 m d) none of the above

28. The advantage of installing a dedicated servo transformer for lighting feeders is;
a) "Voltage" fluctuations in lighting circuit can be minimized by isolating from the power feeders.
b) reduction of voltage related problems, which in turn increases the efficiency of the lighting
system.
c) with proper control device “over voltage” that might occur during lean load or off-peak can be
avoided, in turn less energy consumption and improved lamp life can be achieved
d) all the above
29. Parallel operation of two identical fans in a ducted system
_______________________
a) will double the flow b) will double the fan static pressure
c) will increase flow by more than two times d) will not double the flow
30. The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.0. If the compressor motor output is
9.555 kW, the tonnage (TR) of the refrigeration system is

31. A cooling tower is said to be performing well when:
a) range is close to zero b) approach is close to zero

c) approach is more than design values d) range is equal to approach
32. A process fluid at 40 m 3/hr, with a density of 0.95, is flowing in a heat exchanger and is to be
cooled from 35 oC to 29 oC. The fluid specific heat is 0.78 kCal/kg. If the chilled water range
across the heat exchanger is 4 oC, the chilled water flow rate is
a) 44.46 m3/hr b) 40 m3/hr c) 35 m3/hr d) none of the above

33. Input power to the motor driving a pump is 30 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9. The power
transmitted to the water is 16.2 kW. The pump efficiency is

34. The most energy intensive dryer among the following
a) refrigeration b) desiccant (heat of compression)

c) desiccant (heatless purge) d) desiccant (blower reactivated)
35. The illuminance is 10 lm/m² from a lamp at 1 meter distance. The illuminance at half the distance
will be
a) 40 lm/m² b) 10 lm/m² c) 5 lm/m² d) none of the above

36. Harmonics are generated by
a) energy efficient motors b) transformers

c) eddy current drives d) variable frequency drives
37. The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device manufacturer to prevent
the problem in a DG set during operation is:
a) temperature rise b) back pressure

c) over loading of waste heat recovery tubes d) turbulence of exhaust gases
38. The lamp which gives 10% visible radiation is
a) CFL b) flourescent tube light c) HPSV d) incandescent lamp

39. The electronic ballast in lighting application does not have one of the following characteristics
a) lower operational losses than conventional ballasts

b) tuned circuit to deliver power at 28-32 kHz
c) requiring a starter
d) low temperature rise
40. The lumens output varies from _______ Lumens/Watt in case of White LED lamps.
a) 30-50 b) 75-125 c) 101-175 d) 67-121
_______________________
41. A fan is operating at 970 RPM developing a flow of 3000 Nm 3/hr. at a static pressure of 650
mmWC. If the speed is reduced to 700 RPM, the static pressure (mmWC) developed will be

42. The blowdown quantity required in cooling towers is given by
a) evaporation loss/ (cycle of concentration –1)

b) (cycle of concentration –1)/ evaporation loss
c) evaporation loss/ (1 - cycle of concentration)
d) evaporation loss/ (cycle of concentration +1)
43. A hotel building has four floors each of 1000 m 2 area. If the Lighting Power Density ( LPD) is 10.8
W/m2, the interior lighting power allowance for the hotel building is
a)10800 W b) 21600 W c) 43200 W d) none of the above

44. A DG set is generating 900 kVA at 0.8 PF. If the specific fuel consumption of this DG set is 0.3 lts/
kWh at that load, then how much fuel is consumed while delivering generated power for one hour.
a) 270 litres b) 300 litres c) 216 litres d) none of the above

45. Energy Performance Index (EPI) kWh/m2 /yr is calculated based on
a) total building annual electrical energy consumption/ built up area

b) total building annual electrical energy consumption/ carpet area
c) total building annual electrical energy consumption for HVAC & lighting/ built up area
46. Two most important electrical parameters, which are to be monitored on generator panel, among
the following, for safe operation of a Diesel generator set are:
a) voltage and ampere b) kVA and ampere c) power factor and voltage d) kW and kVA
47. Which of the following is not a climate zone as per ECBC classification?
a) hot-dry b) warm-humid c) cold d) cold-humid

48. The T2,T5,T8 and T12 fluorescent tube light are categorized based on
a) diameter of the tube b) length of the tube

c) both diameter and length of the tube d) none of the above
49. Select the feature which does not apply to energy efficient motors by design:
a) energy efficient motors last longer

b) starting torque for efficient motors may be lower than for standard motors
c) energy efficient motors have high slips which results in speeds about 1% lower than standard
motors
d) energy efficient motors have low slips which results in speeds about 1% higher than standard
motors
50. Select the incorrect statement:
a) Metal halide lamp can be considered as a variant of high pressure mercury vapour lamp
(HPMV)
b) Efficacy of fluorescent tube light (FTL) remains constant throughout its operational life
c) HPSV lamps differ from mercury and metal-halide lamps in that they do not contain starting
electrodes
d) LPSV lamps are the most efficacious light sources, but they produce the poorest quality light of
all the lamp types
…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

_______________________

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – 4: Energy Performance Assessment For Equipment and Utility Systems

S-1 In what type of furnace, a top pressure recovery turbine is used?
Ans: blast furnace

S-2 In a heat exchanger, the hot fluid inlet and outlet temperatures are 110 °C and 70 °C.
The cold fluid inlet and outlet temperatures are 30 °C and 45 °C. The effectiveness of
heat exchanger is
Ans:
= 15/80 = 0.1875
S-3 Name two types of discounted cash-flow techniques used in the financial evaluation of
energy saving projects
Ans:
1 NPV: Net present value
2 IRR: Internal rate of return
S-4 Name two areas of major thermal energy consumption in a cement plant
Ans: Rotary kiln and precalciner

S-5 For which fuel the difference between GCV and LCV will be higher, Coal or Natural
Gas?
1
_______________________
Ans: Natural Gas

S-6 What are the two major functions of coke in a blast furnace?
Ans: Coke is used in Blast Furnace (BF) both as a reductant (reduction of ore to liquid
metal )and as a source of thermal energy.
S-7 For a thermal power plant, which type of heat rate (Gross or Net) has a higher value
for the same generator output?
Ans: Net heat rate

S-8 Why humidification is required in spinning and weaving sections of textile processing?
Ans: Humidity is required to prevent yarn breakage and minimize build up of static
charge to reduce dust and fibre fly (Fluff)
S-9 What is the purpose of ‘reheat’ in a thermal power plant cycle?
Ans: There is a gain in net work and because of which the efficiency is enhanced.
S-10 In a rotary kiln of cement plant, why % CO 2 in exhaust gases cannot be an indicator of
excess air?
Ans: Because the process also emits CO2
Section - II: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 2 x 5 = 10

L-1 The following are the operating parameters of a regenerative feedwater heater in a
thermal power plant
Saturation temperature of steam to heater - 84.3 oC

Inlet feedwater temperature - 44 oC
Outlet feedwater temperature - 75 oC
Drain outlet temperature - 58.4 oC
Calculate the Terminal Temperature Difference (TTD) and Drain Cooler Approach
(DCA).
Ans : TTD = 84.3 – 75
= 9.3 oC
DCA = 58.4 – 44
= 14.4 oC
2
_______________________
Paper 4 – Energy Auditor – Set B Key
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER – 4: Energy Performance Assessment For Equipment and Utility Systems

S-1 Why humidification is required in spinning and weaving sections of textile processing?
Ans: Humidity is required to prevent yarn breakage and minimize build up of static
charge to reduce dust and fibre fly (Fluff)
S-2 What is the purpose of ‘reheat’ in a thermal power plant cycle?
Ans: There is a gain in net work and because of which the efficiency is enhanced.
S-3 What are the two major functions of coke in a blast furnace?
Ans: Coke is used in Blast Furnace (BF) both as a reductant (reduction of ore to liquid
metal )and as a source of thermal energy.
S-4 Name two types of discounted cash-flow techniques used in the financial evaluation of
energy saving projects
Ans:
1 NPV: Net present value
2 IRR: Internal rate of return
S-5 Name two areas of major thermal energy consumption in a cement plant
1
_______________________
Ans: Rotary kiln and precalciner

S-6 In what type of furnace, a top pressure recovery turbine is used?
Ans: blast furnace

S-7 In a rotary kiln of cement plant, why % CO 2 in exhaust gases cannot be an indicator of
excess air?
Ans: Because the process also emits CO2

S-8 In a heat exchanger, the hot fluid inlet and outlet temperatures are 110 °C and 70 °C.
The cold fluid inlet and outlet temperatures are 30 °C and 45 °C. The effectiveness of
heat exchanger is
Ans:
= 15/80 = 0.1875
S-9 For which fuel the difference between GCV and LCV will be higher, Coal or Natural
Gas?
Ans: Natural Gas

S-10 For a thermal power plant, which type of heat rate (Gross or Net) has a higher value
for the same generator output?
Ans: Net heat rate
Section - II: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 2 x 5 = 10

L-1 In a 30 kW four pole induction motor operating at 49.9 Hz and rated for 415 V and
1470 RPM, the actual measured speed is 1475 RPM. Find out the percentage
loading of the motor if the voltage applied is 425 V.
Ans:
% Loading = Slip x 100%
(Ss – Sr) x (Vr / V)2
Synchronous speed = 120 x 49.9 / 4 = 1497 rpm
Slip = Synchronous Speed – Measured speed in rpm.

= 1497– 1475 = 22 rpm.
% Loading = 22 x 100% = 85.43%

( 1497- 1470) x (415/425)2
2
_______________________
L-2 The following are the operating parameters of a regenerative feedwater heater in a
thermal power plant
Saturation temperature of steam to heater - 80.8 oC

Inlet feedwater temperature - 46 oC
Outlet feedwater temperature - 73 oC
Drain outlet temperature - 59.2 oC
Calculate the Terminal Temperature Difference (TTD) and Drain Cooler Approach
(DCA).
Ans : TTD = 80.8 – 73
= 7.8 oC
DCA = 59.2 – 46
= 13.2 oC
…………. End of Section - II ………….
Section - III: NUMERICAL QUESTIONS Marks: 4 x 20 = 80
(i) Answer all Four questions

(ii) Each question carries Twenty marks
N-1 Flow rates of the hot and the cold water streams flowing through a heat exchanger
are 12 and 30 kg/min, respectively. Hot and cold water stream inlet temperatures are
72 °C and 27 °C, respectively. The exit temperature of the hot stream is required to
be 52 °C. The specific heat of water is 4.179 kJ/kg K. The overall heat transfer
coefficient is 900 W/m2 K.
Neglecting the effect of fouling, calculate the heat transfer area for
a) Parallel-flow
b) Counter-flow
a)
Rate of heat transfer M x cp x delt T
(12/60) × 4.179 x 1000 × (72 – 52) =
16716 W
Cold water exit temperature 27 + [16716 / (4.179 x 1000 × (30/60))]

27 + 8 = 35 °C
3
_______________________
Regn No: _________________

Name: ___________________

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – October, 2011
Date: 15.10.2011 Timings: 14:00 - 17:00 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

1. The density of a substance relative to water is called
a) viscosity b) specific gravity c) dew point d) pour point

2. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity
a) Engler b) Rankine c) Saybolt d) Redwood

3. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1oC is
called
a) sensible heat b) latent heat c) specific heat d) net calorific value

4. Which among the following fuels is likely to contain maximum percentage of sulphur?
a) kerosene b) diesel oil c) LSHS d) furnace oil
5. Which of the following grades of Indian coal will have the highest calorific value?
a) B b) F c) A d) E
6. Which of the following is not measured in proximate analysis?
a) volatile matter b) fixed carbon c) sulphur d) ash

7. Which of the following is not measured in the ultimate analysis of a fuel ?
1
_______________________
a) oxygen b) fixed carbon c) sulphur d) nitrogen

8. Carpet loss is associated with
a) combustion of coal b) storage of coal c) combustion of oil d) storage of natural gas

9. Which of the following is not true with respect to improper sizing of coal
a) results in poor combustion b) lower excess air resulting in lesser stack loss
c) increase of unburnts in ash d) lower thermal efficiency
10. Which of the following fuel constituents releases maximum amount of heat per kg during
combustion ?
a) hydrogen b) carbon c) sulphur d) nitrogen

11. Which is the statement that is true of a fire tube boiler
a) has a single steam drum b) fire is in the tubes

c) water in the tubes d) has multiple steam drums
12. Coal is not burnt in suspension in
a) fluidised bed boiler b) chain-grate boler

c) spreader stoker boiler d) pulverised fuel fired boiler
13. Which of the following is considered in the calculation of ‘Evaporation ratio’?
a) calorific value of fuel b) latent heat of steam c) fuel quantity d) all of the above
14. When solutions of differing concentrations are separated by a semi-permeable membrane,
water from less concentrated solution passes through the membrane to dilute the liquid of
high concentration. This is called
a) reverse osmosis b) ion exchange c) softening d) osmosis

15. Flash steam can be recovered from
a) superheated steam b) saturated steam

c) high pressure condensate d) condensate at atmospheric pressure
16. Which of these is not true of ‘critical point’ of steam/water mixture ?
a) the temperature at critical point is 374.15oC

b) the pressure at critical point is 221.2 bar
c) saturated liquid and saturated vapour lines meet at critical point
d) enthalpy of evaporation is maximum at critical point
17. The head loss due to friction in a pipe is
a) directly proportional to the diameter b) directly proportional to the gravitational constant

c) inversely proportional to the velocity d) directly proportional to the square of velocity
2
_______________________
18. Select the wrong statement with respect to steam traps
a) discharges condensate as soon as it is formed

b) does not allow steam to escape
c) capable of discharging air and other incondensable gases
d) does not allow condensate to escape
19. Heat transfer in a furnace is effected by
a) radiation from flame b) radiation from furnace walls

c) convection due to movement of hot gases over the stock d) all of the above
20. In a coke fired cupola, carbon monoxide is produced in the
a) preheating zone b) reducing zone

c) combustion zone d) melting zone
21. In an oil fired heat treatment furnace which of the following is not required to determine its
efficiency by direct method
a) weight of input material b) oxygen percentage in flue gas

c) fuel consumption d) calorific value of fuel
22. Which of the following may not help in energy efficient furnace operation?
a) maintaining a positive draft inside the furnace

b) minimizing refractory losses
c) complete combustion with maximum excess air
d) use of ceramic fibre in batch type furnace
23. Select the wrong statement with respect to furnace operations
a) the burner flame should not touch the stock

b) air infiltration leads to oxidation of billets
c) ceramic fibre linings are used in the exterior of the furnace
d) heat loss through openings is proportional to T4
24. The effectiveness of a heat exchanger does not depend on
a) specific heat of hot fluid b) Inlet temperature of hot fluid

c) LMTD d) Inlet temperature of cold fluid
3
_______________________
25. Pinch analysis uses the _____ law of thermodynamics
a) First b) Second c)Third d) Both (a) & (b)

26. In a counter-flow heat exchanger, cold fluid enters at 30°C and leaves at 50°C, whereas
the hot fluid enters at 150°C and leaves at 130°C. The LMTD is
a) 100°C b) 280°C c) 0°C d) 20

27. What is the best-suited pump for pumping heavy fuel oil?
a) centrifugal pump b) gear pump c) diaphragm pump d) plunger pump

28. Which of the following components in fuel limits exit flue gas temperature in a boiler waste
heat recovery system?
a) hydrogen content b) volatile matter c) sulphur content d) ash content

29. Which of the following requires the largest amount of oxygen/kg of substance for
combustion?
a) carbon b) hydrogen c) sulphur d) nitrogen

30. A paper plant needs steam at 3.5 bar and 10.5 bar in addition to electric power. The most
suitable choice among the following will be
a) condensing turbine b) bottoming cycle

c) back pressure turbine d) extraction cum back pressure turbine
31. An increase in the steam pressure from 3 bar to 10 bar, will result in a decrease of
a) sensible heat b) enthalpy of steam c) saturation temperature d) specific volume

32. Chemical used for dozing boiler drum to reduce dissolved gases is
a) hydrazine b) chlorine c) alum d) all of the above

33. Saturated steam when throttled to a lower pressure results in
a) wet steam b) super heated steam c) super critical steam d) same state of steam
34. Radiation losses from the surface of a boiler practically
c) are independent of its loading d) none of the above
35. In oil fired boiler, the measured CO2 in flue gas is 11 % by volume against the theoretical
CO2 of 15.5% . The percentage excess air will be

36. Which of the following fuel fired steam boiler will have the least evaporation ratio?
a) coal b) bagasse c) oil d) gas
4
_______________________
37. ____ indicates the softening temperature of the refractory

a) refractoriness under load (RUL) b) cold crushing strength
c) pyrometric cone equivalent (PCE) d) porosity
38. An increase in bulk density of a refractory increases its
a) volume stability b) heat capacity c) resistance to slag penetration d) all of the above
39. The insulation material used for medium temperature application is
a) calcium silicate b) polyurethane c) wood d) mica
40. A coal fired FBC boiler can operate at ___ excess air
a) 3 – 4 % b) 20 -25 % c) 30 – 40 % d) 10 – 15 %
41. The balance draft furnace is one using
a) induced draft fan and chimney b) induced draft fan and forced draft fan
c) forced draft fan and chimney d) without induced and forced draft fans
42. Higher excess air in an oil fired furnace would result in
a) increased furnace temperature b) increase in CO2 presence in flue gas
c) reduced flame temperature d) all of the above
43. ________ is the commonly employed flux in a cupola furnace
a) calcium carbide b) fluorspar c) limestone d) any of the above
44. By installing a recuperator ,1% fuel reduction is possible for every ___ reduction in flue
gas temperature
a) 5°C b) 33°C c) 22°C d) 10°C
45. The heat loss rate from a surface is expressed in
a) Joules b) W/m2 °C c) Watt/sec d) kCal/m2/hr

46. Which among the following uses a working fluid for heat recovery ?
a) heat pipe b) recuperator c) heat wheel d) regenerator
47. Which of the following is most suitable for high temperature waste heat recovery ?
a) heat wheel b) heat pump c) heat pipe d) recuperator
48. Among the following, cogeneration concept is not applicable to which type of industry?
a) sugar b) paper & pulp c) refinery d) refractory
49. A device used to convert low pressure steam to high pressure steam is called
a) heat pump b) heat pipe c) thermocompressor d) economizer

50. The unit of thermal conductivity is
a) W / m2 oC b) W oC / m2 c) W / m oC d) W oC / m

5
_______________________
(iv) Answer all 50 questions

(v) Each question carries one mark
(vi) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
51. The density of a substance relative to water is called
a) viscosity b) specific gravity c) dew point d) pour point

52. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity
a) Engler b) Rankine c) Saybolt d) Redwood

53. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1oC is
called
a) sensible heat b) latent heat c) specific heat d) net calorific value

54. Which among the following fuels is likely to contain maximum percentage of sulphur?
a) kerosene b) diesel oil c) LSHS d) furnace oil
55. Which of the following grades of Indian coal will have the highest calorific value?
a) B b) F c) A d) E
56. Which of the following is not measured in proximate analysis?
a) volatile matter b) fixed carbon c) sulphur d) ash

57. Which of the following is not measured in the ultimate analysis of a fuel ?
a) oxygen b) fixed carbon c) sulphur d) nitrogen

58. Carpet loss is associated with
a) combustion of coal b) storage of coal c) combustion of oil d) storage of natural gas

59. Which of the following is not true with respect to improper sizing of coal
a) results in poor combustion b) lower excess air resulting in lesser stack loss
c) increase of unburnts in ash d) lower thermal efficiency
60. Which of the following fuel constituents releases maximum amount of heat per kg during
combustion ?
a) hydrogen b) carbon c) sulphur d) nitrogen

61. Which is the statement that is true of a fire tube boiler
a) has a single steam drum b) fire is in the tubes

c) water in the tubes d) has multiple steam drums
6
_______________________
62. Coal is not burnt in suspension in
a) fluidised bed boiler b) chain-grate boler

c) spreader stoker boiler d) pulverised fuel fired boiler
63. Which of the following is considered in the calculation of ‘Evaporation ratio’?
a) calorific value of fuel b) latent heat of steam c) fuel quantity d) all of the above
64. When solutions of differing concentrations are separated by a semi-permeable membrane,
water from less concentrated solution passes through the membrane to dilute the liquid of
high concentration. This is called
a) reverse osmosis b) ion exchange c) softening d) osmosis

65. Flash steam can be recovered from
a) superheated steam b) saturated steam

c) high pressure condensate d) condensate at atmospheric pressure
66. Which of these is not true of ‘critical point’ of steam/water mixture ?

67. The head loss due to friction in a pipe is
a) directly proportional to the diameter b) directly proportional to the gravitational constant

c) inversely proportional to the velocity d) directly proportional to the square of velocity
68. Select the wrong statement with respect to steam traps
a) discharges condensate as soon as it is formed

b) does not allow steam to escape
c) capable of discharging air and other incondensable gases
d) does not allow condensate to escape
69. Heat transfer in a furnace is effected by
a) radiation from flame b) radiation from furnace walls

c) convection due to movement of hot gases over the stock d) all of the above
70. In a coke fired cupola, carbon monoxide is produced in the
a) preheating zone b) reducing zone

c) combustion zone d) melting zone
71. In an oil fired heat treatment furnace which of the following is not required to determine its
efficiency by direct method
7
_______________________
a) weight of input material b) oxygen percentage in flue gas

c) fuel consumption d) calorific value of fuel
72. Which of the following may not help in energy efficient furnace operation?
a) maintaining a positive draft inside the furnace

b) minimizing refractory losses
c) complete combustion with maximum excess air
d) use of ceramic fibre in batch type furnace
73. Select the wrong statement with respect to furnace operations
a) the burner flame should not touch the stock

b) air infiltration leads to oxidation of billets
c) ceramic fibre linings are used in the exterior of the furnace
d) heat loss through openings is proportional to T4
a) specific heat of hot fluid b) Inlet temperature of hot fluid

c) LMTD d) Inlet temperature of cold fluid
8
_______________________
75. Pinch analysis uses the _____ law of thermodynamics
a) First b) Second c)Third d) Both (a) & (b)

76. In a counter-flow heat exchanger, cold fluid enters at 30°C and leaves at 50°C, whereas
the hot fluid enters at 150°C and leaves at 130°C. The LMTD is
a) 100°C b) 280°C c) 0°C d) 20

77. What is the best-suited pump for pumping heavy fuel oil?
a) centrifugal pump b) gear pump c) diaphragm pump d) plunger pump

78. Which of the following components in fuel limits exit flue gas temperature in a boiler waste
heat recovery system?
a) hydrogen content b) volatile matter c) sulphur content d) ash content

79. Which of the following requires the largest amount of oxygen/kg of substance for
combustion?
a) carbon b) hydrogen c) sulphur d) nitrogen

80. A paper plant needs steam at 3.5 bar and 10.5 bar in addition to electric power. The most
suitable choice among the following will be
a) condensing turbine b) bottoming cycle

81. An increase in the steam pressure from 3 bar to 10 bar, will result in a decrease of
a) sensible heat b) enthalpy of steam c) saturation temperature d) specific volume

82. Chemical used for dozing boiler drum to reduce dissolved gases is
a) hydrazine b) chlorine c) alum d) all of the above

83. Saturated steam when throttled to a lower pressure results in
a) wet steam b) super heated steam c) super critical steam d) same state of steam
84. Radiation losses from the surface of a boiler practically
c) are independent of its loading d) none of the above
85. In oil fired boiler, the measured CO2 in flue gas is 11 % by volume against the theoretical
CO2 of 15.5% . The percentage excess air will be

a) coal b) bagasse c) oil d) gas
9
_______________________
87. ____ indicates the softening temperature of the refractory

a) refractoriness under load (RUL) b) cold crushing strength
c) pyrometric cone equivalent (PCE) d) porosity
a) volume stability b) heat capacity c) resistance to slag penetration d) all of the above
89. The insulation material used for medium temperature application is
a) calcium silicate b) polyurethane c) wood d) mica
90. A coal fired FBC boiler can operate at ___ excess air
a) 3 – 4 % b) 20 -25 % c) 30 – 40 % d) 10 – 15 %
91. The balance draft furnace is one using
a) induced draft fan and chimney b) induced draft fan and forced draft fan
c) forced draft fan and chimney d) without induced and forced draft fans
92. Higher excess air in an oil fired furnace would result in
a) increased furnace temperature b) increase in CO2 presence in flue gas
c) reduced flame temperature d) all of the above
93. ________ is the commonly employed flux in a cupola furnace
a) calcium carbide b) fluorspar c) limestone d) any of the above
94. By installing a recuperator ,1% fuel reduction is possible for every ___ reduction in flue
gas temperature
a) 5°C b) 33°C c) 22°C d) 10°C
95. The heat loss rate from a surface is expressed in
a) Joules b) W/m2 °C c) Watt/sec d) kCal/m2/hr

96. Which among the following uses a working fluid for heat recovery ?
a) heat pipe b) recuperator c) heat wheel d) regenerator
97. Which of the following is most suitable for high temperature waste heat recovery ?
a) heat wheel b) heat pump c) heat pipe d) recuperator
98. Among the following, cogeneration concept is not applicable to which type of industry?
a) sugar b) paper & pulp c) refinery d) refractory
99. A device used to convert low pressure steam to high pressure steam is called
a) heat pump b) heat pipe c) thermocompressor d) economizer

100. The unit of thermal conductivity is
b) W / m2 oC b) W oC / m2 c) W / m oC d) W oC / m

10
_______________________

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS – October, 2011
PAPER – 4: Energy Performance Assessment for Equipment and Utility Systems
Date: 16.10.2011 Timings: 14:00-16:00 HRS Duration: 2 HRS Max. Marks: 100
Section - I: BRIEF QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 1 =

10

S-1 When you do a walk through energy audit of a cooling tower, which two
parameters will you quickly spot check for indication of the cooling tower
performance?
Ans Cold well temperature and wet bulb temperature

(Range and approach may also be considered)
S-2 Which component of a cooling tower enhances heat transfer by maximizing

water and air contact?
Ans Fill
S-3 What is the index used to express the harmonics level in an electrical system?
Ans Total Harmonic Distortion (THD)

S-4 The EER of an air conditioner as indicated in BEE Star labeling scheme is
represented in_________
Ans Watts/Watts
S-5 For the determination of which boiler losses by indirect method, the specific
heat of superheated water vapour is used?
1
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Ans Loss due to moisture in air, loss due to hydrogen in fuel and loss due to moisture in
fuel
(Full marks may be given for any two right answers)
S-6 While reducing excess air in a boiler, what two parameters should be closely
monitored in the exit flue gases?
Ans CO and O2
S-7 Between back pressure turbine and condensing turbine which will have more
power generation efficiency?
Ans Condensing turbine
S-8 Calculate the boiler efficiency where the Turbine heat rate is 1930 kCal/ kWh and
the generating unit heat rate is 2250 kCal/kWh
Ans Boiler Efficiency=( Turbine Heat Rate*100)/Unit Heat Rate= 85.7%
S-9 In a power plant boiler, if there is air ingress in the flue gas duct, which auxiliary
equipment would be most affected?
Ans Induced Draft Fan

S-10 The loading and unloading of a reciprocating compressor is carried out based
on______
Ans Pressure
( Also full marks may be given If a candidate writes ‘Air Demand’)
Section - II: SHORT NUMERICAL QUESTIONS Marks: 2 x 5 = 10

L-1 An open cycle gas turbine was running with naphtha as fuel. The following are
the data collected during the gas turbine operation:
Fuel (Naphtha) consumption :180 kg/hr

GCV of naphtha fuel :11500 kCal/kg
Overall Efficiency of gas turbine which includes
air compressor and alternator : 25%
Cost of naphtha fuel : Rs.40,000/Ton
Find out the cost of fuel for generating one unit of electricity.
Ans Heat input to turbine = 11500 x 180

= 2070000 kCal/hr
2
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Paper -1 Set A Solutions

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2012
Date: 15.09.2012 Timings: 09:30-12:30 Hrs Duration: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 150

1. The primary energy content of fuels is generally expressed in terms of ton of oil equivalent
(toe) and is based on the following conversion factor
a) 1 toe=10x106 kCal b) 1 toe=11630 kWh

c) 1 toe=41870 MJ d) all the above
2. Largest share of global primary energy consumption is from which of the following fuels:
a) oil and natural gas b) coal and oil c) oil and nuclear d) coal and nuclear
3. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated from wood during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood ?
a) 0.78 kg b) 0.22 kg c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg
4. A power utility distributed 1 million 15 Watt CFLs for Rs 15 million, replacing 60

Watt incandescent lamps under Bachat Lamp Yojna. What will be the drop in power
in the evening on the demand side, if 80% of the lights are on at that time, assuming
similar numbers of incandescent lamps were switched on during the same period?
a) 360 kW b) 12 MW c) 36 MW d) 60
MW
5. Which of the following with respect to fossil fuels is true?
a) Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is a constant once established

b) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in production
c) R/P ratio varies every year with only changes in reserves
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d) R/P ratio varies every year with changes in both production and reserves
6.
From rated V, A and PF given in the name-plate of a motor , one can calculate:
a) rated input Power b) rated output Power c) both a & b d) none of
these
7.
Air velocity in the ducts can be measured by using ___________ and manometer
a) orifice meter b) Bourden gauge c) Pitot tube d) anemometer
8. One certified emission reduction (CER) is equivalent to:

a) one kg of carbon b) one kg of carbon dioxide
c) one ton of carbon d) one ton of carbon dioxide
9. Speed measurement (RPM) of an electric motor is measured with a
a) stroboscope b) ultrasonic meter c) lux meter d) rotameter

10. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60% ?
a) 5.6 kW b) 2.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW

11. A process requires 10 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kCal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% The losses then will be
a) 10000 kCal b) 45000 kCal c) 40000 kCal d) 20000 kCal

12. Ratio of average load (kW) to maximum load (kW) is termed as
a) load factor b) demand factor c) form factor d) utilization factor

13. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is
a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 14001 d) none of the above

14. Material and energy balance is used to quantify
a) material and energy losses b) profit

c) cost of production d) all of the above
15. Which is not a part of “ Energy Audit” defined as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
a) monitoring and analysis of energy use

b) ensuring implementations of recommended measures followed by review
d) verification of energy use
16. Which of the following statements regarding ECBC are correct?
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i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per sq. metre of area taking into
account climatic region where building is located
ii) ECBC does not encourage retrofit of Energy conservation measures
iii) ECBC prescribes energy efficiency standards for design and construction of
commercial and industrial buildings
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs (construction and
operating energy costs)
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iii d) i & iv
17. Which of the following statements regarding BLY (Bachat Lamp Yojana) are correct ?
i) BLY aims at large scale replacement of all fluorescent lamps of poor lumen intensity
with CFL of high lumen intensity
ii) CDM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost replaced
incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
iii) BLY involves public, private partnership and DISCOM partnerships
iv) DSM is used as a tool to recover market price difference between lower cost replaced
incandescent lamps of 60 W and higher cost CFLs of 11 W
a) i & ii b) i & iii c) ii & iii d) i & iv
18. The average gross efficiency of thermal power generation on all India bases is about
a) 30 – 34% b) 36 – 38% c) 39 - 41% d) 25 - 28%
19. Which of the following is not the activity related to restructured APDRP?
a) separate feeders for agricultural pumps

b) energy auditing at distribution transformer level
c) GIS mapping of the network and consumers
d) establishing targets for reducing power consumption
20. Assuming total conversion of electrical energy to heat energy, how much heat is produced
by a 200 W heater in 5 minutes?
a) 200 kJ b) 40 kJ c) 1000 kJ d) 60 kJ
21. Which of the following statements regarding DSM is incorrect?
a) potential areas for DSM thrust activity are agriculture, domestic and municipalities
b) savings accrued through DSM can be treated as new power addition on supply side
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from off-peak to peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during off peak hours
d) DSM programs may result in demand as well as energy reduction
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22. A motor with 10 kW rating in its name plate, will draw Input power of____
a) 10 kW at full load b) more than 10 kW at full load

c) less than 10 kW at full load d) 10 kW at 110% of full load
23. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Maximum Demand Control?
a) Maximum demand control offers a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks and ‘filling’ the valleys in
the consumer load diagram
b) Maximum demand control is carried out by concerned utility at customer
premises
c) Maximum demand control focuses on critical load for management
d) All of the above
24. Which of the following statements is false?
a) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices
b) some portion of reactive current is converted into useful work
c) Cosine of the angle between kVA and kW vector is called power factor
d) power factor is unity in a pure resistive circuit
25. Steam leak reduction program can be best achieved through
a) Small Group Activities b) Autonomous Maintenance

c) TPM d) All of the above
26. Consider two competitive projects A and B each entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- .
Project A returns Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at
the end of Year 2. Which project is superior?
a) project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) project B since it offers higher return before end of two years
c) both projects are equal in rank
d) insufficient information to assess the superiority
27. Which of the following statements regarding Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is correct?
a) IRR distinguishes between lending and borrowing

b) Internal rate of return is the discount rate at which net present value is equal to
zero
c) if the IRR is higher than current interest rate, the investment is not attractive
d) between two alternative projects, the project with lower internal rate of return would be
considered more attractive
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28. Global warming will not result in
a) melting of the ice caps

b) increasing sea levels
c) increasing the size of the hole in the ozone layer
d) unpredictable climate patterns
29. The ozone layer found in the stratosphere:
a) protects against the sun’s harmful UV rays

b) can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
c) is toxic to plants
d) is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber on earth
30. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called
____________
a) carbon capture and sequestration b) carbon sink

c) carbon capture d) carbon absorption
31. Which of the following statements is false regarding wind turbine?
a) wind power does not vary as the cross-sectional area of the rotor
b) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
c) cut-in wind speed is always less than rated wind speed
d) theoretical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind turbine
rotor is about 95%
32. What percentage of the sun’s energy falling on a silicon solar panel gets converted into
electricity?
a) 25% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%
33. Which of the following fuels is non-renewable?
a) LPG b) lignite c) nuclear d) all of the above
34. India’s share of world oil reserves is _________
a) 5% b) 2% c) 0.5 % d) 3%
35. Nuclear power development in India is constrained by
a) low % of Uranium in the ore b) inadequate supply of Uranium

c) constraints in import of Uranium d) all of the above
36. In a contract when all or part of the savings are guaranteed by contractor, and all or part of
the costs of equipment and/or services are paid out of savings as they are achieved, is
termed as
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a) traditional contract b) guaranteed saving performance contract

c) shared saving performance contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
37. A fuel cell is

a) an electromagnetic cell b) a magnetic cell
c) an electrochemical device d) none of the above
38.
If 3350 kJ of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0o C (latent heat of melting of ice is 335 kJ/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4.18 kg c) 10 kg d) 29
kg
39.
If oxygen rich combustion air (25% vol oxygen) is supplied to a furnace instead of normal
air (21% vol oxygen), the % CO2 in flue gases will
a) reduce b) increase c) remain same d) will become zero
40.
The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as
a) annual cost / capital cost b) (first cost / first year benefits) x 100
c) NPV / IRR d) (annual net cash flow x 100) /
capital cost
41.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time
42. In project management work breakdown structure defines
a) temporary endeavour undertaken to create unique product or service

b) the activities to be completed in the projects
c) how realistic were the assumptions underlying the project
43.
The empirical relationship used to plot Production Vs Energy consumption is………………
( where Y= energy consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy
consumption directly related to production; X= production for same period).
a) X=Y+MC b) Y=MX+C c) M=CX+Y d) Y= MX-C
44.
The main constituent of greenhouse gases (GHG) in atmosphere is
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a) CO2 b) SOx c) nitrogen d) water vapor
45. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of nitrous oxide (N2O) is
a) 1 b) 23 c) 300 d) 5700
46. In project management, the critical path in the network is
a) the path where activates have slack b) the shortest path

c) the path where no activities have slack d) none of the above
47. The cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.0 lakh. The simple payback period in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual operating cost of Rs. 10,000 is
a) 0.50 b) 1.66 c) 2.00 d)

6.00
48. Of the total natural gas used in India, the largest share goes to__________sector.
a) petrochemicals b) fertilizers c) power d) domestic

49. What is the future value of Rs. 1000/- after 3 years if the interest rate is 10% ?
a) 1331 b) 3000 c) 3300 d) 2420

50. If the asset depreciation is considered, then net operating cash inflow would be
a) higher b) lower c) no effect d) none of these

S-1 Explain the concept of Bachat Lamp Yojana (BLY)?
ANS BLY aims at the large scale replacement of inefficient incandescent bulbs in
households by Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs).
It seeks to provide CFLs to households at the same price to that of incandescent

bulbs. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is used to recover the cost difference
between the market price of the CFLs and the price at which they are sold to
households.
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FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS - September 2012
Date: 15.9.2012 Timings:14:00-17:00Hrs Duration:3 Hrs Max.Marks:150

1. Steam mains are run with a slope primarily to
a) avoid water hammer b) increase the velocity of steam

c) avoid condensation of steam d) reduce radiation and convection losses
2. Which of the following is not true of condensate recovery?
a) reduces water charges b) reduces fuel costs

c) increases boiler output d) increases boiler blow down
2
3. If 10% air is entrained in a steam system at 3 kg/cm g then the saturation temperature of steam
will be
2
a) less than the saturation temperature at 3 kg/cm g
2
b) more than the saturation temperature at 3 kg/cm g
2
c) equal to the saturation temperature at 3 kg/cm g
d) equal to the saturation temperature at 3.3 kg/cm2 g
4. The mineral matter in coal after combustion mostly becomes
a) carbon dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) nitrous oxide d) ash
5. Conditioning of coal with water in certain boilers is done to
a) increase unburnt losses b) increase GCV

c) minimize losses of fine coal particles d) increase convection heat transfer
6. Which of the following is false?
a) LPG vapour is twice as light as air b) LPG is a mixture of propane and butane
c) LPG is a gas at normal atmospheric pressure d) LPG is required to be odorized

7.
,
Of the following fuels which will have the highest carbon content?
a) furnace oil b) coal c) natural gas d) paddy husk
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8. 100 kg of a fuel contains 2% sulphur. For complete combustion of sulphur it will require
_________kg of oxygen
a) 2 b) 4 c) 50 d) 200
9. In the direct method of efficiency evaluation of boilers which of the following is not required?
a) enthalpy of steam b) calorific value of fuel

c) O2 in flue gas d) mass flow rate of steam
10. Select the incorrect statement with respect to steam
a) evaporation is a constant temperature process

b) higher the pressure higher is the steam saturation temperature
c) higher the pressure higher is the latent heat
d) latent heat at critical point is zero
11. The amount of flash steam generated from the condensate mainly depends on _____
a) sensible heat of high pressure condensate b) sensible heat of flash steam
c) latent heat of flash steam d) all of the above

12. Tuyeres is a terminology associated with
a) induction furnace b) pusher type furnace c) arc furnace d) cupola
13. In determining the economic thickness of steam pipe insulation which of the following is not
required?
a) cost of fuel b) boiler efficiency c) steam pressure d) heat content of fuel
14. The softening temperature of a refractory is indicated by
a) Pyrometric cone equivalent (PCE) b) refractoriness under load (RUL)

c) creep d) cold crushing strength
15. Which of the following is not a property of ceramic fibre ?

16. Low combustion temperature in FBC boilers results in the reduced formation of
a) NOx b) SOx c) CO d) CO2
17. An axial compressor is used in conjunction with which of the following
a) gas turbine b) back pressure steam turbine

c) condensing steam turbine d) all of the above
18. Power is to be generated from a cement kiln exhaust gas. The applicable type of cogeneration is
called
a) topping cycle b) trigeneration c) bottoming cycle d) none of the above

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a) specific heat of hot fluid b) specific heat of cold fluid

c) inlet temperature of hot fluid d) LMTD
20. An element in fuel oil responsible for corrosion in exhaust system of a boiler is
a) carbon b) hydrogen c) sulphur d) chlorine

21.
The presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates in feedwater to a boiler would form:
a) acidic solution b) alkaline solution
c) neutral solution d) none of the above
22. Turn down ratio of a burner is the ratio of
a) maximum to minimum fuel input without affecting optimum excess air levels
b) minimum to maximum fuel input without affecting optimum excess air levels
c) maximum to average fuel input
d) average to minimum fuel input
23. Comparatively, lowest excess air is required in a
a) coal burner b) low pressure oil burner

c) high pressure gas burner d) high pressure oil burner
24. The velocity of steam in steam pipe is directly proportional to

c) length of pipe d) diameter of the pipe
25. The emissivity of ceramic coatings used in furnace
a) decreases with increase in furnace temperature

b) Increases with increase in furnace temperature
c) remains constant
d) decreases with increase in furnace pressure
26. Scale losses in reheating furnaces will
a) increase with excess air b) decrease with excess air

c) have no relation with excess air d) increase with CO in combustion gases
27.
Instrument used for measuring billet temperature in a reheating furnace is ___.
a) thermograph b) infrared pyrometer
c) Pt/Pt-Rh thermocouple with indicator d) chrome alumel thermocouple with indicator
28. Glass mineral wool can be applied for temperature range application upto
o o o o
a) 950 C b) 500 C c) 1200 C d) 750 C
29. Heat transfer in a reheating furnace is achieved by
a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) All of the above
30. The storage heat losses in a batch type furnace can be best reduced by
a) insulating brick b) ceramic fibre c) cold face insulation d) fire brick

31. The cogeneration system which has high overall system efficiency is
a) back pressure steam turbine b) combined cycle
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c) extraction condensing steam turbine d) reciprocating engine

32. The Brayton cycle is a characteristic of
a) steam turbine b) petrol engine c) gas turbine d) none of the above

33. Recuperator as a waste heat recovery system is used mainly in a
a) boiler b) reheating furnace

c) compressor d) gas turbine
34. The device used for recovering waste heat from the textile drier exhaust
a) heat wheel b) recuperator c) economizer d) regenerator

35. Density of liquid fuels are measured at a reference temperature of
a) 0°C b) 15°C c) 25°C d) 30°C
36. Which of the following contributes to erosive effect on burner tips during combustion?
a) ash content b) water content c) sulphur content d) volatile matter
37. In the context of cogeneration turbine, the thermodynamic process taking place is
a) expansion b) condensation c) contraction d) both (a) & (c)
38. Reduction of steam pressure will increase
a) sensible heat b) enthalpy of steam

c) saturation temperature d) specific volume
39. Ten meter lift of condensate in a distribution pipe work will result in
a) 0.1 bar back pressure b) 1 bar back pressure

c) 10 bar back pressure d) none of the above
40. ____________ is predominantly used as a medium for soot blowing in boilers .
a) compressed air b) steam

c) high pressure water d) all of the above
41. The recommended TDS level for package fire tube boilers is
a) 10,000 ppm b) 5,000 ppm c) 2,000 ppm d) 3,000 ppm
42. Ideal furnace for melting & alloying is
a) induction furnace b) cupola furnace

c) rotary hearth d) recirculating bogie furnace
43. Commonly used flux medium in a cupola furnace
a) calcium carbide b) fluorspar

c) calcium carbonate d) sodium carbonate
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44. Dolomite is a ________ type of refractory
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of the above
45. The unit of specific gravity in SI system is

3 3
a) kg/ m b) m /kg c) gm/cc d) none of the above
46. Insulation used for temperatures more than 350°C is
a) polyurethane b) polystyrene c) calcium silicate d) wood
47. Time dependent property that determines the deformation of a refractory is
a) creep b) refractoriness under load

c) porosity d) crushing strength
48. Capillary wick is a part of
a) heat pump b) heat wheel c) heat pipe d) heat recovery steam generator
49. The working fluid for thermo compressor is
a) low pressure steam b) high pressure steam

c) compressed air d) waste heat from chimney
50. Fly ash in a FBC boiler is in the range of
Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(ii) Each question carries 5 marks
S-1 In a paper industry, 35,000 kg/hr of soda liquor with specific heat of 0.38 kCal/kg°C
is heated using saturated steam at 8 bar in a heat exchanger from 65°C to 115°C.
Calculate the LMTD of the exchanger & the amount of steam required for heating
using the following data :
Steam Steam Enthalpy kcal/kg
Pressure Temperature
(bar) °C Water Evaporation Steam
8.0 170 170 490 660
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13th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – September, 2012

FOR
Date: 16.9.2012 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS

Max. Marks: 150

In a 22 kV feeder, if the voltage is raised from 22 kV to 66 kV for the same loading conditions,
1 the voltage drop in the same feeder system would be lowered to
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/9 d) unpredictable value

Normally, the efficiency of distribution transformer at full load varies anywhere between
2
a) 96 to 99 % b) 80 to 85 % c) 60 to 70% d) 50%- 60%
3 What is the reduction in distribution loss if the current flowing through the distribution line is
reduced by 10%?
a)10% b) 90% c) 19% d) 81%

4 Power factor is the ratio of
a) kVAr/kW b) (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2/kW
c) kW/ (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2 d) kVAr/ (kW 2+kVAr2)1/2

5 The electricity bill shows an average power factor of 0.72 with an average kW demand of 627.
How much kVAr is required to improve the power factor to 0.95? (Given Data: tan 1 = 0.964,
tan 2 = 0.329)
a) 398 b) 144 c) 95 d) 627
6 Where transformer loading is known, the actual transformer loss at a given load can be
computed as:
a) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss

2
b) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss
2
c) No Load Loss+ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss
2
d ) [No Load Loss+{ (Actual kVA Load/rated kVA) X Load Loss}]
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7 Direct current motors are used in special applications where
a) high torque starting or where smooth acceleration over a broad speed range is required.
b) low torque starting or where steady acceleration over a narrow speed range is required.
c) normal torque starting or where high acceleration over a broad speed range is required.
d) low torque starting or where smooth acceleration over a broad speed range is required.
8 A 3-phase, 415 volts, 50 Hz, 100 kW, 6 pole squirrel cage induction motor with a rated slip of
2% will have a full load rotor speed of
(a) 1470 rpm (b) 980 rpm (c) 1020 rpm (d) none of the above
9 In an induction motor the loss which is independent of motor load
a) I2R loss of stator b) I2R loss of rotor c) friction and windage loss d) all of the above
10 Rewinding can affect which of the following factors that contribute to deterioration in motor
efficiency:
a) winding and slot design and winding material selection

b) heat applied to strip windings, damage the insulation between laminations, thereby
increasing eddy current losses
c) change in the air gap may affect power factor and output torque
d) all the above
11 If measured Line Current of a 3 phase induction motor is 25.98 A, what will be the Phase
Current?
a) 15 A b) 45 A c) 8.96 A d) 30 A
12 The efficiency of compressed air system is around
a) 90% b) 60% c) 50% d) 10%
13
The basic function of air dryer in a compressed air system is to
a) remove remaining traces of moisture after the aftercooler
b ) store and smoothen pulsating air output
c) reduce the temperature of the air before it enters the next state to increase efficiency
d) prevent dust from entering compressor
14
Select the correct statement for reciprocating air compressors:
a) for every 4oC drop in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%.
b) for every 4 oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy consumption is by 1%
c) for every 4 oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy consumption is by 1%
d) the energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature
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15
Which of the following parameters is not required for evaluating volumetric efficiency of the
compressor?
a) FAD b) Cylinder bore diameter c) Stroke length d) Power input
16
Which of the following will not occur if a reciprocating compressor is operated at a lower
discharge pressure?
a) lower power consumption
b) less load on the piston rods and hence reduced maintenance costs
c) lower leakage losses
d) lower free air delivery than rated
17 Which type of energy efficient dryer can be opted if a user in a plant requires compressed air
at a dew point of -40°C ?
a) heatless purge type dryer b) heat of compression dryer

c) aftercooler d) refrigerant dryers
18 A 1.5 TR room air conditioner having EER (W/W) of 3.0 , will draw input power of______ kW
a) 1.75 b) 3.00 c) 1.50 d) 2.00

19 Identify the wrong statement from the following regarding Vapour Compression Refrigeration
system
a) condenser rejects heat to atmosphere

b) evaporator removes heat from process or space
c) compressor sends superheated vapor to condenser
d) high pressure sub-cooled liquid refrigerant returns back to evaporator
20 The head developed by a centrifugal pump is not directly proportional to
a) Impeller diameter b) Shaft speed

c) Number of impellers d) Diameter of discharge port
21 Which of the following is incorrect in the case of cooling towers
a)"Range" is the difference between the cooling tower water inlet and outlet temperature.
b) "Approach" is the difference between the cooling tower outlet cold water temperature and
ambient wet bulb temperature.
d)'Range' is a better indicator of cooling tower performance.
e) Cooling capacity is the heat rejected in kCal/hr or TR
22 Identify the correct statement:
a) the Specific Ratio of Compressors is higher than Blowers

b) the Specific Ratio of Fans is higher than Blowers
c) the Specific Ratio of Compressors is lower than Fans
d) the Specific Ratio of Blowers is higher than Compressors
23 Two energy auditors made following statements regarding Vapour compressor Refrigeration
system and what will be your judgement?
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Statement A: Reducing condensing temperature by 5.5°C, results in a 20 – 25% decrease in

compressor power consumption
Statement B: 5.5°C increase in evaporator temperature reduces compressor power
consumption by 20 – 25%
a) statements A & B are TRUE b) statements A & B are FALSE

c) statement A is TRUE & B is FALSE d) statement A is FALSE & B is TRUE
24 Decreasing the rpm of a fan at partial loading by 10% results in:
a) decrease of 10% in flow rate and decrease of 27% in power requirement

b) decrease of 10% in flow rate and decrease of 19% in power requirement
c) decrease of 10% in flow rate and increase of 10% in power requirement
d) increase of 10% in flow rate and no appreciable change in power requirement
25
The power drawn by a centrifugal fan is
a) inversely proportional to fan efficiency b) directly proportional to fan efficiency
c) inversely proportional to static pressure d) inversely proportional to flow rate
26 The frictional loss in a piping system is proportional to
a) flow b) flow2 c) 1/flow d) 1/flow2

27 For the same flow, through which of the following diameter pipes, the pump will work with
maximum pressure?
a) 100 mm b) 150 mm c) 200 mm d) 250 mm
28 It is possible to run pumps in parallel if their _________________ are similar.
a) suction heads b) discharge heads c) closed valve heads d) none of the above
29 Input power to the motor driving a pump is 20 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9 and pump
efficiency is 0.7. The power transmitted to the water is
a) 12.6 kW b) 18.0 kW c) 14.0 kW d) 31.75 kW

30 Small by-pass lines are installed in pumps some times to _____.
a) increase flow b) control pump delivery head

c) prevent pump running at zero flow d) reduce pump power consumption
3 o o
31 The refrigeration load in TR when 10 m /hr of water is cooled from a 15 C to 7 C is about
a) 10 b) 8 c) 26.5 d) none of the above

32 The order of movement of thermal energy in HVAC system is:
a) Indoor air - Chilled water - Refrigerant-Condenser water- Cooling tower

b) Chilled water - Indoor air - Refrigerant-Cooling tower - Condenser water
c) Indoor air - Condenser water - Chilled water - Cooling tower - Refrigerant
d) Indoor air - Chilled water – Refrigerant - Cooling tower - Condenser water
33 In a cooling tower,
Statement A: Surface of heat exchange is the surface area of the water droplets, which is in
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contact with air.

Statement B: Area of heat exchange is the surface area of the fill sheets, which is in contact
with air.
a) statements A & B are false b) statement A is True & B is false

c) statements A & B are True d) statement A is false & B is True
34 If the evaporation loss is 16 m3 /hr per cell and Cycles of Concentration is 3, the blow down
requirement in m3 /hr per cell of a cooling tower:
a) 8 b) 5.33 c) 4 d) 2
35 Cycles of Concentration (C.O.C) of a cooling tower will depend on
a) TDS in circulating water b) TDS in make-up water

c) both a & b d) none of the above
36 The Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC) of window of a building is 0.30. This means:
a) That the window allows 70 % of the sun's heat to pass through into interior of the buildings
b) That the window allows 30 % of the sun's heat to pass through into the building
interior
c) That 70 % of the sun's heat is incident on the window
d) That the window reflects back to exterior a minimum of 30 % of the sun's heat
37 FRP fans consume less energy than aluminium fans because
a) they are lighter b) they have better efficiencies

c) they encounter less system resistance d) they deliver less air flow
38 The hydraulic power in a pumping system depends on
a) motor efficiency b) pump efficiency

c) both motor and pump efficiency d) none of the above
39 The most energy intensive heat transfer loop of a Vapour Compression Refrigeration System
is:
a) Indoor air loop b) Chilled water loop

c) Refrigerant loop d) Condenser water loop
40 The efficiency of a pump does not depend on
a) suction head b) discharge head c) motor efficiency d) density of fluid
41 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor
a) decreases at low motor loading b) decreases at high motor loading

c) remains constant and is independent of load d) cannot be predicted
42 The slip of a synchronous motor will be
a) more than the induction motor b) less than the induction motor
c) zero d) load dependent
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43 In BEE Star labeled distribution transformers, which of following losses are defined?
a) total loss at 50% and 100% loading b) total loss at 75 % loading

c) total loss at 75% and 100% loading d) total loss at 100% loading
44 To optimize the voltage level fed to the lighting feeder, the best option is to install.
a) servo stabilizer for lighting feeder b) "exclusive" transformer for lighting

c) microprocessor based controllers d) high frequency (HF) electronic ballasts
45 Which one of the following device will help to eliminate the hunting problems normally
associated with capacitor switching?
a) Intelligent Power Factor Controller b) maximum demand controller

c) soft starter d) eddy current drives
46 Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?
a) fluorescent lamp is an electric discharge lamp

b) electronic ballasts make use of semi-conductor devices
c) electronic ballasts have very low internal loss
d) fluorescent lamps can produce light by direct connection to the power source
47 A 2500 MW super thermal power station generated 15786 million units in the year 2011-12. Its
Plant Load Factor (PLF) is:
a) 60% b) 65% c) 72% d) 79%
48 Which of the following statements is not true of maximum demand controller
a) switches off non-essential loads in Logical sequence.

b) alarm is sounded when demand approaches a preset value.
c) voltage level is closely regulated
d) plant equipment selected for the load management can be programmed
49 The main reason for using Variable Frequency Drive (VFD) for capacity control in electrical
motor driven centrifugal fans with fluctuating load is :
a) improved power quality

b) fan capacity is proportional to its speed whereas the power drawn by the fan is
proportional to the cube of its speed
c) improved power factor
d) precise closed loop process control
a) harmonics occur as spikes at intervals which are multiples of the supply frequency
b) harmonics are multiples of the fundamental frequency
c) induction motors are the major sources of harmonics
d) transformers operating near saturation level create harmonics

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Complete Paper 4 – SET A KEY

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2012
PAPER – 4: Energy Performance Assessment for Equipment and Utility

Systems
Section - I: BRIEF QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 1 = 10

S-1 In a vapour compression refrigeration system, why the heat rejected in the
condenser is more than the heat absorbed in the evaporator ?
Ans Because heat of compression is also added to it
S-2 If the unit heat rate is 3120 kcal/kWh and the turbine heat rate is 2808
kCal/kWh what is the boiler efficiency ?
Ans (2808/3120) x 100 = 90 %
S-3 A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates ____ .
Rise in the TDS level of feed water

Ans
S-4 Why is it preferable to measure the flow at the inlet side of the fan?
Ans Less turbulence
S-5 The critical point of steam occurs at ____bar and _______ oC
Ans 221.2 bar and 374.15oC
S-6 In a heat exchanger _______ is the ratio of actual heat transfer rate to the
maximum heat transfer rate.
1
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Complete Paper 4 – SET A KEY
Ans Effectiveness
S-7 In an integrated steel plant pig iron is produced from _________furnace?
Ans Blast furnace
S-8
If the PLF of a 210 MW power plant is 80% , what is the annual gross generation in
MWh
Ans 1,471,680 MWH
S-9 A pump operates on water with a total head of 12 m. If water is replaced by

brine with a specific gravity of 1.2 what will be the total head developed by the
pump ?
Ans 12 m or same
S-10 A draft system in a boiler which uses both FD and ID fan is called…….
Ans Balanced Draft
. End of Section - I .

L-1 Calculate pressure drop in meters when pipe diameter is increased from
250 mm to 300 mm for a length of 600 meters. Water velocity is 2 m/s in
the 250 mm diameter pipe and friction factor is 0.005.
Ans Pressure drop = 4fLV2

--------------
2gD
Velocity of water in pipe of 300 mm diameter = (0.25 x 0.25 x 2) /(0.3 x 0.3)

= 1.39 m/s
Pressure drop with 300 mm = 4 x 0.005 x 600 x 1.392 / (2 x 9.81 x 0.300)

= 3.94 m
2
_______________________

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – August, 2013
a) Answer all 50 questions

b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB
As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to be
appointed/designated by the
a) state designated agencies b) all industrial consumers

c) designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
The type of energy possessed by a charged capacitor is
a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic

The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called __________.
a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink

c) carbon capture d) carbon adsorption
What is the heat content of 200 liters of water at 5 oC in terms of the basic unit of energy in
kilojoules ?
a) 3000 b) 2388 c) 1000 d) 4187

Nameplate kW rating of a motor indicates
a) input to the motor b) rated output of the motor

c) no-load input to the motor d) rated input to the motor
Which of the following has the highest specific heat?
a) lead b) mercury c) water d) alcohol

What is the average conversion efficiency of a solar photo voltaic cell?
a) 22% b)15% c) 98% d)50%

1
_______________________
An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is
a) wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature

c) density of air d) dry bulb temperature
Which of the following statements with respect to Reserve / Production (R/P) ratio is true?
a) is a constant once established

b) varies every year with changes in production
c) varies every year with changes in reserves
d) varies every year with changes in production and reserves
Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy of India?
a) consistency in pricing of energy

b) scope for improving supply of energy from varied sources
c) energy conservation, research and development
d) removal of subsidies for energy across all sectors
In inductive and resistive combination circuit, the resultant power factor under AC supply
will be
a) less than unity b) more than unity c) zero d) unity

Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security can even reduce agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by minimising dependence on imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries weaken energy security
d) increasing exploration to find oil and gas reserves improves energy security
An energy policy at the plant level is to be preferably signed by
a) chief executive b) energy Manager

c) energy auditor d) chief executive with approval of state designated agency
The energy benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled

c) kW/m3 of chilled water d) kW/EER
How much carbon dioxide emission will be reduced annually by replacing 60 Watt
incandescent lamp with a 15 Watt CFL Lamp, if emission per unit is 1 kg CO2 per kWh and
annual burning is 3000 hours?
a) 45 ton b) 3 ton c) 0.135 ton d) 183 ton
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Demand Side Management
(DSM)?
a) agriculture and municipalities are potential areas for DSM activities

b) savings accrued through DSM cannot be treated as avoided capacity on supply
side
2
_______________________
c) under DSM, demand can be shifted from peak to off peak hours thereby avoiding
imported power during peak hours
d) DSM programs may result in demand as well as energy reduction
_________ considers impact of cash flow even after payback period
a) net present value b) return on investment

b) sensitivity analysis d) simple payback period
Consider two competitive projects entailing investment of Rs.85,000/- . Project A returns
Rs.50,000 at the end of each year, but Project B returns Rs.115,000 at the end of year 2.
Which project is superior?
a) Project A since it starts earning by end of first year itself and recovers cost before end
of two years
b) Project B since it offers higher return in two years
c) both projects are equal in rank
d) insufficient information
__________ determines the project viability in response to changes in input parameters.
a) Life cycle analysis b) Financial analysis

c) Sensitivity analysis d) Payback analysis
Which of the following is false?
a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J

c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kcal = 1 kWh
The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 110 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. The plant’s
annual energy bill at the end of the third year will be about ________
a) Rs 335 lakhs b) Rs 268 lakhs c) Rs 386 lakhs d) Rs 418 lakhs

The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings is
Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

For a project to be financially attractive, ROI must always be ___ than interest rate.
a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation

A sum of Rs 100,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
10% interest annually. How much money will be in the bank account at the end of the fifth
year, if no money is withdrawn?
a) 161050 b) 150000 c) 155000 d) 160000

The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects through a bar chart is called
3
_______________________
a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT

____________is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the relationship
between variables and enables standard equations to be established for energy
consumption.
a) linear regression analysis b) time-dependent energy analysis

c) moving annual total d) CUSUM
Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance?
a) ozone layer depletion b) global Warning

c) loss of Biodiversity d) suspended particulate Matter
The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec with
a head of 14 meters with system efficiency of 55% is
a) 226.6 kW b) 76.4 kW c) 23.1 kW d) none of the above

If the wind speed doubles, energy output from a wind turbine will be:
a) 2 times higher b) 4 times higher c) 6 times higher d) 8 times higher

Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for energy
conservation?
i) Kaizen events are structured for reduction of only energy wastes

ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in energy
conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of top
management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may result in
significant savings in overall energy use
a) ii & iv b) i & iv c) iii & iv d) i & iv

The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as
a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W
Which of the following statements regarding TOD tariff is true?
a) an incentive to induce user to draw more power during peak period

b) discourages user from drawing more power during off peak period
c) both a and b are true
d) encourages user to shift load from peak period to off peak period
The producer gas basically consists of
a) Only CH4 b) CO & CH4 c) CO, H2 & CH4 d) Only CO & H2

The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
4
_______________________
a) UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) beta rays

Which of the following macro factors is used in the sensitivity analysis of project finance?
a) Change in tax rates b) Changes in maintenance cost

c) Changes in debt: equity ratio d) Change in forms of financing
Which among the following has the lowest Global Warming Potential?
a) Perflurocarbon b) chloroflurocarbons c) methane d) nitrous oxide

Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?
a) Time between its earliest start time and earliest finish time
b) Time between its latest start time and latest finish time
c) Time between latest start time and earliest finish time
d) Time between earliest finish time and latest finish time
In a cumulative sum (CUSUM) chart, if the graph is going up, then
a) nothing can be said b) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
c) energy consumption is reduced d) specific energy consumption is going up
CO2 measurement in a Fyrite kit is based on
a) Weight basis (dry) b) Volume basis (dry)
c) Weight basis (wet) d) Volume basis (wet)
The depletion of Ozone layer is caused mainly by _________
a) nitrous oxide b) carbon dioxide c) choloroflourocarbons d) methane gas

Portable combustion analyzers may have in-built chemical cells for measurement of stack
gas components. Which combination of chemical cells for measurement of stack gas
components is not possible?
a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2, O2 c) O2, NOr, SOx, CO d) O2, CO
The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted periodically by
a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor

c) accredited energy auditor d) state Designated Agencies
The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2
+ ( ? ) 2 is
a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh

The weight (kg) of the water vapour in each kg of dry air(kg/kg) is termed as :
a) Specific Humidity b) relative humidity c) humidity d) saturation ratio
5
_______________________
Which of the following tool is made use of to assess the input, conversion efficiency,
output, losses, quantification of all material, energy and waste streams in a process or
system?
a) material balance b) energy balance

c) material and energy balance d) Sankey diagram
If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 10% concentration is fed to an evaporator, the product
obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 62.5
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0 oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is 335
kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be
a) 1.49 b) 83.75 c) 5.97 d) None of the above

An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an industry.
How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30 oC to 85oC ignoring
losses?.
The fixed energy consumption of a company is 2000 kWh per month. The line slope of the
energy (y) versus production (x) chart is 0.3. The energy consumed in kWh per month for
a production level of 80,000 tons/month is
a) 24,000 kWh b) 24,200 kWh c) 26,000 kWh d) 38,000 kWh
The major constituent of natural gas is
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Hydrogen

S-1 The rating of a single phase electric geyser is 2000 Watts, at 230 Volt.
Calculate:
a) Rated current
b) Resistance of the geyser in Ohms
6
_______________________
Paper 2 - Set A Key

FOR
Date: 24.8.2013 Timings:14:00 -17:00 Hrs Duration:3 Hrs

Max.Marks:150
Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks:

50 x 1 = 50

pencil
1. In coal fired combustion, the flame length is influenced by
a) moisture b) ash content c) volatile matter d) fixed

carbon
2. With increase in the percentage of excess air for combustion of coal, percentage of
CO2 in flue gas
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the

above
3. 100 kg of a fuel contains 3% sulphur. For complete combustion of sulphur in the fuel
it will require _________kg of oxygen
a) 3 b) 6 c) 30 d) 103
4. Which property indicates the lowest temperature at which fuel oil is readily pumpable?
a) flash point b) pour point c) specific heat d) specific

volume
5. Which of the following contributes to spluttering of flame at burner tip during

combustion of fuel oil ?
a) ash content b) water content c) sulphur content d) humidity of

air
6. In an oil fired steam boiler the air to fuel ratio is 15:1 & evaporation ratio is 14:1. The
flue gas to fuel ratio will be
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Paper 2 - Set A Key
a) 29:1 b) 16:1 c) 14:1 d) 15:1
7. Which among the following fuels, on combustion ,has higher tendency towards acid
corrosion in the flue gas path?
a) a) LSHS b) furnace oil c) Diesel

d) kerosene
8. The balanced draft furnace is one that is operated with
a) a) positive pressure b) induced and forced

draft fan
b) c) negative pressure d) Natural draft
9. The factor that influences atomisation of fuel oil is
a) viscosity b) density c) flash point d) pour point

10. Which of the following is not measured in ultimate analysis ?
a) carbon b) sulphur c) hydrogen d)

moisture
11. In flue gas, the oxygen measured is 4% by volume. The percentage excess air will be
a) a) 23.5% b) 40% c) 21%

d) 36%
12. A boiler generates 5 TPH of steam at an efficiency of 78 %. The enthalpy added to
steam in the boiler is 580 kcal/kg. The fuel consumption with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg
is
a) 885 kg/hr b) 985 kg/hr c) 1038 kg/hr d) 1200

kg/hr
13. Automatic blowdown controls for boilers work by sensing
a) dissolved gases b) dissolved solids c) pH d) conductivity

and pH
14. Dissolved CO2 in boiler feed water when left untreated would result in occurrence of
_____in boiler tubes
a) creep b) water side corrosion c) scale d) water

hammer
15. Recommended boiler feed water pH value at 25 oC is ---------
a) 8.0 - 9.0 b) 5.2 - 6.2 c) 9.8-10.2 d) 10-10.5

16. Which of the following is not applicable in the preservation of boiler by dry method ?
a) un-slacked lime b) activated alumina

c) anhydrous calcium cloride d) hydrazine
2
Paper 2 - Set A Key
17. Which one of the following is true of a water softening process?
a) It reduces hardness but not TDS b) It reduces both hardness and TDS
c) It reduces TDS but not hardness d) None of the above
18. Soot deposit in boiler tubes is predominantly due to
a) poor water treatment b) low steam pressure

c) incomplete combustion d) high excess air
19. Which of the following will be the most suitable heating medium for heat transfer in
indirect heating?
a) dry saturated steam b) superheated steam c) wet steam d) hot

water
20. Ten meter lift of condensate in a distribution pipe will result in a back pressure of
a) 0.1 bar b) 1 bar c) 10 bar d)

1.1 bar
21. The difference in temperature between steam and condensate is the principle of
operation of
a) thermodynamic trap b) thermostatic trap c) orifice type trap d) float trap

22. Water flows at a rate of 30 m 3/hr. at 15oC in a 150 mm bore pipe horizontally. What is
the velocity of water flow in the pipe?
a) 0.47 m/s b) 0.94 m/s c) 1.88 m/s d) 3.7 m/s

23. To drain condensate from tracer steam lines , the most common trap used
is_________
a) thermodynamic b) bimetallic c) inverted bucket d) float trap

24. The velocity of steam in steam pipe is directly proportional to

c) length of pipe d) fifth power of pipe diameter
25. Condensate, at 3 bar pressure & 160°C, when exposed to atmosphere will
a) fully convert to flash steam b) partly convert to flash steam

c) remain as condensate d) convert to superheated steam
26. Steam at 4 bar has sensible heat of 144 kcal/kg and latent heat of 510 kcal/kg. If the
steam is 90% dry than the total enthalpy of steam in kcal/kg is
a) 588 b) 654 c) 603 d) 459

27. For transporting steam to a long distance, the most suitable among the following will
be
a) slightly superheated steam b) dry saturated steam

_________________________ 3
Paper 2 - Set A Key
c) mildly wet steam d) high pressure steam
28. Heat transfer in a reheating furnace is achieved by
a) conduction b) convection c) radiation d) all of the above

29. Which of the following is not a property of ceramic fibre ?

30. The unit of overall heat transfer coefficient is
a) kcal/m-hr-°C b) kcal/ m²-hr-°C c) kcal/m²-°C d)

kcal/ m-°C
31. Which property of ceramic coating influences energy savings in furnaces?
a) emissivity b) coating thickness

c) conductivity d) convective heat transfer coefficient
32. In a CFBC boiler the capture and recycling of bed materials is accomplished by
a) elecrostatic precipitator b) bag filter c) cyclone d) scrubber

33. What is the most effective way to avoid ambient air infiltration into a continuous
furnace?
a) close all openings b) increase the chimney height

c) operate at about 90% capacity d) maintain slightly positive pressure inside the
furnace
34. The storage heat losses in a batch type furnace can be best reduced by use of
a) hot face insulating bricks b) hot face ceramic fibre

c) cold face insulating bricks d) cold face ceramic fibre
35. Tuyeres is a terminology associated with
a) forging furnace b) cupola c) open hearth furnace d) heat treatment

furnace
36. Which of the following is a synthetic refractory?
a) MgO b) Al2O3 c) SiC d) SiO2

37. Alumina is a __________________ type of refractory
a) basic b) acidic c) neutral d) none of the above

a) volume stability b) heat capacity

c) resistance to slag penetration d) all of the above
4
Paper 2 - Set A Key
39. Which of these is used in a fluidised bed boiler to control sulphur dioxide emissions?
a) charcoal b) limestone c) sand d) silica

40. In FBC boiler the combustion is carried out at a temperature
a) closer to steam temperature b) at adiabatic combustion temperature

c) at and above ash fusion temperature d) below ash fusion temperature of fuel used
41. Low combustion temperature minimises___ in FBC boilers
a) NOx b) SOx c) CO d) Suspended particulate matter
42. A chemical plant needs steam at 3 bar and 10 bar in addition to electric power. The
most suitable co-generation choice among the following will be
a) extraction cum condensing b) condensing turbine

43. Power is to be generated from a cement kiln exhaust gas. The applicable type of
cogeneration is called
a) topping cycle b) Carnot cycle c) bottoming cycle d) Brayton

cycle
44. Which of the following works on a refrigeration cycle?
a) heat pipe b) heat wheel c) heat pump d) thermo compressor

45. Which of these devices can be used for recovering waste heat from the textile drier
exhaust?
a) heat wheel b) recuperator c) economizer d)

regenerator
46. Wick in heat pipe is provided to facilitate
a) forward movement of hot vapors b) forward movement of hot liquid

c) return of condensed liquid d) return of hot vapors
47. Which of the following requires electrical energy for equipment operation?
a) thermo compressor b) heat pump c) heat pipe d)

economizer
48. The exhaust from which of the following is not suitable for waste heat boiler
application?
a) gas turbine b) hot air dryer c) diesel engine d) furnace

49. Pinch analysis of process streams depicts the plot of
a) temperature vs entropy b) temperature vs area

c) temperature vs specific heat d) temperature vs enthalpy
_________________________ 5
Paper 3 –Set A KEY
14th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2013

FOR
Date: 25.08.2013 Timings: 0930 – 1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with HB Pencil,
as per instructions
1. The gross efficiency of a coal based power generating unit with a gross heat rate of
2490 kcal/kWh is
a) 40% b) 34.5 % c) 33.3% d) 45.2%

2. The efficiencies of a power plant and transmission systems are 40%, and 97%
respectively. The percentage loss of the distribution system of the same network is
23% . The cascade efficiency of generation ,transmission and distribution system is
given by
a)8,92 % b) 29.87% c) 40 % d) 23%

3. The rating of power factor correction capacitors at induction motor terminals should be
a) 90% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor

b)100 % of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
c) 80% of no load magnetizing kVAr of induction motor
4. Select the correct statement: Power factor
a) is the ratio of active and reactive power

b) is the ratio of reactive and apparent power
c) is the ratio of active and apparent power
d) of a pure inductive and capacitive load is unity
5. The Energy Performance Index (EPI) of a building as per Energy Conservation Building
Code (ECBC) and as defined in the Energy Conservation Act,2001 is:
a) kWh per square meter per year b) kWh per square meter
c) kW per square meter d) kWh per year
_______________________ 1
6. If the maximum demand is 3500 kVA at 0.88 p.f., the maximum demand will reduce
by______ kVA if PF is improved to 0.98 :
a) 3143 b) 357 c) 3897 d) maximum demand will not reduce
7. The performance of rewinding of an induction motor can be assessed by which of the

following factors?
a) no load current b) stator resistance per phase

c) load current d) both no load current and stator resistance per phase
8. For a synchronous speed of 1500 rpm, at a given mains frequency of 50 Hz, the
induction motor will have _________number of poles.
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2
9. A 7.5 kW, 415 V, 14.5 A, 1460 RPM rated 3 phase induction motor with full load
efficiency of 90%, draws 9.1 A and 4.6 kW of input power. The percentage loading of
the motor is about
a) 55.2 % b) 61.3 % c) 67.5 % d) none of the above
10. The power input to a rotor of three phase induction motor is 42.3 kW. If the induction
motor is operating at a slip of 1.30 % the total mechanical power developed will be :
a) 42.3 kW b) 41.75 kW c) 5.48 kW d) 47.79 kW

11. If the apparent power drawn over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is 5000 kVA for 0.5
minutes, 3400 kVA for 20 minutes and 1800 for 9.5 minutes, the MD recorder will
compute MD as
a) 5000 kVA b) 3400 kVA c) 2920 kVA d) 1800 kVA

12. The rating of the p.f correction capacitors at motor terminals for a 37 kW, 2 poles
induction motor will be______ in comparison to the same sized induction motor of 6
poles
a) more b) less c) same d) sometime less or more

13. Which parameters need to be measured to assess the percentage loading of a motor by
slip method neglecting voltage correction?
a) motor speed b) synchronous speed

c) operating motor speed and frequency d) operating current
14. Isothermal power of a compressor depends on
a) absolute intake pressure b) pressure ratio

c) free air delivered d) all of the above
_______________________ 2
15. Reduction in the delivery pressure of an air compressor working at 7 bar, by 1 bar would
reduce the power consumption by
a) 2 – 3 % b) 4 - 5 % c) 6 - 10 % d) none of the above
16. Which of the following is correct for air compressors?
a) for every 5.5oC drop in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy
consumption is by 2%
b) for every 4oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the increase in energy
c) for every 4oC rise in the inlet air temperature, the decrease in energy
d) the energy consumption remains same irrespective of inlet air temperature
17. The Free Air Delivery of a reciprocating air compressor is directly proportional to
a) speed b) pressure c) volume d) all of the above

18. Which of these desiccant compressed air dryers uses dry compressed air for
regenerating the desiccant?
a) blower reactivated type b) heatless purge type

c) heat of compression type d) all of the above
19. The unit of specific humidity in a psychrometric chart is
a) grams moisture/kg of dry air b) moisture percentage in air

c) grams moisture/kg of air d) all of the above
20. The COP of a vapour compression refrigeration system is 3.1 If the motor draws power
of 9.3 kW at an operating efficiency of 88%, the tonnage of refrigeration system is about

21. Chilled water enters an evaporator at 100C and leaves at 60C. The flow rate of chilled
water was measured as 200 m3/hr. The tons of refrigeration capacity is
a) 265 b) 200 c) 661 d) 2.65

22. In an air conditioning system analysis which one temperature is sufficient to determine
the enthalpy of air?
a) dry bulb temperature b) wet bulb temperature

c) ambient temperature d) none of the above
23. The head generated by a centrifugal pump is:
a) independent of the density of the liquid being pumped

b) directly proportional to the density of the liquid being pumped
c) inversely proportional to the density of the liquid being pumped
d) proportional to the square of the density of the liquid being pumped
_______________________ 3
24. The driving force for refrigeration in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is
a) mechanical energy b) electrical energy

c) thermal energy d) chemical energy
25. Which of the following happens to air when it is cooled through evaporation process?
a) humidity ratio of the air decreases

b) dry bulb temperature of air decreases
c) dry bulb temperature of air increases
d) enthalpy of outlet air is less than enthalpy of inlet air
26. The relation between COP and kW/TR for a refrigeration system is given by
a) kW/TR = 3.516/COP b) kW/TR = COP /3.516

c) kW/TR = 860/COP d) none of the above
27. In which of the following fans the air does not change flow direction from suction to
discharge?
a) tube axial fan b) vane axial fan c) propeller fan d) all of the above
28. The parameter used by ASME to classify fans, blowers and compressors is
a) volume ratio b) specific ratio c) blade ratio d) impeller ratio

29. The pressure to be considered for calculating the power required for centrifugal fans
is___
a) vapour pressure b) dynamic pressure
c) total static pressure d) velocity pressure
30. The inclined manometer connected to a pitot tube is used for measuring which pressure
in a gas stream?
a) velocity b) static c) total d) all of the above

31. If the power drawn by the motor driving a pump is 20 kW at a 91% efficiency, and the
hydraulic power of a motor pump set is 12.5 kW, the pump efficiency will be__

32. Which of the following is not true for impeller trimming?
a) pressure  diameter b) head  diameter2

c) power  diameter3 d) flow  diameter
33. If the speed of the pump is doubled, power goes up by
a) 2 times b) 6 times c) 8 times d) 4 times

34. The preferred method of flow control for reducing pump flow permanently in a pumping
system is-------
a) throttling b) speed control c) impeller trimming d) none of the above
_______________________ 4
35. A water pump is delivering 20 m3/hr at ambient conditions. The impeller diameter is
trimmed by 10%. This will reduce the pump discharge by
a) 18 m3/hr b) 2 m3/hr c) 0.2 m3/hr d) none of the above

36. Increasing the suction pipe diameter in a pumping system will
a) reduce NPSHA b) increase NPSHA

c) decrease NPSHR d) increase NPSHR
37. The range of a cooling tower with inlet and outlet temperature as 41o C and 32o C
respectively and wet bulb temperature as 29o is
a) 9oC b) 3oC c) 29oC d) 12oC

38. Find the correct equation, if M = makeup water (from the mains water supply), E =
losses due to evaporation, B = losses due to blow-down and D = drift losses of a cooling
tower:
a) M = E + B + D b) M = E + B - D c) M = E - B + D d) M = E - B - D
39. If the wet bulb temperature of air is 380C, then its relative humidity in % is
a) 38 % b) 90% c) 100% d) insufficient data

40. For a cooling tower if blowdown is 10 m3 /hour and Cycles of Concentration (CoC) is 2.5
the evaporation loss is equal to:
a) 25 m3/hour b) 15 m3/ hour c) 0.25 m3/hour d) 6.67 m3/hour

41. If the metered kWh is 95, kVAh is 100 and kVARh is 31, the power factor will be:
a) 0.95 b) 0.61 c) 0.69 d) unity

42. In T-5 Fluorescent Lamp, “5” is indicative of:
a) Tube diameter b) 5 watt loss

c) 5% Energy Saving with respect to T8 d) 5th generation lamp
43. Identify the statement that is not applicable to heat pumps
a) transfers heat by refrigerant through a cycle of evaporation and condensation

b) an air conditioner can work as a heat pump
c) no external energy is required
d) a vapour absorption refrigeration system can also work as a heat pump
44. A refrigeration system using which of the following compressors is likely to be most
efficient?
a) reciprocating b) screw c) scroll d) all the above

45. Which of the following is not true for a fluorescent lamp with electronic ballast
a) presence of stroboscopic effect b) energy savings

c) increased light output d) no starter required
_______________________ 5
46. Which of the following with respect to turbocharger in a Diesel engine is true?
a) operates using energy of exhaust gases

b) decreases supply air pressure to engine
c) preheats the combustion air using energy from exhaust gases
d) all of the above
47. The refrigerant which can be used both in vapour compression chillers and vapour
absorption chiller is
a) R22 b) R21 c) ammonia d) pure water

48. Energy efficient distribution transformer core is made up of ______.
a) silicon alloyed iron (grain oriented) b) copper

c) amorphous core - metallic glass alloy d) none of the above
49. In a transformer on load, if the secondary voltage is one-fourth the primary voltage,
then the secondary current will be
a) four times the primary current b) equal to the primary current

c) one-fourth the primary current d) two times the primary current
50. If V1 is actual supply voltage and V2 is the rated voltage of a capacitor, the reactive
KVAr produced would be in the ratio of
a) V22/V12 b) V12/V22 c) 1 - V22/V12 d) 1 + V22/V12

S-1 A 15 kW, 415 V, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 Phase squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
efficiency of 92% and power factor of 0.89. Find the following if the motor operates at full
load rated values.
a) input power in kW
b) current drawn by the motor
c) RPM at a full load slip of 0.8%
Ans: a) Pin (Input power) = 15 / 0.92 = 16.304 kW
b) I(Input current) = 16.304 / (

3 x 0.415 x 0.89) = 25.48 A
c) Ns = 120 x f / p = 120 x 50 / 4 = 1500 RPM

N = Ns ( 1- S )
= 1500 ( 1- 0.008)
= 1488 RPM
S-2 In a pumping system the water level is 4 m below the pump centerline. The discharge
_______________________ 6
Paper 4 – SET A KEY

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS – August, 2013

S-1 If EER of a 1.5 TR window airconditioner is 2.5 what will be the power input?
Ans 1.5 x 3.516/2.5 = 2.11 kW
What is the significance of monitoring dew point of compressed air for

S-2
pneumatic instruments application?
Ans To check the moisture level/dryness in instrument air
For a thermal power plant, the percentage auxiliary consumption of a 500 MW

S-3
unit is ____than that of a 110 MW unit.
Ans Less
Between one litre of ‘liquid hydrogen’ and one litre of ‘liquid gasoline’ which
S-4
will have a higher heat content?
Ans Liquid gasoline
Why is the COP of a vapour absorption refrigeration system always less than
S-5
one?
COP is given by (heat taken by evaporator/ heat given to generator). The heat given
Ans to generator of VAR is always more than heat taken away in the evaporator
(refrigeration effect)
S-6 Regenerators utilising waste heat are widely used in _________furnaces
Ans Glass melting or Open hearth furnaces
S-7 Why small bypass lines are provided in a centrifugal pump?
1
_______________________
Paper 4 – SET A KEY
Ans To avoid pump running at zero flow
If the speed of a reciprocating pump is reduced by 50 %, what will be its effect

S-8
on the head?
Ans The head will remain the same
As the ‘approach’ increases, the other parameters remaining constant, the

S-9
effectiveness of cooling tower will _____________
Ans Decrease
In a DG set, waste heat is used for steam generation. This type of

S-10
cogeneration is called _________cycle.
Ans Topping

L-1 An automobile plant has a maximum demand of 5000 kVA at a PF of 0.95. The
plant has shifted its electric annealing furnace with a steady resistive load of
600 kW to its foundry unit in a nearby location after suitable modifications.
What will be the new PF of the automobile plant without the electric annealing
furnace?
Ans
Existing maximum demand in kW, 5000 x 0.95 = 4750 KW
Existing reactive power load in the plant
(KVAR)2 = KVA2 – KW 2 = (5000)2 – (4750)2
KVAR = 1561
Electrical load after shifting 600 KW annealing furnace = 4750 – 600 = 4150 KW
However, KVAR load will remain same as 600 kW annealing furnace did not impose
any kVAr loading.
KVA = SQRT [(4150)2 + (1561)2] = 4434
PF = 4150 / 4434 = 0.936
2
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A

FOR
a) Answer all 50 questions

b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil
1. A geothermal field may yield
a) dry steam b) wet steam c) hot air d) all of these

2. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?
a) CFCs b) SO2 c) PFC d) SF6

3. Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of
a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide c) only ethane d) none of these
4. Which of the following statements are true?
i) bagasse is a source of secondary energy

ii) beneficiated coal belongs to primary energy
iii) electricity is basically a convenient form of primary energy
iv) steam is a convenient form of secondary energy
a) (ii) & (iii) b) (i) & (iii) c) (ii) & (iv) d) (ii) & (i)
5. Natural gas contains
a) methane, ethane and propane in equal proportions

b) only butane and propane in equal proportions
c) methane, propane and pentane in equal proportions
d) mostly methane and minor amounts of other gases
6. Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy?
a) consistency in pricing of energy

b) scope for improving supply of energy from varied sources
c) energy conservation Research and Development
1
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
d) reducing price of energy

7. Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?
a) impaired energy security will not affect agricultural output

b) energy security is strengthened by avoiding dependence upon imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries strengthen energy security
d) strengthening energy security requires increasing exploration to find oil and gas
reserves
8. In a boiler substitution of coal with rice husk leads to
a) energy conservation b) energy efficiency

c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency d) carbon emission reduction
9. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow Energy
conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its
a) connected load is 120 kW and above

b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above
c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and above
d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA
10. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act,
2001?
a) monitoring and analysis of energy use

b) verification of energy use
d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review
11. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumers?
a) designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor

b) adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as notified
c) submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d) conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
12. Which of the following is an energy security measure?
a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources

b) diversifying energy supply source
c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible
d) all of the above
13. An induction motor with 11 kW rating and efficiency of 90% in its name plate means
a) it will draw 12.22 kW at full load

b) it will always draw 11 kW at full load
2
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
c) it will draw 9.9 kW at full load

d) nothing can be said about how much power it will draw as motor power factor is not
given
14. Which of the following statement is true regarding maximum demand controller?
a) maximum demand controller enables a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks in the consumer
load profile
b) maximum demand controller enables a way of improving the system power factor
c) enables a way for using more electrical energy at lower total cost of energy without
investment in expansion of power supply
d) maximum demand controller is installed by concerned utility at customer premises
15. Which of the following statements are true?
i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices
ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work
iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor
iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor
a) i & iv b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv

16. Which of the following is a standard for Energy Management System?
a) ISO 14001 b) ISO 9001 c) ISO 18001 d) ISO 50001

17. Which of the following statements are true regarding simple payback period?
a) considers impact of cash flow even after payback period

b) takes into account the time value of money
c) considers cash flow throughout the project life cycle
d) determines how quickly invested money is recovered
18. Which of the following statements are true regarding CPM?
i) work breakdown structure are used to list the activities in the project as a first step
in CPM
ii) CPM takes into account variation in the completion time and average time is used
for any activity
iii) if the project is to finish earlier, it is necessary to focus on activities other than
critical path
iv) critical path is the longest path in the network.
a) i & iv b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) iii & iv

19. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Global warming will result in:
3
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
a) melting of the ice caps b) increasing sea levels

c) severe damage to ozone layer in stratosphere d) unpredictable climate patterns
20. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called
a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink c) carbon Capture d) carbon absorption

21. Which of the following statements are true regarding wind turbine?
i) wind power varies as cube of rotor size

ii) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
iii) wind speed has more influence on wind power than turbine area
iv) practical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind
turbine rotor is about 79%
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) ii & iv

22. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are true?
i) ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC

ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount of
heat is retained in ETC
iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient temperature
a) i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii

23. What percentage of the sun’s energy can silicon solar panels convert into electricity?
a) 30% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%
24. How much theoretical power you would expect to generate from a river-based mini
hydropower with flow of 20 litres/second and head of 12 metres
a) 2.35kW b) 2.44MW c) 1.67kW d) none of the above
25. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due to
Hydrogen in the fuel ?
a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil
26. Energy in one Tonne of Oil Equivalent (toe) corresponds to

a) 4.187 GJ b) 1.162 MWh c) 1 Million kcal d) none of the above
27. Tonnes of Oil Equivalent energy consumption / GDP in Million US $ is termed as

a) energy intensity b) per capita oil consumption
c) per capita energy consumption d) energy performance
4
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
28. Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO2 emissions
will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr
c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
29. Under the Energy Conservation Act, the designated consumer is required to get the
mandatory energy audit conducted by
a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor
c) accredited energy auditor d) in-house engineer
30. If the relative humidity of air is 100%, then which of the following statements is correct
a) only dew point & wet bulb temp. are same
b) only dew point & dry bulb temp. are same
c) only wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
d) all dew point , wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
31. Among which of the following fuel is the difference between the GCV and NCV
maximum?
a) coal b) furnace oil c) natural gas d) rice husk
32. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) speedometer
33. Which of the following instrument is used for assessing combustion efficiency ?
a) lux Meter b) pitot tube & manometer c) ultrasonic flow meter d) fyrite
34. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is

a) kW / kg of refrigerant used b) kcal / m3 of chilled water
c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration
35. If 800 kcal of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0oC. (Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 kcal/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4 kg c) 10 kg d) 20 kg
36. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product
obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.
a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 d) 40
5
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
37. The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as

a) annual cost / capital cost b) (first cost / first year benefits) x 100
c) NPV / IRR d) (annual net cash flow x 100) / capital cost
38. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in
a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.
39. Cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.5 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual maintenance cost of Rs 10,000 is
a) 0.4 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 6
40. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as

a) commercial energy b) primary energy c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
41. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above
42. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakh kwh for a given period. The
average production is 50000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kwh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000kWh c) 80000kWh d) none of the above
43. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in
a plant costs Rs. 8 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 2 lakhs. The return on
investment
44. The amount of electricity required to heat 100 litres of water from 30oC to 70 oC through
resistance heating is
a) 0.465 kWh b) 4.65 kWh c) 465 kWh d) 2 kWh
45. In project financing, sensitivity analysis is applied because

a) almost all the cash flows involve uncertainly
b) it evaluates how sensitive the project is to change in the input parameters
c) it assesses the impact of ‘what if one or more factors are different from what is
predicted’
d) it is applicable to all the above situations
46. A process requires 120 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 4800 kcal/kg for heating with a
system efficiency of 82 %. The loss would be
a) 576000 kcal b) 472320 kcal c) 103680 kcal d) 480000 kcal
6
_______________________
Paper 1 –Set A
47. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1
48. Having energy policy

a) satisfies regulations b) shows top management commitment
c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number other policies
49. The producer gas is basically
a) CO, H2 and CH4 b) only CH4 c) only CO and CH4 d) only CO and H2
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest
50.
finish time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time

Calculate Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with an investment of
S-1
Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year and second investment of Rs 70,000 at the
beginning of the second year and fuel cost saving of Rs 95,000 in second and third
year. The discount rate is 14%
Ans
NPV = –70,000 – (70000/1.14) + [95000/(1.14x1.14)] + [95000/(1.14x1.14x1.14)]
= –70000 – 61404 +73099 + 64122
= –131404 +137221
= Rs 5817/-
A water pumping station fills a reservoir at a fixed rate. The head and flow rate are
S-2
constant and hence the power drawn by the pump is always same. The pump operates
at 100 m head and delivers 250 litres per second. The power consumption was
measured as 300 kW.
Calculate energy consumption to pump 13,500 kL of water to the reservoir.

Ans
Time taken to pump water in hours = 13,500 × 103 L
250 L/s x 3600 sec/hr
= 15 hours
Power required to pump water = 300 kW
7
_______________________
Paper 2 – Set A

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS– August, 2014
Date:23-8-2014 Timings:14:00-17:00 Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with black pen or HB pencil.
1. If the terminal temperature differences at the hot and cold end of a heat exchanger
is same, then the LMTD is
a) 100 oC b) 0 oC c) 50 oC d) none of the above
a) coconut shell b) natural gas c) oil d) rice husk

3. Which of these is not true of ‘critical point’ of steam/water mixture?

4. Which of these fuels has the highest heating value?
a) LPG b) methane c) hydrogen d) diesel
5. The difference in temperature between steam and condensate is the principle of

operation in a
a) thermodynamic trap b) thermostatic trap
c) orifice type trap d) none of the above
6. Which of the following will be ideal for heat transfer in a heat exchanger?
a) hot water b) super heated steam

c) saturated dry steam d) wet steam
7. What is the predominant mode of heat transfer in reheating furnaces?
a) convection b) radiation c) conduction d) pulsation
8. In a gas turbine, air compressor alone consumes about _____of the energy
generated
_________________________ 1
Paper 2 – Set A
a) 5-10% b) 20-30% c) 30-40% d) 40-45%

9. In an oil fired steam boiler the Air to fuel ratio by mass is 15:1 & evaporation ratio is
14:1. The flue gas to fuel ratio will be
a) 29:1 b) 16:1 c) 1:1 d) 15:1

10. The cogeneration system which has high overall system efficiency is one which
uses
a) back pressure steam turbine b) combined cycle

c) extraction condensing steam turbine d) reciprocating engine
11. Regenerator is used mainly along with a
a) boiler b) high temperature furnace

c) compressor d) gas turbine
12. The device used to upgrade a lower pressure steam to a higher pressure steam is
called
a) heat pump b) thermo compressor c) heat pipe d) heat wheel

13. Which of the following works on a refrigeration cycle?
a) thermo compressor b) heat pipe

c) heat wheel d) heat pump
14. Which agro-residue has the lowest gross calorific value?
a) deoiled bran b)paddy husk c)sawdust d) coconut shell
15. The highest % of sulphur is present in

a) LDO b) Furnace oil c) LSHS d) Kerosene
16. Which of the following is not a property of ceramic fibre insulation?
a) low thermal conductivity b) high heat capacity

c) light weight d) thermal shock resistance
17. For stoichiometric combustion of 1 kg of carbon, the required amount of air will be
about
a) 31 kg b) 21 kg c) 11.6 kg d) 2.67 kg
18. For coal fired system, the flame length is influenced by
a) moisture b) volatile matter c) ash content d) fixed carbon

.
19. Which of the following in fuel contributes to erosive effect on burner tips?
a) ash b) water c) sulphur d) volatile matter
_________________________ 2
Paper 2 – Set A
20. The largest heat loss in the heat balance of a coal fired boiler is due to
a) dry flue gas loss b) loss due to hydrogen in the fuel

c) radiation losses d) moisture in the air
21. Water treatment for steam boilers is generally required to
a) remove hydrogen b) prevent scale formation

c) help improve combustion efficiency d) reduce stack temperature
22. The stoichiometric air to natural gas ratio by volume for complete combustion is
a) 14-15 b) 7-8 c) 9.5-10.5 d) none of the above

23. A rise in conductivity of boiler feed water indicates
a) drop in the contamination of feed water b) greater purity of feed water

c) rise in the TDS of feed water d) rise in oxygen level
24. For transporting the steam to the long distance, the best quality of steam is
a) dry saturated steam b) slightly superheated steam
c) mildly wet steam d) very high pressure steam
25. In a steam system, the purpose of air venting is because air
a) is a good conductor b) acts as insulator c) is inert d) is diluent

26. The inverted bucket trap operates on the principle of _______ difference between
water and steam
a) pressure b) density c) temperature d) velocity
27. Furnace wall heat loss does not depend on ______
a) temperatures of external wall surfaces b) velocity of air around the furnace
c) thermal conductivity of wall brick d) material of stock to be heated.
28. The insulation material suitable for low temperature application to prevent heat
gain is
a) mineral fiber b) fiber glass c) silica d) polyurethane
29. In FBC boiler, the combustion is carried out at a temperature

a) closer to steam temperature. b) adiabatic combustion temperature
c) below ash fusion temperature d) above ash fusion temperature
30. The material used to control SOx in the FBC boiler is
a) limestone b) alumina c) silica d) lime

31. In an industry, exhaust gas from the furnace is used for power generation by
installing waste heat recovery steam boiler and a steam turbine. This type of co-
generation is termed as
a) combined cycle b) Braton cycle c) topping cycle d) bottoming cycle
32. F&A( from and at) rating of the boiler is the amount of steam generated from
_________________________ 3
Paper 2 – Set A
a) water at 0 oC to saturated steam at 100 oC

b)water at feed water temperature to saturated steam at 100 oC
c)water at 100 oC to saturated steam at 100 oC
d)water at ambient temperature to saturated steam at 100 oC
33. Pinch analysis of heat exchangers depicts plot of
a) temperature vs entropy b) temperature vs area

c) temperature vs specific heat d) temperature vs enthalpy
a) specific heat of hot fluid b) inlet temperature of hot fluid

c) inlet temperature of cold fluid d) LMTD
35. Parameter assumed to remain constant during LMTD calculation of a heat

exchanger is
a) temperature drop b) heat transfer area

c) specific heat of fluids d) all the above
36. How much kg of SO2 is produced in complete combustion of 32 kg of sulphur?
a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128
37. Micro turbine can be used to replace _______ for energy savings
a)gas turbines b) diesel generator c) HRSG d) PRV
38. When steam pressure reduces, which of the following increases ?
a ) sensible heat b) enthalpy of steam

c) saturation temperature d) specific volume
39. If excess air is 20% in a boiler, the excess oxygen in flue gas would be
a) 3.5% b) 4% c) 2% d) 1.5%
40. Which of the following requires the lowest stoichiometric oxygen demand (kg/kg of
fuel)?
a) hydrogen b) carbon c) sulphur d) methane

41. Temperature control in fuel oil storage tank is intended to control
a) viscosity b) density c) specific heat d) caloric value

a) thermal conductivity b) heat capacity

c) resistance to slag penetration d) all of the above
43. In a CFBC boiler,the capture and recycling of bed material is accomplished by
a) bag filter b) settling chamber c) cyclone d) scrubber system
_________________________ 4
Paper 2 – Set A
44. Bomb calorimeter is used to measure

a) atmospheric pressure b) pour point of liquid Fuels
c) calorific value of fuels d) viscosity of fuel
45. Pick the wrong statement. The thermal efficiency of a furnace increases by
a) preheating combustion air b) increasing the excess air flow rate

c) reducing the surface heat loss d) minimizing the CO loss and un-burnt losses
46. In a steam turbine power plant, vacuum is generated at
a) turbine inlet b) condenser c) deaerator d) all of the above

47. Heat wheels are mostly used in a situation of….
a) high temperature exhaust gases
b) heat exchange between large masses of air having small temperature
differences
c) heat transfer between a liquid and gas
d) corrosive gases
48. In a condenser, which part of the heat of the steam is rejected?
a) super heat b) latent heat

c) sensible heat d) latent heat and super heat
49. The highest energy loss occurs in which of the following thermal power plant
equipment ?
a) boiler b) steam turbine c) generator d) condenser
50. Which of the following gives a rough estimate of calorific value of coal ?
a) moisture content b) volatile matter c) fixed carbon d) ash content
-------- End of Section - I ---------
Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40
(i) Answer all eight questions

(ii) Each question carries five marks
S1 An economizer was installed in the furnace-oil fired boiler. The following are the data
monitored after commissioning the economiser.
Air to fuel ratio = 20

Evaporation ratio of the boiler = 12
Specific heat of flue gas = 0.25 kcal/kgOC.
Condensate recovery in the plant = Nil.
Calculate the rise in temperature of feedwater in an economizer, which brings down the flue
gas temperature from 280 OC to 180 OC.
_________________________ 5
Paper 3 – Set A

FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS– August, 2014

1. Which loss is considered the most unreliable or complicated to measure in electric motor
efficiency testing?
a) stator Cu loss b) rotor Cu loss c) stator Iron loss d) stray loss

2. A pure resistive load in an alternating current (AC) circuit draws
a) lagging reactive power b) active power

c) leading reactive power d) none of the above
3. Select the incorrect statement: The advantage of PF improvement by capacitor addition in
an electric network is
a) active power component of the network is not affected

b) reactive power component of the network is not affected
2
c) I R power losses are affected in the system
d) voltage level at the load end is affected
4. “Heat Rate” of a thermal power station is the heat input in kilo Calories or kilo Joules, for
generating
a) one kW of electrical output b) one kVAh of electrical output

c) one kWh of electrical output d) one kVA of electrical output
5. Improving power factor at motor terminals in a plant will
a) increase active power drawn by motor b) reduce system distribution losses

c) reduce contract demand with utility d) increase motor design power factor
6. For a 6 pole induction motor operating at 49.5 Hz, the percentage slip at a shaft speed of
950 RPM will be
a) 4.0 % b) 5.0 % c) 0.04 % d) none of the above
7. A plant had installed three phase shunt capacitors to improve power factor at Motor
Control Circuit (MCC). Busbar three phase Voltages at the main electrical panel of a plant
were balanced but at the Motor Control Circuit (MCC),receiving three phase power from
busbars, the line voltages were found to be unbalanced. The main reason for this
unbalanced voltage at MCC among the following could be
a) PF capacitors were operating at higher supply frequency

b) PF improvement in all phase was not uniform due to blown fuse in one phase of the 3
_______________________ 1
Paper 3 – Set A
phase PF capacitors
c) PF capacitors were operating at higher voltage then their rated values
d) PF capacitors were operating at lower voltage then their rated values
8. A 50 kVAr, 415 V rated power factor capacitor was found to be having terminal supply
voltage of 430 V. The capacity of the power factor capacitor at the operating supply
voltage would be approximately
a) 53.67 kVAr b) 50 kVAr c) 46.57 kVAr d) none of the above

9. A 75 kW rated squirrel cage induction motor installed with static PF correction capacitors
across the motor terminals got damaged along with capacitors once supply was switched
off due to power failure. The possible reason for the motor burn out among the following
could be
a) motor was oversized
b) motor was undersized
c) charging current of the capacitors was more than the magnetizing current of the motor
d) charging current of the capacitor was only 85% of the motor magnetizing current
10. An induction motor rated for 75 kW and 94 % efficiency, operating at full load, will
a) deliver 70.5 kW b) deliver 75 kW c) draw 75 kW d) deliver 79.78 kW
11. Higher chiller COP can be achieved with
a) higher evaporator temperature and higher condensing temperature

b) higher evaporator temperature and lower condensing temperature
c) lower evaporator temperature and higher condensing temperature
d) lower evaporator temperature and lower condensing temperature
12. Increase in the delivery pressure of a compressor by 1 bar would reduce the power
consumption by
a) 1 to 5 % b) 6 to 10 % c) 11 to 15 % d) none of the above
13.
The FAD of a reciprocating compressor is directly proportional to
a) pressure b) volume c) speed d) all of the above
14. Which of the following is not true of air receivers in a compressed air system?
a) smoothens pulsating air output

b) increases the compressed air pressure
c) stores large volumes of compressed air
d) facilitates draining of moisture
15. Typical acceptable pressure drop in mains header at the farthest point of an industrial
compressed air network is
a) 1.0 bar b) 0.7 bar c) 0.5 bar d) 0.3 bar

16. All other conditions remaining the same in a refrigeration system, at which of the following
condenser temperatures, the power consumption will be the least:
o o o o
a) 32.6 C b) 35.9 C c) 40.8 C d) 43.4 C
17. The pressure of refrigerant in vapour compression system changes in
_______________________ 2
Paper 3 – Set A
a) compressor b)expansion valve c) both (a) & (b) d) evaporator

18. A 1.5 ton air conditioner installed in a room and working continuously for one hour will
remove heat of
a) 3024 kcals b) 4536 kcals c) 3000 kcals d) 6048 kcals

19. If the power consumed by a 1.5 TR refrigeration compressor is 2.5 kW , what is the energy
efficiency ratio?
a) 2.1 b) 1.5 c) 0.6 d) 1.66

20. In the performance assessment of a refrigeration system, which performance ratio (energy
efficiency) does not follow the trend “a higher ratio means a more efficient refrigeration
system”?
a) Coefficient of performance(COP) b) Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)

c) kW per ton d) none of the above
21. 2 ton of refrigeration (TR) is equivalent to about
a) 100.8 kcal/min b) 7032 W c) 428.7 BTU/min d) all of the above

22. A fan with 25 cm pulley diameter is driven by a 2940 rpm motor through a V-belt system. If
the motor pulley is reduced from 20 cm to 15 cm keeping the motor rpm and fan pulley
diameter the same, the fan speed will reduce by
a) 1176 rpm b) 1764 rpm c) 588 rpm d) none of the above

23. In series operation of identical centrifugal fans, ideally
a) flow doubles b) static pressure doubles

c) static pressure goes up by four times d) flow goes up by four times
24. The hydraulic power of a motor pump set is 8 kW. If the power drawn by the motor is 16
kW at 90% efficiency, the pump efficiency will be
a) 55.5% b) 50% c) 45% d) none of the above

25. The energy saving with variable speed drives in a pumping system will be maximum for
systems with
a) pure static head b) pure friction head

c) high static head and low friction head d) high static head with high friction head
3
26. A process fluid at 50 m /hr, with a density of 0.96, is flowing in a heat exchanger and is to
o o
be cooled from 36 C to 29 C. The fluid specific heat is 0.78 kcal/kg. If the chilled water
o
range across the heat exchanger is 5 C,the chilled water flow rate is
3 3 3
a) 67.2 m /hr b) 52.42 m /hr c) 50 m /hr d) none of the above
27. The inner tube of an L-type pitot tube is used to measure …… in the air duct
a) total pressure b) static pressure b) velocity pressure d) dynamic pressure

28. The intersection point of the centrifugal pump characteristic curve and the design system
curve is the
a) pump efficiency point b) best efficiency point
c) system efficiency point d) none of the above
29. In case of increased suction lift from open wells, the pump delivered flow rate
_______________________ 3
Paper 3 – Set A
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the above
30. In pumping systems where static head is a high proportion of the total, the appropriate
solution is
a) install two or more pumps to operate in parallel

b) install two or more pumps to operate in series
c) install two or more pumps to operate in independent operation
31.
A Plant wants to replace the existing 100 TR water cooled vapour compression
refrigeration system with a waste heat driven vapour absorption chiller. The capacity of
the existing cooling tower
a) needs no change b) is to be doubled
c) is to be raised to 1.2 times d) none of the above
32. Shaft power of the motor driving a pump is 30 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.92 and pump
efficiency is 0.5. The power drawn by the motor will be
a) 65.2 kW b) 15 kW c) 30 kW d) 32.6 kW
33. 3 o
If water is flowing through a cooling tower at 120 m /h with 5 C range, the load on cooling
o
tower at an ambient wet bulb ambient temperature of 33 C is
a) 198.4 TR b) 357 TR c) 158 TR d) none of the above
34. In a plant, the loading on a transformer was 1000 kVA with the power factor of 0.88. The
plant improved the power factor to 0.99 by adding capacitors on the load side. The release
in transformer loading( kVA) will be

35.
The wet bulb temperature normally chosen for designing of cooling tower is
a) average maximum wet bulb for rainy months
b) average maximum wet bulb for summer months
c) average minimum wet bulb for summer months
d) average maximum wet bulb for winter months
36. Which one from the following types of cooling towers consumes least power for the same
operating conditions?
a) counter flow film fill cooling tower b) cross-flow splash fill cooling tow
c) counter flow splash fill cooling tower d) none of the above
37. Lux is defined as
a) ratio of luminous flux emitted by a lamp to the power consumed by the lamp
b) one lumen per square meter
c) one lumen per square feet
38. Which among the following is the most energy efficient lamp for the same wattage rating?
a) HPMV b) GLS c) CFL d) Metal halide

39.
_____ is a measure of effect of light on the perceived colour of objects
_______________________ 4
Paper 3 – Set A
a) lux b) lumens c) CRI d) lamp circuit efficacy
40. Which of the following is the best definition of illuminance?
a) luminous flux incident on an object per unit area

b) flux density emitted from an object without regard for direction
c) time rate of flow of light energy
d) flux density emitted from an object in a given direction
41. Two most important electrical parameters, which are to be monitored, among the following
for safe operation of Diesel Generator set are:
a) voltage and ampere b) kW and kVA

c) power factor and ampere d) kVA and ampere
42. In a DG set, the generator capacity is 1000 kVA with a rated power factor 0.8. It is
consuming 150 litre per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel consumption of this DG set is
0.25 litres/ kWh at that load, then what is the kVA loading of the set at 0.88 PF?
a) 682 kVA b) 800 kVA c) 750 kVA d) none of the above

43. The maximum unbalanced load between phases should not exceed _______ % of the
capacity of the DG set
c) 10 b) 5 c) 1 d) none of the above

44. The capacity of largest motor that can be started in the given DG set is…… of kVA rating
of DG set
a) 25% b) 50% c)75% d)100%

3 o
45. The jacket cooling water in a diesel engine flows at 12.9 m /hr with a range of 10 C and
accounts for 30% of the engine input energy. What will be the hourly Diesel consumption
in kg with a calorific value of 10,000 kcal/kg
a) 43 b) 12.9 c) 17.3 d) none of the above

46. Select the incorrect statement:
a) harmonics occur as spikes at intervals which are multiples of the supply frequency
b) harmonics are not multiples of the fundamental frequency
c) induction motors are not the major sources of harmonics
d) transformers operating near saturation level create harmonics
47. If the speed of centrifugal fan is reduced to 80% of its rated speed then the power drawn
will _______% of its rated power:
a) 80% b) 51.2 % c) 40 % d) 64 %
48. The order of movement of thermal energy in HVAC system is:
a) Indoor air - Condenser water - Chilled water - Cooling tower - Refrigerant

b) Chilled water - Indoor air - Refrigerant-Cooling tower - Condenser water
c) Indoor air - Chilled water - Refrigerant-Condenser water- Cooling tower
d) Indoor air - Chilled water – Refrigerant - Cooling tower - Condenser water
49. Which one of the following device will help to eliminate the hunting problems normally
associated with capacitor switching?
_______________________ 5
Paper 3 – Set A
a) Maximum Demand Controller b) Intelligent Power Factor Controller (IPFC)

c) Soft Starter d) Eddy Current Drives
50. The occupancy sensors in a lighting installation are best suited for
a) conference halls b) large production shops/hangars

c) entrances of offices/buildings d) street lighting

S-1 A 37 kW, 3 phase, 415 V induction motor draws 56 A and 33 kW power at 410 V . What is the
Apparent and Reactive Power drawn by the motor at the operating load?
Ans:
Apparent power = 1.7321 x 0.410 x 56 = 39.769 kVA

2 2
Reactive power = squrt (apparent power - active power )
Active power = 33 kW
Therefore reactive power = sqrt (1581.57-1089)
= 22.19 kVAr
S-2 Compute AT & C (Aggregate Technical and Commercial) Losses for the following data:
S. No. Description Annual

Data
1 Input Energy = (Import-Export), MU Ei 20
2a Energy Billed (Metered), MU E1 16
2b Energy Billed (Un-Metered), MU E2 1
2c Total Energy Billed ( E1 + E2 ) Eb 17
3 Amount Billed (Rs. lakhs ) Ab 800
4a Gross Amount Collected (Rs. lakhs) AG 820
4b Arrears Collected (Rs. lakhs) Ar 40
Ans:
Estimation of AT & C Losses

S. No. Description Annual
Data
1 Input Energy = (Import-Export), MU Ei 20
2a Energy Billed (Metered), MU E1 16
2b Energy Billed (Un-Metered), MU E2 1
2c Total Energy Billed ( E1 + E2 ) Eb 17
3 Amount Billed (Rs. lakhs ) Ab 800
4a Gross Amount Collected (Rs. lakhs) AG 820
4b Arrears Collected (Rs. lakhs) Ar 40
4c Amount Collected without Arrears (Rs. lakhs) Ac=AG-Ar 780
5 Billing Efficiency (BE) = Eb/Ei *100% 85%
_______________________ 6
Paper 4 – SET A

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS – August, 2014

S-1 Which loss is not considered while evaluating boiler efficiency by “Indirect Method”?
Ans Blow down loss
S-2 What will be the synchronous speed of a VFD driven 4-pole induction motor
operating at 40 Hz ?
Ns = 120 x f/P
Ans
= 120 x 40/4= 1200 RPM
What is the refrigerant used in a vapour absorption system with lithium bromide as
S-3
an absorbent?
Ans Water
Other than rated kW of motor and the actual power drawn, what other parameter is
S-4
required to determine the percentage loading of the motor ?
Ans Motor Efficiency or rated motor efficiency
Inclined tube manometer is used for measuring gas flow in a duct when the air
S-5
velocity is very high: True or False?
False.
Ans
A pump will cavitate if the NPSHrequired is _________ than the NPSHavailable.
S-6
More
Ans
To determine the effectiveness of the cooling tower, it is required to measure cooling
S-7
water inlet, outlet and _____temperatures.
Ambient Wet bulb

Ans
S-8 The ratio of actual heat transfer to the heat that could be transferred by heat
exchanger of infinite size is termed as ………
1
_______________________
Paper 4 – SET A
Ans Effectiveness
S-9 If the unit heat rate of a power plant is 3070 kcal/kWh ,what is the power plant
efficiency ?
Ans (860/3070) x 100 = 28 %
S-10
The difference between GCV and NCV of hydrogen fuel is Zero: True or False
False
Ans

Hot water at 80 OC is used for room heating in a 5 Star hotel for 4 months in a year.
L-1
About 200 litres per minute of hot water is maintained in circulation with the return
temperature at 50 OC. The hot water is generated using a „hot waste stream‟,
through a Plate Heat Exchanger (PHE). The hot stream enters the PHE in
counterflow direction at 95 OC and leaves at 60 OC. The area of the heat exchanger
is 20 m2.
Calculate the LMTD and the overall heat transfer coefficient.
Heat load, Q = 200 * 60 * (80 – 50) = 360000 Kcals/hr (or) 418.7 kW

Ans
(95 – 80)/(60 – 50)
LMTD (for counter flow) = ------------------------ = 3.7 OC
ln (15/10)
Overall Heat Transfer Coefficient, U = Q/( AxLMTD)
= 418.7/(20 x 3.7) = 5.66 kW/m2.OC

(OR)
= 4864.8 kcal/hr.m2.OC
A gas turbine generator is delivering an output of 20 MW in an open cycle with a

L-2
heat rate of 3440 kcal/kWh. It is converted to combined cycle plant by adding heat
recovery steam generator and a steam turbine raising the power generation output
to 28 MW. However, with this retrofitting and increased auxiliary consumption, the
fuel consumption increases by 5% in the gas turbine.
2
_______________________

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Regn No: ____ _____________

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions

1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves

a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%

a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation

a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings

a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies

c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees

a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof

a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh

a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery

a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above

a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption

a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs

a) increases with increasing capacity utilization

a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives

a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant

a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters

a) positive forces only b) negative forces only

a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660

a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J

a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms

a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions

a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR

a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation

a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000

a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT

a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above

a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above

a) poor process control b) many forced outages

a) nothing can be said

a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency

a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000

a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning

a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022

a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible

a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground

Regn No: _________________

(To be written by the candidates)

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – MAY, 2009

Paper – 2: Energy Efficiency in Thermal Utilities

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions

a) higher b) lower c) equal d) none of the above

a) condense b) remain saturated

a) same b) lower c) higher d) zero

Regn No: _________