Pharmaceutical Science

CBRT for the post of Drug Inspector

11-08-2019(A/N)
1.

A non-volatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On
intravenous injection, it produces general anaesthesia for 10 minutes. Which process is
responsible for termination of its action?

(a) Metabolism in liver

(b) Excretion by kidney
(c) Plasma Protein Binding
(d) Redistribution

2.

Aspirin overdose is characterized by:

(a) Hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis and coma

(b) Fever, hepatic dysfunction and encephalopathy
(c) Rash, interstitial nephritis and acute renal failure
(d) Rapid, fulminant hepatic failure

3.

A 40 year old patient complains of severe pain along left side of jaw and face. The best
choice for this neuralgic pain is:

(a) Methadone
(b) Tramadol
(c) Lorazepam
(d) Carbamazepine

4.

The first Phenothiazine derivative introduced into the therapy of psychotic disorders was:

(a) Promazine
(b) Chlorpromazine
(c) Triflupromazine
(d) Thioridazine
5.

Which one of the following is NOT a rapid acting insulin?

(a) Insulin lispro

(b) Insulin aspart
(c) Insulin glulisine
(d) Insulin glargine

6.

Which one of the cardiac aglycones contains an aldehydic group in its structure?

(a) Scillaren A
(b) Digitoxigenin
(c) Digoxigenin
(d) Strophanthidin

7.

Which one of the following is the only life saving measure in case of anaphylactic shock?

(a) Intravenous hydrocortisone

(b) Intravenous adrenaline
(c) Intravenous chlorpheniramine maleate
(d) Intravenous glucose-saline

8.

Which one of the following drugs used in the treatment of diabetes does NOT contain
heterocyclic nucleus?

(a) Glyburide
(b) Glimepiride
(c) Repaglinide
(d) Glipizide

9.

An amino acid which gives a yellow precipitate in the Xanthoproteic reaction is:

(a) Glycine
(b) Alanine
(c) Tyrosine
(d) Leucine
10.

Which one of the following drugs causes physiological dependence only?

(a) Cocaine
(b) Morphine
(c) Alcohol
(d) Nalorphine

11.

Which one of the following non-depolarizing blockers can be used as alternative to

Succinylcholine for tracheal intubation without the disadvantage of depolarizing block and
cardiovascular changes?

(a) Doxacurium
(b) Atracurium
(c) Rocuronium
(d) Pancuronium

12.

Homatropine is a:

(a) Tropine ester of mandelic acid

(b) Tropine ester of aminoacetic acid
(c) Tropine ester of aminoformic acid
(d) Tropine methyl bromide ester of mandelic acid

13.

Consider the following statements regarding Glycyrrhizin:

1. It is a bioactive constituent of Glycyrrhiza glabra

2. It has interaction with CYP3A12
3. It has a higher interaction potential with CYP2D6 compared with CYP3A4
4. It causes sweetness of liquorice

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
14.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true for Sodium valproate?

(a) It is effective in grand mal and petit mal epilepsy

(b) It is not safe in patient with liver disease
(c) It should not be given to children
(d) It increases brain concentration of gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA)

15.

Which one of the following statements is correct for Sulphonylureas?

(a) They act by increasing insulin release

(b) They tend to produce weight loss
(c) They are effective in correcting ketoacidosis
(d) They are suitable for use in pregnancy

16.

Morphine is contraindicated or must be used with extreme caution in several situations. Such
situations include:

1. Adrenal insufficiency
2. Biliary tract surgery
3. Hypothyroidism

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

17.

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for Morphine?

(a) It causes histamine release

(b) It undergoes extensive first pass metabolism
(c) It has no active metabolite
(d) Its action may be metabolized by pentazocine
18.

A 50-year old obese patient with type-2 diabetes and a history of alcoholism probably should
not receive metformin because it can increase the risk of:

(a) Excessive weight gain

(b) Lactic acidosis
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Serious hepatotoxicity

19.

Levodopa is usually given with Carbidopa for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease because:

(a) it crosses the blood-brain barrier

(b) it inhibits monoamino oxidase-A (MaO-A)
(c) it inhibits monoamino oxidase-B (MaO-B)
(d) it inhibits DOPA decarboxylase in peripheral tissue

20.

Which one of the following drugs is most effective to treat peptic ulcers?

(a) Bromocriptine
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Ergotamine
(d) Ketanserin

21.

Which of the following statements regarding thalidomide is NOT correct?

(a) It is currently used in the treatment of multiple myeloma

(b) Apart from teratogenesis, it does not show any other major toxicity
(c) It is also used for erythema nodosum leprosum
(d) Lenalidomide is an immunomodulatory derivative of thalidomide (IMiD)
22.

Which of the following are the side effects associated with Doxorubicin?

1. Cardiotoxicity
2. Alopecia
3. Diarrhoea
4. Desquamation of skin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

23.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true with relation to characterizing the
essential (primary) hypertension?

(a) Elevation of diastolic blood pressure

(b) Decreased cardiac output
(c) An increase in peripheral resistance
(d) Normal cardiac output

24.
Which of the following are intermediates in the biosynthesis of Cholesterol?

(a) Isoprenaline and Aldosterone

(b) Mevalonic acid and Aldosterone
(c) Mevalonic acid and Isopentenyl Pyrophosphate
(d) Isoprenaline and Isopentenyl Phosphate

25.

Consider the following statements regarding Noradrenaline:

1. Its L-isomer is pharmacologically active.
2. It is a potent agonist for α1 receptor.
3. It increases the peripheral vascular resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
26.

Consider the following statements regarding Cocaine:

1. It was the first local anaesthetic discovered.

2. It is isolated from leaves of Erythroxylum coca.
3. It is used in combination with other anaesthetic agents to induce general anaesthesia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

27.

Which one of the following does NOT belong to the class of high ceiling (loop) diuretics?

(a) Furosemide
(b) Bumetanide
(c) Acetazolamide
(d) Torasemide

28.

Which one of the following drugs is administered by intranasal spray/application for systemic
action?

(a) Phenylephrine
(b) Desmopressin
(c) Azelastine
(d) Beclomethasone dipropionate

29.

The major advantage of Clarithromycin over Erythromycin is that:

(a) it is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin

(b) it does not inhibit hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes
(c) it has greater activity against Helicobacter pylori
(d) it is active against methicillin resistant strains of staphylococci
30.

The mean BP falls with treatment of Isoprenaline. It is due to:

(a) rise in systolic BP only

(b) drop in diastolic BP only
(c) rise in systolic BP and marked fall in diastolic BP
(d) drop in systolic BP and rise in diastolic BP

31.

The most stable polymorphic form has:

(a) highest melting point and lowest dissolution rate

(b) highest solubility and lowest viscosity
(c) lowest melting point and lowest dissolution rate
(d) highest melting point and highest dissolution rate

32.

Which one of the following comes under Type I glasses used for containers?

(a) Soda-lime treated glasses

(b) Borosilicate glass
(c) Soda glass
(d) Soda-lime treated and borosilicate glass

33.

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for an ideal suppository base?

(a) Solid- fat index curve is broad

(b) Acid value is below 0.2
(c) Saponification value ranges from 200 to 245
(d) Iodine value is less than 7

34.

Quickest way of revealing capping and lamination problem in tablet is:

(a) Friability test

(b) Hardness test
(c) Weight variation test
(d) Disintegration
35.

The component responsible for red colour in Capsicum is:

(a) Capsaicin
(b) Capsanthin
(c) Protein
(d) Ascorbic acid

36.

Enfleurage is a method used for extraction of which one of the following?

(a) Volatile oil

(b) Fixed oil
(c) Gum
(d) Starch

37.

Product line extensions are dosage forms in which:

(a) physical form or strength, but not the use or indication of the product changes
(b) use or indication, but not the physical form or strength of the product changes
(c) physical form or use, but not the strength or indication of the product changes
(d) strength or indication, but not the physical form or use of the product changes

38.

What volume of 50% v/v alcohol could be prepared from 1 litre of 95% v/v alcohol?

(a) 2000 ml
(b)1900 ml
(c) 1800 ml
(d) 2100 ml
39.

Emulsifying agent acts by which of the following mechanisms?

1. Formation of interfacial film

2. Preventing coalescence
3. Lowering of interfacial tension

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

40.

The adult dose of a drug is 325 mg. What should be the dose for a 3 year old child?

(a) 65 mg
(b) 60 mg
(c) 55 mg
(d) 50 mg

41.

The freezing point of 1% w/v solution of a drug is –0.090 °C. The concentration of drug that
will yield a solution isotonic with blood plasma is:

(a) 6.42 % w/v

(b) 0.402 % w/v
(c) 4.63 % w/v
(d) 5.77 % w/v

42.

Which of the following is a possible mechanism of BHA (Butylated hydroxyanisole) as an

antioxidant?

(a) It has lower redox potential than the drug substance

(b) It acts as a chelating agent
(c) It reacts with free radical thus inhibiting the chain reaction
(d) It has more redox potential than the drug substance
43.

A powdered chemical is defined as very fine powder if:

(a) It completely passes through a sieve no. 80

(b) It completely passes through a sieve no. 120
(c) It passes through a sieve no. 80 and not more than 40 % through sieve no. 100
(d) It passes through a sieve no. 80 and not more than 40 % through sieve no. 120

44.

In phase separation coacervation process of microencapsulation, phase separation can be

carried out by which of the following?

1. Addition of a salt
2. Changing the temperature of the solution
3. Inducing Polymer-Polymer Interaction

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

45.

The amount of drug delivered from a Transdermal patch depends on which of the following?

1. Rate of drug partitioning between patch and skin surface

2. Surface area of the patch
3. Affinity of the drug for the stratum corneum relative to its affinity for formulation
matrix.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
46.

The indicator used in Mohr’s method of estimation (Precipitation titrations) is:

(a) Methylene blue

(b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Potassium chromate
(d) Potassium iodide

47.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Sodium carbonate or Sodium hydroxide can be used as primary standards in acid-base
titrations
(b) Only Sodium carbonate is used as primary standard in acid-base titrations
(c) Only Sodium hydroxide is used as primary standard in acid-base titrations
(d) Sodium hydroxide and Potassium hydroxide can be used as primary standards in acid-
base titrations

48.

Adrenaline is assayed by:

(a) Acidimetry
(b) Gravimetry
(c) Redox titration
(d) Non-aqueous titration

49.

Artificial invert sugar in honey can be detected on the basis of the presence of which of the
following?

(a) Contouring matter

(b) Furfural
(c) Traces of succinic acid
(d) Enzymes
50.

Conjugated and non-conjugated systems can easily be differentiated by which one of the
following spectroscopy techniques?

(a) UV
(b) IR
(c) NMR
(d) Mass

51.

Diclofenac sodium IP is analyzed by which one of the following titrimetric methods?

(a) Potentiometry titration

(b) Redox titration
(c) Non aqueous titration
(d) Conductometric titration

52.

Excess of Acetic anhydride should be avoided in 0.1 M acetous perchloric acid as:

(a) it may form non-explosive acetyl perchlorate

(b) it may adversely react with primary and secondary amines
(c) it may interfere with colour change of indicator
(d) it may adversely affect the stability of solution

53.

For potentiometric end point detection in non-aqueous titration in acidic solvents, the
recommended salt bridge between glass-calomel electrodes as per Indian Pharmacopeia
consists of:

(a) Aqueous solution of potassium chloride

(b) Saturated aqueous solution of potassium chloride
(c) Methanolic solution of potassium chloride
(d) 0.1 M lithium perchlorate in glacial acetic acid
54.

Which one of the following transducers is used in most of FT-IR (Fourier transform infrared)
spectrophotometers?

(a) Bolometer
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Golay-pneumatic
(d) Pyroelectric

55.

Ammonium sulphamate solution is used in Bratton-Marshall method of colorimetric

estimation of sulpha drugs:

(a) as coupling agent

(b) to destroy excess nitrous acid
(c) to maintain pH of reaction media
(d) to stabilise the colour intensity

56.

Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in procedure for standardization of 0.1 M
ceric ammonium sulphate solution IP?

(a) Holmium oxide

(b) Holmium perchlorate
(c) Osmic acid
(d) Ferroin

57.

The normality of 0.05 M solution of potassium permanganate solution when used in strongly
acidic media will be:

(a) 0.05 N
(b) 0.25 N
(c) 0.15 N
(d) 0.10 N
58.

The A (1%, 1 cm) value of paracetamol is 715 at its λmax 257 nm. What will be the
absorbance of 20 mg/litre of its solution at 257 nm in 1 cm cell?

(a) 1.4300
(b) 0.7150
(c) 0.3575
(d) 14.300

59.

Mere increase in magnetic field strength in PMR spectroscopy will:

(a) increase the precessional frequency of proton

(b) decrease the precessional frequency of proton
(c) lower the energy difference between ground and excited spin levels of proton
(d) produce energy transition of spinning proton from ground to excited state

60.

Following are the scales of measurement of chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy.

1. Frequency scale ( )
2. Delta scale (δ)
3. Tau scale (τ)

Which of the above scales are independent of radio frequency used in NMR spectrometer?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

61.

Which one of the following compounds is used as preservative to prevent the deterioration of
various substances in the blood sample?

(a) Sodium citrate

(b) Sodium oxalate
(c) Sodium fluoride
(d) Sodium chloride
62.

Which one of the solutions is used in the sterile blood collecting containers?

(a) Acid-citrate-dextrose
(b) Alkali-citrate-glucose
(c) Ammonia-citrate-dextrose
(d) Carbonate-ammonia-dextrose

63.

Dextran is used as:

(a) Plasma expander

(b) Coating agent in tablet
(c) Indicator in titration
(d) Buffering agent

64.

Which of the following is NOT a conjugated protein?

(a) Nucleoprotein
(b) Albumin
(c) Haemoprotein
(d) Lipoprotein

65.

The only immunoglobulin that crosses the transplacental barrier and provides maternal
protection is:

(a) IgM
(b) IgG
(c) IgD
(d) IgA

66.

The term ‘False transmitter’ is related to which one of the following drugs?

(a) Hydralazine
(b) Methyldopa
(c) Sodium nitroprusside
(d) Minoxidil
67.

Polio virus belongs to which one of the following?

(a) Retro virus

(b) DNA virus
(c) RNA virus
(d) Elongated virus

68.

BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin) vaccine is:

1. live vaccine bearing an attenuated bovine strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

2. used to enhance immunity non-specifically.
3. contraindicated in tuberculin positive individuals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

69.

Deficiency of GABA causes which one of the following?

(a) Mental depression

(b) Parkinsonism
(c) Epilepsy
(d) Schizophrenia

70.

Which one of the following statements in respect of the mechanism of action of

Metronidazole is correct?

(a) It damages the RNA

(b) It damages the DNA
(c) It inhibits the cell wall synthesis
(d) It inhibits the protein synthesis
71.

Enteric coating of tablets can be made by using which one of the following compounds?

(a) Povidine
(b) Hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose
(c) Cellulose acetate phthalate
(d) Carboxy methyl cellulose

72.

Which one of the following Schedules of Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 gives the
requirements of factory premises, plant, and equipment etc. for manufacture of medical
devices?

(a) Schedule – M
(b) Schedule – M (I)
(c) Schedule – M (II)
(d) Schedule – M (III)

73.

Which one of the following activities is NOT true in the case of “Current Good
Manufacturing Practice”?

(a) Maintenance of complaint files

(b) Study of stability of finished drug products
(c) Non requirement of equipment for the processing activity
(d) Testing of product containers

74.

Which one of the following statements is correct for Karl fisher test?

(a) It is performed to detect the quality of a capsule

(b) It is performed with iodine and sulphur dioxide in pyridine and methanol
(c) It is performed with sodium thiosulphate and iodine in methanol
(d) It is performed with NaOH and iodine in pyridine and ethanol

75.

Assay of Aspirin IP is based on which one of the following methods of titration?

(a) Acid base

(b) Redox
(c) Complexometric
(d) Potentiometric
76.

Which one of the following is an universal detector in HPLC?

(a) PDA
(b) UB
(c) ELSD
(d) RI

77.

Quantitative TLC can better be performed by which one of the following?

(a) HPLC
(b) HPTLC
(c) VLC
(d) GC

78.

What are the chemicals involved in Libermann-Burchard’s test?

(a) Acetic acid and conc. H2SO4

(b) Acetic anhydride and conc. H2SO4
(c) Acetic anhydride and conc. HCl
(d) Acetic acid and conc. HCl

79.

What should be the density of an object with a volume of 15 ml and a mass of 42 grams?

(a) 0.552 g/ml

(b) 650 g/ml
(c) 2.80 g/ml
(d) 0.820 g/ml

80.

The FDA requires that all clinical trial records be maintained and accessible at the trail sites
for a minimum of:

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years
81.

Which one of the studies does not form part of clinical trials to provide unbiased reports of
prevalence and incidence rates of adverse events?

(a) Randomization
(b) Placebo control
(c) Blinding
(d) Quality variation

82.

Atropine is:

1. obtained from Atropa belladonna

2. used in hypertension
3. tropane alkaloid
4. used in treatment of glaucoma

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

83.

Following therapeutic benefits are rightly paired with the respective inorganic molecule
EXCEPT:

(a) Laxative: Magnesium

(b) Vitamin B12 formation: Cobalt
(c) Teeth health: Fluorine
(d) Bone formation: Iron

84.

Silica gel used in chromatography used to have different grades. Which one of the following
contains no binders?

(a) Silica gel G

(b) Silica gel P
(c) Silica gel H
(d) Silica gel K
85.

Consider the following statements about Inulin:

1. It is a carbohydrate made up of 25–30 D-fructofuranose units

2. It reduces Benedict’s solution
3. It is insoluble in water

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

86.

A patient develops severe thrombocytopenia in response to treatment with unfractioned

heparin and still requires parenteral anticoagulants. The patient is most likely to be treated
with:

(a) Vitamin K2
(b) Plasminogen
(c) Lepirudin
(d) Aprotinin

87.

Which one of the following is NOT an indole alkaloid?

(a) Ergot
(b) Reserpine
(c) Vinca
(d) Hyoscyamine

88.

Pyrazinamide is used for the treatment of which one of the following diseases?

(a) AIDS
(b) Malaria
(c) Diabetes
(d) Tuberculosis
89.

Lysergic acid is the precursor for which one of the following products?

(a) Ergot
(b) Quinine
(c) Nicotine
(d) Morphine

90.

Which one of the following injectables is available in the form of dry powder?

(a) Benzyl penicillin injection

(b) Insulin injection
(c) Morphine injection
(d) Amikacin injection

91.

Which one of the following is a steroidal antibiotic?

(a) Fucidin
(b) Clindamycin
(c) Bacitracin
(d) Chloramphenicol

92.

In a prescription written by the medical doctors, subscription is the part, which contains
direction to the:

(a) Medical Officer

(b) Pharmacist
(c) Patient
(d) Health authority of the state

93.

Who is the Chairman of the Drug Technical Advisory board?

(a) President of the Pharmacy Council of India

(b) Director General of Health Services
(c) Drug Controller General of India
(d) Director of Central Drugs Laboratory
94.

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 the list of diseases or ailments, which a drug may
not purport to prevent or cure or make claim to prevent or cure is mentioned in:

(a) Schedule J
(b) Schedule P
(c) Schedule Y
(d) Schedule M

95.

Which one of the following persons in NOT an Ex-officio member of Drugs Technical
Advisory Board (DTAB)?

(a) Drug Controller General of India

(b) Director, Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Director, Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR)
(d) President, Pharmacy Council of India

96.

Approval for grant of license of drug testing facilities is issued in:

(a) Form No. – 39

(b) Form No. – 36
(c) Form No. – 37
(d) Form No. – 38

97.

The license for manufacture of cosmetics is issued in:

(a) Form No. – 31

(b) Form No. – 32
(c) Form No. – 31 A
(d) Form No. – 32 A

98.

The idealized drug release in an extended release delivery system is possible, when the
release follows which order of kinetics?

(a) Zero order kinetics

(b) First order kinetics
(c) Second order kinetics
(d) Both zero and second order kinetics
99.

Methenamine is converted to formaldehyde at pH:

(a) 7.0
(b) Above 7.5
(c) 6.5
(d) Less than 6.5

100.

Acetaminophen belongs to:

(a) Class I Drug (High solubility and high permeability)

(b) Class II Drug (Low solubility and high permeability)
(c) Class III Drug (High solubility and low permeability)
(d) Class IV Drug (Low solubility and low permeability)

101.

The type of drug reaction which is caused by penicillin is:

(a) Type II drug allergy

(b) mediated by IgE
(c) cell-mediated reaction
(d) serum sickness

102.

Which one of the following is used as sclerosing agent?

(a) Desmopressin
(b) Polidocanol
(c) Fibrinogen
(d) Menadione

103.

Which one of the following is NOT a low molecular weight (LMW) heparin?

(a) Enoxaparin
(b) Lepirudin
(c) Reviparin
(d) Parnaparin
104.

Which one of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor?

(a) Bivalirudin
(b) Dalteparin
(c) Heparin
(d) Sodium tetradecyl sulfate

105.

Fibrinolytics is NOT used in:

(a) Acute myocordial infarction

(b) Deep vein thrombosis
(c) Stroke
(d) Hypertensive crisis

106.

Which one of the following is a direct factor Xa inhibitor?

(a) Rivaroxaban
(b) Phenindione
(c) Ethyl biscoumacetate
(d) Acenocoumarol

107.

Recombinant Interleukin-2 is used in the treatment of:

(a) Renal cell carcinoma

(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Psoriasis
(d) Superficial bladder carcinomous

108.

The type of drug reaction which is caused by antipsychotic drug is:

(a) Type IV drug reaction

(b) delayed type hypersensitivity
(c) mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies
(d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
109.

A drug is called a spurious drug if:

(a) it is imported from a country where it is approved

(b) it has been substituted by another drug substance
(c) it is manufactured by loan license by another company
(d) the container resembles the product of another manufacturer

110.

Which one of the following is NOT a drug as per Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940?

(a) Antiseptics
(b) Empty capsules
(c) Mosquito repellent
(d) Carbonated oral drinks

111.

The loading dose is governed by:

(a) Clearance
(b) Plasma concentration
(c) Volume of distribution
(d) Half life

112.

Which one of the following is a Phase-II drug-metabolizing reaction?

(a) Oxidation
(b) Acetylation
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Reduction

113.

Which drug has higher first-pass metabolism in males in comparison with females?

(a) Ketoconazole
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Ethanol
(d) Quinidine
114.

Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification in India is issued by:

(a) Central Drug Standards and Control Organization (CDSCO), Government of India
(b) Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India
(c) Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India
(d) National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL),
Government of India

115.

If a clearance and volume of distribution of a drug are 1.386 L/h and 80 L respectively, then
what is the half life?

(a) 77 h
(b) 40 h
(c) 59 h
(d) 85 h

116.
Which one of the following is an antisecretory, antispasmodic and anticholinergic drug?

(a) Cyclopentolate
(b) Procyclidine
(c) Tropicamide
(d) Propantheline

117.

Which one of the following drugs is an aromatase inhibitor?

(a) Raloxifene

(b) Letrozole

(c) Clomiphene

(d) Mifepristone

118.

Which one of the following drugs has longest half life?

(a) Digitoxin

(b) Doxycycline

(c) Digoxin

(d) Phenobarbitone
119.

Which one of the following antimalarials is safest in pregnancy?

(a) Artesunate

(b) Chloroquine

(c) Primaquine

(d) Artemether

120.

Which one of the following drugs has longest duration of action?

(a) Sulfadiazine

(b) Sparfloxacin

(c) Sulfamethoxazole

(d) Sulfamethopyrazine

121.

When menthol and camphor are mixed together they will form:

(a) positive mixture

(b) eutectic mixture
(c) solid mixture
(d) colloidal solution

122.

A mixture of beeswax and carnauba wax is used in sugar coating process for:

(a) sealing
(b) colour coating
(c) polishing
(d) subcoating

123.

The Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) principle is based on:

(a) ICMR guidelines

(b) Schedule ‘Y’
(c) OECD guidelines
(d) WHO guidelines
124.

The mechanism involved in the drug release from a non-eroding hydrophilic matrix is:

(a) Swelling and gelation of the matrix

(b) Diffusion of drug through a semipermeable membrane
(c) Coacervation
(d) Passage of drug through pores in the matrix

125.

The paddle over disk is an USP:

(a) Apparatus I
(b) Apparatus II
(c) Apparatus III
(d) Apparatus V

126.

In gas chromatography, the basis of separation of the components is based on which of the
following parameters?

(a) Conductivity
(b) Partition coefficient
(c) Molality
(d) Molecular weight

127.

Which one of the following is a related substance impurity of paracetamol I.P.?

(a) p-chlorophenol
(b) Acetanilide
(c) o-hydroxybenzoic acid
(d) p-chloroacetanilide

128.

Iodine value of an oil sample is the measure of:

(a) Mean molecular weight of fatty acids

(b) Unsaturated fatty acids
(c) Free fatty acids
(d) Unsaponifiable matter
129.

Allicin is a component present in which one of the following plants?

(a) Coriander
(b) Garlic
(c) Tulsi
(d) Ashwagandha

130.

The substance used for calibration of absorbance scale of UV-Vis spectrophotometer is:

(a) Holmium oxide

(b) Potassium chromate
(c) Potassium dichromate
(d) Potassium chloride

131.

Which of the following are input devices?

1. Mouse
2. Touch screen
3. Printer
4. Projector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

132.
Control unit is a part of:

1. CPU
2. ALU
3. Input output
4. Memory unit

Select the correct answer using code given below:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only
133.

A software which can automatically cause pop-up and display advertisements in order to
generate revenue, but not in malicious way, is called:

(a) Spyware
(b) Firmware
(c) virus
(d) Adware

134.

In a computer software development process, which one of the following is easy to

understand?

(a) Program code

(b) Algorithm
(c) Machine code
(d) None of these

135.

Which one of the following is an operating system?

(a) Oracle log

(b) Unix
(c) MS-office 2007
(d) FORTRAN

136.

Which of the following is NOT used as database management software?

(a) Oracle
(b) MY-SQL
(c) Ingress
(d) Linux

137.

Which one of the following memories is used to store data permanently?

(a) Primary memory

(b) Secondary memory
(c) Cache memory
(d) Register
138.

A collection of interlinked hypertext documents stored on computers all around the world is
known as:

(a) Data Ware House

(b) World Wide Web
(c) Web Browser
(d) World Wide Server

139.

Which one of the following is NOT an example of an application program?

(a) Word processor

(b) Antivirus software
(c) Library management software
(d) Debugger

140.

Which one of the following errors is detected by the lexical analyser?

(a) Syntax errors

(b) Logical errors
(c) Semantic errors
(d) Data errors

141.

Find out the synonym of the underlined word:

No matter the size of your enterprise, technology has both tangible and intangible benefits.

(a) understandable
(b) capable
(c) possible
(d) palpable

142.
Find out the synonym of the underlined word:
His agnostic viewpoint is summarized in this book.
(a) irrelevant
(b) indecisive
(c) indecent
(d) uncertain
143.

Find out the antonym of the underlined word:

Their activities aimed at improving someone’s status or increasing power within an

organization.

(a) impairing
(b) intriguing
(c) regressing
(d) regaining

144.

Find out the antonym of the underlined word:

We provide loans for improving public transport at nominal interest rates.

(a) imperceptible
(b) quibbling
(c) actual
(d) substantial

145.

Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:

I wish I harder.

(a) am working
(b) had worked
(c) have been working
(d) had been working

146.

Fill in the blank to complete the sentence:

I took my brother to the tailor and for a Jodhpur coat.

(a) had him measured

(b) took his measure
(c) got the measure
(d) measured him up
147.

Consider the following sentence:

This is one of the finest, if not the finest, poem produced in recent years. No error.
P Q R S

Which part (denoted by P, Q and R) of the above sentence has an error? If there is no error,
mark it as S:

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

148.

Consider the following sentence:

The committee comprises of the president, the treasurer and the secretary. No error.
P Q R S

Which part denoted (by P, Q and R) of the above sentence has an error? If there is no error,
mark it as S:

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

149.

Consider the following sentence:

The teacher was angry when he found that

P Q
none of the two boys had done their homework. No error.
R S
Which part denoted (by P, Q and R) of the above sentence has an error? If there is no error,
mark it as S:

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
150.

Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this passage
should be based on the passage only.
There are a lot of things which are necessary before a person gets the chance to think
freely. For instance, he must have security; nobody can think about things, if he is afraid of
being robbed or murdered at any moment. Also he must have leisure to think; and he won’t
have that if he has to give all his attention to getting food to eat and clothes to wear, that is to
say, he spends all his time earning his living. And he must have other people to talk to, so that
you may say that security, leisure and society, which are all necessary to free thinking, are
necessary to civilization.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. A person should have security in order to think in a free and relaxed manner.
2. A society cannot be called ‘civilized’ if there is no leisure and security.
3. A person who is busily engaged in social services has no leisure to think freely
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3