Chapter No 1

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Most of the element are:

(a) Crystalloids (b) Metals (c) Metalloids (d) Non-

metals

2. The oxides of electropositive statement:

(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral

3. Mark the correct statement:

(b) Metals from basic oxides (b) Metals from acidic oxides

(c) Metals are non-conductor of electricity (d) Metals have tendency to accept
electron

4. f-block elements are also called :

(a)Non typical transition elements (b) Outer transition elements

(c) Inner Transition elements (d) Normal transition elements

5. The elements of group II A are called :

(a) Alkali Metals (b) Alkaline Metals (c) Coinage Metals (d)
Metalloids

6. How many elements are present in 5th period of the periodic table?

(a) 32 (b) 8 (c)18 (d) 28

7. Elements of the periodic table are classified into blocks :

(a) Four (b) Three (c) Five (d) Six

8. The number of elements in fourth period of periodic table is :

(a) 32 (b) 18 (c) 10 (d) 8

9. The longest period in the periodic table :

(a) 7th (b) 6th (c) 5th (d) 4th

10. In modern periodic table , the elements are arranged in the ascending order of :

(a) Atomic (b) Valency (c) Valence Electrons (d) Atomic Number
 11. In the Mendeleev’s periodic law, the properties of elements are periodic function
of their :

(a) Volume (b) Densities (c) Atomic number (d) Atomic Masses

12. Memorable contributions in the classification of elements were made :

(a) Al- Razi (b) Dobereiner (c) Newlands (d) All of them

13. Which of the following has maximum hydration energy:

(a) Li+ (b) Na+ (c) K+ (d) Mg2+

14. Mark the correct statement:

(a) Metallic Character decreases along a period

(b) Metallic Character increases along a period

(c) Metallic Character increases down the group

(d) Metallic Character remains the same down the group

15. Maximum electron electron affinity values of N are :

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these

16. Marks the correct statement :

(a) Na+ is smaller than Na atom (b) Na+is larger than Na atom

(b) Cl- is smaller than Cl atom (d) Cl- and Cl atom are equal in size

17. The decrease in atom size is not much prominent across row containing elements
of :

(a) S-Block (b) p-Block (d) d- Block (d) f- Block

18. Keeping in view the size of atoms , which order in the correct one :

(a) Mg>Sr (b) Ba>Mg (c) Lu>Cs (d) Cl> 1

19. Hydrogen can be placed with the elements of group IV A because both :

(a) Act as strong oxidizing agent (b) Act as strong reducing agent

(c) Possess the property of catenation (d) Form neutral oxides

20. Zine oxide is:

(a) Basic (b) Amphoteric (c) Acidic (d) Neutral

21. Which of the following elements from polymeric halides;

 (a) Be (b) Ga (c) Al (d) All of these

22. Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is the correct one?

(a) Mg > Sr (b) Ba > Mg (c) Lu > Ce (d) Cl > I

22. Mark the correct statements:

(a) Na+ is smaller than Na atom (b) Na+ is larger than Na atom

(c) Cl- is smaller than Cl atom (d) Cl- (ion) and Cl(atom) are equal in size

23. Mark the correct statements:

(a) All lanthanides are present in the same period.

(b) All halogens are present in the same period

.(c) All the alkali metals are present in the same group .

(d)All the noble gases are present in the same period.

24. Which statements are incorrect?

(a) All the metals are good conductor of electricity (b) All the metals are good conductor of
heat

(c) All the metals from positive ions (d) All the metals from acidic oxides

25. Which statement is correct?

(a) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IA, IVA and VIIA elements

(b) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIIA, IVA and VA elements

(c ) Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIA, IVA and VIA elements

(d)Hydrogen resembles in properties with IIA, IIIA and VIIA elements

26. Mark the correct statement:

(a) The ionization energy of calcium of calcium is lower than that of barium

(b) The ionization energy of calcium of calcium is lower than that of magnesium

(c) The ionization energy of calcium of calcium is higher than that of beryllium

(d) The ionization energy of calcium of calcium is lower than that of strontium

27: Mark the correct statement:

(a) Electron affinity is a measure of energy required to remove the electron

 (b) Electron affinity is a measure of energy released by adding an electron

(c) Electron affinity is a measure of energy required to excite an electron

(d) Electron affinity is a measure of energy released by removing an electron

28: Mark the correct statement:

(a) Metallic character increase down the group

(b) Metallic character increase along a period

(c) Metallic character decrease along a period

(d) Metallic character remains the same down the group

29. Mark the correct statements:

(a) Melting point of halogens decrease down the group

(b) Melting point of halogens increase down the group

(c) Melting point of halogens remain the same throughout the group

(d) Melting point of halogens first increase and then decrease down the group.

30. Mark the correct statements:

(a) Covalent character of metal halides increase from left to right in a period.

(b) Boiling points of group IVA hydrides decrease down the group.

(c) Ionic character of hydrides increase from left to right in a period.

(d) The basicity of group IIA oxides decrease on descending the group.

ECAT & MDCAT MCQ

Select the correct options:

31. Which of the following has electrical conductivity?

(a) Aqueous Sugar Solution (b) Solid Graphite

(c) Solid Sodium Chloride (d) Gaseous Carbon dioxide

32. Pb belongs to:

(a) s-block (b) p-block (c) d-block (d) f-block

33. Sub-group B of the periodic table represents:

(a) Normal elements (b) Less typical elements (c) Block ‘p’ elements (d) Block‘s elements

34. Coinage metal are:

(a) Ni, pd, pt (b) Cu, Ag, Au (c) As, Al, pb (d) Fe ,Si,Sn

35. Arrange the following elements according to the trend of ionization energies:

(a) Ne <N < C< B (b) B<C <N <Ne (c) B < N < C< Ne (d) Ne, B<C< N

35. Along a period, atomic radius decreases. This gradual decrease in radius is due to:

(a) Increase in number of electrons in valence shells (b) Decrease in number of shells

(c) Increase in number of protons in the nucleus (d) Increase in number of shells

36. In the trend of melting point of the elements of 3rd period, the sharp decrease
observed from ‘Si’ to ‘p’ is due to:

(a) Decrease in atomic radius from ‘Si’ to ‘p’ (b) Change in bonding and structure of two
elements

(c) Different universities of two elements (d) Increase in electron density from ‘Si’ to ‘p’

37. What is the trend of melting and boiling point of the elements of short periods as we
move from left right in a periodic table?

(a) Melting and boiling points first decrease then increase

(b) Melting and boiling point’s first increase then decrease

(c) Melting and boiling points increase gradually

(d) Melting and boiling points decrease gradually

38. More the ionization energy of elements:

(a) More the electronegativity (b) Less the non-metallic character

(c) More the reducing power (d) Bigger the atomic radius

39. Which one remains same along a period?

(a) Atomic Radius (b) Number of shells (c) Melting point (d) Electrical conductivity

Chapter no 2

Multiple choice questions:

40. Which is not an alkali metal?

(a) Francium (b) Caesium (c) Rubidium (d) Radium

41. Which element is not present abundantly in the earth crust?

(a) Silicon (b) Aluminium (c) Sodium (d) Oxygen

42. Chile saltpetre has the chemical formula:

(a) NaNo3 (b) KNO3 (c) Na2B4O7 (d) Na2CO3.H2O

43. Chemical formula is magnetite is:

(a) CaMg3 (SiO3)4 (b) MgCO3 (c) MgCO4 (d) MgCl2

44. Which one does not belong to alkaline earth metals?

(a) Be (b) Ba (c) Ra (c) Rn

45. Dolomite is an ore of:

(a) Strontium (b) Magnesium (c) Barium (d) Potassium

46. The mineral CaSO4.2H2O has the general name:

(a) Gypsum (b) Magnesium (c) Barium (d) Epsom salt

47. Chemical formula of magnetite is:

(a) CaMg3 (SIO3)4 (b) MgCO3 (c) MgSO4 (d) MgCl2

48. The milk of magnesia is used for the treatment of:

(a) Acidity (b) Basicity (d) Rancidity (d) Jaundance

49. Dolomite is an ore of:

(a) Strontium (b) Magnesium (c) Barium (d) Potassium

50. When Lithium is burnt in air, it forms:

(a) Superoxide’s (b) Acidic Oxide (c) Normal Oxide (d) Both B and C

51. The solubility of alkaline earth metals hydroxides increase down in the group due
to:

(a) Low lattice energy (b) Higher ionic size (c) Both A&B (d) High lattice energy

52. Most important commercial source of lithium is:

(a) Spodumence (b) Lithium Sulphate (c) Trona (d) Carnallite

53. Which is insoluble in water?

(a) CaO (b) SrO (c) BaO (d) MgO

54. The only alkaline earth metal which from peroxide is:

(a) Beryllium (b) Magnesium (c) Calcium (d) Barium

55: Indicate amphoteric oxide:

(a) MgO (b) BeO (c) SrO (d) CaO

56. Oxide used on mountaineer’s breathing equipment is:

(a) Na2O (b) Na2O2 (c) K2O (d) KO2

57. The oxides of beryllium are:

(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral

58: Which one is more soluble in water?

(a) Be(OH)2 (b) HBO2 (c) Rancidity (d) All of these

59. The milk of magnesia is used for the treatment:

(a) Acidity (b) Basicity (d) Ba (OH)2 (d) Jaundice

60. The sulphate compound insoluble in water is:

(a) Barium Sulphate (b) Sodium Sulphate (c) Potassium Sulphate (d) Zinc Sulphate

61. Melting point of NaCl is reduced by adding:

(a) CaCl2 (b) KMnO2 (c) KCl (d) k2Cr2O7

62. Alkaline metal hydroxides are stable to heat except:

(a) Mg (OH) 2 (b) LiOH (c) KOH (d) NaOH

63. Which of the following is essential constituent of ChlorophyII?

(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Potassium (d) Iron

64. Lime in acidic soil increases the amount of soluble:

(a) P (b) Ca (c) N (d) Silicates

65. Mortar can be used in the place of:

(a) Glass (b) NaCl (c) Cement (d) Asbestos

66. Plaster of paris can be obtained from:

(a) Marble (b) Bauxite (c) Gypsum (d) Limestone

67. The element deposited at the Cathode during the electrolysis of brine in diaphragm
cell:

(a) Na (b) H2 (c) Cl2 (d) O2

68. Cement contains gypsum:

(a) 3% (b) 2% (c) 0.2% (d) 0.3%

69. Soda lime is often employed to remove both:

(a) H2O and NO2 (b) CO and CO2 (c) H2O and CO2 (d) H2S and CO2

70. Which one of the following does not belong to alkaline earth metals?

(a) Be (b) Ra (c) Ba (d) Rn

74. The oxide of beryllium is:

(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric (d) None of these

75. Which ion will have the maximum value of heat of hydration?

(a) Na+ (b) Cs+ (c) Ba+2 (d) Mg+2

76. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?

(a) Francium (b) Caesium (c) Rubidium (d) Radius

77. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

(a) Sodium Sulphate (b) Potassium sulphate (c) Zinc sulphate (d) Barium sulphate

78: The element caesium bears resemblance with:

(a) Ca (b) Cr (c) Both of above (d) None of these

79. Chile saltpetre has the chemical formula:

(a) NaNO3 (b) KNO2 (c) Na2B4O7 (d) Na2CO3.H2O

80. The mineral CaSO4.2H2O has the general name:

(a) Gypsum (b) Dolomite (c) Calcite (d) Epsom salt

81. Down’s cell is used to prepare:

(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Sodium metal (d) Sodium hydroxide

82. Which is deposited at the cathode during the electrolysis of brine in diaphragm cell?

(a) H2 (b) Na (c) Cl2 (d) O2

 ECATE & MDCAT MCQ

83. The important uses of lime in agriculture are:

(a) For chlorophyll development (b) As fertilizer

(c) For neutralizing acidic soil (d) to increase fruit production

84.Alkaline earth metal oxides react with water to give hydroxides .The solubility of
alkaline earth metal oxide in water increase as we move from top to bottom in a group
.Which of the following alkaline earth metal oxide is least soluble in water :

(a) MgO (b) BaO (c) CaO (d) SrO

85: Alkaline earth metal hydroxide decomposes on heating .Which of the following
become a correct representation of this decomposition:

(a) M(OH)2(s)→MO(s)+H2O(I) (b) 2MOH2(s) →2MO(s) + H2(I)

(c) MOH(s)→ M2O(s) + H2O(I) (d) 4MOH(s) → 4M(s) +2H2O(I) +O2

86. When elements of group 2 (alkaline earth metal) are exposed to air, they quickly
become coated with a layer of oxide .What is the purpose of this oxide layer:

(a) The oxide layer exposes the metal of Atmospheric attack

(b) The oxide layer increase the reactivity of metal

c) The oxide layer protect the metal from furthers atmospheric attack

(d) The oxide layer gives the metal a shiny silvery appearance

89. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

(a) Sodium sulphate (b) Potassium sulphate (c) Barium sulphate (d) Zinc sulphate

90. Lithium only forms:

(a) Normal oxide b) Peroxide (c) Superoxide (d) All of above

91. LiNO 3 decompose to give products:

(a) Li2O+NO2+O2 (b) Li2O+NO +O2 (c) Li2O +NO (d) Li2O +NO +O2

92. Which is not an alkali metal?

(a) Francium (b) Caesium (c) Rubidium (d) Radium

 Chapter 3

93. The chief ore of aluminium is:

(a) Na3AIF (b) Al2O3.2H2O (c) Al2O3 (d) Al2O3.H2O

94. Tincal is a mineral of:

(a) Al (b) C (c) Si (d) B

95. Kaolin is a mineral of:

(a) Carbon (b) Magnesium (c) Silicon (d) Aluminium

96. Composition of colemanite is:

(a) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (b) CaB4O7.4H2O (c) Na2B4O7.4H2O (d) CaNaB5O9.8H2O

97. Which of the following elements is not present abundantly in earth crust?

(a) Silicon (b) Aluminium (c) Sodium (d) Oxygen

98. The aqueous solution of Borax:

(a) Acidic (b) Alkaline (c) Amphoteric (d) Manual

80. Which is used in the leather industry?

(a) Borax (b) Boric acid (d) Baric oxide (d) Tetra Boric acid

81. Borax has the chemical formula:

(a) KNO3 (b) NaNO3 (c) Na2B4O7.10H2O (d) Na2CO3.H2O

82. Boric acid cannot be used:

(a) As antiseptic in medince (b) For washing eyes (c) In soda bottles (d) For Enamels and
Glazes .

83. Aluminum reacts with nitrogen to forms :

(a) AIN (b) Al2N (c) Al2N3 (d) Al4N6

84. Aluminum oxide is :

(a) Beryllium (b) Aluminum (c) Amphoteric oxide (d) Silicon

85. Which metal is used in the Thermite process because of its reactivity?

(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Zinc

86. Which element among the following belongs to group IV-A of the periodic table:
(a) Barium (b) Iodine (c) Lead (d) Oxygen

87. Which one of the following is used in cosmetics?

(a) Talc (b) Asbestos (c) Sodium sulphate (d) Aluminium sulphate

88. Chemical formula of litharge is:

(a) Pb2O (b) SiO2 (c) PbO (d) Pb3O4

89. Semiconductor includes the elements:

(a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Selenium (d) All of these

90. Pb3O4 is used:

(a) White pigment (b) Red pigment (c) Blue pigment (d) Silver

91. Which metal is used in the thermite process because of its activity?

(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Zinc

92. Aluminium oxide is:

(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxide (c) Amphoteric oxide (d) None of these

93. The chemical composition of colemanite is:

(a) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (b) CaB4O7.4H2O (c) Na2B4O7 .4H2O (d) CaNaB5O9.8H2O

94. Which element configuration corresponds to an element of group IIIA of the

periodic?

(a) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3S2, 3P1 (b) 1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s2,3p1 (c) 1s2,2s2,2p6 (d) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p3

95. Which element forms an ion with charge +3?

(a) Beryllium (b) Aluminium (c) Carton (d) Silicon

96. Boric acid cannot be used:

(a) Barium (b) Aluminium (c) Lead (d) Oxygen

97. Boric acid cannot be used:

(a) As antiseptic in medicine (b) For washing eye (c) In soda bottle (d) For enamels and
glazes

98. Which of the following elements is not present abundantly in earth crust?

(a) Silicon (b) Aluminium (c) Sodium (d) Oxygen

97. Boric acid cannot be used:

(a) As antiseptic in medicine (b) For washing eyes (c) in soda bottle (d) For animals and
glazes

98. Which of the following elements is not present abundantly in earth crust?

(a) Silicon (b) Aluminium (c) Sodium (d) oxygen

99. Tincal is a mineral of:

(a) A1 (b) B (c) Si (d) C

100. The chief ore of aluminium is:

(a) Na3AIF6 (b) Al2O3.2H2O (C) Al2O3 (d) Al2O3.H2O

ECAT& MDCAT MCQ

101. Which of the following is used to make container for nitric acid?

(a) Iron (b) Sodium (c) Aluminium (d) Plastic

102: What is the chemical name of SUNDUR?

(a) Tetra plumbic oxide ( b) Triplumbic oxide (c) Triplumbic tetra oxide (d) Lead
dioxide

103. Aluminium reacts with Sulphuric acid to produce:

(a) AL2(SO4)3 (b) SO3 (c) SO2 (d) Al

104. Which of the following elements of group IIIA has non-metallic character?

(a) B (b) In (c) Tl (d) Ga

105. Balance the following reactions:

(a) 4H3BO3+ 2NaOH 2Na2B4O3+7H2O

(b) 4H3BO3+ NaOH 2Na2B4O3+4H2O

(c) ) 4H3BO3+ 4 NaOH 2Na2B4O3+5H2O

(d) 3H3BO3+ NaOH Na2B4

106. The oxidation state of Boron is:

(a) +1,+2,+3 (b) -1,-2,-2 (c) +1,-1 (d) +3, +1

Chapter no 4
107. Out of all the elements of group VA, the highest ionization energy is possessed by:

(a) N (b) P (c) Sb (d) As

108. In group V-A elements the most electronegative element is:

(a) N (b) P (c) Sb (d) Bi

109. The lowest ionization energy is possessed by:

(a) p (b) N (c) Sb (d) As

110. Laughing gas is chemically?

(a) NO (b) No2 (c) N2O (d) N4O4

111. Which of the following is a reddish brown gas?

(a) N2O3 (b) NO2 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5

112. The oxidation of NO in air production:

(a) N2O3 (b) NO2 (c) N3O4 (d) N2O4

113. Which of the elements gives acidic oxide?

(a) N (b) As (c) Sb (d) Bi

114. Which metal is rendered passive by HNO3 due to formation of a film of metal oxide
of the metal?

(a) Pt (b) Sn (c) Co (d) Mn

115. Gold dissolves in “Aqua Regia” due to formation of Halide. Point out correct
halide.

(a) AuF3 (b) AuCl3 (c) AuBr3 (d) Aul3

116. Acetamide is prepared by heating:

(a) Ammonium acetate (b) Methyl cyanide (c) Phthisic acid (d) Ethyl
acetate

117. Out of all the elements of group VI-A the highest melting and boiling points is
shown by the elements.

(a)Te (b) Se (c) S (d) Pb

118. What is %age of calcium phosphate in bone ash?

(a)20 (b) 40 (c) 80 (d) 60

119. Nitric acid can be transported in a container made up to

(a) Al (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Fe

120. Which of the following is not a property of phosphorus?

(a) It means light bearing (b) It does not exist free in nature

(c) Rich source of phosphorus is bone ash (d) it does not exist in allotropic forms

121. Molecular formula of white phosphorus is:

(a) P4 (b) P8 (c) P3 (d) P2

121. Maximum number of unpaired electrons is in:

(a) O2 (b) O+2 (c) O-2 (d) O2-2

122. Which catalyst is used in contact process?

(a) Fe2O3 (b) V2O5 (c) SO3 (d) Ag2O

123. H2SO4 reacts with SO3 to form

(a) Vitriol (b) Oleum (c) H2S2O6 (d)

SO2

124. In contact process which of the following is used as arsenic purifier:

(a) Fe (OH)2 (b) Fe(OH)3 (c) FeSO4 (d)

Fe2(SO4)3

125. Sulphuric acid acts as dehydrating agent in reaction with:

(a) Formic acid (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Sodium

Hydroxide

126. Out of all elements of group VA, the highest ionization energy is possessed by

(a) N (b) P (c) Sb (d) Bi

127. In group VA elements the most electronegative element is:

(a) Sb (b) N (c) P (d) As

128. Oxidation of NO in air produces:

(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5

129. The brown gas formed when metal reduced HNO3 is:

(a) N2O5 (b) N2O3 (c) NO2 (d) NO

130. Laughing gas is chemically:

(a) NO (b) N2O (c) NO2 (d)

N2O4

131. Out of the elements of group VIA, the highest melting and boiling points is shown
by the element:

(a) Te (b) Se (c) S (d) Pb

132. SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form H2SO4 because:

(a) The reaction does not go to completion (b) The reaction is quite slow

(c) The reaction is exothermic (d) SO3 is insoluble in water

133. Which catalyst is used in contact process?

(a) Fe2O3 (b) B2O5 (c) SO3 (d) Ag2O

134. Which of the following specie has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(a) O2 (b) O2+ (c) O2-1 (d) O2 -2

ECAT&MDCAT MCQ

135. In rhombic Sulphur there are -------- atoms in each molecule?

(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9

136. Which of the following has allotropic forms?

(a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur (c) Both (d) None of these

137. In which of the following the oxidizing state of S is the highest:

(a) SO2 (b) SCl2 (c) H2SO4 (d) H2SO3

138. Both O2 and O3 are Oxidizing agents but O3 is preferred because:

(a) It is relatively unstable than O2 (b) It provides an extra oxygen atom then O2

(c) It provides Nascent Oxygen (d) all of above

139. Which of the following does not occur in Free State?

(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorous (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur

140. Which one of the following does not have allotropes?

(a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Sb

141. in silicon dioxide, each silicon atom is tetrahedral bonded to four oxygen atoms and
each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms. The ratio of silicon to oxygen atoms is:

(a) 2:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:2 (d)

1:4

142: Which of the following has allotropic forms?

(a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur (c) Both (d) None of

these

143. Which of these is not an isotope of Phosphorus?

(a) Red phosphorus (b) Black phosphorus (c) White phosphorus (d) Gray phosphorus

144. In which of the following the oxidation state of S is the highest?

(a)SO2 (b) SCl (c) H2SO4 (d) H2SO3

Chapter no 5
145. Which of the halogens is liquid?

(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) l2

147. Which one is perchloric acid?

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d)

HClO4

148. Melting point of halogens ---- the group:

(a) Decrease down (c) Increase down

(c) Remain same throughout (d) First increase then decrease down

149. Which halogen occurs naturally in a positive oxidation state?

(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

150. Hydrogen bond is the strongest between the molecules of:

(a) HF (b) HBr (c) HI (d) HCl

151. Which of the following hydrogen halide is the weakest acid in solution?

(a) HF (b) HBr (c) HI (d) HCl

152. Which halogen will react spontaneously with Au(s) to produce Au3+
(a) Br2 (b) F2 (c) l2 (d) Cl2

153. The strongest acid in halogen acid in solution is:

(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d)

HI

154. The anhydride of HClO4 is:

(a) ClO3 (b) ClO2 (c) Cl2O5 (d)

Cl2O7

155. Chlorine heptoxide (Cl2O7) reacts with water to form:

(a) Hypochlorous acid (b) Chloric acid (c) perchloric acid (d) Chlorine and
Oxygen

156. Which is the strongest acid?

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4

157. Which one is chlorous acid:

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4

158. The weakest oxygen of Cl is:

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4

159. Zinc oxide is an example of:

(a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxide (c) Amphoteric oxide (d) A
halogen

160. An element that has high ionization energy and tends to be chemically inactive
could most likely to be:

(a) An alkali metal (b) A transition (c) A noble gas (d) A

halogen
161. Strongest reducing agent is:

(a) HF (b)HBr (c) HCl (d) Hi

162. Which halogen is used as an insecticide?
(a) Br2 (b) l2 (c) Br2 (d) F2
163. Which of the following halogen from maximum compounds with xenon?
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) l2
164. The halogen that is most readily reduced is:
(a) Fluorine (b) Bromine (c) Chlorine (d) Iodine
165. Noble gases are chemically inactive because of:
(a) Mono active nature (b) Closed valence shell (c) Low boiling points (d) Rare
occurrence
166. Which of the following species, one which is non-existence:
(a) XeF6 (b) XeO3 (c) XeF5 (d) XeO4
167. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives:
(a) Xe (b) XeO3 (c) XeO2 (d) XeO4

168. …… is used as a cooling medium for nuclear reactors:

(a) Ne (b) He (c) Ar (d) Kr

169. Which of the following noble gas is used for arc welding and cutting?

(a) Helium (b) Argon (c) Xenon (d) Radon

170. Which of the following hydrogen halide is the weakest acid in solution?

(a) HF (b) HBr (c) HI (d) HCl

171. Chlorine heptaoxide (Cl2O7) reacts with water to form:

(a) Hypochlorous acid (b) Chlorine acid (c) Perchloric acid (d) Chlorine and
oxygen

172. Hydrogen bond is the strongest between the molecules of:

(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI

173. Which halogen will react spontaneously with Au(s) to produce Au3+

(a)Br2 (b) F2 (c) l2 (d) Cl2

174. The anhydride of HClO4 is:

(a)ClO3 (b) ClO2 (c) Cl2O5 (d)

Cl2O7

175. Bleaching powder maybe produced by passing chlorine over:

(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Hydrated calcium sulphate

(c) Magnesium hydroxide (d) Calcium hydroxide

176. Which is the strongest acid?

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4

177. Which halogen occurs naturally in a positive oxidation state?

(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

178. An element that has high ionization energy and is said to be chemically inactive
would most likely to be.
(a) An alkaline metal (b) A transition (c) A noble gas (d) A halogen

179. Which of the following represents the correct electronic configuration of the outer
most energy level of an element of zero (VIIIA) group in the ground state?

(a) S2P2 (b) S2P4 (c) S2P5 (d) S2P6

ECAT& MDCAT MCQ

180. Percentage of chlorine present in bleaching powder is

(a) 5-10 (b) 20-25 (c) 36-40 (d) 90

181. Oxides of xenon are formed from:

(a) XeF6 (b) XeF4 (c) XeF2 (d) All of these

182. Fluorine is reactive due to

(a) Low ionization potential (b) Low dissociation energy

(c) Low electro negativity (d) large size

183. Which of the following show that halogens

(a) F to At (b) N to Bi (c) C to Sn (d) H to Cs

184. Which of the following has highest boiling point?

(a)He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr

185. Which of the following is the formula of potassium permanganate?

(a) KMnO4 (b) K2MnO (c) KMnO2 (d) None of these

186. Which of the following halogen does not form stable oxyacid‘s

(a) Cl (b) F (c) Br (d) I

187. What is the heat of vaporization of Radon?

(a) 1.77 (b) 9.7 (c) 18.0 (d) 6.5

188. ---------is used electric light bulbs, in fluorescent tubes, in radio tubes and Geiger
counters.

(a) Radon (b) Neon (c) Argon (d) Both a and b

189. Which of the following is component of Tear gas?

(a) Bromine (b) Fluorine (c) Chlorine (d) Argon

Chapter no 6
190. The total number of transition element is:

(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 40 (d) 58

191. Total number of transition element is :

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40

192. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are in cation:

(a) Ni2+ (b) Co2+ (c) Mn2+ (d) Fe2+

193. Which of the following is non-typical transition metal?

(a) Fe (b) Mn (c) Zn (d) Ni

194. Which of the following is typical transition element?

(a) Sc (b) Co (c) Ra (d) Y

195. Which of the following is a typical transition metal?

(a) Sc (b) Y (c) Fe (d) Ra

196. Group VI B of transition elements contains:

(a) Zn, Cd,Hg (b) Fe,Ru,Os (c) Cr,Mo,W (d) Mn,Te,Re

197. Which one of these elements is a typical transition element?

(a)Ni (b) Zn (c) Cd (d) Hg

198. Which of the following are non-typical transition elements?

(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Zn (d) Fe

199. Which of the following is a typical transition metal?

(a) Se (b) y (c) Ra (d) Co

200. f-Block elements are also called:

(a) Non-typical transition elements (b) Outer transition elements

(c) Normal transitional elements (d) Inner transition elements

201. The strength of binding energy of transition elements depends upon:

(a) Number of electron pairs (b) Number of unpaired electron

(c) Number of Neutrons (d) Number of protons

202. Group VIB of transition elements contains:

(a) Zn, Cd, (b) Fe, Ru, Os (c) Cr, Mo,W (d) Mn,Te,Re

203. The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of

(a)Cast iron >wrought oron >steel (b) Wrought iron>steel > cast iron

(c ) Cast iron > steel > wrought iron (d) cast iron = steel > wrought iron

203. The colour of transition metal complexes is due to:

(a) d-d transition of electrons (b) Par magnetic nature of transition elements

(c) Ionization (d) Loss of s-electron

204. Coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]2- IS

(a) 2- (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 6

205. The total number of transition elements is:

(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 40 (d) 58

206. The colour of transition metal complexes is due to:

(a) d-d transition of electrons b) paramagnetic nature of transition elements

(c) Ionization (d) Lose of S electrons

207. The strength of binding energy of transition elements depends upon:

(a) Numbers of electrons pairs (b) Number of unpaired of electrons

(c) Number of neutrons (d) Number of protons

208: Oxidation state of Cu in K2 [Cu (CN) 4] is

(a) +4 (b)+3 (c) +c (d) +6

209. Coordination number of Pt in [PtCl(NO2) (NH3)4]

(a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 6

ECAT &MDCAT MCQ

210. KMnO4 acts as:
(a) Reducing agent (b) Excellent precipitating reagent (c) Germicide (d) Oxidizing
agent

211. In contact process, the catalyst used for the conversion of sulphur dioxide to
sulphur trioxide is:

(a)Magnesium oxide (b) Aluminium oxide (c) Silicon planar (d)

Octahedral

212. The shape of [Co [NH3]3+ complexes are:

(a)Linear (b) Tetrahedral (c) Square planner (d)

Octahedral

213. Ligands donating two line pair of electrons to the central transition metal ion are
known as:

(a) Polydentate ligands (b) Monodentate ligands

(c) Bidentate ligands (d) Hexadentate ligands

214. The violet colour of [Ti (H2O) 6]3+ ion solutions are due to:

(a)Central metal ion (b) Complex ion (c) Water molecule (d) Outer
anion

215. [Ti (H2O) 6] +3 transmit:

(a)Yellow and red colour (b) Yellow and blue light

(c) Red and white light (d) Red and blue light

216. Pick the correct statement:

(a)Chelates are usually more stable than ordinary complexes.

(b) Monodentate legends from the chelates complexes

(c)Ordinary complexes are more stable than chelates

(d)Chelates have no ring structures

217. Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ in K3 [Fe (CN) 6] is:

(a) +2 (b) -6 (c) +3 (d) -3

218. Electronic configuration of Manganese (25Mn) is:

(a) [Ar] 3d4 S2 (b) [Ar] 3d4 4s1 (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s2 (d) [Ar] 3d5 4s1

219. Which pair of transition elements shows abnormal electronic configuration

(a) SC and Zn (b) Zn and Cu (c) Cu and Sc (d) Cu and
Cr

Chapter no 7
220. The compound that burns very smoothly in an engine having octane number of 100
is:

(a) 2, 2, 4-Diemthylbutance (b) 2, 2,4-Trimethylpentance

(c) 2, 2, 4- Diemthylhexance (d) 2, 2, 4-Dimethylheptance

221. The crude petroleum is separated in fractions by:

(a) Filtration (b) Fractional distillation (c) Stream distillation (d) Fractional sublimation

222. Vital force theory was rejected by:

(a) G.N Lewis (b) F. Wholer (c) Greek philosophers (d) Scientists of 20 this century

223. Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar triangular shape?

(a)dsp2 (b) sp3 (c) sp (d) sp2

224. The state of hybridization of carbon atom in ethane is:

(a) Sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) dsp2

225. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybrid orbitals

(a) Sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) dsp2

226. Urea belongs to which class of compounds:

(a) Imides (b) amines (c) Amides (d) Carboxylic acid

227. Which one of the following are not heterocyclic compounds

(a) Thiophene (b) Anthracene (c) Furan (d) pyrrole

228. Bothe CH3COOH and HCOOCH3 show isomerism

(a) Position (b) Chain (c) Geometric (d) Functional group

229. A double bound consists of:

(a) Two sigma bond (b) One sigma and one Pi bond

(c) One sigma and two Pi bond (d) two pi bonds

230. Ether shows the phenomenon of:

(a) Position Isomerism (b) Functional group isomerism

(c) Metamerism (d) Cis-trans isomerism

231. The isomerism shown by alkanes is:

(a) Skeletal (b) position (c) Geometric (d) Metamerism

232. Pentane (C5H12) shows how many chain isomers:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d)

5

233. Geometric isomerism is present in

(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Propane (d) 2-

Butene

234. Compound having same molecular formula but different structural formula is
called as:

(a)Polymerce (b) Monomers (c) Isomers (d) Allotropes

235. Five carbon compounds, Pentane has number of isomers:

(a)Five (b) Four (c) Three (d) One

236. Which of the following compounds may exist as cis-tans isomer?

(a)1-Butene (b) 2-butene (c) Cyclopropane (d) Acetone

237. The state of hybridization of carbon atom in methane is:

(a) Sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) dsp2

238. In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded to:

(a) Two hydrogen atom (b) Three hydrogen atoms

(c) One hydrogen atom (d) No hydrogen atom

239. Which set of hybrid orbital has planar triangular shape?

(a) Sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2

240. The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was:

(a) Berzelius (b) Kolbe (c) Wohler (d) Lavoisier

241. A double bond consists of:

(a) Two sigma bonds (b) One sigma and one pi

(c) One sigma & two pi bonds (d) two pi bond

242. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybride orbitals?

(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp1 (d) dsp2

243. Ethers show the phenomenon of:

(a) Position isomerism (b) Functional group isomerism

(c) Metamerism (d) Cis-trans isomerism

244: Select from the following the one which is alcohol:

(a) CH3-CH2-OH (b) CH3-O-CH3 (c) CH3COOH (d) CH3-

CH-Br

ECAT & MDCAT MCQ

245. Butane molecules can have maximum number of isomers:

(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2

246. Which one of the following pairs can be cis-trans isomer to each other?

(a)CHCl=CCl2 and CH2=CH2 (b) CH3-CH=CH-CH3 and H3C –CH=CH-CH3

(C )CHCl=CH2 and CH2 =CHCl (d) CH3 – CH3 and CH2=CH2

247. 1-chloropropane and 2 chloropropane are isomers of each other; the type of
isomerism in these two is called:

(a)cis-trans isomerism (b) Position isomerism

(c) Chain isomerism (d) Functional group isomerism

248. The following functional group is present in both aldehydes and ketones:

(a) Carbony1 (b) Hydroxy1 (c) Oxyboron (d) None of these

249. Carbon has the unique ability to formlong chainby bonding with other
carbonatoms this property of self-linking in carbon is known as:

(a) Condensation (b) Cyclization (c) Polymerization (d) Catenation

Chapter no 8
249. Preparation of vegetable ghee involves:
(a)Halogenation (b) Hydrogenation (c) Hydroxylation (d) Dehydrogenation

250. Sabatier –Sendern’s reaction can be used to prepare:

(a) Alkanes (b) Alkenes (c) Hydroxylation (d) Dehydrogenation

251. Marsh gas is:

(a) CH4 (b) C2H4 (c) C3H8 (d) C4H10

252. Alkanes are non –polar, they are soluble in:

(a)Diethyl ether (b) Benzene (c) Toluene (d) All of these

253. Which type of reaction is given by alkanes?

(a) Addition (b) Substitution (c) Elimination (d)

polymerization

254. Wolf –Kushner’s reduces aldehyde into:

(a)Alkyne (b) Alkene (c) Alkane (d)

Alcohol

256. Addition of hydrogen accompanied by a bond cleavage is called:

(a)Hydrogenation (b) Hydrolysis (c) Hydrogenolysis (d)

Hydroxylation

257. Formula of chloroform is:

(a) CH2Cl (b) CH2Cl2 (c) CCl4 (d)

CHCl3

258. CH4+Cl2 product is:

(a)Chloroform only (b) Carbon tetra chloride only (c) CH3+CH2 Cl2 (d) Mixture of
A.B.C

259. The formula of dichloromethane is:

(a) Cl2CH2 (b) CHCl3 (c) CH3Cl (d)

CCl4

260. The presence of double or triple bond in a compound is the sign of:

(a)Unsaturation (b) Saturation (c) Addition (d) Substitution

261. Baeyer’s reagent is:

(a) Dilute alkaline KamnO4 sol (b) HCl+ZnCl2 (c)Br2 in CCl4 (d) All of
these

262. When 1-Chloropane is reacted with alcoholic KOH, the product obtained as:

(a) Propane (b) Propene (c) Propyne (d) Butane

263. Landler’s catalyst is:

(a)Ba (PbSO4) Quinolone (b) Pd (PbSO4) Quinolone

(c) Pd(BaSO4) Quinolone (d) Ba(PbSO4) Quinolone

264. Conversion of unsaturated hydrocarbons to saturated hydrocarbons in the

presence of catalyst is called:

(a) Halogenation b) Hydrogenation (c) Hydroxylation (d) Dehydrogenation

265. Synthetic rubber is made by polymerization of:

(a)Chloroform (b) Acetylene (c) Divinylacetylene (d

Chloroprene

266. Vinyl acetylenes combine with HCl to from:

(a) Oxyacetylene (b) Benzene (c) Chloroprene (d) Divinyl

acetylene

267. Chloroprene is used for making:

(a) Rubber (b) Petrol (c) Propane (d) Liquid fuel

268. Acetylene polymerises to make:

(a) 1,3,5-Cyclohexatriene (b) Benzene (c) Butane (d) Hexane

267. 𝜷 − 𝜷 −Dichloro ethyl sulphide is commonly known as:

(a) Mustard gas (b) Laughing gas (c) Phosgene gas (d) Bio-
as

268. Preparation of vegetable ghee involves.

(a) Halogenation (b) Hydrogenation (c) Hydroxylation (d)

Dehydrogenation

267. Formula of Chloroform is:

(a)CH3Cl (b) CCl4 (c) CH2Cl (d) CHCl3

268. The presence of double bound in a compound is the sign of:

 (a) Saturation (b) Unsaturation (c) Substitution (d) None

269. Vinyl acetylene combines with HCl to form:

(a) Poly acetylene (b) Benzene (c) Chloroprene (d) Divinyl acetylene

270. The addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene is in

accordance with the rule:

(a) Hund’s rule (b) Markownikov’s rule (c) Pauli’s Exclusion principle (d)Auf-bau
Principle

271. Synthetic rubber is made by polymerization of :

(a) Chloroform (b) Acetylene (c) Divinyl acetylene (d) Butene

272. 𝜷 − 𝜷 −Dichloro ethyl sulphide is commonly known as:

(a) Mustard gas (b) Laughing gas (c) Phosgene gas (d) Bio-
as

273. When methane reacts with Cl2 in the presence of diffused light the products
obtained are:

(a) Chloroform only (b) Carbo tetrachloride only

(c) Chloromethane and dichloromethane (d) Mixture a, b,c

274. Which one of the following gases is used for artificial ripening of fruits?

(a) Ethane (b) Ethane (c) Methane (d) Propane

ECAT& MDCAT
275. Which product is obtained by the elimination of bromopropane?

(a)Propene (b) Butenc (c) Ethene (d) Propane

276. Brominating of alkene is shown in the following reaction .This reaction is used for:

(a) Detection of Ketones (b) Detection of double bond

(c ) Identification of pri-and sec –alcohols (d) Detection of aldehydes

277. The dehydration of ethyl alcohol with concentrated H2SO2 at 140.C gives

(a) Ethene (b) Diethyl ether (c) Alcohol (d) Carboxylic acid

278. Order of reactivity of alkenes with hydrogen halide is :

(a) HBr>Hl>HCl (b) HF>Hl>HCl (c) Hl>HF>HBr (d) HI>HBr>HCl

279. Ethylene glycols are used as:

(a)Aesthetic (b) Freezing agent (c) knowing agent (d) anti freezing gent.

279. Ethene on polymerization, gives the product polyethene. This reaction may be
called as:

(a)Addition (b) Condensation (c) substitution (d) pyrolysis

280. The addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene is in

accordance with the rule.

(a)Hund’s rule (b) Markownikov’s rule (c) Pauli’s Exclusion principle (d) Aufbau
principle

281. Reactions of alkanes with halogens is known as :

(a) Addition b) Free radical substitution (c) Elimination (d) Propagation

282. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

(a) Sabatier Sender Reaction (b) Reduction Reaction

(c) Hydrogenolysis (d) Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction

283. Alkanes are non-polar or weakly polar compounds that are insoluble in:

(a)Polar solvent (b) Uni-polar solvent (c) Non-Polar solvent (d) none of these

Chapter no 9
284. In which compound benzene ring are isolated:

(a) Diphenyl methane (b) Naphthalene (c) Anthracene (d) Phenanthrene

285. Aromatic hydrocarbon is derivative of:

(a) Alkene (b) Benzene (c) Cyclohexene (d) Normal series of

paraffin’s

286. Molecule of benzene contains:

(a)Three double bonds (b) two double bound

(c) One double bound (d) Delocalized –electron charge

289. The extra –ordinary stability of benzene molecule is due to:

(a) Cyclic structure b) That is gives addition reactions

(c) Large delocalization –electrons (d) that is has three alternate single and double bonds

290. In benzene, the C-C bond length is:

(a) 1.34𝐴∘ (b) 1.20𝐴∘ (c) 1.397𝐴∘ (d) 1.54𝐴∘

291. Benzene cannot undergo:

(a) Substitution reaction (b) Addition reactions

(c) Oxidation reaction (d) Elimination reaction

292. The conversion of n-hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt is called:

(a) Isomerism (b) Aromatization (c) Dealkylation (d) Rearrangement

293. Benzene is prepared from cyclohexane by the process called:

(a)Hydrogenation (b) Dehydration (c) Dehydrogenation (d) None of these

294. Which acid can be used as catalyst in friedel –Crafts reaction?

(a)AlCl3 (b) HNO3 (c) BeCl3 (d) NaCl

295. Benzene reacts with alkyl halides in the presence of AlCl3. This reaction is:

(a)Fridel Crafts reaction (b) Aldol condensation

(c) Halogenation reaction (d) Nitration reaction

296. amongst the following, the compound that can be most readily sulphated:

(a)NO3 (b) HNO3 (c) NO2-1 (d) NO2+1

297. Aromatic compounds burn with sooty flame because:

(a)They have high percentage of hydrogen (b) they have a ring structure

(c ) They have high percentage of carbon (d) They resist reaction with air

297. The electrophile in the aromatic sulphonation is:

(a) H2SO4 (b) HSO3 (c) SO3 (d) SO3+

298. Molecular formula of Benzyl chloride is:

(a) H5C6CCt3 (b) H5C6CHCl2 (c) H5C6CH2Cl (d) C6H5Cl

299. Which compound is the most reactive one?

(a)Benzene (b) Ethane (c) Ethene (d) Benzene

300. Ortho, Para derivatives are obtained by halogenation of:

(a)Nitrobenzene (b) Toluene (c) Benz aldehyde (d) Benzene

301. Which is the molecular formula of TNT?

(a) C6H2 (NO2)3 C2H5 (b) C6H2 (NO2)3 CH3 (c) C6H2 (NO2)3 C2H5 (d) C6H2 (NO2)3
C3H7

302. The benzene molecule contains:

(a) Three double bound (b) Two double bound

(c) One double bound (d) Delocalized𝜋 − electron charge

303. Aromatic hydrocarbons are the derivative of:

(a) Normal series of paraffin’s (b) Alkene (c) Benzene (d)

Cyclohexane

304. Which of the following acid can be used as a catalyst in Friedel Craft’s reactions?

(a) AlCl3 (b) HNO3 (c) BeCl2 (d) NaCl

305. Benzene cannot undergo:

(a) Substitution reaction (b) Addition reaction (c) Oxidation reaction (d) Elimination reaction

306. Among the following, the compound that can be most readily Salphonated is:

(a) Toluene (b) Benzene (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Chlorobenzene

307. During Nitration of benzene. The active nitrating agent is:

(a) NO3 (b) NO2+ (c) NO2- (d) HNO3

308. Which compound is the most reactive one?

(a)Benzene (b) Ethene (c) Ethane (d) Ethyne

309. Aromatic compounds burn with sooty flame because:

(a)They have high percentage of hydrogen (b) they have a ring structure

(c) They have high percentage of carbon (d) they resist reaction with air

310. The conversion of n-hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt.
catalyst is called:

(a) Isomerization (b) Aromatization (c) Dealkylation (d) Rearrangement

 ECAT&MDCAT MCQ
311. The reaction of benzene with bromine in the presence of FeBr3 follows the
mechanism of reactions:

(a) Electrophilic addition (b) Electrophilic substitutions

(c) Nucleophile substitutions (d) Neocleophilic addition

312. The extra ordinary stability of benzene molecule is due to:

(a) Cyclic structure (b) That it gives addition reaction

(c) Large delocalization (d) that it has three alternate single and double bonds

314. Benzene in the presence of AlCl3 produces acetophenone when reacts with

(a) Acetyl chloride (b) Ethyl Benzene (c) Acetic acid (d) Ethanoic acid

315. The substitution of a ‘-H’ by ‘-NO2’ Group in benzene is called:

(a) Nitration (b) Sulphonation (c) Ammunolusis (d) Ethanoic acid

316. The introduction of RCO group in benzene is called:

(a) Acylation (b) Alkylation (c) Carbonyl Reduction (d) Formulation

317. Which one of the following is powerful electrophile used to attack on the electron of
benzene ring:

(a) FeCl3 (b) Cl+ (c) FeCl4- (d) Cl2

318. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

(a) Alkyl Group (b) Benzyl Group (c) Phenyl Group (d) Methyl Group

319. When benzene reacts with acetyl chloride (CH3COCl) in the presence of AlCl3
acetophenone is formed .The electrophile in this reaction is:

(a) CH3C+O (b)AlCl (c) C+H3 (d) CH3COCl

320. Which of the following species are meta-directing group hen second group in
introduced into the benzene ring:

1= -NH2

II= - CHO
IV= -CH3

(a) III,III and IV (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) I,II and IV

CHAPTER NO 10

321.In primary alkyl halides the halogen atom attached to a carbon atom which is
further attached to how many carbon atom :

(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four

322. The comman name of 2-Choloro -2 methyl propane is:

(a) Isobutyl chloride (b) Secondary butyl chloride

(c) Tertiary butyl chloride (d) N-butyl chloride

323. H3O has one lone pair of electrons on oxygen .It cannot act as:

(a) Lewis acid (b) Nucleophile (c) Strong acid (d) Electrophile

324. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) BF3 (d) NH3

325. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve:

(a) First order kinetics (b) second order Kinetics (c) 3rd order kinetics (d) zero order kinetics

326. SN2 reactions can be best carried out with:

(a) Primary alkyl halides (b) Secondary alkyl halides

(c) Tertiary alkyl halides (d) Alkyl halides

327. The order of a typical Sn2 reaction is:

(a) Zero (b) First (c) Second (d) Third

328. For which mechanism, the first step involves is the same:

(a) E1 and E2 (b) E2 and SN2 (c) SN1 and E2 (d) E1 and SN1

329. in 2N2 mechanism, the hybridization of carbon atom changes from sp2 to:

(a) Sp3 (b)sp (c) dsp2 (c) sp3

330. Grignard reagent reactive due to:

(a) The presence of the halogen atom (b) The presence of Mg atom
(c) The polarity of C-Mg bond (d) none of these

331. Reactions of the following with Grignard reagent can give primary alcohol:

(a) Expoxide (b) peroxide (c) super oxide (d) Hydrogen oxide

332. Ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with water to form:

(a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Propane (d) N-butane

333. Primary alcohol is obtained by treating Grignard Reagent with:

(a)HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2

334. Reaction of CO2 with ethyl magnesium bromide, followed by acid hydrolysis
produce:

(a) Propane (b) Propionic acid (c) propanol (d) Propanol

335. When CH3-CH2OH is made to react with Grignard’s reagent the product formed
is:

(a)Alkane (b) Ether (c) Alcohol (d) Alkene

336. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is attached to a carbon, which is further
attached to how many carbon atoms:

(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four

337. The reactivity of order of alkyl halides for a particular alkyl group is :

(a) Fluoride> Chloride > Bromide >Iodide

(b) Chloride> Bromide> Fluoride> Iodide

(c) Iodide > Bromide>) Chloride> Fluoride

(d) Bromide>) Iodide > Chloride> Fluoride

338. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide, followed by acid
hydrolysis the product formed is:

(a) Propane (b) Propionic acid (c) Propanal (d) Propanol

339. Grignard reagent is reactive due to:

(a) The presence of halogen atom (b) The presence of Mg atom

(c) The polarity of C- Mg bond (d) none of above.

340. SN2 reactions can be best carried out with

(a) Primary alkyl halides (b) Secondary alkyl halides (c) The alkyl halides (d) All of three
341. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve:

(a) First order kinetics (b) Second order kinetics (c) Third order kinetics (d) Zero order kinetics

342. For which mechanisms, the first step involved is the same:

(a)E1 and E2 (b) E2 and SN2 (c) E1 and E2 (D) E1 and SN1

343. Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophiles because:

(a) They have an electrophilic carbon

(b) They have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group

(c ) They have an electrophilic carbon and a bad leaving group

(d ) They have a nucleophile carbon and a good leaving group .

344. The rate of E1 reactions depend upon:

(a) The concentration of substrate (b) The concentration of nucleophile

(c ) The concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile (d) None of these

345. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) BF3 (d) NH3

ECAT& MDCAT
345. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the
presence of:

(a) Dry Ether (b) Alcohol (c) Sodium Lead Alloy (d) Water

346. During the SN1 reaction the fast reaction involves:

(a) Breakage of covalent bound (b) Formation of carbocation

(C) Transition state (d) Attack of nucleophile

347. In elimination reaction, alcoholic KOH is used, OH –I this case will act:

(a) Electrophile (b) Base (c) Leaving group (d) Acid

348. The reaction CH3Br+OH→CH3OH +Br- is best described the:

(a) Electrophile Substitution (b) Nucleophile substitution

(c) Nucleophile substitution Unimolecular (d) Addition reaction

349. Which statement is true?

(a) Reagent for 1 is KOH in alcohol (b) Reagent for II IS KOH in aqueous medium

(c) Reaction 1 is Debromination (d) Reaction II is elimination

350. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile?

(a) NH-2 (b) H2O (c) BF3 (d) CH3

351. Mechanism followed is not a nucleophile:

(a) E2 (b) E1 (c) SN1 (d) SN2

352. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

(a) Gets inverted (b) depend upon the carbon atom

(c) Remain same (d) Depend upon the electronegativity of halides

353. What is the order of increasing reactivity of alkyl halides?

(a) Iodoalkane< bromoalkane < chloroalkane < Flouroalkane

(b) Flouroalkane < chloroalkane< bromoalkane< Iodoalkane

(c ) Iodoalkane< bromoalkane< chloroalkane< Flouroalkane

(d ) Flouroalkane< chloroalkane< bromoalkane < Iodoalkane

Chapter no 11
354. Which enzyme is not involved in fermentation of starch?

(a) Diastase (b) Zymase (c) Urease (d) Invertase

355. Molasses undergo fermentation in the presence of enzymes:

(a) Invertase and Zymase (b) Diastase and maltase

(c) Zymase and sucrose (d) Lactase and amylase

356. The optimum temperature for fermentation is:

(a) 10-20 °𝐶 (b) 15- 25 °𝐶 (c) 20- 30 °𝐶 (d) 25-35°𝐶

357. Rectified spirit contains alcohol about:

(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 90% (d) 95%

358. Alcohol obtained by fermentation never exceeds:

(a) 14% (b) 10% (c) 16% (d) 95%

359. Methanol can be prepared from hydrogenation of:

(a) CH3CN (b) CO2 (c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO

360. Methanol is also calle:

(a) Wood spirit (b) Methylated spirit (c) Rectified spirit (d) Absolute alcohol

361. Order of reactivity of alcohols when C-O bond breaks is :

(a) Tertiary alcohols> Secondary alcohols>primary alcohols

(b) Primary alcohols >Secondary alcohols >Tertiary alcohols

(c) Secondary alcohols > primary alcohols> Tertiary alcohols

(d) Tertiary alcohols>Primary alcohols >Secondary alcohols

362. Which compound is more soluble in water?

(a) CH3OH (b) C2H2OH (c) CH3COOH (d) n-hexanol

363. Which liquid is called wood spirit?

(a) CH3OH (b) CH3OH (c) C2H5OH (d) CH3-O-CH3

363. Which compound is called universal solvent?

(a) H2O (b) CH3OH (C) C2H5OH (d) CH3-O-CH3

363. Methyl alcohol is not used:

(a) As a solvent (b) As antifreezing agent

(c) As a substitute for petrol (d) for denaturing of ethyl alcohol

364. Tertiary alcohol is obtained by treating Grignard reagent with:

(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CO2

365. which of the following reagent will replace -Oh group of alcohol by a halogen atom:

(a) HOCl (b) Br2 (c) SOCl (d) I2

366. Ethanol can be converted into Ethonic acid by:

(a) Iodoform test (b) Lucas test (c) Benedict’s test (d) Tolle n’s test

367. According to Lewis concept ethers are:

(a) Acid (b) Bases (c) Acid as well as bases (d) Neither acid nor bases

368. Carbon atom in dimethyl ether is:

(a) sp-hybridized (b) sp2- hybridized (c) sp3 –hybridized (d) None of these
369. Phenol – formaldehyde resin is called:

(a) Bakelite (b) Teflon (c) Orlon (d) Terylene

369. Which compound show hydrogen bonding?

(a) C2H6 (b) C2H5Cl (c) CH3-O-CH3 (d) C2H5OH

370. Which compounds show maximum hydrogen bonding with water?

(a) CH3OH (b) C2H5OH (c) CH3-O-CH3 (d) C6H5OH

371. Which compound is more soluble in water?

(a) C2H5OH (b) C6H5OH (c) CH3OCH3 (d) n-Hexanol

372. Which compound will have the maximum repulsion with H2O?

(a) C6H6 (b) C2H5OH (c) CH3-CH2CH2OH (d) CH3-O-CH3

373. Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by:

(a) Hydrogenation (b) Hydration (c) Oxidation (d) Fermentation

374. Which enzymes are not involved in fermentation of starch?

(a) Diastase (b) Zymase (c) Urease (d) Invertase

375. Which compound is called a universal solvent?

(a) H2O (b) CH3OH (c) C2H5-OH (d) CH3-O-CH3

376. Methyl alcohol is not used:

(a) As a solvent (b) As an anti-freezing agent

(c) As a substitute for petrol (d) for denaturing of ethyl alcohol

377. Rectified spirit contains alcohol about:

(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 90% (d) 95%

378: According to Lewis concept ethers behave as:

(a) Acid (b) Base (c) Acid as well as a base (d) None of these

ECAT & MDCAT MCQ

379: Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by:

(a)Hydrogenation (b) Hydration (c) Oxidation (d) Fermentation

380. Ethanol can be prepared by fermentation the following in the presence of oxygen:

(a) Protein (b) Oil (c) Starch (d) None of these

381. The ensure that ethanol is not used for drinking purposes; it is converted to
methylated spirit by adding:

(a) 10% methanol and a little acetone (b) 10% petrol and little diesel

(c) 50% alcohol (d) only 10% acetone

382. Which enzymes is involved in the fermentation of glucose:

(a) Zymase (b) Invertase (c) Urease (d) Diastase

383. Alcohol in which carbon atom bonded to OH group is further attached with three
alkyl groups is:

(a) Primary Alcohol (b) Secondary Alcohol (c) Tertiary Alcohol (d) Aromatic Alcohol

Chapter no 12
384: Ketones are prepared by oxidation of:

(a) Primary Alcohol (b) Secondary Alcohol (c) Tertiary Alcohol (d) All of these

385: Formation of acetaldehyde from ethanol is known as:

(a) Reduction (b) Addition ( c) Oxidation (d) Substitution

386: Acidified oxidation agent for the laboratory preparation of acetaldehyde is:

(a)K2Cr2O7+H2O (b) Na2Cr2O7+H2SO4 (c) K2Cr2O7+H2s (d) Na2Cr2O7+NO2

387: Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

(a)Methanol (b) Ethanal (c) Propanal (d) 2-Hexanone

389: Flowing in an aromatic aldehyde

(a) Butanone (b) 2-Pantanone (c) Pentanol (d) Benzaldehyde

390: Formalin is a soluble of ------ Formaldehyde in water:

(A) 10% (b) 20% (c) 40% (d) 60%

391. Connizzaro reaction is given by:

(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formaldehyde (c) Propanal (d) Propanol

392: Connizzaro reaction is not given by:

 (a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethylacetaldehyde

393: Acetone reacts with HCN to forms cyanohydrin .It is an example of:

(a)Electrophilic addition (b) Electrophilic

(c)Nucleophile addition (d) Nucleophilic substitution

394: The carbon atom of carbonyl group is:

(a) sp-hybridized (b) sp2-hybridized (c) sp3- hybridized (d) d sp2 hybridized

395: Addition of alcohol in carbonyl gives acetal, the geometry of acetal is :

(a)Linear (b) Trigonal (c) Tetrahedral (d) Planar

396: Methyl ketones are characterized by:

(a)Tolle n’s reagent (b) Iodoform (c) Benedict’s (d) Fehling solution

397: Which compound will not give iodoform test on treatment with I2 /NaOH?

(a)Acetaldehyde (b) Acetone (c) Butanone (d) 3-Pentanone

398: The compound which does not give iodoform test:

(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Ethyl alcohol ( c) Formaldehyde (d) Acetone

399: The compound used in the processing of anti-polio vaccine is:

(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Formaldehyde (c) Acetone (d) Ethyl bromide

400: Which will react with Fehling’s solution?

(a) HCOOH (b) CH3CHO (C) CH3COOH (d) CH3.CO.CH3

401: Methyl Keystones are characterized by:

(a) Tolle n’s reagent (b)Iodoform test (c) Benedict’s reagent (d) Fehling’s solution

402: Silver mirror test is given by:

(a) Aldehydes (b) Ketones (c) Ethers (d) Acids

403: Which of the following reagent will react with both aldehydes and ketones?

(a) Grignard reagent (b) Tolle n’s reagent (c)Fehling reagent (d) Benedict’s reagent

ECAT& MDCAT
404: Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium of calcium salts of formic acid ad acetic
acid results into the formation of:

(a)Formaldehyde (b) Calcium acetate c) Acetaldehyde (d) Sodium acetate

404: Which mechanism of reaction is shown by carbonyl compounds?

(a) Nucleophilic addition (b) Electrophilic

(b) (c) Electrophilic substitution (d)Free radical substitution

405: Hydrolysis of cyano group by aqueous acid results into:

(a)Carboxylic acid (b) Cyanohydride (c) Acid Amide (d) Formaldehyde

406: Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

(a)Sodium borohydride (b) Sodium nitroprusside (c) Sodium bisulphite (d) Fehling’s solution

407: Which one of the following test is given by both aldehyde and ketone?

(a)Silver mirror test (b) 2, 4 DNPH test (c) Fehling solution test (d) Benedict’s solution test

Chapter no 13
408: Phthisic acid is a:

(a)Monocarboxylic acid (b) Carboxylic acid (c) Tricarboxylic acid (d) none of these

409: Which compound is polyproitc acid:

(a)CH3COOH (b) C6H4 (OH) COOH (c) (COOH) (d) C6H5OH

410: 2- Hydroxy propionic acid is called:

(a) Oxalic acid (b) Lactic acid (c) Cirtic acid (d) Aspartic acid

411: Acetic acid was first isolated from:

(a) Butter (b) Vinegar (c) Milk (d) Red ant

412: Carbon atom is following is sp2-hybridized:

(a) CH3CN (b)CH=CH (c)HCOOH (d)CH2Cl2

413: Which of the following is not a fatty acid?

(a) Propionic acid (b) Acetic acid (c)Phthisic acid (d) Butanoic acid

414: Suffix used in the naming of carboxylic acid is:

 (a) –ene (b) –al (c) –ane (d) –oie

415: Carboxylic acid exists as cyclic dimer in solution with:

(a)Water (b) Alcohol (c) Benzene (d) All

416: Ester amyl acetate has the flavour of:

(a) Raspberry (b) Apricot (c) Benzene (d) All

417: Which will produce CO2 when treated with Na2CO3:

(a) CH2=CH-CH3 (b) CH3-CHO (c) CH3COOC2H5 (d) CH3-CH2-COOH

418: Acetamide is prepared by:

(a) Heating ammonium acetate (b) Heating methyl cyanide

(b) (c)Heating ethyl acetate (d)The hydrolysis of methyl cyanide

419: The derivative of carboxylic acid which cannot be prepared directly:

(a) Acetamide (b)Acetyl chloride (c)Acetic anhydride Ester

420: Which reagent is used to reduce a carboxylic group to an alcohol?

(a) N2/Ni (b) H2/Pt (c)H2/Pd (d) LiAlH4

421: Acetic acid is manufactured by:

(a)Esterification (b) Distillation (c) Sublimation (d) Fermentation

422: The solution of which acid is used for seasoning of food:

(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Benzoic acid (d) Butanoic acid

423: The organic acid that does not have Carboxyl group:

(a) Formic acid (b) Formic acid (c) Acetic acid (d) Butanoic acid

424: Which of the following acid is used to prepare synthetic fibre?

(a)Carbonic acid (b) Formic acid (c) Acetic acid (d) Butyric acid

425: Molar mass of CH3COOH obtained by elevation of boiling point method is:

(a)30 (b) 60 (c) 120 (d) 180

426: Tyrosine was first isolated from:

(a) Sugar (b)Cleese (c) Butter (d) Milk

427: The nature of glutamic acid is:

(a) Acidic amino acid (b) Basic amino acid

(b) (c) Neutral amino acid (d) Slightly basic ammino acid

428: Amino acids are prepared by:

(a) Williamson’s (b) Strecker’s (c) Wurtz’s (d) Perkin’s reaction

429: Which test is applied to detect amino –acid:

(a) Fehling’s test (b) Ninhydrin test (c) Iodoform test (d) 19% NaCH Solution test

430: The molecular mass of protein is:

(a) Less than 10.000 (b) Greater than 10,000 (c) Equal to 10,000 (d) Equal to 9,000

431: Polypeptide has molecular mass up to:

(a) 10,000 (b) 20,000 (c) 1000 (d) 10

432: Which is basic amino acid?

(a) Glycine (b) Alanine (c) Aspartic acid (d) Lysine

433: Acetic acid is manufacturing by:

(a) Distillation (b) Fermentation (c) Ozonolysis (d) Esterification

434: A carboxylic acid contains:

(a) A hydroxyl group (b) A carboxyl group

(b) (c) A hydroxyl and carboxyl group (d) A carboxyl and an aldehydic group

435: Which acid is used in the manufacturing in synthetic fiber?

(a) Formic acid (b) Oxylic acid (c) Carbonic acid (d) Acetic acid

436:Which of the following derivative cannot be prepared directly from acetic acid
:

(a) Acetamide (b) Acetyl chloride (c) Acetic anhydride (d) Ethyl acetate

437: Which reagent is used to reduce a carboxylic group to an alcohol?

(a) N2/Ni (b) H2/Pt (c)H2/Pd (d) LiAlH4

438: The solution is used to reduced a carboxylic group to an alcohol:

(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Benzoic acid (d) Butanoic acid
439: Organic compound X and Y react together to form organic compound What type
of compounds can X, Y and Z be:

X Y Z

(a) Alcohol ester acid

(b) Acid ester alcohol

(c) Ester alcohol acid

(d) Alcohol acid ester

440: An aqueous solution of an organic compound reacts with sodium carbonate to

produced carbon dioxide gas .Which one of the following could be the organic
compound?

(a) CH2=CH-CH3 (b) CH3-CHO (c) CH3COOC2H5 (d)CH3-CH2-COOH

441: Which of the following is not fatty acid?

(a) Propaboic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Phthalic acid (d) Butanoic acid

442: Acetamide is prepared by:

(a) Heating ammonium acetate (b)Heating methyl cyanide

(b) (c) Heating ethyl acetate (d) the hydrogen of methyl cyanide

ECAT&MDCAT MCQ
443: Complete reduction of carboxylic acids to the alkane is carried out with:

(a) HI /P (b)LiAIH4 (c) NABH4 (d) H2

444: Consider the following reaction: CH3COOH +Mg (metal) →? What product will from?

(a) Magnesium format (b) Magnesium acetate

(c) Magnesium ion (d) Carboxylate ion

445: Ethyl butrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavour of:

(a) Pear (b) Banana (c) Pineapple (d) Apple

446: Which product is obtained by the reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol?

(a) Alkane (b) Ether (c) Aldehyde (d) Ester

447: The nature of the amino acid “lysine “is:

 (a) Neutral (b) Ether (c) Aldehyde (d) Ester

448: Which of the following has an amino Re- Group?

(a) Lysine (b) Proline (c) Valine (d) Alanine

449: At low Ph. or in acidic condition s amino acid exist are:

(a) Anion (b) Cation (c) Z writer (d) Natural specie

450: Which of the following reagent is used for identification of amino acid?

(a) Fehling’s solution (b) Benedict’s solution (c) Ninhydrin (d) Copper (II) Sulphate

451: Which of the following amino acid is basic in nature?

(a) Glycine (b) Alanine (c) Lysine (d) Glutamic acid

452: Which one of the following is simplest amino acid?

(a) Lysine (b) Leucine (c) Alanine (d) Glycine

Chapter no 14

453: Degree of polymerization is useful in:

(a) Structure determination of polymers (b) Calculating the mass

(b) (c) Calculating in molecular mass of molecular mass of polymers

(c) (d) Classification of polymerse

454: Which of these polymers in an addition polymer:

(a) Nylon- 6, 6 (b) Polystyrene (c) Terylene (d) Epoxy resion

455: The fiber which is made from acrylonitrile as monomer is:

(a) PVC (b) Rayon fiber (c) Acrylic fiber (d) Polyester fiber

456: ---------Polymers is a synthetic polymer:

(a) Animal fat (b) Starch (c) Cellulose (d) Polyester

457: Nylon 6, 6 is obtained by heating hexamethylenediamine with:

(a) Adipic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Vinyl choloride (d) Acrylic acid

458: Which statement about glucose and sucrose in incorrect

 (a) Both are soluble in water (b) Bothe occur naturally

(b) (c) Both are carbohydrates (d) both are disaccharides

459: Starch is a polymer of :

(a) 𝛼 -D –glucose (b) 𝛽-D- glucose (c) 𝛼-D-fructose (d) 𝛽−D-fructose

460: Which element is not present in all proteins?

(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Sulphur

461: Vegetable oils are:

(a) Unsaturated fatty acids (b) Glyceride of saturated fatty acids

(b) (c) Glycerides of unsaturated fatty acids (d) Saturated fatty acids

462: The reaction between fat and NaOH is called:

(a) Esterification (b) Hydrogenolysis (c) Fermentation (d) Saponification

463: Which of the following enzymes brings about the hydrolysis of fats?

(a) Urease (b) Maltase (c) Zymase (d) Lipase

463: Enzyme used for the diagnosis of obstructive jaundice is:

(a) LDH-1 (b) L-Asparaginase (c) Lipase (d) Alkaline phosphatase

464: Which one of the following nitrogenous base is not present in RNA?

(a) Cytosine (b) Adenine (c) Thiamine (d) Uracil

465: In which of these processes are small organic molecules made into macromolecules:

(a) The cracking of petroleum fraction (b) The fractional distillation of crude oil

(c) The polymerization of Ethene (d) the hydrolysis of proteins

Exercise MCQ
466: In which of these processes are small organic molecules made into macromolecules:

(b) The cracking of petroleum fraction (b) The fractional distillation of crude oil

(c) The polymerization of Ethene (d) the hydrolysis of proteins

467: Which of these polymers is an addition polymer?

(a) Nylon -6, 6 (b) Polystyrene (c) Terylene (d) Epoxy resin

468: Which of these polymers is a synthetic polymer?

 (a) Animal fat (b) Starch (c) Cellulose (d) Polyester

469: Plastics are a pollution problem because many plastics:

(a) Are made from petroleum ( b) Are very flammable

(b) (c) Burn to produce toxic fumer (d) Decompose to produce toxic products

470: The fiber which is made from acrylonitrile as monomer:

(a) PVC (b) Rayon fibre (c) Acrylic fibre (d) Polyester fibre

471: A polymeric substance that is formed in the liquid state and then hardened to a
rigid solid is called a:

(a) Fibre (b) Plastic (c) Varnish (d) Polyamide resin

472: Vegetable oil is:

(a) Unsaturated fatty acid (b) Glycerides of unsaturated fatty acids

(b) (c) Glycerides of unsaturated fatty acid (d) Essential oils obtained from plants

473: Which of the following elements is not present in all proteins?

(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Sulphure

474: Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

(a) Niacin (b) Riboflavin (c) Trypsin (d) Ascorbic acid

475: Which of the following enzymes brings about the hydrolysis of fats?

(a) Urease (b) Maltase (c) Zymase (d) Lipase

476: The reaction between fat and NaOH is called:

(a) Esterification (b) Hydrogenolysis (c) Fermentation (d) Saponification

477: Which of the following statements about glucose and sucrose is incorrect?

(a) Both are soluble in water (b) Both are naturally occurring

(b) (c) Both are carbohydrates (d) Both are disaccharides

ECAT & MDCAT MCQ

478: The principle energy storage carbohydrates in animal are:

(a) Glucose (b) Protein (c) Starch (d) Glycogen

479: Lactose is a sugar present in milk. It is an example of:

 (a) Disaccharides (b) Polysaccharides (c) Monosaccharide (d) Starch

480: Animal store glucose in the form of glycogen in:

(a) Stomach (b) Liver and muscles (c) Mouth (d) Small intestine

481 : Which of the following is an exact composition of a carbohydrates :

(a) Carbon and Hydrogen (b) Carbon and oxygen

(b) (c) Carbon , Hydrogen and oxygen (d) Hydrogen and Oxygen

482: Two or more amino acids condensed to from protein by a peptide linkage which is
present between two atoms:

(a) C and C (b) C and N (c) O and C (d) C and H

483: The reaction between fats and caustic soda is called:

(a) Hydrogenolysis (b) Fermentation (c) Carboxylation (d) Saponification

484: The increased quantities of cholesterol in blood make plaque like deposits in the
arteries between two atoms:

(a) Cholera (b) Down’s syndrome (c) Heart attack (d) Phenylketonuria

485: Which of the following nitrogenous base is not present in RNA?

(a) Cytosine (b) Adenine (c) Thiamine (d) Uracil

486: Both ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharide’s containing:

(A) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Seven

487: Out of these which nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?

(a) Adenine (b) Uracil (c) Guanine (d) Thymine

Chapter no 15
488: Which of the following elements is not a micro nutrient?

(a) Cu (b) Fe (c) Mg (d) Mo

489: Macronutrients are required for acre in quantity ranging from:

(a) 2-200kg (b) 3-200 kg (c) 4-200 kg (d) 5- 200 kg

490: Macronutrients are required in quantity are ranging from:

(a) 4-40 g (b) 6- 200 g (c) 6- 200 kg (d) 10- 200 kg

491: The three elements needed for the healthy grough of plants:

(a) S,N,P (b) N , Ca , P (c) N, P ,K (d) N,K ,C

492: The fertilizer, which contains 46% N, is:

(a) Urea (b) Ammonia (c) Ammonium nitrate (d) None of these

493: The natural fertilizer is called:

(a) Manure (b) Urea (c) Super phosphate (d) Ammonium sulphate

494: Percentage of nitrogen in urea is:

(a) 76% (b) 56% (c) 46 % (d) 86%

495: Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for which crops:

(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Sugarcane (d) Paddy rice

496: The nitrogen present in fertilizer helps plants:

(a) To fight against disease (b) To produce fat

(c) To produce protein (d) to produce carbohydrates

497: The nitrogenous fertilizer easily taken up by plants is:

(a) Urea (b) Ammonium nitrate (c) Ammonia gas (d) Ammonia liquid

498: Which three elements are needed for the healthy growth of plants?

(a) S,N,P (b) N , Ca , P (c) N, P ,K (d) N,K ,C

499: Which woody raw material is used for the manufacture of paper plup?

(a) Cotton (b) Bagasse (c) Poplar (d) Rice straw

500: phosphorus helps the growth of:

(a) Root (b) Leave (c) Stem (d) Seed

501: Argillaceous material used for the manufacturing of cement provides:

(a) Basic components (b) Amphoteric components

(b) (c) Acidic component (d) Both acidic and basic components

502: Which of the following is argillaceous material? Or which which is not a calcareous
material:

(a) Lime stone (b) Clay (c) Marble (d) Marine shells
503: The number of zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln
manufacture of cement is:

(a) Clay (b) Gypsum (c) Alumina (d) Marble

504: The number of zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln
manufacture of cement is:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

505: The three elements needed for the healthy grough of plants:

(a) S,N,P (b) N , Ca , P (c) N, P ,K (d) N,K ,C

506: Which woody raw material is used for the manufacture of paper plup?

(a) Cotton (b) Bagasse (c) Poplar (d) Rice straw

507: The nitrogen present in some fertilizer helps plants:

(a) The fight against disease ( b) To produce fat

(b) (c) To undergo photosynthesis (d) to produce protein

508: Phosphorous helps the growth of:

(a) Root (b) Leave (c) Stem (d) Seed

509: Micro – nutrients are required in quantity ranging from:

(a) 4g – 40g (b) 6g – 200g (c) 6kg – 200kg (d) 4kg – 40kg

510: During the manufacturing process of cement the temperature of the decomposition
zone goes up to:

(a) 600°𝐶 (b) 800 (c) 1000°𝐶 (d) 1200°𝐶

511: The word paper is derived from the name of which ready plant:

(a) Rose (b) Sun flower (c) Papyrus (d) Water Hyacinth

512: Which is not a calcareous material?

(a) Lime (b) Clay (c) Marble (d) Marine shell

513: How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln:

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5

514: Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for which crop:

(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Sugar cane (d) Paddy rice
 ECAT & MDCAT MCQ
515: Which non- woody raw material is used for making pulp and paper?

(a) Fir (b) Corn straw (c) Eucalyptus (d) Poplar

516: The word paper is derived from the name of which reedy plants:
 (a) Rose b) Sun flower (c) Papyrus (d) Water Hyacinth

517: Which substance is added to the air cooled cement clinker:

(a) Clay (b) Gypsum (c) Alumina (d) Marble

518: Which of the following is not used as fertilizer?

(a) Anhydrous ammonia (b) Sodium hydroxide

(b) (c) Calcium nitrate (d) Ammonium phosphate

519: Percentage of nitrogen in urea is:

(a) 92% (b) 68% (c) 46% (d) 48%

520: The zone where moisture is removed and clay is broken down into Al2O3, SiO2, Fe2O3 is:

(a) Burning zone (b) Cooling zone (c) Drying zone (d) Decomposition zone

521: In paper industry, sodium sulphate is buffered with:

(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium hydroxide (c) Sodium acetate (d) Both a and b

522: Which can be used as a liquid fertilizer?

(a) Urea (b) Ammonia (c) potassium phosphate (d) Ammonium phosphate

523: Ammonium nitrate is not used for:

(a) Rice (b) Corn (c) Cotton (d) Wheat

Chapter no 16

524: The Ph rang of the acid rain is:

(a) 7-6.5 (b) 6.5-6 (c) 6-5.6 (d) Less than 5

525: Peroxy acetl nitrate (PAN) is an irritant of human being and it effects:

(a) Ears (b) Stomach (c) Eyes (d) Nose

526: The residence time of NO in atmosphere is:

(a) Thirty minutes (b) One day (c) Three days (d) four days

527: Which gas is not a pollutant?

(a) SO2 (b) CO (c) NO2 (d) CO2

528: Reducing smog contains high content of:

 (a) NO2 (b) SO2 (c) NO (d) CO2

529: The normal amount of overhead ozone is about:

(a) 150 DU (b) 250 DU (c) 350 DU (d) 450 DU

530: The degree in ozone concentrate in overhand atmosphere is according due to human
activity .Half of the ozone over Antarctica has been depleted up to the year:

(a) 1960 (b) 1970 (c) 1980 (d) 1999

531: A single chloride free radical can destroy how many ozone molecules:

(a) 100 (b) 100,000 (c) 10,000 (d) 10

532: Fungicides are the pesticides which:

(a) Control the growth of fungus (b) ) Kill insects (c) Kill plants (d) Kill herbs

533: The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the water is due to the salt of :

(a) Lead (b) Chromium III (c) Copper (d) Chromium VI

534: Biochemical oxygen demand is the capacity of organic matter in natural water to
consume oxygen within a period of:

(a) Three days (b) Four days (c) Five days (d) Six days

535: Following is better to disinfect water:

(a) Cl2 (b) O2 (c) O3 (d) KMnO4

535: In purification of potable water the coagulant used in:

(a) Nickel sulphate (b) Alum (c) Copper sulphate (d) Barium sulphate

536: The Ph rang of the acid rain is:

(a) 7-6.5 (b) 6.5-6 (c) 6-5.6 (d) Less than 5

537: Peroxy acetl nitrate (PAN) is an irritant of human being and it effects:

(a) Ears (b) Stomach (c) Eyes (d) Nose

538: To avoid the formation of toxic compounds with chlorine which substance is used for
disinfecting water?

(a) KMnO4 (b) O3 (c) Alums (d) Chloramines

539: A single chloride free radical can destroy how many ozone molecules:
 (a) 100 (b) 100000 (c) 10000 (d) 10

540: : Fungicides are the pesticides which:

(a) Control the growth of fungus (b) ) Kill insects (c) Kill plants (d) Kill herbs

541: Ecosystem is a smaller unit of:

(a) Lithosphere (b) Hydrosphere (c) Atmosphere (d) Biosphere

542: The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the waste water is due the salt of:

(a) Lead (b) Chromium (VI) (c) Copper (d) Chromium (III )

543: In purification of potable water, the coagulant used is:

(a) Nickel sulphate (b) Copper sulphate (c) Barium sulphate (d) Alum

544: The temperature in the non- rotating chamber in incineration of industrial and
hazardous waste process has a range:

(a) 900 to 1000℃ (b) 250 to500℃ (c) 950 to 1300℃ (d) 500 to 900℃

545: Newspaper can be recycled again and again by how many times:

(a) 2 (b) 3 c) 3 (d) 5

ECAT & MDCAT MCQ

546: The Ph rang of the acid rain is:

(b) 7-6.5 (b) 6.5-6 (c) 6-5.6 (d) Less than 5

547: Coagulant rain water treatment:

(a) Gypsum (b) Dolomite (c) Asbestos (d) Alum

548: Unpolluted rain water has a Ph of:

(a) 4.9 (b) 5.6 (c) 5.3 (d) 7.0

549: Which is the metal, whose elevated concentration is harmful for fish as it clogs the
gills thus causing suffocating?

(a) Sodium (b) Lead (c) Zinc (d) Aluminium

550: The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

(a) Caustic soda (b) Lime water (c) Alum (d) Soda ash
(b) 900 to 1000°
(b)