QUIZ 1 : INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY

1. Enzo knock the head resulting of an injury of a long-term partner of Ms. Trixia due to jealous every
time he saw two of them are together. In criminological sense, what type of criminal Enzo is?*
A. Acute Criminal
B. Chronic Criminal
C. Ordinary Criminal
D. Passionate Criminal

2.  Classical School of thought was developed in what century?*

a. 15th
b.18th
c. 17th
d. 19th

3. In criminological sense, when is a person already considered a criminal?*

A. At the time he was planning to kill someone
B. There must be a final verdict of his guilt
C. At the time he was about to kill someone
D. The moment he already committed a crime. 

4. This type of deterrence is a crime control policy suggesting that punishment be severe enough to
convince convicted offenders never to repeat their criminal act*
A. General Deterrence
B. Specific Deterrence
C. Deterrence
D. Pleasure-Pain principle
 
5.  A division of Criminology which attempts to provide scientific analysis of the causes of crime.*
a. Criminal Etiology
b. Penology
c. Victimology
d. Sociology of Law

6. What theory is founded by Social Scientist who argued that there are circumstances that makes
free impossible to exercise, free will are reasons to exempt the accused from conviction. They
argued that freewill can be mitigated by pathology, incompetence, mental disorder?*
A) Classical theory
B) Neo Classical theory
C) Positivist theory
D) Conflict theory

7.  The Magdalo soldiers were generally disaffected with the government and have rejected goal
achievement and the socially acceptable means by which to achieve said goals as a viable route to
success is by rebellion. The mode of adoption best explains:*
a. Sutherland’s Differential Association Theory
b. Freud’s Psychoanalytic Theory on Crime
c. Sheldon’s Somatotyping Theory
d. Merton’s Strain Theory

8. When Cesare Lombroso say’s there is a BORN CRIMINAL among us, he means that?*
A) Criminals are born because they destined to be born
B) They are criminals due to the environment which they born
C) They are criminals because of bad seeds
D) They are criminals because there is a physiological symptoms of being a criminal
 
9.Who constitutes the Holy Three in Criminology?  1. Cesare Lombroso  2. Cesare Beccaria 3.
Enrico Ferri 4. Rafael Garofalo*
A). 2, 3, and 4
B). 1, 2, and 3
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) None of these
 
10. Crimes that violates the moral order in which there is no actual target and society as a whole is
considered the victim.*
A) Hate crimes
B) Violent crimes
C) Serial crimes
D) Victimless crimes
 
11. Who instituted the theory of social contract theory as causes of crimes?
a. Beccaria
b. Voltaire
c. Lombroso
d. Sutherland

12. He developed the psycho-analytical theory of human personality and crimes.*

a. Goddard
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Dugdale
d. Lavater
 
13.  Based on Lombroso’s works, he classified criminal as; the born criminal, the habitual, the
passionate and the criminaloid. Which of the following statements describe a criminaloid?*
a. the morally insane and hysteric criminal
b. the impulsive and cruel criminal
c. the “weak natures” susceptible to bad examples
d. the primitive and atavist 

14.  His major contribution is the development of a scientific approach to the study of criminal
behavior and to perform the criminal law that made him known as the “Father of Modern
Criminology”.*
a. Cesare Marquis de Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Edwin Sutherland
 
15. The concept refers to the potential rewards and punishments for committing or not committing a
criminal or deviant act.*
A) Differential Association Theory
B) Differential Identification Theory
C) Differential Reinforcement Theory
D) Differential Opportunity Theory
 
16. In this view, people commit criminal or delinquent acts if they believe that it will lead to
acceptance by and approval of these important people in their lives.*
A) Differential Association Theory
B) Differential Identification Theory
C) Differential Reinforcement Theory
D) Differential Opportunity Theory 

17. It maintains that the failure of a man to achieve a higher status of life caused them to commit
crimes in order for that status or goal to be attained.*
A) Imitation Theory
B) Neutralization Theory
C) Anomie Theory
D) Strain Theory
 
18. Criminology changes as social condition changes.  It is concomitant with the advancement of
other sciences that had been applied to it.*
A) Nationalistic
B) Dynamic
C) Applied Science
D) Social Science
19. Passive Inadequate Criminal are those?*
A) One who commits crime due to aggressiveness
B) One who commits crime because they are forced by a reward or promise
C) Individual with defective socialization process or development thus he lacks proper moral values or
ethical standards.
D) One who acted with deliberation or premeditation

20. According to William Sheldon, this type of person is typically relaxed and comfortable
persons with predominance of soft and roundness. They are mostly extroverted persons and the
crimes that they usually commit is fraud.*
A) Romotonic
B) Ectomorph
C) Visceretonic
D) Cerebrotonic
 
21. Murder is what type of crime according to criminological classification?*
A) Acquisitive
B) Extinctive
C) Static-one crime,one place
D) Continuing- one crime,several places
 
22. He formulated the formula, Criminal behavior equals criminal tendencies plus crime inducing
situation divided by person emotional resistance to temptation.*
A. David Abrahamsen
 B. Sigmund Freud
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. Edwin Sutherland
 
23. Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with personality. Among these
theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. He classified body physique into three categories
as the endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. Of the following statements, which
appropriately describes the mesomorphic?*
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behaviour
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
 
24. Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?*
A. Spree killer
B. Serial killer
C. Mass killer
D. Homicidal
 
25. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning approach
perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this theory is:*
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. An excess of wisdom
D. Learned and not inherited

26. Johnny Sins is taking criminology course in Sutherland University. His teacher always called
him an idiot because he is very slow during class discussion, the former decided to stop
studying because he believe that he has no potential and maybe his teacher is right. This
situation best describe the theory of?*
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Social Reaction Theory
C. Imitation suggestion theory
D. None of these
27. Typology of crime simply refers to?*
A. Kind of Crime
B. Categorization of Crimes
C. Nature of Crime
D. None of these
 
28. White collar crime are those committed by reasons of responsibility and belonging to the higher
strata of society. Who gave the traditional definition of white collar crime?*
A. Edwin Sutherland
B. Charles Goring
C. Cesare Lombroso
D. William sheldon
 
29. Balisawsaw was died due to car accident. What kind of crime victim is the former?*
A. Direct/Primary
B. Indirect/Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of these
 
30. What is the temperament of Ectomorph?*
A. Viscerotonic
B. Romotonic
C. Cerebrotonic
D. Iconic

31.  Who authored the Equatorial law of crimes that claimed that criminality increases as one
nears the equator, while drunkenness increases in proximity to the poles?*
a. Quetelet
b. Montesquieu
c. Marx
d.Bonger 

32.   The one who originated a system of classifying criminals according to bodily
measurement, based on the concept that human skeleton is unchangeable and that no two
individuals are alike in all dimensions, was – *
a. Alphonse Bertillon
 b. Charles Deckins
c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Charles Goring

33.    Who is the father of the Criminal Statistics?     *

a. Quetelet
 b. Lombroso
c. Comte
d. Bonger

34.  The emergence of capitalist produces inequality in which the proletariat are exploited by the
bourgeoisie. The word bourgeoisie means?*
a. Capital
b. worker
c. slave
d. Capitalist

35.   Criminals who acted under the impulse of uncontrolled emotion on occasion during otherwise
moral lives.*
a. seasonal Criminals
b. Criminals of Passion
c. Occasional Criminals
d. Born Criminals

36. It is also referred as the cartographic or geographical school of criminology.*

a. Economy School
b. Ecological School
c. Positivist School
d. Chicago School

37 .  The relation of criminality to the physical constitution of man;*

a. Criminal Physical anthropology
b. Criminal Sociology
c. Habitual Delinquency
d. Criminal Psychology

38. The set of norms and standards practiced by members during socials and other functions----.
a. Etiquette
b. Social Decorum
c. Ceremony
d. Integrity

39.  What nature of criminology regards it as changing since social condition change?*
a. It is an applied science
b. It is a social science
c. It is dynamics
d. It is nationalist
e. It is varying

40.  Freudian theory traces behavior as a deviation to the representation of basic drives. A person
seeks release from conflict either by some mental substitute or by overt compensatory behavior,
which may be criminalistics in nature. In this scenario, crime is seen as---- *
a. Heredity is one of the causes
b. A behavior influenced by environment
c. A deprivation in the human needs
d. An unconscious effort to solve an emotional problem
 

41.  The Freudan theory emphasizes – *

a. Delinquency is formed in the few years of a child’s life
b. On frustration and unconsciousness
c. Bad neighborhood
d. Ecological and sociological determinants
 
42. The application of physical and natural sciences both in criminal investigation and crime
detection.*
a. Criminal Justice System
b. Criminalistics
c. Criminology
d. Criminal Sociology
 
43. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.*
a. Criminal Epidemiology
b. Criminal Ecology
c. Criminal Psychology
d. Criminal Determinism
 
44. Refers to the pleasure principle that the main purpose of the life is to maximize pleasure while
minimizing the pain.*
a. Hedonism
b. Hedonist
c. Utilitarianism
d. Felicific
 
45.  An English jurist, philosopher, and legal and social reformer and the advocator of utilitarianism
and invented the Panopticon Prison*
a. Jeremy
b. Benthan
c. Bentham
d. Jeremy Beccaria

46.  Criminology cannot be considered as a science because it has not yet acquired universal
validity and acceptance. This statement is?*
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Not sure
 
47. The study of Criminology in relation to physical constitution of man is called:*
a. Criminal Ecology
b. Criminal psychology
c. Criminal Demography
d. Criminal Physical Anthropology

48. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of affection
to others and aggression to environment and other people.*
A. Psychopathic personality
b. Schizophrenic personality
C. Neurotic personality
D. Compulsive Neurosis

49. Crimes committed by persons who usually occupy key positions, maintains prestige and high
social are referred to as________.*
a. Blue Collar crimes
b. Economic Crimes
c. Organized crimes
d. White collar
 
50.  Criminals are said not to be responsible for their acts hence, they should not be punished is one
of the major theories under – *
a. Classical School
b. Modern School
c. Positive School
d. Sociological School
e. Neo-classical School
 

QUIZ 2- THEORIES OF CRIME CAUSATION

 
1. Are theories that combine the concepts and central propositions from two or more prior existing
theories into a new single set of integrated concepts and propositions.*
a. DIT
b. DAT
c. Integrated theories
d. DIFFERENTIAL ASSOCIATION-REINFORCEMENT THEORY

2. The theory argues that an area is safer when people feel a sense of ownership and responsibility
for that piece of a community. Newman asserts that the criminal is isolated because his turf is
removed when each space in an area is owned and cared for by a responsible party. If an intruder
can sense a watchful community, he feels less secure committing his crime. The idea is that crime
and delinquency can be controlled and mitigated through environmental design.*
a. Defensible Space Theory
b. Broken Window’s Theory
c. Green Criminology Theory
d. Social Disorganization Theory

3. This theory  directly suggests that children having pro social  friends of same age that  are
committed to conventional success and less like to be delinquent.*
a.) differential association theory
b. age-graded theory
c.) social learning theory
d. labeling thheory

4. Charles Goring contradicted Lombroso’s idea that criminals can be seen  though features alone but
he agreed that;*
a. tall thin men tends to commit forgery and fraud while heavy person commits rape
b. Man can rationalize wheter he is protected from hurt or destruction and uses it as determinant to
obey or disobey societal rules.
c. criminals are shorter and less in weight than non criminals
d. none of this

5. According to Hans Von Hentig on his general classes of victim, which among the following would
best describe  the immigrant victims’?*
a.Those who are unsure of the rules of conduct in the surrounding society
b.unable to think clearly
c.racial prejudice leading to unequal treatment
d.weak by virtue of age and immaturity

6. It is the mapping of crime and establishes relationship between society and the physical
environment. It dominated in 1830-1880 in France and spread to England. The work based on social
data of demographic information on population including its density, religion affiliation and wealth.*
a. Chicago school
b. Positivist school
c. Neo classical school
d. Cartographical school

7. According to this theory, people strike a balance between being “all-deviant” and “all-conforming”.
Behavior persists depending on the degree to which it was rewarded or punished.*
a. Social Control theory
b. Differential Reinforcement Theory
c. Differential Opportunity Theory
d. Differential Identification Theory

8. This theory states that criminal behavior is learned through socialization.*

a. Social Disorganization Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Cultural Deviance Theory
d. Differential Association Theory

9. This theory states that a person can be criminal because of an underlying factor which involves the
measurement of the bones in our body.*
a. Criminal psychology
b. Criminal epidemiology
c. Criminal physical anthropology
d. Criminal psychiatry

10. This theory states that a person can be criminal because of an underlying factor which involves
the measurement of the bones in our body.*
a. Criminal psychology
b. Criminal epidemiology
c. Criminal physical anthropology
d. Criminal psychiatry

11. The theory contends that a series of external social factors and internal qualities effectively
insulate certain individuals from criminal involvement even when ecological variables induce others
to engage in crime.*
a. strain theory
b. general strain theory
c. post partum syndrome
d. containment theory
12. This theory refers to the individual’s frustration, anger and resentment as cause and in relation
to criminality.*
a. Social Disorganization Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Cultural Deviance Theory
d. Differential Association Theory

13. It is the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior.*
a. Psychology
b. Physiology
c. Phrenology
d. Physiognomy

14. Any system of ideas arranged in rational order that produce general principles which increase
our understanding and explanations.*
a. Theories
c. Policy
b. Principle
d. Factors

15. This believes that criminal behavior is inherited or is identified through physical characteristics
of a criminal.*
A. Biological approach
C. Psychological approach
B. Sociological approach
D. Behavioral

16. This theory views crime as a result of individuals with weakened bonds to social institutions.*
a. Social Reaction Theory
b. Social Bond Theory
c. Drift Theory
d. Social Learning Theory

17. According to etymology of criminals, this person committed crime as a result of reacting to a

situation or during a moment of anger or burst of feeling.*
a. Acute criminal
b. Normal criminal
c. Chronic criminal
d. Neurotic criminal

18. According to Social Bond Theory, it refers to the degree to which an individual cares about the
opinions of others.*
a. Commitment
b. Involvement
c. Attachment
d. Belief

19. According to etymology of criminals, he is the one who committed a crime with intent or
deliberated thinking.*
a. Acute criminal
b. Normal criminal
c. Chronic criminal
d. Neurotic criminal

20. It refers to a group of beliefs or ideas that support a specific theory.*

a. School of theories
b. School of thought
c. Classical school of criminology
d. Neoclassical school of criminology

21. According to Social Bond Theory, it refers to an individual’s investment of energy ad emotion in

conventional pursuits, such as getting good grades.*
a. Commitment
b. Involvement
c. Attachment
d. Belief

22. According to etymology of criminals, he is the criminal who has mental disorder.*

a. Acute criminal
b. Normal criminal
c. Chronic criminal
d. Neurotic criminal

23. It is the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior.*
a. Psychology
b. Physiology
c. Phrenology
d. Physiognomy

24. Phillip was about to rape a women when a thought inside his head say “dont do it.it’s a
sin”.Phillip out of lust, still continued his act. What aspect of human psyche is that voice?*
a.)Conscience
b.)Super ego
c.) ID
d.) both a and b

25. This theory refers to the individual’s frustration, anger and resentment as cause and in relation
to criminality.*
a. Social Disorganization Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Cultural Deviance Theory
d. Differential Association Theory

26. The theory contends that a series of external social factors and internal qualities effectively
insulate certain individuals from criminal involvement even when ecological variables induce others
to engage in crime.*
a. strain theory
b. general strain theory
c. post partum syndrome
d. containment theory

27. It is a philosophy which argues that what is right is the one that would cause the greatest good
for the greatest number of people.*
a. Felicific calculus
b. Utilitarianism
c. Hedonism
d. Empirical Criminology

28. According to the Father of Psychoanalysis, criminality is caused by the imbalance of the five
components of personality.*
a. True (3)
b. False
c. Yes
d. No

29. Hulkugan is a person with  an extra Y chromosome in his gene. Yet, he is law abiding citizen
because he don’t want to disappoint his family, teachers, pastors, and  acquaintances which he was
well associated with. What theory best describe this.*
a.)Genetic theory
c.) Social bond theory
b.)XYY theory
d.) differential association theory
30. This theory states that criminal behavior is learned through interactions with other persons in a
process of communication.*
a. Social Disorganization Theory
b. Strain Theory
c. Cultural Deviance Theory
d. Differential Association Theory

31. It modified the doctrine of free will by stating that free will of man may be affected by other factors
and crime is committed due to some compelling reasons.*
a. Neoclassical
b. Classical
c. Positivist
d. Empirical Criminology

32. According to types of offenders, it is the criminal who possesses some skills and know-how
which enable him to commit crimes and evade detection.*
a. Professional criminal
b. Organized criminal
c. Ordinary criminal
d. Neurotic criminal

33. It is the study of the external formation of the skull in relation to the persons personality and
tendencies toward criminal behavior.*
a. Psychology
b. Physiology
c. Phrenology
d. Physiognomy

34. This school of thought is based on the assumption that individuals choose to commit crimes after
weighing the consequences of their actions, but that does not give any distinction between adult and
minor or a mentally handicapped, as far as free will is concerned.*
a. Neoclassical school
b. Classical school
c. Positivist school
d. Cartographic school

35. This theory states that obedience to the norms of lower-class culture places people in conflict
with norms of the dominant culture*
a. Theory of anomie
b. Strain theory.
c. Differential association theory
d. Culture conflict theory

36. It develops itself from the pleasure and pain level and from the discovery that the behavior of the
seat of psychic energy can have boring results. *
a. ID
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Awareness

37. He introduced the “social reaction theory which states that individuals copy behavior patterns
of other individuals, and that those with weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those
with stronger personalities:*
a. Emile Durkheim
b. Adolphe Quetelet
c. Gabriel Tarde
d. Enrico Ferri

38. Under Subjective Approach, this is focused on the study of the nature of human beings –
how they satisfy their physical needs.*
a. anomie
B. Psychological Approach
C. Physiological Approach
D. Psychoanalytical Approach

39. Mr. A was born in a criminal family, and he was always looking for pleasure in life, but do not
take any risk and avoids pain. Mr. A is a great representation of a:*
a. Maniac
b. Atavistic
c. Hedonist
d. Criminaloid

40. According to this theory, people strike a balance between being “all-deviant” and “all-
conforming”. Behavior persists depending on the degree to which it was rewarded or punished
a. Social Control theory
b. Differential Reinforcement Theory
c. Differential Opportunity Theory
d. Differential Identification Theory

41. It is the mapping of crime and establishes relationship between society and the physical
environment. It dominated in 1830-1880 in France and spread to England. The work based on social
data of demographic information on population including its density, religion affiliation and wealth.
a. Chicago school
b. Positivist school
c. Neo classical school
d. Cartographical school

42.  Ace a 3 year old boy punched her sister Camille. Both of them cried and their father Abon gives
them chocolates. This best describes ______.
A. Neutralization Theory
B. Differential Reinforcement Theory
C. Social Learning Theory
D. Differential Association Theory

43.  This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry determines
IQ; and, that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior including criminal
behavior:*
a. Nature Theory
b. Psychological theory
c. Nurture theory
d. Labeling theory

44.  What is the speculation explains that both conforming behavior and deviant behavior have two
reinforcing elements, the internal control system and the external control system?*
A. Conflict Theory
B. Containment Theory
C. Social disorganization Theory
D. Strain Theory

45.  A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and goals in life both as an officer
of the law, and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular
theory.*
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
c. Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory

46.  The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency which the
police treat female offenders.*
a. Doing gender
b. masculinity hypothesis
c. Chivalry hypothesis
d. pre-menstrual syndrome
47.  Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. It is focused on an individual's choice as to
whether or not he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in giving punishment
is_______________.*
a. Restoration
b. Treatment
c. Retribution
d. Deterrence

48.  According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals from
the general population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people.*
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata
d. ape-like appearance

49.   Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making deception through verbal communication. She
had committed estafa to several persons through illegal recruitment. What crime according to result
did she committed?*
a. acquisitive crime
b. extinctive crime
c. instant crime
d. situational crime

50.  PJ hoards sugar and when there is a scarcity on supplies of sugar, he sells the same at higher
prices. This best illustrates ___.*
A. Economical Crime
B. Enterprise Crime
C. Expressive Crime
D. Crime of Repression

QUIZ 3- HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND VICTIMOLOGY

1.  The totally accepted behavior because they follow the standard norms of society.*
a. Human behavior
b. Normal behavior
c. Simple behavior
d. Abnormal behavior

2. Any behavior that the person is not aware or acts embedded in the subconscious.
a. Extrovert
b. Unconscious
c. Conscious
d. Oedipus Complex

3. A behavior when a person acted with sanity or reason.*

a. Rational
b. Involuntary
c. Dementia
d. Alexia

4. An act committed without apparent reason or explanation, such as losing sanity, loud laughing
at nobody.
a. Overt
b. Bizarre
c. Irrational
d. Stressor
5. Acts categorized according to the number of neurons involved in the process of behaving.
a. Behavior
b. Voluntary
c. Covert
d. Simple and complex

6. Pertains to our way of thinking, reasoning, solving problem, processing information and
coping with the environment.
a. Social aspect
b. Coprolalia
c. Thinking aspect
d. Intellectual aspect

7. It refers to our feelings, mood, temper and strong motivational force.

a. Moral aspect
b. Emotional aspect
c. Coping
d. Insanity

8. It pertains to being a man or a woman and the expression of love.

a. Psychological needs
b. Mutism
c. Psychosexual aspect
d. Political aspect

9. It pertains to the human interest towards something, his/her likes and dislikes.
a. Mania
b. Values
c. Melancholia
d. Political aspect

10. A type of change of behavior which is gentler, less destructive, but it takes a very long time.
a. Evolutionary change
b. Disruptive change
c. Abnormal
d. None of the above

11. A segment of cell structures called chromosomes by which parents pass on traits to their
offspring. 
a. Genes
b. Heredity
c. Environment
d. Learned

12. It is the persons knowledge of a given stimulus which largely help to determine the actual
behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Sensation
b. Perception
c. Awareness
d. None of the above

13. Sadness and regret can still be present in this phase, but the emotional survival tactics of denial,
bargaining and anger are less likely to be present.
a. Anger
b. Bargaining
c. Acceptance
d. Depression

14. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.

a. Regression
b. Suppression
c. Rationalization
d. Substitution

15. Complaints of bodily symptoms that suggest the presence of physical problem but no organic
basis can be found. The individual is pre-occupied with his state of health or diseases.
a. Panic disorder
b. Somatoform disorder
c. Multiple disorder
d. Neurasthenia

16. A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus Complex
b. Electra Complex
c. Doing gender
d. Chivalry Hypothesis

17. It is when you are convinced that someone is mistreating, conspiring against, or planning to harm
you or your loved one.
a. Delusion
b. Delusion of Grandeur
c. Delusion of Reference
d. Delusion of Persecution

18. Handling your own pain by helping others is called:

a. Scapegoating
b. Altruism
c. Projection
d. Regression

19. It is one of the views in human behavior that emphasizes unconscious motives that originate
from aggressive impulses in childhood.
a. Neurological view
b. Behavioral view
c. Cognitive view
d. Psychoanalytic view

20. It is one of the factors that affects human behavior that refers to the process by which an
offspring cell or organism acquires or becomes predisposed to the characteristics of its parent cell
or organism.
a. Heredity
b. Environment
c. Learning
d. Hereditary

21. It is one of the broad reactions to frustrations which is manifested by sulking, retreating,
becoming indifferent and giving up.
a. Flight
b. Fight
c. Hop
d. Clash

22. It is one of the common defense mechanisms which refers to achieving alternate goals and
gratifications to overcome the feelings of frustration and anxiety.
a. Identification
b. Regression
c. Substitution
d. Fantasy

23. It is the impulse to drink liquor.

a. Dipsomania
b. Pyromania
c. Arithmomania
d. Megalomania

24. It is one of the types of dissociative disorders in which the individual shifts abruptly and repeatedly
from one personality to another as if more than one person were inhabiting the same body.
a. Psychogenic Fugue
b. Amnesia
c. Depersonalization
d. Multiple personality

25. It is one of the types of personality disorders that is characterized by instability, reflected in
drastic mood shifts and behavior problems.
a. Narcissistic personality
b. Borderline personality
c. Antisocial personality
d. Histrionic personality

26. Pedro is injured as a direct result of an act of violence committed against him. Pedro is
considered as a?
a. Primary victim
b. Special victim
c. Secondary victim
d. Related victim

27. Juan is a person who suffers nervous shock without himself being exposed to danger. He is
referred as?
a. Secondary victim
b. Special victim
c. Primary victim
d. Related victim

28.  Maria is the mother of Pedro, who has injured as a direct result of an act of violence. What is
referred to Maria?
a. Witness Secondary Victim
b. Parent Secondary Victim
c. Close Family Member
d. Related Victim
29.   Petra is injured as a direct result of witnessing an act of violence against another Pedro. Petra is
considered as?
a. Witness Secondary Victim
b. Parent Secondary Victim
c. Close Family Victim
d. Related Victim

30. If Petra witness to either a more or less serious act of violence. Petra is considered as?
a. Witness Secondary Victim
b. Parent Secondary Victim
c. Close Family Victim
d. Related Victim

31.  A close family member of a primary victim must have had a genuine personal relationship with
the primary victim when they died. What is referred to this?
a. Related Victim
b. Primary Victim
c. Secondary Victim
d. Special Victim

32. It is an umbrella term that includes any non-consensual activity that is committed by force or fear
or mental or physical incapacitation, including through the use of alcohol or drugs?
a. Sexual Misconduct
b. Sexual Abuse
c. Sexual Harassment
d. Rape

33. Any sexual behavior that is unwanted or interferes with the other person’s right to say “no” to
sexual advances.
a. Sexual Misconduct
b. Sexual Harassment
c. Rape
d. Sexual Abuse

34.  Is any unwelcome sexual conduct or behavior that creates an intimidating, hostile or offensive
working or educational environment?
a. Rape
b. Sexual harassment
c. Sexual abuse
d. Sexual Misconduct

35. It is an act of making unwanted and sexually offensive contact (clothed or unclothed) with an
intimate body part of another person or action?
a. Sexual Exploitation
b. Sexual touching
c. Sexual Abuse
d. Sexual harassment

36.   Lindo calls you insulting sexual names, talks about you in a sexual way that makes you feel
uncomfortable (like commenting on your body), or spreads sexual rumors about you
a. Sexual Misconduct
b. Sexual Harassment
c. Sexual Abuse
d. Rape
37.  It is a sexual penetration of the victim’s vagina, mouth or rectum without consent. What is
referred to this act?
a. Sexual Harassment
b. Sexual Abuse
c. Rape
d. Sexual Misconduct

38.  Photographing or making audio recording of sexual activity without consent?

a. Sexual exploitation
b. Sexual Abuse
c. Sexual Harassment
d. Sexual touching

39.  It is a willful, malicious and repeated following of a person or harassing behaviors against another
person, putting the person in a reasonable fear for his or her personal safety, or the safety of his/her
family?
a. Stalking
b. Sexual Harassment
c. Physical Assault
d. Domestic Violence

40.  It is to touch or strike a person against his/her will or to threaten violence against that person?
a. Physical Assault
b. Domestic Violence
c. Sexual Harassment
d. Stalking

41. It describes negative behaviors that Jake exhibits over another within families or relationships?
a. Physical Assault
b. Stalking
c. Harassment
d. Domestic Violence

42.  Which is not related to the group?

a. punching
b. kicking
c. hitting
d. touching

43.  All are one, EXCEPT?

a. Playing mind games
b. Taking money
c. Controlling finances
d. Not letting someone work

44.  Which is not related to the group?

a. playing mind games
b. forcing someone to have sex
c. repeatedly making someone feel bad or scared
d. constantly checking up on someone

45.  Actions that use information technologies to support deliberate, repeated and hostile behavior by
an individual or group that is intended to harm another?
a. Cyber bullying
b. Cyber crime
c. Cyber patrol
d. Cyber stalking

46. Liza create fake accounts to exploit another friend’s trust. What is referred   to this?
a. Exclusion
b. Trickery
c. Impersonation
d. Cyber stalking

47.  Teenagers intentionally exclude others from an online group?

a. Impersonation
b. Trickery
c. Exclusion
d. Cyber stalking

48.   It can cause a victim to feel upset, afraid, ashamed, embarrassed and anxious about going to
school?
a. Bullying
b. Stalking
c. Hate crime
d. Discrimination

49.  John bullied Jake by speaking something that upset Jake. What is referred to this situation?
a. Physical bullying
b. Verbal bullying
c. Cyber bullying
d. Social bullying

50.  Milky was under 18 years of age when he experienced violence. What is referred to Milky?
a. Special victim
b. Primary victim
c. Secondary victim
d. Related victim

QUIZ 4- PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT AND ETHICAL STANDARDS

1. It is a type of approach in the police-community relations whereby it is directed towards the general
public or various enclaves within the society:*
a. Externally- Oriented Approach
b. Internally -Oriented Approach
c. People-Oriented Approach
d. Citizens-Oriented Approach
 
2.  Which of the following is not an objective of Police-Community Relations:*
a. To inform the people of their role and let them solve minor problems without police
cooperation and assistance 
b.To create broader understanding and sympathy with the problems and needs of the police
c. To develop public understanding and support and appreciation for the service of the police
d. To maintain and develop the goodwill and confidence of the community for the police

3. Are those which require the performance of a certain act, such as casting a ballot during election
and applying for business license.*
a. Negative duties
 b. Positive duties
c. Affirmative duties
d. Natural duties
 
4. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?*
a. Devotion to duty
b. Judicious use of authority
c. Social Awareness
 d. Loyalty
 
5. What will be result of inequality of police service?*
a. Boost the morale of personnel
b. Harmonious relationship among members
c. Inefficiency and lack of team work
d. all of these
 
6. To develop public good will, a policeman on duty must do the following, EXCEPT:*
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
 
 
7.  PNP members should always bare in mind that they are public servants and not masters of the
people; they must perform their duties without arrogance.*
a. Orderliness
b. Integrity
c. Humility
d. Perseverance
 
8. Are rights that cannot be transferred, cannot be borrowed and cannot be taken away*
a. inherent rights
b. supreme rights
c. inalienable rights
 d. human rights
 
9. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Plunder Act”*
a. R.A. 3019
b. R.A. 6713
c. R.A. 7080
 d. R.A. 3719
 
10. An example of police immorality is*
a. Going to the office not in uniform
b. smoking while patrolling
c. living with a woman not his wife
d. always absent from his post
 
11. It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.*
a. patience
b. perseverance
c. endurance
d. prudence
 
12. These are forbidden acts involving misuse of office or authority for personal gain.*
a. corruption
b. deviance
c. immorality
 d. brutality
 
13. Which of the following nearly expresses the meaning of animosity?*
a. Resentment
b. Anger
c. Disgust
d. Bribe
 
14. Under this ethical standard, all PNP members shall follow logical procedures in accomplishing
their duties to minimize waste of time, money and efforts.*
a. Perseverance
b. Humility
c. Justice
d. Orderliness
15. With regard to the police service, any gift or item of value exchanged for a service rendered is
known as:*
a. Bribe
b. Love offering
c. donation
d. gratuity
 
16. It was observed by the public through media and news print outs that Police Chief Carlos was
exercising proper legitimate use of authority in the performance of his duty to avoid critiques from the
oppositions, Police Chief Carlos is performing what ethical standard?*
a. Judicious use of authority
b. Public Service
c. justice
d. Police discretion
 
 
17. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a violation of the ethical standards. PNP members
shall exercise proper and ______ use of authority in the performance of duty.*
a. effective 
b. proportionate
c. legitimate
d. responsible
 
18. PNP members  are expected to by the public nit to seek political influence nor get "padrino" on
matters pertaining to assignment, award, training and promotion. This means that all PNP members
are discouraged to resort to:*
a. influence peddling
b. political patronage
c. partisan politics
d. political corruption
 
 
19. Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers  in the performance of their  duties.*
a. maximum tolerance
b. rules on engagement
c. parens patriae
d. command responsibility
 
20. The best measure for the competence of police officer is _________.*
a. ability of his men to prepare reports
b. good command of words
c. high morale of his men
d. high level of education among his men
 
21. Which of the following statement should not  be the attitude of the police officer when attending in
trial court?*
a. he must say nothing but the truth
b. he must be conscious of his personal appearance
c. he must be irrational and straightforward
 d. he must speak loudly enough to be heard
 
22. Unusual emergencies that happens and absence of superior officers leaves the policeman to
handle the situation properly, the best procedure to follow is?*
a. confer with any other superior
b. take no action
c. act according to one's judgement
d. confer immediately with the police officers on the best action to take

23. Refers to a program designed to maintain harmony and mutual support between the police and
the community.*
a. Public personnel Program
b. Public Communications Program
c. Public Relations Program
d. Social Interaction Program

24.  It is a program designed to condition both friendly and hostile public, ensuring the facilitation of
the attainment of police objectives*
a. Mental program
b. Psychological Program
c. Psychic Program
d. Psychiatric Program
 
25.  Refers to established and generally accepted moral values and ethical acts.*
a. Professional ethics
b. Ethical standards
c. Moral values
d. Character
 
26. Police officers, as well as their immediate family members shall be encouraged to actively get
involved in religious, social and civic activities to enhance the image of the PNP organization.*
a.. non-solicitation of patronage
b. social awareness
c. non-partisanship
d. devotion to duty
 
27. Police officers shall perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness, efficiency, enthusiasm,
determination and manifest concern for public welfare.*
a.. non-solicitation of patronage
b. social awareness
c. non-partisanship
d. devotion to duty
 
 
28. It is the lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance of police duties. It
could be due to physical or intellectual limitations or lack of skill.*
a. misfeasance
b. non-feasance
c. malfeasance
d. incompetency
 
29. It is a virtue that regulates the carnal appetite for sensual pleasures.*
a. prudence
b. endurance
c. temperance
 d. fortitude
 
30. Those that are necessary for survival such as food, shelter, clothing, sex, water and sleep. -
These include physiological needs of man as a man.*
a. psychological values
b. biological values
 c. moral values
d. intellectual values
 
31. It  refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of an individual towards work and his integrity
and his practice of the core moral value principles.*
A. Conduct
B. Morality
C. Ethics
D. Professionalism
 
 32.  What is the complete title of the PNP Code of Conduct? *
A. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and Professional Conduct
B. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
 
C. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
D. PNP Ethical Standards
 
33.  When the person fully  understands what he is doing and has the capability to appreciate the
consequences of his actions.*
A. Knowingly
B. Deliberately
C. Freely
D. Absolutely
 
34. A division of ethics which deals with the general principles of morality.*
A. general ethics
 B. special ethics
C. code of ethics
D. all of the above
 
35.  What is the practical science that treats the principles of human morality and duty as applied to
law enforcement?*
A. Police Customs
B. Police Ethics
 C. Values
D. Police Tradition
 
36. Departed uniformed member’s graveside honors as a gesture of farewell.*
A. Funeral Service and Honors
 B. Half-Mast
C. Ceremony Tendered to Retirees
D. Flag Raising Ceremony
 
37.  Among the following Core Values of the Philippine National Police, which is the most supreme?*
A. Love of God.
B. Respect for authority.
C. Respect for women
D. Respect for sanctity of marriage.
E. Stewardship over material things.
 
38.  Which of the following is the most important function of a good public relations officer of a police
station?*
A. training of police members
B. recruiting qualified applicants
C. generating community awareness and support
 D. planning special projects
 
39.  These are police officers who engage in relatively minor type of corruption opportunities as they
present themselves.*
A. Grass Eaters
C. Rotten Apples
B. Meat Eaters
D. White Knights
 
 
40.  To maintain and broaden public confidence, professionals shall perform their responsibilities with
the highest sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and spiritual values. *
A. integrity and objectivity
 B. Service to others
C. Solidarity and Teamwork
D. Social and Civic Responsibility
 
41.  Each profession shall nurture and support one organization for all its members. *
A. integrity and objectivity
B. Service to others
C. Solidarity and Teamwork
 
D. Social and Civic Responsibility
 
42. This includes the qualification like educational attainment and morality.*
A. Ability to rise when fall
B. Determination
C. Background of the applicants 
D. Response to training
 
43. Strengthening the behavior of the selected applicant is believed to be the objective of the PNP
training.*
A. Ability to rise when fall
B. Determination
C. Type of training
 D. Response to training
 
44. It is but natural to fail but what matter is the ability to rise especially when put in hot water. Facing
the consequences of our action is a sign of maturity.*
A. Ability to rise when fall
B. Determination
C. Type of training
D. Response to training
 
45. Uniformed members will always uphold public interest over and above personal interest.*
A. Commitment to Public Interest
 B. Commitment to Democracy
C. Non-Partisanship
D. Social Awareness
 
46. PNP members salute the lowering of the flag at the end of the official day’s work*
A. Half mast
B. Flag Retreat Ceremony
C. Ceremony Tendered to Retiree
D. Honor Ceremony
 
47.  Arrival and departure honor ceremonies are rendered to visiting dignitaries, VIPs, PNP officers
with the rank of Chief Superintendent and above and AFP officers of equivalent grade.*
A. Half mast
B. Flag Retreat Ceremony
C. Ceremony Tendered to Retiree
D. Honor Ceremony
 
 48.  To develop public good will, a policemen on duty must do the following, EXCEPT:*
A. be selective of people to serve
B. be courteous and fair
C. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
D. perform job with dedication and efficiency
 
49. It consists with the peace officers’ relations with the officers and men of his own department.*
A. inter-departmental relations
B. intra-departmental relations
 C. citizen’s relations
D. teamwork
 
50. When police officers taught how to deal with people in a warm and friendly manner, they are
trained in ___.*
A. human relation
 B. media relation
C. public information
D. public relation

QUIZ 5- JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AND JUVENILE JUSTICE SYSTEM

1. Maria was bullied by her playmates that she has no father. Jessica's mother was a prostitute
before and due to the nature of her job or calling, she cannot identify anymore the father of Jessica
among her customers in the night club. Thus, Maria is considered as a _________.*
A. Manceres child
B. Spurious Child
C. Adulterous Child
D. Illegitimate child

2.  These are children who, although not afflicted with insanity or mental defect, are unable to
maintain normal social relations with others who and the community in general due to emotional
problems or complexes.*
A. Disturbed Child
B. Behaviorally Disturbed
C. Physically Handicapped
D. Emotionally Disturbed

3. Justin is living together with his live-in partner Eden for more than 10 years. They had 2 children: 5
years of age was their eldest and the youngest is 2 years of age. After 10 years of living together,
they decided to separate since they realized that they are not meant for each other. Who will be
authorized by the court for the custody of their children?
A. Eden
B. Justin
C. Justin’s Parents
D. Eden’s Parents

4. A Japanese woman was humiliated by her Filipino boyfriend by ordering her to swim nude in the
beach. Is the act of her boyfriend punishable under provisions of Anti-VAWC of 2004?
A. No, because they’re not yet married
B. Yes, and he is also liable for rape
C. No, because this law is not applicable to foreigners residing or temporarily staying in the Phils.
D. Yes, because even foreigners are also protected by this law.

5. The court held that Juvenile Courts must provide the basic procedural protection that the Bill of
Rights guarantee to adults, including timely advance notice of the charges , the right to either retained
or appointed counsel.
A. Breed vs. Jones
B. In re Gault
C. In re Winship
D. Schall vs. Martin

6. This view gives an explanation that law violations and delinquency is a result of some physical
defects. It advocates that youth misconduct is a direct result of faulty biology. Hence, the support from
family members, friends and acceptance of the community may solve the problem on delinquency. 
A. Sociogenic Approach
B. Biogenic Approach
C. Psychogenic Approach
D. Psychiatric Approach

7. Refers to aggressive teens who resents authority, whether be it parental, school regulations or
ordinances and laws passed by the proper legislative authorities. The most common reason for such
dislike is focused on anyone who tries to control their conduct.
A. Asocial Delinquent Youth
B. Accidental Delinquent Youth
C. Neurotic Delinquent Youth
D. Social delinquent Youth

8. Less identifiable in personality and temperament, essentially a law-abiding citizen but happens to
be at the wrong place at the wrong time. This may be credited to peer pressure or pure curiosity on
the part of the young person.

A. Asocial Delinquent Youth

B. Accidental Delinquent Youth
C. Neurotic Delinquent Youth
D. Social delinquent Youth

9. Children whose acts are manifested by vile, cruel and atrocious acts and conduct for which they
feel no remorse.
A. Asocial Delinquent Youth
B. Accidental Delinquent Youth
C. Neurotic Delinquent Youth
D. Social delinquent Youth
10. This is the law that amended the age of majority from 21 years old downgraded to 18 years old.
A. P.D 603
B. R.A 9344
C. R.A 7658
D. R.A 6809

11. An alternative process in determining the responsibility and treatment of children in conflict with
the law without resorting to formal court proceedings. It is done to prevent imprisonment of the
Juvenile.
A. Intervention
B. Court Martial
C. Diversion
D. Rehabilitation

12. Juan is a construction worker and his wife, Berta, is a dishwasher at a local carinderia. They have
two children, Andoy, a 16-year-old Grade 11 student and Angela, a 6-year-old Grade 1 student. What
type of family do they have?
A. Extended Family
B. Stem Family
C. Nuclear Family
D. Truncated Family

13. A family formed by two families, however, both families do not share a common residence, but
their houses may be located in the same area.
A. Extended Family
B. Stem Family
C. Nuclear Family
D. Truncated Family

14. A legal process by which married couple may formalize a de facto separation, that the spouses
may live legally apart, but they are still married and legitimacy of the children remain intact and they
may not remarry.
A. Legal Separation
B. Divorce
C. Separation
D. Annulment

15. It is a kind of family that is characterized by lack of gender differences in the consumption and
production spheres. Both parents work and have control positions outside the home, and both share
child rearing responsibilities within the home.
A. Egalitarian Family
B. Patriarchal Family
C. Matrilocal Family
D. Patrilocal Family

16. Fernando is a father working in a Corporate Firm but still has control over the decision-making in
his family, his wife, Cynthia, stays at home and raises their children. What type of family do they
have?
A. Egalitarian Family
B. Patriarchal Family
C. Matrilocal Family
D. Patrilocal Family

17. A child deserted by his/her parents or guardians for three continuous months is classified as:
A. Neglected
B. Dependent
C. Abandoned
D. Abused

18. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately unattended. 

A. Neglected child
B. abandoned child
C. dependent child
D. abusive child
 
19. All but one, are the reasons on why a child will become truant.
A. unattractive school life
B. family problems
C. reasonable mentors
D. domestic problems
 
20. All parents are required to enroll their children in school to complete at least __________.
A. Nursery Education
B. Tertiary Education
C. Elementary Education
D. Secondary Education
 
21. A child who is deprived of speech and hearing due to abnormality defect during birth is known as
________. 
A. Disabled child
B. Emotionally disturbed child
C. Mentally ill child
D. Physically handicapped child

22. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats?
A. police
B. parents
C. children
D. old age

23. A parent who provided a sperm cell, egg cell or uterus to help in the conception of a child is also
known as ____.
A. Adoptive parent
B. Donor parent
C. Biological parent
D. Surrogate parent

24. Barangay Funds may be appropriated to provide annual scholarship for _________.

A. Delinquent children
B. Parentless children
C. Indigent children
D. Homeless children

25. Children shall be given priority during __________ when an armed conflict occurs.
A. Education
B. Evacuation
C. Treatment
D. War

26. An ego state characterized by being dependent, rebellious, selfish, demanding, impatient and
emotional.
A. Adult ego state
B. Child ego state
C. Parent ego state
D. None of these
27. Educational system should extend particular care and attention to young persons, who are at
__________.
A. Risk
B. Social risk
C. Emotional Risk
D. Security Risk

28. How many continuous months are needed in order for the child to be considered as abandoned?
A. 3 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months

29. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially effective agency of social control.
A. Church
B. Community
C. Family
D. School

30. This term is used to denote those various offenses committed by children under the age of
majority.
A. Juvenile delinquency
B. Juvenile acts
C. Juvenile misdemeanors
D. Juvenile delinquent

31. An offender who is less than eighteen years old is classified as:
A. Adult offender
B. Senile offender
C. Youthful offender
D. Special Protection for Children Law

32. One of the following may be considered the least cause of juvenile delinquency.
A. Neglected homes
B. Police inefficiency
C. Lack of proper guidance
D. Delinquent parents

33. The following are examples of delinquency except one:

A. Children out of parental control
B. Children with high grades in school
C. School dropouts without justifiable reasons
D. Waywardness of children

34. The goal of any juvenile justice system is to –

A. Ensure that children are in school
B. Punish and inculcate discipline among children
C. Remove children from streets
D. Save children from becoming criminals

35. What police unit handles cases involving offenses committed against women and children?
a. DSWD
b. Child and Youth Relation Unit
c. Women and Children’s Concerns Desk
d. Women and Children Halfway Center

36. The period when a person gets liberated from parents’ authority is called?
A. Period of Conception
B. Period of Adoption
C. Period of Emancipation
D. Menstrual Period
37.  It refers to children and can either be male or female, who, for money, profit or in exchange of
any consideration get influenced by an adult or syndicate to indulge in sexual intercourse.
a. Juvenile Delinquents
b. Children Exploited in prostitution
c. Children in conflict with the law
d. Prostitute Children
38.  Under RA 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years of age is ______ from criminal liability.
A. Exempted
B. Not exempted
C. Mitigated
D. Aggravated

39. Under the new law, what is the age of emancipation?

A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 25

40. What do we call children who are in a place of war?

A. Child in Warzone Area
B. Zones of Peace
C. Child in Conflict Zone
D. Child in Conflict with the Law

41. What institution is being termed as the “cradle of human personality”?

A. School
B. Home
C. Church
D. Police

42. What is considered as the primary right of parents?

A. To provide for the child’s quality education
B. To provide for the child’s shelter
C. To provide for the child’s upbringing
D. To provide for the child’s clothing

43. What will happen to the sentence rendered by the court to a boy of 10 who raped a girl of his
age?
A. Mitigated
B. Suspended
C. Serve
D. Commuted

44. Which of the following is not an element of Social Bond Theory proposed by Travis Hirschi?
A. Attachment
B. Commitment
C. Involvement
D. Conscience

45. During the investigation process of offenses committed by a juvenile, which of the following
should not be released to the press by the police officer?
A. Length of investigation
B. Juvenile’s age
C. Juvenile’s name
D. Type of crime committed

46. Delinquency prevention programs are intended primarily to:

A. streamline juvenile court process
B. prevent young people from getting into trouble with the law
C. make the Police more effective in dealing with juveniles
D. rehabilitate young people who are drug users

47. . This may include the presence of both parents but who are irresponsible that children
experience constant quarrel in the home.
A. Separated Home
B. Delinquent Home
C. Disturbed Home
D. Broken Home

48. It is the mental incapacity of an individual to understand the difference between right from wrong
and its consequences.
cernment
B. Judgment
C. Abnormality
D. Sane

49. A principle that requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender, and the community.
A. Retributive Justice
B. Juvenile Justice
C. Criminal Justice
D. Restorative Justice

50. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related, usually terminating the rights of
biological parents, and usually with a trial “live-in” period. Once it is finalized, the records are sealed
and only the most compelling interests will enable disclosure of documents.
a. Adoption
b. child support
c. emancipation
d. equal protection

QUIZ 6- DISPUTE RESOLUTION AND CRISIS MANAGEMENT

 
1. This term is also used to refer to bourgeoisie, which causes class conflict being the owners of the
means of production between the proletariat- the working class and the poor.*
A.Investors
B.narchists
C.Capitalists
D.Oligarchs

2. What is a type of conflict resolution strategy wherein an individual becomes unassertive but
cooperative and neglects his own concerns to satisfy the concerns of the other person?
a. Compromising
b. Avoiding
c. Competing
d. Accommodating

3. The following are the advantages of Arbitration except one:

a. Parties can select the governing law that will determine their substantive rights.
b. The parties have the freedom to choose the form, procedure, practitioner, venue, and other terms
of the proceedings.
c. It resolves an issue in a non-expeditious and speedy manner.
d. The venue of arbitration depends on the agreement of both parties.

4. What do you call this mode of Dispute Resolution where mediation is ordered by a court to be
conducted in accordance with the Agreement of the Parties when an action is prematurely
commenced in violation of such agreement?
a. Mini-trial
b. Early Neutral Evaluation
c. Court Annexed Mediation
d. Court Referred Mediation

5. In situations requiring the use of batons/truncheons during civil disturbance, only target fleshy parts
of the body such as arms, torso, legs, and _______.
a. Head
b. Thighs
c. Buttocks
d. Neck

6. Mario is facing a difficult decision of what course he would choose in college. His mother wants him
to be an educator, but Mario wants to enroll in Criminology. To satisfy his mother’s concern, he just
opted to enroll in Education. What approach in Conflict Situation does Mario practiced?
a. Cooperativeness
b. Assertiveness
c. Avoidance
d. Compensation

7. Which of the following places public assemblies do not require a permit prior to the conduct of
activity?
a. Road Intersections
b. Government Compounds
c. Freedom Parks
d. Public Market

8. As soon as it becomes apparent that an assembly is being held in a public place, the Ground
Commander shall immediately conduct an inquiry whether the assembly is covered with a permit or
not. If a permit could not be shown, verification should immediately be done with the ____________.
a. Office of the Ombudsman
b. Trial Court having Jurisdiction over the place of assembly
c. Office of the Mayor having jurisdiction over the place of assembly
d. Chief of Police having jurisdiction over the place of assembly.

9. It is a short-term disagreement that can result in both parties reaching some sort of resolution; it
involves issues that are negotiable.
a. Dispute
b. Conflict
c. Crisis
d. Settlement

10. They are the proponents of Conflict Resolution Strategies, which emphasizes how people work in
achieving a peaceful ending of conflict.

a. Thompson and Krueger

b. Tucker and Kefler
c. Theodore and Kelvin
d. Thomas and Kilmann
11. It means to arrange by conferring or discussing
a. validate
b. vindicate
c. negotiate
d. Extricate

12. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

A. protection of life
B. media coverage
C. protection of property
D. capture of the hostage taker.

13. It is the last option to be considered in a hostage situation.

a. negotiation
b. denial to demands
c. assault
d. give in to demands

14. A situation that set of circumstances wherein a suspected law violator is holding a person captive
with the use of force and threat of violence while the police are in close contact with the suspect and
his captive.
a. Hostage taking
c. kidnapping for ransom
b. kidnapping
d. kidnap me

15. The following are the objectives of crisis management, except

a. Resolve without further incident
b. Safety of all participants
c. Apprehension of all hostage victims
d. Accomplish the task within the framework of current community standards.

16. Stale time or buying time in a hostage situation means…

A. Advance
B. Delay
C. Attack
D. secure

17. What is the act of exchanging an agreed amount between the family and the kidnappers at a
designated time and place for the safe release of victim?
A. Concession
B. pay-off
C. proof of life
D. Demand

18. What is established when the negotiator and hostage taker develops friendly relationship?
A. rapport
B. deceit
C. concession
D. Demands

19. When the hostage takers demand a prostitute, it must considered as a…

A. negotiable demand
B. non-negotiable demand
C. concession
D. pay-off

20. What is the most important element in a hostage situation?

A. weapon
B. Time
C. negotiator
D. Demand

21. In a hostage situation, “Quid pro quo” means…

A. To save lives
B. to negotiate
C. something for something
D. an eye for an eye

22. The main priority in a crisis situation, specifically in a hostage situation is “salvari vitas.” This Latin
phrase means…
A. To recover stolen property
B. to save lives
C. the initiate negotiation
D. to conduct assault operation

23. What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his captor and give his
sympathy to his own hostage taker?
A. Withdrawal Syndrome
B. Traumatic Syndrome
C. Holmshock Syndrome
D. None of These

24. Any process or procedure used to resolve a dispute or controversy, other than by adjudication of
a presiding judge of a court or an officer of a government agency, in which a neutral third party
participates to assist in the resolution of issues, which includes arbitration, mediation, conciliation,
early neutral evaluation, mini-trial, or any combination thereof.
a. Dispute Resolution
b. Alternative Dispute Resolution
c. Mediation
d. Arbitration

25. Refers to number of processes used to resolve conflict/dispute between parties.

a. Dispute resolution
b. dispute
c. litigation
d. alternative dispute resolution

26. A disagreement, argument, or controversy, that gives rise to a legal proceeding such as
arbitration, mediation, or a lawsuit.
a. Dispute resolution
b. dispute
c. litigation
d. alternative dispute resolution

27. The term Crisis was derived from the Greek word “krisis which means…
a. to decide
b. plunging
c. emergentia
d. dipping

28. Refers to any temporary refusal of an employer to furnish work as a result of an industrial or labor
dispute.
a. lockout
b. Strike
c. Eviction
d. Demolition

29. Under the ICER method of hostage negotiation, this refers to keeping onlookers beyond the
safety lines.
a. Isolate
b. contain
c. evaluate
d. Report

30. Refers to any temporary stoppage of work by the concerted action of employees as a result of an
industrial or labor dispute.
a. lockout
b. Strike
c. Eviction
d. Demolition

31. Concerned with identifying, assessing and mitigating any activity or event that could cause harm
to business.
a. Incident management
b. Risk analysis
c. Crisis Management
d. Risk management

32. The peace-keeping detail shall establish a command post outside the 50-meter radius from the
picket line.
a. 10 meters
b. 40 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 100 meters

33. It is designed to predict or prevent the probability of occurrence at the same time prepare to
handle them when they occur.
a. Proactive Phase
b. Reactive Phase
c. Post Conflict Phase
d. Answer not given

34. It is the actual implementation of contingency plans when a crisis occurs, despite the pro-active
measures undertaken.
a. Predict
b. Prepare
c. Prevention
d. Perform
35. Who is the Cabinet Officer involved when the threat involves national security and maritime
borders?
A. Secretary of the Department of National Defense
B. Secretary of DILG
C. Secretary of DOH
d. National Security Adviser

36. Refers to the actual execution or implementation of any contingency plan when a crisis situation
occurs despite the proactive measures.
a. Proactive Phase
b. Reactive Phase
c. Post Conflict Phase
d. Answer not given

37. Refers  the situation when the proactive and reactive phases are done, and plans for post action
and recovery are the focus and put into full implementation.
a. Proactive Phase-
b. Reactive Phase
c. Post Conflict Phase
d. Answer not given

38. This is essential for effective response. Entails planning, organization, training and stockpiling of
equipment and supplies needed for such crises/emergencies.
a. Predict
b. Prepare
c. Prevent
d. Perform

39. A strike or lockout NOTICE shall be filed with the National Conciliation and Mediation Board
(NCMB)  least  _____days before the intended date thereof if the issue involves bargaining deadlock.
0/1
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30

40. What is the foretelling of the likelihood of crises either natural occurring or man-made through the
continuous assessment of all possible threats and threat group, as well as the analysis of developing
or reported events and incidents
a. Predict
b. Prepare
c. Prevent
d. Perform

41. What is the stage when the crisis is resolved and deemed to be over, and the organization is
considering what to do next?
a. Pre-crisis
b. crisis
c. post-crisis
d. Crisis Management Model

42. What is the deliberate action that aims to avoid future harm by addressing its causes?
a. Predict
b. Prepare
c. Prevention
d. Perform
43. Which of the following is not a part of the “Proactive” phase of crisis management?
a. Predict
b. Prepare
c. Prevent
d. Perform

44. It is also known as negotiation, it is the least formal type of ADR. The goal of conciliation is to help
parties to come to a consensus on their own, parties can involve a neutral third party into their
conciliation to help facilitate an agreement.
a. Amicable Settlement
b. Conciliation
c. mediation
d. arbitration

45. The highest ranking field commander should not also be the chief negotiator because…
a. hostage takers will be afraid
b. he is not authorized to grant concession
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
d. hostage taker will not trust him

46. Which of the following is not an answer to the demands of the hostage takers?
a. confirm that his demand will be granted immediately
b. don’t give concession at once, subject to interpretation that you could get easily
c. delay, impress hostage taker even simple demand are hard to get; that you need to talk with
commander or other people etc.
d. get something in return for every concession granted, like aged, sick and youngster hostages.

47. The following are short range terrorist goal, except…

A. obtain money, weapon or equipment.
B. cause dramatic change in the government
C. satisfy vengeance
D. free prisoners

48. Which of the following is not a terrorist tactic?

A. noise barrage
B. Bombing
C. assassination
D. kidnapping

49. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation.

A. protection of life
B. media coverage
C. protection of property
D. capture of the hostage taker.

50. What do you call the phenomenon where a hostage begins to identify his captor and give his
sympathy to his own hostage taker.
a. Stockholm syndrome
b. lima syndrome
c. London syndrome
d. none of these
 QUIZ 7-CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH 1 &2
1.  Which of the following steps that is not a part of Scientific Method *
A. Data collection
B. Identification of a problem
C. Drawing of conclusion
D. Information Dissemination

2. It maybe a question about the unknown characteristics of a population or about factors that explain
the presence or occurrence of a phenomenon.*
A. Problem
B. Analysis Problem
C. Research Problem
D. Critical Problem

3. A variable that is "assumed caused" of a problem. It is an assumed reason for any "change" or
variation in a dependent variable*
A. Dependent Variable
B. Independent Variable
C. Antecedent Variable
D. Assumption Variable

4. In defining the research problem, what is the important thing for the researcher to present for the
conduct of the study?*
A. Valid ID
B. Certificate
C. Valid justification
D. Present relevant data

5. This type of research attempts to explain (there is continuity) possible factors related to problems
which have been observed in a descriptive study.*
A. Explanatory research
B. Intervention research
C. Descriptive research
D. Extensive Research

6. The most common type of sources of information for a research problem are, except:*

A. General reference
B. Primary sources
C. Secondary sources
D. Glossary

7. A type of sources which shows where to locate other sources of information related to a certain
topic.*
A. Glossary
B. General reference
C. Primary sources
D. Secondary sources

8.One of the research methods that obtain data to determine specific characteristics of a group.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method
9. In listing a note or index card the bibliographical data of the pertinent sources selected it includes
the following, except:
A. Author of the source
B. Its title
C. Released date
D. Name of publication

10. This objective relates directly to the research problem and states clearly what the researcher will
do and expects to find out.
A. Specific objective
B. Special Objective
C. Important Objective
D. Immediate/general objective

11. ________________might state that an independent variable is associated with a dependent

variable on your study?
A. Single Hypothesis
B. Research Hypothesis (testable)
C. Hypothesis
D. Unconstructive Hypothesis

12. It is usually used when the intention of the researcher is to ascertain the quality of message or
information found in a document or in mass media
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method

13. Also called the research hypothesis, in the positive form of the form of the null*
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis

14. It states whether the relationship between two variables is direct or inverse or positive or
negative .
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Directional Hypothesis
C. Hypothesis
D. Non-directional Hypothesis

15. It is a theory that explains why a problem under study exists and explains the connection between
certain factors and the problem –*
A. Conceptual Framework
B. Research Context
C. Special Framework
D. Theoretical Framework

16. Whenever a pretest (before) is given, it may make the examinees "test wise," and this can
therefore affect the posttest (after) results –*
A. Selection
B. History
C. Testing or Assessment
D. Maturation
17. Is a negative statement which indicates the absence of a relationship/ correlation between two
variables-*
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis

18. It is a concept that stands for a variation within a class of objectives or persons –*

A. Concept
B. Variables
C. Idea
D. Theory

19.  Is defined as a careful, systematic study in the field of knowledge that is undertaken to discover
or establish facts or principles (Webster, 1984).*
A. Research
B. Objective
C. Program
D. Knowledge

20.  The Research has several functions this include the following:*
A. It helps us answer questions, solve problems and make decisions.
B. It enables us to see and understand how and why a situation or a problem exists.
C. It helps us help discover new things and ideas.
D. All of these

21.  Research method used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment or an intervention or the
“cause and effect” relationship of certain phenomena under controlled condition. *
A. Survey Method
B. Experimental Method
C. Historical Method
D. Content Analysis

22.  Research method usually used when the intention of the researcher is to ascertain the quality of
message or information found in a document or in mass media. *
A. Survey Method
B. Experimental Method
C. Historical Method
D. Content Analysis

23.  Research method obtains data to determine specific characteristics of a group. The purpose of
this method is to get a general picture of the characteristics of a study population at a particular
time. *
A. Survey Method
B. Experimental Method
C. Historical Method
D. Content Analysis

24. A research problem can only be investigated if resources like time, money, and personnel are
available. It may be relevant also, but if funds are not available and there are no skilled researchers
or tools for data gathering, then it would not be likely to conduct it.*
A. Relevant
B. Feasible
C. Clear
D. Ethical

25.  The conduct of the study should not pose any danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to the
research respondents or subjects or anyone. *
A. Relevant
B. Feasible
C. Clear
D. Ethical

26. Is the process of collecting, selecting, and reading books, journal articles, reports, abstracts, and
other reference materials, including electronic sources (CD-ROM) and the World Wide Web
(www/http) to get relevant information about the problem under investigation.*
A. Research
B. Statement of the problem
C. RRL
D. Conclusion

27.  It is a type of sources of information for a research problem that show where to locate other
sources of information related to a certain topic. Example of this are indexes, reviews and abstracts.*
A. General References
B. Primary Sources
C. Secondary Sources
D. All of these

28. When several options are available, ______ is about the options that can help the decision-maker
in selecting the best or the better alternative that will yield a better outcome.*
A. Making
B. Processing
C. Data
D. Developing

29.  It refers to the consistency, stability and dependability of the data. A reliable measuring device is
one which, if used for the second time, will yield the same results as it did the first time –*
A. Validity
B. Statistics
C. Reliability
D. Variable

29.  When a research instrument, such as a questionnaire or a measuring device, like a weighing
scale or a thermometer is changed during the study period between the pretest and the posttest –*
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Testing
D. Maturation

31.  This uses carefully planned and printed items given to respondents in order to elicit answers to
questions of the research.*
A. Interview
B. Questionnaire
C. Observation
D. Survey
32.  This part of research includes the works-and only those works-cited in the text.*
A. References
B. Appendices
C. Bibliography
D. Both A and B

33.  The ultimate aim of research is –*

A. To test a theory
B. To solve a problem
C. To develop new theory or product
D. All of them

34. Variables can be classified as, except…

a. Dependent variable
b. Independent Variable
c. antecedent variable
d. assumption variable

35. It is a factor or a characteristics which is found before (ante) the variable.

a. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable
c. Antecedent variable
d. Intervening variable

36. A kind of category in which ALL the possible responses are included among the options.
a. Exhaustive categories
b. Mutually exclusive categories
c. Exclusive categories
d. Mutual categories

37. It is a set of concepts which explains the occurrence of a certain phenomenon.

a. Competing theory
b. Theory
c. Assumptions
d. dependent variables

38. It refers to the extent to which a measurement does what it is supposed to do, that is to measure
what it intends to measure.
a. Validity
b. Validity threats
c. Reliability
d. Variable

39. People and things change over time and this

change can threaten the validity of conclusions…
a. Selection -
b. Testing
c. Instrumentation
d. Maturation

40. It is a written work of the page or near the front page which displays as the title.
a. Approval sheet
b. Abstract
c. Title page
d. Acknowledgment
41. The act of officially saying that something was created for a particular purpose or to remember or
honor a particular person.
a. dedication
b. abstract
c. introduction
d. Acknowledgment

42. Focuses on the identity of the human subject, multiculturalism, feminism, and human relationships
to deal with the concepts of differences and “otherness” without essentialism or reductionism but its
contributions are not always appreciated.
a. post modernist school
b. modernist school
c. post modern school
d. classical school

43. In studies that take a long time to finish, say, one year or more, the cohort studies where the
subjects (the same people) are followed-up overtime, some cases may drop out, thus resulting in a
loss of cases.
a. Selection
b. Instrumentation
c. Mortality
d. Maturation

44. When several options are available, ________________      is about the options that can help the
decision-maker in selecting the better or best alternative that will yield an outcome.
a. making
b. processing
c. data
d. Developing

45. A research that is to understand or explain a prevailing situation or explain a relationship between
factors which may have already been identified in explanatory studies, and why the relationship
exists.
a. Exploratory research
b. Pure basic research
c. Explanatory research
d. Keen researcho

46. It is used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment or an intervention or the cause-and-effect

relationship of certain phenomena under controlled condition.
a. content analysis
b. survey method
c. experimental method
d. historical method

47. A type of sources which results of many research studies that are published in journals or
monographs. These articles or reports are generally written by those who conducted the study.
]a. Glossary
b. General reference
c. Primary sources
d. Secondary sources
48. This is the document that shows your panel has approved the content of your thesis or
dissertation, and a copy of it will remain in your official records.
a. Approval sheet
b. Abstract
c. Title page
d. Acknowledgment

49. The following are the steps in making research

except…
a. rigid control of the research
b. statistical analysis
c. the selection of the research topic
d. the decision of hypothesis
e. the decision on how the variables can be used for data

50. Which among the following is not the step in the scientific method?

a. Determining the problems
b. Forming a hypothesis
c. Doing the library research
d. Systematic organization