1.

Patient has chronic gout and had a recent kidney transplant; which
is suitable for him?
a) Allopurinol
b) Colchicine
c) Febuxostat
d) 4th option
ans: b

2. NSAID given for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA):

a) Indomethacin
b) Sulindac
Note: Intravenous (IV) indomethacin or IV ibuprofen is used to treat
patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in the neonate and in premature
infants.
Ans: a

3. Which drug is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

a) Clindamycin

4. Best treatment for C. difficle?

a) Metronidazole
b) Vancomycin
ans: a

5. Which is best used for the treatment of MRSA?

a) Vancomycin
b) Amikacin
c) Azithromycin
ans: a
N.B Drugs used for MRSA (can treat MRSA or MRSA can't resist):
1< penicillins> amoxiciliin +clavulinic or ampicillin+sulbactam
Or ticarcillin or piperacillin +tazobactam and all oxaciliins
like:fluoxacillin , cloxacillin ,dicloxacillin and methicillin,nafacillin
2<cephalosporins> ceftazidim, ceftarolin, ceftabiperole
Cefipime and cefpirome ( all begin with cefta or cefp)
3<macrolides> like Azithromycin and clarithromycin Except
Erythromycin
4<tetracyclines> like doxycycline & minocycline
5< for impetigo(topical) > like Bactroban(mupirocin) and fusidic
acid.
6<Others> vancomycin , daptomycin, linezolid, Clindamycin,
Tiecoplanin, (TMP+SMX),(Quinapristin+daflopristine)

6. Drug known to be given as single dose for 3 days for ear-nose-

throat infections:
a) azithromycin
b) Penicillin
ans: a

7. Which is most likely to cause rash following penicillin

administration?
a) Penicillin G
b) Penicillin V
c) Ampicillin
d) Amoxicillin
ans: a

8. Which is most likely to cause rash: (PLEASE CHECK)

a- Amoxicillin
b- Ampicillin
c- Penicillin G
Ans: a

9. Female taking UTI medication, after few days she developed

rashes and red spots on hands, face, (they mean to say exposed areas)
what medication she's on? They attached a hand that shows red spots
with the question SE of:
a) ciprofloxacin
b) amoxicillin
ans: a (if we consider it photosensitivity)
 10. Female taking UTI medication, after few days she developed
rashes and red spots on hands, face, (they mean to say exposed areas)
what medication she's on? They attached a hand that shows red spots
with the question.
Amoxicillin

11. Antibiotic that can resist B lactamase producing bacteria:

a) cefopodoxime
b) cepoperazone
c) Azithromycin
d) cefazoline
ans: c *Please double-check

12. DOC for meningitis:

a) Ceftriaxone
b) Tetracycline
c) Chloramphenicol
ans: a

13. DOC in meningitis?

Cefuroxime
( there was no ceftriaxone or vancomycin in choices)

Note: Bacterial meningitis > Antibiotics as 3rd generation

cephalosporin ( cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone) and
vancomycin may be added.
Also chloramphenicol may be used alone or in combination with
penicillin or(ampicillin). Corticosteroids(dexamethasone) is used
toreduce hearing loss.
Viral meningitis > Acyclovir.
Cryptococcal fungal meningitis > Amphotricin B, Flucytosine

14. least used for beta lactamase producing bacteria

a) amoxicillin +clavulinic acid
b) Dicloxacillin
c) Erythromycin
d) Doxycyclin
ans: b *Please double-check

15. Doc of pregnant woman with UTI: it was a case

A. Cefuroxime
b. cephalexin
ans: b
16. Doc of pregnant woman with UTI: it was a case
A. Cefuroxime
(neither penicillin nor cephalexin in the options)
Note:
#Oral antibiotics are the treatment of choice for asymptomatic
bacteriuria and cystitis. Appropriate oral regimens include the
following:
Cephalexin 500 mg 4 times daily
Ampicillin 500 mg 4 times daily
Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice daily
Sulfisoxazole 1 g 4 times daily
Pregnant women with
-UTI→ cephalexin /augmentin
-UTI wiz streptococcal→ Pen G
-UTI in pregnancy wiz 6GPD → cefurexime
-UTI wiz pen allergy → clarithromycin

17. Vancomycin red man syndrome is caused by the release of:

Histamine

18. baby 3- days old treated for infection and developed respiratory
depression and blue color. Which antibiotic can cause this:
Chloramphenicol

19. Broad spectrum antibiotic (case) Used for G+ and G- bacteria:

amoxicillin

20.pt was found to have an infection with gram +ve and -ve, which
drug to use? We have to choose a broad spectrum antibiotic
 Amoxicillin

21. The use of broad spectrum/ long term use of antibiotic can cause
which infection
a) heleicobacter pylori
b) E.coli
c) shigella
d) Clostridium difficle
ans: d

22. Antibiotic cause ear problem (ototoxicity) needs audiometry:

amikacin

23. Valacyclovir benefit over acyclovir:

a) better bioavailability
b) better tolerance
c) less renal impairment
d) all of them
ans: a
note: better bioavailability (true its 55% but acyclovir is 20%)
better tolerance (true as taken twice daily not 5 times like acyclovir)

24 .Valacyclovir benefit over acyclovir:

a.more bioavailability( true its 55% but acyclovir is 20%)
b.more patient compliance (true as taken twice daily not 5 times like
acyclovir)
c. can't remember
d. all of them
ans: d
25. Acyclovir is not effective in for which virus:
a) Herpes simplex
b) Epstein-barr virus
c) CMV e)herpes zoster
ans: b
*Double check, Lippincott says it is not used in EBV, Uptodate says
CMV
26. Acyclovir is not effective in which viral infection:
a. Herpes zoster
b. Epstein-barr virus
C.Cytomegalovirus
d. herpes zoster
ans: c

27. What is the antiviral that’s the most suitable for HSV encephalitis
infection?
a) acyclovir
b) foscanet
ans: a

28. Mechanism of action of acyclovir:

a) DNA polymerase inhibitor.
b) RNA polymerase
c) transcriptase
ans: a

29. Mitochondrial toxicity, ANTIVIRUAL used:

a) Lamivudine
b) Amatidine
c) Zidovudine
ans: c
(N.B. : 1- Stavudine 2- Zidovudine)

30. Antiviral used in HBV (hepatitis B virus):

a) Lamivudine
b) Amatidine
c) Zidovudine
d) Stavudine
ans: a

31. Beta blockers are used in all the following except:

a) Migraine
b) Bronchial asthma
c) Hyperthyroidism
ans: b

32. β- blocker SE except

a) Glyconeogensis
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypertriglyceridemia
ans: b

33. Which is the longest acting ophthalmic beta blocker?

a) Timolol
b) Livobunolol
c) Carteolol
d) Betaxolol
ans: a (Please double-check if a or b)

34. Timolol is contraindicated in all the following except

a) HTN
b) Congestive Heart failure
c) Bronchial asthma
ans: a

35. Bb with no intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:

a) propranolol
b) Acebutalol
c) Pindolol
ans: a
(pure antagonist with no intrinsic sympathomimetic effect)

36. Action of dobutamine:

a) direct activation of beta and alpha receptors
b) Indirect action on NA
c) action on dopamine receptors
ans: a
* if it was dopmaine not dobutamine then all answers are true

37. Digoxin is CI in:

a) Complete heart block
b) ventricular tachycardia
ans: a
*it is CI in ventricular fibrillation and ventricular arrythemia not
tachycardia

38. All decrease the effect of digoxin except:

a) captopril
b) cycloserine
c) azithromycin
d) cephalexin
ans: c
* a,c,d all increase but the most serious interaction is with azithro. no
interaction with cycloserine

39. Digoxin cannot be used in which condition:

a) Complete Heart failure and atrial fibrillation.
b) Along with ACEI and diuretics
c) ventricular diastolic failure
d) ventricular systolic dysfunction
ans: c

40. digoxin used in all except:

Right HF or diastolic failure

41. Digoxin MOA is:

Positive inotropic effect

42. Main mechanism of action of digoxin:

a) Na-K-ATPase inhibitor

43. Mechanism of action of Digitalis all is true expect:

a) Inc. contractility
b) Dec. vascular resistance
c) Reduce ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation
d) Have modify effect on autonomic nervous system
ans: b
44. Hospitalized patient in the ICU and suffers from severe
hypertension and was admitted because of angina, which the suitable
antihypertensive for him?
a) Metoprolol
b) Hydralazine
c) Clonidine
d) Methyldopa
ans: a
note:Methyldopa is the first line oral anti-HTN ( alpha agonist act on
CNS preventing blood vessels constriction ), may be given IV in
severe cases.
-Labetalol is another first line oral and IV drug in severe cases.
-Nifedipine, Hydralazine but they are not used extensively.
- Hydralazine increases the risk of angina and the pt had severe HTN
but not emergency HTN so the use of metoprolol is fine I think.

45. Which is not used in prinzmetal angina:

a) Atenolol
b) Nifedipine
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Diltiazem
ans: b
*causes reflex tachycardia

46.Not used in prinzmetal Angina:

A. Losartan
B. CCB
C. Nitrate
D. B blockers
Ans: d

47.which of the following not used in prinzmetal angina??

atenolol
nifedipine
nitroglycerin
dilitazem
Ans: a
48. How to counteract the increased risk of angina due to hydralazine
given to ICU patients?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Na nitrosurripde
ans: a

49. Nitroglycerin not use in route of administration:

a) Oral
b) Buccal
c) Transdermal
d) Sublingual
Ans: a

50. Patient with hypertension put on antihypertensive drug, after few

months developed heart failure manifested as reduction in heart rate
and contraction, which antihypertensive drug patient put on:
a) Lisinopril
b) Verpamil
c) Prozosin
d) Thiazide diuretic
ans: b

51. Patient admitted to ER with chest pain, diagnosed as prinzmetal

angina , regarding this angina which is true :
a) Occur at rest not associated with physical activity
b) Associated with artery spasm
c) Associated with atherosclerosis
d) Not responsive to nitroglycerin and CCB
All true except D

52. Side effect of all antiarrhythmic :

a) Blurred vision
b) Torsade de points
ans: b
53. Patient admitted with arrhythmia ,regarding arrhythmia which is
true:
a) Most common cause is re-entry
b) Antiarrhythmia safer than operation
c) Most treatment is CCB and NA channel blocker
d) SA is pace of heart contraction
ans: A,C,D –TRUE

54. Long case have arrhythmia+ COPD can use except

a) Digitalis
b) Verpamil
c) Amiodarone
d) Diltiazem
ans: c

55. Case about patient taking propranolol as cardio-protective in

myocardial infarction, all of the following are effects of propranolol
except:
a) Reduce infarct size
b)Increased O2 demand
c) Decreases mortality and morbidity
ans: b

56. A 70-yr old diabetic patient on oral hypoglycemics and suffering

from hypertension, which of the following antihypertensive drugs is
not recommended:
a) Losartan
b) Enalapril
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Atenolol
ans: d

57. Which agent is given to reverse the toxicity of MTX?

a) folinic acid
b) folic acid
ans: a
58. Which SE of methotrexate is not reversed by leucovorin?
a) Hepatotoxicity
b) Nephrotoxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Interstitial pneumonia
ans: a
*Please double-check as according to Lang, hepatotoxicity is
reversed.

59. 11 years old child with oliguria after MTX, what is the proper
treatment :
a) Hemodialysis
b) Hydration
c) alkalization with urine
ans: b

60. Which one work in M phase:

vinblastine (no vincristine)

61. Which one least to cause myelosuppression:

bleomycin

62. What to use instead of vincristine:

paclitaxel

63. Which one will cause rales and cough:

bleomycin

64. Patient with HIV, the CD4 less than:

a) 200
b) 400
c) 500
d) 600
ans :a

65. CD4 bind to which antigen in the HIV positive Pt:

a) T lymphocyte
b) lymphocyte
c) macrophages
d) natural killer
ans: a

66. Sulfasalazine should be given with which supplement:

Folic acid

67. Not for crohn's disease:

a) Adliximab
b) Infliximab
c) certolizumab
d) Ustikenumab or Golimumab (can't remember but both used)
e) Etanercept
ans: e

68. Drug suppresses T lymphocytes:

a) Etanercept (suppress TNF not t lymphocytes)
b) adalimumab
c) Infliximab (suppress TNF)
Ans: b
N.B Basiliximab and Daclizumab suppress t lymphocytes but not in
choices.

69. Azathioprine SE not dose related:

a) bone marrow depression
b) hepatotoxicity
c) Infection
d) Pancreatitis
ans: c

70. Azathioprine SE not dose related:

a. bone marrow depression
b. hepatotoxicity

71. Azathioprine SE not dose related:

Bone marrow depression
Ans: bone marrow if except (as bone marrow depression depend on
dose)

72. All are DMARDs except:

a) prednisolone
b) methotrexate
ans: a

73. Treatment of mailgnant glioma:

a)methotrexate
b)dacarbazine
c)6-mercaptopurine
d)carmustine
ans: d

74.Glioma: is type of brain cancer it happens in glial cells

Ttt:1st line : temozolomide tablets and bevacizumab (IV)
2nd line like other types of brain caners :
carboplatin,carmastin,cisplatin,etc…

75. Patient on cyclophosphamide has developed hematuria due to

release of which substance:
a) phosphoramide mustard
b) Acrolein
c) Mensa
ans: b

76. Etoposide causes DNA damage through inhibition:

a) Topoisomerase I
b) Topoisomerase II
c) Topoisomerase III
d) Topoisomerase IIII
ans: b
Note: Etoposide works by blocking an enzyme (called topoisomerase
2) which is necessary for cancer cells to divide and so grow into 2
new cells. If this enzyme is blocked, the cell's DNA gets tangled up
and the cell can't divide.
77. Letrozole: (came as 4 statements and then in the choices
combinations of them for example: a only, a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) mild androgenic SE
b) aromatase inhibitor
c) does not cause endometriosis (true as it treat endometriosis)
d) no need corticosteroid co administration ( Double check this one)
ans: b,c,d

78. Letrozole except:

a) mild androgenic SE
b) aromatase inhibitor
c) does not cause endometriosis (true as it treat endometriosis)
d) no need corticosteroid co administration
ans: a

79. Maximum duration for the use of tamoxifen is:

a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
ans: d
Note: After evaluating long-term results from recent studies, the
American Society of Clinical Oncology, ASCO, issued a guideline
update for tamoxifen therapy for hormone receptor-positive breast
cancer.
The update advises doctors to offer up to 10 years of tamoxifen
treatment, instead of the previous standard 5-year duration.

80. Patient was on cyclosporine and changes to tacrolimus)

Tacrolimus comparison with Cyclosporine all answers are true
except: (came as 4 statements and then in the choices combinations
of them for example : a only, a&b, b&d and so on …) – better to
double check each point
a) more potent
b) less nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity
c) longer duration
d) lower rejection rates
ans: b
* note: I think the answer is a and b, please double-check

81. Cyclosporine is more toxic in which route:

a) oral
b) IV
c) IM
d) SC
ans: b

82. Patient take DMARDs and after 2 weeks have eye problem
which drug cause that:
a) sulfalazine
b) hydroxyquine
ans: b

83. Enfuvirtide added to HIV patient regimen what true about it:
a) integrase inhibitor.
b) S)C
c) cant used without reconstitution
d) low side effects
ans: b, c &d
*a is wrong it is an infusion inhibitor

84.Enfuvirtide added to HIV patient regimen what true about it:

a. integrase inhibitor . Wrong as its fusion inhibitor
b. S.C
c. can used without reconstitution (false as its powder for
reconstitution)
d. low side effects (it was in all choices)
ans: b &d

85. Dose not promote hyperglycemia:

a) NSAID
B) Diuretic
c) opioid
d) nicotinic acid
b) salicylates
e) Cimetidine
ans: a

86. Does not potentiate the effects of sulphonylurea:

a) DiazoxideWhich Insulin type that's its reaction time is not effected
by site of administration?
b) Glargine (Lantus)
c) Isophane (Humuline)
d) Aspart
ans: a & b

87. Insulin that cannot be given as an IV:

a) Lispro (rapid acting)
b) Aspart (rapid acting)
c) Glulisine (rapid acting)
d) isophane
ans: d
#Infusion Human regular insulin may be injected directly into the
vein in a hospital setting under close medical supervision only.

88. All indications of diabetes except: (came as 4 statements and then

in the choices combinations of them for example : a only, a&b. b&d
and so on …)
a) Polyuria and unexplained weight loss
b) Random blood glucose of 200
c) Fasting blood glucose of 140
d) Blood glucose level of 200, 2 hours post oral glucose intake
ans: b

89. Which drug has least effect of hypoglycemia? (if acrabose is

there choose it)
a) metformin
b) glibenclamide
ans: a
90. Action of insulin except:
a) Decrease glucose production in liver
b) Decrease liver glucose uptake
c) Insert glucose in muscle and adipose tissue answer
ans: b

91. Adipose tissue and skeletal glucose transporter:

GLOUT4

92. Diabetic patient with Nephropathy complications, this called

a) Macrovascular complications
b) Microvascular complications
c) Neurological
ans: b

93. Medication for prophylaxis of migraine for a patient young

patient:
Propranolol

94. Sumatriptan is:

not used in the coronary artery disease, recurrent attacks is common
after first dose, less nausea than with ergotamine.
Which statement is true about sumatriptan:
statements about it being a serotonin antagonist —> false
Recurrence of the headache after administration is common -
Coronary artery disease is a relative contraindication less nausea -
symptoms than with dihydroergotamine recurrence of headache is
common

95. Thrombocytopenia caused by chemo therapy is treated with:

Oprelvekin

96. Used for anemia:

a) folic acid
b) B12
C) iron
d) erythropoietin
e) ALL
ans: e

97. Which drug is high alert and should always be properly labeled
and separated:
Epinephrine inj (epipen)

98. A child took peanut butter and he’s allergic to peanut; he

developed rashes and urticarial. What type of allergic reaction is
this?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
ans: a

99. Patient got stung by bee, suffered from severe bronchospasm,

and severe hypersensitivity reaction, which drug is most suitable for
this case:
a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Antihistaminic
ans: c

100. Ipratropium approved for:

a) Maintaining COPD
b) Asthma
ans: a

101. The best advice to a patient taking corticosteroid inhaler for

asthma (came as 4 statements and then in the choices combinations
of them for example : a only, a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) Take rapid breath after pressing the inhaler
b) Hold your breath for 10 seconds after complete inhalation
c) rinse your mouth with water after using the inhaler
d) keep one finger distance between your lips & the inhaler
ans: b & c

102. Side effect that most people who take B2 agonist may have:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Tremors
c) hypomagnesia
ans: b

103. Insulin secretion form:

a) B cell
b) Alpha cell
ans: a

104. after you open an inhaler, it will be valid for:

3 months

105. A child suffered from acute asthma attack and diagnosed with
asthma which single treatment for long term use to prevent
exacerbations of asthma:
a) Salmeterol
b)Ipratrobuim
c)Salbutamol
d) Corticosteroid
ans: d

106. Smoker with COPD, what is the drug of choice:

a) Busonide
b) Ipratopium
c) Theophyllin
d) Montelukast
ans:b

107. Medication in an Inhalation route can be used for long term to

control asthma:
a) Salmeterol
b) Budesonide
c) salbutamol
ans: b

108. What is antiphlogistic agent?

a) Cooling by evaporation
b) Makes the skin oily
c) irritates the skin and makes it red
d) do not remember
ans: a

109. Pt. experiences migraines 4-5 x a month. Most suitable migraine

prophylaxis:
Propranolol✔

110. What is true about antiglaucoma:

Reduce intraocular pressure

111. Pilocarpine used in all of the following except:

a) acute attack of closed angle of glaucoma
b) standard drug for close angle glaucoma
c) used alternatively with mydriatic to separate the iris
d) standard one for open angle glaucoma
ans: d

112. Patient with glaucoma taking ecothiophate, what’s the

reoccurring side effect?
a) Tonic pupil
b) Cataract
c) Strabismus
ans: b

113. Mydratic used to determine the true refractory error of the eye:
a) Atropine
b) Tropicamide
ans: b

114. Prostaglandin anti-glaucoma drug approved for eye lash

Hypotrichosis:
a) bimatoprost
b)latanoprost,
c)travoprost
d)Ilosopt
ans: a

115. Malathion is associated with a delayed toxicity (neurotoxicity)

that happens occasionally, which enzyme inhibition is associated
with it?
Acetylcholinesterase

116. Which is NOT a non-mast cell that produce histamine?

a) Adipose tissue
b) CNS cells
c) Epidermis
d) GI cells
ans: a

117. all are signs of atropine toxicity except:

a) constriction of the pupil
b) Dry mouth
c) hot skin (increase temp)
d) Tachycardia
e) Constipation
ans: a

118. Temp of refrigeration:

2-8

119. Titanium dioxide protects from sun mechanism:

a) Absorbs UV
b) Reflects UV
ans: b

120. case about immunosuppressive, Pt taking isoniazid, ethambutol,

rifampicin, pyrazinamide, which is least to cause urine discoloration?
Ethambutol
121. Which anti TB drug cause urine discoloration (reddish coulour):
Rifampicin

122. Mutation is the DNA dependent RNA polymerase causes

resistance to which drug?
Rifampicin

123. Pharmaceutical equivalent EXCEPT:

a) Same rate and extent of absorption (bioavailability)
b) same route
c) same active ingredient
ans: a

124. Generic drug means:

I name of active ingredient
II drug that is not manufactured by the original company
III drug that is not under the protection by patent from the original
company
a) I
B) II, III
Ans: b

125. Patient came to the pharmacy, he was angry and shouting he

want to buy a medicine but as a pharmacist following the roles only
can give (medicine Sold):
Original Packet / pack / leaflet / strip
- ALL

126. Patient with low Hb, low small RBCs, which medicine can
decrease the cell size plus iron
a) Vitamin B12
b) folic acid
c) erythropoietin
ans: c
127. Emulsion preparation and it is homogenous but with oil droplet
on the glass ,The emulsion will reform on shaking this is called:
a) Oiling
b) creaming
c) Cracking
ans: b

128. Emulsions undergoing different temperatures by increasing the

temperature so what the effect will happen to it
a-oilinga
b -Molting
C –Caking
d –cracking
ans: d

129. least likely to be seen in a typical tablet formulation:

volatile solvent

130. effects of all of the following not mediated by the action of a

receptor except:
a) Chlosgramine
b) AL.OH
c) Mannitol
d) Neostigmine
Ans: d

131. Semi control is:

CDB class B

132. Case of patient had injury and result in HIB 6 months ago, what
is the least effective in his case
a) Interferon
b) HBV Vaccine
c) HBV immunoglobulin
ans: b
*must be given with 24 hours to maximum of 7 days after exposure -
CDC
133. Histamine autorecepteor found neurons:
H3

134. Semicontrol drug what is true :

a) licensed GP can prescribe for 30 days with no refill
b) specialist prescribe for 30 days with one refill
c) Rx valid duration is no more than 3 days from the date of Rx
d) all
ans: d

135. Semicontrol drug are:

CDB group 5

136. Controlled drug:

a) licensed GP can prescript for only 3 days
b) refill must not be issued for control medicine
c) duration of Rx to be dispense is no more than 2 days from the date
of Rx
d) all
ans: d

137. Which treatment is more safely for outpatient with pulmonary

embolism
a)heparin only
b)heparin + fendaparinux
c)fendaparinux + low molecular weight heparin
d)fendaparinux + heparin + low molecular weight heparin
ans: c

138. Leprosy treatment resistance due to:

a)treatment with one drug
b) lepromatous leprosy
c) inherent resistant
d) all
ans: d
139. Pt was using pilocarpine for previous 3 years and suddenly she
suffered from breathing difficulty what is best to give manage he
condition:
a) atropine
b) Ephinephrine
ans: a

140. patient was using pilocarpine for 3 years without medical

?supervision suddenly experienced loss of breath. Management:
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Atropine
ans: a

141. Pt with electroconvulsent and severe psychosis best anesthesia;

a) halothane
b) methohexital
ans: b

142. Best anesthesia for a cardiac surgery with cardia problem:

a) fentanyl
b) morphine
c) Lidocaine
d)propoxaphen
ans: a

143. Not used in atrial fibrillation:

a) Lidocaine
b) quinidine
c) procainamide
d) flecaninde
ans: a

144. Drug associated with life threatening hyperkalemia:

spironolactone

145.What type of antagonists is phenoxybenzamine:

irreversible antagonist

146. Pt has sickle cell and suffered from painful symptoms and side
effect what medicine can be helpful:
hydroxurea

147. Tablet not using disintegrating, lubricant agent to slow its

dissolution:
effervesant tablet

148. Topical treatment for hair loss(baldness) for 25 years old male:
Minoxidil

149. Injectable anticoagulant mechanism of action:

a) potentiate anti thrombin III effect
b) antiplatelet aggregation
c) inhibit coagulation factors synthesis
ans: a
note: as injectable is heparin

150. NOT FIRST LINE treatment for TB:

a) streptomycin
b) INH
c) Rifampicin
d) pyrazinamide
ans: a

151.Which of the following is not used in TB treatment

a. INZ ( isoniazid )
b. Refampin
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol
e. PZN
Ans: c

152. Facilitated diffusion is:

need transported down chemical gradient similar to P glycoprotein
found in the intestine and does not need energy

153. All SE of desipramine except:

bradycardia

154. Pt was taking botox injection for wrinkels in her face , what is a
common SE:
a) respiratory paralysis
b) Strabismum
c) Blepharospasm
ans: a
* Please check the percentages of prevalence as the Q said
“common” SE. I do not think the answer is a

155. Estrogen used in menopause women?

ethenylestradiol

156. Site where gastric histamine is secreted :

enterochromafin like cells

157. The main acid drug carrier in plasma:

Albumin

158. All of the following are properties of controlled release drugs

except:
low cost

159. A drug that has high risk for thrombosis and MI

celecoxib

160. Drug used in athletes foot:

a) griseofulvin
b) clotrimazole
c) nystatin
ans: a & b
161. Conductivity test ,dilution test, dye test used for :
a) Suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Foam
d) Gel
ans: b

162. Conductivity in emulsion, the dispersed phase for such

emulsion is:
a) Aqueous
b) Non aqueous
c) Aqueous and non-aqueous
d) Oily
ans: b

163. Which is true about dry gum emulsion:

a) Ratio 4:2:1
b) Water gum and oil are added together and triturated slowly
c) Oil and gum are triturated and water added slowly
ans: a
N.B.: DRY : gum and oil are triturated and water added at once
WET : gum and water are triturated and oil added slowly

164.Emulsion inversion:
Conversion of W/O emulsion to O/w emulsion and vice versa

165. Foam in pharmacy spray:

a) Topical
b) Burn dressing
c) Rectal
d) All
ans: a

166. Advantage of IV route is true: (without except)

a) Used in emergency
b) Dose can be titrated
c) Fastest
d) Safe and convenient
ans: A ,B,C---TRUE

167. Advantages of IV route over oral route:

A. safe and convenient, rapid onset, dose can be titrated, can be
used in ER
B. safe and convenient, can be used in ER
C. rapid onset, dose can be titrated, can be used in ER
D. rapid onset, can be used in ER
ans: c

168. Affect dissolution rate, absorption rate, content uniformity and

stability:
a) Particle size
b) Size distribution
c) Interaction with surface molecule
d) All
ans: d

169. Particle size affect which of the following :

a) Solubility
b) Dissolution
c) Content uniformity
d) Suspendabililty
e) Penetrability
f) all
ans: ALL

170. 50% alcohol is to be diluted with purified water, how many

parts of purified water (0% alcohol) to prepare 20% preparation:
a) 20 parts 50% alcohol + 30parts water
b) 30 part alcohol +20 part water.
c) 50 part alcohol+50 part water
ans: a

171. Case: Parkinson’s symptoms:

i Tremor & agitation
ii Difficulty to initiate & voluntary
movements
iii Abnormalities in postural and
normal position
ans: All

172. Best drug to decrease the exacerbation IBS:

prednisolone

173. Carvidopa used with levodopa to:

Inhibit peripheral conversion (decarboxylation) to dopamine

174. Effect of levodopa decreased with which vitamin:

a) B12
b) B6
c) B2
d) B3
ans: b

175. Effect of levodopa on body diminished :

a) After less than 3 yrs
b) After 2 yrs
c) After 3 yrs up to 5 yrs
d) after 5 yrs
ans: c

176. Drug not used in Parkinson:

a) Levodopa
b) Bromocriptine
c) Chlorthalidone
ans: c
N.B.: NOT USE IN PARKINSON:
( 1- Chlorthalidone 2- Chlorpromazine 3- Halopridol )
whose major pharmacologic action is blockade of dopamine
receptors in the brain , may produce parkinsonian symptoms also
called psuedoparkimsonism)
177. Antiviral used for influenza and Parkinson:
a) Amantidine
b) Lamuvidine
c) Zidovudine
ans: a

178. Non-competitive ACH except:

a) Rivastigmine
b) Tacrine c)
Donazepil
d) Galantamine
ans: d
N.B : - Galantamine is used to treat mild to moderate confusion
(dementia) related to Alzheimer's disease. It does not cure Alzheimer's
disease, but it may improve memory, awareness, and the ability to
perform daily functions
- It is a reversible, competitive inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase
(AChE)

179. Regarding Fluoxetine:

a) Half life is 50 hrs
b) Have a metabolite as active as the prodrug
c) Used in bulimia nervosa
d) Undergo first pass effect
e) All
ans: e
N.B: Fluoxetine
(trade names Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant, used to treat major depressive
disorder, bulimia nervosa (an eating disorder), obsessive-compulsive
disorder, panic disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder
(PMDD),

180. Case about patient recently widowed, is suffering from severe

depression, is taking imipramine
TCA mechanism inhibit / TCA block the uptake of :
a) NE
b) 5HT
c) 5HT & NE
d) Dopamine
ans: c

181. Alprazolam (Xanax) (CDA) must stor in :

steel cupboard well closed with single lock

182.TCA metabolized by:

CYP450

183. TCA act on all , EXCEPT:

a) alpha adrenoreceptor
b) beta adrenoreceptor
c) muscarinic receptor
d) Histamine receptor
ans: b

184. TCA used in all except:

a) panic attack
b) Schizophrenia
c) Migraine
d) Neuropathic pain
ans: b

185. For treating morphine dependence all of the following except :

A. Buprenorphine
B. Clonidine
C. Codiene
D. Methadone
Ans: c

186. patients admitted with morphine over dose what is the

appropriate treatment:
answer... Naloxone
187. Patients admitted with morphine over dose what is the
appropriate treatment:
a) Naletraxone
b) Methadone
c) Prozethacain
ans: a
* Please check as there was no naloxone in the choices

188. Morphine cause tolerance except:

a) Respiratory depression
b) Euphoria
c) analgesia
d) Pin point pupil
ans: d

189. Morphine cause tolerance (without except):

answer..1- euphoria 2- respiratory depression

190. Meperidine not suitable for use long time because:

a) Nephrotxicity
b) Neurotoxicity
c) Cardiotoxicity
ans: b
N.B : Meperidine is used to help relieve moderate to severe pain. It
may also be used before and during surgery or other procedures.
Meperidine belongs to a class of drugs known as opioid(narcotic)
analgesics and is similar to morphine

191. DOC for status epilepsy:

a) clonazepam
b) diazepam
c) Phenobarbital
ans: b
Note: 1st à Diazepam 2nd à Clonazepam 3rd à phenytoin

192. In absence seizure all of the following prescribed except:

a) Ethosuxamide
b) Diazepam
c) Lamotrigine
d) Carbamezapine
ans: d

193. in absence seizure which is not effective

Answer: carbamezapine

194. In pregnancy all are avoided except:-

a) Phenytoin
b) Phenobarbital
c) Valproic acid
d) Clonazepam
ans:d

195. safe for pregnancy or can use for pregnancy:

answer... carbamazepine
N.B: used for Seizure in pregnancy :
1st-carbamazepine 2nd-Clonzepam
patient with acute mania , which drug isn’t effective:
answer... phenytoin
N.B: NOT USE OR NOT Effective :
1- phenytoin 2- chlorpromazine
USED IN TTT. : 1-lithium 2-Valproate 3-carbamazepine 4-
lamotrigine

196. In absence seizure all of the following prescribed except:

a) Ethosuxamide
b) Valproate
c) Lamotrigine
d) Phenytoin
ans : d

197. DOC in status epilepsy:

phenytoin

198. All can use in acute Mania ,Except:

Chlorpromazine

Diagram 1

199. Drug above MTC will show :

a) Toxicity
b) Side effect
ans: a

200. Drug below MEC will be:

a) Toxic
b) Ineffective
ans: b

201. High Therapeutic index mean:

No side effect

202. Conc. at CMAX. is 23.5 ,the T will be:

a) 2hrs
b) 3hrs
c) 4hrs
d) 5hrs
ans: b

Diagram2
203. T max of IV curve :
zero

204. Tmax of oral curve :

4 hr

205. Assume zero order for iv curve what will be

the t half:
12hr
The colored area reflect:
AUC
206. Which is true:
Onset of IV is faster than oral

Diagram 3

207. Time of drug remain in the body:

24hrs

208. What is colored area:

Area under the concentration-time curve

209.MTC:
Minimum toxic concentration

210.MEC:
Minimum effective concentration

211.Goal:
to keep drug concentration between MTC and MEC

212. phenytoin S.E. all , Except :

a) Gingival hyperplasia
b) Nystagmus
c) Nephrotoxicity
d) Steven-Johnson syndrome
ans: c

213. Pt is taking anti-seizure medication and wants to stop it, which

of the following low recurrence:
a) EEG abnormalities
b) Frequent seizure attack
c) Cerebral known lesions
d) Seizure began at early age
ans: d

214.How many mg to give a 27kg child if the dose is 1.2mg/kg:

32mg
215. Regarding prazocin:
i) Have first dose effect
ii) Most patients not developed tolerance to this effect
iii) First dose effect not decrease with decreasing dose
iiii) Not usually occur in most patients
ans: a

216. SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

secretion) cause all of the following except:
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypernatremia
c) Water excess
d) Inadequate vasopressin production
ans: b

217. All of the following are side effects of thiazide diuretics except:
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypocalcaemia
c) Hyperuricemia
d) Hypervolemia
ans: b

218. Loop diuretics are contraindicated in all of the following except:

a) Renal diseases
b) Sensitivity to sulfonamides
c) Anuria despite using loop diuretics
d) Na and water depletion
ans: a

219. Pseudoephedrine except options :

a) Mixed agonist
b) Short action
c)Synthetic analogue
d) Tachphalaxis on repeated administration
ans: b
* please double check
220 - Pseudoephedrine except options :
a. Mixed agonist
b. Short action
c. Synthetic analogue
d. Tachphalaxis on repeated administration
Ans: c

221.DOC for pregnant hypertension:

a) methyldopa
b) Hydralazine
ans: a

222. Patient taking ACEl which antacid should not be used?

a) Calcium carbonate
b) Magnesium
c) Aluminum
d) Potassium bicarbonate
ans: d due to high risk of hyperkalemia

223. Case patient taking procarbazine. Which amino acid is

contraindicated:
a)phenylalanine
b)tyramine
c)valine
d)leucine
ans: b

224. Patient with arrhythmia given medication that decrease the

velocity and force of contractility which one of this drugs:
a- lisnopril
b-Hydrclothizide
c-valsrtan
d-verapmil
ans: d
225. Long case about patient diagnosed with MI and arrhythmia
discharged from the hospital 10 days ago which drug is suitable :
a) Verapamil
b) Lidocaine
c) Quinidine
d) Sotalol
ans: a

226. Which of the following is not true about dry cough associated
with ACEI :
a) Mediated by bradykinin and substance p
b) In women more than men
c) Develops within 6 months
d) Dose related
ans: d

227. Patient with infection sensitive to tetracycline , pt is renal

impaired Which one of tetracyclines is suitable for him:
a) Doxycycline
b) Minocycline
c) Tetracycline
ans : a

228. All the following drugs decrease B blockers activity except :

a) Phenytoin
b) Phenobarbital
c) Rifampin
d) Fluoxetine
ans: d

229. Bacteria move by:

Flagella

230. Chest x ray show what like to cause this infection:

M. avium complex

231. Primaquine is contraindicated in all of the following except:

a) SLE,RA
b) G6PD deficiency
c) Lactating female
d) Pregnancy
ans: c

232. pro-kinetic drug has anti emetic effect:

a) domepridone
b) Cisapride
ans: a

233. Prevent remission in IBD (Inflammatory bowel disease):

Infliximab

234. Charcoal used in poisoning due to which properties:

a) Adsorption
b) Absorption
c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
ans : a

235. Pt. have lower HDL and lower dyslipidemia management :

a) Atorvastatin
b) Niacin
c) Fenofibtates
d) Rosuvastatin
ans: b

236. Used in motion sickness:

Scopolamine
Note: Used in motion sickness 1-cinnarazine 2-scopolamine
(hyoscine) 3-piperazine (stugeron) 4-promethazine (phenegran
,avomine)

237. Antacid used in ICU(intensive care unit):

a) Proton pump inhibitor
b) Anti-H2
c) Prostaglandin analogue
d) Sucralfate
ans: a

238. Which of the following is not fungus:

a) Yeast
b) Mushroom
c) Mucor
d) Escherichia
ans: d

239. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome except:

a) Not effected by glucocorticoids or anti-inflammatories
b) The action of antiviral starts
c) Patient start to respond to treatment
ans: a

240. myasthenia gravis which all are true except:

a) Autoimmune disease against Ach receptors
b) Diagnosed by edrophonium
c) Not treated with corticosteroids
ans: c

241.TB. medication, flu,PYZ,RMP ,which is the SE. of INH :

Peripheral neuropathy
Note
•ethambutol is EMB or E,
•isoniazid is INH or H,
•pyrazinamide is PZA or Z,
•rifampicin is RMP or R,
•streptomycin is SM or S

242. Which of the following is CI in Parkinson’s:

Haloperidol

243. B adrenergic agonist least effect:

Begin prostatic hypertrophy
244. The drug of choice for absence seizure:
Ethosuximide

245. the main reason why we use more than one medication inTb
regimen is:
a) prevent resistance
b) less SE
c) more patient compliance (not sure it was in choices)/or better
tolerance (not sure if it was there)
d) All of them
ans: a

246. Picture of nail with thick texture and brown discoloration, Nail
fungal infection DOC:
a) Fluconazole
b) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
ans: b
Note: According to the British Association of Dermatologists, the
guidelines goes by terbinafine OR itraconazole in the first line

247. Contraceptive contraindicated with lactating mother:

a) Progestin alone
b) combination
c) copper T (loop)
d) condoms
ans: b
Note:Estrogen only 1st then Combination 2nd

248. Female is menopause, she experiences hot flushes, developed

spinal osteoporosis which to use?
a) Alendronate
b) Estrogen and progesterone
c) progestin
ans: a
 Note :If there is no alderonate in choices, the answer will be
(estrogen and progesterone)
249. All are factors affect cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF) penetration
Except:
a) lipid solubility
b) water solubility
c) Molecular weight
d) Plasma protein binding
ans: b

250. Pentation through CSF )cerebrospinal fluid( depends on all

except:
a.Lipid soulibility
b.Water soulibility
c.Mwt
d.protein binding
ans: d

251. IBS (irritable bowel syndrome) symptoms and the physician

advised the patient to eliminate dairy products from diet for about 3
months, which symptom the patient have?
a) chronic constipation
b) chronic diarrhea
c) alternatively constipation and diarrhea
ans: a
note: diary products cause constipation

252. Which is not given for constipation?

a) Lactulose
b) Loperamide
c) Na-Pico sulfate
d) Docusate sodium
ans: b

253. All of the following cause constipation except:

a) Bisacodyl
b) Morphine
c) Calcium
d) ACEI
ans: a

254. A patient suffers from esophagus reflex , which additional

symptoms if happened the patient should be referred to cardiologist?
a) mild pain in arms
b) pain in central abdominal
c) pain that spread to jaws, neck, shoulders and arms
d) pain in illu fosse "something like this"
ans: c

255. Patient has a problem in bowel emptying, he develops pain

while passing stool, Which is the least likely condition to cause this
constipation?
a) Bowel obstruction
b) IBD
c) Carcinoma
d) hyperthyroidism
ans: d (hyperthyroidism cause bowel movements and diarrhea )

256. Pharmacist monitoring of drug dispensing and refill will give an

idea about:
a) Drug utilization
b) Drug disposal
c) Drug adherence
ans: a

257. What’s the type of study that’s MOST reliable?

a) Cohort randomized trials
b) Case study
c) Case report
d) case series
ans: a
258. What’s the type of study that’s LEAST reliable? Memorize
types of studies please
- Cohort randomized
- Case study
- Case report
- Case scenario
Ans: a

259. What’s the type of study that’s LEAST reliable? Memorize

types of studies please
- Cohort randomized
- Case study
- Case report
- Case scenario
Ans: c
Note:
As you move up the pyramid the study
designs are more rigorous and allow for
less bias or systematic error that may
distract you from the truth

260. Manufacturer recall of medication from pharmacy is called:

a) Voluntary call
b) Immediate recall
c) involuntary call
ans: a

261. patient with ED (erectile dysfunction) and take Sildenafil which

one is absolute CI with sildenafil:
isosorbide dinitrate

262. A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow

release morphine sulphate tablets, 15 mg twice daily, to a liquid
morphine sulphate dosage form because the patient has difficulty in
swallowing tablets. If a morphine sulphate solution containing 5 mg
per mL is prescribed q4h, what volume should be dispensed for a 20
day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet regimen?
a) 20 ml
b)40 ml
c)60 ml
d)120 ml
ans: d

263. Case of female who has panic when she has to speak to
audience. Treatment of acute panic attack:
a) benzodiazepines
b) TCAs
c) antipsychotics
D)SSRIs
e) Buspirone
ans: a

264. True about SSRIs:

a) Best For long term use
b) Effect takes 1-4 weeks to occur
c) Can't be used as first line for anxiety disorders
ans: a

265. True about SSRIs:

a. most effective in chronic anxiety disorders
b. give effect 1-4 weeks.
c. can't be first line for anxiety disorders
ans: a
note: effect within 6-8weeks

266. Benzodiazepines EXCEPT:

a) Muscle relaxants
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antrograde amnesia
d) antipsychotics
ans: d
267. DOC with b blockers in aortic dissection
a)minoxidil
b)hydralazine
c)diazoxide
d)sodium nitroprusside
ans: d
N.B 1st line ttt b blocker ( may with na nitro prusside as the only V.D
can dilate arteries and viens , others dilate viens only)
2nd line cardioselective CCBs (diltiazem and verapamil)

268. Contraindicated in CHF :

a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) Nefidipine (as it will cause reflex tachycardia worsening the case)
c) captopril
d) digoxin
ans:b

269. Enalapril, which is not beneficial effect:

a) decrease inotropic effect
b) decrease renin release
c) decrease angiotensin effect
ans: b

270. Enalapril not beneficial effect:

a. decrease inotropic effect
b. decrease renin release
c. decrease angiotensin effect
d. V.D by brady kinnin accumulation
ans: d

271. Case of patient using 4 drugs ( enalapril, simvastatin,

amiodarone? ..) , which one of them can cause dry cough:
Enalapril

272. Not enalapril SE:

a) Dry cough
b) Angioedema
c) hypokalemia
d) postural hypotension
ans: c

273. Ramipril physiological actions (something like that)

a) Hypokalemia
b) Low level of potassium
c) Increased renin in plasma
d) Angiotensin II receptor inhibitor
ans: c

274. ACEI can increase level of

? a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) magnesium
ans: b

275. Hypertension emergency which one to use:

a) sodium nitroprusside
b) Clonidine
C) Captopril
ans: a

276. Patient on hydrochlorothiazide that was not effective.

Additional antihypertensive which rapidly decreased blood presssure
in first 2 hours?
Atenolol
ans: a

277. Which one would reduce BP in 2 hours?

a) Atenolol
b) Captopril
ans: b
*according to Lang the answer is ramipiril but it was not in the
choices so I think it should be captopril since it is same class
278. Which of the following causes tachycardia:
a)Propranolol
b)verapamil
c)diltiazem
d)isosorbide dinitrate
ans: d

279. When giving ethambutol for a long duration, continuous follow-

up/check-up is necessary because of this condition:
a) Renal failure
b) Liver dysfunction
c) vision problem ( ocular toxicity )
ans: c

280. Pt take infusion of 200mg/500ml in rate of 0.5mg/ml (or

something like that any way u will not need) what is the
concentration of solution in microqram/ml :
400 ml

281. How ml u need to add to 1ml of 1:1000 to converted to 1:2500:

1.5 ml
c1v1 = c2v2 (find v2 then subtract v2-v1)

282. How many gram of 5% ointment will be prepared from 2 gm :

40g (2*100/5)

283. How many gram will be in 250 ml of 5% solution :

12.5g (250 *5 /100)

284. 10 ml ampoule of 3% drug how many mls required to give

150mg dose?
a-3ml
b-5ml
c-7ml
d-9ml
ANS: B
285. All are side effects of ACEI except:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Low level of potassium
c. dry cough
d. angioedema
ans: a

286. Not used for MRSA (methicillin resistant staphylococcus

aerus):
a. amoxicillin +clavulinic acid
b. Dicloxacillin
c. Erythromycin
d. Doxycyclin
ans: c

287. Not used for MRSA (methicillin resistant staphylococcus

aerus):
a. amoxicillin +clavulinic acid
b. Dicloxacillin
c. Erythromycin
d. Doxycyclin
ans: b

288. Used for MRSA:

a. cefopodoxime (3rd)
b. cepoperazone (3rd)
c. Azithromycin
d. cefazoline (1st)

289. Type of penicillin that cannot be administered IV:

a. Penicillin G
b. Penicillin V
ans: b

290. What infection the previous antibiotic cause:

a. heleicobacter pylori
b. E.coli
c. shigella
d. Clostridium difficle
ans: d
the question was(what infection result from excessive intake of
antibiotic)

291. Grey color baby due to antibiotic:

a. chloramphenicol

292. Antibiotic cause ear problem (ototoxicity) needs audiometry:

a. streptomycin
Note: all aminoglycosides cause ototoxicity (gentamycin, amikacin,
tobramycin, neomycin and streptomycin)

293. TB regimen combination benefits:

a. treat resistance
b. less SE
c. more patient compliance (not sure it was in choices)
d. All of them
ans: a

294. What is the drug of choice of HSV infection?

a. acyclovir

295. true about Paracetamol:

a. small risk of Reyes syndrome (wrong as it has no risk, the small
risk is for aspirin)
b. anti-inflammatory (it has very weak or no anti-inflammatory
action)
c. inhibit PG in CNS
d. no platelet action (aspirin has antiplatelet action)
answer: c & d

296. Paracetamol :
Analgesic, Antipyretic , selective cox3 inhibitor, No platelet action ,
no anti inflammatory action
297. Aspirin difference from other NSAIDS:
a. has cardio beneficial effect
b. irreversible COX inhibitor
c. can't stop arthritis progression
ans: a & b

298. Aspirin overdose symptoms are all of the following except:

a. Hypothermia
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory depression
d. convulsions
Note: Aspirin Poisoning signs are: * Common - ringing in the ears -
tachypnea , that causes respiratory alkalosis - Nausea, vomiting -
Metabolic acidosis (because of the tachypnea) *Severe - Pulmonary
Edema - Hyperthermia - Neurological effects: come, seizures,
cerebral edema - Renal failure

299. Patient with gout history present to ER with gouty attack, which
NSAID is contraindicated:
a. Aspirin.
b. sulindac
c. Ibuprofen
ans: a
Note:Speaking about NSAID use in gout, Aspirin is not favored as it
reduces the excretion of uric acid leading to higher blood-uric acid
levels which worsen the condition. The best NSAIDs to use with
gout are: ibuprofen 800 mg TID and Indomethacin 25 to 50 mg QID
.

300.When patient take prophylaxis therapy for gout:

a. more than One attack per year
b. Association with Kidney stones
c. ureate excretion 500 mg
d. blood urea level 10mg/dl
Ans. B&D correct
note: Pt consider for Prophylaxis if,
* 1.blood urea>10mg/dl(normal<6mg/dl),
* 2.urate excretion>1000mg/24hrs,
* 3.more than two attacks/yr,
* 4.Asociated with Kidney stone

301.NSAIDS contraindicated with sulfa sensitivity:

a. Celecoxib
b. Ibuprofen
c. naproxen
d. indomethacin
ans: a

302. Treatment of osteoporosis for menopausal woman:

a. Alendronate
b. Estrogen and progesterone
ans: a

303. Which Insulin type that's its reaction time is not effected by site
of administration?
a. Glargine (Lantus)
b. Isophane (Humuline)
answer: A

304. Sulfasalazine prevents the absorption of which element:

a. Folate
79. Used in motion sickness except:
a. Hyoscine (scopolamine)
b. Meclizine
c. Promethazine HCL
d.propamide
ans: d

305. Which iron/ folate dose is questionable?

a. 120 mg for 20 kg child
b. 90 mg for 15 kg child
c. 21 mg for 7 kg infant
d. 30 mg for 6 kg infant
ans: d
Note: child: every 1 kg 6mg
infant : every 1 kg 3mg

306. UTI infection in pregnancy

A. Augmentin
B. Floroquinolones
C. TMP/SMX
Ans: a

307. clindamycin for 35 kg child strength(8-20 mg/kg) for 4 doses

and strength of tablet 100 mg what is the safe dose or children?
a.70 mg every 6 hr
b.150mg every 6 hr
c.175mg every 6 hr
ans: b

308. metformin other use is

polycystic ovarian syndrome

309. Patient with COPD taking beta agonist and corticosteroid, but
his condition is still not properly controlled, which of these drugs
should he add to his regimen?
a.Cromolyn
b. Ipratrobium
c. Beclomethasone
d. Salbutamol
Ans: b

310. Which is true about Sumatriptan

1. 5HT agonist
2. prevent migraine
3. available orally or nasal spray
4. All
Ans: 4

311. Propranolol not used in:

Partial AV block

312. Used to differentiate between myasenthia gravis and cholinergic

crisis:
a. CT scanning and MRI
b. Ice Pack Test
c. Edrophonium test
d. atropine test
ans: c

313. pt using dopamine infusion with 2.5mcg/kg/min, pt wt

80kg,how many ml of dopamine pt will consume if dopamine
ampoule con 0.8mg/1ml with in 24 hours
360ml

314. Case about a patient took lovastatin all of the following are side
effect except:
A-myopathy
B-rhabdomyolysis
C-renal dysfunction
D-hepatic dysfunction
Ans: c

315. bumetanide true about it :

A. cause Ototoxicity
B. Need potassium treatment with it
C. Contraindicated with sulphonamide sensitivity
D. All of the above
ans: d

316. which of the following is DOC in the treatment of Diabetes

Insipidus
a) Gliclazide
b) Vasopressin
c) Desmopressin
Ans: c
317.case about a patient had an organophoshorous toxicity , all of the
following are side effect except:
A-Cyclopegia
B-Miosis
C-Skeletal muscle weakness
D-GIT disturbance
Ans: a

318. atorvastatin10mg =
20 mg simvastatin

319. case about a patient came to emergency with high blood

pressure and they gave him minoxidil what’s the Mechanism Of
Action:
A-decrease HR and decrease contractility
B-decrease arterial pressure and increase contractility
C-Increase HR and increase contractility
Ans: b

320. Minoxidil used in ttt of hypertension what is its action ?

a. decreased heart rate & increased contractility
b. increase heart rate & increase contractility
c. increased heart rate & decreased contractility
ans: b

321. MoA of minoxidil :

1_decrease arterial pressure
2_increase heart rate
3_increase contractility

322. which of the following doesn't cross CNS ; -

A-Carbachol
B-Physiotgmine.
C-Neostigmine
D-Bethanecol
Ans:c
323. Phenoxybenzamine is irreversile adrenergic anatagonist used in
:
A-HTN
B- BPH
C- pheochromocytoma
D-all
Ans: c

324. which one of the following is true about botulinum toxicity :

A-Acetylcholieterase receptors blockade
B-Treated with choline infusion
C- act on preganglionic ends
D- Irreversible toxicity
Ans: c

325. Which of the following if used for long term can increase
acetaminophen toxicity:
A-Verapamil
B-Cimitidine
C-Ethanol
Ans: c

326-Which part of the component considered as the heart of

the can ?
A.valve
B.propalent
C.tube
Ans: a

327-tamoxifen not used in:

advanced breast cancer

328. Case of patient having parkinson’s disease,This patient is taking

selegiline , this drug should be taken along with:
A.levodopa
B.carbidopa
C. buspirone
Ans: a

329. Child 6 month weight 3 Ib 7 oz dose to take inection

600gm/50ml ,How many mills to be taken as following :
1200gm &10mg/kg/day divided every 12 hr
2000gm & 0-7years 10mg/kg/day divided every 12hr
2000gm & >7years old 15mg/kg/day divided every 8hr
2000gm & >7years old 10mg/kg/day divided every 12hr
2000gm & 0-7years old 15mg/kg/day divided every 8hr
a- 0.56
b- 0.67
ans: b

330. Case of a patient asked for an OTC for her constipation, she
said that she experienced painful defecation . you decided to transfer
her to a physician because you think she have
a.Anal fissure
b.Anal fistula
c.Rectal fissure
d.Rectal abscess
ans: a

331.The child’s dose of a drug is reported as 1.2 mg/kg/ body weigh.

What is the appropriate does for a child weighing 60lb?? (In my
exam all weights were in Kg)
a-6mg
b-9mg
c-32mg
d- 72 mg
Ans: c

332. Case of a child having diarrhea , he had 2 bowel movements

within 3 hours , what should you give?
a.loperamide
b.ors
c.antibiotic
ans: b
333. patient came to pharmacy and bought a UTI indicator test,
which of the following is true?
A.it’s a test that convert dietary nitrite to nitrous
B. it’s a test that indicate anaerobic bacteria only
C.it’s a case that indicate gram positive bacteria only
D.it’s a kit that contains 30 dipstick in a packet
Ans: a

334. Which of the following is true?

A.Aspirin used as anti inflammatory, antipyretic , and as a
prophylaxis for secondary MI
B-paracetamol is used as an analgesic, antipyretic, and as an
antiplatelet in small cocentrations
C-diclofenac is used as analgesic , antipyretic , used as antiplatelet in
small concentrations
Ans: a

335. pateint come to pharmacy asked about his hand , he have gray
burrow's on web ......
a.scabies
B.psoriasis
Ans: a

336.epinephrine cause all except:

a- increase systolic pressure
b- hyperglycemia....
c- Lipogenisis
Ans: c

337-T 4 binds to:

a- albumin
b- thyroxine binding globulinc.
c- Trans thyretine
d- all of the above
Ans: d
338. medicines that are sensitive to light should be put in :
Colored Amber container

339. Simvastatin causes serious interaction with:

a. Amiodar (mention trade name of amiodarone)
b. Verapamil
c. Aspirin
ans: a
340. Patient with hypertension and renal failure which diuretic suitable for
him:
a. Chlorthiazide
b. Triametrene
c. Furosemide
d. Spironolactone
ans: c

341. Patient with hypertension and gout which antihypertensive drug suitable
for him:
a. Chlorthiazide
b. Torsemide
c. Metolazone
d. Tenormin (atenolol)
ans: d

342. Patient with hypertension and congestive heart failure with ejection
fraction 28% which suitable antihypertensive for him:
a. Clonidine
b. Gaunithidine
c. Diltiazem
d. Nisoldipine
ans: d

343. Droperidol:
a. Phenothiazines
b. Slows α rhythm in EEG
c. Not act directly on CTZ
ans: b
344. All of the following drugs are avoided with azathioprine except:
a. Propranolol
b. Allopurinol
c. Enalapril
d. Cant remember
ans: a

345. The metabolic effect of combining glucocorticoid and tacrolimus is:

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hyponatremia
Ans: b

346. All of the following are uses of cholinergic agonist except:

a. Glaucoma
b. Atony of bladder
c. Megacolon
d. Sjogrens
ans: d

347. If drug is taken by incorrect route, what will happen:

a. Ineffective
b. Toxicity
c. Drug interaction
d. Omission of doses
Ans: ALL

348. Clozapine blocks which receptor (s):

a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin and dopamine
d. Dopamine and norepinephrine
ans: c
349. Heparin is given to patient wt 75 Kg premixed with 25,000 unit in 250
ml of D5W , rate 15 unit/Kg/hr, what total amount of heparin in 6 hrs?
6750 units

350. Prescription was 4 mg bd, pharmacist dispense 120 mg, what is the
amount remained with patient after 7 days?
8x7=56 , 120-56=64

351. Patient with G6PD deficiency and UTI, which suitable antibiotic for
him:
cefuroxime

352. Which antiplatelet cause agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia and aplastic

anemia:
a. Ticlopedine
b. Clopidogril
c. Aspirin
d. Abciximab
ans: a

353. patient has HIV, which NRTI cause lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis:
a. Zidovudine
b.stavudine
ans: b

354. In filteration ophthalmic atrophy due to :

A.Hyperthyroiditis
B.Toxic unilateral goiter
C.toxic bilateral goiter
D. Graves disease
Ans: d

355. which drug inhibit p450 with warfarin :

A.Cimitidine
B.Alcohol
Ans: a
356. How to differentiate between typical and Atypical parkinsonism
extrapyramidal Side effects

357. All irreversible except:

A.Malathion
B.Ecothiophate
C.parathion
D. piperzidine
Ans: d

358. negative symptoms apathy and blunted are benefit with:

A.Respiridone
b.Haloperidol
c.fluphenazine
D.chloropromazine
Ans: a

359. physiological mediator for acid secretion in stomach :

A.Gastrin
B.histamin
C.Muscurinic
D.vagal response
Ans: a

360. If the dose 2mg /KG want to add to 500 ml of dextran 5% .and
the patient is 80 kg ..how many millileter we need to add to dextrose
if we have drug 5mg /10ml ?
320 ml

361. All symptoms of anti parkinsons drug are reversible except?

A.Parkinsonism symptoms
B.Dystokyia
C. tradive dyskinesia
Ans: c

362. drug which is poorly absorbed,has analgesic activity,anti

diarreal and controlled drug:
a.morphine
b.naproxen.
c.loperamide
ans: a

363. Norepinephrine least effect on

B2

364. used to treat hypercapnia

doxapram
365. pt. has pain in his left eye and he sees halo around light
A. Glaucoma
B.cataract
Ans: a
Cataract ,,,,,blurred vision
Glaucoma ,,,,,pain

366. Morphine can be dispensed in:

A) regular prescription prescribed by physician
B) registered prescription prescribed by physician
C) narcotic prescription prescribed by licensed physician
D) narcotic prescription prescribed by a licensed pharmacist
Ans: c

367. Which of the following cause hyperinsulinemia

A-Pioglitazone
B-Glimipride
C-Metfotmin
D-Acarbose
Ans: b

368. A Patient having Herpes zoster which of the following doses is

true :
A)ACYCLOVIR 200 mg 5 times daily
B)ACYCLOVIR 400 mg 5 times daily
C)ACYCLOVIR 800 mg 5 times daily
D)ACYCLOVIR 100 mg 5 times daily
Ans: c

369. Erythropiotin known as increase hemoglobin … etc which

following not used in
severe anemia due to acute bleeding

370. Carbon monoxide binds to:

I hemoglobin.
II myoglobin.
III cytochrome oxidase.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III

371. Which of the following gases are used as a propellant in aerosol

container?
A.carbon dioxide
B. Hydrocarbon
C.trifluromethane
d.all
Ans: d

372. cholinergic toxicity case work in which receptor:

A.muscarinic
B.nicotinic
C.adrenergic
D.nor adrenergic
Ans: a

373. Short acting tx in asthma case

A.salbutamol
B.Albuterol
Ans: a

374. Which part in aerosol press on valve:

a. Actuator
b. House
c. Dip tube
ans: a

375. should not use in dry eyes :

Chloramphenicol

376. Antiepileptic drug cause acne and hirsutism:

Phenytoin
377. Vertical laminar flow used in :
Doxourbicin
Used to treat impitego
1. Fusidic acid
2. Azithromycin
3. Muprocin '
1 only
1 and 2
3 only
1 and 3
Ans: 1& 3

378. Least effect of pseudoephedrine in ?

a. Alph 1
b. Alph 2
c. B 1
d. B2
Ans: d

379. which of the following cause least

nephrotoxicity(neuroprotective) :
a. picrolimus
b. cyclosporin
C. Azathioprine
d. sirolimus
ans: d
380. Hard gelatin capsule is not suitable for filling material :
Liquid

381. regarding poisining which can be used :

a. Charcoal
b.Kaoline
c. Both
d. None of the above
Ans: c

382. What should be done to prevent aspiration pneumonia:

a. Elevation the head.
b. Taking the antibiotics.
Ans: a

383. Liraglutide is?

Glucagon like peptide

384. G6PD and pregnant woman ?

Cefuroxime

385. Not use for constipation ?

Loperamide

386. Lithium CI with?

Ibuprofen

387. Use for long term asthma ?

Corticosteroid

388. normal prescription valid for:

a. no limit
b. 6 month
c. 9 no
d. 1 year
 389. how to differentiate between kidney failure and kidney
transplant rejection by:
a. glumular filtration rate
b. serum creatinine
c. Biopsy
ans: a

390. mechanism of action of metformin except :

A-increase insulin sensitivity
B-increase HDL and decrease LDL something like that
C-inscrease insuline secretion
Ans: c

391. All of the following drugs cause postural hypotension except:

a. Clonidine
b. Carvedilol
c. Sildenafil
d. Clozapin
ans: b

392. Pregnant woman having UTI which of the following drugs can
be used
A-Nitrofurinatoin
B-CO-amoxiclav
C-Sulfamethoxazole
D-Trimethoprim
Ans: a

393. case about patient has difficulty in breathing at the last 30

minute , his family is asthamatic and he has experienced asthma
,what is used for decreasing difficuty
A.salbutamol
B.Albuterol
C terbutaline
D corticosteroid
Ans: b
394. Lady came to a pharmacy having dysmenorrhea , complaining
about severe pain , and her period came week later than she
expected , the pharmacist decided to refer her to doctor because of
:
A-Ectopic pregnancy
B-Fibromyositis
C- Pelvic inflammation
D-Endometriosis
Ans: d

395. which fibrinolytic cause hypersensitivity:

a- Altepase:
b- Fondaparinux
c- Streptokinase
d- Urokinase
ans: c

396. Which of the following will cyp450 of theophylline?

a): Carbamazepine
b): Cimetidine
c): Phenobarbital
d): Smoking
ans: b

397. Benzodiazepines:
A. Are all lipid soluble (OR: None are water-soluble)
B. Are all renally excreted unchanged
C. Causes retrograde amnesia
D. Lorazepam is more lipophilic than midazolam
E. Block GABA receptors
F. Have high therapeutic index
Ans: f

398. tazobactam
b lactamase inhibitor

399. patient take theophylline as ttt , what is your advice:

Do not crush

400. about junior pharmacist asked to refill prescription of

morphine:
A-it need controlled prescription should be written with licensed
prescriber.
B-no limit for dispense other prescription
Ans: a

CALCULATION: ( SAME WAY BUT IT WAS DEFERENT

NUMBERS )
 401. A drug 0.5/kg, want to added to 500ml of 2% of
something(drug A), how much ml need to add for pt. have 80kg
from this drug(drug B) with this conc. 0.5/1m
least effect of B adrenergic agonists:-
Answer: prostatic hypertrophy( or BPH )

402. Case Patient with glaucoma and blood pressure 220/110 and
hypertensive crisis and ask which to avoid :-
a-nicardipine
b-fenoldopam
c-Na nitroprusside
d-labetalol
ANS: B
403. case scenario about female patient have GOUT was weak &
dizzy & fatigue and another problems like she can’t raise her
hand and having some blood disorders like agranulocytosis and
leucopenia and type of anemia which anti gout are probably to
cause this Side effects :
Answer: colchicine

404. prazosin which is true about ( statements):

Answer: Have first dose effect

405. The role of B-blocker in MI is all of the following expect :

Answer: increase o2 demand

406. HIV pt. and mycobacterium like to cause this infection :

Answer: mycobacterium avium complex

407. which of the following drugs acts on T-lymphocyte blocking?

-adluximab
-etanercept
-alefacept
Ans: c
 408. case about patient diagnosed with TB infection( with picture of
lunges), asking all can be used as first line treatment except:
Streptomycin

409. same case asking which drug requires ocular monitoring?

Ethambutol

410. which statmen is true about letrazole:

a. mild androgenic SE, aromatase inhibitor.
b. aromatase inhibitor, not cause endometriosis, mild androgenic
SE.
c. aromatase inhibitor, no need corticosteroid co administration,
mild androgenic SE.
d. aromatase inhibitor, no need corticosteroid co administration,
not cause endometriosis.
Answer: D

411.Which drug has least effect of hypoglycemia?

Answer: acarbose (1st)
Also metformin

412. all can resist beta lactamase in bacterial except:

a. augmentin
b. erythromycin
c. Dicloxacillin
d. Doxycyclin
Answer: B (check please)

413. What is the medication that’s used in the treatment of glaucoma,

medication-related edema, heart-failure related edema?
Acetazolamide

414. Smoker with COPD, what treatment (DOC):

Answer: Ipratrobium

415. Treatment for influenza A and B, cleaves sialic acid (or sth like
this)
 One of the answers was Oseltamivir

416. Used in motion sickness except:

a. Hyoscine (scopolamine)
b. Meclizine
c. Promethazine HCL
d. Cinnarzine

417. pt suffer from acute asthmatic attack:

a. Salmeterol
b. Ipratrobuim
c. Albutarol
Ans. C

418. Which of the following no need for antibiotic dose adjustment:

a) hypercholesterolemia
b) elderly patient
c) renal disease patient
d) AIDS
Ans. A

419. Which one is NOT a systematic physiology of ramipil:

a) Hypokalemia
b) Low level of potassium
c) Angiotensin II receptor blockers
Ans: a

420. case about sickle cell anaemia , Treatment of Sickle cell

anemia:
Hydroxyl urea

421. Long acting ophthalmic bp:

Timilol

Diaphragm 1:
422. Clinical use therapeutic range :
between MTC & MEC✔

423. AUC:
area under the concentration time curve✔

424. Area is measured by:

Trapezoidal method✔

425. After you open an inhaler, it will be valid for:

A- 2 weeks
B- one month
C- 3 month with proper storage
Ans: c

426. Patient with microcytic anemia, low RBC count, and low HB.
Which medicine can be used for tx along with iron:
a- Vitamin B12
b- folic acid
c- erythropoietin
Ans: c

427. Which is most likely to cause rash:

a- Amoxicillin
b- Ampicillin
c- Penicillin G
d-penicillin v
Ans: b

428. Patient taking INH,Methotrexate and amiodarone What he may

have as side effect of these medications :
a- Heart faliure
b- Cirrhosis of the liver
c- Pancytopenia
d- Pulmonary problem
Ans: b

429. Two hydrophobic molecules with opposite charges mixed with

water:
Emulsification

430. Bethanicol used in all except:

a- GERD
b- Sjorjen’s syndrome
c- Post head & neck surgery
ans:b

431. Patient has shigella with fever and mucus and blood in stool.
Which antimicrobial is used:
a- Non antibacterial treatment
b- Norfloxacin
Ans: b

432. Bacteria most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis:

Clostridium difficle✔

433. Protamine suplhate is antidote for all except:

Fondaprinux

434. Which AcEI is not renally excerted:

Fosinopril✔
435. of these used in emergency HTN and causes prompt
hypotensive effect:
- Sodium nitroprusside ✔

436. Drug is used in amoebiasis with asymptomatic cysts:

a- diloxanide
b- emetin
Ans: a

437. used as adjuvant in cardiac surgery for pt with poor heart

functions
a-morphine
b-Fentanyl
c-other 2choices I cant recall
ans: I choose fentanyl u can check it, also I think this is new question

438. Treatment for exacerbation of ulcerative colitis:

Prednisolone ✔

439. Faciliated diffusion:

Down conc. gradient, pgylcoprotein in intrinsic cells, and requires
transport ✔

440. For tablet preparation, all of the following can be used except :
a- Wet granulation method
b- Dry granulation method
c- Direct Compressing
d- Indirect compressing
Ans: d

441. All can be used in aqueous typical tablet coating except:

Volatile substance

442. Drug that does not enhance the action of sulfonylurea:

Diazoxide
443. Two drugs were given together. Their effect is equal to the sum
of their action.This is called:
- Potentiation
- Synergism
- Antagonism
Ans: b

444. Which tablets do not need a disintegrating or lubricating agent:

Effervescent tablets

445. Which of the following needs hydrolysis of ATP:

1ry active transport

446. case for Tb and leprosy he had big wound in his hand with very thick
skin and no sensation. In the wound ..he can use all these drug except :
A.rifambcin
B.Inz
C.OFLOXACIN
D.minocyclin
ANS .B

447. Patient came to the pharmacy and have chest pain, the
pharmacist decide to turn the patient to cardiologist because:
Ans: The pain radiating on neck and shoulders, arms and jaw

448. The DOC for acute attack of asthma:

Albuterol

449. Cromolyn used in asthma to :

a. Decrease inflammation
b. Mast cell stabilizer(decrease mast cell degranulation)
ans: b

450. Not ACEIs SE:

Postural hypotension

451: Selective cox 2

Celecoxib
452. female take antibiotics and suffer from ear problem which AB
cause this:
Amikacin
453. Antibiotic that cause hand rash:
Amoxicillin
454. Patient diagnosed with hodgkin lymphoma. Doctor decides to
stop him from dairy product. Which amino acid patient will avoid:
Tyramine

455. drug given for ductus arteriosus:

Indomethacin

456. patient with panic attack what is DOC

a. buspiron
b. benzodiazepam
c. antidepressant
d. barbiturate
ans: b
Note:
1-SSRI :(fluoxetine (Prozac), paroxetine (Paxil, Pexeva) and
sertraline (Zoloft).)
2-Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs): {
venlafaxine hydrochloride (Effexor XR)}
3-Benzodiazepines.{ alprazolam (Xanax) and clonazepam
(Klonopin)}

457. insulin secrets form which cell ?

B cell

458. When patient take prophylaxis therapy for gout: (came as 4

statements and then in the choices combinations of them for
example: a only, a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) more than One attack per year
b) Association with Kidney stones
c) Urate excretion 500 mg
d) Blood urea level 10mg/dl
ans: a &b
(d is wrong as asymptomatic hyperuricemia does not need
treatmentMedescape)

459. Mechanism of action and indications of aspirin:

Irreversible cox inhibitor, Inhibit platelet aggregation, PG
inhibitor

460. you can choose more than one true statement.

a. Acetaminophen has a great anti-inflammatory
b. inhibit PG in CNS
c. It has no risk in Reyes disease for kids with viral fever
d. irreversible cox3 inhibitor
ans: b & d

461. patient with TB take more than one drug why??

To decrease the risk of developing drug-resistance

462. Where is gastrich histamin stored in the GIT:

Entrochromaffin-like- cell

463. Pt with COPD and heart failure, which to avoid:

a- Nicardipine
b- Amiodarone
Ans: b

464. antiviral used in HBV(hepatitis B virus):

a-lamivudine
b-amatidine
c-zidovudine
d. stavudine
answer... A
465. side effect of all anti-arrythmic :
a.blurred vision
b. torsade de points
answer... b

466. BEES bites and symptom scheck, itching:

answer.... Epinephrine

467. patient with pharyngitis, the pt was penicillin allergic but the
organism is penicillin sensitive ,injectable antibiotics is not preferred
in this situation ,what is the safest and effective alternative
a- Penicillin
b- Cephalosporin
c- Azithromycin
d- Tetracycline
answer... c

468. 50% alchohol is to be diluted with purified water, how many

parts of purified water (0% alchohol) to prepare 20% preparation:
a- 20 parts 50% alchohol + 30parts water.
b-30 part alcohol +20 part water.
c-50 part alcohol+50 part water
answer... A
469. DRUG above MTC will show :
a.toxicty
b.side effect
answer ..A

470. Drug below MEC will be :

a. toxic
b. ineffective
answer..B

471. Regarding Fluxetine :

a. half life is 50 hrs
b. have a metabolite as active as the prodrug
c. used in bulimia nervosa
d.undergo first pass effect
answer... ALL

472. years old patient had a myocardial infarction which one of the
following appropriate prophylactic anti arrhythmia??
1-lidocaine
2-metoprolol
3-quindine
4-procainamide
5-verpamil
Ans: 2

473. velocity in dispersed phase affected by:-

a-particle size
b-particle homogeneity
c-elecrtic charge
d-all
ans: d

474. Metabolic effects of B-Blocker include all of the following

except:
1- Decreased glucagon release
2- Decreased glycogenolysis
3- Hypertriglyceridemia
4- Hyperglycemia
ans: 4

475. Least effect for B-Blocker in :

1- Benign prostatic hyperplasia
2- Myocardial infarction
3- Arrhythmia
4- Angina pectoris
Ans: 1

476. Anti cholinergic used for motion sickness :

1- scopalamine
2- ipratropium
ans: 1

477. Which of the following is ultra-short barbiturates:

a. Penobarbital
b. Thiopental
ans: b

478. Dose for patient is 75mg, how ml needed from 125mg/5ml

solution :
a. 5 ml
b. 3 ml
c. 15 ml
ANS: B

479. If dose of drug is 0.2 ml ,How many dose will be in 15ml :

answer.. 15ml /0.2 ml =75 doses

480. NSAID has CNS side effects:

a. celecoxib
b. sulindac
c. nabumetone
d. mefenamic acid
ans: d

481. Associated with CNS side effects:

Sulindac
(please check if it is b or d; sulindac has CNS SE, and mefenamic
acid is associated with CNS toxicity)

482. Study acetyl salicylic acid full mechanism of action as an

analgesic and cardio protective.
Acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin)characterized by :
• cardio protective action
• Has antiplatelet action
• Analgesic and antipyretic
• Has anti inflammatory action
• All of the above.

483. which of the following cause depression in T-lymphocyte:

Etanercept (check please)

484. which of the following if administered with digitalis will not

affect its action:
Captopril
485. Patient was diagnosed with malignant glioma and doctor
decides to put him on chemotherapy. Which of the following is
DOC:
Temozolomide

486. Study letrazole mechanism of action and side effects, you can
choose more than one answer.
I choose aromatase inhibitor with androgen Side effects.

487. Not a monoclonal antibody:

a.infliximab
b.etarnecept
c.adalimuab
d.cetrilizumab
ans:b

488. Which not used in heart failure:

a.Captopril
b. Digoxin
c. Nefidipine
d. Propranolol
Ans:b (check please )

489. All are true about benzodiazepine except:

a. Cause amnesia.
b. Cause muscle relaxant.
c. Need 1-4 week for the effect.
Ans: c

490. ACEI’s beneficial effect is caused by all of the following

mechanisms except:
a. Vasodilation by inhibition of bradykinin metabolism*
Note:
#ACE inhibitors produce vasodilation by inhibiting the formation of
angiotensin II. This vasoconstrictor is formed by the proteolytic
action of renin (released by the kidneys) acting on circulating
angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then
converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme.
ACE also breaks down bradykinin (a vasodilator substance).
Therefore, ACE inhibitors, by blocking the breakdown of
bradykinin, increase bradykinin levels, which can contribute to the
vasodilator action of ACE inhibitors. The increase in bradykinin is
also believed to be responsible for a troublesome side effect of ACE
inhibitors, namely, a dry cough.

491. Patient has severe nausea and vomiting, after test he was
diagnosed with meningitis, what is the DOC?
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Tetracycline
3. Chloramphenicol

492. which of the following cause depression (suppression)in T-

lymphocyte?
a. Adiliximab
b. Basiliximab
Ans: b

493. All can resist Beta lactamase except :

- Ceftazidime
- Erythromycin
- Other cephalosporin
Ans: c
‫السوءال عندي مكنش كده كان بس االختيارات كانت‬
-amoxicillin
- Erythromycin
- Other cephalosporin
Ans: s

494. Which is true about Acetaminophen ?

a. Has anti-inflammatory action
b. Cause mild gray Syndrome (that caused by chloramphenicol)
 c. Has no platelet action
d. Action CNS.

495. Company decide to recall medicine we will call it :

a. Voluntary
b. In-voluntary
Ans: a

496. Patient has irritable bowel disease which one characteristic?

a. Constipation + diarrhea
Note :Altered bowel habits in IBS may have the following
characteristics:
Constipation variably results in complaints of hard stools of narrow
caliber, painful or infrequent defecation, and intractability to
laxatives
Diarrhea usually is described as small volumes of loose stool, with
evacuation preceded by urgency or frequent defecation
Postprandial urgency is common, as is alternation between
constipation and diarrhea
Characteristically, one feature

497. patient on malignant glaucoma DOC?

a-Cyclophosphomide
b-Dacarbazine
c- acetazolamide
answer:c

498. micro-organism resistant mechanism against antibiotics :

a. Cell wall penetration.
b. Enzymes
ans: b

499. 5 days old infant given antibiotic which cause apnea and gray
coloration for the baby ?
a. Penicillin G
b. Gentamycin
c-chloramphenicol
Ans c

500. patient received morphine 20 mg / 4hr it will take 120 mg / day

when giving ethanbutamol for along duration continous follow
checkup is nessecary because:
a) Renal failure
b) Liver dysfunction
c) Ocular problem (or any other problem related to eyes)
Ans:c

501: Anti-emetic wih CNS effect :

I choose domepridone*
Note :
Anti-emtic with CNS effect
A. Metoclopramide
B. Domperidone

502: female take antibiotics and suffer from ear problem something
like that what's antibiotic
a. Amikacin
b. Gentamycin
c. 2 other option
This aminoglycoside I remember my answer amikacin but i think its
gentamycin

503: acyclovir adverse effect is most common in which route

a) Oral
b) Iv
c) Im
Ans: a not sure

504: woman have breast cancer and take letrazole for 3 years what is
it characteristics:
a) Aromatase inhibitor
 b) Have some androgeinic side effect
c) Not need to be take with corticosteroid
d) Not cause endometeriosis

Extra note:
- The antiviral mechanism : The drug interferes with a viral protein,
M2 (an ion channel), which is needed for the viral particle to become
"uncoated" once it is taken inside the cell by endocytosis.

- The antiparkinsons mechanism it prevents dopamine (DA)

reuptake, facilitates presynaptic DA release, possesses weak
antimuscarinic action and blocks glutamate NMDA receptors.

- Teaspoonf = 5ml.

Serois drug interactions:

1. azithromycin + digoxin
azithromycin will increase the level or effect of digoxin by altering
intestinal flora. Applies only to oral form of both agents. Avoid or
Use Alternate Drug.
Monitor Closely

2. captopril + digoxin
captopril increases levels of digoxin by unspecified interaction
mechanism. Use Caution/Monitor.

- Memorize everything related to chloramphenicol; it appeared alot

in the exam
Note:
chloramphenicol is used for treatment of bacterial infections like
meningitis,typhoid, and as eye ointment for ttt of conjuncitivitis.
-It has a broad spectrum activity against and has been effective in
treating ocular infections caused by a number of bacteria including
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Escherichia
coli. It’s active against the three main bacterial causes of meningitis:
Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus
influenzae. Currently, some Enterococcus faecium and Pseudomonas
aeruginosa strains are resistant to chloramphenicol.
-It’s lipid soluble, remains relatively unbound to protein.
-It increase iron absorption.
-It’s mechanism of action: Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by
inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by
inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome.
It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA
of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation
-Chloramphenicol is antagonistic with most cephalosporins and
using both together should be avoided in the treatment of infections.
It’s also a potent inhibitor of the cytochrome P450
-it’s metabolized by the liver to chloramphenicol glucuronate (which
is inactive).
-SE of chloramphenicol : fatal aplastic anemia, bone marrow
suppression ( direct toxic effect on human mitochondria ),
leukemia,gray baby syndrome,hypersensitivity and neurotoxic
reactions

- Patient on three medication for HIV, after couple of years there is

still evidence of infection, a fourth drug what's the benefit of the
addition not lamivufine in my exam but drug I haven't seen before
sorry can't remember
Talab ma3loumat 3ala efavirenz study it

- Study zoledronic acid medication, it was mentioned in more than

one answer

- Please get an idea about fusfomide indication and other

information

‫و بالتوفيق للجميع‬
Maysoun abueida