EnP 1000 Questions

1,000 EnP
Practice
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GIMARNI Consultants
PRACTICE QUESTIONS for EnP LICENSURE EXAMINATIONS
Table of Contents
Basic Concepts, History of Planning, History of Settlements...........................1
Theories of Spatial Planning, Concepts of Regional Planning..........................14
Land Use Process, Physical Planning, Transport, and Disaster.....................22
Methods of Research, Demography, Shelter, Social Services.......................37
Economic Planning, Project Development Planning......................................47
Planning Law, Plan Implementation & EIA.....................................................55
Planning Profession Law, Planning Ethics...............................................................64
Basic Concepts, History of Planning, History of Settlements

1. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec.2a defines it as referring to "all activities concerned with the management
and development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment."
(A) Urban Planning (B) Human Ecology (C) Environmental Management (D) Environmental Planning
2. According to RA 9275 Sec 4, it refers to the entire system which covers conservation, regulation and minimization
of pollution, clean production, waste management, environmental law and policy, environmental education and
information, study and mitigation of environmental impacts of human activity, and environmental research.
(A) Environmental and Natural Resources Development (C) Environmental Management

(B) Regional Planning (D) Environmental Planning
3. These are areas of less than 500 people per km 2 whose inhabitants are primarily engaged in agriculture or
in extraction of raw materials, with dwellings which are spaced widely apart and often with little or no services or
utilities such as power, piped water, sewerage, roads, etc.
(A) Tribe (B) Purok (C) Provincial (D) Rural (E) Hamlet
4. As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the following characteristics except
one: (A) it exports substantial quantities of processed products

(B) core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer
(C) overall density is at least 1000 persons per square kilometer in its entirety
(D) exhibits a street pattern
5. The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the following.
(A) if a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms, then it is considered
urban; (B) if a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
(C) if a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it is considered urban;
(D) if a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and 5 or more facilities within the
two- kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is considered urban
6. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:
(A) a cluster of skyscrapers (C) a rectilinear or orthogonal street design

(B) a charter of legal proclamation (D) a seaport or airport
Practice Questions for EnP Licensure Examinations.......................................................................Page 2
Instruction: Write the letter of best answer on box provided.
7. In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009s amendment of Sec. 450 of RA 7160
LGC, The statutory requirements for anLGUs elevation to citihood are
(A) contiguous territory of at least 100 km 2except for islands/group of islands (C) population of at least
150,000 (B) minimum annual income of P100 million based on 1991 constant prices (D) all of the above
8. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors, live together in
important locations – a process that is always accompanied by economic agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-
cultural change.
(A) Industrialization (B) Urbanization (C) Social Transformation (D) Modernization
9. This refers to the unprecedented phenomenon occurring in megacities wherein the rate of increase of
local population overwhelms the natural carrying capacity of cities as ecosystems and outpaces the
capacity of city institutions in terms of resources and personnel to address complex problems.
(A) Metropolitanization (B) Conurbation (C) HyperUrbanization (D) False or Pseudo-Urbanization
10. A direct result of ‘leapfrog’ or 'checkerboard’ development, this phenomenon irreversibly converts space into
urban space even before the populations meant to use it could be present.
(A) Anticipatory Development (B) Premature Urbanization (C) Commercialization (D) Upscale Zoning.
11. In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-dimensional problems?
(A) Climate Change (C) Poverty (E) Pollution and Environmental
Degradation
(B) Unmanaged Population Growth (D) Land Use Changes (F) Carbon Footprint
12. According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major disasters in the period 1950-
2007 occurred in low-income to middleincome countries, and 90% of these deaths happened to the poorest
people. Which conclusion is supported by this information?
(A) poverty, which means low income and low education, is the major cause of disaster
(B) countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor because of frequent disasters
(C) poverty and its physical dimensions, i. location of homes and livelihoods, increases peoples vulnerability to disaster(D)
the poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and less prepared people tend to be.
13. Settlements in high-risk zones, buildings on natural wetlands, fivers and waterways used as sewers, recurrent
shortages of food, water and power, segments of idle prime land pockmark the city Center, lack of distinctive city image
and coherent urban form, all taken together, are manifestations of —
(A) Population Explosion (B) Disaster Management (C) Splattered Development (D) Unmanaged Urbanization
.
14. This refers to low-density urban use of land expanded faster than population growth requires and occurring in an
amorphic manner at the margins of existing urban centers. Over time, more and more houses are built far from urban
centers that would require more energy use perperson and more government resources to provide piecemeal
extensions of roads and utilities.
(A) Decentralization (B) Dispersion (C) Exurbanization (D) Sprawl
15. In MichaelP. Todaro’s Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or main attraction of
Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to accept migration, is
(A) “brightlights effect" or lure of city life and neon-litentertainment

(B) possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city address
(C) abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the countryside
(D) substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of skill, task, or occupation
16. According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban planning ever written
(1965), the explicit goals of urban planning are the following, except one:
(A) Health & safety (B) convenience & amenity (C) tolerance & plurality (D) efficiency & economy
17. The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the Philippines, except one:
(A) to achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence

(B) to slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population management
(C) to optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban development
(D) to undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will make
available housing and services at affordable cost
18. Dr Edward L. Glaeser of Harvard University (1995, 2003) correlates 'urban development with 'democratization' in
the following observations. Which statement pertains the most to so-called 'annihilation of space' in urban areas?
(A) information travels at high-speed in cities; transactions between producers and consumers are faster;
cities practically eliminate the transport cost of moving ideas, goods, and people
(B) cities facilitate human contact and social connection; the demand for cities is fueled by the demand for interaction
(C) because people in cities have high level of awareness, it is much harder for rulers to be despotic or tyrannical
(D) ineffective governments find it much harder to ignore mass poverty & other social problems in cities than in
the countryside
(E) revolutions, labor uprisings, and riots are usually born and bred in cities
19. He formulated the Basic Laws of Ecology in layman's vernacular (National Geographic, 1970) as follows: "Nature
knows best." "There is no such thing as a free lunch." "Everything is connected to everything else." "We can never do
merely one thing." "Everything goes somewhere." "There's no 'away' to throw to."
(A) John Holdren (B) Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr. (C) Dr. Barry Commoner (D) Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum
20. According to Dr Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property rights, individuals enjoy free
unlimited access to natural resources and right to use without exclusion; each individual is motivated to maximize his or
her own benefit from exploiting the resource. When no individual has adequate incentive to conserve the public
resource, the resource will likely be overused and overexploited.
(A) The Stewardship of Nature (B) Communitarian Paradox (C) Fencesitter's Dilemma (D) Tragedy of the Commons
21. Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by whatever resource is in shortest
supply, this principle refers to "the maximum population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined
habitat without causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat."
.
(A) limits to growth (B)Tipping point (C) range and threshold (D) carrying capacity
22. In contrast to the environmentalism which highlights 'community' and 'communitarian' solutions, this type of
environmentalism centers on respect for all lifeforms in an atomistic or species-centered manner, such that humans would
be on equal moral footing with sentient animals like pets and non-sentient organisms like plants, insects, etc.
(A) Eco-centrism (B) Bio-centrism (C) Anthropo-centrism (D) Geo-centrism
23. They are inveterate optimists who belive that "necessity is the mother of invention" and hence they assert that all
environmental problems can be solved by ever-advancing science and technology, and limitless human knowledge.
(A) Cornucopians (B) Soroptimists (C) Utopians (D) Dystopians

24. In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained at a certain level indefinitely;
in particular, it refers to the potential longevity of ecological systems to support humankind and other species.
(A) Resilience (B) Endurance (C) Sustainability (D) perpetuity (E) Durability
25. Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and accountability to future
populations? (A) Common Heritage of Humankind (B) Inter-generational Equity (C) Caring Capacity (D)
Parity of Compeers
26. Which principle of 'Sustainable Development' most directly supports the saying "Think Global, Act Local."
(A) Principle of Subsidiarity (C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities

(B) Polluter Pays Principle (D) Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Harm
27. According to theorists of 'Social Development' and 'Sustainable Development,' what is the relationship between the
concepts of 'Growth' and 'Development'?
(A) these two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use
(B) growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people and society
(C) growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary but not sufficient condition
(D) growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
(E) growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated by tranquility, peace and order
28. The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question seeks to determine efficacy
or success of a chosen option or course of action?
(A) "where are we now?" (D) "how do we get there?"

(B) "where are we going?" (E) "what resources do we need to get there?"
(C) "where do we want to be?" (F) "how do we know if it is working?"
29. In what sense does 'professional planning' differ from 'generic,' 'common-sensical,' or 'everyday' planning?
(A) There is no difference because planning is 'ubiquitous' and can be done by anyone, anytime,
anywhere.
(B) Professional planning has scope and goals that transcend one person or group while generic planning is essentially
action-planning on familiar problems with much latitude for personal flexibility.
(C) Professional planning examines only the "natural environment" while Business Planning considers both
"policy environment" and "market environment."
(D) Object of Professional Planning is "society and nature" while beneficiary of everyday planning is 'oneself.'
30. This type of planning has often been called 'synoptic,' 'static,' 'normative,' and 'utopian,' because it assumes a priori that
professional planners have the intelligence, noble intentions, and expertise to synthesize extensive data,analyze a
relatively predictable world, and decide rightly on crucial questions of broader public interest.
(A) equity activist or advocacy planning (C) traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning
(B) strategic planning (D) rational-comprehensive planning
31. The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's "Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of planning is the principle that
planning should be --
(A) cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting (C) wide-ranging and exhaustive

(B) free-wheeling and open-ended (D) rigorous, exact, and mathematical
32. The development of planning theory after World War II as influenced by the schools of policy planning, advocacy or
equity planning, transactive planning, and communicative planning has emphasized the core principle that
(A) A plan should be a clear, concise, and user-friendly document

(B) A plan can only indicate piecemeal and incremental changes in a process called 'muddling
through.' (C) Planning process is as important as planning output.
(D) The poor and the marginalized always know what is best for society.
33. Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed neutral stance and instead adopt
the side of 'the poor and the disadvantaged' to demand for corrective or remedial measures from the State and from
the Market through 'pressure from below' by way of conflict confrontation, creative mass actions and backroom
negotiations?
(A) Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning

(B) Communicative Planning (D) Disjointed Incrementalism
34. These thinkers started the 'school of transactive planning' which later advocated the radical / critical notion that
planning should smash myths and mobilize people to change structures of domination and subjugation in society.
(A) Francis Stuart Chapin, George Chadwick, Rexford Tugwell (C) Paul Plumberg, Carole Paterman, Paul Bernstein
(B) Norman Krumholtz, John Friedman (D) Charles Lindbloom, Robert Dahl, Mel Webber
35. According to David Harvey and Ray Pahl, planning is less a means for urban renewal, but more of "an agent of
change and development in its own right, linked to alternative theories of the city that seek to address poverty and
inequality. Planners should be regarded as creators of urban space, not merely value-neutral arbiters of development
proposals.
(A) critical/radical planning (B)communicative planning (C) liberal planning (D) activist planning
36. 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in tradition of Herbert Gans and TJ Kent is concerned with solving
chronic problems of society by allocating resources efficiently and enacting laws, rules and standards. It is therefore
closest to which planning approach?
(A) rational-comprehensive (B) traditional or command planning (C)strategic planning (D) communicative planning
37. Strategic Planning as described by Henry Mintzberg is called 'Innovative Planning' for following reasons except one
(A) because, as in strategies and tactics, a plan has to be calculating and even Machiavellian
(B) because it seeks to introduce a novel goal, product, process, or pattern
(C) because it centers on organizational 'fitness' to create or shape change
(D) because it mobilizes the whole organization to move towards a new direction
38. Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members around a common
purpose? (A) "solve major issues at a macro level"

(B) "avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking"
(C) "be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to accommodate changes
(D) "engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single gameplan for
execution" (E) "establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future"
(F) "communicate to everyone what is most important"
39. In strategic planning, what is the criteria to determine the best strategic option?
(A) lucrative and profitable (B) viable and feasible (C) critical and urgent (D) benign and munificent
40. In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats" tool as popularized by exponents of Strategic Planning,
the elements, aspects or characteristics that need to be reinforced, are enumerated under which quadrant?
(A) 'S' (B) 'W' (C) 'O' (D) 'T'
41. According to Karl Wittfogel's 'Hydraulic Civilization' model of Urbanization (1957), what would explain the emergence in
Antiquity (4000-200 BCE) of the earliest cities also known as 'necropolis' and temple-towns?
(A) Irrigation for farms revolutionized both economic production and social organization as it resulted in food
surplus, which necessitated large storage warehouses in preparation for war or drought
(B) Strongman rule was hastened by the need to distribute water for irrigation and to ration food.
(C) With abundant food, classes of non-farming workers emerged which eventually led to “division of labor” and
“occupational specialization.”
(D) City-building centered on immortalizing kings and heroes in godlike worship through grandiose monuments,
tombs, funeraries, pyramids, mausoleums, shrines, altars, temples, ziggurats, obelisks, etc.
(E) All of the above
42. Dr Gideon Sjoberg (1933) claims that cultural exchange from overland trade and commerce in pre-industrial ear fostered the
formation of cities, as literate individuals, craftsmen, and tool-makers came together to debate and test each other's ideas.
Competition among non-farming specialists gave birth to the 'scientific method' as well as to technological advances in plant
cultivation and animal breeding.
(A) Acculturation and Inculturation (C) Diffusion of Technology Information

(B) Socio-Cultural Theory of Urbanization (D) The Scientific Revolution
43. For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek Settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and Rhodes, he is acknowledged as the
Father of Town Planning in Western civilization.
(A) Vitruvius of Rome (B) Ptolemy (C) Hippodamus of Miletus (D) Appolodorus of Damascus
44. Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town planning?
(A) polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature as being animated by divine spirit
(B) the delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but complementary spheres in
society (C) the concept of 'polis' or (Latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities can truly be called
'civilized'
(D) the practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship which included women, the poor, slaves, and aliens.
45. They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE-410 AD) because they planned their cities
and settlements with transport network, civil works, utilities, and military defense, foremost in their minds?
(A) Macedonian Greeks ubder Alexander the Great (C) Persians Under Cyrus the Great
(B) Romans under the dictatorial Emperors (D) Egyptians under Ramses, Thutmoses, and Nefertiti
46. What theory of urbanization by RL Carneiro (1970) best explains 'Fortress Cities' during the Dark Ages 476-800
AD? (A) Urbanization was hastened by cultural exchange resulting from overland trade caravans
(B) People settled together around strategic places which could benefit from maritime
trade. (C) Strongman rule was necessitated in order to distribute water for irrigation
(D) After the collapse of army-based imperial government, people had to congregate in cities for better protection from
plunderers and marauders.
47. 2,500 'Cathedral Towns' during the Middle Ages 800-1440 AD showcased the ascendancy of the Church in all
affairs whether religious or secular, and these medieval cities displayed the following physical characteristics except
one:
(A) narrow, twisty, irregular street radiating from the main center (radiocentric)
(B) congestion was common; infrastructure for garbage and sewage was absent; sanitation was
poor; (C) vulnerable to epidemics such as bubonic plague, cholera, typhoid fever, scarlet fever, etc.
(D) loss of privacy due to overcrowding resulted in loose sexual morals of the population
48. Outside the walls of Medieval towns and cities, land was used collectively and defined as follows: 'common of pasture,'
'common of turbary,' 'common of piscary,' 'common of estovers,' and 'common of soil.' Which one refers to
everyone's right to take fish, game, or fowl from communal land?
(A) common of pasture (B) common of piscary (C) common of soil (D) common of turbary
49. Except for one city below, 'Mercantile Cities' during the Renaissance period served as trading ports for overseas
commerce and played key role in the accumulation of gold and silver by European monarchies and principalities.
(A) Venice, Italy (B) Amsterdam, The Netherlands (C) Dortmund, Germany (D) Lisbon, Portugal
50. According to Max Weber in The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904), what was the key factor in transition
from mercantile economies controlled by European monarchies to profit-driven individual enterprise or laissez faire?
(A) endemic corruption in highly structured Catholic society made people less imaginative and less entrepreneurial
(B) early Protestants generally emphasized hardwork, simplicity, thrift, discipline, savings, & re-investment of
savings (C) royal treasuries went bankrupt due to Catholics' culture of excess, lavish celebrations, overindulgence,
etc.
(D) protestants work without the baggage of Seven Capital Sins such as greed, avarice, envy, lust, gluttony, etc.
51. The first grid-iron orthogonal street pattern in continental America was designed in 1682 by
(A) William Penn for Philadelphia, Pennsylvania (C) Peter Minuit for Manhattan Island, New York
(B) Pierre Charles L'Enfant for Washington DC (D) John Winthrop for Trimountaine, Boston Common
52. Before the rise of 'scientific socialism' based on concept of class-struggle, 'normative or Utopian socialism' based on
Christian values was showcased by this philanthropist in New Lanark, Scotland (1799) where excellent working
conditions, decent housing, and cheap services for the working class increased productivity and profit. Its founder was
later acknowledged as the father of the cooperative movement.
(A) Robert Owen (B) John Cadbury (C) James Buckingham (D) Sir Christopher Wren
53. The milestone that marked the start of the Industrial Age in 1769 and changed the primary mode of economic production was
(A) discovery of crude oil, coal, and gas fuels (C) invention of printing press to propagate scientific knowledge
(B) invention of steam engine as source of power (D) invention of trains, trams, and rail for faster movement of goods
54. At the start of 19th century industrialization in England before the emergence of full-fledged professional planners, who
were the earliest urban planning practitioners who addressed city-wide problems including 'germ versus filth' dilemma?
(A) microbiologists, biochemists, pharmacists (C) Industrial engineers, machine engineers, civil engineers
(B) shelter specialists, housing developers, contractors (D) doctors, epidemiologists, sanitarians, public
health personnel
55. Recognized as the 'father of landscape architecture,' he also began the 'Parks and Conservation Movement' in the
United States which advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses,
dampen class conflict, heighten family and religious values, and serve as aid to social reform.
(A) Frederic Law Olmstead Sr (B) John Muir (C) Gifford Pinchot (D) George Perkins Marsh
56. He wrote the famous book “Garden Cities of Tomorrow” (1902) and became a most influantial thinker with his effort to
combine the best features of 'tow' with the best features of 'country' as shown in his diagram of three-magnets.
(A) Sir Frederic Osborn (B) Sir Ebenezer Howard (C) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie (D) Sir Raymond Unwin
57. Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed large-scale problems caused by the
(A) The Scientific Revolution (C) lndustrial Revolution

(B) British-American War of Independence (D) World War Il and the Holocaust
58. Supervised by Sir Raymond Unwin, the first Garden City built in the United Kingdom (1903-1920) was
(A) Letchworth (B) London (C) Welwyn (D) Hampstead (E) Milton Keynes
59. The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of urban containment, with following features, except
one: (A) greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities (C) homestead of about one acre per
family
(B) mass transit to link 'mother city' with garden cities (D) preservation of more farmland & open space
60. In 1907, what university offered the first academic degree course in city planning under its landscape
architecture department, which program later spun of to become the first ever school of planning in 1929
(A)Oxford University (B) Harvard University (C) Cambridge University (D) University of Heidelberg
61. Considered as the Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the City of Manila and the City of Baguio from
1903 to 1911 with the assistance of Pierce Andersson.
(A).John Hay (B) William Howard Taft (C) Robert Kennon (D) Daniel Hudson Burnham (E) Francis B. Harrison
62. Make no little plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be realized. Make big plans; aim high in hope and
work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once recorded will never die...”
(A) Leone Batista Alberti (B) Daniel H. Burnham (C) Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann (D) Pierre Charles L'Enfant
63. “First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us.” This quotation is attributed to
(A) Winston Churchill (B) George Washington (C) Theodore Roosevelt (D) Napoleon Bonaparte
64. This was the movement that stressed the design of settlements according to the principles of grandeur, exuberance,
monumentality, drama and tension, cohesiveness, and symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of Washington DC,
Paris, Chicago, San Francisco, among others:
A) City Beautiful Movement (B) City Functional Movement (C) City Efficient Movement (D) New Towns Movement
65. The US Supreme Courts decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate land use through ordinance in the
landmark case of “Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty Company" is reckoned as the watershed moment for
A) City Beautiful Movement (B) City Functional Movement (C) City Efficient Movement (D) Regional City Movement
66. Among the City Beautiful Movement planners, he was the earliest to articulate the principles of urban design in “City Planning
According to Artistic Principles" (1889)
( A) Camilo Sitte (E) lldefons Cerda (C) Lucio Costa (D) Oscar Niemeyer (E) William Burley Griffin
67. “A town is a tool for free man to overcome chaos and lack of order...A city is the grip of man upon nature... Geometry is the
means whereby we perceive the external world and express the world within us ... Geometry is the foundation ... Machinery
is the result of geometry. The age in which we live is therefore essentially a geometric one... Town Planning demands
uniformity in detail and a sense of movement in general layout..."
(A) Gordon Cullen (B) Le Corbusier (C) Aldo Rossi (D) Thomas Sharp (E) Roy Worskett
68. The major objective of Le Corbusiers (CharlesEdouard Jeanneret) cubist Radiant City" design (1923) meant for 3
million people consisting of 'uniform 60-storey tower-blocks set in a huge park' was to:
(A) use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital institutions
(B) increase city density by building high on a small part of land
(C) increase the public’s enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes from varying heights
(D) capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in central locations or CBDs
69. Which of the following valid critiques of Le Corbusiers (CharlesEdouard Jeanneret) modernist city design
pertains to the so-called 'spatial paradox'?
(A) Architectural determinism or the belief that physical design and visual aesthetics are sufficient
to address the basic problems of population.
(B) Devoid of thorough studies on demographic, social, economic, and transport aspects
(C) Goal to decongest the city by increasing congestion at its core.
(D) Rejection of historic precedents as inspiration for overall
design
(E) Lack of humanscale as uniform tall structures tend to be disorienting while extremely-vast open spaces look inhospitable
to humans
70. Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility connections (electricity, sewer, |
telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be the basis of city lay-out; thus he considered the impact of technology in his |
concept of an elongated urban form running from Cadiz, Spain up to St. Petersburg, Russia.
(A) Ciudad Conectada (B) Ciudad Elongada (C) Ciudad Lineal (D) Ciudad Larga
71. Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35.000 inhabitants where man would rule by himself." thus
there would be no police, no churches, no rigid forms of social control in this Utopian place complete with landscaped
homes, factories, trade schools, transport and leisure facilities.
(A) Esplanade (B) Axle lndustrielle (C) post-industrial motor city (D) linear industrial city
72. Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge metropolis by way of urban
decentralization wherein each American family would be granted at least one acre of federal land in a self-contained,
agro-industrial settlement.
(A) Eco-city (B) Broadacre city (C) Exurbia (D) Micropolis (E) Suburbia
73. Which of the following features does not describe the New Town concept of Clarence Stein as showcased at Radburn, New
Jersey; Columbia, Maryland; Greenbelt, Maryland; Greenhills, Ohio; Greendale, Wisconsin; and Greenbrook NJ?
(A) huge manufacturing firm at the center (D) series of superblocks

(B) separation between pedestrian traffic and motor traffic (E) prior land assembly
(C) green spaces which are interconnected (F) neighborhood
clusters
74. New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and uncontrolled development in continental America
but the main reason for its suburban sprawl after World War ll was
(A) rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown from sub-prime lending
(B) increased value of rural land due to Hoovers lnterstate Highway Act of 1956 which funded federal highways and
freeways across many states
(C) the widespread use of commuter trains and monorail
(D) the popularity of automobile as means of transportation
75. The planner who said that survey is a requisite for planning in the famous framework Survey-Analysis Plan was
Practice Questions for EnP Licensure Examinations.......................................................................Page
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(A) Demogriphus (B) Herodotus (C) Geddes (D) Pericles
76. He proposed the neighborhood unit (1929) as a self-contained 'garden suburb' bounded by major streets, with shops at
intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be defined by schools catchment area with a radius of quarter mile
or
402 meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of sociai engineering.
(A) Clarence Perry (B) Clarence Stein (C) Clarence Thomas (D) Clarence McKay
77. 'Social Engineering' refers to
(A) designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
(B) manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social groups
(C) implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors
(D) changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired societal goals
78. A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled “Cities in Evolution” (1915) and who coined the terms
'folk-work-place,' 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is acknowledged as the 'father of regional
planning' (A) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie (B) Sir Patrick Geddes (C) Lewis Mumford (D) Barry
Parker
79. He led the crafting of the regional Greater London Plan of 1944, he designed some of 30 post-war New Towns approved
by the British Pariament, including Doncaster area and East Kent, in which he used open space as structuring element
(A) Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie (B) Sir Patrick Geddes (C) Lewis Mumford (D) Charles Abrams
80. She was called a superwoman' who singlehandedly sparked environmental activism in the 1960s-70s with her research
('Silent Spring') on the biomagnification of pesticides and chemicals in the human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in
the creation of US Environmental Protection Agency and Environmental Impact Assessment system in the 1970s.
( A) Gro Harlem Brundtland (B) Catherine Bauer Wuster (C) Rachel Louise Carson (D)Martha C. Nussbaum
81. “Sierra Club” is to John Muir, “Audubon Society” to John James Audubon, “Living Earth” to Eugene Pleasants
Odum, “Spaceship Earth” to Kenneth Boulding, and “Gaia, Mother Earth” is to
(A).James Lovelock (B) Henry David Thoreau (C) Delfin Ganapin (D) Arne Naess
82. If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is celebrated annually on April 22, 'World Town
Planning Day' falls on November, 'World Environment Day' is marked on the 5th day of the month of
(A) May (B) June (C) September (D) October
83. If 'World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is observed on May 22, 'World Ocean Day'
on June , 'World Indigenous Peoples Day' on August , 'World Animal Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October
16, when is 'World Water Day' celebrated?
(A) January 13 (B) March 22 (C) June 24 (D) October 31
84. Based on his landmark book, “Design with Nature” 'map overlay' to identify 'ecological constraints' was a tool devised in 1967
by the first modern environmental planner.
(A) lan L. McHarg (B) Konstantinos Doxiadis (C) Francis Stuart Chapin Jr (D) Erma Bombeck
85. Dr William Rees coined this concept in 1992 to approximate the amount of productive space, measured in terms of
global hectare (gha) per capita, needed to sustain a population which consumes food, water, energy, building materials
etc and requires the sink functions of Nature for human waste and pollution.
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(A) land-population ratio (B) consumer price index (C) index of environmental impact (D) ecological footprint
86. Considered as the father of wildlife ecology, he advocated in 1948 a “personal land ethic” for humans to become
'stewards of the land' and member-citizens of land-community rather than its conquerors or dominators.
(A) Karol Wojtyla or 'John Paul II' (B)Ralph Waldo Emerson (C) Henry Wright (D)Aldo Leopold
87. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or decaying sections of any | town
by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements in streetscapes, parks, greenways, housing, community
centers, etc based on anticipation that future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.
(A) land readjustment (B) urban restructuring (C) infill and densification (D) urban renewal
88. As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in the crafting of the “Regional Plan of New York
and its Environs 1922-1931;” he also conceived, and executed public works costing $27 billion between 1924 and 1968 and
was responsible for virtually every parkway, expressway, and public housing project in New York metropolitan area.
(A) William Levitt (B) Fiorello La Guardia (C) Robert Murray Haig (D) Robert Moses (E) Warren Buffett
89. In “Death and Life of Great American Cities"” (1961) and Economy of Cities" (1969), this planner maintains that
diversitypromotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the growth of cities, thus she advocated for
heterogeneity, variety, and mixture in the geographic clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and
neighborhoods.
(A) Herbert Gans (B) James Howard Kunstler (C) Joel Garreau (D) Jane Jacobs
90. The major objective of 'New Urbanism' movement identified with Jane Jacobs, Leon Krier, Andres Duany, Elizabeth
Plater-Zyberk, et al. is to
(A) rebuild the architectural façade of old cities using post-modern methods and
technologies (B) revitalize urban communities by creating centers' and by reviving traditional
civic values (C) design gated subdivisions as urban collage and multi-ethnic tapestry
(D) integrate development of both urban and rural areas in order to save as much farmland as possible
91. The critique of 'New Urbanism' against so-called 'Gentrification' or upscaling of inner-city neighborhoods was
(A) the latter is more interested in new businesses than in (C) the latter does not create mixed communities of
community rebuilding; hence soul-less and centerless varied socio-economic & demographic
groups
(B) the latter leads to the exclusion of low-income groups (D) all of the above
92. All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:
(A) Mixed Use Zoning (B) Neo-Traditional Design (C) Exclusionary Zoning (D) Pedestrianization
93. The following planners were most concerned about “human scale and the social usage of urban space”
(A) David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl (C) Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
(B) Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte (D) TJ Kent, Edwin C. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg
94. Because pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small and based on kinship relations, the
most common practice of land tenure in pre-colonial society, wherein one would merely enjoy the 'fuits' of land, | was called
(A) primitive communism (E) lslamic feudalism (C) usufruct (D) tenancy (E) swidden slash-and-burn
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95. This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered dwellings for purposes of greater
military defense and political control literally bringing together dispersed population within hearing distance of | church bells
– which policy was applied on most Spanish colonies from 16 th to 18th centuries.
(A) El Alcance del Campanario (B) Presidio y Fortaleza (C) Reduccion (D) Evangelizacion
96. During the period 1565-1896, the urban control points designated by the Spanish colonial government were the
(A) alcaldias y pueblos (B) barrios y sitios (C) haciendas y villas (D) cabeceras y poblaciones .
97. Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Leyes de las lndias' (1573), what would be located next to each other around a
Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish colonial settlement?
(A) garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade

(B) governors mansion, bishops palace, generals manor, hacenderos villa, military garrison
(C) church, town hall, school, public market
(D) houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principales and ilustrados
98. During the Spanish colonial period, there were four major forms of land tenure or land holding. Which one refers to the
right of a 'servant' of Spanish Crown to collect tribute from residents of a territory without any ownership claim
over that territory?
(A) 'friar lands' (B) 'encomiendas' (C) 'haciendas' (D) 'townships'
99. Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering 5.3 million hectares, principally in
(A) Negros lsland (B) Palawan (C) Mindanao (D) Samar lsland
100. The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private ownership of land in the Philippines is a 7
legacy from what colonial period of Philippine history?
(A) Spanish (B) American (C) Japanese (D) British
101. According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic policy and industrialization
strategy occurred in the latter period of American colonial rule when
(A) Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash crops for export such as
sugar, tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
(B) progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of American market during Great Depression,
instead of Filipino production being responsive to domestic demand by interlinking Philippine regions with one another
(C) post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-intensive urban consumer goods rather than
on resource-based agro-industrialization in provincial centers utilizing agricultural surplus
(D) all of the above
102. Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban Planning Commission, Real Property
Board, and Capital City Planning Commission, the government created this first physical planning body.
(A) National Planning Commission (C) National Environmental Protection Agency
(B) National Disaster Coordinating Council (D) Human Settlements Regulatory Commission
103. Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their development plans underthe
close guidance of national government agencies.
(A) Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945 (C) Decentralization and Devolution Act
(B) Local Autonomy Act of 1949 (D) Transparency and Accountability Standards Act
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104. In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional planners in the Philippines.
(A) Local Government Academy (C) Institute of Planning | regions.

(B) Development Academy of the Philippines (D) UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management
105. In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization Commission
delineated regions
(A) nine – representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories which fought Spain
(B) eight – representing major ethno-linguistic groups
(C) four – representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
(D) six – representing possible component units of a federal system
106. Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972 increased the number of
Philippine regions to 11, regionalized key ministries and line departments, and created a major planning agency of |
| government which is known today as
(A) Philippine Economic Zone Authority (C) Congressional Planning and Budget Office
(B) National Land Use Committee (D) National Economic and Development Authority
107. ln 2010, how many administrative regions does the Philippines
have? (A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
108. Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila Commission as the first ever structure
of metropolitan governance in the Philippines following the organizational model called
(A) Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government) (C) Voluntary clustering and Inter-LGU cooperation
(B) Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local (D) Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan
Governments) government)
109. This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1992 UNCED Earth Summit and contains a policy framework
that redefines development as the drawing out of full human potential according to the appropriate productivity of nature,
rather
than optimal or maximum exploitation of natural resources to achieve GDP growth.
(A) Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development (C) Strategic National Action Program
(B) Philippine Covenant on Total Human Development (D) Philippine Agenda 21
110. In 1978, American lnstitute of Planners (established 1917) and American Society of Planning Officials (established 1934)
combined to become the present-day
(A) American Institute of Environmental Planning (C) Planning Society of All-America

(B) Royal lnstitute of Town and County Planning (D) American Planning Association
111. The first State-wide land use plan in 1973 which defined Urban Growth Boundaries (UGBs) that separated urban and rural
areas in order to limit growth within serviced areas and to preserve rural farmland for a timeframe of 20 E ears, took place
in the State of
( A) Oregon (B) New York (C) California (D)Florida
112. Which planning concept, first upheld by the US Supreme Court in the 1976 case of 'Penn Central Transportation Co. versus
City of New York' incorporates a market mechanism to mitigate whatever financial burden local law
might have imposed on property?
(A) Planned Unit Devt (B) Conservation Easements (C) Transfer of Development Rights (D) Eminent Domain
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113. In all but one of following cases, the US Supreme Court declared “takings” by government as illegal, as it upheld the
Constitutional precept that “private property shall not be taken for public use without just compensation”
(A) Where a regulation is merely intended to preventa nuisance and remove discomfort caused to the public
(B) Where a regulation forced a landowner to allow someone else to enter onto the property,
(C) Where a regulation imposes burdens or costs on a landowner that do not bear a reasonable relationship" to the
impacts of the project on the community;
(D) Where government can equally accomplish a valid public purpose through less intrusive regulation or through a
requirement of dedicating property
(E) Where a landowner has been denied all economically viable use" of the land
114. In 1987, United States Supreme Court in the case of Nollan versus California Coastal Commission ruled against - California
which required Nollan to dedicate a public sidewalk easement across their beachfront property as a building permit
condition, thus the Court formulated a principle for governments regulatory action that “land use restrictions must be tied
directly to a specific public purpose”
(A) Rough Proportionality (B) Calibrated Enforcement (C) Calculated Authority (D) Rational Nexus
Theories of Spatial Planning, Concepts of Regional Planning

115. This school of thought claims that cities or human settlements can be studied as though they are biological
organisms subject to laws of evolution, natural selection, competition, adaptation, survival of the fittest, decline, and death.
(A) Dialectical Historical Materialism (C) Frankfurt School of Social Critical Theory
(B) AnarchoSyndicalism by Saul David Alinsky (D) Chicago school of human ecology
116. This school of thought holds that settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend to be spread evenly and
symmetically in isotropic space, displaying both hierarchy and equilibrium arising from the interdependence | between big
and small settlements and from the complementation between their respective scope of functions.
(A) Galaxy of Settlements Theory (B) Central Place Theory (C) Geographic Determinism (D) Dependency Theory
117. This school of thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation,' largely a consequence of class-
based struggle among groups for strategic dominance and control of surplus. Such conflict is usually won by the rich and
powerful through agents of capital such as multi-national corporations which use the city to amass wealth by raising
property
values through commercialization, gentrification, manipulation, and land speculation.
(A) Capital Theoretic Model (B) Political Economy (C) Natural Capitalism (D) David Harvey's Circuits of Capital
118. This school of thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free trade and free movement of
capital wherein nation-states would have 'lean and mean' governments which pursue policies of liberalization,
deregulation, privatization, de-bureaucratization, 'unbundling,' 'de-coupling,' and similar structural adjustments.
(A) World Systems Theory (B) State Corporatism (C) Neo-Liberalism (D) Liberal Democracy
119. Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of Agricultural Rent is symbolized as “LR = Y(p*c) – Ytd” where “Y” is yield or total
harvest, “p” is price of crop, “c” is production cost of crop, “t” is transport cost, and “d” is distance to market. lf yield of palay is
3500 kilos, NFA buying price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is 5 km, given farmer's gross production " cost of 45 cents per
square meter per day for unit production cost of P12.00 per kilo, would palay cultivation be profitable at this specific
farm location if transport cost is P1.00 per kilo of palay?
(A) Yes (B) No (C) lt depends on the weather (D) lt depends on quality of road & capacity of vehicle
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120. ln Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, the catchment area of a central place takes the shape of a hexagon
rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as elementary school enrolment is represented by
the formula, 'C = 2.6r3d,' what would be the catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50 km and
diameter is one km?
(A) 0.65 sq.km (B) 0.75 sq,km © 0.85 sq.km (D) 0.95 sq.km
121. A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic and social fuctions, is called
(A) Matrix (B) lsotims (C) lsodapanes (D) Scalogram
122. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines, except one
(A) location of health centers (B) location of trial courts (C) location of beach resorts (D) location of police stations
123. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a huge sports stadium, or a
tertiary- level hospital can not be established in each and every Philippine municipality?
(A) spatial equity and bio-geographic equity (C) market range and threshold population
(B) specialization and concentration (D) profitability and pecuniary interest
124. The hierarchy of settlements in Walter Christallers Central Place Theory is characterized by
(A) equally-sized large cities in every region (C) only medium-sized and small settlements
(B) only one large city, many small settlements (D) a few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements
125. Central Place Theory was found faulty in assuming uniform topography, fiat featureless terrain, ease of travel in all
directions, and ubiquity or allaround presence of economic resources, but its major strength lies in characterizing the
locational advantages of one place in relation to another, a geographic concept called –
(A) Surrounding (B) Standing (C) Situation (D) State
126. The weakness of applying Central Place Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines is that
(A) unlike other countries, Philippines does not have compact land mass with homogenous features
(B) archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement & economic exchange difficult
(C) spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport that inflates prices
127. In 2010, which Philippine city had the biggest population, biggest gross income, biggest net income, and biggest
IRA?
(A) City of Manila (B) Makati City (C) Ouezon City (D) Cebu City
128. George Zipf's Rank-Size Rule, “Pn=P1/nq" was derived from Christallers Central Place Theory, and asserts that the
population of city “n” is equal to the population of the largest city “1” divided by the rank of “n” in the hierarchy of aces. If
the largest city in immediately preceding question had 2.6 million people in 2007 official census, using Zipf's rule what
should have been the population of Davao City if it was ranked Number?
(A) 520,000 (B) 1,520,000 (C) 1,300,000 (D) 650,000
129. Does the formula of George Zipf in the immediately preceding question match the reality on the ground based on 2007
Official Census of the National Statistics Office?
(A) Yes (B) Partially (C) No (D) Depends on whether old Davao City or Metro Davao is being analyzed
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130. ln the model of monocentric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to transport arteries, blue-collar worker
locate close to their jobs, while traders and retailers pay higher for choice locations in city center to have | command of
the market. This pattern of land use is explained better by which theory of spatial planning?
(A) Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso, Muth, and Mills (C) Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
(B) Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal (D) City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch
131. “When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit-maximizing firms, land is sold to the highest
bidder. As a firm moves closer to the center of a place, transport costs fall which increases the amount a firm is | willing to
pay
for land. Thus, land at the center always has the highest value."
(A) Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
(B) William Alonso, Richard E. Muth and Edwin S. Mills
(C) Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter lsard
(D) Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park
132. Neo-classical Urban Bid-Rent theory provides the formula for Location Rent at center of city as equal = to 'Rent Gradient'
times 'Radius' where 'Rent Gradient' is equal to 'transport cost per capita per year' multiplied by 'density per sq.km'. If
Pateros
has a and
2009 radius distance
P15,330 of 10.266
transport costkm
perfrom theper
capita center of what
year, Metroshould
Manila,bewith
the average density
location rent per of = 29,495.24
square meter inpersons as km2 in
Paterosper
periphery-town of Metro Manila? (clue: convert sq.km to sq.m.)
(A) 4,641 per m2 (B) around 46,410 per m2 (C) around 464,100 per m2 (D) around464.10 per m2
133. According to Raleigh Barlowe (1958), this refers to the most profitable use of land when it yields optimum returns gen limited
inputs; such returns can either be monetary or non-monetary, tangible or intangible, based on the criteria and interest of the
person who makes such decisions.
(A) Maximum Sustainable Rent (B) Maximum Sustainable Yield (C) Profit Maximization (D) Highest and Best Use
.
134. In Peirce Lewis' revision of the Ernest Burgess' monocentric model of urban land use, which of the following describes the
spatial decline of concentric cities least effectively?
(A) The elite and their businesses leave the inner core due to pollution and congestion.
(B) Hollowing-out of the core results in the “donut shape”
(C) Surrounded by the poor in the historic center, government increasingly becomes captive to pressure groups
(D) Land values rapidly fall in inner-city areas experiencing urban blight and urban decay.
135. In Urban land use models of the Chicago school of human ecology, the affluent and middle classes are inclined to E- away
from downtown and inner-city in favor of suburban locations and this process results in a paradox or
“spatial mismatch" as regards labor.
(A) sophisticated upperclasses locate in city-edges with semi-rural conditions where no employment is available
(B) lower-classes who cannot create employment by themselves are left to occupy high-priced land in the inner core of cities.
(C) blue-collar workers are forced to accept low-skill jobs as maids, yayas, gardeners in affluent suburban subdivisions
(D) non-tax paying people in the informal sector are closer to the seat of government than the landed gentry
136. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because
(A) power/water connections and other utilities etc are naturally linear
(B) business can not take place without roads and vehicles
(C) migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus, processions, or diasporas
(D) people tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land uses are at maximum
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137. Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in the same manner that both
| population and business follow roads?
(A)Ernest Burgess (B) Homer Hoyt (C) Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman (D) Peirce Lewis
138. WMhich of the following landuse models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth along lines of least
resistance? (A) Multiple nuclei (B) Concentric zone (C) Sector model (D) Polycentric model
139. In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are those:
(A) downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts (C) immediately around public offices / institutional sector
(B) on top of hills and elevated areas called uptowns (D) along major roadways
140. Social status declines with increasing distance from the center of the city" is a proposition about poor Third World
countries that contradicts the original land use models from the Chicago school of human ecology,
(A) Donut model (B) Core-Periphery Dependency Model (C) Polycentric model (D) Inverse Concentric
141. According to M. White (1987), the more economically complex a city, the more varied would be the number of high growth
points, the more socially complex it becomes, and the stronger is its tendency towards differentiation such as in the case
of residents segregating themselves into enclaves according to economic level, social status, or ethnicity.
(A) Bipolar Model (B) Palimpsest or Mosaic Model (C) Multiple Nuclei (D) Urban Land Nexus Theory
142. Advancements in transportation and communication technologies have affected many cities in such a way that
information based production can be done by anyone, anywhere at any time regardless of distance from city center. |
of Which the following is the likely spatial form arising from these economic trends?
(A) Cyber-city sends all dirty smokestack industries to (C) Suburban subdivisions form a belt-like edge
or remote regions. natural perimeter around the mother city
(B) CBD becomes an elongated corridor or spine following (D) Edge cities, office parks, and techno-poles
the lines of telecommunications & electronic services develop in various parts of a complex mother city
143. According to Wilbur Richard Thompson (1965), once a city reaches a resident population of 250.000, it attains L.
I permanence. Certain city sections may suffer decay and decline, but the city as a whole will survive because of
sheer size and strength of tertiary economy, inherent capacity to diversify, and its political weight vis-a-vis other
settlements.
(A) Urban Land Nexus (B) Urban Ratchet Theory (C) Urban Spiral Economy (D) Urban Force Momentum
144. By plotting on a graph the economic benefits from agglomeration against the costs of congestion and overconcentration, Leo
Klaasen concluded that 'Optimum City Size' of a viable city should be between
(A) 20,000–190,000 (B) 200,000 - 600,000 (C) 700,000 - one million (D) one million – two million
145. The original concept of megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is attributed to
(A).Jean Gottman (B) Konstantinos Doxiadis (C) Dennis Rondinelli (D) Andreas Faludi
146. Which characteristic of megalopolis describes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or multi-nodal spatial
pattern? (A) is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)
(B) tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring regions
(C) has complex form as mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in dendritic or sprawling manner
(D) requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of a single LGU authority
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147. The following are characteristics of a central business district. Which one increases the LGU responsibility to feguard the
well- being of people, often beyond the capacities of a single local authority?
(A) large concentration of office and retail activities;

(B) significantly large number of tertiary and service jobs generated
(C) high price of land forces property-owners to build high
(D) large regular inflow and outflow of motorists; daytime population higher than nighttime population
148. Not all megacities become 'world cities'. According to David Simon in World City Hypothesis (1996), the following
criteria determines how a city reaches Tier 1 status. Which criterion is pursued as cities 'de-industrialize' by banishing
dirty smokestack industries from their territories in the contest to achieve “greater global competitiveness”?
(A) existence of a sophisticated financial and service complex serving a global clientele
(B) level of international networks of capital information and communication flows
(C) large number of headquarters of international institutions
(D) quality of life conducive to attracting investors and retaining skilled international migrants
149. This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms, settlements, industries,
transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly large area broader than a single city of
town.
(A) Watershed Planning (B) Area Development Planning (C) Regional Planning (D) Physical Planning
150. Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which criterion pertains to the role of a
leading center or a complex of exporting firms or lead industries?
(A) Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size

(B) Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
(C) "Should have a homogenous economic structure
(D) "Must contain at least one growth point;
(E) Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems
151. Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland economic exchange & spatial integration?
* (A) Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect the natural environment
(B) Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center, manufacturing hub, tourism zone, etc
(C) Develop transport corridors in hub and spokes design with major infrastructure reaching out to population centers
(D) Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these areas as parks, farms, buffers, etc
152. Which concern of regional planning pertains to institutional capacitation of local governments, and the
appropriate distribution of authority among them?
(A) spatial integration between urban and rural settlements (D) federalism and decentralization of development
(B) complementation among agriculture, industry, other sectors (E) equitable distribution of resources among
places (C) balanced distribution of population (F) reduction of economic disparities among
regions
153. A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake, coast, ecosystem is called ----natural or
ecological region; while that which is defined by extent of economic connectedness or market exchange is called a
functional region; that which is created by law regardless of natural or economic commonality is called
(A) homogenous region (B) formal region (C) historic region (D) virtual region
154. Earliest regional planning models in USA in 1933 revolved around Tennessee Valley, Dallas Plain, Columbia River
Basin, Colorado River, St Lawrence Seaway, Delaware River, Chesapeake Bay watershed, which are essentially
1919
(A) cultural or ethno-linguistic regions (B) deltaic riverine regions (C) natural regions (D) crossborder regions
155. Altough theoretically and definitionally flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of Pres. Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of territories such as agri-processing,
tourism, commodity logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which super-region ought to focus on 'agribusiness'?
(A) Northern Luzon Ouadrangle (D) Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of
Mindanao) (B) Metro Luzon Urban Beltway (E) Subic-Clark Freeport complex
(C) CALABARZON Industrial Heartland (F) Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority
156. The 'center-down' paradigm of neoclassical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits from
nationallevelor macroeconomic growth tend to to component regions and lower-level communities.
(A) cascade (B) sprinkle around in spurts (C) pour down (D) trickle down
157. In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which refers to lagging regions
: (A) core regions (D) downward transitional areas |

(B) upward transitional areas (E) special problem areas
(C) resource frontier areas (F) latifundio-minifundio
158. According to economists Theodore Schultz, Jacob Mincer, and Gary S.Becker, this collective term for people's
embodied" assets such as knowledge, skills, good health, attitudes, and entrepreneurial qualities, determines how a |
local community or region absorbs new technologies, expands productive capacity, and generates own progress.
(A) Seven Domains of lntelligence (B) Intellectual Quotient (C) Managerial Aptitude (D) Human Capital
159. The phenomenon of urban primacy mostly in Third World countries wherein a single metropolis corners a ET
disproportionate share of a country's population, resources, and investments by reason of historical or political | precedence,
or as a result
of foreign colonial influence, is also called Manila imperialism" in the Philippines.
(A) it is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.
(B) it proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and overconcentration
(C) it demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers. -
(D) it shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and human talent from hinterland
160. The twin strategy of 'concentrated decentralization' and 'industrial dispersal' to correct urban primacy and inter-
regional divergence in the Philippines was begun under the administration of President
(A) Carlos P. Garcia (B) Ferdinand E. Marcos (C) Corazon C. Aquino (D) Fidel V. Ramos (E) Gloria M. Arroyo
161. Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain concentrated
decentralization? (A) regional industrial centers (C) growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
(B) special economic zones (D) agora and agurbia
162. According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive or expanding firmlindustry, or
cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of other firms/industries that are technically or functionally
related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of goods and services.
(A) Market town (B) Entrepot (C) Axis Mundi (D) Growth Pole (E) Ecozone
163. Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone Under PEZA?
(A) free trade zone (B) financial banking center (C) export processing zone (D) industrial park or industrial estate
2020
164. According to RA 7916 Sec , this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous hectares which is subdivided and
developed according to a comprehensive plan under a unified continuous management and with provisions for basic
infrastructure and utilities, with or without pre-built standard factory buildings (SFBs)
(A) industrial corridor (B) regional manufacturing hub (C) export processing zone (D) industrial estate
165. der RA7916 Sec. 10, what is the minimum investment of a foreigner who can be granted permanent resident status within
a Philippine ecozone, together with spouse and children below 21 years of age, who shall all have freedom of ingress and
egress to and from the Ecozone without any need of special authorization from the Bureau
of immigration?
(A) US$ 150,000 (B) US$ 300000 (C) US$ 1,000,000 (D) US$ 2,000,000
166. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12. Art Xll of Philippine Constitution, "The State shall promote the preferential use of Filipino
labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt measures that help make them competitive." What
technical planning concept pertains most aptly to this?
(A) inflow - outflow - backflow (C) economic nationalism or Filipinism

(B) trickle up and trickle down (D) forward linkages and backward linkages in production
167. An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called developmental" while an industrial estate meant
to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activity particularly in poor regions is called
(A) " specialized" (B) "ancillary" (C) "promotional" (D) "survival" (E) "subsistential"
168. The following variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Lösch, Walter Isard, Melvin Greenhut and others,
in so-called classical theories of industrial location.
(A) the costs of distributing and marketing finished (C) the costs of transporting raw materials to
the goods to the end-user factory
(B) wages of labor (D) perks and privileges for managers
169. When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr valley, it is called "materials-
oriented;" when a firm locates close to where there are large populations such as Shanghai or Tokyo, it is called
A) customer-friendly (B) client-centered (C) demographically-responsive (D) market-oriented
170. According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical attributes of geographic location to carry
out profitable business are called
(A) vagabond (B) wanderlust (C) itinerant (D) footloose
171. An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost of unionized labor in Detroit and
moves its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs are low and sources of refined metals are close by. What theory
of firm location likely underpins this decision?
(A) Market-Oriented Approach by August Lösch (C) Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
(B) Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber (D) Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)
172. A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite high wage costs, IT companies boast of
highest 10 points per square-meter of floorspace, and have vibrant linkages with topnotch universities to create state-of-
the- art technologies. What theory of firm location is operational here?
A)Theory of Human Capital (B) Profit Maximizing Approach (C) Satisficing Theory (D) Behavioral Theory
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173. Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch company decides to stay put in
Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven track record in producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of
firm location is likely at work here?
(A) Comparative Advantage (B)Profit Maximizing Approach (C) Satisficing Theory (D) Behavioral Theory
174. Cognitive processes which include perception, intuition, values and attitudes, underlie locational behavior and these
account for imperfect decisions, meaning that industrial locators do not necessarily aim for the best possible setup
to maximize profit but can be content with 'sub-optimal', 'good-enough' but 'adequate' decisions.
(A) Cogitative Theory of Location (C) Urban Land Nexus Theory

(B) Behavioral Theory of Location (D) Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Corporate Mergers)
175. If a firm subscribes to the lnstitutional Theory of firm location as shaped by neo-liberal economics, the firm will
logically consider which of the following factors the least:
(A) costs of doing business (tax and non-tax costs including graft and corruption)
(B) stability of government and predictability of its policies (fair play, level-playing
field) (C) peace and order and the physical safety of employees
(D) leisure opportunities such as golf courses and exclusive resorts for the managerial elite and their families
176. Anything that is available to rivals elsewhere is essentially nullified as a source of competitive advantage, for a firms
competitive edge lies in something very local -- innovation in strategy, innovation in know-how, in relationships, in
motivation."
(A) Dr Michael Porter (B) Jacob A. Riis (C) Sir Peter Hall (D) Dr Mark Gottdeiner (E) Hernando de Soto
177. In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community Development and the UP Institute of
Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever national physical framework plan that attempted to address
spatial inequity or imbalance among regions using the concept of
(A) integrated area development (B) growth pole/growth center (C) selective territorial closure (D) New Society
178. SThe declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater complementarity between
agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and rural places is called
(A) lmport Substitution lndustrialization (C) Countrywide Urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)

(B) Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI) (D) Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BADS)
179. Development process should be redefined in such a way that urban development promotes rural development while |
ural development supports urban development." (John Friedman)
(A) agropolis / agropolitan approach (C) agro-based countryside development

(B) urban interlink (D) Michael Lipton model
180. This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-1990s refers to the necessary
combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional activities in mutually reinforcing manner - fostering the growth of
viable market towns or mid-size cities that offer broad services and amenities meant to achieve both stability of
population movement and agro-industrial growth; closely tied to, and integrated with, efficient agricultural production.
(A) Autonomous Autarchic Development (C) endogenous self-reliant development

(B) integrated area development (D) selective territorial closure
181. 31. As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)" scheme analogous to Japan's
"One
Town One Product" model would cluster several villages to carry out the following components except:
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(A) family farm school orfolk school (C) rural development center
(B) small-scale agro-processing industries (D) roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port
182. Presidenta Decree 1559 defines this natural region used in ecosystem-based planning as a relatively large area Starting at
the roof of mountain rivers and encompassing tributaries, streams, and the land surface whose rainwater runoff drains into
a common, downstream point such as a lake, estuary, or coastal water body.
A) Drainage Basin (B) Rainforest (C) Flood plain (D) Watershed
183. Based on 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, this is an area of up to 200 nautical miles from a States
Shore in which a State is given the sovereign right to explore, exploit, conserve, and manage all natural resources as well a
s the right to determine the total allowable catch (TAC) of living resources.
(A) Territorial Sea (B) Sealanes and Maritime Fairways (C) Continental Shelf (D) Exclusive Economic Zone
184. RA 8550 Fisheries code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in which terrestrial processes and uses,
as well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect each other; its geographic extent has a landmark limit of one (1)
kilometer from the shoreline at high tide to a seaward limit of 200 meters isobath.
(A) Seashore land (B) Foreshore land (C) Coastal Zone (D) Aqua Marine Zone
185. Under RA8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured from its shoreline?
A) 7 km (B) 10 km (C) 15 km (D) 20 km
186. The taking of fishery species by passive or active gear for trade, business, or profit beyond the level of subsistence
fishing or sports fishing, utilizing marine vessels of 3.1 gross tons (GT) or more, is called
(A) Municipal Fishing (B) Profitable Fishing (C) Entrepreneurial Fishing (D) Commercial Fishing
187. Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the world's biodiversity. Philippines
has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square kilometer of which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons
of seafood annually. Which area is considered among the most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?
(Al Sulu (B) Boracay (C) Palawan (D) Mindoro
188. According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr Helen Yap of UP Marine Science lnstitute,
30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying, 25% in fair condition, how much remains in 'excellent' condition?
(A) approximately 5% (B) approx. 8% (C) approx. 26% (D) approx. 31%
189. Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, jurisdiction over all declared aquatic critical habitats,
all aquatic resources, including but not limited to all fishes, aquatic plants, invertebrates and all marine
mammals, except dugong, including protected coral reefs, fish sanctuaries, and marine reserves, belongs to
(A) Philippine Coast Guard and Patrol Bantay Dagat (C) Department of Agricultur
(B) DENR Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau (D) Department of Science and Technology
Land Use Process, Physical Planning, Transport, and Disaster

190. According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and information on natural
resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated using various risk assessment and
forecasting methodologies, and evaluates environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way
that enables
planners and government decision-makers to anticipate the type of development control necessary in the
planning area
(A) Natural Resources lnventory (B) Environmental Accounting (C) Biogeographic Compendium (D) Eco-Profile
191. In the SEPP, 'geology' covers subsurface conditions, seismic fault lines, bedrock, and minerals while 'patterns
of precipitation, temperature, humidity, and wind' are discussed under
A) Atmospheric and Astro-physical Sciences (B) Hydrology (C) Climate (D) Agro-ecology
192. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by systematically evaluating
alternative patterns of resource use, choosing that use which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and
programs, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal opportunities an
d constraints.
(A) Framework Planning (B) Strategic Planning (C) Land Use Planning (D) Development Planning
193. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements about community goals,
priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by maps, diagrams, charts, tables
that show a coherent spatial framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and infrastructure,
A) Charrette (B) Chatroulette (C) Comprehensive Land Use Plan (D) Strategic Plan (E) Framework Plan
194. ln contrast to the long-term skeletal/circulatory framework, this is the overall medium-term action plan utilized by every
local administration to develop socio-economic development projects and implement sectoral, cross-sectoral, and multi-
sectoral programs to be translated into public investment measures and incentives to private investment.
(A) Comprehensive Land Use Plan (B) Blueprint (C) Comprehensive Development Plan (D) Master Plan
195. This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing, work places, and related facilities
within a self-contained setup, based on the assumption that it can be built from zero, more or less.
(A)Freiburg or Freetown (B) Borough (C) New Town (D) County Estate (E) Eco-lndustrial Park
196. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the detailed layout of location,
and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can function effectively in relation
to the complexity and scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.
(A) Estate Planning (B) Wards and Precincts Planning (C) Parcellary Planning (D) Site Planning (E) Project Planning
197. This concerns the arrangement, appearance, and functionality of a whole town or city, in particular the shape and form of
city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors
alike can make high-quality connections between people, places, and buildings.
(A) Architectural Master Plan (B) Cityscape and Streetscape (C) Urban Design (D) Form and Style (E) Visual Panorama
198. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such
that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in Zoning, usually
relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
(A) Enterprise Zone (B) Sites and Services model (C) Zonal Improvement Program (D) Planned Unit Development
199. If Lands with slope between 18%-30% constitute 45% of total land area, those with slope above 30% constitute
8%, what percent of Philippine gross land area is generally described as 'alienable and disposable'?
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(A) roughly 47% (B) roughly 53% (C) roughly 43% (D) roughly 57% %
200. 'Land Use' and 'Land Classification' are
(A) the same (C) 'Land Classification' is proper term for legal and bureaucratic transactions while 'Land
Use' is used for basic environmental analysis.
(B) mutually exclusive (D) 'Land Classification' is a scientific conceptual scheme while 'Land Use'
refers to actual utilization or consumption of land.
201. "Land use has to be planned for the community as a whole because the conservation of soil, water, and other
natural resources is often beyond the means of individual land user"
(A) true (C) true only for closed societies and socialist economies but not for free market societies
(B) false (D) partially false because free market forces' always know better how to apportion land.
202. Which statement about 'Land Capability' and 'Land Suitability' is true, based on definition from US Department of
Agriculture and United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization?
(A) 'Land Capability' refers to the 'carrying capacity' of land while 'Land Suitability' refers to appropriateness of land
for human use and habitation.
(B) 'Land Capability' refers to appropriateness of land for engineering and physical intervention while 'Land Suitability'
refers to appropriateness for natural production.
(C) 'Land Capability' refers to the broadest uses of land for urban development while 'Land Suitability' refers to its fitness
for rural development.
(D) 'Land Capability' is the broad inherent capacity of land to perform at a given level for general use, while 'Land
Suitability' is the adaptability of a given land for a specific kind of land use, usually farm crops.
203. Which is not considered' production land' in a Philippine LGU?
A) agro-industrial estate (B) cropland (C) orchard (D) fishpond (E) fishpen
204. Which type of land use is not described as urban?
A) residential (B) institutional (C) industrial (D) mineral
205. Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original
state? (A) forest land (B) memorial park (C) infrastructure land (D) commercial
206. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial
use? (A) load-bearing capacity (B) location (C) slope (D) soil characteristics
207. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural use?
A) climate and rainfall (B) soil quality (C) geologic fault lines (D) slope
208. What are the determinants of soil fertility for agricultural land use?
(A) soil moisture, water holding capacity, permeability, porosity, nutrient retention, mineralizable Nitrogen
B) surface texture, soil particle size, soil structure, shrink-swell potential
(C) soil drainage, runoff, and soil erosion by water and by wind
(D) clay, silt, sand, and parent material
209. In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt fraction that would ensure good
plant growth are
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(A) <50 cm and <80% (C) 50-100 cm and 40-80%

(B) >100 cm and >80% (D) 10-50 cm and 10-40%
210. These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation overtime and can sustain the productivity levels of crops in a
given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate or adjoining environment
(A) agro-industrial estate (B) prime agricultural land (C) alluvial fans (D) ricefields or mud paddies
211. To conserve farm soils by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
(A) use of coco-coir geotextile on erodible soils (D) use of soil compactors
(B) use of rows, furrows, ridges and ditches (E) mulching and recycling of organic matter
(C) use of terraces and contours on sloping land (F) cover crops and shelterbelts against wind erosion
212. To conserve freshwater by means of bio-engineering, all of the following methods are useful except one:
(A) sub-terranean drilling to interconnect deep-wells (D) small water impounding projects
(SWP) (B) partially grassed waterways (E) rainwater harvesting thru man-
made
(C) mini-dams and dikes to slow down stream flow to the sea ponds, small farm reservoirs (SFRs)
213. recommended map scale for provinces is 1 : 50,000 while that for town/city CLUP should be at least
A) 1:200,000 (B) 1:100,000 (C) 1:25,000 (D) 1:10,000
214. Which of those listed below is not a thematic map?
(A) political – administrative boundaries (B) NPAAAD map (C) slope map (D) forest cover map
215. Which of the following maps display the 'critical facilities' of a city/town?
(A) map showing military camps, police stations, checkpoints, jails, prisons and Stockades
(B) map showing sewer lines, canals, tunnels, and underground bunkers
(C) map showing roads, hospitals, food warehouses, utility trunks for power, water, and communication
(D) map showing possible evacuation places in schools, churches, gymnasium, and covered courts
216. Contour lines on a topographic map indicate a
(A) soil classes (B) layers of vegetative cover (C) demarcation lines of AD (D) elevation intervals
217. An analytical map is a composite or overlay of two or more
(A) base maps (B) thematic maps (C) aspect maps (D) choropleth maps
218. Which of those listed below is not a 'decision' map?
(A) physical constraints map (C) land suitability map

(B) geohazard map (D) natural drainage map (rivers and streams)
219. In preparing a site plan for -hectare mixed use project in an urban area, which of following maps is least useful at the
needed scale of 1: 1,000?
(A) NAMRA base map (B) LRA parcel map (C) utilities map from LGU Engineer (D) Phivolcs geologic map
220. It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are used to organize, store,
process, analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-referenced information about geographically located
features.
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(A)Geodesy and Geodetics (C) Electronic Cadastral System

(B) Global Positioning System (D) Geographic lnformation System
221. In an output map of the computer-based system referred to in immediately-preceding section, 'roads,' 'irrigation canals' and
'sewers' are represented in the form called
(A) digital (B) vector (C) raster (D) megapixel (E) cellular automata
222. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic maps on top of each other to
determine areas of convergence of certain features of land contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular
purpose, and conversely, to eliminate or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.
(A) thematic superimposition (B) cartographic merging (C) sieve analysis (D) spatial modeling
223. Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial analysis was done manually by
overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale, principally to determine
(A) geohazards and physical constraints (C) critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
(B) areas that are ideal for urban development (D) all of the above
224. All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land use
allocation? (A) Land Use Accounting (B) Scenario Analysis (C) Life Cycle Analysis (D) Spatial
Modeling
225. According to Ernesto Serote, the FAO formula for urban land allocation at 5.7 hectares per thousand population does not
seem to be realistic in highly-urbanized LGUs because of rapid pace of change, hence, to estimate urban land demand,
this method entails time-series comparison of aerial photographs supplemented by on-foot survey of
urban land.
(A) Urban Density Method (B) Urban Occupancy Method (C) City Land Census (D) Floor Area Ratio
226. In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land supply for planning,
except one
(A) reclamation of coastal area (C) urban renewal and redevelopment

(B) infill and densification (D) NPAAAD
227. In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are withdrawn or deducted from total, except one
(A) environmentally critical areas (C) high-risk geohazard zones

(B) grasslands and idle lands (D) military and civil reservations
228. What ratrational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?
(A) check list of criteria (B) linear programming (C) cost-benefit analysis (D) computer simulation
229. "Land Evaluation" and "Landscape Analysis" are
(A) the same and actually overlap (C) used by different sets of specialists for the same land use process
(B) both obsolete and no longer used (D) essentially at odds because one is scientific while the other is not
230. Which of the following does not enhance 'connectivity' to create sociable, livable, walkable, health-oriented
communities? (A) cul-de-sacs, cuvilinear streets, steel gates on roadblock corners; family pets wander & provide
biodiversity excitement
(B) school, church, community assembly center, plaza, and sports facilities are located relatively close to each other.
(C) 300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses, FX vans, and shuttles to railway stations
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(D) bicycle lanes are delineated; strolling and biking promoted, 'no-car policy' declared on selected streets during holidays.
231. ln all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning shapes the pace and direction of city/town
growth. (A) expand physically municipal jail and stockade to address increased incidence in criminality
(B) propose roll-on roll-off port to hasten trade with coastal neighbors
(C) identify which sections of territory are appropriate for low-rise, medium-rise, and high-rise
structures. (D) define specific types of commerce that can be allowed in predominantly residential
neighborhoods.
232. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by conserving natural
resources. (A) interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for wildlife
(B) delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
(C) encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the municipality
(D) create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the city/town
233. ln all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning addresses global warming and climate
change. (A) provide for locations of windmill farms as possible joint ventures with private sector
(B) reward real estate projects that keep more than 40% of their total area as wooded open space
(C) encourage intercropping of fruit trees and bio-fuel plants in lands designated for agro-orestry
(D) transfer manufacturing firms to remote locations at least 10 kms away where their fumes can not reach homes
234. ln all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning mitigates natural hazards and reduces disaster
risk. (A) expand open space in flood-holding areas, evacuation routes, lifelines, and areas of unstable soil
(B) compel all real estate brokers and dealers to provide hazard disclosure to property buyers in geohazard zones
(C) require 10-meter-deep foundations for bulky structures in places prone to recurrent liquefaction
(D) redirect public funds for capital investment projects from tsunami-prone areas to locations of higher elevation
235. All of the following Land Use measures address Climate Change. Which one directly pertains to the carbon
sequestration function performed by trees and plants?
(A) design settlements and communities in a manner that reduces use of vehicles
(B) enforce energy-efficiency laws to cover buildings, homes, and industrial design of appliances and appurtenances identify
(C)conducive locations and facilitate projects that generate renewable natural energy
(D) maintain buffer zones and protect undisturbed lands with thick vegetative cover
236. All of the following Land Use measures address transport bottlenecks and congestion, but which one increases
pedestrian traffic and requires intensified police/security presence?
(A) establish Floor-Area Ratio and population density ceilings for buildings in the Central Business District
(B) relocate intercity bus terminals and freight terminals from the center of town
(C) enforce walking and biking in specific downtown sections that have vibrant bazaars, tiangges, and streetside sales
(D) prohibit on-street or parallel roadside parking along busy arterial roads
237. To better conserve energy in a community, planners may recommend each of the following except
(A) Promote use of mass transit (C) Encourage landscaping / ornamentation over planting of hardwood tree species
(B) Design mixed uses for projects (D) Use of solar energy for passive lighting, passive heating, power for ventilation
238. Which map is least relevant in preparing a Forest Management Plan that covers multiple LGUs at scale of
1:5,000? (A) map of tribal or ancestral land (B) elevation map (C) density map (D) NIPAS map
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239. This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep gradients at 50% or more, which
perform vital ecological functions and must therefore be kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.
(A) Everlasting Forest (B) Permanent Forest (C) Virginal Forest (D) Primeval Forest
240. This is he Scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated by broad-leaf trees which form thick
canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor, and includes much-prized hardwood species such as red lauan,
white lauan, red narra, tanguile, tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.
(A) Dipterocarp Forest (C) Coniferous or Pine Forest (E) Mossy Forest (G) Mangrove Forest
(B) Deciduous Forest (D) Tropical Scrub Forest (F) Sub-marginal Forest (H) Evergreen Forest
241. All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.
(A) Permanent Forest (B) Critical River Watershed (C) Mangrove Forest (D) Military and Civil Reservations
242. These are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas, biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and V
endangered species-- all set aside by reason of their unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to
enhance biological diversity, and to be secured from destructive human exploitation.
(A) National Heritage Parks and Reservations (B) Resource Reserve (C) Ecological Zones (D) Protected Areas
243. This is a Section of forestland with an area of at least 100-meter radius around rivers and springs which serve to
capture freshwater sources being tapped for domestic water supply and irrigation.
(A) Hydrologic Capture Zone (B) Eco-Park (C) Water Catchment Reserve (D) Escarpment
244. The DENR Environmental Management Bureau (2006) classified 525 of approximately 840 rivers and freshwater bodies
in the Philippines, of which 50 were biologically dead, 18 below Class C, 5 were Class AA, 203 were Class A. Which class
of water is suitable for irrigation, livestock watering, farm operations, but not for human drinking?
(A) Class B (B) Class C (C) Class D (D) Class E
245. Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is the amount of oxygen dissolved in water and essential for healthy streams and lakes to support
fish and aquatic life. When bacteria and waste decomposers abound in water, they multiply rapidly and 94 consume so
much oxygen as to lower the DO level below the national standard of
(A) 5 mg/L (B) 10 mg/L (C) 15 mg/L (D) 20 mg/L
246. Under RA 7586 NIPAS Act of 1991, which type of protected area aims to assure the natural conditions necessary
to protect species, groups of species, biotic communities or physical features of the environment where these may
require specific human manipulation for their perpetuation."
(A) Haven and Refuge of Endangered Biota (C) Genepool and Germplasm Reserve
(B) Protected Landscape and Seascape (D) Wildlife Sanctuary
247. Which of the following steps in the establishment of NIPAS area addresses overlapping LGU jurisdictions?
(A) compilation of technical maps & description of protected areas (C) Public notification of coverage of protected areas
A (B) Census and registration of protected area occupants (D) Boundary demarcation and monumenting
248. A Protected Area Management Plan guides a declared natural biotic area" under RA 7586. Under which sections of 5
ecological zoning might Indigenous Peoples, tenured migrants and/or other residents be allowed to Collect and utilize
natural resources using traditional methods that are not in conflict with biodiversity conservation
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(A) strict protection zone & habitat management zone (C) cultural zone & restoration zone
(B) Sustainable Use Zone & Multiple Use Zone (D) Special Use Zone and Buffer Zone
249. Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at least 5 years prior to legal
proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence, are considered "tenured migrant communities" and
are engaged by government to undertake reforestation and upland management under this specific program.
(A) Agro-Foresty (B) Sloping Agricultural Land Technology (C) Integrated Social Forestry (D) industrial Forestry
250. Based on FAO framework, which component of Watershed Management needs to engage timber companies,
upland concessions, and sawmills to the highest extent possible?
(A) irrigation, water harvesting, control of land and water pollution

(C) gully control, rehabilitation of landslips and landslides, control of road erosion
(B) pastureland protection and improvement
(D) forest protection and improvement, streambank protection, and sustainable mining
251. RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a chainsaw in a legal manner.
(A) has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a private land timber permit
(B) is duly elected official of upland barangay
(C) is an Orchard and fruit tree farmer
(D) is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold E) is an industrial tree farmer
252. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the amenity value of the
environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves
as protection buffer around sensitive areas and hazardous installations.
(A) Wilderness (B) Tourism & Recreation Zone (C) Rangeland (D) Open Space
253. These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their high susceptibility
to, among others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes, erosion once their topsoil is exposed.
(A) 'geohazards' (B) 'brownfields' (C) 'environmentally critical' (D) 'naturally forbidden'
254. According to DENR-FMB, Philippines has total forestland of 1585 million hectares, at average deforestation rate of
89,000 hectares per year, approx. 7,168,400 hectares showed some form of forest cover by year 2003, of which only
950,000 hectares remained as old growth primary forest. This last figure is equivalent to roughly to total
- forestland.
(A) 5 % (B) 6% (C) 7 % (D) 8%
255. DENR-FMB 2003, of total Philippine forestland of 15.85 million hectares, 1.5 million hectares are denuded and 5.7
million hectares are badly denuded. Under the 12-point agenda of Forest Management Bureau,
which of the latter should have the highest priority in restoration and reforestation by engaging private sector investors.
(A) Cultivated Areas and Upland Settlements (C) Wooded Grasslands

(B) Shrub lands and marginal grasslands (D) Swamps and Marshes
256. Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of number of species. Under RA
9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation 8 Protection Act, a species or sub-species that faces high risk of extinction in
the immediate future is called
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(A) Acutely Threatened Species (C) Species Vulnerable to Extinction

(B) Critically Endangered Species (D) Rapidly Disappearing Species
257. Under RA 9174 Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act, killing of endangered wildlife is unlawful except in 5 cases.
Which of the following might warrant an act of killing by Palawan tribal leaders after they've gathered proof that they had
lost three children to river crocodiles which had escaped from a science-oriented crocodile farm?
(A) "when killing is done as part of the religious rituals of established indigenous cultural
communities" (B) "when the wildlife is afflicted with an incurable communicable disease"
(C) "when it is deemed necessary to put an end to the misery suffered by the
wildlife" (D) "when it is done to prevent imminent danger to the life or limb of a
human being"
(E) "when the wildlife is killed or destroyed after it has been used in authorized research or experiments"
258. PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the banks of creeks, canals, and
esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s. 1996, has expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas
adjoining water bodies as measured from the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at
least
(A) 10 meters (B) 20 meters (C) 40 meters (D) 5 meters .
259. Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from the banks of rivers, streams
and waterways in a rural farming area?
(A) 5meters (B) 20 meters (C) 40 meters (D) 100 meters
260. This refers to rights of landowners along a water body to use the water for their economic needs provided
they return to the same body the water in similar quality.
(A) Riparian Rights (B) Hydrologic Rights (C) Rights of First Use (D) Riverine Rights
261. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, Settlements," "Production," "Protection," and
"Infrastructure" are discussed as--
(A) Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit

(B) Land Use Zones that exclude one another
(C) Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level
(D) Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
262. One goal of land use planning as stated in the "National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030" is the utilization of
the country's land and water resources in a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of
the present and future generations through local production and/or importation.
(A) "Green Revolution" (B) "Agricultural Development(C) "Food Security" (D) "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
263. 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural resource-based environmental problems to
urban-based man-made environmental problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains to development
control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
(A) delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion

(B) identify and manage environmentally critical areas
(C) match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of infrastructure
(D) encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use, pedestrianization and cultural/
historical preservation in large urban centers
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264. Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative physical arrangement of space-using
activities used to influence the shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and conserve
the unbuilt environment
(A) City Image (B) City Metaphor (C) Spatial Modeling (D) Urban Form (E) Urban Template
265. The do nothing scenario or absence of a spatial strategy allows a settlement to grow on its own like a dendrite or
living organism without man-made controls, and is called
(A) leapfrogging (B) organic development (C) crawling development (D) checkerboard spreadsheet (E) anything goes
266. This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate from a center like rays of a
Star
(A) Radial/Axial/Sectoral (B) Central and nodal (C) Multi-centric and poly-nodal (D) Concentric (E) bi-polar and tri-polar
267. A physical location where industry and/or commercial development is deliberately directed; done either to reduce /
growth pressures elsewhere in the city or to redistribute growth within a city. / 2
(A) Growth Node (B) Growth Hub (C) Growth Nub (D) Growth Mole (E) Growth Lump
268. An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be separated or severed from ownership
of land in a particular zoning district, then sold or passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with
the development of land in some other part of the jurisdiction.
(A) Market-based instrument (B) Commutation of Rights (C) Property Conversion (D) Transfer of Development Rights
269. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good urban design is one where residents and visitors can use a .
cognitive image or mental map of the city as they navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding.' He
identified the elements of legibility of place as:
(A) Circumferentials, arterials, radials, and residuals (C) Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, and promenades
(B) Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, intermodals (D) Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
270. "Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive places that contribute to local
identity, structure and meaning. Urban design strengthens the city's character by reflecting its cultural layers and by
enabling residents and visitors alike to read the city' by way of its history, customs, icons, and visual elements."
(A) "Cosmopolitanism" (B) "Semiotics" (C) "Sense of Place" (D) "Symbology"
271. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, Quiapo church would be a landmark while Divisoria would be termed as
(A) Flea Market (B) lcon (C) District (D) Nodule (F) Transshipment
272. Designed by Peter Calthorpe (1993), this is a compact, mixed-use urban area around a transport node, intermodal or rail
station with commercial shops, offices, and homes within a pedestrian-oriented radius of 800 meters maximum, at density
of
15-40 dwelling units per acre, all intended to maximize citizen access to public transport and encourage
mass ridership.
(A) lntermodal Exchange Design (B) Park & Ride (C) Transit-Oriented Development (D) Bus Rapid Transit
273. "Smart Growth USA" with its 10 declared principles can be considered under which general type of urban
design? (A)Formalistic Design (B) Civic-Centered Design (C) Customer-Centered Design (D) Eco-centric Design
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274. Which goal of Smart Growth USA" addresses social participation?
(A) Direct growth toward existing population centers, thru public spending on infrastructure and utilities
(B) Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place by creating walkable neighborhoods and
providing a variety of transportation choices
(C) Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost effective, and encourage stakeholder collaboration in
development decisions
(D) Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land uses
(E) Preserve and protect open space, farmland, natural beauty, and environmentally sensitive areas
275. City design of Paul Downton where the balance of nature is central concern, operated by closed-loop systems that
recycle energy, materials and resources, while minimizing waste through enviro-preneurship. Its economy is based on
knowledge and innovation such as hydrogen-powered mass transport, sky-gardens, parks on building rooftops,
building-integrated solar systems using photovoltaic skins, and aeroponic and hydroponic urban farming on terraces,
walls, facades, and atria.
(A) evergreen city (B) sustainopolis (C) ecopolis (D) greenopolis (E) verde ville
276. This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present and potential uses of land in order
to maximize, regulate, and direct their use and development
(A) Wards & Precincts Planning (B) Subdivision Plats (C) Land Allocation and Apportionment (D) Zoning
277. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known
as: (A) Gross Leasable Area (B) Buildable Site Formula (C) Floor Area Ratio (D) Location
Quotient
278. Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10 heads of swine should be
properly located in
(A) general residential zone (R-1) (C) agro-industrial zone

(B) slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone (D) rangeland and pastureland
279. Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops
and boutiques should be properly located in –
(A) general residential zone R-1 (B) commercial zone C-3 (C) tourism recreational zone (D) special economic zone
280. What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
(A) Black (B) Gray (C) Violet (D)
Yellow
281. What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?
(A) Brown (B) Beige (C) Blue (D) Maroon
282. What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?
(A) Orange (B) Red (C) Purple (D) Fuchsia
283. This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the district or
zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved CLUP.
(A) flexible zoning (E) mixed use zoning (C) Euclidean zoning (D) spot zoning (E) optional zoning
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284. A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property owner relieffrom certain provisions
of ordinance because the application of the same would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
(A) Exceptionality (B) Certificate of Non-Conformance (C) Quasi-judicial relief (D) Variance
285. All but one of the following are valid grounds to seek special case treatment or relaxation of zoning provision
in relation to a development project.
(A)The unusual shape of the site precludes designing a structure that would meet yard requirements.
(B) The existing structure has been declared historically significant by the city and must be saved at any cost
(C) Proposed deviation constitutes only a minor encroachment and will not alter the character of the
neighborhood. (D) Both area of the site and proposed development are consistent with that of other lots in the
immediate vicinity.
286. "Performance standards" refers to health, safety, and amenity as main determinants of land use while refers to determination
of land use by considering time and distance as the primary units of measurement,
(A) Convenience Standards (B) Technical Standards (C) Expediency Standards (D) Contingency Standards
287. Performance zoning according to noise levels (e.g. 55 decibels for Land Category B, US Federal Highway Administration)
would benefit churches, schools, libraries, and residences while performance zoning according to air quality standards
(i.e emissions) would most affect which fixed locations?
(A) vulcanizing and auto repair shops (C) seaports and wharves
(B) large manufacturing establishments (D) rotunda and street intersections
288. Sea-level rise, coastal surges, coral reef damage, biodiversity decline, altered landscapes, increased frequency and
severity of storms, floods, fires, and droughts; heat-related diseases, increased acidity, salinization of fresh water, failed
harvests and economic losses, are among the known disasters that arise from --
(A) tectonic and geologic movements partly caused by the push and pull of interplanetary or astrophysic forces
(B) natural variability of atmospheric, hydrospheric, and biogeochemical cycles which all have wayward
patterns (C) long-term disturbance of atmospheric and meteorological conditions caused by anthropogenic
sources
(D) natural heating of the Earth as it is pulled closer to the Sun at the rate of 3 inches per completed orbit
289. According to scientific studies, the human body begins to be least productive at ambient temperature of 37°C and
above, while human productivity and mental capacity, in general, are known to be optimal at ambient
temperature.
(A) 16°C (B) 21°C (C) 26°C (D) 32°C
290. This observed phenomenon refers to increase in global average annual mean temperature of the Earth's near- surface
air and oceans, of about ±0.92°C in the last 100 years, due to altered composition of the atmosphere, B which has been
attributed to sharp increase in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions contributed by humans.
(A) Air Pollution (B) Ozone Depletion (C) Greenhouse Effect (D) Global Warming
291. RA 9729 Climate Change Act of 2009 created a Climate Change Commission composed of a commissioner
and two deputy commissioners whose principal planning function, among other functions, is to
(A) cascade policies & programs to LGUs with respect to climate change preparation, risk mitigation, resilience etc
(B) undertake scientific studies and similar projects to support proposed legislation
(C) conduct capacity-building activities to vulnerable local communities
(D) formulate a Framework Program on Climate Change
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292. United Nations defines it as the adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual or expected climatic stimuli
or their effects, which moderates harm or exploits beneficial opportunities
(A) amelioration (B) adaptation (C) accustomization (D) acclimatization
293. As a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or Society involving widespread human, material, economic
or environmental losses and impacts, disaster is caused by the following, except One.
(A) exposure to natural or environmental hazards

(B) conditions of Vulnerability, and lack of human preparedness
(C) insufficient capacity of Community to reduce or cope with the negative consequences of hazards
(D) low level of nominal literacy, functional literacy and numeracy of people affected by Calamities
294. Which solution to reduce disaster vulnerability needs the longest-term and most comprehensive perspective?
(A) environmental safeguards and natural protection (C) safer location for settlements
(B) regulation of private and public infrastructure to ensure social protection (D) safer building construction
295. It refers to the systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters, through reduced exposure to
hazards, lessened Vulnerability of people and property, Wise management of land and the environment, and
improved preparedness for adverse events throughout a Society.
(A) Disaster Management (B) Disaster Planning (C) Disaster Resolution (D) Disaster Risk Reduction
296. According RA 10121 of 2010, this is a management process that analyzes specific potential events of emerging
situations that might threaten Society or the environment by establishing arrangements in advance to enable timely,
effective, and appropriate responses to such events and situations.
(A) Risk Averse Planning (B) Crisis Management (C) Contingency Planning (D) Search, Rescue, Retrieval & Relief
297. According to RA 10121 of 2010, the following measures pursue 'disaster prevention' by taking action in advance to
avoid potential adverse impacts of disaster. Which one prevents disaster the least?
(A) stockpiling and pre-positioning of relief food/goods in strategic locations before occurrence of disaster
(B) construction of dams, levees, & channel modifications as well as continuous dredging to reduce river overflow
(C) land-use regulations based on hazard maps that do not permit any settlement in high-risk zones
(D) seismic engineering designs of major structures; mandatory retrofitting of old buildings and tall houses
(E) evacuation training and rescue drills in major facilities, centers, or areas that are always full of people
298. Integrated into risk-sensitive land use planning process," which component of Risk Assessment" examines and audits
an institutions capabilities and resources to deal with natural hazards?
(A) hazard identification and evaluation (e.g. analysis of frequency, severity/magnitude, return period or probability of
a hazard of given severity)
(B) vulnerability analysis (e.g. probable loss of life, injury, building damage, economic
impacts) (C) potential damage assessment (e.g. monetary estimation of probable losses)
(D) contingency measures, emergency response, quick reaction mechanisms
299. Planning for flood control such as construction of major dams, levees, and embankments occurs at What
level? (A) Zoning District (B) Town (C) Regional or Sub-regional (D) National
300. As a result of the Ondoy-Peping disaster in September-October 2009, what type of planning can possibly interlink
the "Marikina Watershed," the "Marikina Floodplain," and "Laguna de Bay" with their separate governing authorities,
to jointly undertake proactive mitigation and prevention measures?
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(A) Ecosystem-Based Planning (C) Reconstruction Planning by Special National Public Reconstruction Commission
(B) lntegrated Area Development (D) Regional Planning by DENR's River Basin Control Office
301. Based on planning framework of Prof. Ernesto Serote, which of the following best describes infrastructure land use?
(A) construction for movement & flow of goods/people (C) network of man-made structures 8 edifices for people's comfort
(B) connective, circulatory, and communicative space (D) amalgam of steel, rock, concrete and glass to shape civilization
302. 'Infrastructure Planning' covers both replacement infrastructure "and new infrastructure for emerging areas." The
following are important considerations in infrastructure planning, but which is first and foremost of all considerations?
(A) capacity of infrastructure (C) level of service (LOS) and quality of service
(B) public safety and structural integrity (D) age of infrastructure
303. According to National Water Resources Board2009, total dependable freshwater supply in the Philippines at 80% safe yield
is approximately 145990 MCM (million cubic meters) per year. What would be per capita water availability per year when the
total population reaches 100 million?
(A) 14.59 m3 per capita (B) 145.9 m3 per capita (C) 1,459.9 m3 per capita (D)14,599 m3 per capita ,
304. For infrastructure planning by a water utility company, what is the HLURB-LWUA measure of average consumption
per capita per day at Level lll which is used to determine the company’s level of service capacity?
(A) 110-150 lpcd (B) 160-200 pcd (C) 210-250 lpcd (D) 260-300 pcd
305. To this category belongs an LGU water system which has a source, a reservoir, piped distribution network, where
homes have individual connections or household taps, and is appropriate in densely populated areas.
(A) Level | B) Level ll (C) Level lll (D) Level IV
306. This document contains an LGUs proposed schedule of infrastructure projects listed in order of construction priority
usually for a timeframe of 6 years together with cost estimates, anticipated means of financing, and commitment of public
funds for the purchase, construction, or replacement of physical assets of the community.
(A) DOTC Plan (B) Annual Investment Plan (C) Civil Works Program (D) Capital lnvestment Program
307. Any system or network of pipelines, ditches, canals, channels, or conduits including pumping stations, lift stations,
force mains, digestive cesspools, other devices and appliances appurtenant thereto, which involves the collection,
transport, pumping and treatment of liquid waste to a point of disposal.
(A) drainage (B) sewage treatment plant (C) sewerage (D) septage
308. This defines the extent of land corridor that can be used for carriageway, curb, sidewalk, drainage canals,
etc. (A) linear easement (B) buffer and gutter (C) right of way (D) setback
309. A highway is a multi-lane, high-speed, controlled-access road that handles crosstown or 'through-traffic' across
multiple cities-towns; listed below are examples of highway except one.
(A) freeway (B) expressway (C) tollway (D) causeway
310. According to MPWH Highway Planning Manual 1982, each 3.5 meter one-directional lane in an expressway has
an estimated capacity of Passenger Car Units (PCU) per hour or roughly one vehicle every 2
seconds.
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(A) 1,000 (B) 1,750 (C) 2000 (D) 2400
311. What class of road is not part of a hierarchy?
(A) arterial (B) venial (C) collector (D) distributor
312. An avenue is the main approach thoroughfare of most cities/towns; it is usually called a boulevard when
(A) it has historic significance and symbolic function (C) it has medians which are carefully beautified
(B) it is used for ceremonial parades and functions of State (D) all the above
313. The classic -step model of Transport Planning integrated with Land Use has all but one of the following phases
(A)Activity Systems (8) Trip Generation 8 Trip Distribution (C) Modal Split (D) Traffic Assignment
314. In transport planning, the manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, of all
conveyances passing each station during specified periods, supplemented by automatic traffic recorder counts
extending over longer periods is called
(A) travel cost method (B) roadside survey (C) windshield survey (D) network inventory
315. One of the methods of trip generation modeling, this seeks to find the best functional relationship between a
dependent variable and one or more independent variables, usually assuming their relationship to be linear.
(A) analysis of variance (B) multiple regression (C) category analysis (D) polynomial equation
316. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system and centers on
determining traffic flow pattern for a known set of interzonal movements so that the relationship between journey time
and flow on every link in the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link.
(A) All-or-nothing AON assignment (B) capacity restraint (C) diversion curves (D) shortest route method
317. Due to local ingress and egress movements, the following are 'chokepoints' along a transport artery, except
one. (A) market (B) cockpit or stadium (C) mall complex (D) unloading zone (E) major religious shrine
318. Traffic lmpact Assessment (TIA) for specific development projects is required in all but one of the following cases:
(A) Condominium Tower with over 100 dwelling units (C) Day care and kindergarten of around 2000m2
(B) Factory with total gross area over 0.86 hectares (D) Hospital with over 85 beds
319. Level of Service "E" is characterized as very heavy traffic when 0.86-1.000 is the ratio between
(A) traffic volume to road capacity (C) number of people to number of vehicles
(B) number of vehicles to length of motorway (D) number of people to area of all roads
320. Travel Demand Management (TDM) refers to a set of soft measures to influence people's travel behavior so as to reduce
or redistribute transport demand. TDM includes all of the following except one:
(A) Ride Sharing and Carpooling (C) Bypass road

(B) Bicycle racks on buses (D) Number-coding or Color-Coding of vehicles on national highways
321. lt consists of strategies to improve the efficiency of transportation system through operational improvements such as bus
priority or reserved lanes, signalization, access management, turn restrictions, which all seek to increase the n demand
that can be accommodated by the transport system. :
(A) Transport Engineering (C) Transport Infrastructure lmprovement

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(B) Transit-Oriented Development (D) Transport System Management
322. One of the following strategies to solve traffic congestion belongs more properly to specialist engineers rather than
to generalist planners?
(A) Travel Demand Management (C) Transport lnfrastructure lmprovement

(B) Transport System Management (D) Land Use Controls
323. The following core elements of Transport Policy can be examined more closely to address Climate Change, except
one. (A) motor fuels and energy sources (C) industrial design and ergonomics of automobile's accessory
features
(B) role of mass transit versus private cars (D) relationship between land use and roads in creating chokepoints
324. By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values, Planning Balance Sheet is an 'extended'
'multiple-criteria' form of
(A) cost-revenue analysis (B) cost-benefit analysis (C) cost-effectiveness analysis (D) cost-estimate analysis
325. What is the best use of a 'Gantt' chart?
(A) Allocates time among various tasks (C) Illustrates how one task must be completed before beginning another
(B) shows how different tasks are related (D) Utilizes a table with alternatives in rows and impact factors in columns
326. The hierarchic logic in LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P." starts with broad goals which are subsequently broken down into
purposes, objectives, outputs, and activities.
(A) horizontal (B) vertical (C) lateral (D) diagonal
327. Which essential elements of LogFrame or "Z.O.P.P" are used for plan monitoring and
evaluation? (A) targets and quotas (C) milestones and signposts

(B) indicators and means of verification (D) gauges and benchmarks
328. What does ex post facto evaluation seek to do?
(A) describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective (C) determine whether stated goals have been achieved
(B) identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking (D) all of the above
.
329.What does an impact evaluationmeasure that is not clearly described in terminal evaluationat projects end?
(A) key outputs or outcomes of a project (C) immediate results of an undertaking

(B) indicators, benchmarks, and milestones (D) long-term consequences on people, society, and nature
330. Program Review and Evaluation Technique-Critical Path Method(PERTCPM) is a project management technique
designed to:
(A) logically connect program and project (C) seek efficiency of time 8 resources in execution & implementation
(B) Mitigate effects of failed program (D) ldentify evacuation routes and remedy errors in disaster risk estimation
331. ln a PERT-CPM, this is a starting node to two or more activities
(A) Concurrent node (B) Merge node (C) Simultaneous nodes (D) Burst node
Methods of Research, Demography, Shelter, Social Services

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332. This refers to population-focused planning that seeks to enhance people's capacities to meet their own needs
through improvements in Social infrastructure such as mass shelter, Schools, hospitals, daycare, rehab
Centers, homes for the aged, etc. and the provision of public utilities, water, power, sewerage, parks, and
cemeteries.
(A) Population Management (B) Social Welfare Development (C) Infrastructure Planning (D) Social Planning
333. This theory propounded by James S. Coleman (1988), Robert Putnam (1993), Diane Carney (1998) and adopted by
UNDP (1997), looks at collective non-market assets of people such as trust, solidarity, norms of reciprocity, common
purpose, equality and other resources that are inherent in social relations and embedded in social networks.
(A) Theory of Social Change (B) Social Mobilization (C) Theory of Social Learning (D) Theory of Social Capital
334. 'Ekistics' or the science of human settlements by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis was built upon the Concept of "basic
needs," which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into material survival & Security needs," "social or
enabling needs," and non-material human needs. Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham
Maslow?
(A) food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and
Order, (B) self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and
transportation
(C) physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-actualization/self-realization
(D) freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance
335. Which of the following -- all true! -- about people's participation in planning, implementation and management holds the
same meaning as the statement "people are the principal actors, the subject rather than the object, of development."
(A) Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefits as
people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-makers and implementors.
(B) The very process of participating is, in and of itself, educational, liberating, and empowering for the poor.
(C) People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
(D) Participation hastens people's ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that
they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future.
(E) Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by changes in policy.
336. World Bank describes this process as the expansion of assets and capabilities of poor people, as well as the
expansion of their freedom of choice and action, to participate in, negotiate with, influence, control, and hold
accountable institutions that affect their lives
(A) Self-Reliance (B) Needs Achievement (C) Entitlement (D) Empowerment
337. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic "Eight Rungs in the Ladder of
Citizen Participation" which describes the varying degrees of people's involvement in policies, plans, and
programs. (A) Ralph Nader (B) Susan S. Fainstein (C) Dr. Martin Luther King Jr (D) Sherry Arnstein
338. The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may not be followed is called
(A) Consultation (B) Cooptation (C) Cooperation (D) Collaboration
339. The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different interest-groups or sectors for the purpose
of harmonizing, synchronizing, and consolidating inputs and outputs is called
(A) Input-Output process (B) Mainstreaming (C) Coordination (D) Faci-pulation
340. It is the international collective term for inclusive, non-State actors whose aims are neither to generate profits nor to
seek governing power but to unite people around the broadest public interest based on ethical, Cultural, religious,
CORRECT ANSWERS FOR QUESTIONS. 01-300.
(1) D (46) D (91) D (136) D (181) D (226) D (271) C

(2) C (47) D (92) C (137) B (182) D (227) B (272) C
(3) D (48) B (93) B (138) C (183) D (228) C (273) B
(4) A (49) C (94) C (139) D (184) C (229) C (274) C
(5) A (50) B (95) C (140) D (185) C (230) A (275) C
(6) B (51) A (96) D (141) C (186) D (231) A (276) D
(7) D (52) A (97) C (142) D (187) A (232) C (277) C
(8) B (53) B (98) B (143) B (188) A (233) D (278) C
(9) C (54) D (99) C (144) B (189) C (234) C (279) B
(10) B (55) A (100) B (145) A (190) D (235) D (280) C
(11) B (56) B (101) D (146) C (191) C (236) C (281) C
(12) C (57) C (102) A (147) D (192) C (237) C (282) A
(13) D (58) A (103) B (148) D (193) C (238) C (283) D
(14) D (59) C (104) C (149) C (194) C (239) B (284) D
(15) D (60) B (105) B (150) D (195) C (240) A (285) D
(16) C (61) D (106) D (151) C (196) D (241) D (286) A
(17) B (62) B (107) D (152) D (197) C (242) D (287) B
(18) A (63) A (108) A (153) B (198) D (243) C (288) C
(19) C (64) A (109) D (154) C (199) A (244) B (289) C
(20) D (65) B (110) D (155) A (200) D (245) A (290) D
(21) D (66) A (111) A (156) D (201) A (246) D (291) D
(22) B (67) B (112) C (157) E (202) D (247) D (292) B
(23) A (68) B (113) A (158) D (203) E (248) B (293) D
(24) C (69) C (114) D (159) D (204) D (249) C (294) A
(25) B (70) C (115) D (160) B (205) A (250) D (295) D
(26) A (71) D (116) B (161) D (206) D (251) B (296) C
(27) C (72) B (117) B (162) D (207) C (252) D (297) A
(28) F (73) A (118) C (163) B (208) A (253) C (298) D
(29) B (74) D (119) B (164) D (209) B (254) B (299) C
(30) D (75) C (120) A (165) A (210) B (255) B (300) A
(31) A (76) A (121) D (166) D (211) D (256) B
(32) C (77) D (122) C (167) C (212) A (257) D
(33) A (78) B (123) C (168) D (213) D (258) A
(34) B (79) A (124) D (169) D (214) A (259) B
(35) A (80) C (125) C (170) D (215) C (260) A
(36) A (81) A (126) D (171) B (216) D (261) C
(37) A (82) B (127) C (172) A (217) B (262) C
(38) D (83) B (128) D (173) A (218) D (263) A
(39) C (84) A (129) C (174) B (219) A (264) D
(40) A (85) D (130) A (175) D (220) D (265) B
(41) E (86) D (131) B (176) A (221) B (266) A
(42) B (87) D (132) A (177) B (222) C (267) A
(43) C (88) D (133) D (178) D (223) D (268) D
(44) B (89) D (134) C (179) A (224) C (269) D
(45) B (90) B (135) B (180) B (225) A (270) C
Answer Key to EnP Practice Questions 301-500
(302) B✔ (346) C✔ (390) A✔ (434) B✔ (478) C✔

(303) C✔ (347) D✔ (391) A✔ (435) C✔ (479) B✔
(304) A✔ (348) D✔ (392) D✔ (436) B✔ (480) D✔
(305) C✔ (349) C✔ (393) D✔ (437) C✔ (481) B✔
(306) D✔ (350) A✔ (394) A✔ (438) B✔ (482)
D✔ (307) C✔ (351) C✔ (395) A✔ (439) B✔ (483)
C✔ (308) C✔ (352) D✔ (396) A✔ (440) D✔ (484)
D✔ (309) D✔ (353) C✔ (397) D✔ (441) B✔ (485)
B✔ (310) B✔ (354) B✔ (398) C✔ (442) B✔ (486)
D✔ (311) B✔ (355) D✔ (399) B✔ (443) B✔ (487)
D✔ (312) D✔ (356) B✔ (400) B✔ (444) D✔ (488)
C✔
(313) A✔ (357) D✔ (401) A✔ (445) C✔ (489)
A✔
(314) B✔ (358) D✔ (402) D✔ (446) C✔ (490) A✔
(315) B✔ (359) B✔ (403) C✔ (447) C✔ (491) C✔
(316) B✔ (360) D✔ (404) A✔ (448) A✔ (492) B✔
(317) D✔ (361) A✔ (405) D✔ (449) E✔ (493) D✔
(318) C✔ (362) D✔ (406) D✔ (450) C✔ (494) A✔
(319) A✔ (363) C✔ (407) B✔ (451) C✔ (495) A✔
(320) C✔ (364) B✔ (408) D✔ (452) B✔ (496) D✔
(321) D✔ (365) D✔ (409) B✔ (453) B✔ (497) D✔
(322) C✔ (366) B✔ (410) A✔ (454) D✔ (498) B✔
(323) C✔ (367) A✔ (411) C✔ (455) D✔ (499) B✔
(324) B✔ (368) B✔ (412) D✔ (456) Q✔ (500) C✔
(325) A✔ (369) C✔ (413) C✔ (457) D✔
(326) B✔ (370) D✔ (414) C✔ (458) D✔
(327) B✔ (371) C✔ (415) D✔ (459) F✔
(328) D✔ (372) B✔ (416) B✔ (460) A✔
(329) D✔ (373) B✔ (417) D✔ (461) B✔
(330) C✔ (374) B✔ (418) B✔ (462) C✔
(331) D✔ (375) A✔ (419) D✔ (463) D✔
(332) D✔ (376) B✔ (420) E✔ (464) A✔
(333) D✔ (377) A✔ (421) B✔ (465) B✔
(334) C✔ (378) A✔ (422) B✔ (466) E✔
(335) D✔ (379) C✔ (423) D✔ (467) B✔
(336) D✔ (380) A✔ (424) B✔ (468) B✔
(337) D✔ (381) C✔ (425) C✔ (469) A✔
(338) A✔ (382) A✔ (426) D✔ (470)
D✔ (339) C✔ (383) B✔ (427) D✔ (471)
D✔ (340) D✔ (384) C✔ (428) D✔ (472)
D✔ (341) A✔ (385) A✔ (429) C✔ (473)
B✔ (342) D✔ (386) D✔ (430) A✔ (474)
A✔ (343) A✔ (387) B✔ (431) C✔ (475)
D✔ (344) D✔ (388) B✔ (432) A✔ (476)
B✔
Questions
paraphrased from
previous
EnP Board Exams
GIMARNI Consultants
Environmental Planning
Practice Questions
GIMARNI Consultants
EVERYTHING ABOUT En.P. EXAMS IN JUNE 2015
ENP Licensure Examinations June 11-12, 2015 MLQU, Quiapo, Manila
Deadline for Application in Metro Manila: May 15, 2015
Requirements: Bring to PRC national office P. Paredes, Sampaloc Manila or to PRC regional office
• Birth Certificate on NSO security paper, original and photocopy,
• Transcript of Records, with scanned picture and words for Board Exam Purposes Only, original and photocopy
• Diploma, Original and photocopy,
• Certificate of Employment from present employer; with one separate paragraph on Good Moral Character," good
moral standing in the workplace and in the community, no record or
court conviction of moral turpitude, etc.
• Certificate of Planning Experience from a registered EnP (specifically someone much older than you, who has
supervised you during your planning experience)
○ In general, Certificate of Planning Experience is not necessary for holders of 'planning degrees' – BS.EPM,
MEP, MURP, MSRDP, MATP, MA.URP, PhD.URP
○ For unclear reasons, PRC still requires 'Certificate of Planning Experience' from holders of post-graduate
degree, D.LUP and D.URP
• "Certificate of Equivalency" from your alma mater, if your degree is different from those
disciplines stipulated by EnP law. Eg. human ecology is equivalent to urban planning," "public management is equivalent to
public administration," "social studies is equivalent to sociology," "MIS is equivalent to geographic information systems,”
“rural development administration is equivalent to community development," etc
• four 2X2 pictures with white background,
• fee of PhP950, non-refundable
WHO ARE QUALIFIED TO BECOME ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNERS?
Until the current law (PD 1308) is superseded by a new law, the following are qualified to take the
EnP Licensure Exams:
~ holders of a baccalaureate or post-baccalaureate degree in planning. 'Planning degree' refers to degree in environmental planning,
urban and regional planning, city and regional planning, town and country planning, land use planning, regional
development planning, transportation planning, etc.
~ holders of Bachelors degree in 'allied planning disciplines' with planning education of at least 21 academic units plus 2
years certified experience in planning;
~ 'Allied planning profession' are architechture, landscape architechture, civil engineering, chemical engineering, industrial
engineering, sanitary engineering, geodetic engineering, geology, geography, geomatics, economics, environmental
science, environmental engineering, environmental management, environmental studies, human ecology, community
development, development studies, development administration, development management, public administration, public
management, social work, sociology, demography, and other fields, subject to approval of the board of Environmental
Planning.
~ holders of Bachelor's degree in 'allied planning disciplines' without planning education but with at least 5 years of
certified experience
WAYS TO PREPARE FOR EXAM
1. Self-Review. Rely on your own class notes and accumulated materials. 40% of exam tests stored knowledge. (See
further explanation in succeeding sections.)
2. You may answer Practice Questions at your own pace on your free time. However, this mode of preparing does not fully
simulate the actual exam conditions with time pressure.
3. GROUP REVIEW: four-day 'Integrative Seminar on Environmental Planning and Urban Development.' Content-oriented
not process-intensive, comprehensive, conceptual, fast-paced.
REMINDERS FOR YOUR APPLICATION PROCESS
Apply early! Don't wait until the last minute. Queues at PRC are usually very long in May because of
applicants for nursing, education, architecture, forestry board exams in June.
Your papers are accepted by a PRC clerk and then processed by a set of PRC employees.
Disapproval of exam application may come at this level.
Applicants at PRC regional offices and from the provinces should give enough time for bureaucratic
delays in the transmittal of documents to Manila. There’s always lag time! Factor in plenty of
time to follow-up. For mails, use courier services, LBC, etc instead of regular Post Office.
Follow-up frequently by calling – you might wait for a letter of approval or denial which might not be
mailed on time.
Key BEP clerk receiving documents: Mr. Jun Torres, Tel. 314-0027, Fax 314-0024
In case of disapproval at PRC screening level, your application papers will only be forwarded to the
Board of Environmental Planning after a written appeal is made by you.
You may ask Board in writing for a conditional permit to take exam while you are completing
additional requirements.
Address your communications: "BOARD OF ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING, Professional

Regulation Commission, Morayta, Manila" Tel. 314-0027 Fax314-0024
BEP Chairperson, "assec@prc.gov.ph"
STUDY TIPS FOR YOUR SELF-REVIEW
• Think positive that you can pass – so that your mind can expand capacity and absorb as much
information as possible.
• Read and reread. Visual and sound familiarity with words will work in a Multiple Choice Exam.
Study a bit each day over a long period of time. At least 100 total hours is needed (as per
manuals of AlCP – USA).
• "Read with pleasure, not with pressure. Read as if everything is a delight, as if

everything surprises you." The emotions that accompany your reading will help you
remember the content. The information will gradually enter your sub-conscious and long-term
memory (LTM), even if your short-term memory (STM) will lose it in a day or two. Trust yourself
and trust your mind that it will deliver when you need it to work.
• Never study on the night before exams. Be sure to calm your mind. When your mind is relaxed,
it is easiest to retrieve the information that you need. In the vernacular, papahingain mo ang
iyong isipan para mabigyan mo siya ng buelo sa araw ng pagsusulit. Huwag mo siyang
pagurin 24 oras bago ang eksaminasyon.
• As 'integrator' & 'enabler,' a planner is a 'Generalist," not a medical sub-sub-specialist. "Better to

know a little about a lot of subjects than a lot of detail about a few topics!"
• The comprehensive content coverage can be overwhelming. It is even tougher if you are in a
crunch. So do not cram!! You are not taking a high school quiz.
• Don't let terms trip you up. Study definitions of key terms.
• Study in whatever way has worked for you in the past -- write outlines, mnemonic devices, flash
cards, etc. Your notes from previous planning classes are always helpful.
• Talk to previous exam passers.
• Join study group of others preparing for the exam. E-mail partners for exchange of digital or
electronic materials.
• Don't spend too much resources on photocopying. Prioritize PRC bibliography if you have to
photocopy.
• Few days before exam, be rested and well-fed, exercise to relax, have a good massage!
• On exam day, arrive early at venue. "Case the room," as the detectives would say. Give
yourself time to settle your nerves. Dress comfortably (PRC usually requires white shirt/top to
distinguish examinees from companions/visitors).
• Bring non-programmable calculator, several lead pencils, pencil sharpener, eraser.
• On exam day, eat just right – not too much food nor too much liquid that will make you go to the
CR frequently.
• Bring survival kit – snacks, energy bar or energy drink, some water, tylenol, advil, ibuprofen,
anti-diarrhea, tissue paper.
TECHNIQUES IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS
• Focus on what you must do. Others in exam room may have their own agenda; shifting your
attention robs you of precious time.
• Exam tests stored knowledge (40%) and skills (60%) Pace yourself well. About 40% are easy
stand-alone questions which you can answer in 10 seconds average. 60% of questions you can
answer in 74 seconds average.
• Quickly go through each question but do not skim. Identify main idea and understand the
intention of the text. Determine what is being asked – scope? details? Inference? judgment?
• For long narratives or scenario questions with complex multiple parts, read the choices first.
• Watch out for negative questions. Watch out for weasel words" (most, least, best, worst,
unless, except, but, although, despite, in spite of)
• Don't jump to conclusions too quickly. If you have enough time, do math answers twice.
• Keep in mind that it is a national exam - Do not concentrate on how things might be done or
expressed in your particular locality. Adopt the national perspective of broad principles and
Standard Operating Procedures rather than "how we do it at my place."
• If you cant decide which answer to choose, mark the question so that you can go back to it later
on. Write number on separate scratch paper, annotating the question and its choices with key
words that can lead you to the heart of your indecision. Go back to these difficult questions
when you have the time. So as not to waste time, proceed to the next questions.
• Narrow down the choices to improve probability of guessing. In dire situations, make a guess
through a process of elimination (you always have 25% chance of being correct)
• Resort to Common Sense. What is more consistent, more logical for most people"
• Avoid the dreaded Dopeler effect! Dopeler effect is the tendency of stupid ideas to seem
smarter when they come at you rapidly. Stupid ideas are sometimes presented in exam to trick
you.
RESULTS OF EXAMINATION
Exam correction is computerized and results are published within two or three days after end of
exams in major broadsheets such as Manila Bulletin and Philippine Star, and at their respective
websites.
BIBLIOGRAPHY OF PRC BOARD OF ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING
Asian Development Bank. Project Quality: An Agenda for Action: Proceedings of the Regional
Workshop on Improving Project Quality (1994)
Babble, Earl. The Basics of Social Research (2002)
Barker, Judy L. Evaluating the Impact of Development Projects on Poverty: A Handbook for
Practitioners (2000)
Bayne, Patricia. "Generating Alternatives, a Neglected Dimension in Planning Theory." Town
Planning Review, Vol. 66, No3 (1995)
Chapin, Francis Stuart, Jr. Urban Land Use Planning (1965, 1972)
Davis, Kenneth P. Land Use (1976) New York: McGraw Hill Book Company
Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) -
• A Sourcebook of Sustainable Development Indicators: Integrated Environmental
Management (IEMSD) Programme, 1988 *
• IEMSD Programme Sustainable Development Series (1997)
Gabriel, Roth. The Private Provision of Public Services in Developing Countries (1987)
Gallion, Arthur B. and S. Eisner. The Urban Pattern, City Planning and Design (1964)
Greed, Ciara. Introducing Town Planning (1992)
Greenberg, Broadman and Vining Weimer. Cost-Benefit Analysis: Concepts and Practice
(1998) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
• Guidelines for the Formulation Revision of Comprehensive Land Use Plan 1997 (10 volumes)
• National Urban Development and Housing Framework (1993-1998)
- Town Planning Guidelines (10 volumes) Interagency Committee on Local Planning Program. Guidelines for the
Formulation of Provincial Physical Framework Plan (1991)
Kaiser, Edward J., David R. Godschalk, F. Stuart Chapin Jr. Urban Land Use Planning (1995),
4th ed. Urbana and Chicago: University of Illinois Press
Livermash, R (ed). Valuing the Global Environment: Actions and Investment for 21st Century (1998)
Lovejoy, Dereck, ed. Land Use and Landscape Planning (1973)
Lynch, Kevin. Site Planning (1972)
Lyon, John G. and Jack MacCarthy. Wetland Environmental Applications of GIS (1995)
McGee, Terry G. The Urbanization Process: Third World Explanations in Search of Theory (1971)
McHarg, lan L. Design with Nature (1967)
Mumford, Lewis. The City in History: Its Origin, Its Transformation and Its Prospects (1961)
National Economic and Development Authority (NEDA)
• Guidebook on Municipal Comprehensive Land Use Planning
• Project Development Manual, 1984
Oposa, Antonio A. Jr. A Legal Arsenal for the Philippine Environment (2002)
Philippine Council for Sustainable Development. Philippine Agenda 21: A National Agenda for
Sustainable Development (1997)
Sample, V. Alaric (ed). Remote Sensing and GIS in Ecosystem Management (1994)
Selman, Paul. Environmental Planning. The Conservation and Development of Biophysical
Resources (2000)
Serote, Ernesto M. (2003). A Model of Local Planning and Development in the Philippines. A
Concise Planning Guidebook. Quezon City: University of the Philippines School of Urban and
Regional Planning
Serote, Ernesto M. (2004). Property, Patrimony and Territory. Foundations of Land Use Planning
in the Philippines. Quezon City: UPSURP & UP PLANADES
Stein, Jay M. ed. Classic Readings in Urban Planning (1995)
Titenberg, Tom. Environmental Economics and Policies (1998)
Titenberg, Tom. Environment and Nature Resources Economics
(1998)
UN World Commission on Environment and Development. Our Common Future (1987)
Valdez, Joseph & Michael Bamberger. Monitoring and Evaluating Social Programs in Developing
Countries: A Handbook for Policy Makers, Managers and Researchers (1994)
World Bank. Expanding the Measure of Wealth. Indicators of Environmentally Sustainable
Development. Environmentally Sustainable Development Studies & Monographs Series No. 17
(1997)
PRIORITY IN READING - ACCORDING TO PREVIOUS RECORD OF MULTIPLE QUESTIONS ASKED
1. RA 7160 — Local Government Code of 1991 (Plan 210 and 203)

2. HLURB Manual Volume I -- CLUP Process (Plan 210.1 – planning workshop)
3. HLURB Manual Volume II – Sectoral Studies (Plan 210.1)
4. Ernesto M. Serote, DILG Rationalized Planning System (Plan 203)
5. Ernesto M. Serote, Property, Patrimony and Territory, 2004 (Plan 203)
6. Kevin Andrew Lynch, Image of the City, 1961 (Plan 231)
7. Ian L. McHarg, Design with Nature, 1969 (Plan 203)
8. National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030
9. Batas Pambansa 220 Socialized Housing particularly Implementing Rules and Regulations
10. PD 957 Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Law on Open Market Housing
11. Dolores Endriga, Elum, Yap and Alcalde, The Language of Environmental Planning in the
Philippines, 2004 (Plan 201)
12. RA 7718 -- BOT Law and its Implementing Rules and Regulations (Plan 205)
13. RA 91.84 – Government Procurement Reform of 2002
14. United Nations Millennium Development Goals 2000-2015
15. Anne Beers, Environmental Planning (Plan 231)
16. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr., Urban Land Use Planning (Plan 203)
BIBLIOGRAPHY OF AICP-APA, UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
AlCP - General Reference and Ethics
• American Institute of Certified Planners: Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct (Adopted October 1978, amended October
1991). American Institute of Certified Planners, Washington, D.C. www.planning.org/ethics.
• American Planning Association (ed.), 2006, Planning and Urban Design Standards. Hoboken, N.J. John Wiley & Sons.
• "Barrett, Carol D. 2001." Everyday Ethics for Practicing Planners. Washington, D.C.: American Institute of Certified Planners.
• Bolan, Richard S. 1983. "The Structure of Ethical Choice in Planning Practice." Journal of Planning Education and Research
3: 23-34,
• Marcuse, P. 1976. "Professional Ethics Beyond Values in Planning." Journal of American Institute of Planners 42: 264-294 •
Hoch, Charles So, Linda, and Frank Dalton, eds), 2000. The Practice of Local Government Planning 3rd ed. Washington,
• So, Frank, and Getzels, Judith: The Practice of Local Government Planning (3rd edition, 2000). International City
Management Association, 1120 G Street, , Washington, DC 2005.
AlCP - History, Theory and Law

• Brooks, Michael. 2002. Planning Theory for Practitioners. Chicago: American Planning Association: vol42, no4 (pp. 387-
406)
• Campbell, Scott (ed) abd Susan Fainstein. 2003. Readings in Planning Theory. Malden, Mass: Wiley-Blackwell.
• Eisner, Simon, Arthur Gallion, and Stanley Eisner, 1993. The Urban Pattern (6th ed. New York: John Wiley & Sons.
• Faludi, Andreas. A Reader in Planning Theory, New York: Pergamon, 1973
• Hall, Sir Peter, 1988, Cities of Tomorrow An Intellectual History of Urban Planning and Design in the Twentieth Century
Oxford: Basil Blackwell.
• Hudson, Barclay M: Comparison of Current Planning Theories: Counterparts and Contradictions (October 1979). Journal
of the American Planning Association, Volume 45, Number 4 (pages 387-406)
• Irons, Peter H. 1996. May It Please the Court New York: New Press.
• Krueckeberg, Donald (ed.). 1983. Introduction to Planning History in the United States, New Brunswick, N.: Rutgers
University Center for Urban Policy.
• Lucero, Lora (ed.). 2005. Four Supreme Court Land-Use Decisions of 2005. Planning Advisory Service Report No. 535
Chicago; American Planning Association.
• Mandelker, Daniel R: Land Use Law (4th edition, 1997), The Michie Company, Charlottesville, VA.
• Peterson, Jon. 2003. The Birth of City Planning in the United States: 1840-1917 Baltimore: Johns Hopkins University Press.
• Scott, Mel. 1995. American City Planning Since 1890. Chicago: American Planning Association
• Stein, Jay M. (editor), Classic Readings in Urban Planning, New York: McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1995.
ACP - Plan-Making and Plan Implementation

• Babble, Earl R. 2006. The Practice of Social Research, Belmont, Calif.: Wadsworth Publishing.
• Dandekar, Hemalata. 2003. Planners Use of Information (2nd ed). Chicago: American Planning Association.
• Gaber, John, and Sharon Gaber. 2007. Qualitative Analysis for Planning & Policy: Beyond the Numbers. Chicago: American
Planning Association.
• Hayslett, Jr., HT 1968: Statistics Made Simple. Doubleday & Company, Garden City, NY
• Klosterman, Richard E. 1990. Community Analysis and Planning Techniques. Lanham, Md.: Rowman & Littlefield
Publishers, Inc.
• McLean, Mary L, and Kenneth Voytek. 1992. Understanding Your Economy: Using Analysis to Guide Local Strategic
Planning. Chicago: Planners Press, APA
• Meier, Kenneth J, Jeffrey L. Brudney, and John Bohte. 2008. Applied Statistics for Public and Nonprofit Administration.
Belmont, Calif: Wadsworth Publishing.
• Myers, Dowell. 1992. Portraits of Change: Methods of Analysis With Local Census Data. Boston; Academic Press, Inc.
• Patton, Carl V, and David S. Sawicki. 1993. Basic Methods of Policy Analysis and Planning (2nd ed.). Upper Saddle
River, N.J.: Pearson Education. Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall.
• Smith, Stanley K, Jeff Tayman, and David A. Swanson. 2001. State and Local Population Projections: Methodology and
Analysis, New York: Springer Publishing Co. Kluwer Academic/Plenum Publisher
AICP - Functional Areas of Practice
• Berke, Philip R, and David R. Godschalk. 2006. Urban Land Use Planning (5th ed). Urbana: University of Illinois Press,
• Campbell, Scott. 1996. Green Cities, Growing Cities, Just Cities: Urban Planning and the Contradictions of Sustainable
Development.Journal of the American Planning Association 62, no. 3: 296-312.
• Daniels, Tom, and Katherine Daniels. 2003. Environmental Planning Handbook. Chicago: American Planning Association,
• DeGrove, John. 2003. Planning, Policy and Politics: Smart Growth and the States. Cambridge, Mass; Lincoln Institute of
Land Policy.
• Downs, Anthony. 2004. Still Stuck in Traffic: Coping with PeakHour Traffic Congestion, Washington, D.C.: Brookings
Institution Press,
• Litman, Todd. 2006. Parking Management Best Practices. Chicago: American Planning Association.
• Marsh, William M. 2005. Landscape Planning: Environmental Applications, New York: John Wiley . Sons,
• Meyer, M., and E. Miller. 2001. Urban Transportation Planning: A Decision Oriented Approach (2nd ed.)
Boston: McGrawHill
• Moore, Terry, Paul Thorsnes, and Bruce Appleyard. 2007. The TransportationLand Use Connection. Planning Advisory
Service Report No. 546. Chicago: American Planning Association.
• Nolon, John, and Patricia Salkin. 2006. Land Use in a Nutshell, St. Paul, Minn.: Thomson West.
• Randolph, John. 2003. Environmental Land Use Planning and Management Washington, D.C.: lsland Press.
• Shoup, Donald C. 2005. The High Cost of Free Parking. ChicagoAmerican Planning Association
AlCP Spatial Areas of Practice

• Arendt, Randall G. 1994. Rural by Design. Chicago: American Planning Association.
• Barnett, Jonathan. 2003. Redesigning Cities: Principle, Practice, lmplementation. Chicago: American Planning Association.
• Burchell, Robert W, et al. 1998. The Costs of Sprawl: Revisited. Transit Cooperative Research Program Report No. 39.
Washington, D.C.: National Academy Press.
• Burchell, Robert W, and Sahan Mubeji. 2003. Conventional Development Versus Managed Growth: The Costs of
Sprawl." American Journal Of Public Health 93: 1534-1540,
• Burby, Raymond ., Peter May, Philip R. Berke, and Linda C. Dalton. 1997. Making Governments Plan: State Experiments in
Managing Land Use. Baltimore: Johns Hopkins University Press.
• Chang, KangTsung. 2008. Introduction to Geographic lnformation Systems (4th ed). New York: McGraw-Hill.
• DeChlara, Joseph, and Lee Koppelman. 1982. Urban Planning and Design Criteria (3rd ed). New York: Van Nostrand
Reinhold Co.
• Ewing, Reid. 1997. Is Los AngelesStyle Sprawl Desirable"Journal of American Planning Association 63, no 1: 107-126.
• Gordon, Peter, and Harry W. Richardson. 1997. Are Compact Cities a Desirable Planning Goal"Journal ofthe American
Planning Association 63, no. 1:95-106.
AlCP Social Justice and Social Participation

• Arnstein, Shery 1969. "A Ladder of Citizen Participation." Journal of the American lnstitute of Planners 35: 216-224.
• Creighton, James L. 2005. The Public Participation Handbook: Making Better Decisions Through Citizen Involvement San
Francisco: Jossey-Bass.
• Tochterman, Joel (ed.). Public Participation and Community Engagement: Selected Resources. Sacramento: California
Department of Housing and Community Development, Housing Policy Division. .
• Davidoff, Paul. 1965. "Advocacy and Pluralism in Planning" Journal of the American Institute of Planners 31: 331-338
• Fisher, Roger, Bruce M. Patton, and William L. Uy, 1992. Getting to Yes: Negotiating Agreement Without Giving In. New
York: Penguin Books.
• Forester, John. 1999. The Deliberative Practitioner: Encouraging Participatory Processes. Cambridge, Mass.: MIT Press.
• Forrester, John. 1987. Planning in the Face of Conflict: Negotiation and Mediation Strategies in Local Land Use Regulation."
Journal of the American Planning Association 53, no. 3: 303-314.
• Friedmann, John. 1973. The Public Interest and Community Participation." Journal of the American Institute of Planners 39
2-12.
• Innes, Judith E, and David E. Booher, 2004. Reframing Public Participation: Strategies for the 21st Century." Planning Theory
& Practice , no. 4: 419-436
• Peattie, L. 1968. "Reflections on Advocacy Planning" Journal of the American Institute of Planners 34: 80-87

PRACTICE EXAM PERFORMANCE LEVELS
Over 75% -- you are expected to rank in Top Ten; reinforce your learning with 100
total hours of focused reading!
60-74% -- you will certainly pass the exam, sharpen yourself further with some 120 total
hours of focused reading!
59-50% -- you can pass the exam, persevere for about 140 total hours of focused reading!
41-49% -- nothing is impossible, challenge yourself for about 170 total hours of focused 3
reading!
01-40% -- you need 200 total hours of reading or formal planning course or review seminar
scientific, professional, or philanthropic considerations.
A) Cause-Oriented Groups (B) Charities (C) Social Movements (D) Civil Society
341. because environmental planning as a multi-disciplinary field utilizes the methods of social sciences the
following research approaches are more appropriate except one
(A) Experimental (B) Correlational (C) Causal-Comparative (D) Historical-Descriptive
342. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent problems, develop a tool
or social technology, explain effects of policies or actions, and evaluate the impact of plans and programs on
people.
(A) Exploratory Research (B) Pure / Basic Research (C) Evaluation Research (D) Applied Research
343. in scientific research, it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values; it may be a characteristic, trait
or dimension of a person, object, process, or event that can be classified, measured, and studied.
(A)Variable (B) Factor (C) Metrics (D) Coefficient
344. In using descriptive statistics to study population and society, the three measures of central tendency
are: (A) midpoint, minimum, and maximum (C) occurrence, convergence, and divergence
(B) range, frequency, and threshold (D) mean, median, mode
345. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a causeand-effect manner
(A) Coefficient of Correlation (B) Coefficient of (C) Multivariate Function (D) Chi-Squared Statistic
Variation
346. ln all distributions of data, the median' is equivalent to the:
(A) mode (B) variance (C) 50th percentile (D) mean
347. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or recurrence interval. If a flood that re
curs once in 100 years has an annual probability of one percent (0.01), what would be the annual probability of a 475-
year earthquake?
(A) 0.475 (B) 0.2375 (C) 0.0438 (D) 0.002105
348. This branch of statistics aims to predict and draw conclusions concerning a population or its characteristics
from mere sample chosen to represent the whole population.
(A) descriptive statistics (B) deductive statistics (C) analytic statistics (D) inferential statistics
349. Probability sampling is selecting samples randomly to reduce bias in data collection such that chosen sample
would contain the same variations that exist in the larger population. Which is not an example of random sampling?
(A) systematic sampling (B) stratified sampling (C) convenience sampling (D) cluster sampling
350. Ratio and Proportion. In 2008, the Philippines had 68 million cellphone units, of which 63 million were used. If 35%
of population in urban areas have buying power to own and use a cellphone while only 15% of population in rural
areas can do the same, what would be the approximate number of cellphone users in a rural barangay with
4000 people.
(A) 80 (B) 400 (C) 600 (D) 1,200

351. ln a non-parametric test of correlation to determine if amount of fertilizer has anything to do with quantity of farm yield, the
following crops were computed to have their respective difference of rankssquared(d2): rice 1; corn = 0; wheat = 0; beans =
0; mongo = 1. Given 'Spearman rho' formular "r=6Σd2/ n(n2-1)" what would be the 'r' value?
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.2
352. In linear regression exercise where "x = distance in km from Stock Exchange building" and "y = price in pesos of land
per square meter," the line of best fit (LOBF) equation is "y = -1,000 + 16,000" where -1,000 is the slope and
16,000 is the intercept. What would be the value of land per square meter if it were 15 kms from Stock Exchange?
(A) 1,010 (B) 1,100 (C) 1,600 (D) 1,000
353. This is an intuitive method of demand analysis, needs assessment, or forecasting which gathers the independent views
and judgments of recognized experts in panel discussion; or pols and consolidates their expert opinions thru a survey.
(A) Crystal Ball (B) Knowledge Management (C) Delphi Technique (D) Oracle Method (E)Authoritative Approach
354. This family of cross-disciplinary, cross-sectoral approaches in research engages communities to share their -- indigenous
knowledge, analyze their local conditions, in order to plan and to act on their own problems, through dialogic and
participatory processes such as cross-walking, transect, semi-structured interviews, community mapping, preference
ranking, seasonal
and historical diagrams, and other tools of rapid rural appraisal (RRA).
(A) lnteractive Andragogy (B) Participatory Action Research C) Virtual Learning Network (D) Social Anthropology
355. This qualitative method from ethnography immerses the observer into the same conditions as those she is observing so
that, in an uncontrolled environment, participants can surface their own ideas, mental categories, 3 " concerns, and
behaviors as naturally and as spontaneously as possible.
(A) OuasiExperiment (B) Naturalism (C) Direct Observation (D) Participant Observation
356. Demography is the study of human population using statistical methods. The demographic concepts described as sources
of change in the size and magnitude of population are:
(A) copulation, procreation, and reproduction (C) transition, stagnation, progression

(B) births, deaths, and migration (D) famine, war, and disease
357. An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called
(A) holism (B) Gestalt (C) sociology (D) census
358. This refers to amount of population increase attributable to greater number of births than deaths per thousand
population without considering in-migration and out-migration.
(A) Reproductive Rate (B) Average Growth Rate Per Annum (C) Population Shift (D)Natural lncrease
359. The simplified 'Rule of 69' to determine population 'doubling time' gives the formula 'dt =0.69÷r'; such that if the
Philippines AGR in 2000-2007 is 2.04%, the total Philippine population is expected to double in approximately
(A) 32years (B) 34 years (C) 36 years (D) 38 years
360. A remote village with 200 all-indigent households engaged in rain-fed farming, with an average household size of 6,
would likely grow arithmetically, due to isolation, poverty, disease, and lack of food. With their births-minus-
deaths average of 30 persons per year, what would be the villages projected total population in 3 years?
(A) 1,230 (B) 1,090 (C) 1,180 (D) 1,290

361. Town ABCDE had a total year-end population of 20,000 in 2008, 20,400 in 2009, 20,808 in 2010. Using
geometric growth formula of Pt=P0(1+r)t at uniform r=2% per annum, what would be its total year-end population
by 2011?
(A) 21,224 (B) 21,400 (C) 21,820 (D) 22,130
362. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula Pt = Poert is "seemingly without bounds" and
is called "Malthusian," but is premised on the widespread abundance of food, which is not true in all places.
(A) polynomial growth rate (B) parabolic growth rate (C) logistic growth rate (D) exponential growth rate
363. 'Baby Boomers' refers to those born in the period 1946-1964. Generation X refers to those born in the years 1965TT
1976, and Generation "Y" or "Echo Boomers" refers to those born in the years
(A) 1980-2000 (B) 2001-2010 (C) 1977-2000 (D) 1975-2015
364. The main difference between the economic method of projecting population growth and the
"mathematical methods" (arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that
(A) The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers reproduction and
deaths. (B) The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates alternative
scenarios.
(C) The latter does not consider force majeure or recurrent natural disasters.
(D) The latter is based upon the assumption of do nothing while the former ignores historic patterns.
365. According to NSO 2009, heart diseases, cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, cancer, and malignant neoplasms which
are degenerative disorders due to lifestyle, together account for 50% of total deaths, and are called leading causes of
(A) Fatality (B) Terminality (C) Corporeality (D) Mortality
366. Morbidity essentially refers to
(A) mental insanity cases per 1000 population (C) rate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours
(B) incidence of disease per 1000 population (D) outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 years
367. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has growth rate of 1.4%
per annum. Using the crude assumption method of computing migration flows, which of following is likely true?
(A) there is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ (C) Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.
(B) there is more inmigration to Town FGHIJ (D) Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult.
368. Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro Manila occurred in
San Juan, -0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay, 0.22%; Makati, 0.3%; Mandaluyong, 0.53% (versus highest
rate at 2.12% in Taguig City). Which of the following statements, all valid, most considers sustainable capacity
and livability?
(A)These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime

population. (B) These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population
limits.
(C) These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable
range. (D) New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.
369. The central difference between 'birth rate' and 'fertility rate' is
(A) 'birth rate' pertains to fecundity of a woman while 'fertility rate' pertains to quantity & intensity of her sexual activity
(B) 'birth rate' pertains to babies who survive while 'fertility rate' includes pregnancies which mayor may not succeed
(C) 'birth rate' refers to births in relation to total population while 'fertility rate' is in relation to average childbearing woman

(D) 'birth rate' pertains to live births while 'fertility rate' includes still births, premature deliveries, abortions & miscarriages
370 17% of surveyed women wanted 2.7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3.5 births per woman;
50% of women don't want any more children; % of women wanted to space births but could not do so, and nearly
50% of women between ages 15 and 24 have had premarital sex and have experienced unwanted
pregnancies. Which rational conclusion is supported by above data from ESCAP study1998?
(A) Filipinos' fondness for babies is waning.

(B) Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be stricter about people's sexual behavior
(C) the women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino womenfolk
(D) there is apparently an unmet need for contraception and family planning among Filipino
women (E) Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control
371. 'Sex ratio' is defined as
(A) the average number that men and women have sex per week within a marital relationship ”
(B) the average number of boys versus girls in a typical family
(C) the number of males in total population divided by the number of females multiplied by
100 ( D) the number of females in total population divided by the number of males times 100
372. The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to
(A) uplift reproductive health of women as basis of population management

(B) support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of children
they want in accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs
(C) encourage use of contraception among married couples
(D) enforce one-child rule for all couples
373. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the tendency of total population to decline
after replacement-level fertility (1.1% to 1.5%) has been attained, is called
(A) Population Reversal (B) Demographic Transition (C) Population Shift (D) Demographic Deceleration
374. The central difference between a census and a survey is that
(A) census makes use of questionnaires while (C) census is done every 10 years while survey
can surveys make use of telephone interviews be done by anyone anytime anywhere
(B) census involves complete enumeration while (D) only qualified demographers and
statisticians survey involves sampling ought to conduct a census
375. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary, secondary and tertiary
schools, this method is used to disaggregate school-age population within a bracket into workable components.
(A) sprague multiplier (B) sprengler multiplier (C) survival and dropout rate (D) disambiguation
376. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its members are
assumed, for the purpose of analysis, to go through roughly similar experiences.
(A) consort (B) cohort (C) connivance (D) array (E) bracket
377. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to interpolate population of a smaller geographic area?
(A) step down or area ratio method (B) logistic method (C) component method (D) shift share
378. All of the following are of productive age, but only one is strictly counted as part of the 'Labor Force.'

(A) 16-year-old who dropped Out of School and became a houseboy .

(B) 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety of sari-sari store
(C) 20 year old on his third year of the course, Bachelor of Science in Information Technology Management
(D) 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice.
379. The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum Colonies and shantytowns. Which
reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of livelihood and employment
opportunities in cities?
(A) proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services Sector, both formal and informal
(B) zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public lands, easements, and danger zones
(C) kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social solidarity and
reciprocity (D) alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals, and coasts
(E) ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and ditches.
(F) coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large concentrations of urban poor
380. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse, Waste matter, or pollutive substances into
rivers with at least 6-months imprisonment, while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes illegal encroachment, improvement
upon, occupation, or reclamation of any portion of rivers, creeks, esteros, and drainage channels, that result in
the constriction, partial or complete closure of said waterways, with a prison term of
(A) at least 2 to at most 10 years (B) at least 1 year (C) 3 to 5 years (D)5 to 7 years
381. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and hence
not conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?
(A) off-site resettlement (C) land readjustment

(B) in-city relocation (D) medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
(C) on-site slum upgrading (E) collaborative models such as Gawad Kalingaand 'Habitat for Humanity'
382. The French urban theorist who first said that each individual, regardless of personal, occupational, or
economic ability of achievement, has a to live in the city in a rights-based approach to urban development
('Right to the City,' 1968)
(A) Henri Lefebvre (B) Manuel Castells (C) Jean Jacques Costeau (D) Andre Gunder Frank
383. In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and families
progress toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support, serving as a middle point between
emergency shelter and permanent housing for a timeframe of six months to two years.
(A) Mass Housing (B) Transitional Housing (C) Public Row housing (D) Cooperative Housing
384. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that 'developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required
to develop an ares for socialzed housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision
project cost, at the option of developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible,' so that both
government
and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes
(A) Public Private Resources Exchange (C) Balanced Housing Development

(B) Cooperative Housing Development (D) Corporate Social Responsibility
385. In RA 9397's amendment to expand socialized housing options of national local government under RA7279
UDHA, which common model/program is being remedied for its uneven effectiveness in addressing homelessness
(A) transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple (C) usufruct or lease with option to purchase
(B) public rental housing (D) timeshare arrangements and communal shelter

386. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which assists legally organized
associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept
of community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed areas can own the lots they occupy, or where
they choose to relocate to, and eventually improve their homes to the extent of their affordability"
(A) Zonal Improvement Program (C) Unified Home Lending Program

(B) Slum Upgrading (D) Community Mortgage Program
387. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local shelter plan of an
LGU? (A) Planning and Development Office (C) Subdivision Homeowners Association
(B) Local Development Council (D) Association of Barangay Captains
388. As per HUDCC circular dated September 27, 2006, a dwelling unit with total value of P300.000 or less is called
(A) Low-Cost Housing (B) Socialized Housing (C) Economic Housing (D) Gawad Kalinga
389. A condemned building is torn down to give way to an 'infill' housing project to keep labor force in the inner-city.
Which of following important HLURB parameters would have the least and most minor issues in comparative terms?
(A) past and present land use

(B) suitability of terrain, environmental thresholds and natural geohazards
(C) demographic, socio-economic and political considerations
(D) locational motivation towards place or neighborhood
390. According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of total gross
family încome that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter, which is
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%
391. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa
220? (A) 32 sqm (B) 36 sqm (C) 18 sqm (D) 22 sqm
392. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under
PD957? (A) 90 sqm (B) 100 sqm (C) 110 sqm (D) 120 sqm
393. According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be appropriate to
allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project?
(A) 4,000-5,000 (B) 3,000-2,500 (C) 2,000-2,499 (D) 1,500-1,999
394. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or "Group A" building
shall have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard, street, or alley; shall not occupy more than
90%
of a corner lot or 80% of an inside lot; and be built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least from
the property line.
(A) 20 m (B) 40 m (C) 60 m (D) 80 m
395. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the total distance of the building exterior wall from the curb
of street?
(A) 5 m (B) 6 m (C) 7 m (D) 8 m

396. According to PD 1096 Nat Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have
a minimum area of 6 sqm (14 m) and ceiling height or headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling of at
least
(A) 2.40 m (B) 2.80 sm (C) 3.40 m (D) 3.80 m
397. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling unit without
airconditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on the ratio that area of window opening should be at
least
of floorspace.
(A) one-fifth (B) one-sixth (C) one-eighth (D) one-tenth
398. According to PD 1096 Natl Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies or appendages of
a dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established street/sidewalk grade and the lowest
undersurface of balcony
(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 3.5 meters (D) 4 meters
399. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical distance between
two landings (not steps) of a stairway.
(A) 2.4 meters (B) 2.6 meters (C) 3.6 meters (D) 4.5 meters
400. According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters, and the minimum
horizontal clearance between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 150 m, what would be the horizontal length
of each building's overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of roof
(A) 0.25 meters (B) 0.50 meters (C) 0.50 meters (D) 1.75 meters
401. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972, the minimum parking requirement is 'one parking slot
for every...'
(A) 100-125 m2 of floorspace (C) 100-125 m2 of titled property

(B) 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area (D) 100-125 m2 of frontyard
402. Lower than US standards by 10%, this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of an
openmarket subdivision as required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act?
(A) minimum of 60% open space (C) 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable
(B) minimum of 50% open space (D) 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
403. By Philippine standards, how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or place of ill-repute be allowed to locate –
in relation to a school?
(A) 50 meters away or more (C) at least 200 meters away

(B) 100 meters away or more (D) at least 500 meters away
404. By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal elementary or high school campus have, out of
its total land area?
(A) 60% or more (B)50% or more (C) 40% or more (D) 30% or more
405. To compute for standard size of classroom, 140m2 (HLURB) or 3 cu.m 'bubble' per pupil (PD1096 NBC) is
multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd. This use in design of
average measurements of body and bodily movements is an application of the field of

(A) biomechanics (B) bionics (C) physiometrics (D) anthropometics
406. University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrolment of 10,000 or more, should have a campus area
of at least seven hectares. What would be the required open space?
(A) at least 2,500 m2 (B) at least 5,000m2 (C) at least 10,000m2 (D) at least 25,000m2
407. Philippine standards, the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is
(A) 4.5 hectares (B) 3.5 hectares (C) 2.5 hectares (D) 1.5 hectares
408. RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and toxic fumes, but with a
few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, and contagious
wastes?
(A) Bureau of Fire Protection (C) Philippine Hospitals Association

(B) Department of Interior and Local Government (D) Department of Health
409. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, What should be acquired individually by all food Workers,
processors, preparers, vendors, servers in all food establishments, whether formal or informal businesses?
(A) lung -ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital (C) food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
(B) health Clearance from local health Office (D) face mask and hairnet from Department of Health
410. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec.13a, Washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within
what distance from any public well or public source of drinking water?
(A) 25 meters (B) 100 meters (C) 150 meters (D) 200 meters
411. The second law of thermodynamics states that no man-made or natural process operates with 100% efficiency
and therefore, waste is inherent in all nature, and waste will always be generated.
(A) Thermal Wasting (B) Atrophy (C) Entropy (D) Dissipation
412. Which 'environmental management' practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated
below? (A) Reuse (B) Reduce (C) Recycle (D) Reform lifestyles
413. Which 'environmental management' practice by firms is most encompassing of the four enumerated below
(A) Disperse and Dilute(B) End-of-Pipe Treatment (C) Product Life Cycle Assessment (D) factory waste-exchange
414. Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the National Government
to the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is called--
(A) Coerce and Compel (B) Contain and Constrain (C) Command and Control (D) Cash and Checks
415. Also called the 'cradle to grave' approach, this refers to the entire process of investigating and valuing the
environmental impacts of a given product or service, in particular, raw materials production, manufacture,
distribution, use and disposal as well as intervening transportation steps necessitated or caused by the
product's existence, in order to identify the options least burdensome to the natural environment.
(A) Carbon Footprinting (B) Zero Waste Management (C) Industrial Design (D) Product Life Cycle Assessment
416. Under International Standards Organization ISO 14001 (1996) for business organizations, the principle that no
money should be lent or extended to any firm that has not proven itself to be environmentally responsible,
is contained in which goal of a company's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System?

(A) To reduce overall costs (C)To gain or retain market share via a green corporate image
(B) To attract more ethical investment (D) To reduce prosecution risks and insurance risks
417. Under ISO 14001 Environmental Management System for business organizations, which component examines
how the implementing company observes government policies and standards relevant to regular firm operations?
(A) Power and Fuel Consumption (C) Financial Performance

(B) Waste Generation and Environmental Cost (D) Regulatory Compliance
418. RA 8371 lPRA grants to lndigenous Cultural Communities and lndigenous Peoples the right to own and possess | | |
their tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does notinclude the right to alienate the same lands.
(A) Regional Autonomy (B) Ancestral Domain (C) Self-Government (D) Tribal Ownership
419. Of the following forms of evidence that lndigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land, which category of
evidence needs substantial assistance from a planner with extensive background in anthropology?
(A) Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch maps;
(B) Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water systems, orchards,
farms, monuments, houses and other old structures, or pictures thereof;
(C) Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
(D) Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath; written
records of customs and traditions
(E) Burial grounds or pictures thereof religious sites and/or artifacts in the area
420. Conventional 'Euclidean' or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons. Which reason comes
from the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?
(A) rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs and discourages
walking, social interaction, and neighborly behavior favorable to local community-building
(B) self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie, lessen psychological distress caused
by movement to/from work or school, increase quality family time, and prevent other social problems.
(C) exclusionary land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other needs are not available
3 (D) increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMT) correlates with traffic jams, accidents, labor productivity losses,
greater greenhouse gas emissions that aggravate air pollution, and huge external economic costs borne by society in
general
(E) mothers with infants and young children are zoned of production as jobs in the CBD or in factory district are too far
from home to enable women to successfully carry out both domestic duties and formal employment
421. This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of development by
promoting the Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in Development and Nation Building."
(A) RA 1010 (E) RA7192 (C) RA 6969 (D) RA8010
422. According to RA9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009Sec. , this refers to policies, instruments, programs, services and
actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential T/ treatment and
affirmative action such as measures aimed to accelerate de facto equality between men and women.
(A) Sexual Equality (B) Gender Equity (C) Women's Liberation (D) Gender Parity (E) Feminist Empowerment
Economic Planning, Project Development Planning

423. The main economic theory that underlies both CBA and EA is that an economic activity or project should not
make one person better off by making someone else worse off, such that gains in producer surplus or consumer
satisfaction to some firms or individuals do not simultaneously impose losses on others.
(A) Theory of General Equilibrium (B) Classical Economics (C) David Ricardo's Theory of Value (D) Pareto Optimality
424. A school of thought that holds that the measure of efficiency is people's well-being and such is attained if the
total gains among those who benefit exceed the total losses of those adversely affected by any economic
activity.
(A) Keynesian economics (B) Welfare economics (C) Neoclassical economics (D) Marxist economics
425. This refers to the collaborative process whereby governments, businesses, community organizations, etc at the local
level engage one another to improve economic well-being of their community, enhance business climate, increase
income opportunities, and sustainably utilize human, natural, infrastructural, and institutional resources.
(A) Project Development Planning (B) Investment Coordination (C) Economic Planning (D) Industrial Convergence
426. Of the following central features of Free Market as described by classical economics, which one has not
been proved to be universally true in open capitalist societies?
(A) Law of Supply and Demand (C) Broad Range of Consumer Choices Through Diversified Production
(B) Profit Motive (D) Perfect Competition
427. In Walt Rostow's Theory of Economic Modernization in Linear Stages (1960), the stage wherein techniques in
production improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local supply exceeds local demand, and
the national economy participates in international trade, is termed as
(A) NlChood or newly industrializing economy (C) takeoff period

(B) pre-conditions for takeoff (D) drive to maturity
428. This phenomenon in economics (Alfred Marshall, 1897) wherein profit-oriented firms try to locate close to each
other to save on utility costs, realize gains from increased business interaction, and enjoy benefits from sharing new
technologies, improved skills of local workforce, common infrastructure and amenities, is called
(A) Co-Location (B) Proximization (C) Aggrandization (D) Agglomeration
429. This economic phenomenon is internal to a firm, and refers to reduced marginal cost per unit and increased
overalll savings as volume or quantity of output is increased utilizing the same throughputs or production
processes.
(A) Localization Economies (B) Economies of the Mill (C) Economies of Scale (D) Discounting
430 In 1897, he was the first to categorically state that knowledge, intellectual capital, and technology constitute the
chief engine of progress of the economy.
(A) Alfred Marshall (B) Albert Einstein (C) Frederick Taylor (D)Joseph Schumpeter
431. A ratio that measures output per worker is called
(A) labor intensity (B) work efficiency (C) labor productivity (D) work ethic
432. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as
(A) capital-labor ratio (B) liquid exposure (C) venture capital (D) operating expenditure
433. According to Nobel laureate Simon Kuznets the three ways to determine national macro-economic accounts (GNP
GDP, NNI) are "value-added" "income approach" and "expenditure approach" Which of the following is
expenditure approach?
(A) final output of Primary + Secondary + Tertiary + etc (C) Consumption + Investment + Govt + (Exp-
Import) (B) National Income + (Taxes-Subsidies) + Depreciation etc (D) Consumption Taxes + FDI + BOP + NFIA
434. The Philippines' GDP totalled 8.32 trillion pesos at nominal prices in 2010, but P4.74 trillion was the consolidated
public sector debt stock of national government, LGUs, GOCCs, etc. The administration of President Gloria
Arroyo accumulated a debt stock of 2.57 trillion for 9 years. How much is the total debt stock of 2010 as percent
of Gross Domestic Product?
(A) 51% (B) 57% (C) 64% (D) 67%
435. An indicator of "Quality of Life" developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen, this composite measure combines
life expectancy at birth, school enrolment rate, adult literacy rate, per capita income, and incidence of poverty.
(A) Millennium Development Goals (C) Human Development Index

(B) Index of Sustainability (D) GPI – Genuine Progress Indicator
436. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39,9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between 2001 and 2010. Did
the administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its Millennium Development Goal in poverty
reduction?
(A) Yes (C) Answer depends on ones level of information, political bias, and personal loyalty
(B) No (D) Attainment would have been substantial had it not been for the global economic recession of 2008-2009
437. Millennium Development Goals, what is the official target of government in terms of reducing family
poverty below the food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015?
(A) 0.3% (B) 5.4% (C) 10.2% (D) 15.6%
438. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the
greatest accomplishment in the period 2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?
(A) "Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger (E)"Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other
diseases" (B) "Promote gender equality and empower women (F) "Improve womens reproductive
health"
(C) "Achieve universal primary education (G) "Reduce child mortality"
(D) "Ensure environmental sustainability (H) "develop global partnership for development"
439. 'It gets worse before it gets better.' According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets, as an economy
experiences growth, income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in the long run.
(A) wealth residual dichotomy (B) inverted 'U' hypothesis (C) the curve (D) Dismal Theory
440. The saying "the rich get richer and the poor get poorer" is related to concepts of spread and 'backwash' in
a regional economy that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for economics.
(A) Milton Friedman (B) Paul Krugmann (C) Robert Solow (D) Gunnar Myrdal
441. 'A gaugeof income inequality, it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the perfect equality line
and the Lorenz curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality line in a Lorenz curve diagram
(A) Absolute poverty barometer (B) Gini coefficient (C) Kuznets curve (D) human deprivation index
442. According to John Maynard Keynes, the 'income multiplier' with the formula "m = 1/ {1-(c-m)(1-t)}" is derived
by dividing 1" with the Marginal Propensity to Save (c-m) and the tax rate (1-t). For example, if the computed
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denominator of entire equation is 0.40, what is the 'income multiplier' of each peso or dollar that enters the
economy? (A) 2 (B) 2.5 (C) 3 (D) 4
443. According to NEDA in MTPDP 2004-2010 chap 4, housing construction has a 'income multiplier' of 16.6, such that
for every 10 million spent on housing in local economy, approximately million is generated in
income/domestic product.
(A) 16.6 (B) 166.0 (C) 1060.6 (D) 1,666.0
444. This refers to the combination of talent, ambition, foresight, and skill of an innovative individual or group to efficiently
organize productive resources into a viable undertaking, ensure survival of business, create a secure market niche,
and sustain long-term growth.
(A) Risk-taking (B) Managerial Savvy (C) Pioneer or Angel Investment (D) Entrepreneurship (E) Intrapreneurship
445. This refers to any novel or improved product, process, gadget, or idea that adds utility to a previous or existing good
or service in the market beyond the usual expectations of consumers and often in response to a felt demand in society.
(A) ingenuity (B) invention (C) innovation (D) improvisation (E) high tech gadgetry
446. 'Consumer Demand' is also called
(A) derived demand (B) intermediate demand (C) final demand (D) sales revenues (E) output less taxes
447. Under RA 6930 of 1990, this is a duly registered association of persons, with a common bond of interest,
voluntarily joined together to achieve a common social or economic end, making equitable contributions to the
capital required and accepting a fair share of the risks & benefits of undertaking in accordance with universally
accepted principles.
(A) People's Organization (B) Credit (C) Cooperative (D) Microfinance Grameen bank (E)
Union Paluwagan
448. Republic Act 9501 dated May 23, 2008 redefined "medium-scale" enterprise as follows:
(A) number of employees between 100 to 199 with a (C) number of employees between 10 to 99 with
a capitalization of 15 million to 100 million capitalization of 3 million to 15 million
(B) number of employees more than 200 with a (D) number of employees between 1 to 10 with
a capitalization of more than 100 million capitalization of 1.5 million to 3 million
449. A micro-scale or cottage-scale enterprise is normally exempted from nationally-legislated minimum daily wage because
(A) many barangay MSMEs cater to socio-economic classes D&E which have generally low purchasing power
(B) MSME usually has small profit margins, being more labor-intensive than capital-intensive or technology-intensive
(C) too high labor-wages undermine the viability of micro-scale operations and limited market range
(D) most micro-scale firms are start-ups or fledgling enterprises without secure or established market
niche. (E) all of the above
550. This is an economic strategy of government to invest in human capital by giving cash and/or food subsidies to poor
(families provided their children regularly go to public school, visit the health center for regular medical checkup, and
participate i n community sanitation and environmental protection?
(A) Benevolent Assimilation (C) Conditional Cash Transfers (E) Food-for-Work

(B) Official Development Assistance (D) Emergency Relief (F) Developmental Alms-giving
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451. In the 21st century, many economically-poor but naturally-endowed countries have focused on the "Pleasure
Economy" or the "Experience Economy" through such flagship programs as ecotourism, cultural tourism, medical
tourism, adventure & sports tourism, arts, 'high-touch' activities, high fashion design or haute couture, etc which are
. together called
(A) tertiary services sector (C) quinary services sector

(B) quaternary services sector (D) recreational and visitorial services sector
452. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, ecotourist spots as well as historic, cultural, scenic and adventure sites
are subsumed under the new concept of
(A) Sustainable Tourism Districts (B) Tourism Enterprise Zones (C) Bio-economic Regions (D) Ecozones
453. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, Heritage Conservation in the Philippines shall be supported by not less than
5% of travel tax collections accruing to --
(A) Philippine Retirement Authority (C) Tourism Promotions Board

(B) Infrastructure & Enterprize Zone Authority (D) Philippine Conventions & Visitors Corp'n
454. Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should be utilized
by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modern uses in their interiors.
(A)Total Makeover (B) Reconfigurative Renovation (C) Converted Property (D) Adaptive Reuse
455. According to RA 9072 National Caves and Cave Resources Protection and Management Act of 2002, this "refers
to a cave which contains materials and possesses features that have archaeological, cultural, ecological, historical
or scientific value as determined by the DENR in coordination with the scientific community and the Academe."
(A) Neolithic Cave (B) Speleothem & Speleogem (C) Mesolithic Stalactite (D) Significant Cave
456. 'Taxation based on carbon produced' by 2007 Nobel Prize Laureate Albert Arnold Gore seeks to compel
companies to internalize the externalities and to plan and design production with Nature in mind it will also tax rich,
conspicuous consumers more than low-consumption groups. This tax scheme is described by economists as
(A)aggressive (B) regressive (C) proactive D) progressive 5 repulsive
457. Under RA 8435 AFMA, what kind of cropland management by farmers is envisioned by the Strategic
Agricultural and Fisheries Development Zone in its effort to be compatible with DAR's Agrarian Reform
Communities?
(A) Corporatist (B) uniform/homogenous (C) competitive (D) convergent
458. Which declared component of RA8435 AFMA most directly concerns the health and wellness of all
citizens? (A) credit and micro-finance (D) product standards and consumer safety
(B) irrigation and farm-to-market roads (E) farm technology extension services and technical assistance
(C) post-harvest and storage facilities (F) product information and marketing
459. Which of the following would be part of an integrated food systems planning?
(A) Develop farm protection policies and zoning (D) produce organic compost and farm
soil provisions to encourage community gardening conditioners from municipal solid
waste
(B) build wharves and fish landing ports for (E) Study transportation network used by
food subsistence fishermen suppliers to bring goods to end-users
(C) Promote producers' markets to help local farmers (F) all of the above
460. SUpply chain management in economic planning and in transport planning concerns the logistics or
timely, seamless movement of goods and commodities to end-users. It is credited to
(A)Michael Porter (B) Peter Drucker (C) Frederick Taylor (D) Hideo Teriyaki
461. According to Philippine Agriculture 2020by the National Academy of Science and Technology, Filipinos need
to diversify their diet, eat nutritious alternatives to grains, and reduce average per capita consumption of rice
to
(A) 50 kg per year (B) 100 kg per year (C) 150 kg per year (D) 200 kg per year
462. Under RA 6657 as amended by RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, which of following considerations in
undertaking agrarian reform pertains most directly to economies of scaleand the financial viability of small farm
production?
(A) "ecological needs of the nation" (D) "landowners' just compensation and retention rights
E (B) "tillers' rights and quality of life" (E) "national food security and self-sufficiency in grains
(C) "economic-size" (F) "social justice and emancipation of farmer from bondage to the soil
463. Under RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, all of the following are covered by Agrarian Reform, except one?
(A) agricultural lands in the public domain still not alienated/disposed (C) agricultural estates and haciendas
(B) farms planted to cash crops such as sugar, tobacco, coconut palm (D) family farms of 5 hectares and below
464. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under AFMA, only 5%
of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
(A) 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized (C) 10% of total cultivable land in any
city and independent chartered cities
(B) 20% of total arable land in any LGU (D) 25% of total alienable and disposable land
465. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and
first to third class municipalities is limited to of farm land.
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%
466. Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which criterion is within the control
of the investor or project proponent, in terms of production activity, design, selection and mobilization of men,
money, materials, and machines?
(A) The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the municipality or city, as contained
in their approved land use plan;
(B) The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the
community; (C) Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion;
(D) The land use reclassification shall not hamper the availability of irrigation or the productivity of nearby farms;
(E) The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate alternative livelihood
opportunities for the affected community.
467. Richard Klostermann's Economic Base (also called Export Base) Model argues that
(A) economic base or relations of production can lead to exploitation between a person with property and one without it
(B) economic growth of a regionl/ocality is dependent on the growth of its exporting sector
(C) the primary export of any region/locality is its mobile labor force as represented by migrant-workers and expatriates
(D) expor-toriented industrialization (EOI) can take place even without abundant raw materials as in the case of Singapore
468. Under Economic Base Model, if San Miguel Corporation has an exporting agribusiness plant in a specific baranġay
with basic employment of 500 and an employment multiplier of 26, what would be the probable number of
nonbasic employment in retail, local services, and residentiary activities?
(A)800 (B) 1300 (C) 1,600 (D) 1800
469. If the barangay in the immediately-preceding question has a total population of ,000, active labor force of 55%,
unemployment rate of %, and combined San Miguel Corporation and registered MSME employment of 1,800 persons,
what is the approximate size of the combined informal sector and visibly-underemployed sector?
(A) 950 (B) 1,050 (C) 2050 (D) 3050
470. If fiberglass boat production" represents 028 of the local economy of Ternate while it represents 0.02 of the entire economy
(GDP) of the country, what would be the location quotient (LO) of said industry in Ternate?
(A) 0.0056 (B) 0.071 (C) 1.26 (D) 14
471. If the location quotient (LO) of an industry in the town of OPQR is greater than one, it suggests that
(A) the distribution of industry in the territory is very (C) the distribution of industry in the territory does
not concentrated deviate much from the distribution of other
industries
(B) the distribution of industry in the territory is (D) the territory has a larger share of the industry
relative dispersed to its reference region or larger territory
472. The town of STUV has 2 times more people engaged in agriculture as percent of total labor force and 25
times more output per hectare of rice-land than the national average. This means that
(A) the towns people are better-fed because of food (C) the town has more farm-workers and hence
lower surplus level of education and lower level of literacy
(B) town has backward economy but blessed with soil (D) the town is more agriculturally developed than
the fertility and hard-working labor average municipality.
473. This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships and
the extent of importing/exporting among industries within an economy – whether local, regional, or national.
(A) value added chain (B) input/output model (C) discounted cash flow tables (D) inter-area analysis
474. Using Wassily Leontief's matrices referred to in immediately-preceding question, supposing the "Bread and Baked
Products industry" in a municipality has the following direct coefficients: agriculture (dairy, poultry, fruits, firewood),
0.25; manufacture (flour, sugar, butter etc) 0.35; utilities 0.10; households 0.30, approximately how much of
industry output is directly paid as labor wages and salaries?
(A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 25% (D) PhP404 daily minimum wage as per RWPB
475. This refers to a "set of specific activities carried out by a team of an executing agency for a fixed/limited period
of time in a defined area of operation using limited resources in order to achieve specific outputs/objectives for a
particular target group."
(A) Module (B) Concordat (C) Endeavor (D) Project (E) Capital Venture
476. 'Financial Analysis' uses fair market prices while 'Economic Analysis' uses
(A) factory prices (B) shadow prices (C) nominal prices (D) deflationary and inflationary prices
477. Which concept refers to the value of potential output foregone by not putting resources to their best alternative use?
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(A) Fixed Costs (B) Variable Costs (C) Sunk Costs (D) Opportunity Costs
478. These are costs of business not assumed by the firm and not reflected in the internal financial accounting of
the business but such costs are unwittingly shouldered by other people, by government, or by society-at-large.
(A) extraordinary costs (B) incidental costs (C) externalities (D) collateral costs
479. Which part of the project cycle seeks to determine whether an indepth environmental study is
needed? (A) pre-feasibility phase (B) project screening (C) project appraisal (D) technical feasibility
480. Which part of the feasibility study aims to determine a projects desirability in terms of its net contribution to
the overall welfare of the locality, region, or country as a whole?
(A) sensitivity analysis (B) discriminant analysis (C) stakeholder or distributive analysis (D) economic analysis
481. Related to time value of money (v) this refers to the rate used to adjust the future streams of costs and benefits U into
their present value, taking into account time preference, opportunity cost of capital, externalities from currency and
exchange, risk, and uncertainty.
(A)inflation rate (B) discount rate (C) investment rate (D) depreciation rate
482. Also called 'subscription money,' this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has
serious intentions about the transaction.
(A) mobilization fund (B) subornment (C) marked money (D) earnest money (E) grease money
483. This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic charges
against the capital account.
(A) downpayment (B) reservation (C) amortization (D) equity (E) surcharge (F) pay-off
484. Which tool is used to extrapolate the demand for a projects product-output, assuming present conditions
or current trends continue?
(A) demand curve (B) agent-based modeling (C) cost-revenue analysis (D) linear regression analysis
485. A tool of 'aggregative' analysis and rational decision-making that is used to choose among alternatives
or planning options by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to
the community.
(A) econometrics (B) cost-benefit analysis (C) fiscal impact analysis (D) welfare policy analysis
486. Which measure of profitability places emphasis on the number of years it takes to recover all the
capital invested on a project?
(A) assets turnover (B) breakeven point (C) accounting profit before taxes (D) payback period
487. What does it mean if the net present value (NPV) is negative?
(A) discount rate is higher than IRR (C) sales or revenues are much lower than product usefulness
(B) borrowings are much higher than cash equity (D) discounted benefit-cost ratio of whole project is less than 1
488. The rule of thumb for deciding projects to pursue based on the benefit-cost (B/C) ratio criterion?
(A) accept projects with B/C ratio less than zero (C) accept projects with BC equal or greater than one
(B) accept projects with B/C ratio equal or above zero (D) accept only projects with B/C ratio above five
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489. It is the measure of the earning power of investment from the perspective of owner, investor, borrower or lender and is
defined as the discount rate that equates the present values of the projects benefits and costs such that the NP is equal
to zero
(A) internal rate of return (B) return on equity (C) return on investment (D) accounting profit before taxes
490. The best measure of a projects economic worthiness from the perspective of the public/society/government which serves
as basis for determining project acceptability is called
(A) net present value (B) dividends (C) surfeit (D) internal rate of return (E) surplus value
491. According to NEDA, the economic rate of return" (ERR) is usually:
(A) the same as the Accounting Return on Investment (C) interpolated from IRR and Net Present Value
(B) calculated with Taxes, Natural Losses, Depreciation (D) discounted Total Benefits minus Total Costs
492. The following are elements of the "Control" function in project management, except one.
(A) surveillance and inspection (C) performance monitoring and compliance monitoring
(B) aftersales care (D) process adjustment and Corrective measures
493. The following are elements of the "Control" function in project management, except one.
(A) monitoring (B) Surveillance (C) process adjustment and Corrective measure (D) aftersales care
494. Among the earliest models of environmental economics is the 1968 formula "I = P x A x T" (where l'=environmental
impact,' 'P=population,' 'A=affluence,' 'T=technology') which States that simultaneous growth in population,
affluence, consumer behavior, technology are jointly responsible for environmental problems.
(A) Ehrlich Dr. Barry Commoner (C) Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr. (D) Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum
495. Under this method of environmental economics, the qualitative value of an environmental amenity such as a
scenic lake is measured by analyzing the value of alternatives, substitutes or replacements that people
would likely resort to if said environmental amenity were absent.
(A) Surrogate Market Approach (B) Hedonic Pricing (C) Contingent Valuation (D) Willingness to Pay
496. In ecological economics, the 'intrinsic non-use values' of the elements of Nature can never be
quantified nor given a price tag, hence they are better left untouched and untampered with. Which one
is not the same as the others?
(A) Bequeath Value (B) Existence Value (C) Vicarious Value (D) Fair Market Value
Planning Law, Plan Implementation & EIA

497. Which is not a main branch of government?
(A) Executive (B) Legislative (C) Judiciary (D) Constitutional Commission
498. Which of the following is a constitutional body?
(A) Council of State (C) National Security Council

(B) Civil Service Commission (D) National Peace and Order Council
499. Which of the following does not head a major branch of government?
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(A) Chief Justice (B) Chief of Staff (C) Speaker of the House (D) Senate President
500. Which of the following is not under the legislative branch of
government? (A) House of Representatives (C) National
Development Council
(B) Senate (D) Commission on Appointments
501. Which of the following describes the current political-administrative setup of the Philippine
government? (A) federal, presidential, bicameral legislature, two-party system

(B) federal, parliamentary, meritocracy, regional party system
(C) unitary, presidential, bicameral legislature, multi-party system
(D) unitary, presidential, unicameral legislature, party-list system for 11 basic sectors
502. In a parliamentary system, the legislature normally appoints some of its members as heads of line ministries
(Cabinet) and exacts accountability through of a vote of confidence or noconfidence. By requiring ministers
to report periodically to Parliament, the check-and-balance mechanism essential to democracy is operationalized.
(A) True (B) False (C) partially true, partially false (D) totally irrelevant to Philippine governance
503. What do you call the head of the Commission on Audit?
(A) Honorable Commissioner (B) Constitutional Commissioner (C) Chairperson (D) Director-General
504. Which constitutional agency handles the implementation of direct citizen powers (plebiscite, recall, or
local initiative?
(A) Commission on Human Rights (C) Commission on Elections (B) Tanodbayan and Sandiganbayan (D) Ombudsman
505. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?
(A) Cosmic Law of Karma (B) Republic Acts (C) Constitution (D) 2009 World Summit in Copenhagen
506. One of the four Great Powers of the State, this concept refers to its authority to regulate private actions to promote
public health, public safety, public morals, and general welfare of all its citizens.
(A) Power of Persuasion (B) Eminent Domain (C) Police Power (D) Escheat (E) Estoppel (F) Taxation
507. A democratic state performs the following core functions in a pluralistic society, except one.
(A) Regulate and facilitate the operations of the Market (C) Provide public services to all
(B) Hire the poorest citizens as employer of last resort (D) Arbitrate contending social groups
508. 1987 Philippine Constitution Article Xlll Sec. 1 defines it as "preferential treatment for the least advantaged groups
and areas" through the "enactment of measures that protect and enhance the right of all the people to human
dignity, reduce social, economic, and political inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by equitably diffusing
wealth and political power..."
(A) distributive justice (B) commutative justice (C) transitive justice (D) social justice
509. 1987 Constitution Art. Xll Sec2. "All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal, petroleum, and other
mineral oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural
resources are owned by the State. With the exception of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be
alienated."
(A) 'Dominion and Supremacy' (B) 'Regalian Doctrine' (C) 'Res Judicata' (D) 'Parens Patriae'
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510. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, agricultural land is synonymous with
(A) prime cropland (B) arable and cultivable (C) alienable and disposable (D) irrigated and irrigable
511. As defined by PD1517 IRR Sec2p, this refers to the overall right of the State to classify, guide, and regulate
the acquisition, use, and disposition of land in the interest of public welfare"
(A) land classification (B) land management (C) land registration (D) land consolidation
512. Which of the following Roman, French, and British legal concepts refers to ones right to inherit real
property? (A) chattel (B) fee simple (C) feetail (D) freehold (E) leasehold (F)ultra vires
513. A written legal document used to transfer property from one private person to another, is known as
(A) CLOA (B) Transfer Certificate Title (C) Deed (D) Special Power of Attorney (E) Fiat
514. Philippine Constitution Article Xll sec 3 classifies land into four specific categories,
namely; (A) arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
(B) land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, and land for infrastructure
(C) public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
(D) forestland, agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks
515. In the absence of a national land use code from the Congress of the Philippines since 1987, PD 1152 Title
III Sections 22 to 24 Serves as the
(A) National Land Use Statute (C) National Land Use Scheme
(B) National Land Use Decree (D) National Land Use Framework
516. According to President Bill Clinton's Executive Order 12898 (1994), this refers to the principle that all people
- regardless of skin color, national origin, education, income level, or creed - are able to enjoy an equal level
of environmental protection, fair treatment, and meaningful involvement with respect to the development,
implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.
(A) "Preferential Option for the Poor" (B) "Affirmative Action" (C) "Bio-geographic Equity" (D) "Environmental Justice"
517. In international environmental law, the principle that the burden of proof in demonstrating that a particular
technology, practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public
and that the producer must answer for any environmental damage such technology has created" is
called
(A) Extended Producer Responsibility (B) Polluter Pays Principle (C) Principle of Externalities (D) Precautionary Principle
518. In international environmental law, it refers to "ones action or lack thereof amounting to breach of duty to care"
that results in material damage to others; duty to care is one's legal obligation to avoid causing physical harm
which arises where harm is foreseeable if due care is not taken.
(A) malpractice (B) negligence (C) omission (D) lapse of judgment
519. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this principle states that
when human activities may lead to threats of serious and irreversible damage to the environment that is
scientifically plausible but uncertain, actions shall be taken to avoid or diminish that threat.
(A) preventive suspension (B) restraining order (C) precautionary principle (D) principle of proactive restraint
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520. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this is a remedy available to a
natural or juridical person, entity or any public interest group registered with any government agency, on behalf of
persons whose constitutional right to a balanced and healthful ecology is violated, or threatened with violation by an
unlawful actor omission of a public official or employee, or private individual or entity, involving environmental damage of
such magnitude as to prejudice the life, health or property of inhabitants in two or more cities or provinces.
(A) Writ of amparo (B) Writ of kalikasan (C) Writ of kalinga (D) Writ of continuing mandamus (E) habeas corpus
521. This refers to an activity such as storing of manure, cleaning of guts, use of lead, arsenic, mercury,
phosphorous,
and the like, which can injure health, endanger safety, offend the Senses, produce inconvenience and discomfort to
the public, cause damage to land by means of waterborne or airborne emissions -- all interfering unreasonably with
the use and enjoyment by an owner of his/her rights to land.
(A) filth (B) noxious environment (C) nuisance (D) public annoyance
522. As the national economic planning agency, the NEDA bureaucracy performs secretariat functions to the
NEDA Board, the latter serves as National Development Counciland is headed by
(A) The Director General of NEDA (C) The Secretary of the Cabinet
(B) Chair of the Congressional Planning and Budget Office (D) The President of the Philippines
523. Which part of NEDA organization does not, in most cases, correspond to an actual level of elected
government? (A) The NEDA Governing Board (C) Provincial Development Council
(B) Regional Development Council (D) Municipal Development Council
524. The Medium Term Philippine Development Plan, 2004-2010, is often summarized as Ten-Point Agenda BEAT
THE ODDS, by former Sec. Romulo Neri. Which of the following national goals has the least evident spatial
focus?
(A) Power supply and water supply in all barangays throughout the country
(B) Development of Clark and Subic Freeport as major logistics center in South East Asia
(C) Decentralization of development and decongestion of Metro Manila
(D) Education for all
(E) Closure of Wounds from EDSA 1, 2, and 3
525. Which of the following is not a declared goal of physical planning under MTPDP 2004-2010 chapter 3 on ENR?
(A) Complete land classification by December 2010 by validating and verifying forestland boundaries covering
a
total of 78,450 kms within 79 provinces
(B) Provide easier access to markets at home and abroad to alleviate poverty in the countryside; thus
enhancing peace and order in isolated conflict-affected regions through efficient transport and trade; -
(C) Ensure integrity of land titling system in order to promote development of a mortgage market for lands,
prevent illegal titling, by strengthening registration and monitoring of land titles through digitization of land records
(D) Accelerate distribution/titling of 1.1 million hectares of alienable and disposable public land below 18%
slope by completing survey on 3.8 million hectares in 361 cities/towns
526. Under PD 933, Executive Order 90, and EO 648, this is the independent agency that implements the laws,
policies, rules, and regulations of government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource.
(A) National Land Use Committee (C) Land Management Bureau

(B) Land Registration Authority (D) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
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527. Which function of the agency referred to in immediately-preceding question is considered 'quasi-judicial' or
'adjudicative'?
. implications
(A)Formulateand components
a multi-year of national
integrated and regional
national development
plan on human plans,and
settlements policies andand
identify programs
develop the spatial
(B) Conduct public hearings on all human settlements plans for submission to NEDA and on all other
plans prepared by it
(C) Require all persons, corporations or other entities to furnish it with such physical and operational plans, maps
and other relevant information as it may need to discharge its duties
(D) Act as appellate body in case of conflicting decisions and actions arising from the exercise of the
physical planning functions of the regional and/or local planning agencies.
528. In the Philippines, this is historically the most commonly used tool of LGUs to implement land use plans
(A) legal expropriation (B) seizure and closure (C) capital investment program (D) zoning
529. In the absence of a Department of Housing, which public official chairs the governing boards of government
agencies that have direct operational functions related Land Use, Urban Planning, and Mass Shelter?
(A) Secretary of Socio-Economic Planning (C) Chairperson of Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
(B) Chairperson of HUDCC (D) Secretary of Department of Environment and Natural Resources
530. Which of the following tends to have the least public accountability at the local level?
(A) Peace and Order Council (C) DlLG – Local Government Operations Officer
(B) Fisheries & Aquaculture Resources Management Council (D) National Housing Authority
531. What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their local
plans? (A) clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits

(B) condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
(C) zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private investment
(D) levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
532. If a Masterplan such as NFPP and RPPF has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a City/Town land use
plan may adopt either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt0693) as suggested by Professor Ernesto
Serote
or the shorter timeframe of to cover maximum three terms of locally elected officials.
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 25 years
533. If a medium-term National Development Plan has a timeframe of 6 years, what would be the sensible timeframe
of a multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan inorder to be compatible with the National Development Plan?
(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (B) 12 years (C) 20 years
534. Which is not a component of the multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan?
(A) Regional Economic Production (agriculture, industry, services) (D) Regional Land Use Code
(B) Regional Infrastructure Development Plan (E) Regional Settlements
Plan (C) Environmental Protection, Conservation, and Management
535 What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describes and makes provisions
for? (A) national, regional, district, city/town, village (C) local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
(B) provincial, city/municipal, barangay (D) macro, meso, mela, and micro
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536. Which one describes the types of positions and employment in a Local GOVernment Unitas per RA 7160 LGC?
(A) executive, legislative, judiciary, protective (police)

(B) elective office, appointive office, rank and file (career Service and temporarycasual
employment) (C) top management, middle management, Supervisorial, clerical, field position,
meniallutility boys (D) policy-makers, coterminous political appointees, technical specialists,
bureaucratic employees
537. What is the role of Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the planning process?
(A) formulation of plans

(B) approval of plans of highly urbanized cities
(C) review of ordinances and resolutions approving municipal development plans
. (D) approval of residential subdivision projects
538. Which is nota goal of the Provincial Physical Framework Plan?
(A) enhance the integration of the national economy through the balanced distribution of population, natural resources,
and economic activities
(B) guide government agencies and private developers on proper location of large scale infrastructure projects as well as
other sectoral plans and activities that have to do with land, environment, and natural resources
(C) reconcile and rationalize land use proposals of component territories in relation to higher level framework plans
(D) provide basis for adjudicating conflicts arising from the implementation of land use plans and development projects
that straddle the boundaries of two or more municipalities
539. Which statement is true about Executive Legislative Agenda?
(A) it is a political compromise between quarreling executive and legislative officials from rival parties
(B) it is an integrated holistic plan that can serve as physical framework in the absence of CLUP
(C) it is a harmonized enumeration of LGU ordinances that stipulate criminal penalties and civil
sanctions. (D) it highlights the common vision and reconciled priorities of elected officials for their -year
term of office
540. What percentage of composition of Local Development Councils is allocated to NGOSPOs by RA
7160? (A) 20% (B)40% (C) 35% (D) 25%
541. Which statement is false?
(A) RLUC approves CLUPs of autonomous regions

(B) NLUC prepares national physical framework.
(C) HLURB approves PPFPs of all provinces and CLUPs of Metro Manila cities and
municipalities. (D) PLUC approves CLUPs of component cities and municipalities
542. Which of the following is not a specific responsibility of the Provincial
Government? (A) conservation of public lands through the Provincial Physical
Framework Plan
(B) preparation of development programs such as reforestation, Small-scale mining, fisheries development
and managed pastures,
(C) enforcement of uniform urban design for all component municipalities
(D) adjudication of conflicts which arise from the implementation of localzoning ordinances
543. According to RA7160 Sec. 451, a province should have a population of at least 250,000 and minimum territory of
? (A) 1000 sq.km (B) 1500 sq.km (C) 2000 sq.km (D) 2500 sq.km
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544. According to RA 7160 Sec. 441, a municipality should have a population of at least 25,000, income of at least
25 million based on 1991 Constant prices, and a minimum territory of ?
(A) 50sq.m. (B) 100 sq.m (C) 150 sq.m (D) 200 sq.m
545. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec 16, the overall goals of an LGU need to be compatible with:
(A) Declaration of Policies (B) Corporate Nature & Goals (C) Sustainable Development (D) General Welfare clause
546. In preparing LGU plans of all kinds, a multi-disciplinary committee composed of local experts with specialized
knowledge of various sectors, assists the overall planning body in integrating wide-ranging, cross-sectoral
issues.
(A) Independent study group (C) One-Stop Action Center

(B) Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments (D) Technical Working Group
547. Under RA7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of “Environment and Natural Resources Officer" is optional for
a rural municipality. Should a wealthy LGU decide to create it, such position would partially overlap
with what current field position of the national government?
(A) ARC Development Facilitator (B) DILGLGOO (C) DAR - MARO (D) DENRCENRO
548. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of Municipal Architect is optional, hence the
functions of a “Building Official" are essentially discharged by –
(A)Zoning Administrator (B) MPDC (C) Municipal Engineer (D) Municipal Administrator
549. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal treasurer subject to Civil
Servicelaw and professional standards?
(A) Local Sanggunian (B) Provincial Governor (C) Department ofFinance Secretary (D) Municipal Mayor
550. Under RA7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal budget officer subject to Civil
Service law and professional standards?
(A) Local Sanggunian (B) Provincial Governor (C) DILG Secretary (D) Municipal Mayor
551. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 236, “a province, city, or a municipality in Metropolitan Manila
Area, may levy an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceeding of the assessed value of the property
which
shall be in addition to the basic real property tax.”
(A) 5% (B) 7% (C) 8% (D) 10%
552. Municipalities as a group are entitled to 34% of total Internal Revenue Allotment, distributed based on formula
adopted since 3rdyear of RA7160 implementation-- 60% population, 40%land area. The practical implication of this
scheme is that
(A) Urbanization in already-populous towns is reinforced with bigger IRA allotments.

(B) There is ambivalent signal for towns to control population growth and succeed in family planning.
(C) The allocation does not consider ‘actual need’ such as poverty incidence or median family
income. (D) all of the above.
553. Because the value of ted property rises in direct relation to perceived progress, RA 7160 Sec. 235 allows LGUs to
capture part of privategains from “value added” by regular public spending on roads, infrastructure, and utilities by
C institutionalizing a special levy at one percent (1%) of assessed value of real property, which revenues are then
funneled to the local treasury as
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(A) Real Property Cost Recovery (B) General Fund (C) Special Education Fund (D) Development Fund
554. Under RA7160 Sec. 241, a Local Sanggunian may impose a "special benefit levy" on real properties that directly
benefit from an LGUs special investmenton a section of town. Rate of levyis not uniform but varies in calibrated
manner according to degree of benefit that a property derives from physical improvement. This special levy lasts
for
(A) five to ten years (B) seven to nine years (C) five to seven years (D) three to five years
555. Specific fiscal scheme used by local governments to finance redevelopment and revitalization of blighted areas
by capturing the additional property taxes generated from the improvement of the tax base.
(A) Ad Valorem Taxation (B) Tax Increment Financing (C) indirect Taxation (D) Recoupment
556. Under RA 7160 Sec. 271, how much is the share of each barangay from the total proceeds of Real Property
Tax? (A) 25% for barangays in provinces, and 15% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(B) 20% for barangays in provinces, and 10% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(C) 30% for barangays in provinces, and 20% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
(D) 35% for barangays in provinces, and 25% for barangays in cities and in Metro Manila
557. Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at the village
level? (A) Sangguniang Barangay (C) Federation of Village Neighborhood and
Homeowners
Associations
(B) Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook (D) Barangay Development Council
558. This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private sector in
infrastructure development and management through joint venture schemes such as BOT, BTO, BLT,
BOO, and the like.
(A) GONGO Cooptation (B) Rapprochement (C) Detente (D) Public-Private Partnership (E) State & Non-State Collaboration
559. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of construction of a given
infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government
unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expended
on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon.
(A) Build and transfer (C) Build, transfer and operate (B) Build, own and operate (D) Develop, operate and transfer
560. As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with value between PhP 200M-
300M has to be approved by what government body?
(A) Local Development Council (C) Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster

(B) Regional Development Council (D) Investment Coordination Committee
561. As in the case of the ZTE National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or negotiated contract at the national
level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving government body is
(A) Cabinet of the President (C) Investment Coordination Committee

(B) Council of State (D) NEDA Board
562. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking
and then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
(A) Environmental Risk Assessment (C) Environmental Accounting and Audit

(B) Environmental Impact Assessment (D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
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563. Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks, policies, and regulatory regimes
more substantively than project impacts and activity outcomes?
(A) Environmental Risk Assessment (C) Environmental Accounting and Audit

(B) Environmental Impact Assessment (D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
564. The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can
result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials, compounds, and substances is called
(A) Chemical Containment and Control (C) Environmental Risk Assessment

(B) Toxic Prevention Protocol (D) Strategic Environmental Assessment
565. The quantity of chemicals or wastes that could be dumped into the environment without causing damage of its
uses or dislocation of living organisms, is known as
(A) pollution permit (B) containment capacity (C) assimilative capacity (D) sinking capacity
566. This is the technical planning term for abandoned, idle, or underused industrial and commercial facilities, usually
vacant and obsolete, where expansion or redevelopment is complicated by real or perceived environmental Contamination.
(A) Brownfield (B) Grayfield (C) Greenfield (D) Minefield
567. Which category of industries tend to be generally non-pollutive and non-
hazardous? (A) transient and fleeting (B) light (C) cyber-spatial (D) medium (E)
heavy
568. The following projects, except one, need not submit Project Description nor Environmental Impact Statement
but need only to comply with registration and documentary requirements of city, town or barangay.
(A) municipal waterworks system (C) backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
(B) sari-sari or neighborhood variety store (D) private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees
569. These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to submit a simple Project
Description. (A) an urban grocery store of around 2500 sq.m. total area
(B) cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic Intramuros, Manila
(C) palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
(D) home-based aquaculture using metal tanks and concrete ponds
570. Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major projects are subject to
IEE (A) Tubattaha Reef (B) Chocolate Hills (C) Mount Banahaw (D) Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms
571. Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) by DENR's regional field
Units?
(A) 30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
(B) 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba swamps, Pampanga
(C) six-classroom extension ofan existing public elementary school
(D) beach house measuring 400 sq.m. near world-famous Pagudpud, llocos Norte
572. The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:
6464
(A) Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal (C) Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
(B) Ring Dike – Circumferential around Laguna de (D) perimeter work on centuries-old Plaza Miranda
Bay
573. Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?
(A) tree planting on urban parks by 6000 students (C) rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
(B) high-end residential subdivision of more than 10 (D) hydroponic and aeroponic farming
inside hectares with additional area for golf course greenhouse tents and cages
574. Why is a mass housing project in the watershed area of La Mesa Reservoir Dam unsound and
environmentally dangerous?
(A) because a declared watershed is a protected area and hence not alienable and disposable
(B) because domestic solid wastes and leachates from septic tanks can contaminate water supply for 12 million people
(C) because trees to capture precipitation, not housing and impervious structures, are the priority in a catchment reserve
575. Which project in a declared tribal land with CADT title does not require a full-blown Environmental Impact
Assessment?
(A) mining (B) dam for resenvoir & hydroelectric power (C) sericulture & vermicomposting (D) national highway
576. Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the ElA of a major Sanitary Landfill
for any city or urban LGU?
(A) around 20 kilometers from the city (C) about 100 meters from a river used for water supply
(B) has an in-take capacity of 6 years only (D) about 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
577. According to RA 9003, which three environmentally sensitive resources' should a Sanitary Landfill be
most concerned about?
(A) bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats (C) flora, fauna, and biota
(B) aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area (D) landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
578. According to RA 9003, sorting or segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable should
be done
(A) at the factory level (B) at source (C) at the end of production/consumption (D) at the option of family concerned
579. This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also serves as drop-off center for
sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to consolidate segregated recyclables for
remanufacturing.
(A) Barangay Waste Recycling Center (C) Waste Exchange Facility

(B) Community Junk Shop (D)Materials Recovery Facility
Planning Profession Law, Planning Ethics

580. The following elements define "planning experience" according to AICP. Which element most requires the planner
to have adequate skills in effective communication, social marketing, negotiation, and conflict management?
(A) "Employing an appropriately comprehensive point of

view" (B) "Influencing public decision-making in the public
interest" (C) "Applying a planning process appropriate to the
situation."
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(D) "Involving a professional level of responsibility and resourcefulness."
581. Which element of participatory planning process implies multi-stakeholdership?
(A) bottom-up process to define and prioritize local needs (D) negotiated rule-making and policy
dialogue (B) collective leadership and innovative decision-making (E) consensus-building and dispute
resolution (C) coalition of partners and groundswell of Support (F) all of the above
582. An architect is normally in charge of vertical or upward development, while a civil engineer normally handles
(A) sub-surface structures (B) diagonal oblique development (C) horizontal and lateral construction (D) mining
583. Which of the following is not a challenge proper to a professional environmental
planner? (A) He/she has to be a generalist most of the time and a specialist at certain
times;
(B) He/she has to reconcile long term vision with short-term political exigencies and financial considerations
(C) He/she has to bridge the huge gap between the arts and the sciences.
(D) He/she produces both diagnosis and prognosis of social problems; but his/her prescription is
tempered by what is feasible to government and what is acceptable to the public
584. Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978, Regulating the Practice of
Environmental Planning in the Philippines?
(A) Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto Ave., Manila
(B) Engaging in the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without having been registered
(C) assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is an
environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
(D) Giving any false or forged evidence of any kind, or impersonating any registered environmental planner
585. Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental planners should have
(A) At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered environmental
planners (B) At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered
environmental planners (C) The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
( D) 60%40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.
586. According to American Planning Association, basic ethics for planners includes all but one of following
principles: (A) Avoid conflict of interest (C) Neither seek nor offer favors
(B) Never be the last one in or the first one out. (D) Ensure full disclosure at public hearings
587. As head city planner, you recommend an amendment to a Sanggunian ordinance to provide specific urban
design guidelines on form zoning(building exteriors and streetscapes. You should emphasize in your report that
this will
(A) Provide legal basis for enforcing design guidelines (C) Discourage big-box mall retailers from locating in town
(B) Assure present quality of life will be preserved (D) Allow community to enforce Transfer of Development Rights
588. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator ofan LGU. Which of the following does notconstitute
a conflict of interest?
(A) Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm

(B) Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustment
(C) Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand in Farmers' Market
(D) Processing a rezoning application of your own property
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589. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded spouse runs the recreational
Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic size swimming pool that would utilize water from a
public spring. What is the most rational action for you to do?
(A) Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application (C)Just keep quiet about it
(B) Ask for job transfer or reassignment (D)File for divorce.
590. The CPDC office has been criticized for poor client service. There have been a number of complaints from the public
that information is difficult to obtain over the counter, and that it takes too long to get zoning, general plan, and
landownership information. Which of the following would be the best action for the CPDO Head to take?
(A). Allow the public to directly use the offices computer units so that the requesting parties can get the
information themselves without bothering the staff.
(B) Ask the staff to work longer on volunteer time, so that at least 3 hours per day are spent purely on
requests from the public.
(C) Place a complaint box on the counter and review the contents of the box twice a month
(D) educate the planning staff that they have a special obligation to serve the public and they should work
toward being more responsive to public inquiries.
591. In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting Company, the following ethical principles apply except
one. (A) A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with his/her profession.
(B) A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
(C) A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on the planners professional fitness
(D) A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present actions.
592. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most preferred manner of
government procurement of goods and services?
(A) selective bidding or limited source bidding (C) single source procurement or direct contracting
(B) negotiated procurement (D) competitive bidding
593. In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and no suppliers have qualified to
participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief executive with the approval of the Sanggunian, may
undertake procurement of supplies and services without public bidding through:
(A) selective bidding or limited source bidding (C) single source procurement or direct contracting
(B) negotiated procurement (D) competitive bidding
594. In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for supplies and services is
exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and inorder to prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property,
LGUs may make emergency purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided
(A) public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be endangered if contracts are
rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or nottaken over,
(B) it is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at least three preselected
suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as having reliable, positive track record
(C) amount is within the range of 50,000-250000 or even higher according to ceilings previously approved by the
Government Procurement Policy Board
(D) goods and commodities of any amountare procured from another government agency under L01755 and EO
359 (E) all of the above *
595. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards Committee with five to
seven members has to be headed by
6767
(A) chief of procuring entity (C) resident auditor detailed by COA

(B) resident Ombudsman (D) at least third ranking permanent official
596. Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question which of the following should not chair the Bids and Awards
Committee?
(A) Chief of Administrative Division (B) Audio-Visual Technician (C) Head of Engineering Section (D) Planning Officer V
597. The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a guarantee of good faith on
his/her part to execute the contracted work in accordance with the terms of the approved contract.
(A) lnsurance (C) Performance Bond (E) Surety Bond

(B) Collateral (D) Retention or Retained Earnings (F) Completion Guarantee
598. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec , government may hire Consulting Services for the
following functions, broadly matching the competencies of Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental
Planners generally least prepared?
(A) advisory and review services; (D) construction supervision;

(B) pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies (E) management-related services and technical
(C) design; Services
599. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUC) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUPZO for an approved budget
of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical
proposals, Company A got 89 points, Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company D, 42 points
as the last company missed out on the required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the sealed
financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were revealed as follows: Company A = 6.8 million; Company B = 6.2
million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or
"lowest calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the head of agency.
(A) Company A (B) Company B (C) Company C (D) Company D
600. As a planner, you schedule a series of public meetings and workshops. Why should you evaluate such open
participation events?
(A) To estimate level of attendance (C) To demonstrate that this event worked better than previous such events
(B) To establish a record of the event (D) To improve future events
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300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS -- ADDITIONAL
601. Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time" for the right
people. (A).John Ratcliffe (B) Lewis Keeble (C) Brian McLoughlin (D) George Chadwick (E) Alan Wilson
602. A Under the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, which line agency' has the departmental battlecry
"The Right Project at the Right Cost with the Right Quality"?
(A) DOTC (B) DOT (C) DPWH (D) DENR (E) DOH
603. Under the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of inclusive growth?
(A) compromise (B) transactional (C) equality (D) beneficial to all particularly lagging groups (E) only for the Yellow Army
604. 'Urban' is distinguished from 'rural' by means of
(A) Population size (C) Cultural heterogeneity (E) Level of Administration

(B) Population density (D)Multiple Economic Functions (F) All of the Above
605. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the Philippines is
(A) larger than the total rural population (C) stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population
(B) plateauing at a steady growth rate (D) fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks
606. Which is not a key feature of professional planning process?
(A) proactive (B) problem-solving (C) algorithmic (D) futuristic (E) people-driven
607. According to the American Institute of Certified Planners, four of the following define environmental planning
practice, except one?
( A) planning process (B) post-modem (C) professional level (D) public interest (E) comprehensive
608. According to 1987 Constitution Article Xlll Sec. 1, the State has four powers with respect to land. Which of the four has
been essentially devolved by the national government to local government units?
(A) Land Acquisition (B) Land Ownership (C) Land Use (D) Land Disposition
609. In Francis Stuart Chapins Venn's diagrams (1965), land use is shaped by a confluence of factors emanating from
Economy, Nature, and Society, which are profitmaking values, public interest values, and sociallyrooted values.
Environmental services" or the functions of environmental elements to ensure livable Conditions for humankind fall
under
(A) 'profit-making values' (B) 'public interest values' (C) 'socially-rooted values' (D) 'spiritual & otherworldly values'
610. In Third World countries where majority of people have low purchasing power, the biggest pressure to alter current
land use comes from
(A) transport system layout (B) natural hazards (C) GDP growth (D) population growth (E) popularity of automobile
611. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
(A) technocracy (B) shepherding (C) protectionism (D) championing (E) stewardship
612. Environmental issues and dilemmas are described as follows, except
(A) 'complex' (B) 'unrelated' (C) 'non-linear' (D) 'uncertain' (E) 'interconnected'
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613. The use of technology often alters the equilibrium in ecosystems. With which statement would most ecologists agree on?
(A) Humans should control every aspect of environment so that damage due to technology will be spread evenly
(B) Humans should develop the uninhabited parts of Earth for population expansion.
(C) Humans should use their knowledge of Nature to consider the needs of future generations of all species
(D) Humans should develop new technology to expand the influence of humans on natural communities.
614. The concept of Strong sustainability" recognizes that the fundamental limits on human endeavour are essentially
(A) economic (B) technological (C) social (D) ecological (E) extra-terrestrial
615. Which is the best scientific explanation for the phenomenon of Territoriality" in Nature, particularly among
animals? (A) coordinates individual activities and clusters individuals in groups

(B) provides a frame in which things are done – places to eat, learn, play, or hide
(C) insures propagation of the species by controlling density
(D) separates one species from another so that disease and disaster are not spread
616. Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under which stage do policy-makers
or decision-makers make a firm resolve to pursue a specific course of action?
(A) System Description (B) System Modeling (C) System Projection (D) System Synthesis (E) System Control
617. "There is no need to be thorough & comprehensive. You can work even with inadequate data, for only the short-term is
workable. Do not aim for 'the best' if what is feasible is good enough. Progress is pursued bit by bit, piece by piece; why
3 seek an overarching theory, framework or masterplan? A 'succession of limited comparisons' can show the way."
(A) Communicative Planning (B) Incremental Planning (C) Allocative Planning (D) Transactive Planning
618. The concepts of input - throughput – output - feedback" comes from what school of planning?
(A) Communicative Planning (B) Incremental Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning (D) Systems Theory of Planning
619. Which type of planning does not follow the cycle of "plan – do – check – act"?
(A) Rational-Comprehensive Planning (B) Communicative Planning (C) Strategic Planning (D) Policy Planning
620. The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open areas relating to one other
to demonstrate freedom and an overall city layout resembling a dove in fight.
(A) Brasilia (B) Sydney (C) Chandigarh (D) Canberra (E) lslamabad
621. He repaired the walled and moated city of Ferrara in Emilia-Romagna, ltaly (1484), one of UNESCO's world heritage sites,
and became regarded as one of the earliest urban designers of the Renaissance period.
(A) Biagio Rossetti (B) Leone Battista Alberti (C) Domenico Fontana (D) Eugene Henard T
622. During the period called Rationalism, Enlightenment, and Scientific Revolution, Nicolaus Copernicus, Galileo Galilei, Sir
Isaac Newton, and René Descartes examined natural laws governing the universe by
(A) relying on ideas of medieval thinkers (C) acceptance of traditional teaching authority or magisterium of the Church
(B) observation and experimentation (D) self-expression & liberation of ones innermost feelings and emotions
623. He is often quoted for the line, a house is a machine for living in"
(A) Le Corbusier (B) Robert Venturi (C) Buckminster Fuller (D) Frank Lloyd Wright (E) Victor Gruen
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624. A What do you call the doctrine or school of thought that says that a building cannot be beautiful unless it answers its
functions in the most simple and direct way – and that, if a building answers its functions in the most simple and direct
way, then it will automatically be beautiful? •
(A) Modernist Cubism (B) Structuralism (C) Formalism (D) Functionalism (E) Symbolic Interactionism
625. A Unity disguised as chaos – complexity and contradiction are what make works of art both exciting and profound
(1966)?
(A) Robert Venturi (B) Philip Johnson (C) Michael Graves (D) Kenzo Tange
626. A Design as if you were a child" is a quotation attributed to
(A) Michael Graves (B) Alvar Aalto (C) Louis Khan (D) Renzo Piano (E) Mies van der Rohe
627. This is a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, legally recorded as a single piece, and subject to
single ownership.
(A) plat (B) plot (C) parcel (D) partition (E) tract
628. This legal concept means holding a property by reference to a superior entity, such as the
State. (A) Management (B) Tenure (C) Trust (D) Concession (E) Franchise
629. According to America's founding fathers and writers of the 1787 US Constitution, "property rights" are a bundle of sticks
with several constituent rights, namely:
(A) divine right, natural right, customary right, statutory right

(B) right to life, liberty, property, privacy, and happiness
(C) right to use, right to determine disposition, right of access, and right to bar access
(D) right to use, right to reuse, right to misuse, right to abuse
630. As head of forestry and agriculture under four US presidents from 1898-1910, he was the earliest to define
conservation with the same meaning as today's sustainable development?
(A) Gifford Pinchot (B) John Muir (C) Francis Burton Harrison (D) George Perkins Marsh
631. Alfred Bettman prepared the first comprehensive plan of Cincinnati and, as president of ASPO, advocated before the US
Supreme Court the first comprehensive zoning code in America drafted by Edward M. Bassett for the local government
of
(A) Ohio (B) Los Angeles (C) New York City (D) Miami (E) Houston
632. The first US city to carry out in 1951 an urban design equivalent to transit-oriented development before the latter's
formal conceptualization in 1993.
(A) Los Angeles (B) Miami (C) Houston (D) Boston (E) New York
633. Of McGee's urban land use models that deviate from the Chicago school of human ecology, which statement is
true? (A)The affluent classes in Latin American cities tend to live near the center while the poor live on the edges.
(B) Outside the historic port zone, Southeast Asian cities are undifferentiated – not zoned at all
(C) Western European cities are actually small cores of large clusters of suburbia.
(D) lslamic cities emphasize large public areas because private space is less important to Muslims.
634. 'Edge Cities' have been described as tenements of the "Information Age" because they have
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(A) been built around clusters of dilapidated townhouses and ghettoes in the edges of the cities
(B) many high-density condominium developments designed for people Working in nearby Office towers
(C) sprung up in grayfields, brownfields, and abandoned industrial Or Commercial sites
(D) populations made up mostly of recent immigrants
635. According to Edward Soja of UCLA (2000), 'carceral cities' in post-industrial era refers to fortress-like enclosures
or settlements which are seemingly obsessed about their Security and their privatopia, which can be observed in
(A) gated subdivisions (B)cybercities (C) skyScrapers (D) medium-Security Correctionals (E) gangbased COmmunities
636. The 'network hypothes' is attributed to neo-marxists Manuel Castells, AJ Scott, and Lojkine maintains that
(A) business and government conspire to segregate the poor.

(B) social and economic connection, more than physical location, determines job opportunities.
(C) planning of major transport routes do not prioritize access of poor communities, thus increasing their marginalization
637. A 21st century innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 20% additional "floor space incentive" if
it can create and maintain a large open space around it, is called--
(A) Landscape Concordat (B) Public-Private Partnership (C) Quid Pro Quo (D) Privately-Owned Public Spaces
638. A 21st century incentive in New York City wherein a private building can earn 33% additional "floor space" if
it can allocate 20% of its dwelling units to low-income households, is called--
(A) 'Philantrophic Shelter' (B) 'Habitat for Humanity' (C) 'Inclusionary Housing' (D) 'Preferential Housing'
639. What key words are not part of "Plan NYC 2030" vision of New York City, the financial capital of the World?
(A) 'business-oriented' (B) 'bottom-up' (C) 'street-level' (D) 'pedestrian-oriented' (E) 'neighborhood-based' (F) 'human scale'
640. The Green Revolution refers to the
(A) success of Green Parties and Greenpeace activists in the sphere of electoral politics
(B) popularization of greenways, greenfields and garden cities by the Parks and Conservation Movement
(C) agricultural progress of East Asian tiger economies like Korea and Taiwan which was their springboard to NIChood
(D) propagation of hybrid crops and scientifically-modified high-yielding varieties (HYVs) to increase farm harvest
641. Which is not a method to delineate a region?
(A) force field analysis (C) factor analysis (E) ethno-linguistic and Socio-cultural profiling
(B) gravitational analysis (D) flow analysis (F) Weighted index number method
642. High-growth regions with expanding economic activity Will attract net migration from other parts of the Country, thus
favoring them further. Capital investments tend to have a similar effect: increased demand in expanding CenterS Spur
additional investments, which in turn will increase incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments..."
(A) Cumulative Causation (B) Positive Reinforcement (C) Economic Modernization (D) Circuits of Capital
643. According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the "development of external economies for an
industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to
(A) connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside

(B) "development of auxiliary industries to supply input
(C) "attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
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(D)expansion of service industries and others serving the local market
644. 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing, grocery, catering, recreation, etc
while services that cut across different types of firms such as security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc are
called
(A) logistical (B) financial (C) diagonal (D) interlocal (E) messengerial (F) transborder
645. The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
(A) Bataan EPZ (B) Mactan EPZ (C) Baguio EPZ (D) Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ (E) Phividec Misamis Oriental
646. Which type of special growth zone is not under the direct jurisdiction of either DT| Board of Investments or PEZA?
(A) industrial ecozone (B) IT ecozone (C) tourism ecozone (D) retirement haven (E) university science & techno
hub
647. The first county outside Europe to establish an export-oriented special economic zone was
(A) India (B) Singapore (C) Brazil (D) South Korea (E) China (F) Puerto Rico
648. In 2010, this country is known as "call center capital of the world," particularly in voice services, a significant segment of
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) industry.
( A) lndia (B) Singapore (C) Thailand (D) Hong Kong (E) Philippines (F) South Korea
649. The following are major contributions of American colonial government to Philippine development, except
one, (A) railways (B) zoning (C) public school system (D) public health & sanitation (E) democratic elections
650. Industrial dispersal began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which banned establishment of additional
medium and heavy industries in the national capital within a 50-kilometer radius from
(A) Rizal Monument, Luneta (B) Malacañang Palace (C) Bonifacio Monument (D)Manuel Quezon Memorial Circle
651. This documen tserves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related guidelines and standards to guide the 1D
formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
(A) Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan (C) National Framework for Physical Planning
(B) Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan (B) Regional Physical Framework Plan
652. Which of following determinants of land use, land allocation, land management refers to multi-functionality of
resource? (A) geology & geomorphology (D) economic and related development activities
(B) demography (E) environmental and other natural resource constraints
(C) existing and potential uses (F) government policies on land utilization, land distribution, land disposition
653. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
(A) identify stakeholders and analyze the situation (D) anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
(B) develop a detailed organizational management profile (E) identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
(C) formulate goals and translate them into strategies (F) involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
654. The 'comprehensive' in CLUP means it encompasses all
(A) resources, means, reserves, assets, and possessions of government

(B) ecosystems, land and water processes, surface and sub-surface, terrestrial and extra-terrestrial entities
(C) geographic areas, sectors and sub-sectors of development, functions that have spatial dimension
(D) powers and authority of State, laws and statutes, goals and priorities of the body politic
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655. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
(A) urban morphology and physiognomy

(B) data collection and analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives
(C) Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
(D) community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
656. Which is not a basic element of the Executive Legislative Agenda?
(A) Spatial Strategy (C) Priority Programs, Projects, Capacity Development Needs
(B) Vision-Mission-Goals-Objectives (D) Determining Legislative Requirements
657. Which of the following least illustrates the strategic dimension of the CLUPCDP-ELA as integrated
process? (A) forecast future patterns, build spatial scenarios, weigh costs and benefits of each scenario
(B) select spatial strategies, choose trigger" or "lynchpin actions" crucial to attainment of overall vision
(C) conduct at least two mandatory public hearings which should be process-oriented and participatory
(D) formulate success indicators and measures to determine effectiveness and efficacy of actions
taken (E) Executive-Legislative Agenda statement on local government priorities for three years .
658. In ideal conditions, constituents are engaged by LGU in participative manner throughout the entire CLUP-ZO process,
but public hearings and open consultations are mandatory at which step of 12 steps?
(A) after area inventory, profiling, scanning, analysis, and forecasting (C) after formulation of Vision-Mission-Goals
(B) after adoption of spatial strategy, land use policies, and zoning plan (D) after completion of opinion poll or survey
659. What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDP are budgeted and released
yearly? (A) Special Allotment Release Order (SARO) (D) PBBS

(B) Notice of Cash Availability (NCA) (E) Memorandum of Undertaking
(C) Annual Investment Plan (F) Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
660. That portion of SEPP which looks into relationships among key actors, factors, and connectors" is called
(A) Scanning (B) Inventory (C) Assessment (D) Analysis (E) Scenario-Building
661. In HLURB Guidelines, which of the following does not fall under the social sector?
(A) Education (B) Tourism (C) Health (D) Police Protective Services (E) Sports and Recreation
662. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the economic sector?
(A) housing (B) Mining (C) ICT and Business Process Outsourcing (D)Mariculture (E) Small Scale Industries
663. Which of 27 'sectoral' plans from LGUs have been required by the Department of Trade and Industry and its agencies?
(A) Agriculture And Fisheries Management Plan, Coconut Development Plan, Food Security Plan, Local FARMC
Plan (B) Local Entrepreneurship Development Plan, SME Development Plan, Information Strategic And Management
Plan (C) Gender And Development Plan, Action Plan For Protection Of Children, Plan For The Elderly, Nutrition
Action Plan
(D) Solid Waste Management Plan, Forest Management Plan, Watershed Management Plan, Coastal Management
Plan
:
664. Which of the following identify the public purpose/s for which land use controls are employed?
(A) regulate land non-use or disuse (D) guide land use to promote community
development
(B) curb land misuse to protect public interest (E) all of the
above
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(C) prevent land abuse
665. If there is no conscious effort to integrate, the CLUP/CDP will likely overlap with following plans mentioned by laws, except
(A) sustainable development plan under PA 21 (D) Science laboratory research and Technology incubation Plan
(B) ADSDPP under RA 8371 IPRA (E) Millennium Development Goals plan under
NEDA/DILG (C) Local Poverty Reduction Plan (F) Local Shelter Plan under HUDCC
666. The purpose of a security / peace-and-order plan is to
(A) ensure national security program is carried Out (C) Comply with relevant directives from leadership of AFP &
PNP (B) determine areas of town/city that require no (D) provide guidance, assign responsibility, and set
standards for
protection security of people, property, and products.
667. Continuous observation of a critical area requires that security force supervisors provide which of the following type
of protection?
(A) fixed post (B) random patrol (C) aerial pass (D) surveillance by satellite (E) deep throat undercover penetration
668. The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU, except one.
(A) indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water
Management
(B) part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development Plan
(C) among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal & decentralization of development
(D) already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
669. Which of the following is not considered a criterion in selecting industrial estates in the
Philippines? (A) presence of natural resources (D) existing infrastructure and utilities
(B) physical boundary (E) logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
(C) availability of labor
670. Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least nutrient-holding
capacity? (A) sand (B) clay (C) silt (D) loam (E) humus
671. The following five factors determine how soils develop. Which factor does 'alluvium' fall under?
(A) time (B) climate (C) organisms active in soil (D) parent material (E) relief or landscape position
672. Under Philippine Land Capability classes by BSWM, lands that are very level and often wet such as mangrove swamps
and fresh marshes are deemed appropriate for fishponds and categorized as Class X" while lands that are very hilly,
rugged, mountainous, and generally barren are deemed fit for recreation or Wildlife and categorized as
(A) Class Y (B) Class Z (C) Class W (D) Class A (E) Class H
673. To cover the entire Philippine archipelago including territorial sea, the maps of NAMRIA most commonly use the Scale
(A) (A) 1:500,000 (B) 1:400,000 (C) 1:250,000 (D) 1:300,000
674. What is the percent slope of a parcel of land that has a change in elevation of 8 meters and is 160 meters long
( A) 8 % (B) 7% (C) 6% (D) 5% (E) 4%
675. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as
(A) 'even and Smooth' (B) 'flat to gently sloping' (C) 'level to nearly level' (D) 'gently to moderately undulating'
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676. According to BP 220, high-density residential structures can be allowed in flatlands with slope 0-5%, but low to
medium density residential development would be ideally located in areas with slope of
( A) 5% to 10% (B) 5% to 15% (C) 5% to 18% (D) 5% to 20% (E) 5% to 25%
677. There are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures needed to thoroughly develop
a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed in the issuance of a development permit?
(A) Planning Consultant (B) Real Estate Broker (C) Natural Scientist (D) Head Local Planner (E) Legislator-Sponsor
678. In the GRZ or R-1 zone, what is the maximum height of a residential structure as measured from the highest
natural grade line on the property or from sidewalk level up to its roof
(A) 5 m (B) 7 m (C) 9 m (D) 11 m
679. This refers to the process of amending the zoning ordinance in such a way that a property may be developed less
intensively or at a lower density than before.
(A) regressive zoning (B) downzoning (C) retrogression (D) reconfiguration
680. What would be the most suitable land use for buffer strip of geologic fault line of at least 5 meters on both sides from the
line? (A) aqueduct or tunnel (B) Venice-like canals (C) floodway (D) open space or park (E) wildlife refuge
681. The following are basic considerations in agricultural land use planning in the United States, except one.
(A) prime famland soils are involved (D) used only for cereals and grans production
(B) a strong local farm economy exists (E) local land values are low enough for farms to make a profit
(C) non-farm buildings are not permitted
682. The following conditions permit the establishment of fishponds or inland fish farming, except one.
(A) Land Capability 'Class X' according to BSWM (D) meet accepted criteria on elevation, soil type, soil depth,
topography (B) 0% to 3% in slope (E) rivermouth estuary vegetated with rare mangrove
species useful for (C) natural wetland, swamp, or marsh breeding and spawning of fish and
crustaceans
683. These are water bodies legally considered as land and can be claimed for private
ownership. (A) tarns (B) non-meandered water bodies (C) loch (D) coves (E) puddles
684. Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code, if the total width of water body between two seaside municipalities is less than 30 km, 4
f each ones municipal waters is determined by using
(A) comparative sizes of fishing population (C) preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
(B) a median line on common water body (D) ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline
685. The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters, except
one. (A) use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets (D) muro-ami

(B) use of dynamites and other explosives (E) use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
(C) use of fine mesh nets (F) use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls
686. Using Dr Candido Cabrido Jr's framework for 'ecological zoning,' the coastal portion of any LGU can be sub-
classified into the following sections. Which grouping is essentially equivalent to production land use?
(A) estuaries, mangroves, lagoons, intertidal flats, fish sanctuaries, protection buffer against tsunami and tidal surge
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(B) government institutional complex, fisherfolk Village, fisherman's Wharf, social services Centers
(C) mariculture, recreation/tourism area, port, navigation zone, open season & closed season fishery areas
(D) Seaworld, Oceanarium, underwater observatory, undersea mineral exploration
687. Which of the following human activities can increase the rate of Coastal erosion or scouring due to tidal
action? (A) Pumping groundwater from a confined aquifer located near the coast
(B) loss of seagrass beds as a result of sedimentation and runoff from higher land areas causing murky muddy waters
(C) approving permits for 200 large fishing boats with gross weight of over 3.1 tons g
(D) constructing sea wavebreakers far below known tsunami wave heights
(E) upcurrent patterns observed near groin, jetty, and breakwater structures.
688. All of Earth's land, water, and atmosphere within which life exists, meaning all species together with their
environments are collectively known as
(A) biosphere (B) metapopulation (C) world community (D) geosphere (E) Gaia
689. A functional unit containing living plants, animals, and microbes interacting with each other and interacting with
their abiotic environment to perpetuate themselves in a sustainable manner, is called
(A) Population (B) Web of Life (C) Ecosphere (D) Ecosystem (E) Biodiversity
690. 'Lacustrine' is lake or lake-type environment; 'palustrine' is a swamp or marsh type of non-tidal wetlands with cattails, while
refers to algae, plant and animal materials that accumulate on beaches at high water
marks. (A) 'wrack' (B) 'morass' (C) 'moraine' (D) 'esker' (E) 'algal bloom'
691. Which of the following results from the misuse of wetlands?
(A) loss of habitat (C) decreased flood protection (E) all of the above
(B) decreased erosion control (D) decreased biological cleaning of water
692. Loss of biodiversity is caused by
(A) deforestation (C) exploitation of species for commerce and recreation (E) indiscriminate mining and quarrying
(B) pollution (D) conversion of natural habitats into agricultural uses (F) all of the above
693. Which of the following is not an ecosystem?
(A) all the organisms, sometimes hundreds of species, in a given area (C) a leaf that has fallen to the ground
(B) rivermouth estuary with mangroves, mudfish, and crustaceans (D) a tropical rainforest
694. Why can many different species coexist in an ecosystem when they are competing for the same limited resources?
(A) each species occupies a different niche (D) each species comprises a different population
(B) each species occurs in a slightly different habitat (E) resources are shared among all species
(C) each species is found in a different biome
.
695. Which element of the Theory of Natural Selection points to the need to be compatible with ones natural environment?
(A) elimination is random (C) individuals even from same family can wary in characteristics and in thresholds
(B) not all offsprings survive (D) what enhances survival is not size but individuals trait most suited to external conditions
696. According to modern evolutionary theory, genes responsible for new traits that help a species survive in a
particular environment will usually
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(A) not change infrequency (B) decrease gradually infrequency (C) decrease rapidly in frequency (D) increase in frequency
697. The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March, 1973 has been helpful in
protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines has over 800, by
(A) listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
(B) listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
(C) funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
(D) preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
(E) specifying prices for certain plant and animal products
Most of Earths deserts are at approximately 30° latitude, north and south, because these latitudes are characterized .698
by
(A) generally warm ocean currents (D) slow-moving jet streams

(B) descending dry air currents (E) enhanced solar
radiation (C) predominantly low atmospheric pressure
699. Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, are necessary to give species a route to reach their
new habitats.
(A) Science Reserves & Ranches (B) Zoos & Botanical Gardens (C) Lifelines (D) Wildlife Corridors
700. A watershed is principally a source of
(A) timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper (C) food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
(B) charcoal for grill requirements offivestarrestaurants (D) water for humans, animals, plants, and other species
701. 'Hazard' differs from 'risk' in that
(A) 'Hazard' can be avoided while 'risk' always result in disaster

(B) 'Hazard' can be remedied or mitigated while risk is imminent and
inevitable. (C) 'Hazard' is merely geologic while risk is essentially economic.
(D) 'Hazard' refers to likely occurrence of natural events while 'risk' involves clear and present threat to human life, property,
and community welfare.
702. Which is not a key element of hazard mitigation planning?
(A) Land-use plans (B) Development control or management (C) Land titles (D) Hazard assessment
703. The following are all environmentally critical areas under Presidential Decree 2146. If a common hazard such
as geologic fault line runs through all of them, which of these areas would have the greatest risk?
(A) areas with critical slopes

(B) natural parks, Watershed reserves, Wildlife preserves, and
Sanctuaries. (C) areas traditionally occupied by ICCs/IPS
(D) habitat of any endangered or threatened species or indigenous Philippine Wildlife (flora and fauna)
704. A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic of a drainage
basin causes it to have an efficient response to rainfall?
(A) sloping topography in bowl-like formation (B) permeable soils (C) plasticity of clay bottom (D) filtration by its wetlands
705. At the headwaters of a stream where the local gradient/energy is highest, the process of 'erosion' dominates while at
the stream's base level where a delta forms, the process that dominates is called
(A) percolation (B) evapo-transpiration (C) sedimentation (D) inundation (E)infiltration

706. What does 'lag time' refer to in the context of flooding?
(A) The time required to clean up an area following a flood

(B) The time it takes for emergency officials to provide relief to residents of a flood-stricken area
(C) The time it takes for streamflow to travel from the drainage divide to the mouth of the
stream (D) The time between rainfall and peak streamflow
707. What effect does urbanization have on rainfall-runoff relationships?
(A) lmpermeable surfaces tend to inhibitinfiltration and thus increase peak flood discharges
(B) Storm sewers tend to route runoff to streams more quickly and thus reduce the lag
times (C) Urbanization tends to decrease the recurrence interval of any given flood
(D) Urbanization tends to increase the frequency of any given flood
(E) All of the above
708. What is the mechanism that causes land subsidence?
(A) A reduction in subsurface fluid pressures within sedimentary layers

(B) An increase in weight at the land surface
(C) A heavy rainfall for a prolonged time period
(D) The dissolution of soluble bedrock such as limestone exposed at the land surface
709. Tremors or vibrations of the Earth due to shock waves generated by the rupturing of deep layer rocks are known as
(A) raptures (B) fault scarp (C) earthquakes (D) continental drift (E) plate tectonics
710. The natural movement downslope of soil, regolith, or rocks under the influence of gravity without seismic motion or
heavy rainfall is collectively called
(A) avalanche (B) mass wasting (C) crustal abrasion (D) erosion by wind (E) shear stress
711. Δ 'intensity' varies from place to place according to its distance from the epicenter of a tremor, while approximates
the total physical energy released at the epicenter during a seismic movement.
(A) "scale" (B) "heft" (C) "grade' (D) "magnitude" (E) "enormity"
712. Because of the permanent danger zone, no settlement, barangay, sitio, or purok ought to be established at the foot of
an active Volcano within a radius of
(A) 4 kms (B) 5 kms (C) 6 kms (D) 7 kms (E) 8 kms
713. What relevant maps would have to be combined in order to construct a composite hydrometeorologic risk
map? (A) historic paths of Philippines' 21 cyclones average per year over a ten-year period
(B) precipitation, cloudiness, mean temperature, wind patterns of southwest & northeast monsoons, high tide and low tide
(C) location of population, type of climate, average rainfall, slope, elevation, rivers and waterways, 50yr or 100-yr flood
level (D) coastal surges, saltwater intrusion, groundwater overdraft, land subsidence, loss of soil strength, liquefaction
hazard
714. These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface of the Earth; the First gives
the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by angular measurements ranging from at the
equator to
90°at the poles, while the Second gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime
meridian, and is measured in angles ranging from at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date Line.
(A) landmass and ocean (B) Cartesian x,y points (C) north pole and south pole (D) latitude and longitude
715. In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point and line data by means
of geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments joined end-to-end to make a curved path in
space,
(A) vector (B) polygon (C) curvature (D) field (E) node
716. In a computer graphics/mapping system, the point at which a line changes direction or terminates
(A) vertex (B) vortex (C) centrifuge (D) intercept (E) intersect
717. This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image of the Earth by removing tilt of
planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane
(A) photogrammetry (B) orthophotography (C) remote sensing (D) geomatics (E) geodetics
718. An aerial photograph taken from a helicopter at a height of 80 meters would produce a map scale of 1:60 with a
margin of error of 15 millimeters. If taken from an airplane at an altitude of 10,000m, what would be the resulting map
scale?
(A) 1 : 1,000 (B) 1:2000 (C) 1:5000 (D) 1:25,000
719. In eco-engineering or convergence analysis as popularized by Dr Meliton Juanico, what kind of map is derived
by superimposing 'land suitability' and 'physical constraints' on 'existing land use'?
(A) proposed land use (B) agro-ecological zones (C) heritage & tourism overlay zones (D) disaster-resilient communities
720. What are the elements of urban form?
(A) infill, densification, property conversion, retrofitting (C) beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
(B) vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear (D) land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
721. A "tripolar" or "bipolar" form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new sections as magnets
or complete attractions for population and business, in order to ease pressure on traditional center, and is an example
of
(A) Simple Dispersion (B) Concentrated Dispersion (C) Simple Concentration (D) Compact Development
722. Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
(A) gridiron or rectilinear (B) circumferential & radial (C) un-linear/strip development (D) irregular free pattern
723. 'Tt is the merchants ethos, with our consent, that sustains the slumlord and the land rapist, the polluters of rivers
and atmosphere. In the name of profit they preempt the seashore and sterilize the landscape, fell the great forests,
fill protective marshes, build cynically in the flood plain. It is the claim of convenience – or its illusion – that drives
the expressway through neighborhoods, homes, and priceless parks, a taximeter of indifferent greed'
(A)Jane Jacobs (B) lan McHarg (C) Konstantinos Doxiadis (D) Rachel Carson (E) Arne Naess
724. Δ in the perception of space, which sense affects placement of rooms which could limit unpleasant odors?
(A) auditory (B) olfactory (C) visual (D) thermal (E) tactile (F) kinesthetic
725. Δ Which sensualtype enables one to identify materials at a distance?
(A) auditory (B) olfactory (C) visual (D) themal (E) tactile (F) kinesthetic
726. Δ What type of distance in space is that which is psychological and is indicated by a hidden band that contains two or
more individuals in a group?
(A) critical distance (B) hypnotic distance (C) flight distance (D) personal distance (E) social distance
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727. The 'clutter of cities' consists of disorderly, crisscrossing electricity/telephone utility cables, superfluous signages,
political oversized billboards advertizing messages of sensualism, materialism, and conspicuous consumption all of
which hinder ones appreciation of outstanding built structures and cityscapes.
(A) Visual blight (B) litter and nuisance (C) aesthetic decay (D) street anarchy (E) communicative pollution
728. This refers to phenomenon in an area of high building density where heat buildup is intense and characterized by
mean temperature increase of Celsius due to solar reflectance on impervious surfaces, concentration of air pollutants,
dust dome, and smog, all affecting local air circulation and micro-climatic conditions.
(A) Kelvin Aberration (B) Pollution Plumes (C) Thermal Dome (D) Infernal City (E) Urban Heat Island
729. Which the following indicates good site planning?
(A) best Orientation to Sun, Sea and Wind (D) maximized space
(B) congruence and compatibility with its surrounding (E) efficient
circulation (C) proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster (F) all of
the above
730. Which one is not an innovative element of Planned Unit Development?
(A) cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt (C) Complementarity of building types
(B) usable open space (D) preservation of significant natural land features
731. This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with trees, shrubs,
or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of Schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to
improve the environment in built-up areas.
(A) Reforestation (B) Miniature Forestry (C) Urban Forestry (D) Silvicuture (E) Agro-Forestry
732. Presidential Decree 2146 defines amenity areas' as those With high aesthetic values such as the following, except
one. (A) outstanding landscapes, Seascapes, and ViewScapes (C) heritage sites and historic places
(B) planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum (D) municipal plazas and public parks
733. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?
(A) absorbs air pollution (C) cools the air as Water transpires (E) provides shade with less electricity required
(B) gives off oxygen (D) provides habitat to wild beasts (F) muffles noise and creates an island of peace
734. This nonrenewable resource is the most pollutive source of energy that releases toxic elements such as lead and arsenic
(A) krypton (B) coal (C) hydropower (D) titanium (E) natural gas (F) ethanol
735. Which natural source of energy can be tapped by barangays and cooperatives for the electrification of all rural villages
(A) tidal power and Ocean current (D) geothermal

(B) coal and natural gas (E) methane and biogas from sanitary landfills, septic tanks, sewage treatment
(C) solar energy (F) biomass
736. All of the following, except one, interfere in the harnessing of Solar energy and natural Wind by means of
photovoltaic cells, windmills and turbines?
(A) oversized roadside tarpaulin signs (C) large smokestack cylinders and industrial chimneys
(B) height restrictions in zoning (D) trees in urban parks and on street medians
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737. This refers to the goal or principle of Urban Design that a place needs to foster a ‘sense of security and pleasantness'
emanating from vibrant street life, neighborly behavior of residents, and positive social interaction.
(A) legibility (B)imageability (G) SlR- smooth interpersonal relations (D) Conviviality (E) peace and tranquility
738. An eco-centric urban design would focus on
(A) ‘oikos' or the dynamics of the home as a collection of kindred individuals

(B) human thrill and excitement derived from living with biodiverse species and wild beasts
(C) rhythm and balance of the ecosystem; human communion with Nature in a spiritual as well as ethical sense
(D) man’s self-satisfaction as the apex of Creation and master-subduer of the Earth as stated in the Holy Scriptures
739. Smart Growth USA, with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats ‘amorphic sprawl’ by means of
(A) mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning (D) interconnected modes of transport
(B) design of walkable, bikable, sociable, healthoriented settlements (E) compact development through infilling
(C) residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered (F) All of the above
740. Under Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) of the US Green Building Council, which refers to ‘xeriscapir’
(A) planting trees that can provide food for building Occupants such as mango, avocado, apple, and Orange
trees. (B) landscape design that requires little or no irrigation or maintenance
(C) using artificial turf in place of real glass on parts of a building
(D) advanced drip irrigation system that responds to water demand by sensing soil moisture content
(E) landscape design that directs the flow of rainwater on-site to the area that requires the most irrigation.
741. Which design can be credited for Community Connectivity under LEED of the US Green Building
Council? (A) greenfield site located within shortwalking distance to many common amenities
(B) public rental housing connected by on-ramps to a large freeway intersection
(C) seven-storey commercial building linked to a food processing plant at a center a 10 hectare complex
(D) socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university
(E) suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation
742. In air-conditioning systems, the term free coolingis used to describe the use of the cooling capacity of ambient air
to directly cool the space, thereby:
(A) Reducing the peak cooling load (C) increasing ventilation rates
(B) Reducing the running hours of the chiller (D) Increasing the size of chiller required
743. An example of positive easement is one that
(A) preserves a certain habitat (C) allows the fight to harvest a natural crop
(B) protects a certain stream (D) stipulates not to drain a wetland
744. (A) auditory (B) olfactory (C) visual (D) thermal (E) tactile (F) kinesthetic
745. Which of the following population characteristics are important in determining housing
need? (A) socio-economic characteristics (D) in-migration, out-migration

(B) overcrowding (E) all of the above
(C) formation of new households/families
746. Atool used to Create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity, characterized by imitation of rustic estates or
Feudal-age manors, detailed ornamental iconography, and other manifestations of conspicuous consumption
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(A)milionaires 'row (9) red light boulevard (C) gentrification (D) yacht and polo club (E) large lot zoning
747. Δ Which agency is tasked with the registration of subdivision and condominium dealers, brokers, salesmen, associations?
(A) National Housing Authority (D) Presidential Commission on the Urban Poor
(B) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (E) Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
(C) Securities and Exchange Commission (F) Professional Regulation Commission
748. In the Philippines, low density housing development means dwelling units per
hectare. (A) 35 and below (B) 36 to 150 (C) 151 to 210 (D) 211 and above
749. Under the National Building Code, residence is not just the home structure proper but can include accessory
structures such as private garage, servants quarter, storehouse, home office, sari sari, and --
(A) carinderia (B) farm and poultry (C) day care center (D) guardhouse (E) warehouse
750. A 'single detached dwelling unit' is defined as a house that is
(A) good for one household (C) completely surrounded by a yard

(B) intended for ownership (D) with one or more of its sides abutting the property line
751. All of the following are exempted from regulation of PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977, except
(A) traditional indigenous family dwellings (D) piggery and poultry houses of over 100 sqm
(B) socialized and low-cost housing under Batas Pambansa 220 (E) sheds, outhouses, greenhouses, gazebos,
(C) garden pools, grottos, aquariums not exceeding 500 mm in depth aviaries, not exceeding 6 sqm in total area
752. Δ Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road right of
way? (A) 1/4 (B) 1/5 (C) 1/6 (D) 1/2 (E) 1/7
753. Δ Under PD 1096, what is referred to as a written authorization by the building official allowing a constructed structure to
be used by the owner/applicant?
(A) building permit (C) certificate of completion

(B) inspectorate clearance (D) certificate of occupancy
754. Δ Under PD 957, which of the following is not necessary in determining the suitability of site for economic or
socialized housing?
(A) physical suitability (D) presence of geohazard

(B) availability of basic needs (E) conformity to the national development plan
(C) on the perimeter ofan ecozone (F) links to the transport network
755. A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sqm each, on a lot area of 2000 sqm. What is the
FAR? ( A) 2:1 (B) 3:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 5:1 (E) 6:1
756. Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as 'very high
density'? (A)and above (B) 3 and above (C) 4 and above (D) 5 and above
757. What is conventional Euclidean zoning most concerned about?
(A) unhampered flow of ideas, people, goods and services (C) compatibility and non-compatibility of land uses
(B) efficiency of land occupancy and non-wastage of space (D) liberalization and free play of market forces
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758. This type of town regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height, bulk, or design so as not to
upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a landmark (eg Eiffel Tower), natural landscape, or character of
place
(A) design aesthetics (B) architectural masterplan (C) cultural mapping (D) form-zoning
759. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which consideration is first and foremost from
the perspective of the approving authority?
(A) Community disruption, relocation and the (D) Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power
required land acquisition generation, company bus shuttles, executives luxury
cars
(B) Consistency with local land use plan and with (E) Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the
zoning map Local Government Unit
(C) Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking (F) Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
760. Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use plan and zoning ordinance are obtained from
(A) Office of the Mayor / Local Chief Executive (C) Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
(B) Planning Commission or Planning & Devt Office (D) Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
761. A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the right of reverter is called
(A) restrictive covenants (B) telluric (C) deed of sale (D) monolithic
762. The negative criteria for the approval of variance is that
( A) such relief may be granted without substantial detriment to the public good
(B) such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the land use plan
(C) such relief may be granted without substantially impairing the intent and purpose of the zoning ordinance
(D) all of the above.
763. The test of 'rational basis,' as defined by the US Supreme Court,
(A) requires that all government actions be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the goal
(B) justifies a governmental action if there is a reasonable connection between the action and its goal
(C) tests the relationship between a variance and its hardship
(D) only applies to zoning actions
764. The test of compelling governmental interest" as defined by the US Supreme
Court, (A) means that conditions compel government to act the way that it does
(B) requires that governmental action be written in forceful language to compel citizens to obey
(C) requires that legislation generally be the least restrictive means of accomplishing the objective
(D) applies only if the challenged legislation has an impact on a fundamental religious tenet or suspect classification
765. According to scientific studies at UPLB, one degree Celsius (1°C) increase in temperature and humidity reduces total
rice yield by at least 8% and corn yield by at least 5%. In livestock, the loss is as much as 33% of new offsprings due to
(A) congenital defects and deformations due to mutation (C) excessive burning of calories and loss of weight
(B) reduced appetite, feed intake, and body energy reserve (D) loss of mating opportunities for breeders .
766. Which of following substances has lowest potential to contribute to air pollution & atmospheric/meteorologic anomalies?
(A) Nitrous Oxide - N2O (C) chlorofluorocarbons - CFCs (E) Methane

(B)Nitrogen Dioxide - NOX ( D) Hydrogen-containing CFCs (HCFCs) (F) Ozone
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767. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule and was
consequently phased out by the Montreal Protocol in 1989?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide (C) Chlorofluorocarbon (D) Methane (E) Nitrous oxide
768. Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of Climate Change?
(A) Loss of fertile delta regions for agriculture (D) Increased frequency of hurricanes
(B) Change in global patterns of precipitation (E) Extinction of some species that have narrow
(C) Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation temperature requirements
769. 'Climate Change' will affect the distribution of species because
(A) hot places will become hotter and cold places will become even colder
(B) lt will change the location of habitats that provide requirements for growth, survival, or reproduction
(C) carbon production and carbon footprint of different species are unequal and unevenly distributed worldwide
(D) many areas submerged in water will become dry, thus forming new land bridges like in the last glacial age
770. At the World Conference on Disaster Reduction in Kobe, Hyogo, Japan, 168 national governments adopted the Hyogo
Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA) to make the world safer and to substantially reduce disaster losses. Which of
5 priority areas below pertains to each community's coping mechanisms and modifications in its way of life?
(A) Ensure that disaster risk reduction becomes a national and local priority with strong institutional basis for implementation
(B) Identify, assess, and monitor disaster risks and enhance early warning systems.
(C) Use knowledge, innovation and education to build a culture of safety and resilience at all
levels. (D) Reduce the underlying risk factors
(E) Strengthen disaster preparedness for effective response at all levels
771. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1,5 meters or 5 feet while the setback of a
disposal field or leach field is 25 meters or 8 feet. What should be the minimum distance between your septic tank and
leach
field from your neighbors exterior wall?
(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 4 meters (D) 5 meters (E) 6 meters
772. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic
tank? (A) 15 m (B) 25 m (C) 35 m (D) 45 m (E) 55 m
773. What planning measures contribute to the evolution and development of a sustainable transportation system?
(A) Reduce need to travel (D) Give people more choices and more accessibility
(B) Change people's travel behavior (E) Provide transport with new sources of energy
(C) Integrate different modes of transport (F) All of the above
774. In the physical design of roads, which of the following increases the possibility of accidents and mishaps?
(A) prescribed dimensions according to hierarchy of roads (D) blind corners

(B) conforms to natural topography (E) moderate slope/grade
(C) conforms to BP 344 Accessibility Law (F) adequate sight distance
775. 'Traffic calming' is a
(A) course of Tai Chi and 'Qi Gong' exercises to de-stress drivers
(B) package of grade-separation measures to physically segregate vehicles and pedestrians
8585
(C) package of measures to increase capacity of local roads so that traffic can move more quickly
(D) package of traffic engineering measures to reduce speed on local roads and divert through-traffic elsewhere
(E) police enforcement campaign to reduce vehicle noise and emissions
776. Which of the following is not a measure of travel demand management (TDM)?
(A) controls on public transport (C) Controls on vehicle ownership (E) controls on parking
(B) controls on land use development (D) controls on vehicle use
777. The following represent how government subsidizes automobile use over mass transit, except one.
(A) large annual funding for highway maintenance (C) investment incentives for tollway and expressway Corporations
(B) government research on development of fuels (D) market rate and cost-recovery level for light rail fares
778. In contrast to pedal-driven 'trisikad', what is environmentalists' basis of opposition to two-stroke motor-driven
tricycles? (A) greater incidence of road accidents (C) limited Service capacity and range of movement
(B) increase in air pollution (D) slower speed increases congestion along national highways
779. The following are the basic elements of human settlements' according to Dr. Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one
pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
(A) anthropos (B) Nature (C) shells and networks (D) society (E) social structure
780. An individual, group, organization, sector, or Community who has a director indirect interest in a policy, program,
or project, who affects or is affected by -- positively or negatively -- the implementation and outcome of it, is called
(A) recipient/beneficiary (B) proponent/exponent (C) advocate (D) stakeholder (E) shareholder
781. The "SMART test" by George Doran means that both task objectivesand 'process objectiveshave to be
specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and
(A) tenable (B) truthful (C) timebound (D) testable (E) treatable
782. What is a t'heory' in urban and regional planning as a field of social
Science? (A) an educated guess being tested by numerous experiments

(B) outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors and factors
(C) a set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society
(D) a set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that has been supported by several studies in the past
783. A prediction is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical computation or statistical an model that
uses available data to extrapolate past and present trends into the future, while is a judgmental statement of what an
analyst believes to be the most likely logical future according to his/her subjective evaluation.
(A) premonition (B) forecast (C) foresight (D) vibration (E) prophecy
784. Which of the following is not a research method?
(A) questionnaire (B) interview (C) appraisal (D) case study (E) survey
785. A 'problem tree' is
(A) a kind of tree that grows in the wrong place (C) a tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
(B) a method of environmental impact assessment (D) used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems
786. In the structure of informant interviews, the acronym "STAR" method stands for
8686
(A) Select, Talk, Articulate, Relate (D) Salaries, Travels, Add-ons, Refunds
(B) Solve, Test, Analyze, Repeat (E) Simple, True, Action, Reflection
(C) Situation, Task, Action, Result
787. The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in
(A) ability to provide baseline data (C) ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data
(B) ability to measure or quantify variables (D) ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants
788. In 'Quality of Life Assessment,' which category of indicators of human ability and well-being would have a clear
spatial dimension?
(A) "to be" (B) "not to be" (C) "to dream" (D) "to become" (E) "to do"
789. An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on experimental results. If the
experimental results are to be valid, environmental chemists in other laboratories should be able to
(A) repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results
(B) perform the same experiment and obtain different results
(C) repeat the same experiment and obtain the same results
(D) perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and obtain the same results
790. An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold spore growth. Two groups of mold
spores were grown under identical conditions, except one group was exposed only to ultraviolet light, while the other
group was grown in total darkness. In this investigation, the group of mold spores grown in total darkness is known as the
(A) experimental group (B) pilot group (C) control group (D) test group (E) manipulated group (F) focus group
791. Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A technician exhaled through a straw into each tube,
and
the bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic green plant was placed into each tube, and the tubes were corked. One
tube was placed in the dark, and one was placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue,
while the one in the dark remained yellow. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in
sunlight returned to a blue color?
(A) Oxygen was used for photosynthesis. (C) Carbon dioxide was removed by
photosynthesis. (B) Oxygen was removed by respiration. (D) Carbon dioxide was produced
by respiration.
792. The use of a variety of methods, sources, or field team members, at least three in kind or category, to cross check
and validate information inorder to limit possible biases in a research study is called
(A) corroboration (B) confirmatory test (C) triangulation (D) reconnaissance (E) cross-disciplinary control 3
793. This method uses words rather than numbers to describe and measure key actors and critical factors. Words are
then arranged on a descriptive scale and given approximate numeric values for analytic purposes, but such scale
can not accurately reflect magnitude or intensity of variables and dimensions.
(A) Multi-variate Analysis (B) Qualitative Analysis (C) Muddling Through (D) Phenomenology
794. What is the smallest time frame using the cohort survival method of population
analysis? (A) 2 years (B) 3 years (C) 4 years (D) 5 years (E) 6 years
795. A 6ountry currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 35 percent. If the growth rate
remains constant, what will be the population of this country in 40 years?
8787
(A) 150 million (B) 200 million (C) 300 million (D) 400 million (E) 600 million
796. This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied to the groups members
without regard for individual variation or unknown ,factors that can come from human attitude and idiosyncratic
behavior.
(A) sweeping generalization (C) ecological fallacy (E) begging the question
(B) argumentum ad hominem (D) equivocation (F) fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent
797. How many square meters are there in one acre?
( A) 328 (B) 1,250 (C) 4,047 (D) 8,700 (E) 43,560
798. How many acres are there in one hectare?
2.47 (B) 0.96 (C) 3.28 (D) 10 (E) 100 )A(
799. How many hectares are there in one square kilometer
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1,000 (D) 10,000
800. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius, its approximate equivalent in
Syteme Internationale metric measurements is 1055
joules.
(A) calorie (B) Kelvin (C) BTU-British Thermal Unit (D) kilojoule (E) PSI-pounds per square
inch
801. Tempo of urbanization refers to
(A) the rate at which population increases in a given year due to the surplus of births over deaths, expressed as
percentage of base population
(B) an indicator used to express the speed at which an area is urbanizing, usually measured as difference between
urban growth rate and rural growth rate
(C) rate at which the population is increasing (or decreasing) due to natural increases and net migration,expressed as
a percentage of the base population
(D) the number of years a population would take to double in size if its current growth rate remains the
same
802. The key to urban sustainability lies in
(A) Large infrastructure projects funded by donors motivationconsumer

choices' (B) Stopping people migrating to the city
(C) Teaching people
discipline
(D) Holistic approaches which deal with environmental, economic, social and political needs and
pressures
803. The change in global average human life expectancy between the years 1900 and 2000 is most likely the result of
(A) abundance of food and eradication of Worldwide hunger

(B) improved technologies to ensure air quality and soil
quality
(C) medical research progress and introduction of new techniques to control
disease
(D) improved land management and land use regimes
804. Labor Force is more accurately defined as comprising all persons
(A) aged 18 to 65 years currently employed, underemployed, or active in the informal sector or underground
economy (B) aged 16 to 64 years regardless of gender, economic status, qualification, physical fitness, mental health
condition (C) aged 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive work or
employment
(D) aged 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy, numeracy, Writing, and analytical
skills
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805. Based on National Statistics Offices definition, women of this age range are presumed to be fertile and childbearing
(A) 12yrs to 42yrs (B) 14yrs to 44 yrs (C) 15 yrs to 49 yrs (D) 16 yrs to 36 yrs (E) 17 yrs to 37 yrs
806. Of 145,382 informal settler households in Metro Manila in 2004-2010, 6802 households settled along Pasig River,
21,047 settled along esteros, 34367 settled along the riles, and 82896 households occupied public and private
lands. What is primary mode of informal settlement in Metro Manila?
(A) 'along da riles' (B) 'along esteros' (C) 'along the Pasig' (D) 'occupation of public and private land'
807. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes
the mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines
(A) RA7279 (8) RA7160 (c) RA1010 (D) RA 6969
808. In the words of PD 933, "the human settlements approach" emphasizes
(A) socialized housing, low-cost housing, economic housing, and cooperative housing
(B) Plato's ideals of the true, the good, and the beautiful
(C) family, employment, community, (folk-work-place), freedom of belief, and ecological balance
(D) habitability, quality of life, efficiency, economy, social opportunity, convenience, and beauty
809. Under Executive Order 90, the agency that is responsible for coordinating activities of government agencies to ensure
the accomplishment of the National Shelter Program is
(A) NHA (B) HLURB (C) HUDCC (D) NHMFC (E) HDMF or Pag-ibig (F) HIGC
810. In a 'house and lot' package, the price of the lot shall not be more than of the
whole. (A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 35% (D) 40%
811. Under BP 220, the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the following order of importance.
(A) electricity, recreation, transport vehicles, market for foodstuffs, water supply, solid waste facility
(B) health center, daycare center, church, public school, assembly hall, basketball court, and cellsites
(C) water, roads for circulation, stormwater drainage, disposal of solid and liquid wastes, power, park/playground
(D) police station, fire station, government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk lines
812. According to PD 957 Sec. 28, when a government office or public institution is located inside a private subdivision,
the rights of access of which group should take precedence?
(A) the rights of property owners over the rights of the taxpayers
(B) the rights of the general public over the rights of the subdivision homeowners
(C) the rights of government officials over the rights of businessmen
(D) the rights of public utility vehicle operators over the rights of private car owners
813. Land Banking or land assembly refers to the right of the State to acquire land in advance of actual need through
(A) eminent domain, expropriation, confiscation (C) raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills
(B) readjustment, realignment, replatting (D) sale, purchase, exchange, negotiation, and similar techniques L 314
814. Under PD 1517, a disposition technique used by the State to enable occupants of government-owned land to
exercise ownership over occupant-introduced improvements.
(A) land grant (B) doleout (C) tenure in improvement (D) co-ownership (E) patent
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815. Following Rostow's theory, as an economy develops, a smaller percentage of the workforce tends to be employed in
(A) agriculture, because industrialization decreases the value of rural

land
(B) agriculture, because investment in technology increases yield per unit effort and decreases labor
demand
(C) industry, because the profit from extracting natural resources
increases
(D) industry, because productivity increases as labor costs
rise
(E) services, because technology increases efficiency in the provision of
services
816. Economic self-sufficiency or spatial closure, as in the case of isolationist Cuba and Bhutan, is regarded by a few thinkers as
a desirable goal of territorial development because
(A) it shifts attention to the promotion of tourism (C) it cushions a territory from external economic
shocks
(B) it earns substantial remittances from workers (D) it leads to an increase in both imports and exports
through sent abroad globalization
817. Which of the following illustrates why natural resource development may not promote local economic
development? (A) Foreign engineers and technical specialists are given priority in mining employment
(B) Royalties from forestry are remitted only to national tax collection
agencies.
(C) Profits repatriated by Multi-National Corporations are larger than their yearly Foreign Direct
Investment (D) Duty-free shops of high-end goods cater to expatriate communities around an energy
generation plant (E) Filipino managers and employees use only imported luxuries and foreign-branded
products.
(F) All of the above
818. Which of the following is not a virtue of free markets?
(A) 'motivation' (B) 'efficiency' (C) 'productivity' (D) 'equity' (E) 'diverse consumer
choices'
819 . In what way is the mix of basic sector employment and non-basic employment in a city/town
important? (A) a little farm villages economic structure will be mostly basic.
(B) Basic workers rely on the areas nonbasic workers in the preparation of food, clothing and
shelter. (C) Cities/towns with more basic than nonbasic jobs tend to be more self-sufficient.
(D) Basic employment brings money into the area; nonbasic employment sends money out of the
area.
820. 'Break-of-bulk' points explain why economic activities are where they are, Which best illustrates a break-of-bulk
point? (A) Service industries appear near or around urban industrial zones
(B) A village develops ata portage where traders must carry their canoes across
land
(C) A third grocery store locates in the gap between two
competitors
(D) company reaches the critical size when it feels the need to
franchise.
821. Remittances of migrant Filipinos and overseas contract workers add up to around US$20-billion per year, almost 20% of
Philippines' Gross Domestic Product. In economics, these cash transfers are collectively
called
(A) non-portfolio investment (C) Net Factor Income from Abroad (E) Family
obligations
(B) Overseas Filipino Investment (D) Foreign Direct Investment (F) Balance of
Payment
822. Which combination of three is the best example of primary, secondary, and tertiary activities, in that
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order? (A) farmer, shoemaker, newspaper reporter (C) forester, carpenter, cabinet-
maker
(B) lumber mill, gas station attendant, car manufacturer (D) miner, farmer,
banker
823. In the formulation of CLUP, Location Quotient (LQ) analysis is useful to identify
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(A) diversity of industry (B) comparative advantage (C) compatibility of land uses (D) centrality of location
824. This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time and passed on for
posterity, (A) national patrimony (B) customs & traditions (C) patriotic legacy (D) cultural heritage (E) bequeaths
& bequests
825. This refers to sustainable travel to a heritage area or natural area to observe wildlife or exotic ecosystems, to help C
preserve nature; while also providing for community participation, protection and management of natural resources,
environmental
education, and economic benefits for the enrichment of host communities and the satisfaction of visitors.
(A) domestic tourism (B) cultural tourism (C) ecotourism (D) educational excursion (E) pleasure trip
826. Which of the following institutions would be least-involved in the official determination of a heritage site?
(A) HLURB (C) National Commission on Culture and the Arts (E) Department of Tourism
(B) National Museum (D) Cultural Center of the Philippines (F) National Historical Institute
827. It is a preliminary study undertaken before an endeavor actually starts to ascertain the likelihood of its success
by examining in detail its market, technical, environmental, social, financial, economic, and organizational
viability.
(A) Investment Study (B) Interdisciplinary Study (C) Feasibility Study (D) TOMTotal Ouality Management
828. Governments development projects, whether sectoral or cross-sectoral, generally aim to
(A) Minimize costs (B) Minimize effects (C) Maximize profits (D) Maximize impact 8
829. What is the first element of the Project Planning Cycle?
(A) project preparation (B) brainstorming of ideas (C) budget & appropriations (D) problem analysisneeds assessment
830. Which is not among the direct benefits of a project?
(A) producer surplus (B) consumer satisfaction (C) cashtransfer (D) government fiscal savings (E) higher value of goods
831. The function of a baseline study is to assist project management to
(A) understand the bottom lineof a project (D) determine minimum deliverables to the principals
(B) find the lowest possible level of costs (E) set bedrock parameters for project operational behavior
(C) see whether change takes place (F) set precise objectives
832. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Social analysis quantifies risk and potential damage to society

(B) Social analysis identifies needs and priorities of project beneficiaries
(C) Social analysis screens and selects people ideal for a project
(D) Social analysis shows the conceptual detail that convinces donor agencies to fund a project
833. A Cost-Benefit Analysis (CBA) usually includes
(A) measurement of expenditure, tradeoffs, as well as stakeholder benefits, implementor's profits and psychic income
(B) transparent overview of monetary costs and benefits to investors
(C) an explanation or justification for overspending or underspending on the projects budget
(D) estimation of social, economic, and other possible gains and losses for people affected whether directly and indirectly
834. Which is not a component of Cost-Benefit Analysis?
(A) internal rate of return (C) net present value (E) accounting profit before taxes
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(B) economic rate of return (D) benefit-cost ratio (F) None of the above
835. A tool used to estimate the difference between public costs and public revenues generated by a project for the LGU
in which it occurs, specifically the projects bearing on LGU finances, without considering overal economic effects
onthe community
(A) cost-revenue analysis (B) fiscal impact analysis (C) zero-based budgeting (D) capital rationing
836. In infrastructure development, "unsolicited proposals" are in a sense "irregular" because
(A)they might not conform to the set goals and priorities of incumbent administration and its declared plans/policies
(B) their proponents are usually not in existing government database of contractors/implementors with proven
record (C) they are not subjected to background investigation or character investigation which is standard for private
banks (D) current system has very short period to check the worth, the viability of, and alternatives to, unsolicited
projects (E) all of the above
837. Which of the following can be clustered as the 'biophysical' dimension in infrastructure planning and
development? (A) sand, gravel, cement, asphalt, steel, wrought iron, galvanized iron, alloys and component
materials
(B) who benefits? who pays? what are revenues to LGU? obligations of contractor? borrowings of national
government? (C) site layout, structural design, façade, frontage, retrorse, vertical soundness, horizontal spread,
(D) topography, hydrology, lithology (soils), vegetation, land cover, climate
838. Under which phase of the Project Cycle does "detailed design and engineering" fall?
(A) Preinvestment phase (C) Project Preparation and Feasibility Study (E) Project Screening
(B) Investment phase (D) Project Appraisal and Funding Approval (F) Project Operation
839. In project implementation and project management, what is Murphy's
Law? (A) "If you fail to plan, then you plan to fail.
(B) "If you don't learn from the mistakes of the past, you are bound to repeat
them. (C) "If something is paid for, it will get done for sure.
(D) "If something can go wrong, eventually it will go wrong.
(E) "If you have the money, there is no point not to spend
it.
840. In personnel management, a "competency" is defined as ability to perform a particular task effectively. What are the
basic types of competencies?
(A) competitiveness, assertiveness, aggression (D) knowledge-based competencies and behavioral competencies
(B) talent, aptitude, giftedness, virtuosity (E) field-based competencies and office-based competencies
(C) reading, numeric, and analytic competencies
841. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) A 'performance assessment' is generally done every 1 to 2 years.

(B) A 'performance assessment' is based on observed results and behavior.
(C) A 'performance assessment' is based on information from at least two
sources. (D) A 'performance assessment' is dialogue with a negotiated outcome.
(E) A 'performance assessment' must be a transparent process.
842. You are working with Human Resource Department in analyzing the staffing and deployment for your project. Which of
the following documents would you primarily referto during this process?
(A) Salary Scale and Payroll Form (C) Work Breakdown Structure
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(B) Resource Breakdown Structure (D) Organizational Breakdown Structure
843. You are at a critical stage of your land use project. Unfortunately your infrastructure engineer and the GlS specialist
from your partner-agency do not get along. What is the best thing to do?
(A) Ignore the situation. Its just a personal Conflict. (C) Bring the two together to solve the problem
(B) Ask the partner-agency to replace the GlS specialist (D) Talk to each and tell them that it is clearly
the other ones fault.
844. Which of the following is not a win-win principle of Getting to 'Yes' style of conflict management of the Harvard's
JFK School of Government?
(A) Separate people from the problem (C) Focus on interests, not on positions
(B)Try subornment and grease instead of head-on collision (D) Focus on the problem, not on the people
.
845. According to the Harvard's JFK School of Government, the most collaborative response to conflict from the list below
is? (A) Litigation (B) Mediation (C) Negotiation (D) Adjudication (E) Confrontation
846. Avery important principle in project implementation is
(A) scrimp and save as much as possible to pool money for the year-end incentives pay
(B) pay all participants generously to attain stakeholder satisfaction even if project is not completed
(C) Be principled and never make any adjustments to the project's LogFrame
(D) Get the project done as planned, on time, and within the budget
(E) Make sure that PR practitioners write reports in glowing language and submit them in world-class layout-format
847. What are the three documents that form the basis of financial
management? (A) Ledger, Book of Accounts, Balance Sheet

(B) Income Statement, Expenditure Report, Budget
(C) Cash-Flow Statement, Profit-Loss Statement, Bank Statement
(D) Capital Outlay, Income before Taxes, End-of-Year Statement on Financial Performance
848. A What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a
contract? (A) surety (B) assurance (C) performance (D) warranty (E) reparation
849. It is the systematic, timely, and regular gathering of feedback about the progress of a project in terms of
inputs, operations, and outputs and the timely provision of appropriate support or intervention, if necessary.
(A) surveillance (B) reconnaissance (C) supervision (D) monitoring (E) espionage
850. A system of inputting, collating, and organizing data that would provide selective data and analytic reports
to Management, to assist in monitoring and controlling a projects organization, resources, activities, and results.
(A) EDP – Electronic Data Processing (C) PDS – Project Development information Service
(B) ICT - Information and Communication Technologies (D) MIS - Management Information System
851. To implement cross-sectoral development projects that are spread widely apartin an archipelago, what would be a
more suitable organizational setup?
(A) hierarchic command structure (C) TQM learning circles (E) centralized Project Management Office
(B) strong horizontal or matrix organization (D) ad hoc task forces (F) Management By Objectives
852. What is a major difference between monitoring and evaluation?

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(A) There is no difference between 'monitoring and evaluation' that's why they always go together.
(B) Monitoring looks at objective quantifiable data while evaluation weighs subjective judgments and
perceptions. (C) Evaluation looks into the 'why' question while monitoring looks into how much.
(D) Monitoring assesses the performance of project staff, evaluation assesses performance of project management
(E) Monitoring is done within the control of project management while evaluation is done by higher management
853. Which of the following statements on evaluation is false?
(A) 'Efficiency' criterion asks whether results were achieved at reasonable costs
(B)'Effectiveness' criterion assesses how results impacted on the objective
(C) 'Relevance' criterion assesses if the project fitted into the Wider social context and priorities of
government. (D) 'Sustainability' criterion assesses whether the issuance of CNC or ECC was justified
(E) 'Impact' criterion assesses whether project has made a dent on real-life conditions & needs of target beneficiaries
854. What are the four principles to guide evaluation?
(A) time, talent, treasure, trust (C) adequacy, anticipation, timeliness, responsiveness
(B) outputs, outcomes, results, effects (D) impartiality, stakeholder participation, credibility and usefulness
855. An analytical, presentational, and management tool that involves problem analysis, stakeholder analysis, developing a
ladderlike chain of objectives, and selecting a preferred implementation strategy, usually taking the form of a four-by-
four table that summarizes what the project intends to do and how, what the key assumptions are, and how outputs and
outcomes will be monitored and evaluated
(A) Primavera (B) Force Field Analysis (C) Logical Framework (D) Logical Decision Window
856. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the
LogFrame? (A) Results define the objective and activities contribute to
goals.
(B) The goal leads to objectives, which contribute to results, which define activities
(C) The results of objectives lead to activities that contribute to the goal
(D) Activities lead to results, which lead to the objective, which contributes to a goal
857. Which of the following ordered steps of Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) refers to ascertaining
the difference between expected time and latest time?
(A) define tasks (C) estimate time to complete each task (E) find probability of meeting expected time
(B) link tasks in sequence (D) find slack time
858. Which of the following ordered steps of Critical Path Method (CPM) is 'iterative' or continually interactive to enable
the whole process to make adjustments under different assumptions or different conditions
(A) revise PERT estimates to arrive at minimum time, neither wasting nor sparing costs
(B) estimate time and cost, crashed and normal
(C) determine cost-per-week for crashing(crashed costs/time saved)
(D) 'crash' cheapest path on the critical path
(E) recalculate project network, continue 'c' & 'd' until all paths are 'crashed'
(F) ease up on noncritical paths, until all paths are critical
859. Substantive due process" refers to the legitimacy of government purpose to protect public good, through a conceivable,
believable rationality in its decisions. What dimension of due process refers to notice and an opportunity to be heard in
a fundamentally fair hearing by an impartial tribunal?
(A) fundamental due process (B) judicial due process (C) procedural due process (D) administrative due process
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860. An example of this is when government acquires land for public buildings, highways, and public welfare purposes.
(A) sovereignty (B) Constitutional Supremacy (C) eminent domain (D) seizure & confiscation (E) transfer & exchange
861. Which benefit from a 'national land use code' would strengthen preservation/conservation rather than market mechanisms
(A) guarantee land rights, enhance security of tenure, enhance mobility and ease of transfer of A & D properties
(B) reduce land disputes and thus improve urban planning and infrastructure development
(C) serve as rational basis for land taxation and property taxation
(D) protect State lands and promote environmental management
(E) develop land markets and system of mortgage finance, provide access to loans and security of credit
862. 'TEPO' from the Supreme Court of the Republic of the Philippines, means
(A) Transmutation of Environmental Penalty Ordinance (C) Trans-agency Edict on Pollutive Occupations
(B) Temporary Environmental Protection Order (D) Total Elimination of pornography and Obscenity
863. Used in case against Exxon Valdez oil spill in 1989, this doctrine of common law maintains that the State holds
natural resources in trust for the public, now and in the future, and that government has the duty to protect the
public's interest in natural resources, which citizens can not do separately and individually.
(A) environmental justice (B) transparency and accountability (C) public trust doctrine (D) State stewardship
864. Which kind of land can be converted into other uses with the least legal complication?
(A) mangrove swamps (B) shrubland and grassland (C) mudflats & salinas (D) municipal plaza (E) road right of way
865. Under RA 6657 CARL, the owner of land under CARP can retain for himself/herself alone
(A) 3 hectares (B) 5 hectares. (C) 7 hectares (D) 9 hectares (E) 11 hectares
866. Of the following cases of land conversion, which one needs to prove that the land has ceased to be "economically
feasible and sound for agricultural purposes," to be certified by the Secretary of Agriculture?
(A) conversion of cropland into irrigation facility (D) conversion of cropland into protected area for rare species
(B) conversion of cropland into national RROW (E) conversion of cropland into heritage site and ecotourist
spot (C) conversion of cropland into commercial center (F) conversion of cropland into LGU buffer / fioodholding
area
867. The following were made members of the NEDA Board between 2001-2010, all of them without Cabinet rank, except
one. (A) Governor of Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (D) Chairman of Commission on Information & Comm
Technologies
(B) National President, Union of Local Authorities of Phils (E) Chairman of Subic-Clark Area Development Corporation
(C) Chairman of Metro Manila Development Authority (F) Governor of Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao
868. Who among the current members of the Regional Development Council do not hold an appointive office?
(A) regional executive directors of agriculture, agrarian reform, DENR (C) regional director of Philippine National Police
(B) LCEs of component provinces & chartered or autonomous units (D) official reps or proxies of congressmen
869. The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.
(A) manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles
(B) assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances, and appurtenances
(C) manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac, coating materials
(D) manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts, shoes, and sandals
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(E) publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, fliers, receipts, greeting cards, social communications
870. What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of Non-Coverage?
(A) Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed, Loans to be contracted, Expected
ROI (B) Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower Reqts, Cost, Duration &
Schedule (C) Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management, and Marketing
(D) Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements, Participating Entities
871. What are the basic elements of an EIA study?
(A) Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic Aspect, and Institutional Aspect
(B) Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of Data, Conclusions,
Recommendations (C) Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact, Spatial Extent,
Duration, and Complexity (D) Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions, Post
Implementation
872. Which of he following is most useful in an ElA study?
(A) performance standards ( C) design standards

(B) 'LOS' or accommodation standards (D) convenience standards
873. Which would not be a priority for investigation in ElA of a complex proposing limestone quarrying and cement
production? (A) Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, (C) Consumption of electricity, water, and
other
critical habitats, heritage sites, and endangered species utilities
(B) Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, (D) Company policies on hiring and firing and
common industrial wastes, and toxic/hazardous wastes management training
874. A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical nutrients would be an example of
(A) osmosis (B) hypoalimentation (C) eutrophication (D) fertilization (E) denitrofication
875. If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of thermal pollution, the immediate result will
most likely be
(A) an increase in the sewage content of the lake (C) an increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
(B) a decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake (D) a decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake
876. A common layman's attitude that says solid waste or hazardous facilities should not be located near one's home
or community.
(A) P.I.M.O. (B) N.I.M.B.Y. (C) F.O.N.S.I. (D) E.T.J. (E) B.o.B.
877. What are L.U.L.U.'s?
(A) Legally Unhampered Land Utilization (C) Locally Unwanted Land Uses
(B) Large Unified Land Undertakings (D) Legally Under-Aged Lady Urbanites
878. The presence of which of the following contaminants would be the strongest reason for judging municipal sewage
sludge as unfit for conversion into and use as fertilizer.
(A) Human feces (B) Ammonia (C) Phosphates (D) Heavy metals (E) Nitrates
879. Which of the following constitutes pre-consumer recycled content?
(A) a tile facility reuses shards of tile broken during the manufacturing process to make a new tile
(B) a steel manufacturing facility uses recycled steel melted down from old cars
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(C) a steel manufacturing facility recycles rebar from Old Construction projects to make steel beams
(D) a curtain manufacturer purchases scrap trimmings from a carpet manufacturer
880. At present, the major environmental problem with nuclear power as Source of electricity is
(A) shortage of uranium and plutonium (D) larges-cale combustion or explosion as in Japan, March
12,2011 (B) disposal of radioactive waste (E) fissures and leaks on building walls
(C) meltdown of the core nuclear reactor (F) GHG emission and air pollution
881. The process in which toxic and hazardous waste (THW) materials are injected into an underground rock layer is called
(A) fission (B) sub-littoral deposition (C) deep-well injection (D) surface impoundment (E) chemical neutralization
882. Exposure to Cosmic rays, -rays, ultraviolet rays, and radiation from radioactive Substances may promote
(A) the production of similar organisms (C) hyperactive stimulation of internal organs
(B) new inheritable characteristics (D) a change from sexual to asexual reproduction
883. Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental
remediation'? (A) A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake,

(B) The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
(C) The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
(D) PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with
PCBs. (E) A parcel of forestland is declared a state park.
884. Whereas the EIA of the 1970s has traditionally focused on the impact of specific projects on the environment, Strategic
Environmental Assessment (SEA) focuses on
(A) The impact of overall development programmes, plans, and policies on the natural environment
(B) The methods to assess environmental damage and their negative impacts on Society
(C) The strategies to maximize impact of environment and natural resource utilization
(D) The strategies to lessen environmental degradation as a necessary trade-off in development
885. Δ Which of these does not improve the effectiveness of social participation? .
(A) Identify interested and affected parties in relation to the proposed development
(B) Provide accurate, understandable, relevant & timely information
(C) Ensure that decision-makers are kept at a distance from interested and affected parties
(D)Incorporate public concerns into decisions
886. Δ Public participation is important for each of the following reasons except
(A) Decision-making competency improves (C) The decision-making process is speeded up

(B) The legitimacy of the decision increases (D) Participants become more responsible democratic citizens
887. The Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act of the Republic of the Philippines is numbered as
(A) Act 3019 (B) Republic Act 1530 (C) Republic Act 6040 (D) Republic Act 6969
888. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines, Sec. 11, the "primary obligation of the
Environmental Planner is to"
(A) "contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and improving
knowledge. (B) "strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
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(C) "develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with Colleagues and other
professionals
(D)serve the country and in so doing safeguard public
interest
(E)maintain a harmonious working relationship with clientor partnerin a noble
undertaking.
889. Which of the following is the role of the planner according to the APA Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct? (A) assist in the clarification of community goals, objectives, and policies in plan-making
(B) strive to give citizens the opportunity to have a meaningful impact on the development of plans and
programs
(C) have special concern for the long range consequences of present
actions
(D) ensure that participation be broad enough to include people who lack formal organization or
influence
E all of the above
890. Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planners responsibility to his/her private
client? (A) Do not plagiarize.

(B) Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely
fashion
(C) Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by
evidence
(D) Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept restricted by concerned
party
(E) when in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with
participants.
891. Δ Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?
(A) falsely injures the practice of other environmental

planners
(B) provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
(C) affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or
supervise
(D) enters competitions where she has direct involvement in program
formulation
(E) all of the above
892. Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?
(A) Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your consulting
services
(B) making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed when previously employed in
the private sector
(C) accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the Vendors' and sponsors' area of a
planners' convention
(D) reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed Work experience in a job
originally occupied by you.
893. Δ In the Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners, to whom does the EnP have responsibility to seek opportunities
for constructive service in civic community affairs?
(A) Own Clientele (B) Professional Organization (C) Public or Society-at-Large (D) Political Party in
Power
894. Δ Which of the following compensation methods applies to cases where the environmental planners personal time
is rendered, such as at Conferences, seminars, fora, ceremonial activities, etc7
(A) commission on total project cost (D) percentage cut of direct personnel services (PS)
(B) opetime lump sum fee (E) per diem plus reimbursement of actual
expenses (C) regular retainers' fee (F) moderate their greed
895. A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid consultant in a matter not シ
9898
pertaining to your employers jurisdiction. You Would Work only on your off-days and holidays. You should
(A) report the housing developer for unethical behavior (C) decline the
offer
(B) make Courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor (D) keep quiet about
it
9999
896. A private sector planner is preparing a site plan for a private company. He intends to secure local government approval
for his clients development project since it could lead to additional work for him in the subsequent phases of the
project.
(A)This constitutes a conflict of interest (C) There is variance in codal standards for public and private planners
(B) There is no conflict of interest in this case (D) The Code of Ethics has inadequate provision for this kind
of dilemma
897. A group of concerned residents who live near a proposed petrol refinery takes their case to court and subpoenas the
CPDC to testify. The CPDC provides some information to the citizens' group as they prepare their case. He also
testifies truthfully in court about the value of project to the community. The following are true about the behavior of
CPDC, except
(A) The CPDC was acting in ethically responsible manner in trying to protect the integrity of the natural environment
(B) The CPDC served the public interest by providing information to stakeholders preparing their case
(C) The CPDC exhibited a concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed land use changes.
(D) The CPDC should not have testified in court because the obey first before complain rule" means that a
planner merely accepts the decisions of his/her principals.
898. ln contrast to project managers in the private sector, project managers of public sector development projects are
often handicapped operationally and forced to
(A) Work without objectives (C) Ignore objectives and concentrate on "getting the job
done" (B) Work with contradicting objectives (D) Spend much time in adjusting objectives to reality
899. According to Kerzner, a Project Manager should spend 90% of his/her time communicating. If you are manager of a
team of 5, how many communication channels do you personally have in the team?
(A) four (B) five (C) twenty-four (D) twelve
900. This is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team to
accomplish the project objectives and produce the required deliverables.
(A) Multi Tasking Protocol (B) Work Breakdown Structure (C) Shewhart Deming Control Chart (D) lshikawa Fishbone Diagram
101101101
901. If "pre-industrial society" is mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and relatively

parochial, "industrial society" in contrast
(A) minimizes farming to channel capital into factories

(B) prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
(C) aims for mass production through mechanization & automation
(D) relies on the output of white-collar professionals
902. Due to greater division of labor, there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of
workers beginning with
(A) primitive subsistence society (B) pre-industrial society (C) industrial society (D) post-industrial society
903. Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the city-state, the 'marketplace' was the site where ancient
Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also for political, social, and other
secular activities
(A) 'Parthenon' (B) 'gymnasium' (C) 'erechtheum' (D) 'agora' (E) 'sumposion'
904. In the biggest and most crowded city during Antiquity, poor residents of Rome (44 BCE) lived on units
in multi-storey residential buildings which they rented but could not own; these were called
(A) 'abode' (B) 'domus' (C) 'appartement' (D) 'tenema'
905. According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers and
opportunists push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they define new
land uses for themselves in a process called
(A) evolution (B) co-location (C) succession (D) acclimatization (E) cohabitation
906. This refers to a period in US planning history (1890s) when cities were conceived as total systems
designed with broad circulation arteries, network of parks, cluster of focal buildings, and blocks of
civic centers in aesthetic harmony.
(A) New Towns Movement (B) City Efficient Movement (C) City Beautiful Movement (D) City Functional
Mvmt
907. Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wrights 'Broadacre City' (1932)?
(A) each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land
. (B) food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
(C) manufacture commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
(D) work within walking distance from the home
(E) railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
(F) densification would preserve much open space
908. An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon the historic
city of traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and homes would be within
walking distance of each other.
(A) Neo-Populism (B) Eco-Village (C) New Urbanism (D) Dynapolis (E) Transit-Oriented Development
909. In Clarence Steins Six Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns traffic caused
by roadside parking
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(A) Plan simply, but comprehensively

(B) Provide ample sites in the right places for community use
(C) Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful transportation of
people and goods
(D) Cars must be stored inside homes
(E) Bring private land and public land into relationship
(F) Arrange for the occupancy of houses
910. All of the following are true about urban planning except
(A) changing a city's physical form does not automatically reshape social life
(B) planning always takes place within a framework of economic and political
realities (C) planners should be allowed to control all technical aspects of how cities
are built (D) the goals of the planning experiments of the last century have not been
met
(E) cities should be designed in a way that fosters economic, social, cultural and environmental integration.
911. In his "Theory of Good City Form,' he argued that norms such as vitality, sense, fit, access,
control, efficiency, and justice – ought to characterize the performance of cities as settlements.
A) Kevin Lynch (B) Edward Tollman (C) John Trawls (D) Camillo Sitte
912. What is the smallest unit in the human settlements planning" by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis
(1951)? (A) house (B) anthropos (C) organism (D) neighborhood (E) hamlet
913. Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under Ekistics school of Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis
(1951)
(A) ecumenopolis (B) megalopolis (C) metropolis (D) agropolis (E) eperopolis
914. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, one of the following is not among the types of cities in the
Philippines. (A) Highly Urbanized Cities (B) Independent Cities (C) Sister Cities (D) component
Cities
915. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly
Urbanized City?
(A) at least 200,000 (B) at least 500,000 (C) at least 1 million (D) at least 10 million
916. In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a service
viable. (A) resident population (B) captive market (C) threshold population (D) population explosion
917. In Walter Christaller's central place theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of 'first-
order services' while grocery store, gas station, furniture, and post office are examples of
(A) secondary services (B) tertiary services (C) quaternary services (D) quinary services
918. "Young dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
(A)0 -4 (B) 0-6 (C) 0-10 (D) 0-14

103103103
919. "Old dependents" in the Philippine setting refers to population with ages
(A) 60 and above (B) 65 and above (C) 70 and above (D) 80 and above
920. "Working-age population" including those actively seeking and not seeking work, covers those with
ages between
A) 10-65 (B) 15-64 (C) 18-65 (D) 21-60
921. In the following formal statement on population policy(2010-2016) from President Benigno Simeon
Aquino lll, which statement pertains to the States obligation to inform its citizens of all family
planning alternatives from A to Z.
(A) "... I am against abortion as outlawed by the Philippine Constitution.

(B) "... I am in favor of giving couples the right to choose how best to manage their families so that in
the end, their welfare and that of their children are best served.
(C)...The State must respect each individuals right to follow his or her conscience and religious convictions
on matters and issues pertaining to the unity of the family and the sacredness of human life
from conception to natural death.
(D) ... In a situation where couples, especially the poor and disadvantaged ones, are in no position to
make an informed judgment, the State has the responsibility to provide complete information:
(E)...In the range of options provided to couples, natural family planning and modern methods shall
always be presented as equally available."
922. According to RA 9710, this refers to the strategy for making women's as well as men's concerns and
experiences an integral dimension of the design, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation of policies
and programs in all political, economic, and societal spheres so that women and men benefit equally
and inequality is not perpetuated.
(A) integration & rationalization (B) gender mainstreaming (C) sexual equality (D) transgender accommodation
923. Which of the following is not a part of the General Welfare Clause of RA 7160 LGC Section 167
(A) hospitality and festivity (C) balanced ecology & social justice (E) preservation & enrichment of culture
(B) economic prosperity (D) health and safety (F) appropriate self-reliant science & technology
924. A duly-registered cooperative acquires a river-dredging machinery and waste-water treatment equipment.
Should such acquisitions be subject to real property taxation under RA 7160 LGC Section 234?
(A) Yes (B) No (C) It depends on the Local Chief Executive (D) subject to the discretion of Assessor.
925. Which of the following is not considered idle land under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 2377
(A) Agriculture land of at least one-hectare with 50% of whole area bare and uncultivated
(B) Urban land of at least 1,000 sq.m. with 50% of whole area unutilized and unimproved upon
(C) Grazing land with thick grasses used for pasture of 100 heads of cattle
(D) Stud farm on public land with no ongoing breeding or training activities
926. Under RA 7160 LGC, who among the following incumbents' may be allowed to practice his/her
primary profession while in public office?
(A) Local Chief Executive (B) Congressman/Representative (C) Vice-Governor (D) Municipal Accountant
104104104
327. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec 98, who among the following members of the Local School Board, other
than the Governor or Mayor, has an elective office?
(A) Division Superintendent or District Supervisor

( B) LGU Treasurer
(C) chairperson of sanggunians committee on education
(D) Representatives of federations of teachers, SK youth, PTAs, non-academics
928. Under the super-region concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega Manila
Extended Urban Region, would focus on
(A) hacienda farming (B) meat processing (C) commodity logistics chain (D) cyber services (E) tourism
929. Of the so-called "super-regions," which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage
in tourism?
A) North Luzon (B) Central Philippines (C) Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Rgn (D) Davao Silicon Gulf
930. Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by Paul Davidoff
(1965) (A) Single women with children were assisted to find employment.
(B) Social planning was moved from backroom negotiations into the open public
forum. (C) Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
(D) Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
(E) Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
931. "Decide, announce, defend" summarizes "top-down" planning and management; its opposite in
'bottom up' planning and management that involves multiple stakeholders would be described as –
(A) delegate, deload, discharge (C) debate, distill, deliberate

(B) discuss, decide, deliver (D) dispute, discourse,direct
932. Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969), which steps' would require the
planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than "advice," "direction," or "manipulation"?
(A) counseling; therapy (C) informing

(B) consultation; placation (D) partnership; delegated power; citizen control
933. UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land (residential, commercial,
industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farm need to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban
land is needed for a town of 22,000?
(A) 62.7 hectares (B) 125.4 hectares (C) 220 hectares (D) 1.14 hectares
934. UN-FAO standards state that at least ,60 hectares should be devoted to education (public and private)
per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
(A) 40 hectares (B) 24 hectares (C) 10 hectares (D) 240 hectares
935. HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved for every 1,000
population. How much total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered city of 200,000
people?
(A) 200 hectares (B) 400 hectares (C) 500 hectares (D) 2,500 hectares
105105105
936. In terms of land use compatibility, what specific use would be least suitable next to a militarypolice
firing range?
A) funeraria (B) memorial park (C) residential (D) open space (E) forest
937. What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and LPG gas
depository? (A) transport terminals (B) commercial (C) BPO call centers (D) open space (E)
hospitals
938. What would be the most suitable use of geologic fault line with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both sides
from the line?
(A) aqueduct or tunnel (C) Venice-like canals

(B) floodway (D) open space farm (E) wildlife refuge
939. In classic urban morphology, since cemeteries' perform solemn private functions' that require neither exchange nor access
to commerce, they ought to be located in
(A) prime agricultural land (B) caves and rocky hills (C) fringe belts (D) desert (E) marginal land
940. 'Performance Zoning' can be described as a tool that
(A) Allows property owners with limited development rights to buy additional rights from another property
(B) Cities can use these to encourage development that exceeds the minimum standards
(C) Regulates the character and quality of the use instead of simply regulating the mere use itself
(D), Establishes objective thresholds and maximum limits of the effects or characteristics of land use
941. Under the current setup, what government agency has the final authority on conversion of agricultural land?
(A) DAR (C) Land Registration Authority (E) HLURB

(B) Department of Agriculture (D) Land Management Bureau (F) HUDCC
942. This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of tide, technically,
to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line usually at the seaward margin of
a , low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach scarp or
berm.
(A) seaside (B) seaboard (C) foreshore (D) seagrass bed (E) beachfront
943. PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40 meters from the
hightide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves or swamps along the coast
with width of at least
( A) 20 meters (B) 25 meters (C) 30 meters (D) 35 meters (E) 40 meters
944. Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1,2011 declaring moratorium on the cutting and harvesting
of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until the year 2016?
(A) concessions signed by DENR secretary

(B) conversion of mangrove forests
(C) alternate harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
(D) small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging',and kaingin
106106106
945. Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening Program as DA-DAR-
DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each government employee plant each
year, a requirement that also applies to students identified by DEPED and CHED?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30 (E) 35
946. The 'bundle of rights' over private alienable-&-disposable property include all of the following
rights except
(A) utilize, cultivate, develop (C) access, prevent access 8 control (E) mortgage, sell, or dispose
(B) enjoy benefits and earn from (D) non-use, abuse, and misuse (F) transfer and pass on
947. Which is not an instrument to prove private rights over land?
(A) Certificate of Title (B) CLOA (C) Free Patent (D) DTI- IPR Patent (E) Tax Declaration (F) CADT
948. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec 3, this refers to housing programs and projects undertaken by the government or
the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which include sites and services
development, long-term financing, liberalized terms on interest payments, and other related benefits.
(A) economic housing (B) socialized housing (C) low-cost housing (D) open-market housing
949. Under RA 7279 UDHA Sec. 28, the following are legal forms of eviction or demolition of informal
settlements. Which one concerns most directly the safety of the general public in terms of water
security?
(A) When persons occupy railroad tracks, RROW, sidewalks, transmission lines, dump sites,
parks, playgrounds and other public places;
(B) When persons occupy easements of pipelines, reservoirs, esteros, creeks, rivers, shorelines,
and beaches
(C) When government infrastructure projects with available funding are about to be
implemented; (D) When there is a court order of eviction of settlers from a legally-owned private
property;
950. Below are some of the documented deficiencies of governments socialized housing with
rowhouse design. Which deficiency is considered the principal cause of the failure of offcity
relocation in the Philippines?
(A) 24 sq.m. is inappropriate for large urban families which are typically extended
(B) ach dwelling unit has no space for waste sorting, composting, gardening, and domestic
crop production
(C) Each dwelling has no provision for natural cooling and energy conservation by means
of protective trees
(D) Most housing projects have no provisions for near-site workplaces or employment centers
951. In planning public facilities and utilities, 'population density' should be rationally matched with
(A) materials & machines (B) nuts and bolts (C) service capacity infrastructure (D) investments of gov't
952. In waterstock planning[?], what classification of water should a residential consumer get from a
faucet? (A) class A (B) class B (C) class C (D) class D (E) class E
953. A water...........d of a source, reservoir, distribution system, and communal faucets. Usually,
one faucet.............holds, generally suitable for rural and urban-fringe areas where houses
are clustered..........................le piped-system.
107107107
(A) Level l (B) Level ll (C) Level III (D) Level IV
954. Under PD198 dated May 25,1973, if a 'water district' can be created for at least one municipality or
cluster of municipalities, what would be the minimum population to be serviced within a water
district?
(A) 15,000 (B) 25,000 (C) 35,000 (D) 45,000 (E) 55,000
955. Since the permitted width of four-wheel vehicle is 2.5 meters and the minimum clearance between two
parallel vehicles is 0.50 meters, what should be the ideal width of a two-lane farm-to-market road also
called barangay road?
(A) 3 meters (B) 6 meters (C) 9 meters (D) 12 meters
956. Which law exempts, in Section 20, cremation, siga, bonfires, traditional cultural practices, etcetera
from the total ban on incineration?
A) RA 8749 (B) RA 9003 (C) RA 6969 (D) RA 9275
957. According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the additivesto gasoline that
are harmful to both people and nature?
(A) methyl tertiary butyl ether (B) isooctane and heptane (C) molybdenum oxide (D) tetraethyl
958. Which of the following is least effective for controlling soil erosion caused by wind and water?
(A) planting windbreaks (B) planting cover crops (C) removing crop stubble from surface (D) using
conservation tillage
959. The following factors combine to cause flashfloods and large-scale flooding, except
(A) amount of rainfall (C) loss of tree cover causing erosion & siltation (E) impervious concrete surfaces
(B) winds and gusts (D) waterways clogged with household wastes (F) natural topography
960. The shifts in perspective from victim as receiver to victim as actor, 'from doleout of goods to
capacity- building and institution-building,' 'from individual aid to restoration of the social system,'
'from outside response to community initiatives' – all form part of the paradigm of
(A) quick emergency response (C) disaster recovery management

(B) disaster risk reduction (D) search, rescue & rehab
961. In the equation, , 'Disaster' can be reduced by
(A) decreasing vulnerability by eliminating hazard

(B) training people to cope and cope unceasingly
(C) preparing people to anticipate and to equip themselves constantly
(D) changing the equation of exposure by creating a risk-free world
962. The logical equation to describe "Risk" would be
(A) Risk = Susceptibility x Vulnerability ÷ Adaptive/Coping Capacity

(B) Risk = Exposure x Duration x Extent x Frequency
(C) Risk = Hazard x Population Density ÷ Income
(D) Risk = Exposure x Probability x Coincidence
108108108
963. Which factor increases a population's 'vulnerability' to disaster?
(A) young-age and old-age dependency (C) crowding & congestion (E) illness and disability
(B) lack of resources to change physical location (D) lack of information (F) all of the above
964. Which of the following will not reduce vulnerability to hazards
(A) Maintaining 'healthy' natural systems (C) stockpiling emergency goods and disaster relief
(B) Restricting development in hazardous areas (D) Requiring safer building standards
965. In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of
the innermost circle in the diagram is
(A) farming of the most expensive crops (C) central park

(B) terminal for commuters, central rail station (D) shopping & retail services
966. In Ernest Burgess' concentric model (1925), factories and workshops

would most likely locate in
(B)
(A) the
the outermost circle
innermost circle (D) the
(C) the second
third circle from
circle thethe
from center
center
967. In Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions? (A) section 'A' (B) section 'B1" (C) section 'C' (D) section' D'
968. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' commonly results from what Peirce F
Lewis calls
(A) Circumferential City (C) Stellar City
(B) Multi-cellular city (D) Galactic City
969. The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that
(A) Cities have varied natural resources that stimulate progress in different
locations (B) Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points
of growth (C) Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or circuits of capital
(D) Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of cities
970. In classical theories of industrial location by Weber, Losch, and Isard, what are the three factors
that firms are most concerned about?
(A) minerals, electricity, water (C) location of raw materials, location of market, transport
(B) costs of money, taxes, stock exchange growth (D) product image, promotion & advertising, public relations
971. The most profitable utilization of property based on what is physically possible, ecologically sound,
legally permissible, and financially viable, thus resulting in the optimal value of the property, is called
(A) Maximum Sustainable Yield (B) Feasibility (C) Highest & Best Use (D) Cost-efficiency
972. According to R. Hurd, since land value depends on economic rent, and rent on location, and location
on convenience, and convenience on nearness, we may eliminate the intermediate steps and say that
land value depends on nearness."
(A) social connection (B) proximity and access (C) ease of movement (D) free play of market forces
973. In the conventional land economics by Raleigh Barlowe (1958), what are the three determinants of
land value?
(A) farmharvest, wild growth, usufruct (C) sale, lease, rent

(B)Scarcity, utility, desirability (D) location, permanence, transferability
974. Why do land values at the center of an overpopulated city fall drastically?
(A) pollution, land degradation, disease (D) deteriorating Quality of
Life
(B) urban blight, decay, and criminality (E) all of the above
(C) congestion, overcrowding, traffic
975. The highest and best use" of a 30 sq.km freshwater lake based on computation of both monetary
and non-monetary values, is best illustrated in the following combination:
(A) five-star resort hotel that caters to foreign tourists, with boating, wakeboarding, jetski and other
sports facilities;
(B) five-star resort hotel plus high-end Retirement Haven that contributes substantial revenues to the
LGU; (C) manufacturing park with 20 locators and ready facilities for industrial cooling and dumping of
factory
wastewater;
(D) ecotourism plus fisheries, ferry transport, sports, wellness centers, floodholding area, aquatic parks
and sanctuaries
976. Which is not one of Natures ecosystemic services and functions as adopted by the United Nations?
(A) climate regulation (C) nutrient cycling (E) physical aberrations and anomalies
(B) food and fiber (D) soil formation (F) biological treatment of water and storm runoff
977. "Conservation" from the perspective of environmental economics' would include all but one of
the following
(A) society's savings from strict preserves (C) orderly and efficient resource use
(B) elimination of social and economic waste (D) maximization of social net returns over time
978. "Environmental Economics" by Randall and Howe calculates the value in use of natural resources
by creating them as
(A) stock resources, flow resources, reproducing resources (C) extant, extinct, exhaustible
(B) renewable, replenishable, replicable (D) inputs, throughputs, outputs
979. In "Ecological Economics" by Daly and Costanza, non-use of ENR has economic value because it
can result in greater "environmental protection and security"
(A) existence value (B) insurance value (C) bequest value (D) vicarious value (E) all of the above
110110110
980. Republic Act that provides for conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their
habitats is numbered as
(A) RA 9147 (B) RA 9714 (C) RA 4791 (D) RA 1479
981. Under RA 7076 People's Smallscale Mining Act of 1991, who are the preferred holders of small-
scale mining permits?
(A) guilds (B) cooperatives (C) Sanggunian (D) NGOs (E) micro-scale and cottage enterprises
982. Under RA 7076 People's Small-scale Mining Act of 1991, the following are characteristics of small-
scale mining except
(A) Capitalization of not more than 10 million (D) gross production not more than
50,000 (B) Use of explosives for excavating and tunneling (E) artisanal and labor-intensive
(C) Not more than 20 hectares in total size
983. Under RA 7942 Philippine Mining Act of 1995, a mining enterprise with capitalization of more than
10 million and an operating area of over 20 hectares, can be considered
(A) medium-scale (B) global-scale (C) large-scale (D) cottage-scale
984. Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs comprising lands, inland waters
coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by
ICCs/IPs, by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the
present."
(A Tribal land (B) cultural heritage (C) autonomous region (D) ethnic realm (E) ancestral domain
985. An area within a city or town where the average density is 20 dwelling units per hectare or below,
with majority of lot sizes are between 300-800 square meters or more, is zoned as
(A) R-1 (B) R-2 (C) R-3 (D) R-4 (E) Mixed Use Zone
986. An area in most cities where regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums, high-
rise hotels, office towers are located, is zoned as
(A) C-1 (B) C-2 (C) C-3 (D) Tourism zone (E) Financial District
987. An LGU regulation prohibiting a landowner from using his/her residential lot as a firing range
is considered an exercise of the power of the State called
(A) escheat (B) eminent domain (C) taxation (D) police power (E) moral suasion (F) sovereignty
988. According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical sites or
structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the National Historical
Institute"
(A) Epochal Landmark (C) National Cultural Property

(B) National Treasure (D) Historic Shrine Sacred Place
989. Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by
UNESCO? (A) Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao
(B) Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
(C) Magellan's Cross in Cebu
(D) Rice Terraces of the Philippines
(E) Puerto Princesa Underground River
(F) Historic Town of Vigan
111111111
990. "Identity, structure, and meaning -- Cities that have buildings and natural features with strong identities,
street patterns that are easy to comprehend, and other form elements that have functional and
symbolic meanings are likely to be more imageable than cities lacking such attributes."
(A) Kevin Lynch (B) Edward Tollman (C) John Trawls (D) Camilo Sitte
991. Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas
Center? (A) landmark (B) cosmopolitan (C) district (D) downtown (E) estate
992. In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often or with the
greatest frequency
(A) recurrence (B) returns (C) mode (D) average (E) sum (F) minuend
993. 'Linear regression' is a statistical method used to:
(A) establish that as supplies increase, prices decrease

(B) calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard deviations of the mean
(C) determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable
(D) estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
994. What does the Gini coefficient measure?
(A) savings rate (B) real estate tax (C) income inequality (D) poverty (E) return on investment
995. Which of the following data-sets is least needed in Economic Area Analysis?
(A) population forecasts (C) income levels (E) poverty incidence of households
(B) employment trends (D) cohort survival (F) retail sales of registered enterprises
996. Under Executive Orders 127, 127-A and 292, which of the following is not a function of the Department of
Finance?
(A) Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal policies of

government; (B) Supervision of the revenue operations of all local government units;
(C) Conceptualization of major government investments on infrastructure and
utilities; (D) Review, approval and management of all public sector debt, domestic or
foreign; (E) Formulation, institutionalization and administration of fiscal and tax
policies;
997. Which of the following is not a function of the National Economic and Development Authority?
(A) Proper allocation of expenditures for each development activity between current operating
expenditures and capital outlays;
(B) Evaluation of the fiscal, monetary and balance of payments implications of major national projects,
(C) Privatization and public accountability of corporations and assets owned, controlled or acquired by
the government
(D) Advice the President on matters concerning social development, education, manpower, health and
nutrition, population and family planning, housing, human settlements, and the delivery of other
social services;
(E) Recommend appropriate policies, programs and projects consistent with national development objectives
998. Which of the following is not a function of the Housing and Urban Development Coordinating
Council? (A) Custodian and keeper of all resources of government related to housing and urban
development;
(B) Determine participation and coordinate activities of key housing agencies in national housing program;
112112112
(C) Monitor, review and evaluate the effective exercise by government housing agencies of their
assigned functions;
(D) Assist in the maximum participation of the private sector in all aspects of housing and
urban development;
(E) Recommend new legislation and amendments to existing laws as may be necessary for the attainment
of governments objective in housing;
999. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative housing
need would reach 6,732,464 by year 2016, but governments capacity to directly provide houses only
averages 120,000 units per annum. What would be a more rational strategy for housing development?
(A) leave to private households the matter of housing development according to the free play of
market forces;
(B) allow big foreign companies with enormous capital to undertake mass shelter projects;
(C) rationalize taxation of land so that developers can bring down overall cost of house and lot
packages; (D) LGUs should improve CLUP-Zoning so that price of land would be kept low
(E) stimulate participation of business, civic, religious, and cooperatives sectors in multi-partite housing
production.
1000. According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, the total cumulative
housing
need According to the Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, among nine countries in
East Asia being compared, the Philippines has the highest officially-reported poverty incidence at 26.6%,
the highest Gini coefficient at 0.448, the lowest rate increase in real per capita income at 2.3% per annum,
and
among the highest unemployment rates per annum. These figures indicate that
(A) Philippine growth is not broadbased and could not create vast employment opportunities for the
majority; (B) Macroeconomic growth has not been adequately translated into human development and
social progress.
(C) Public investment favors few competitive sectors in central and urban places to the neglect of
the marginal and disadvantaged sectors;
(D) Economic growth in real terms' is often too small to be offset by high population growth.
(E) Bad governance means there are chronic leakages of government resources & low accountability
and transparency in the development management.
(F) All of the above
PRACTICE EXAM PERFORMANCE LEVELS
Over 75% -- you are expected to rank in Top Ten; reinforce your learning with 100 total hours of focused reading!
60-74% – you will certainly pass the exam, sharpen yourself further with some 120 total hours of focused reading!
59-50% – you can pass the exam, persevere for about 140 total hours of focused reading!
41-49% – nothing is impossible, challenge yourself for about 170 total hours of focused reading!
01-40% -- you need 200 total hours of reading or formal planning course or review seminar

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1,000 EnP

Basic Concepts, History of Planning, History of Settlements

(A) Environmental and Natural Resources Development (C) Environmental Management

one: (A) it exports substantial quantities of processed products

6. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:

(A) a cluster of skyscrapers (C) a rectilinear or orthogonal street design

(A) Industrialization (B) Urbanization (C) Social Transformation (D) Modernization

(A) Metropolitanization (B) Conurbation (C) HyperUrbanization (D) False or Pseudo-Urbanization

(A) Climate Change (C) Poverty (E) Pollution and Environmental

(A) Decentralization (B) Dispersion (C) Exurbanization (D) Sprawl

(A) “brightlights effect" or lure of city life and neon-litentertainment

(A) to achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence

(A) Eco-centrism (B) Bio-centrism (C) Anthropo-centrism (D) Geo-centrism

(A) Cornucopians (B) Soroptimists (C) Utopians (D) Dystopians

(A) Principle of Subsidiarity (C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities

(A) "where are we now?" (D) "how do we get there?"

(A) cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting (C) wide-ranging and exhaustive

(A) A plan should be a clear, concise, and user-friendly document

(A) Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning

purpose? (A) "solve major issues at a macro level"

(A) 'S' (B) 'W' (C) 'O' (D) 'T'

(A) Acculturation and Inculturation (C) Diffusion of Technology Information

(A) The Scientific Revolution (C) lndustrial Revolution

(A) huge manufacturing firm at the center (D) series of superblocks

(A) Demogriphus (B) Herodotus (C) Geddes (D) Pericles

(A) May (B) June (C) September (D) October

(A) January 13 (B) March 22 (C) June 24 (D) October 31

(A) garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade

(A) 'friar lands' (B) 'encomiendas' (C) 'haciendas' (D) 'townships'

(A) Spanish (B) American (C) Japanese (D) British

(A) Local Government Academy (C) Institute of Planning | regions.

107. ln 2010, how many administrative regions does the Philippines

have? (A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17

(A) American Institute of Environmental Planning (C) Planning Society of All-America

( A) Oregon (B) New York (C) California (D)Florida

Theories of Spatial Planning, Concepts of Regional Planning

(A) Matrix (B) lsotims (C) lsodapanes (D) Scalogram

(A) Surrounding (B) Standing (C) Situation (D) State

(A) 520,000 (B) 1,520,000 (C) 1,300,000 (D) 650,000

(A) large concentration of office and retail activities;

(A) Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size

: (A) core regions (D) downward transitional areas |

(A) inflow - outflow - backflow (C) economic nationalism or Filipinism

A) customer-friendly (B) client-centered (C) demographically-responsive (D) market-oriented

(A) vagabond (B) wanderlust (C) itinerant (D) footloose

(A) Cogitative Theory of Location (C) Urban Land Nexus Theory

(A) lmport Substitution lndustrialization (C) Countrywide Urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)

(A) agropolis / agropolitan approach (C) agro-based countryside development

(A) Autonomous Autarchic Development (C) endogenous self-reliant development

A) Drainage Basin (B) Rainforest (C) Flood plain (D) Watershed

A) 7 km (B) 10 km (C) 15 km (D) 20 km

(Al Sulu (B) Boracay (C) Palawan (D) Mindoro

Land Use Process, Physical Planning, Transport, and Disaster

200. 'Land Use' and 'Land Classification' are

203. Which is not considered' production land' in a Philippine LGU?

204. Which type of land use is not described as urban?

A) residential (B) institutional (C) industrial (D) mineral

(A) <50 cm and <80% (C) 50-100 cm and 40-80%

A) 1:200,000 (B) 1:100,000 (C) 1:25,000 (D) 1:10,000

214. Which of those listed below is not a thematic map?