SLR-HL-1 P

SLR-HL-1
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Steel Structures
Day & Date: Wednesday, 25-01-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory it should be solved in first 30 minutes in answer
Book. Page No.3 (starting page of the Answer Book) Each question
carries one mark.
2) Don’t forget to mention the question paper Set (P/Q/R/S) at the top of the
Same page.
3) Use of scientific non programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly before the
Solution.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Duration: 30 Minutes Marks:14
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options. 14

1) Load on connection is not eccentric for _____.
a) Lap Joint
b) Single-cover butt joint
c) Double-cover butt joint
d) Any of the joints mentioned above
2) If the same number of bolts has been used in the joints, then which of the
following will yield highest efficiency _____.
a) chain b) Diamond
c) Staggered d) staggered diamond
3) If the diameter of a bolt is 20 mm, then the maximum number of bolts(s) that
can be accommodated in one row in a 140 mm wide flat is (are) _____.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 6 d) 1
4) For a single unequal angle tie member, the leg preferred for making
connection is the _____.
a) Longer one
b) Shorter one
c) Any of the two
d) Longer if bolted and shorter if welded
5) Minimum number of battens required in a built up column are _____.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
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6) In figure shown below
a) Both 1 and 2 are shear connections

b) Both 1 and 2 are tension connections
c) 1 is shear connection and 2 is a tension connection
d) 1 is tension connection and 2 is a shear connection
7) The slenderness ratio of a lacing member should not be greater than _____.
a) 180 b) 150
c) 145 d) 165
8) The shape factor for triangular section is ______.
a) 1.50 b) 1.14
c) 2.34 d) 1.78
9) For welded plate girder, the 𝑏/𝑡𝑓 and 𝑑/𝑡𝑤 ratios are respectively 6.7
and 91. The section of the plate girder will be classified as _____.
a) Plastic b) Compact
c) Semi-compact d) Slender
The net tensile strength of plate per pitch is 63.76 kN and strength of solid
10)
plate per pitch length is 106.27 kN then the efficiency of the joint is _____.
a) 59.99% b) 16.67%
c) 166.67% d) 95.99%
11) A beam section is classified as low shear case when the factored shear
force is less than
a) 0.4Vd b) 0.6Vd
c) 0.8Vd d) Vd
12) The partial safety factors for dead load and live load for a roof truss for
limit state of serviceability are respectively _____.
a) and 1.5 b) 1.2 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.0 d) 1.2 and 1.5
13) If the number of possible plastic hinges are 4 and the degree of
indeterminacy of the structure is 2 then the number of possible
independent mechanism (n) will be ______.
a) 6 b) 4
c) 2 d) 1
14) A frame has an indeterminacy of 2 and the numbers of possible plastic
hinges are 3. The collapse will be
a) Partial b) Complete
c) Over complete d) Cannot be ascertained
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-1
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any three questions form each section Q.2 and Q.5 are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Solution.
4) Draw the appropriate sketches wherever necessary.
6) Use of IS 800-2007 and IS 875 are allowed, but not allowed for MCQ
(Q.No.1)
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain plastic section, compact section, semi-compact section, slender 05

section
b) The loads on a floor beam of a commercial building are as below: 05
Dead load: 6 kN/m2
Live load:4kN/m2
Roof finish :1.5kN/m2
Determine the design load for limit state of strength and limit state of
serviceability.
Q.3 a) Compute the tensile strength of an angle section ISA 150 x 115 x 8 mm of 05
Fe 410 grade of steel connected with the gusset plate as shown in fig.
below for the following cases
i) Gross section yielding
ii) Net section Rupture
b) Calculate the value of the least radius of gyration for compound column 04
consisting of ISHB 250@536.6 N/m with one cover plate 300 mm x 20 mm
on each flange.
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Q.4 Design a double angle discontinuous strut to carry factored load of 135kN 09
resulting from the combination with wind load. The length of the strut is 3.0 m
between intersections. The angles are placed back-to-back (with long leg
connected) and are tack bolted. Use steel of grade Fe 410.
a) Angles are placed on opposite sides of 12 mm gusset plate.
b) Angles are placed on same side of 12 mm gusset plate.
Q.5 Design the built up column 9 m long to carry factored axial compressive load of 09
1100 kN. The column is restrained in position but not in direction at both the
ends. Design the column with connecting system as battens with bolted
connections. Use two channel sections back-to-back. Use steel of grade Fe 410
Section - II
Q.6 Find the shape factor for following sections. 10

a) Square of side ‘a’ with its diagonal parallel to zz-axis
b) Triangular section
Q.7 Design a laterally unsupported beam for the following data 09

Effective span = 4 m
Maximum bending moment = 550 kN-m
Maximum shear force = 200 kN
Steel of grade Fe 410
Q.8 Design an I section purlin for an industrial building situated in the outskirst of 09
Allahabad, to support a galvanized corrugated iron sheet roof for the following
data:
Roof cover = Galvanised corrugated (GC) sheeting (130 N/m2)
Spacing of trusses = 6m
Span of truss = 15 m
Spacing of purlins = 1.5m
Inclination of main rafter to horizontal = 300
Weight of GI sheets = 30 N/m2
Wind load = 2.0kN/m2
Q.9 A column ISHB 350 @ 661.2 N/m carries an axial compressive factored load of 09
1700 kN. Design a suitable bolted gusset base. The base rests on M20 grade
concrete pedestal. Use 24 mm diameter bolts of grade 4.6 for making the
connection.
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
Solution.


a) 1.50 b) 1.14
c) 2.34 d) 1.78
3)
a) 59.99% b) 16.67%
c) 166.67% d) 95.99%
force is less than
a) 0.4Vd b) 0.6Vd
c) 0.8Vd d) Vd
a) and 1.5 b) 1.2 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.0 d) 1.2 and 1.5
a) 6 b) 4
c) 2 d) 1
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a) Lap Joint
a) chain b) Diamond
a) 2 b) 3
c) 6 d) 1
a) Longer one
b) Shorter one
c) Any of the two
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6

a) 180 b) 150
c) 145 d) 165
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Solution.
(Q.No.1)
Section – I

section
Dead load: 6 kN/m2
Live load:4kN/m2
serviceability.
on each flange.
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Set Q
Section - II


data:
connection.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-1
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
Solution.


force is less than
a) 0.4Vd b) 0.6Vd
c) 0.8Vd d) Vd
a) and 1.5 b) 1.2 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.0 d) 1.2 and 1.5
a) 6 b) 4
c) 2 d) 1
a) Lap Joint
a) chain b) Diamond
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Set R
a) 2 b) 3
c) 6 d) 1
a) Longer one
b) Shorter one
c) Any of the two
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6

a) 180 b) 150
c) 145 d) 165
a) 1.50 b) 1.14
c) 2.34 d) 1.78
14)
a) 59.99% b) 16.67%
c) 166.67% d) 95.99%
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Solution.
(Q.No.1)
Section – I

section
Dead load: 6 kN/m2
Live load:4kN/m2
serviceability.
on each flange.
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Set R
Section - II


data:
connection.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-1
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
Solution.



a) 180 b) 150
c) 145 d) 165
a) 1.50 b) 1.14
c) 2.34 d) 1.78
5)
a) 59.99% b) 16.67%
c) 166.67% d) 95.99%
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Set S
force is less than
a) 0.4Vd b) 0.6Vd
c) 0.8Vd d) Vd
a) and 1.5 b) 1.2 and 1.0
c) 1.0 and 1.0 d) 1.2 and 1.5
a) 6 b) 4
c) 2 d) 1

a) Lap Joint
a) chain b) Diamond
a) 2 b) 3
c) 6 d) 1
a) Longer one
b) Shorter one
c) Any of the two
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-1
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Solution.
(Q.No.1)
Section – I

section
Dead load: 6 kN/m2
Live load:4kN/m2
serviceability.
on each flange.
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Set S
Section - II


data:
connection.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-2
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Geotechnical Engineering
Day & Date: Tuesday, 31-01-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and should be solved in first 30 minutes in Answer
Book. Page No.3 (starting page of the Answer Book). Each question
carry one mark.
2) Don’t forget to mention Question Paper Set (P/Q/R/S) at the top of the
same page.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it clearly.

Duration: 30 Minutes Marks: 14
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 14
1) Which of the following is a unit less quantity?
a) Coefficient of consolidation b) Coefficient of permeability
c) Compression Index d) Coefficient of volume change
2) The degree of saturation of a soil can be defined as the ratio of
a) weight of water to dry soil weight
b) volume of water to gross volume of soil
c) volume of water to volume of voids
d) weight of water to weight of soil
3) The shear test in which full consolidation occurs and no excess pore
pressure is set up at any stage is known as ______.
a) CD test b) CU test
c) UU test d) None of these
4) For active state to develop, the backfill of the retaining wall should
undergo ______.
a) Zero expansion b) Zero compression
c) Maximum expansion d) Maximum compression
5) The y-intercept of coulomb’s failure envelope is equal to ______.
a) Cohesion b) Maximum shear stress
c) Maximum normal stress d) Angle of shearing resistance
6) If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load,
the inclination of the cracks to the horizontal is ______.
a) 90° b) 45°
c) 22.5° d) 0°
7) If the poissons ratio of a backfill material is 0.5, the theoretical value of
coefficient of earth pressure at rest is ______.
a) 0.33 b) 1.0
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
8) Optimum moisture content is the moisture content when ______.
a) settlement is maximum b) permeability is maximum
c) shear strength is maximum d) dry density is maximum
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9) For a standard compaction test, the mass of the hammer and drop of
hammer are as follows ______.
a) 2.6 kg and 450mm b) 2.6 kg and 310mm
c) 4.8 kg and 310mm d) 4.89 kg and 450mm
10) With an increase in the liquid limit, compression index ______.
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains constant d) may increase or decreases
11) The unit weight of a completely saturated soil is given by ______.
a) (G + e)γw b) (G − 1)γw
1+e 1+e
c) (1 + e)γw d) (1 − e)γw
1−e G+e
12) The maximum depth of excavation that can be made in a saturated clay
having C = 40kN/m2 , Φ = 00 , γ = 20 kN/m3 without any lateral support.
a) 5m b) 8m
c) 9m d) 10m
13) As per Rankin’s theory, the wall friction is ______.
a) Equal to Φ b) greater then Φ
c) less then Φ d) zero
14) The constant head permeability test is suitable for ______.
a) coarse-grained soils b) fine-grained soils
c) both these soil d) neither of these soils
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-2
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q.No.2 and Q.No.6 are compulsory.
2) Solve any two question from remaining from each Section.
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any four questions. 08

a) List the various methods of water content determination of soil.
b) Draw Three Phase diagram and show details.
c) Define Degree of saturation and air content.
d) Enlist various methods of Laboratory methods to find strength parameters
of soil.
e) Draw strength envelope for cohesive and non-cohesive soil.
Q.3 a) Porosity of soil sample is 30%, and specific gravity of its particle is 2.65. 05
Calculate its void ratio, dry unit weight, saturated unit weight, and
submerged unit weight. Also calculate the bulk unit weight of soil, if its
degree of saturation is 70%.
b) Explain the salient features of IS plasticity chart. 05
Q.4 a) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose 05

permeability is 2 ×10-5 cm/s. What diameter of stand pipe should be used if
the head is to drop from 30 cm to 25 cm in 2 minutes? The C.S. area and
length of sample are 50 cm2 and 8.5 cm respectively. How much time will it
take for the head to drop from 45 to 30 cm for the same soil?
b) Write a note on characteristics of flow net. 05
Q.5 a) Compare Direct Box shear test with Triaxial Compression Test. 05
b) Consolidated undrained triaxial tests are performed on two identical 05
specimens of saturated, remolded soil with pore pressure measurements.
The observations are recorded in the table below. Determine the values of
the shear parameters, for the soil both in terms of total and effective
stresses.
Cell Pressure Deviator stress Pore pressure
(kPa) at failure (kPa) at failure (kPa)
250 179 100
350 242 150
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Section - II

a) Define zero air void line.
b) Draw a typical e-p curve and lable its various parts.
c) Enlist the assumptions made in Rankines theory.
d) Define Passive earth pressure.
e) Define compression Index.
Q.7 a) Explain the various types of rollers used for compaction with their 05
suitability.
b) The following results were obtained from a standard compaction test on a 05
sample of soil.
Water content % 7.7 11.5 14.6 17.5 19.7 21.2
Mass of wet soil (kg) 1.7 1.89 2.03 1.99 1.96 1.92
The volume of the mould used was 950 ml. Make necessary calculations
and plot the compaction curve and obtain the maximum dry density and
optimum water content.
Q.8 a) Derive Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State 05

assumptions associated with the equations.
b) The laboratory consolidation data for an undisturbed clay sample are as 05
follows e1 = 1.00, σ1 = 85 kN/m2 and e2 = 0.80, σ2 = 465 kN/m2 . Find the
compression index.
Q.9 a) Derive the earth pressure coefficient for active case. 05

b) A retaining wall 10 m height with a smooth vertical back retains a backfill 05
with C = 0 kN/m2 , Φ = 25° and Υ = 17 kN/m3 . What is the total Rankine’s
active thrust on the wall.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) (G + e)γw b) (G − 1)γw
1+e 1+e
c) (1 + e)γw d) (1 − e)γw
1−e G+e
a) 5m b) 8m
c) 9m d) 10m
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Set Q
undergo ______.
a) 90° b) 45°
c) 22.5° d) 0°
a) 0.33 b) 1.0
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

of soil.

stresses.
250 179 100
350 242 150
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section - II

suitability.
sample of soil.
Water content % 7.7 11.5 14.6 17.5 19.7 21.2

compression index.

Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) (G + e)γw b) (G − 1)γw
1+e 1+e
c) (1 + e)γw d) (1 − e)γw
1−e G+e
a) 5m b) 8m
c) 9m d) 10m
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
undergo ______.
a) 90° b) 45°
c) 22.5° d) 0°
a) 0.33 b) 1.0
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

of soil.

stresses.
250 179 100
350 242 150
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section - II

suitability.
sample of soil.
Water content % 7.7 11.5 14.6 17.5 19.7 21.2

compression index.

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-2
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 90° b) 45°
c) 22.5° d) 0°
a) 0.33 b) 1.0
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
a) (G + e)γw b) (G − 1)γw
1+e 1+e
c) (1 + e)γw d) (1 − e)γw
1−e G+e
a) 5m b) 8m
c) 9m d) 10m
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Set S
undergo ______.
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

of soil.

stresses.
250 179 100
350 242 150
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section - II

suitability.
sample of soil.
Water content % 7.7 11.5 14.6 17.5 19.7 21.2

compression index.

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-3
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Highway & Tunnel Engineering
Day & Date: Friday, 24-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Identify the correct order of engineering surveys for highway alignment _____.
a) Final location and detailed surveys, map study, Reconnaissance
Survey, Preliminary survey
b) Reconnaissance Survey, Final location and detailed surveys, map
study and Preliminary survey
c) Map study, Reconnaissance Survey, Preliminary survey and Final
location and detailed surveys
d) Preliminary survey, Final location and detailed surveys, map study
and Reconnaissance Survey
2) The extra widening required for a two-lane national highway at a horizontal
curve of 300m radius, considering the wheelbase of 8m and a design speed
of 100kmph _____.
a) 0.42m b) 0.62m
c) 0.82m d) 0.92m
3) Which of the following are requirements for the design of a transition curve
for a highway system?
1) Rate of change of grade
2) Rate of change of radial acceleration
3) Rate of change of super elevation
4) Rate of change of curvature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2,1 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
4) The specific gravity of the paving bitumen as per IS-73-1992 lies between _____.
a) 1.06 to 1.10 b) 1.02 to 10.06
c) 0.97 to 1.02 d) 0.92 to 0.97
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5) For a given road, the safe stopping sight distance is 80m and the passing
sight distance is 300m. What is the intermediate sight distance?
a) 220m b) 190m
c) 160m d) 150m
6) The recommended camber value for a thin bituminous surface for a
heavy rainfall area ______.
a) 2.0% b) 1.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.5%
7) Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
a) Horizontal Curves Super elevation
b) Los Angeles Test Hardness of aggregates
c) Impact Test Toughness of aggregates
d) Soundness Test Purity of aggregates
8) Identify the correct statement regarding the locations of critical strains in
the design of flexible pavement.
a) Tensile strain at the bottom of subgrade and vertical compressive
strain on top of bituminous layer
b) Tensile strain at the top of subgrade and vertical compressive strain
on bottom of bituminous layer
c) Tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer and vertical compressive
strain on top of subgrade
d) Vertical compressive strain at the bottom of subgrade and Tensile
strain at the bottom of bituminous layer
9) Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions,
the penetration value of bitumen would vary from,
a) 0.8mm to 1mm b) 8mm to 10mm
c) 8cm to 10cm d) 0.08mm to 0.1mm
10) If ruling gradient is 1 in 20 on a horizontal curve of radius 75m, then
compensated grade should be _____.
a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 30 d) 1 in 25
11) What are the standards for testing of road macadam in Aggregate Impact Test?
a) 14kg wt, 38cm drop, 15 blows b) 14kg wt, 35cm drop, 20 blows
c) 18kg wt, 35cm drop, 15 blows d) 18kg wt, 30cm drop, 20 blows
12) In tunnelling mucking means _____.
a) Drilling holes b) blasting
c) Removal of debris d) none
13) Which one of the following methods of tunneling is used in hard rock?
a) Forepoling method b) Needle beam method
c) Heading and benching method d) Shield tunneling method
14) The value of camber recommended for cement concrete roads in areas of
heavy rainfall is, ______.
a) 1 in 50 b) 1 in 25
c) 1 in 40 d) 1 in 33
Page 2 of 20
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section - I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory and solve any ONE full question
from remaining questions Q. No. 3 and 4.
2) In Section - II, Q. No. 5 is compulsory and solve any ONE full question
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any two questions. 10
a) Briefly explain the engineering surveys needed for locating a new highway.
b) Write a short on the importance of
1) Camber
2) Shoulders
3) Super elevation
c) Derive the expression for finding the overtaking sight distance on a highway.
Q.3 Answer any three questions. 18

a) The speeds of overtaking and overtaken vehicle are 65 and 40kmph
respectively. If the average acceleration is 0.92m/sec2. Determine the
overtaking sight distance indicating the details of the overtaking
operations. Assume the reaction time of the driver = 2.0sec.
b) A valley curve of the State Highway is formed by a descending gradient of
1 in 20 meeting an ascending gradient of 1 in 30. Design the length of a
valley curve to fulfill both comfort condition and head light sight distance
required for a design speed of 80kmph. Assume allowable rate of change
of centrifugal acceleration C=0.60m/sec3. Consider reaction time=2.5sec
and coefficient of longitudinal friction, f=0.35
c) The load-penetration values of CBR tests conducted on soil specimens are
given below. Determine the average CBR value of the soil if 10 divisions of
the dial represent 40 kg load, on in the calibration chart of the proving ring.
Plot the graph.
Penetration, Load in
mm Divisions
0.0 0
0.5 10
1.0 18
1.5 26
2.0 34
2.5 40
3.0 50
4.0 62
5.0 70
7.5 87
10.0 95
12.5 109
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d) A two-lane highway has a horizontal curve of a radius of 250m and the
total pavement width is 7.6m at the curve. A minimum sight distance of
240m is to be provided at this curve. Assuming the length of the curve to
be greater than the sight distance, determine the set-back distance up to
which all obstructions should be removed.

a) Explain ESWL. Briefly explain the graphical method determination of
ESWL.
b) Define Vehicle Damage Factor. Determine the Equivalent Wheel Load
Factor or VDF value of the following two axle loads in terms of the
standard axle load of 8.16t.
1) LCV with rear axle load of 2.0t
2) HCV with rear axle load of 15.5t
c) Explain the plate bearing test procedure and how the modulus of subgrade
reaction, K is determined.
d) List different tests on road aggregates and mention their advantages and
limitations.
Section – II

a) C.C. Pavement is constructed using the following data
1) Modulus of elasticity 3 x 105 kg/cm2
2) Poisson's ratio=0.15
3) Thickness of CC pavement = 18 cm
4) Modulus of subgrade reaction-6.0kg/cm3
5) Wheel load = 5100 kg
6) Radius of loaded area = 15 cm
7) Relative stiffness of slab to subgrade (𝑙) =70.61cm
8) Equivalent radius of resisting section(b)=14cm
Calculate stresses at the Interior, Edge, and corner by Westergaard's method.
b) A traffic survey conducted on four lane divided carriageway road reported
traffic of 1400 CVPD (in each directions). Assuming growth rate of 5% with
design life 20 years and vehicle damage factor of 3.5, calculate design
traffic to be used in pavement design in terms of miliion standard axles
(msa) as per IRC, lane distribution factor=0.75.
c) Explain in detail the factors to be considered for the design of flexible
pavement.

a) Mention the specifications of materials and construction steps for Bituminous
Concrete (BC) roads.
b) State the objectives of tunnel lining & discuss different materials used in
tunnel lining.
c) If the CBR of the soil used in the upper 500 mm of the embankment is 8%
and the CBR of the borrow soil used for preparing the 500 mm thick
compacted subgrade above embankment is 20%, what is the effective
subgrade Modulus/CBR for design of flexible pavement? Consider
Poisson’s ratio=0.35. Use surface deflection, 𝛿 =1.41mm from IIT PAVE
software. Draw a neat sketch of equivalent subgrade system diagram.
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d) Write a brief note on surface and sub surface drainage of road system.

a) Determine the warping stresses at interior, edge and corner of a 25cm
thick cement concrete pavement with transverse joints at 5.0m interval and
longitudinal joints at 3.6m intervals. The modulus of subgrade reaction K is
6.9kg/cm3 and radius of loaded area is 15cm. Assume temperature
differential during day to be 0.6°C per cm slab thickness (for warping
stress at interior and edge) and maximum temperature differential of 0.4°C
per cm slab thickness during the night (for warping stress at the corner).
Assume e=10x10-6 per °C, E=3x105 kg/cm2, 𝜇=0.15.
Use Bradbury chart given in Figure-1.
b) State methods of tunneling in soft rock. Explain with sketch any one method.
c) With the help of a neat diagram, explain the method of determining the
aggregate mixes by Rothfutch’s method.
d) With the help of a neat sketch explain the different components parts of a
flexible pavement. Also mention their functions.
Fig. I – Bradbury Chart
Page 5 of 20
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 30 d) 1 in 25
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a) 1 in 50 b) 1 in 25
c) 1 in 40 d) 1 in 33
of 100kmph _____.
a) 0.42m b) 0.62m
c) 0.82m d) 0.92m
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2,1 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
a) 1.06 to 1.10 b) 1.02 to 10.06
c) 0.97 to 1.02 d) 0.92 to 0.97
a) 220m b) 190m
c) 160m d) 150m
a) 2.0% b) 1.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.5%
Page 7 of 20
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
1) Camber
2) Shoulders
3) Super elevation

Plot the graph.
mm Divisions
0.0 0
0.5 10
1.0 18
1.5 26
2.0 34
2.5 40
3.0 50
4.0 62
5.0 70
7.5 87
10.0 95
12.5 109
Page 8 of 20
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Set Q

ESWL.
limitations.
Section – II

pavement.

tunnel lining.
Page 9 of 20
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Set Q

Page 10 of 20
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 1 in 50 b) 1 in 25
c) 1 in 40 d) 1 in 33
of 100kmph _____.
a) 0.42m b) 0.62m
c) 0.82m d) 0.92m
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a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2,1 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
a) 1.06 to 1.10 b) 1.02 to 10.06
c) 0.97 to 1.02 d) 0.92 to 0.97
a) 220m b) 190m
c) 160m d) 150m
a) 2.0% b) 1.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.5%
a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 30 d) 1 in 25
Page 12 of 20
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Seat
No. Set R
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov – 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
1) Camber
2) Shoulders
3) Super elevation

Plot the graph.
mm Divisions
0.0 0
0.5 10
1.0 18
1.5 26
2.0 34
2.5 40
3.0 50
4.0 62
5.0 70
7.5 87
10.0 95
12.5 109
Page 13 of 20
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Set R

ESWL.
limitations.
Section – II

pavement.

tunnel lining.
Page 14 of 20
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Set R

Page 15 of 20
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 2.0% b) 1.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.5%
a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 30 d) 1 in 25
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a) 1 in 50 b) 1 in 25
c) 1 in 40 d) 1 in 33
of 100kmph _____.
a) 0.42m b) 0.62m
c) 0.82m d) 0.92m
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2,1 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
a) 1.06 to 1.10 b) 1.02 to 10.06
c) 0.97 to 1.02 d) 0.92 to 0.97
a) 220m b) 190m
c) 160m d) 150m
Page 17 of 20
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
1) Camber
2) Shoulders
3) Super elevation

Plot the graph.
mm Divisions
0.0 0
0.5 10
1.0 18
1.5 26
2.0 34
2.5 40
3.0 50
4.0 62
5.0 70
7.5 87
10.0 95
12.5 109
Page 18 of 20
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Set S

ESWL.
limitations.
Section – II

pavement.

tunnel lining.
Page 19 of 20
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Set S

Page 20 of 20
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Catchment area is also known as _____.
a) Watershed area b) Drainage Basin
c) Basin d) All the above
2) Evaporation is a _____.
a) Cooling process b) Heating process
c) Combined process d) None of above
3) Khosla's formula for monthly runoff Rm due to monthly rainfall Pm is
Rm = Pm - Lm Where Lm is ______.
a) a constant
b) monthly loss and depends on the mean monthly catchment
temperature
c) a monthly loss coefficient depending on the antecedent precipitation
index
d) a monthly loss depending on the infiltration characteristics of the
catchment
4) The theory or unit hydrograph was first introduced by _____.
a) Snyder b) VenTe chow
c) Bernard d) L. K. Sherman
5) A hyetograph is a plot of _____.
a) Cumulative rainfall vs time b) Rainfall intensity vs time
c) Rainfall depth vs duration d) Discharge vs time
6) When the slope of the ground is more than 16°, it has an effect in _____.
a) Increasing the rate of infiltration
b) Reducing the rate of infiltration
c) Has no effect on the rate of infiltration
d) None of these
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7) Direct runoff, is made up of _____.
a) Surface runoff prompt interflow and channel precipitation
b) Surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration
c) Overland flow and infiltration
d) Rainfall and evaporation
8) Frequency of Irrigation is dependent upon the type of _____.
a) Soil and crop b) Soil and climate
c) Soil, crop and climate d) Soil, crop, climate and fertilizer
9) Crop period is the time that crop takes from _____.
a) From first watering to last watering
b) From sowing to its Harvesting
c) From sowing to last Harvesting
d) From first watering before sowing to its Harvesting
10) Lift irrigation is a flow _____.
a) By gravity b) From low level to higher level
c) In delta region d) Through sprinkler heads
11) If the depth is 8.64 cm on a field over a base period of 10 days then duty
is _____.
a) 10 ha/cumec b) 100 ha/cumec
c) 864 ha/cumec d) 1000 ha/cumec
12) The moister held by the well-drained soil against gravity drainage by the force
of surface tension between the soil drains and water drops is called _____.
a) Field capacity water b) Hygroscopic water
c) Capillary water d) Water of adhesion
13) Crops grown during monsoon month and harvested in October are called
as _____ Crops.
a) Rabbi b) Kharif
c) Rabbi and Kharif d) Hot weather
14) If the duty for a crop with base period 120 days is 1500 Hectares/cumec
then its delta is_____.
a) 69.12 b) 108
c) 0.6912 d) None of these
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. 2 & Q. 6 are compulsory.
2) Attempt any two questions from remaining questions of each section.
3) Make suitable assumptions only if necessary. But state them clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Define infiltration, List the factors that affect the infiltration, Also, explain 04
the working of Ring infiltrometer with sketch.
b) Figure shows a typical layout of catchment area ABCDF. Six rain gauge 06
station are established at A B CD E & F as shown in figure precipitation
observed at six rain gauge station in July 2021 is as follows.
Station A B C D E F
Precipitation (mm) 100 120 130 180 125 150
Find the average precipitation over the catchment during July - 2021 by
Thiessen's polygon method.
Q.3 a) What is meant by runoff? Explain methods of separation of Base flow? 04

b) The ordinates of 4 hr UG are given below. Derive the ordinates of 12 hr 05
UG.
Time (hrs) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
4Hr. UHO 0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
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Q.4 a) Define term design flood? List the methods of estimation of flood? Explain 04
any one in detail.
b) Estimate the stream flow for the measurement data as given below. 05
Distance 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(m)
Depth
0 0.5 1.2 1.8 2.4 2.6 2.0 1.8 1.6 1 0
(m)
Velocity
0 0.3 0.4 0.6 0.9 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0
at 0.2 d
Velocity
0 0.2 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.2 0
at 0.8 d
Q.5 a) Discuss Various types of aquifers with reference to ground water 04

availability.
b) Diameter of well is 8m. Normal water level is 6 m below G.L. Pumping 05
depresses water level to 16m below GL. 4 hours after stopping pumping
water recuperated by 6 m. What is the specific capacity of the well? Find
the yield of well for drawdown of 6 m.
Section – II
Q.6 a) After How many days will you supply water to soil (clay Loam), in order to 06
ensure efficient irrigation of the given crop if:
i) Field capacity of soil – 27 %
ii) Permanent wilting point –14 %
iii) Density of soil – 1.5 gm/cm3
iv) Effective depth of root zone – 75 cm
v) Daily consumptive use of water for a given crop – 11 mm
b) What is meant by 'Duty' and 'Delta' of canal water? Develop the 04
relationship between duty and delta for given base period.
Q.7 a) What is meant by furrow irrigation and sprinkler irrigation? Which one is 05
preferred in India and Why?
b) Discuss the concept of 'Bandhara irrigation system' with its necessity and 04
layout.
Q.8 a) Write a note on preparation of land for irrigation. 04

b) Describe with neat sketch, general layout of a lift irrigation scheme. Briefly 05
explain design procedure of lift irrigation scheme.
Q.9 a) Discuss the concept of watershed management with reference to soil and 05
water conservation.
b) Write a note on canal revenue assessment methods. 04
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

is _____.
as _____ Crops.
a) Rabbi b) Kharif
a) 69.12 b) 108
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Set Q
a) a constant
temperature
index
catchment
d) None of these
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Station A B C D E F

UG.
Time (hrs) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
4Hr. UHO 0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
any one in detail.
Distance 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(m)
Depth
0 0.5 1.2 1.8 2.4 2.6 2.0 1.8 1.6 1 0
(m)
Velocity
0 0.3 0.4 0.6 0.9 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0
at 0.2 d
Velocity
0 0.2 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.2 0
at 0.8 d

availability.
Section – II
layout.

water conservation.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-4
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

is _____.
as _____ Crops.
a) Rabbi b) Kharif
a) 69.12 b) 108
a) a constant
b) monthly loss and depends on the mean monthly catchment temperature
index
catchment
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
d) None of these
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Station A B C D E F

UG.
Time (hrs) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
4Hr. UHO 0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
any one in detail.
Distance 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(m)
Depth
0 0.5 1.2 1.8 2.4 2.6 2.0 1.8 1.6 1 0
(m)
Velocity
0 0.3 0.4 0.6 0.9 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0
at 0.2 d
Velocity
0 0.2 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.2 0
at 0.8 d

availability.
Section – II
layout.

water conservation.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-4
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) None of these
is _____.
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
as _____ Crops.
a) Rabbi b) Kharif
a) 69.12 b) 108
a) a constant
temperature
index
catchment
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Station A B C D E F

UG.
Time (hrs) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
4Hr. UHO 0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
any one in detail.
Distance 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(m)
Depth
0 0.5 1.2 1.8 2.4 2.6 2.0 1.8 1.6 1 0
(m)
Velocity
0 0.3 0.4 0.6 0.9 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.5 0.3 0
at 0.2 d
Velocity
0 0.2 0.3 0.35 0.4 0.45 0.4 0.5 0.4 0.2 0
at 0.8 d

availability.
Section – II
layout.

water conservation.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Semester - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Concrete Structures I
Day & Date: Thursday, 09-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Book. Page No.3 (starting page of the Answer Book). Each questions
carry one mark.
same page.


1) The maximum stress in compression steel for mild steel is
a) 0.87 fy b) < 0.87 fy
c) fy d) 0.446 fck
2) The minimum reinforcement when tor steel used is _____ of gross area.
a) 0.12% b) 0.15%
c) 0.18% d) 0.20%
3) An RCC beam of 200mm X 300mm effective is subjected to factored
shear force 30 kN. The maximum nominal shear stress is _____ MPa
a) 0.6 b) 0.5
c) 0.4 d) 0.2
4) Deflection of doubly reinforced beam are _____ compared to singly
reinforced beams of same depth
a) more b) less
c) equal d) none of above
5) In LSM total area of stress block is ______.
a) 0.36 fck Xu b) 0.67 fck Xu
c) 1.15 fck Xu c) 0.87 fck Xu
6) The simple or continuous slabs are analyzed for _____.
a) Design foundation b) Design reinforcement
c) Design moments d) Design slab
7) What is assumption in steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beam
a) Only steel bar resists tension
b) Only concrete bar resists tension
c) Stress in tension steel equal to stress in compression steel
d) Both concrete and steel resist compression
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Set P
8) A 12m long R.C T-beam is spaced at 3.25m with web of 0.4m wide and
1m deep, supports flange slab of 100mm thick. The effective flange width
of beam will be
a) 3 m b) 3.25 m
c) 2.5 m d) 2m
9) Force on 300mm x 500 mm deep beam, subjected to shear force of 150 kN
and torsion 30 kNm, then equivalent shear is
a) 80 kN b) 246 kN
c) 210 kN d) 310 kN
In effective width of flange formula Lo defined as distance between points
10)
of zero Moment is considered due to
a) Within Lo stresses are uniform
b) Strain compatibility
c) Beyond Lo, flange will be in tension and ineffective
d) None of above
11) What is the recommended value of effective length if the column is
effectively held in position and fixed against rotation in both ends
a) 0.81 b) 0.51
c) 0.651 d) 0.911
12) The strength of the column with helical reinforcement shall ____ be times
the strength of similar column with lateral ties.
a) 2.0 b) 1.05
c) 3.0 d) 1.5
13) An RCC column can have maximum tension reinforcement is _____.
a) 6% bD b) 2% bD
c) 3% bD d) 4% bD
14) Torsion effect is significant in case of _____.
a) Lintel Beam b) T Beam
c) L beam d) Cantilever beam
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. 5 and Q. 6 are compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions from remaining questions of each Section.
3) Use of IS 456 & non programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
Section – I
Q.2 A roof of clear dimensions 4m x 5m supported on walls of 230mm thickness, 09

with corners are held down. All the four edges of the slab are discontinuous.
Design the slab, if the beam is carrying a live load of 3.5 kN/m 2.
Use M 20 & Fe 415 steel
Q.3 A rectangular beam is to be simply supported on support of 250mm width. The 09

clear span of the beam is 5.8m. The beam is having width of 300mm. The super
imposed load is 12kN/m. Design the section. Use M 20 & Fe 415 steel
Q.4 A doubly reinforced beam has width of 250mm & 450mm deep to center of 09
tensile reinforcement. It is reinforced with 2-16mm diameter in compression
zone with an effective cover of 50mm & 4-25mm diameter as tensile steel. Find
the flexure strength & safe UDL on the simply supported beam of span 6m.
Use M20 concrete & Fe 250 steel.
Q.5 A Tee beam RC floor system consists of 120mm thick slab supported by beams 10
at 3m center to center. The effective width & depth of web 300mm x 580mm.
Main reinforcement consists of 8-20mm diameter. The grade of concrete & steel
used are M20 & Fe415 grade respectively. Determine the moment of resistance
of Tee beam if it used as simply supported beam of span 3.6m.
Section – II
Q.6 Design a rectangular beam of effective spans 7m to carry a dead load of 10

10 kN/m& live load of 12 kN/m. The beam is continuous over 3 spans & is
supported by columns. Use M20 concrete & Fe 415 steel.
Q.7 Determine the reinforcement required for beam size 300mm x 600mm subjected 09
to a factored bending moment 120 kNm, a factored shear force 90 kN & a
factored torsion moment of 50 kNm. Use M 20 concrete & Fe 415 steel.
Q.8 A short column 400mm x 400mm is provided with 8-16mm diameter, if the 09
length of column is 2.25m. It is effectively held in position at both ends &
retrained against rotation against rotation at one end. Find ultimate load for
column. Use M20 & Fe415.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Q.9 Design a circular column with helical reinforcement to carry an axial load of 09
1800 kN. The column has spiral ties. The column is 3.2m long & is effectively
held in at both ends, but not restrained against rotation.
Use M 25 concrete & Fe 500 steel.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


of beam will be
a) 3 m b) 3.25 m
c) 2.5 m d) 2m
a) 80 kN b) 246 kN
c) 210 kN d) 310 kN
3)
d) None of above
a) 0.81 b) 0.51
c) 0.651 d) 0.911
a) 2.0 b) 1.05
c) 3.0 d) 1.5
a) 6% bD b) 2% bD
c) 3% bD d) 4% bD
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) 0.87 fy b) < 0.87 fy
c) fy d) 0.446 fck
a) 0.12% b) 0.15%
c) 0.18% d) 0.20%
a) 0.6 b) 0.5
c) 0.4 d) 0.2
a) more b) less
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 0.81 b) 0.51
c) 0.651 d) 0.911
a) 2.0 b) 1.05
c) 3.0 d) 1.5
a) 6% bD b) 2% bD
c) 3% bD d) 4% bD
a) 0.87 fy b) < 0.87 fy
c) fy d) 0.446 fck
a) 0.12% b) 0.15%
c) 0.18% d) 0.20%
a) 0.6 b) 0.5
c) 0.4 d) 0.2
a) more b) less
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
of beam will be
a) 3 m b) 3.25 m
c) 2.5 m d) 2m
a) 80 kN b) 246 kN
c) 210 kN d) 310 kN
14)
d) None of above
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


of beam will be
a) 3 m b) 3.25 m
c) 2.5 m d) 2m
a) 80 kN b) 246 kN
c) 210 kN d) 310 kN
5)
d) None of above
a) 0.81 b) 0.51
c) 0.651 d) 0.911
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Set S
a) 2.0 b) 1.05
c) 3.0 d) 1.5
a) 6% bD b) 2% bD
c) 3% bD d) 4% bD
a) 0.87 fy b) < 0.87 fy
c) fy d) 0.446 fck
a) 0.12% b) 0.15%
c) 0.18% d) 0.20%
a) 0.6 b) 0.5
c) 0.4 d) 0.2
a) more b) less
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Environmental Engineering - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Sewage treatment units are generally designed for _____.
a) Maximum Flow only b) Minimum Flow only
c) Average Flow only d) Both a) and b)
2) Detention period for Grit Chamber is _____.
a) 1 minute b) 2-4 hours
c) 5-7 hours d) None of these
3) Activated Sludge is the _____.
a) Aerated sludge in Aeration Unit
b) Settled Sludge in the humus tank
c) Sludge in secondary tank, rich in microbial mass
d) Sludge in secondary tank, rich in nutrients
4) Low F/M ratio in ASP means ______.
a) Lower BOD Removal b) Higher BOD Removal
c) No Effect d) None of the above
5) Amount of DO% present in the zone of active decomposition, is _____.
a) < 40 b) 40 - 50
c) 50 - 10 d) > 100
6) The Root Zone Technology is used to remove _____.
a) Heavy metals b) Organic matter
c) Pathogens d) All of above
7) The Stable atmospheric condition is _____ for dispersion process.
a) Favorable b) Unfavorable
c) both a) and b) d) None of the above
8) _____ Property/ properties of MSW is/are for landfill design.
a) Permeability b) Density
c) Field capacity d) All of above
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9) ______ is ultimate disposal option considered in Municipal Solid Waste
(MSW) management.
a) Landfill b) Incineration
c) Composting d) Open burning
10) Bacterial-algal-symbiosis is observed in _____.
a) Aerated lagoon b) Oxidation ditch
c) Aerobic oxidation ponds d) Anaerobic ponds
11) _____ solves problem of air pollution but creates problem of water
pollution.
a) ESP b) Bag house
c) Cyclone d) Scrubbers
12) The anaerobic method of mechanical composting as prescribed in India,
is called the ______.
a) Indore method b) Mangalore method
c) Bangalore method d) None of these
13) Which gas is mainly produced due to burning of petrol?
a) CO b) SO2
c) NO2 d) NO3
14) Paper waste is considered as _____.

a) Garbage
b) Rubbish
c) Construction and demolition waste
d) All of above
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Question no. 2 is compulsory in section I, and solve any two
questions from the remaining.
2) Question no. 6 is compulsory in section II, and solve any two questions
from the remaining.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
5) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Section – I
Q.2 a) A town has a population of 1,50,000 persons with per capita water supply 06
of 200 litres/day. Assuming 85% of water usage is appears to be sewage,
design a sewer running 0.7 times full at maximum discharge. Take a
constant value of N = 0.013 at all depths of flow. The sewer is to be laid at
a slope of 1 in 500. Take a peak factor of 3.
b) Explain dry weather flow with a neat diagram. Explain various factors 04
affecting dry weather flow.
Q.3 a) The BOD of a sewage incubated for one day at 27°C has been found to be 05
160 mg/L. What will be the 2- day 20°C BOD. Assume K = 0.2 (Base 10) at
20°C.
b) Explain Tricking filter in wastewater treatment plant with neat diagram. 04
Q.4 a) Explain grit chamber in WWTP with a neat diagram. Enlist design criteria 05
of the same.
b) Write short note on aerobic process with a typical sketch. 04
Q.5 Write short notes on following (any three): 09

a) Sludge Volume Index
b) Hydraulic Retention time & F/ M Ratio
c) Types of Screens
d) Skimming Tank
Section - II
Q.6 a) Differentiate between primary and secondary air pollutants. 05
b) Using the following data, find out DO at the end of 1 & 2 days, 05
Parameters River Wastewater
Flow (m3/s) 25 2
DO (mg/L) 9.1 0
5 day BOD (mg/L) 2.0 200
Take Deoxygenation constant, as 0.10 per day (base e) & re-oxygenation
constant as 0.30 per day (base e). Take saturation DO as 9.10 mg/L
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Q.7 a) Describe bag filters with neat diagram. 05
b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of incineration. 04
Q.8 a) Illustrate the factors responsible for the rate of solid waste generation. 05
b) Discuss the characteristics of ‘hazardous waste’ as per CPCB guidelines. 04

a) Composting
b) Lapse Rate
c) ESP
d) Streeter Phelps’s Equation
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

(MSW) management.
pollution.
a) ESP b) Bag house
a) CO b) SO2
c) NO2 d) NO3

a) Garbage
b) Rubbish
d) All of above
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Set Q
a) < 40 b) 40 - 50
c) 50 - 10 d) > 100
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
Section – I
20°C.
of the same.

c) Types of Screens
d) Skimming Tank
Section - II
Flow (m3/s) 25 2
DO (mg/L) 9.1 0
5 day BOD (mg/L) 2.0 200
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q

a) Composting
b) Lapse Rate
c) ESP
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

pollution.
a) ESP b) Bag house
a) CO b) SO2
c) NO2 d) NO3

a) Garbage
b) Rubbish
d) All of above
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) < 40 b) 40 - 50
c) 50 - 10 d) > 100
(MSW) management.
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
Section – I
20°C.
of the same.

c) Types of Screens
d) Skimming Tank
Section - II
Flow (m3/s) 25 2
DO (mg/L) 9.1 0
5 day BOD (mg/L) 2.0 200
Page 11 of 16
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Set R

a) Composting
b) Lapse Rate
c) ESP
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

(MSW) management.
pollution.
a) ESP b) Bag house
a) CO b) SO2
c) NO2 d) NO3
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) Garbage
b) Rubbish
d) All of above
a) < 40 b) 40 - 50
c) 50 - 10 d) > 100
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
Section – I
20°C.
of the same.

c) Types of Screens
d) Skimming Tank
Section - II
Flow (m3/s) 25 2
DO (mg/L) 9.1 0
5 day BOD (mg/L) 2.0 200
Page 15 of 16
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Set S

a) Composting
b) Lapse Rate
c) ESP
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Risk Assessment and Vulnerability Analysis
Day & Date: Thursday 16-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in the first 30 minutes in
answer book. Page no 03 (Starting page of the Answer Book). Each
question carries one mark.
2) Don’t forget to Mention question paper set (P/Q/R/S) on top of page.


1) Production and use of harmful chemicals is under ban in _____ countries.
a) Developing countries b) Developed countries
c) Third world countries d) All of these
2) Which of the following groups of people is more vulnerable in the event of
disaster?
a) Men, boys, old people b) Men, women, boys
c) Women, children, old people d) None of the above
3) The extent to which a community, structure, services or geographic area is
likely to be damaged or disrupted by the impact of particular hazard is
termed as
a) Capacity b) Vulnerability
c) Risk d) Hazard assessment
4) Vulnerability analysis comes in which part of the Disaster Management
Cycle
a) Mitigation b) Preparedness
c) Response d) Recovery
5) Disaster Management includes:
a) Mitigation b) Reconstruction
c) Rehabilitation d) All of the above
6) Which of the following is considered as objective of disaster management?
a) Dispose dead bodies
b) Supplying of essential commodities
c) Rehabilitation of disaster victims
d) All of these
7) The role of which agency is important in disaster prevention.
a) Media b) Police
c) Government official d) Public
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8) What are the important measure to be taken in community level of
disaster preparedness
a) Increased awareness
b) Provision of early and timely warning
c) Land use planning
d) All of the above
9) What are the major types oriented to mitigation measures of hazards and
disasters?
a) Public mitigation measures
b) Community mitigation measures
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
10) Disaster management is aimed at-
a) Resettling people in the closest unaffected urban area
b) Collection of valuable data for future management objectives
c) Strengthening sewage and drinking water treatment facilities to
resist the impact of a future disaster
d) Restoring communities’ services, facilities, and residences to pre-
disaster levels
11) Structural and Non-structural measures are elements of high category of
Risk Reduction measures
a) Socio-economic measures b) Physical measures
c) Environmental measures d) Post disaster measures
12) Rehabilitation is the priority of which of the following phase?
a) Phase of emergency b) Transitional Phase
c) Reconstruction Phase d) Mock dill
13) What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a
disease at the same time?
a) Influx b) Black death
c) Epidemic d) Pandemic
14) The cycle of disaster consists of the following components
a) Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
b) Preparedness, vulnerability assessment, risk assessment, recovery
c) Mitigation, Risk assessment, Response and Recovery
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from Section – I out of Q.2, Q.3 & Q.4
2) Solve any two Questions from Section – II out of Q.5, Q.6 & Q.7
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed & mention it clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What are the different elements of Risk? Explain in detail. 07

b) Define: 07
i) Risk
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Hazard
iv) Disasters
Q.3 a) Explain various problems involved in the risk assessment process. 07

b) Explain participatory risk assessment methods. 07
Q.4 a) Explain different social and economic factors of vulnerability. 07

b) Explain vulnerability in the city and different risks in urban areas. 07
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain hazard resistant design and construction. 07

b) Write a note on systematic management and strategic planning for 07
vulnerability reduction.
Q.6 a) Explain the role of information and communication technology in health 07

response.
b) Explain the role of education and training in Health management of 07
disaster.
Q.7 a) Explain uses of remote sensing techniques in disaster preparedness. 07

b) What are emerging techniques in disaster preparedness? Enlist all the 07
techniques
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) All of the above
disasters?
c) Both a and b
disaster levels
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
disaster?
termed as
Cycle
d) All of these
a) Media b) Police
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

b) Define: 07
i) Risk
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Hazard
iv) Disasters


Section – II


response.
disaster.

techniques
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


disaster?
termed as
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Cycle
d) All of these
a) Media b) Police
d) All of the above
disasters?
c) Both a and b
disaster levels
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

b) Define: 07
i) Risk
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Hazard
iv) Disasters


Section – II


response.
disaster.

techniques
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) All of these
a) Media b) Police
d) All of the above
disasters?
c) Both a and b
disaster levels
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
disaster?
termed as
Cycle
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

b) Define: 07
i) Risk
ii) Vulnerability
iii) Hazard
iv) Disasters


Section – II


response.
disaster.

techniques
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Planning and Design of Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options and rewrite the sentence. 14
1) The ‘rural road development plan: Vision 2021’ aims to provide basic
access to villages in how many phases?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) four
2) The economical option during the construction of a road around a hill is _____.
a) Cut the hill
b) Provide a tunnel
c) Provide a road around the hill
d) Look for other alternative approaches
3) The coefficient of lateral friction as recommended by IRC is _____.
a) 0.15 b) 0.40
c) 0.35 d) 0.30
4) The braking efficiency for a vehicle moving with a speed of 18kmph, having
a lag distance of 14m and coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.36.
a) 25.28% b) 25.4%
c) 25.6% d) 25.8%
5) The desirable width as per IRC for median on rural roads is _____.
a) 3m b) 5m
c) 8m d) 14m
6) The minimum shoulder width recommended by IRC is _____.
a) 1.0m b) 1.5m
c) 2.0m d) 2.5m
7) What does MORTH stand for?
a) Ministry of Road Traffic and Highways
b) Model of Road Transit on Highways
c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
d) Model of Road Traffic in Highways
8) Which of the below indices is a measure of shearing strength of soil at the
plastic limit?
a) Plasticity index b) Consistency index
c) Flow index d) Toughness index
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9) The seepage flow is present in _____.
a) Surface drainage b) Sub surface drainage
c) Camber d) Cross slope
10) Which is the most preferred shape of drainage?
a) Rectangular b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular d) Circular
11) Under which situation is cutback bitumen used as a stabilizing agent?
a) Low density b) High density
c) High natural moisture content d) Low natural moisture content
12) Frost protection layer is provided in between which layers?
a) Surface and base course
b) Sub-base and base course
c) Subgrade and sub-base course
d) Surface and sub-base course
13) The maintenance operations do not involve _____.
a) Survey work
b) Assessment of road condition
c) Diagnosis
d) Adopting the most appropriate steps
14) The maintenance works are not possible for _____.
a) Shoulder b) Pavement
c) Embankment d) Sub grade
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from Section -I
2) Solve any two Questions from Section -II
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain the guidelines laid down in recent 20-year plans. 07

b) Define alignment and explain factors controlling the alignment. 07
Q.3 a) What is the importance of studying the behavior of soil as a road 07

construction material?
b) What are the advantages and specifications for construction of cement 07
concrete pavement?
Q.4 a) Define super elevation & explain the factors on which the design of super 07
elevation depends.
b) Calculate minimum sight distance required to avoid a head on collision of 07
two cars approaching from the opposite directions at 90 & 60 kmph.
Assume a reaction time 2.5 sec coefficient of friction of 0.7 & brake
efficiency.
Section – II
Q.5 a) What are the requirements of good road drainage system? 07

b) Write an explanatory note on cross drainage and drainage structure. 07
Q.6 a) Explain the specification of material for the construction of subgrade for 07
pavement.
b) Enlist the test for quality control as per IRC and explain any one in detail. 07
Q.7 a) Enlist the classification of maintenance activities and explain any two 07
activities.
b) Explain briefly maintenance of unpaved roads. 07
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
plastic limit?
a) Survey work
c) Diagnosis
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) four
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-8
Set Q
a) Cut the hill
b) Provide a tunnel
a) 0.15 b) 0.40
c) 0.35 d) 0.30
a) 25.28% b) 25.4%
c) 25.6% d) 25.8%
a) 3m b) 5m
c) 8m d) 14m
a) 1.0m b) 1.5m
c) 2.0m d) 2.5m
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


concrete pavement?
elevation depends.
efficiency.
Section – II

pavement.
activities.
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) Survey work
c) Diagnosis
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) four
a) Cut the hill
b) Provide a tunnel
a) 0.15 b) 0.40
c) 0.35 d) 0.30
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) 25.28% b) 25.4%
c) 25.6% d) 25.8%
a) 3m b) 5m
c) 8m d) 14m
a) 1.0m b) 1.5m
c) 2.0m d) 2.5m
plastic limit?
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


concrete pavement?
elevation depends.
efficiency.
Section – II

pavement.
activities.
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) 1.0m b) 1.5m
c) 2.0m d) 2.5m
plastic limit?
a) Survey work
c) Diagnosis
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-8
Set S
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) four
a) Cut the hill
b) Provide a tunnel
a) 0.15 b) 0.40
c) 0.35 d) 0.30
a) 25.28% b) 25.4%
c) 25.6% d) 25.8%
a) 3m b) 5m
c) 8m d) 14m
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


concrete pavement?
elevation depends.
efficiency.
Section – II

pavement.
activities.
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Construction Materials: Sustainability and Usability
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Factors affecting the performance of green material/product is/are _____.
a) Surrounding buildings b) Population
c) Vehicles d) All of the above
2) Sustainable building means that _____.
a) Green building b) Environmental building
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
3) Which of the following is not the purpose of a green building?
a) To reduce use of water
b) To minimize damage of the environment
c) Re-use of waste materials
4) Resource efficiency can be achieved by utilizing materials to _____.
a) Recycled content b) Reusable content
c) Reusable packaging d) None of the above
5) Which of the following is not correct constituent in ideal CSEB?
a) Silt- 15% b) Gravel- 20%
c) Clay-20% d) Sand- 50%
6) SMB is a building material made primarily from _____ compressed at high
pressure to form blocks.
a) Damp soil b) Cement
c) Lime d) None of the above
7) Embodied energy is the energy consumed by _____ associated with the
production of a product.
a) Construction b) Transportation
c) Manufacturing d) All of the above
8) _____ is necessary to demolish and dispose of the building at the end of
its life.
a) Initial embodied energy b) Recurring embodied energy
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
9) Which of the following is not the factor while selecting the car?
a) CO2 rating b) Fuel type
c) Model d) None of the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
10) The light-weight concrete is prepared by _____.
a) Mixing Portland cement with sawdust in specified proportion in the
concrete
b) Using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate in the concrete
c) Mixing aluminum in the concrete
d) Mixing steel in the concrete
11) _____ undergo chemical change in their composition when heated.
a) Thermoplastics b) Thermoset plastics
c) Thermal plastics d) None of the above
12) PET bottles take _____ years to biodegrade.
a) 50 b) 100
c) 200 d) 500
13) The vast majority of DCCs end up in landfill, or _____.
a) Incineration b) Recycling industry
c) Composing d) All of the above
14) Full form of GRIHA is _____.
a) Green Rating for Indian Habitat Assessment
b) Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
c) Green Rating for International Habitat Assessment
d) Green Rating for Information Habitat Assessment
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Question no. 2 is compulsory in section I, and solve any two questions
from the remaining. Question no. 6 is compulsory in section II, and solve
any two questions from the remaining
Section – I
Q.2 a) What is embodied energy? Explain initial recurring embodied energy of 05

building.
b) Explain numerous activities that affects the carbon footprints of individuals. 05
Q.3 a) How Resource efficiency can be accomplished by utilizing green material? 05

b) Discuss process of selection of bamboo in the construction of green 04
building.
Q.4 a) Explain properties of eco-friendly materials in detail. 05

b) Explain compressed Stabilized Earth Blocks in detail. 04
Q.5 a) Explain the properties & advantages of filler materials. 05

b) Explain Composite panel and its advantages in green building. 04
Section – II
Q.6 a) Differentiate Recycle and Reuse of solid waste 05

b) Explain initial & recurring application in life cycle of concrete in detail. 05
What are eco audits & eco tools? Explain with examples.
Q.7 a) Explain various Plastic recycling process in detail. 05

b) Provide numerous techniques for designing green concrete materials for 04
2BHK house having build-up area of 26 m2.
Q.8 a) Explain various methodologies in material substitution for eco-efficient 05

design of 10-storey commercial building.
b) Explain the difference between thermoplastics and thermoset plastics with 04
example.
Q.9 a) Discuss effects of toxic waste on environment. 05

b) Define reducing of waste. Discuss advantages of reducing of waste with a 04
practical example.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

its life.
concrete
a) 50 b) 100
c) 200 d) 500
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

building.

building.


Section – II



example.

practical example.
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 50 b) 100
c) 200 d) 500
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Set R
its life.
concrete
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

building.

building.


Section – II



example.

practical example.
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

its life.
concrete
a) 50 b) 100
c) 200 d) 500
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-9
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

building.

building.


Section – II



example.

practical example.
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-10
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Managing Innovation and Entrepreneurship
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) What are the reasons for resistance to change?
a) Fear of failure b) Inertia
c) Lack of confidence d) All of the above
2) Which among the following is an important school of creative thinking?
a) Design Thinking b) Behavior Thinking
c) Linear Thinking d) Profit Thinking
3) Elkington introduced the sustainability concept as a "triple bottom line."
What are the three important dimensions (3P's) of sustainability?
a) People, Planet, and Profit
b) People, Profit, and Product
c) Process, People, and Product
d) Profit, People, and Process
4) Who is not involved in the selection of ideas in idea management?
a) Internal experts
b) External experts
c) A mix of Internal and External Experts
d) Basic raw material supplier
5) Which one of the following is not a type of innovation according to
industry system?
a) Product innovation b) Process innovation
c) Personnel Innovation d) Business Model innovation
6) Innovation is defined as:
a) The commercialization of a new product or process
b) A new product or process idea
c) The implementation of a new production method
d) The invention of a new product or process
7) Who is an idea Champion?
a) The one who defeats elephant of ideas
b) The rider who shapes the path for elephant
c) The one who open new channels for idea to move forward
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
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P
8) An entrepreneur is someone who
a) Organize a business b) Manages a business
c) Takes risks d) All of the above
9) What are the elements in the four action framework of Blue Ocean Strategy?
a) Eliminate, Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle
b) Eliminate, Reduce, Raise, and Create
c) Eliminate, Recreate, Recycle, and Reuse
d) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, and Recreate
10) Match the following:
1) Base technologies i) Decline phase
2) Key technologies ii) Maturity phase
3) Pacing technologies iii) Growth phase
4) Emerging technologies iv) Emerging phase
a) 3-ii, 1-iii, 2-i, 4-iv b) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
c) 4-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 1-iii d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
11) What are the benefits of innovations resulting from economic initiatives?
a) Reduced expenses
b) Productivity gains through modernization of production tools
c) Ability to meet growing demand for eco-responsible and
personalized products.
d) All of the above
12) What is the main objective of granting a patent?
a) To encourage and develop new technology and Industry
b) To create monopoly
c) To make the patent commercial
d) All the above
13) Which of the following statement is true:
a) Patent is valid within geographical boundary.
b) Patent last for 15 years.
c) The person who pays for the invention owns the patent.
a) Reduced expenses
personalized products
d) All of the above
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No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
any two questions from the remaining.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed
Section - I
Q.2 a) What are economic theories of entrepreneurship? Explain in detail 06

i) Richard Cantillon’s theory
ii) Marshallium Theory
iii) Kizner’s Theory
b) What is managerial Competencies? Explain four pillars of managerial 04
competencies.
Q.3 a) Explain various economic incentives used to attract consumers. 04

b) Enlist and explain the 7 Sources of Innovative Opportunity. 05
Q.4 a) Explain the term Innovation Process with neat sketch. 04

b) Explain the term Innovation Strategies. Enlist different types of Innovation 05
Strategies and explain in detail with examples.
Q.5 a) Differentiate the Blue ocean strategy and Red ocean strategy 04
b) List the types of purposeful innovation and explain in detail. 05
Section – II
Q.6 a) Brief in short at least 5 stories of successful Indian entrepreneur. 06

b) What is mean by acquiring technological Innovation and mention the 04
benefit of the same?
Q.7 a) List out the four main elements of international business environments and 04
explain the Characteristics of International Entrepreneurs.
b) Write in short the benefits of learning and relearning process in 05
entrepreneurship development.
Q.8 a) Write a short note on at least 5 International Entrepreneur and their 04

businesses.
b) What are the Methods of problem identification? 05
Q.9 a) What is Problem solving? Explain the steps for it. 04

b) Explain the term Innovation and Diversification. 05
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
d) All the above
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Q
a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
a) Internal experts
b) External experts
industry system?
d) All the above
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

competencies.


Section – II


businesses.

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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
d) All the above
a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
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R
a) Internal experts
b) External experts
industry system?
d) All the above
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

competencies.


Section – II


businesses.

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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) All the above
a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
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S
d) All the above
a) Reduced expenses
d) All of the above
a) Internal experts
b) External experts
industry system?
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

competencies.


Section – II


businesses.

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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Day & Date: Monday, 20-02-2023 Max. Marks: 50
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks


1) Microeconomic theory deals with _____
a) Economic behavior of individual economic decision-making units
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
d) Economic growth of the society
2) In a mixed economy which sector (s) is I are found ______
a) Private only b) Public only
c) None d) Both (a) public and (b) private
3) Who is known as father of economics?
a) Adam Smith b) Prof. A. Samuelson
c) Alfred Marshall d) J. R. Hicks
4) Which of these is an economic activity?
a) Father teaching his son at home instead of spending on coaching
b) A housewife making food for the family on her own
c) A hair dresser doing hair cut designing on payment
d) A singer giving a show on his son’s wedding anniversary
5) Market system means: _____.
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
c) A place where goods are traded
d) All of the above
6) Micro and Macro are not two independent approaches to economic
analysis but they are complementary to each other.
a) False b) True
c) Partly true d) Partly False
7) Variable factor means those factors of production _____.
a) which can be only changed in the long run
b) which can be changed in the short run
c) which can be never be changed
d) All of the above
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8) Which one of the following is not the function of money?
a) Medium of exchange
b) Measure of Happiness
c) Standard of deferred payment
d) Store of value
9) Which one of the following is the objective of the RBI?
a) To maintain term deposits of the households
b) To ensure price stability
c) To arrange loans for the businessmen
10) Which one of the following cost can never become zero?
a) Average cost b) Fixed cost
c) Marginal cost d) Variable cost
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No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any four questions out of question no. 2 to 7.
Q.2 Write short notes. 10

a) Nature of Economics
b) Market Equilibrium

a) Importance of money in economy
b) Consumption and Saving
Q.4 Discuss the features of new economic policy in India. 10
Q.5 Explain the properties of perfect and imperfectly competitive market. 10
Q.6 Define national income. Explain the methods of measuring national income. 10
Q.7 Define central bank, discuss the function of central banking in India. 10
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Intellectual Property Rights for Technology Development and
Management
Day & Date: Monday 20-02-2023 Max. Marks: 50
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


1) Which is not a type of intellectual property?
a) Trade secrets b) Trademarks
c) Home loans d) Copyrights
2) In which article is intellectual property rights outlined?
a) Article 15 b) Article 27
c) Article 13 d) Article 20
3) How long does intellectual property last? (after the death of the author)
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
4) Which of the following can you copyright?
a) Literary work b) Ideas
c) Choreographic work d) Fashion
5) Which of the following identifies as a trademark?
a) Name, symbol b) Symbol, logo
c) Logo, name d) Name, symbol, logo
6) What is the subject matter of a patent?
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
7) What is copyright meant for?
a) Film work b) Books
c) Essay d) All of these
8) Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas
that are of _____
a) Ethical value b) Moral value
c) Social value d) Commercial value
9) The first Patent Law was enacted in India in the year _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
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Set P
All of the following are examples of intellectual property protections
10)
except _____.
a) Copyright b) Patents
c) Contracts d) Trademarks
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No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
Q.2 Answer the following. (Any Two) 20

a) Explain the detail the role of WTO in protecting intellectual property rights.
b) How the intellectual property is useful for Engineers. Explain in detail with
example.
c) Compare the Indian IPR system with international IPR framework.
Q.3 Write short notes (Any Four) 20

a) Concept of valuation of Intellectual property and value realization
b) Protection of traditional knowledge
c) Bio technology and intellectual property
d) TRIPS & Access to Medicines
e) Concepts of confidentiality and information security
f) Copy right issues in creative works
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
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Set R
that are of _____
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Introduction to Sociology
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


1) Who is the father of Indology?
a) August Comte b) Srinivas
c) Ghurye d) Aristotle
2) What is culture?
a) literature b) way of life
c) food rituals d) fashions
3) What is social norm?
a) social conventions b) social laws
c) dos and don’ts d) governance
4) What is demography?
a) science of society b) study of migration
c) science of population d) study of races
5) Which of the following is applicable to tribal community?
a) Religion b) Culture
c) Songs d) Homogeneity
6) Who was the leader of the Narmada bachao movement?
a) Anna Hajare b) Medha Patkar
c) H.N. Bahuguna d) Kejriwal
7) Who is the founder of Satyashodhak samaj?
a) Vinoba Bhave b) Mahatma Phule
c) M. Gandhi d) Rajaram Mohanroy
8) Which is distinctive nature of family?
a) Small family b) Large family
c) Bilateral unit d) Unilateral unit
9) What is the percentage of potable water on the earth?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
10) Which of the following is the reformist movement?
a) Chipko movement b) Non-cooperation movement
c) Anti-Sati movement d) Freedom movement
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No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.2 Answer the following. (Any Four) 16

a) Explain nature and types of status.
b) What demographic changes are observed in Indian population?
c) Explain the meaning and features of socialization.
d) Write on meaning and nature of Modernization.
e) What is the radical movement?
f) What are bases of a community?
Q.3 a) Explain the meaning and characteristics of human society. 12

OR
b) What are the major trends in urbanization in developing countries?
Q.4 Explain the causes and consequences of environmental degradation. 12
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
10) What is culture?
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


1) Anxiety can cause the following moods _____.
a) Irritable b) Nervous
c) Anxious d) All of the above
2) _____ is the confusion about the expectation of the role one occupies.
a) Role stagnation b) Role Isolation
c) Role erosion d) Role ambiguity
3) Stress is ____ related to performance.
a) Positively b) Negatively
c) Proportionately d) None of these
4) Which one is not considered as Environmental stressors?
a) Weather b) Traffic
c) Financial problems d) Substandard housing
5) The following are the characteristics of Positive Stress.
a) It improves performance b) It feels exciting
c) It motivates d) All of the above
6) The word Stress is derived from Latin word ‘Stringere’ which means _____.
a) Draw tight b) Stimulus
c) Force d) Attitude
7) Absenteeism, turnover and less productivity are _____ symptoms of stress.
a) Medical b) Psychological
c) Behavioral d) None of these
8) When a task appears overwhelming, it is best to _____.
a) Put it aside till later b) Drink alcohol to relax
c) Break it down into smaller task d) Avoid the task
9) A good way to prevent stress is _____.
a) Drinking beverages high in caffeine
b) Sitting ideal doing nothing
c) Overeating
d) Taking time out for relaxation
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10) _____ is referred as a stressful event.
a) Birthday b) Studying
c) Spouse death d) Vacation
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No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any 4 Questions from Q.No.2 to Q.No.7.
Q.2 Explain the role of social support in mitigating stress. 10
Q.3 Explain various sources of stress in detail. 10
Q.4 Explain various consequences due to stress. 10
Q.5 Stress can be managed explain various techniques. 10
Q.6 Discuss the nature of stress response. 10
Q.7 Define Stress & explain current and historical status of stress. 10
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Set R
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Professional Ethics & Human Value
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


1) Ethics has evolved with evaluation of _____.
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
2) Virtues are _____.
a) Moral b) Ethics
c) Values d) Positive and preferred values
3) Honestly is a _____.
a) Virtue b) Truthfulness
c) Trustworthiness d) Communication
4) Human life is lived at four levels individuals, family, society and _____.
a) Nature b) Nurture
c) World d) Universe
5) One of the basic desires of every human being is to be always _____.
a) Happy b) Sad
c) Laugh d) Earn money
6) Courage is the tendency to accept and face _____.
a) Self-confidence
b) Risks and difficult tasks in rational ways
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
7) Commitment means _____.
a) Alignment to goals b) Adherence to ethical principles
c) Empathy d) All the above
8) The objectives of professional ethics in engineering are
a) To understand the moral values that ought to guide the Engineering
profession
b) To resolve the moral issues in the profession, and
c) To justify the moral judgment concerning the profession
d) All the above
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9) _____ is defined as a set of attitudes concerned with the values of work,
which forms the motivational orientation.
a) Integrity b) Work ethnic
c) Personal Values d) Professional values
10) Belief that the privacy of others must always be maintained ______.
a) Confidentiality b) Empathy
c) Ethics d) Work ethics
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.2 List the human values and explain any two in detail. 10
OR
Distinguish between Kohlberg's and Gilligan's approach to ethical (moral)
judgments.
Q.3 Discuss in detail risk benefit analysis and reducing risk. 10

OR
Explain the role of engineers as manager.
Q.4 Write short notes on any four 20

a) Objectives of Engineering Ethics
b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
d) Difference between moral and ethics
e) Intellectual property rights
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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Set Q
a) Happy b) Sad
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
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Set R
profession
d) All the above
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
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Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem – I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
1) Which of the following is a serviceability criterion?
a) Stability against overturning b) Sway stability
c) Fire resistance d) Fatigue
2) As per IS 800 purlins are designed as a ______.
a) Simply supported beams b) Cantilever beams
c) Continuous beams d) Compression member
3) In case of an axially loaded column machined for full bearing, the
fastenings connecting the column to the base plate in gusseted base are
designed for ______.
a) 100% of column load b) 50% of column load
c) 25% of column load d) Erection loads only
4) The self-weight of a roof truss (N/m2) may be obtained by ______.
a) (L + 5)5 b) (L/3 + 5)10
c) (L - 5)5 d) (L/3 - 5)10
5) Anchor bolts are provided in column base to ______.
i) Resist the tension forces
ii) Fix columns in place during erection
iii) Serve as reinforcement in concrete pedestal below the base plate of
the above
a) i, ii are correct b) ii, iii are correct
c) iii and i are correct d) all are correct
6) The partial safety factor for the material of bolts is _______.
a) 1.0 b) 1.10
c) 1.15 d) 1.25
7) Which of the following sections has a minimum value of shape factor?
a) Rectangle b) Tube section
c) Circle d) I section
8) The slenderness ratio of lacing flat is limited to ______.
a) 350 b) 145
c) 180 d) 250
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Set P
9) The best double angle compression member section is ______.
a) Equal angle on same side of gusset
b) Unequal angles with long legs back-to-back
c) Unequal angles with short legs back-to-back
d) Equal angle on opposite side of gusset plate
10) What is the minimum pitch distance according to IS 800:2007 if d is the
bolt diameter?
a) 2d b) d
c) 1.7d d) 2.5d
11) The effective length of a structural steel compression member of length L
effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at one end but
neither held in position nor restrained against rotation at the other end,
is ______.
a) 2 L b) 1.2 L
c) 0.8 L d) L
12) Splices for compression members are designed as ______.
a) Short column b) Intermediate column
c) Long column d) Depends upon its thickness
13) Minimum number of battens required in a built-up column are ______.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
hinges are 3. The collapse will be ______.
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any 3 questions from each section. Q.2 and Q.6 are compulsory.
solution.
6) Use of IS 800-2007 & IS 875 are allowed, but not allowed for MCQ (Q.1)
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of steel structures. 05

b) A ground floor column is subjected to following service loads: 05
Dead load: 500 kN axial compression
Live load: 250 kN axial compression
Wind load: 150 kN axial compression
Determine the design load combination for limit state of strength and limit
state of serviceability.
Q.3 Design a bridge truss diagonal subjected to a factored tensile load of 290 kN. 09
Length of diagonal is 3 m. The tension member is connected to gusset plate of
16 mm thick. Use 20 mm diameter bolts of grade 4.6
Q.4 Design a double angle discontinuous strut to carry a factored load of 145 kN, 09
resulting from combination with wind load. The length of the strut is 2.8 m
between intersections. The two angles are placed back-to-back (with long legs
connected) and are tack bolted. Use steel of grade Fe410.
a) Angles are placed on opposite sides of 12 mm gusset plate
b) Angles are placed on same side of 12 mm gusset plate
Q.5 Design a battened column with two channels back-to-back of length 7 m to 09

carry an axial factored load of 900kN. The column may be assumed to have
restrained in position but not restrained in direction at both ends.
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Section – II
Q.6 A portal frame ABCD fixed at A and hinged at D and subjected to two-point 10
loads W acting at midpoint of BC and at B respectively. Take AB = L/2,
BC = L/2 CD = L/2 and DE = L/2. Also take the plastic moment capacity of
AB = Mp, BC = Mp and CD = Mp. Find the collapse load for the portal frame
also draw the plastic moment diagram
Q.7 A simply supported steel joist of 4.0 m effective span is laterally supported 09
throughout. It carries a total uniformly distributed load of 35 kN (inclusive of self
weight) Design an appropriate section using steel of grade Fe 410.
Q.8 Design I section purlin to support galvanized corrugated iron sheet roof truss of 09
span 12 m. The purlins are 1.5 m apart over roof trusses spaced 6 m center to
center. The roof surface has an inclination of 300 to horizontal. The weight of
corrugated iron sheet is 0.133 kN/m2. The weight of fixtures etc. is 0.055kN/m2
intensity of wind pressure for the medium permeability is 1.8kN/m2 use grade of
steel Fe 410.
Q.9 A column section ISHB 350 @ 661.2 N/m carries a factored axial compressive 09
load of 1500kN and factored bending moment of 80kN-m. Design the base plate
and its connection assume concrete pedestal of M20 grade.
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) 350 b) 145
c) 180 d) 250
bolt diameter?
a) 2d b) d
c) 1.7d d) 2.5d
is ______.
a) 2 L b) 1.2 L
c) 0.8 L d) L
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
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a) (L + 5)5 b) (L/3 + 5)10
c) (L - 5)5 d) (L/3 - 5)10
the above
a) 1.0 b) 1.10
c) 1.15 d) 1.25
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
solution.
Section – I


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Section – II
steel Fe 410.
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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
is ______.
a) 2 L b) 1.2 L
c) 0.8 L d) L
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
a) (L + 5)5 b) (L/3 + 5)10
c) (L - 5)5 d) (L/3 - 5)10
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the above
a) 1.0 b) 1.10
c) 1.15 d) 1.25
a) 350 b) 145
c) 180 d) 250
bolt diameter?
a) 2d b) d
c) 1.7d d) 2.5d
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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
solution.
Section – I


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Set R
Section – II
steel Fe 410.
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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) 1.0 b) 1.10
c) 1.15 d) 1.25
a) 350 b) 145
c) 180 d) 250
bolt diameter?
a) 2d b) d
c) 1.7d d) 2.5d
is ______.
a) 2 L b) 1.2 L
c) 0.8 L d) L
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
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a) (L + 5)5 b) (L/3 + 5)10
c) (L - 5)5 d) (L/3 - 5)10
the above
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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
solution.
Section – I


SLR-HL-16
Page 15 of 16
Set S
Section – II
steel Fe 410.
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) If solid portion and void portion in a given mass of soil is same then porosity
for this soil is _____.
a) 1 b) 0.75
c) 0.50 d) 0.25
2) Which factors do not affect the permeability of soil ______?
a) shape of soil particle b) size of soil particle
c) specific gravity d) porosity
3) Optimum moisture content of which soil is more at a given compaction
effort _____.
a) silt b) clay
c) sand d) sandy clay
4) Which roller is most suitable for compacting clayey soil?
a) Pneumatic b) Vibratory
c) Sheep foot d) Smooth wheel
5) Coefficient of volume compressibility is the slope of which of following
curve _____.
a) e – p curve b) e – log p curve
c) flow curve d) none
6) If the soil is dry then percentage air void for this soil is _____.
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.50 d) none
7) Permeability of the soil is more when the degree of saturation of soil is _____.
a) 0% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 100%
8) In compaction test graph is plotted between water content and ______
density of soil.
a) Bulk b) Submerged
c) Dry d) Soil solid
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9) Process of removal of water from the soil is called _____.
a) compaction b) consolidation
c) compression d) none
10) Graphical method for finding earth pressure is given by _______.
a) Terzaghi b) Cassagrande
c) Boussinesq d) Culman
11) Vane shear test is commonly used to find shear strength of _____ soil.
a) clayey b) sandy
c) silty d) soft clayey soil
12) Height of fall of rammer in modified compaction test is _____.
a) 250mm b) 310mm
c) 400mm d) 450mm
13) Which of following shear strength test is quick one ______?
a) UU test b) CU test
c) CD test d) none
14) Standard size of soil sample used for conducting unconfined compression
test is _____.
a) 30mm dia. And 60mm height b) 38mm dia. and 76mm height
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 is compulsory, attempt any Two questions from
the remaining questions from each section I and section II.
2) Assume additional data, if required, and state it clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any Four. 08

a) Draw grain size distribution curve and show D10, D30, and D60 on it.
b) Name two soil belonging to Fine grained soil and that belonging to coarse
grained soil.
c) Define air content and degree of saturation.
d) Draw labelled sketch of triaxial shear apparatus (minimum four parts labeled).
e) Draw graph used to calculate liquid limit for soil and show liquid limit on it.
Q.3 Answer the following questions.

a) With suitable notation prove the relation 𝑒 = 𝑤𝐺 05
𝑆 𝑟
b) A soil sample has equal amounts of voids and solids, and also amount of 05
air and water in terms of volume is same; for this soil find
a) void ratio of the soil b) porosity c) air content
d) % air void and e) degree of saturation

a) What is permeability of soil? Explain any four factors affecting permeability 05
of soil.
b) Soil strata of 3 layers of thickness 1, 1.5, and 2.0 m having the coefficient 05
permeability of 2 × 10−3 , 1.5 × 10−3 and 3 × 10−3 cm/s respectively.
Estimate the average coefficient of permeability in the direction of
(a) Parallel to the bedding plane (b) Normal to the bedding plane

a) What are different types of shear test based on drainage of soil. 05
b) Consolidated undrained test were carried out on a soil sample and 05
following observations were recorded.
Test Cell Pressure (kPa) Deviator stress at failure (kPa)
1 250 179
2 350 242
Determine shear parameters of soil both in terms of total stress and effective
stress, if another identical soil specimen was tested at a cell pressure of
400kPa, what would be deviator stress at failure?
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Section – II

a) Define Maximum dry density and optimum moisture content.
b) Define over-consolidation ratio and how it is used to classify the soil.
c) Draw compaction curve along with zero air void line (label all parts).
d) Draw typical e – p curve and label various parts of it.
e) Write any four analogy between spring model and saturated soil (consolidation).

a) Explain step wise procedure for field compaction of soil. 05
b) The following are the results of a standard compaction test performed on a 05
sample of soil.
Moisture content (%) 7.7 11.5 14.6 17.5 19.7 21.2
Mass of wet soil (Kg) 1.7 1.89 2.05 1.99 1.99 1.92
i) Plot compaction curve and hence find OMC and MDD
ii) Plot 10% air void line
iii) What is the air content and degree of saturation corresponding to MDD?

a) Explain Cassagrande method for calculating coefficient of consolidation. 05
b) A clay specimen was tested in a laboratory consolidation device, which 05
was 12.7 mm thick and the top and the bottom boundaries were drained.
A 50% consolidation time on the specimen was obtained as 28.4 minutes.
Determine the following:
(i) Time for 50% consolidation in the field with this soil with a 2.5 m
thickness where only the top layer is drained
(ii) Time for 90% consolidation in the field with this soil with a 2.5 m

a) Explain Culman’s method for calculating earth pressure. 05
b) Calculate total passive earth pressure and its position with respect to 05
bottom of wall acting on a retaining wall of height 9m retaining two layered
soil on back side of it. Top layer 4.2m thick having Υ = 18 kN/m3 , c = 0
and φ = 27° followed by second layer having Υ = 19 kN/m3 , c = 0 and
φ = 30°
Page 4 of 16
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


density of soil.
a) clayey b) sandy
a) 250mm b) 310mm
c) 400mm d) 450mm
c) CD test d) none
test is _____.
a) 1 b) 0.75
c) 0.50 d) 0.25
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effort _____.
a) silt b) clay
curve _____.
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.50 d) none
a) 0% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 100%
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

grained soil.

𝑆 𝑟

of soil.

1 250 179
2 350 242
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II


sample of soil.


φ = 30°
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) clayey b) sandy
a) 250mm b) 310mm
c) 400mm d) 450mm
c) CD test d) none
test is _____.
a) 1 b) 0.75
c) 0.50 d) 0.25
effort _____.
a) silt b) clay
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
curve _____.
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.50 d) none
a) 0% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 100%
density of soil.
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

grained soil.

𝑆 𝑟

of soil.

1 250 179
2 350 242
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section – II


sample of soil.


φ = 30°
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.50 d) none
a) 0% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 100%
density of soil.
a) clayey b) sandy
a) 250mm b) 310mm
c) 400mm d) 450mm
c) CD test d) none
test is _____.
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Set S
a) 1 b) 0.75
c) 0.50 d) 0.25
effort _____.
a) silt b) clay
curve _____.
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

grained soil.

𝑆 𝑟

of soil.

1 250 179
2 350 242
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II


sample of soil.


φ = 30°
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem – I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Civil Engineering
Waste Water Engineering & Air Pollution
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) Dry whether flow (DWF) is the flow in sewers available in _____.
a) Rainy b) Non- rainfall
c) Both a) & b) d) None of the above
2) For circular sewer running fill the value of H.M.D. is_____
a) D/4 b) D
c) D/8 d) None of the above
3) In the Screening process, the velocity at low flows in the approach channel
should not be less than_____ to avoid deposition of solids.
a) 0.3 m/s b) 0.4 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s d) 0.6 m/s
4) The term sloughing of biofilm is associated with_____
a) Aeration b) Sedimentation
c) ASP d) Trickling filter
5) Oxidation ditch is essentially_____ process.
a) RBC b) Extended aeration
6) Calculate the BOD load for the following data.
Flow: 700 m3/d
BOD load: 900 mg/L
a) 330 kg/d b) 530 kg/d
c) 630 kg/d d) 430 kg/d
7) Which of these is not an alternative to activated sludge treatment systems?
a) Stabilization ponds b) Rotating biological reactors
c) Trickling filter d) Screening units
8) The developing countries generate ______ solid waste per capita daily as
compared with developed countries.
a) Less b) more
c) Same d) None of the above
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9) Which is the odd one out?
a) Deep well injection b) Landfilling
c) Land Farming d) Composting
10) Which of the following can be collected from landfills?
a) Leachate b) Gas
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
11) In composting by trenching trenches of _____ m length are excavated.
a) 4-10 b) 7-12
c) 10-20 d) Above 20
12) Controlled tipping method of disposal of refuse rec cues an area of_____
m2/c/yr.
a) 0.1-0.3 b) 0.3-0.5
c) 0.5- 1.0 d) 1.0- 1.2
13) Which type of pollutant does Ozone belong to?
a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Natural d) None of the above
14) The coning plume from the stacks is observed in____ type of atmosphere.
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Inversion d) Neutral
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section – I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory and solve any two questions from
the remaining questions i.e. Q. No. 3, 4, & 5
2) In Section – II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory and solve any two questions from
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks
Section - I
a) Explain biological process in trickling filter with sketch. 05
b) The BOD of a sewage incubated for one day at 25o C has been found to be 05
150 mg/L. What will be the 5- day 20oC BOD. Assume K – 0.12 (Base 10) at
20o C.
a) A town has a population of 1,00,000 persons with per capita water supply of 05
200 litres/day. Assuming 80% of water usage is appears to be sewage,
constant value of N= 0.013 at all depths of flow. The sewer is to be laid at a
slope of 1 in 500. Take a peak factor of 3.
b) Write advantages and disadvantages of stabilization pond. 04
A continuous flow completely stirred ASP is designed with following data- 09
i. Wastewater discharge - 4000 m3/d
ii. Standard BOD of influent - 300 mg/L
iii. Effluent BOD - 35 mg/L
iv. MLSS - 2500 mg/L
v. Sludge age - 10 days
vi. Y - 0.65
vii. Kd - 0.05
Find:
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M Ratio
c) Oxygen requirement

a) Septic tank
b) Grit chamber
c) Disposal of sludge
d) Anaerobic pond
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Section - II
Q.6 a) Discuss the procedure involved in ‘self-purification’ of stream. 05
b) A stream, saturated with DO has flow of 1.2 m3/s, BOD of 4 mg/L and rate 05
constant of 0.3 per day. It receives an effluent discharge of 0.25 m3/s.
Having BOD 20 mg/L, DO 5 mg/L and rate constant 0.13 per day. The
average velocity of flow of the stream is 0.15 m/s. Calculate the DO deficit
at point 20 km & 40 km downstream. Assume that the temperature is 20 °C
throughout and BOD is measured at 5 days. Take saturation DO at 20 °C
as 9.17 mg/L.
Q.7 a) With the help of diagram explain constructed wetlands. 05
b) List different composting methods and explain ‘Bangalore method’ of 04
composting.
Q.8 a) Explain functional outlines for solid waste disposal. 05
b) Illustrate the classification of solid wastes based on various types. 04
a) ESP
b) Ozone Depletion
c) Decentralized treatment systems
d) Cyclone Precipitator
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No. Set Q
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) D/4 b) D
a) 0.3 m/s b) 0.4 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s d) 0.6 m/s
Flow: 700 m3/d
BOD load: 900 mg/L
a) 330 kg/d b) 530 kg/d
c) 630 kg/d d) 430 kg/d
a) Less b) more
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Set Q
a) Leachate b) Gas
a) 4-10 b) 7-12
c) 10-20 d) Above 20
m2/c/yr.
a) 0.1-0.3 b) 0.3-0.5
c) 0.5- 1.0 d) 1.0- 1.2
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I
20o C.
vi. Y - 0.65
vii. Kd - 0.05
Find:
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M Ratio

a) Septic tank
b) Grit chamber
d) Anaerobic pond
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Set Q
Section - II
as 9.17 mg/L.
composting.
a) ESP
b) Ozone Depletion
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Seat
No. Set R
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) D/4 b) D
a) 0.3 m/s b) 0.4 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s d) 0.6 m/s
Flow: 700 m3/d
BOD load: 900 mg/L
a) 330 kg/d b) 530 kg/d
c) 630 kg/d d) 430 kg/d
a) Less b) more
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a) Leachate b) Gas
a) 4-10 b) 7-12
c) 10-20 d) Above 20
m2/c/yr.
a) 0.1-0.3 b) 0.3-0.5
c) 0.5- 1.0 d) 1.0- 1.2
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I
20o C.
vi. Y - 0.65
vii. Kd - 0.05
Find:
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M Ratio

a) Septic tank
b) Grit chamber
d) Anaerobic pond
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section - II
as 9.17 mg/L.
composting.
a) ESP
b) Ozone Depletion
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) D/4 b) D
a) 0.3 m/s b) 0.4 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s d) 0.6 m/s
Flow: 700 m3/d
BOD load: 900 mg/L
a) 330 kg/d b) 530 kg/d
c) 630 kg/d d) 430 kg/d
a) Less b) more
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Set S
a) Leachate b) Gas
a) 4-10 b) 7-12
c) 10-20 d) Above 20
m2/c/yr.
a) 0.1-0.3 b) 0.3-0.5
c) 0.5- 1.0 d) 1.0- 1.2
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Seat
No. Set S
Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I
20o C.
vi. Y - 0.65
vii. Kd - 0.05
Find:
a) Reactor volume
b) F/M Ratio

a) Septic tank
b) Grit chamber
d) Anaerobic pond
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section - II
as 9.17 mg/L.
composting.
a) ESP
b) Ozone Depletion
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Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The stopping sight distance depends upon _____.
a) total reaction time b) speed of vehicle
c) efficiency of brakes d) all of the above
2) On a single lane road with two-way traffic, the minimum stopping sight
distance is equal to ______.
a) Stopping distance
b) two times the stopping distance
c) half the stopping distance
d) three times the stopping distance
3) Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed
cement concrete pavements from the following choices:
a) Tensile strength b) Compressive strength
c) Flexural strength d) Shear strength.
4) Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with _____.
a) Parallel parking b) 300 angle parking
c) 450 angle parking d) 900 angle parking
5) The standard plate size in a plate bearing test for finding modulus of
subgrade Reaction (k) value is _____.
a) 100 cm diameter b) 50 cm diameter
c) 75 cm diameter d) 25 cm diameter
6) The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to _____.
a) Relieve warping stresses
b) Relieve shrinkage stresses
c) Resist stresses due to expansion
d) Allow free expansion
7) in highway construction, rolling starts from _____.
a) Sides and proceed to center
b) Center and proceed to sides
c) One side and proceed to other side
d) Any of the above
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Set P
8) Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct _____.
a) Abrasion test b) Impact test
c) Attrition test d) Crushing strength test
9) When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or
over existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment given is _____.
a) Seal coat b) Tack coat
c) Prime coat d) Spray of emulsion
10) The critical combination of stresses for comer region in cement concrete
roads is _____.
a) Load stress + warping stress frictional stress
b) Load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
c) Load stress + warping stress
d) Load stress + frictional stress
11) Tyre pressure influences the
a) Total depth of pavement
b) Quality of surface course
c) Both the above
12) The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a
a) Smooth wheeled roller
b) Pneumatic tyred roller
c) Sheep foot roller
d) Vibrator
13) Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load _____.
a) Directly to sub-grade
b) Through structural action
c) Through a set of layers to the sub-grade
14) In full face method of constructing tunnel, the first operation relates _____.
a) Removal of bottom portion
b) Excavation of one drift in the center
c) Removal of top portion
d) Excavation being done along the perimeter
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Day & Date: Tuesday, 07-02-2023
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section - I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory and solve any TWO questions from
remaining questions (Q. No. 3, 4 & 5).
2) In Section - ll, Q. No. 6 is compulsory and solve any TWO questions from
3) Figure on right indicates full marks.
Section – I
Q.2 Solve the following questions. 08
The radius of a horizontal circular curve is 150 m. The design speed is 60 kmph
and the design coefficient of lateral friction is 0.15.
a) Calculate the super elevation required if full lateral friction is assumed to
develop.
b) Calculate the coefficient of friction needed if no super elevation is
provided.
c) Calculate the equilibrium super elevation if the pressure on inner and
outer wheels should be equal.
Q.3 Solve any two questions 10
a) Write a note on Third 20 Year Road Plan.
b) Mention the different cross-sectional elements of highway and explain any
one in detail.
c) State different types of pavements and discuss their suitability.
a) Explain various characteristics of road transport in comparison with the
other systems.
b) Explain the factors controlling geometric design of roads
c) Write a short note highway materials: Bitumen
Q.5 Solve 10
Explain different types of road surveys that are carried out before designing
alignment.
Section – II
a) Differentiate between flexible & rigid pavement
b) Find equivalent radius of resisting section of 20cm slab if contact area is
707cm2
c) Write a short on Softening point test on bitumen.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
a) Write a note on surface drainage system for highway.
b) Mention the specifications of materials and construction steps for Water
Bound Macadam (WBM) road.
c) Write a short note on Pavement failures with its types.
a) Explain highway user benefits.
b) Write a short note on highway cost & vehicular operation cost.
c) What is economic analysis & give the methods of it.
Q.9 Solve 10
With neat sketches explain different shapes of tunnel & its suitability.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

roads is _____.
c) Both the above
d) Vibrator
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
d) Any of the above
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
develop.
provided.
one in detail.
other systems.
Q.5 Solve 10
alignment.
Section – II
707cm2
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Q.9 Solve 10
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

c) Both the above
d) Vibrator
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
0
d) Any of the above
roads is _____.
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-19
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
develop.
provided.
one in detail.
other systems.
Q.5 Solve 10
alignment.
Section – II
707cm2
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Q.9 Solve 10
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-19
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) Any of the above
roads is _____.
c) Both the above
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
d) Vibrator
0
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-19
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
develop.
provided.
one in detail.
other systems.
Q.5 Solve 10
alignment.
Section – II
707cm2
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-19
Set S
Q.9 Solve 10
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B .Tech) (Sem- I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
3) Figures to right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.


1) If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not
intersect the curve again, it indicates that ______.
a) equal to the rate of rainfall
b) equal to the infiltration capacity
c) more than the infiltration capacity
d) has no relation either with the rainfall intensity or the infiltration capacity
2) Lysmeter is used to measure ______.
a) evaporation b) evapotranspiration
c) transpiration d) infiltration
3) The length of all streams per unit area of a watershed, is called: ______.
a) stream density b) drainage density
c) drainage coefficient d) distribution coefficient
4) Which index represents the average rate of infiltration only for that rainfall
which contributes to runoff ______.
a) ∅ b) W
c) both a and b d) None of these
5) Stream flow may be measured in: ______.
a) m3/sec b) m depth/sec
c) both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or (b)
6) The Rational formula is restricted to the catchments of size less than: _____.
a) 500 ha b) 5000 ha
c) 50000 ha d) 5,00,000 ha
7) Which of the following formations does not contain any groundwater?
a) Aquifer b) Aquifuge
c) Aquitard d) Aquiclude
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
8) In the case of water table well, the piezometric surface ______.
a) is above the ground level
b) is below the Water level in the well
c) Coincides with the water level in the well
d) is between the water level in the well and ground level
9) Peninsular Component has total number of river links _______.
a) 13 links b) 14 links
c) 15 links d) 16 links
10) In portable sprinkler system ______ components are portable.
a) main pipeline b) sub main pipeline
c) sprinklers d) all of these
11) The duty of irrigation water for a given crop is maximum ______.
a) on the field
b) at the head of the main canal
c) at the head of the water-course
d) None of them
12) The Gross Irrigation Requirement (GIR) of water is equal to: _______.
a) NIR + ηa b) NIR + ηa ∗ ηc
c) NIR/ηa ∗ ηc d) None of above
where, ηa = water application efficiency ηc = water conveyance efficiency.
13) The drawback associated with Assessment of canal water by area basis ______.
a) quantity of water used farmers is less
b) Farmers near the head utilizes more water
c) Farmers use to irrigate same area number of items
d) Both a and b
14) Afforestation helps in _______.
a) soil conservation b) water conservation
c) Both of a and b d) None of these
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Attempt any two questions from the remaining questions of each section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain with sketch Thiessen’s method for calculating average depth of 05
Precipitation over an area. Discuss the relative merits of this method over
other methods of computation.
b) The following data were collected during stream gauging operation in a 05
river Compute the discharge.
Distance from left
0 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0 7.5 9.0
water edge (m)
Depth
0 1.3 2.5 1.7 1.0 0.4 0.0
(m)
Velocity at 0.2 d
0 0.6 0.9 0.7 0.6 0.4 0.0
(m/s)
Velocity at 0.8 d
0 0.4 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.0
(m/s)
Q.3 a) What is flood and discuss various factors affecting flood? 04

b) The rainfall rates for successive 30 minutes interval up to 4 hrs are given in 05
the table as below. If tie surface runoff is 3.6 cm. determine the ϕ and W
index.
Time (min) 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240
Rainfall intensity
0 1.3 2.8 4.2 3.9 2.8 2.2 1.8 0.9
(cm/hr)
Q.4 a) What do you understand by recuperation test? Derive the expression used 04
in this test?
b) Two storms each of 6-h duration having rainfall excess values of 3 and 2 05
cm respectively occur successively. The 2 cm ER follows the 3 cm rain.
The 6-h UH for the catchment having following observations. Calculate the
resulting DRH.
Duration
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
(h)
Ordinate of runoff
0 10 15 21 30 25 20 10 5
hydrograph (m3/s)
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Q.5 a) What is mean by Hydrograph? Explain procedure of finding runoff from a 04
given Hydrograph.
b) In an artesian aquifer of 8 m thick, a 10 cm diameter well is pumped at a 05
constant rate of 100 lpm. The steady state drawdown observed in two wells
located at 10 m and 50 m distance from the centre of the well are 3 m and
0.05 m respectively. Compute the transmissivity and the hydraulic
conductivity of the aquifer.
Section – II
Q.6 a) Write a detailed note on ‘National Perspective Plan’ of National Water 05

Development Academy for Inter-basin transfer of water in India.
b) Discuss the concept of ‘Bandhara irrigation system’ with its advantages 05
and disadvantages.
Q.7 a) Describe with a neat sketch, general layout of a lift irrigation scheme. 03
Briefly explain the Jack Well.
b) The base period, intensity of irrigation and duty of various crops under a 06
canal irrigation system are given below. Find the reservoir capacity if the
canal losses are 25% and reservoir losses are 20%.
Base period Duty at field Area under the
Crop (ha/cumec) crop (Ha)
(days)
Wheat 120 1700 5000
Sugarcane 360 600 6000
Cotton 200 1500 2500
Rice 120 800 3500
Vegetables 120 900 2400
Q.8 a) Discuss the terms field capacity, wilting point and optimum water content. 03
b) Write a short note on Application of Remote Sensing and GIS in water 06
shed management.
Q.9 a) Enlist the watershed erosion control measures which are effective in 03
preventing and delaying sediment deposition in reservoirs.
b) The field capacity of a certain soil is 15% & the moisture content of the soil 06
before irrigation is 8%. Determine the depth up to which the soil profile will
be wetted with an application of 60 mm of water. Take dry weight of soil as
15.3 kN/m3.
Page 4 of 16
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) on the field
d) None of them
d) Both a and b
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) ∅ b) W
a) 500 ha b) 5000 ha
c) 50000 ha d) 5,00,000 ha
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Distance from left
0 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0 7.5 9.0
water edge (m)
Depth
0 1.3 2.5 1.7 1.0 0.4 0.0
(m)
Velocity at 0.2 d
0 0.6 0.9 0.7 0.6 0.4 0.0
(m/s)
Velocity at 0.8 d
0 0.4 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.0
(m/s)

index.
Time (min) 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240
Rainfall intensity
0 1.3 2.8 4.2 3.9 2.8 2.2 1.8 0.9
(cm/hr)
in this test?
resulting DRH.
Duration
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
(h)
Ordinate of runoff
0 10 15 21 30 25 20 10 5
hydrograph (m3/s)
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Set Q
given Hydrograph.
Section – II

and disadvantages.
(days)
Wheat 120 1700 5000
Cotton 200 1500 2500
Rice 120 800 3500
shed management.
15.3 kN/m3.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) on the field
d) None of them
d) Both a and b
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) ∅ b) W
a) 500 ha b) 5000 ha
c) 50000 ha d) 5,00,000 ha
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Distance from left
0 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0 7.5 9.0
water edge (m)
Depth
0 1.3 2.5 1.7 1.0 0.4 0.0
(m)
Velocity at 0.2 d
0 0.6 0.9 0.7 0.6 0.4 0.0
(m/s)
Velocity at 0.8 d
0 0.4 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.0
(m/s)

index.
Time (min) 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240
Rainfall intensity
0 1.3 2.8 4.2 3.9 2.8 2.2 1.8 0.9
(cm/hr)
in this test?
resulting DRH.
Duration
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
(h)
Ordinate of runoff
0 10 15 21 30 25 20 10 5
hydrograph (m3/s)
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Set R
given Hydrograph.
Section – II

and disadvantages.
(days)
Wheat 120 1700 5000
Cotton 200 1500 2500
Rice 120 800 3500
shed management.
15.3 kN/m3.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 500 ha b) 5000 ha
c) 50000 ha d) 5,00,000 ha
a) on the field
d) None of them
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
d) Both a and b
a) ∅ b) W
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Distance from left
0 1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0 7.5 9.0
water edge (m)
Depth
0 1.3 2.5 1.7 1.0 0.4 0.0
(m)
Velocity at 0.2 d
0 0.6 0.9 0.7 0.6 0.4 0.0
(m/s)
Velocity at 0.8 d
0 0.4 0.6 0.5 0.4 0.3 0.0
(m/s)

index.
Time (min) 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240
Rainfall intensity
0 1.3 2.8 4.2 3.9 2.8 2.2 1.8 0.9
(cm/hr)
in this test?
resulting DRH.
Duration
0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
(h)
Ordinate of runoff
0 10 15 21 30 25 20 10 5
hydrograph (m3/s)
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-20
Set S
given Hydrograph.
Section – II

and disadvantages.
(days)
Wheat 120 1700 5000
Cotton 200 1500 2500
Rice 120 800 3500
shed management.
15.3 kN/m3.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-21
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
d) Store of value
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Set R
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Set S
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-21
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
10)
except _____.
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
that are of _____
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-22
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 1 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 2 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
Page 3 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 4 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
Page 5 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 6 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 7 of 8
SLR-HL-23
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 8 of 8
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Set R
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-24
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Set Q
a) Happy b) Sad
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Set R
profession
d) All the above
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-25
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Foundation Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given option. 14
1) If RQD of the sample is 47% then quality of sample is _____ .
a) Poor b) Good
c) Very Good d) Fair
2) One of the purposes of soil exploration is _____.
a) To understand the behavior of the structure
b) To estimate the load coming on the soil
c) To find the quantity and quality of water
d) To determine basic properties of soil
3) In case of sandy soil, which settlement is predominant?
a) Immediate settlement
b) Consolidation settlement
c) Secondary consolidation settlement
d) None
4) The angle of shear resistance ∅ > 36° the type of failure in soil is _____.
a) General shear failure b) Local shear failure
c) Punching shear failure d) None
5) These type of soil deposit are often found near the mouths of rivers,
along the perimeters of bays and beneath swamps or lagoons ____
a) Collapsible soil b) Expansive soil
c) Corrosive soil d) Weak/Compressible soil
6) In case of plate load test seating load to be applied is _____.
a) 5 KPa b) 10 KPa
c) 7 KPa d) None
7) Mineral present in expansive soil is _____.
a) Illite b) Montmorillonite
c) Kaolonite d) None
8) When the two column loads are unequal, with the outer column carrying
heavier load and there is space limitation beyond the outer column, which
of the following combined footing is adopted
a) Rectangular footing b) Trapezoidal footing
c) Mat foundation d) Strip footing
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) Location of critical slip circle for a given slope can be found by using
method suggested by _____.
a) Taylor b) Cassagrande
c) Fellenius d) Bishop
10) Efficiency of pile group consisting of four piles by using Feld's rule is
a) 93.75 b) 81.25
c) 87.5 d) None
11) The bottom plug in well foundation is usually made up of _____.
a) Brick masonry b) RCC
c) Cement concrete d) None
12) Taylor's stability charts are based on the total stress using the _____.
a) Friction circle method b) Method of slices
c) ∅ = 0 Analysis d) None
13) For cantilever sheet pile supporting clayey soil having c=25 KPa,
pressure intensity at the top of wall is _____.
a) 0 b) -25 KPa
c) -50 Kpa d) None
14) Anchored sheet pile wall embedded in cohesive soil, shape of the pressure
distribution diagram below dredge level is
a) Parabolic b) Triangular
c) Rectangular d) None
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Section-I Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two from remaining.
2) Section-II Q. No. 6 is compulsory. Solve any two from remaining.
3) Assume additional data, required and state it clearly.
4) Figure to right indicate full marks.
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any two 10

a) Effect of water table on bearing capacity.
b) Explain the functions of geotextiles.
c) Explain wash boring with neat sketch.
d) IS code method of finding bearing capacity.
Q.3 a) Explain the objectives of the soil exploration. 05

b) A sampling tube has inner diameter 70 mm and that of a cutting edge is 04
equal to 68mm. Their outer diameters are 72mm and 74mm respectively.
Determine the inside clearance, outside clearance and area ratio of the
sampler. This tube is pushed at bottom of a borehole to a distance of 550
mm and length of sample covered is 80mm. Find the recovery ratio.
Q.4 a) Write the difference between general shear failure and local shear failure. 04
b) A square footing fails by general shear in a cohesionless soil under an 05
ultimate load of 3000kN. The footing is placed at a depth of 3m below
ground level. Take ∅ = 35°, 𝑁𝑞 = 41.4, 𝑁𝛾 = 42.4 and 𝛾 = 19 𝐾𝑁/𝑚3.
Determine to size of the footing if the water table is at a great depth.
Q.5 a) What is Expansive soil? What precautions to be taken while designing 04

foundation in expansive soil?
b) Explain the below ground improvement techniques. 05
1) Sand drains
2) Grouting
Section – II

a) Negative shin friction
b) Undreamed piles
c) Mat or raft foundations
d) Fellenius construction to locate critical slip centre
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Q.7 a) What are different types of shallow foundations? Explain with the help of 04
neat sketches.
b) A trapezoidal footing is to be produced to support two square columns of 05
30 cm and 50 cm sides respectively. Columns are 6 metres apart and the
safe bearing capacity of the soil is 400 kN/m2. The bigger column carries
5000 KN and the smaller 3000 kN. Design a suitable size of the footing so
that it does not extend beyond the faces of the columns.
Q.8 a) Classify piles according to their functions. 04

b) A pile is driven in a uniform clay of large depth. The clay has an 05
unconfined compression strength of 80 kN/m2. The pile is 350mm
diameter and 7 m long. Determine the safe frictional resistance of the pile,
assuming a factor of safety of 3. Assume the adhesion factor 𝛼 = 0.7.
Q.9 a) Draw a neat labeled sketch of slope and enlist causes of failure of slope. 05
b) Calculate the factor of safety with respect to cohesion of clay, slope laid at 04
1 in 2 to a length of 11 m. If the angle of internal friction ∅ = 10°, Taylors
stability number 0.064, C= 20 kN/m2 and 𝛾 = 19 KN/m3 . Determine the
Critical height of the slope in this soil.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 93.75 b) 81.25
c) 87.5 d) None
a) 0 b) -25 KPa
c) -50 Kpa d) None
a) Poor b) Good
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
d) None
a) 5 KPa b) 10 KPa
c) 7 KPa d) None
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



1) Sand drains
2) Grouting
Section – II

b) Undreamed piles
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Set Q
neat sketches.

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) 0 b) -25 KPa
c) -50 Kpa d) None
a) Poor b) Good
d) None
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) 5 KPa b) 10 KPa
c) 7 KPa d) None
a) 93.75 b) 81.25
c) 87.5 d) None
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



1) Sand drains
2) Grouting
Section – II

b) Undreamed piles
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Set R
neat sketches.

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) 5 KPa b) 10 KPa
c) 7 KPa d) None

a) 93.75 b) 81.25
c) 87.5 d) None
a) 0 b) -25 KPa
c) -50 Kpa d) None
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) Poor b) Good
d) None
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-26
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



1) Sand drains
2) Grouting
Section – II

b) Undreamed piles
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
neat sketches.

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Hydraulic Structures & Water Power Engg
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) The ‘surcharge storage’ in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
between ______.
a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) normal and maximum reservoir levels
d) none of the above
2) Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir indicates the: ______.
a) sediment volume trapped in the reservoir
b) sediment volume let out from the reservoir
c) sediment volume trapped in relation to the sediment volume entering
the reservoir
d) None of these
3) The horizontal component of the earthquake wave, producing instability in
a dam, is the one, which acts: ______.
a) towards the reservoir b) towards the dam
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
4) The most economical central angle of the arch rings in an arch dam,
is: ______.
a) 123°-34’ b) 133°-34’
c) 143°-34’ d) 153°-34’
5) The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned
embankment type of an earthen dam, is: ______.
a) highly impervious clay b) highly pervious gravel
c) coarse sand d) clay mixed with fine sand
6) When the water level standing against an earthen embankment, suddenly
falls down, then there is an imminent risk of sliding failure, to the: ______.
a) upstream slope b) downstream slope
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
7) The 'safety valve’ of a dam is its: ______.
a) drainage gallery b) inspection gallery
c) spillway d) outlet sluices
8) The spillway involving weir type spills, giving increased discharge with the
increase in reservoir level, are: ______.
a) ogee spillways b) chute spillways
c) side channel spillways d) all of these
9) The critical exit gradient suggested in Khosla’s theory of design of weirs
and barrages, is ______.
a) less for more porous soils b) more for more porous soils
c) equal for all kinds of soils d) none of them
10) The value of Khosla’s safe exit gradient for usually met alluvial river soils
of our country, is: ______.
a) 0 b) 1
c) ∞ d) 1⁄ to 1⁄
4 6
11) The canal, which may frequently encounter cross-drainage works, will be
a: ______.
a) watershed canal b) contour canal
c) side slope canal d) none of them
12) Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of ______.
a) Meander belt to meander length
b) Meander length to meander belt
c) Curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river
reach
d) Direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel
13) Aggrading rivers are ______.
a) silting rivers b) scouring rivers
c) rivers in regime d) meandering rivers
14) If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity, then the ratio
of capacity factor to load factor will be: ______.
a) 1 b) 0
c) <1 d) >1
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks
3) In Section – I, Q. No. 3 is compulsory. Attempt any two questions from the
remaining questions.
4) In Section – II, Q. No. 9 is compulsory. Attempt any two questions from
the remaining questions.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What are the different methods of construction of earthen dam? Explain 04
any one in details.
b) What is mean by energy dissipation? Why it is required? Explain any one 05
method of energy dissipation at downstream side of spillway.
Q.3 Section of Gravity dam along with drainage gallery is shown below. Analyse the 10
stability of it when reservoir is full. Also find principal stress and shear stress at
the toe and heel of dam. No tail water condition. Assume specific weight of
concrete as 23.544 kN./m3, coefficient of friction 0.7, and shear strength of
concrete as 1373.4 kN./m2
Q.4 a) What are the methods adopted to control seepage through the foundation 04
of earthen dam? Explain any one with neat sketch.
b) Explain different investigations those are carried out for planning of 05
reservoir at a site.
Q.5 a) Enlist and explain different types of reservoirs. 04

b) What is role of spillway gates? Explain Tainter and drum gate with neat 05
sketches.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Section – II
Q.6 a) Explain the term weir and enlist the criterions of site selection for K.T Weir. 04
b) What is mean by canal lining? What are its different types? Explain any 05
one with its advantages and disadvantages.
Q.7 a) What is role of cross drainage works in the canal alignment? Explain super 04
passage with neat sketch.
b) What is mean by water logging? Explain different techniques to overcome 05
it with neat sketches.
Q.8 a) Distinguish clearly between storage reservoir Hydropower plants and 04

pumped-storage hydropower plants.
b) What are different methods those are used for river training and bank 05
protection? Explain any two with neat sketches
Q.9 a) Explain the phenomenon of piping and under cutting for structures founded 04
on permeable foundations.
b) A runoff river plant is installed on a river having minimum flow of 12 cumec. 06
If the plant is used as a peak load plant operating only for 6 hours per day.
Determine firm capacity of plant without pondage and with pondage but
allowing 10% of the water to be lost in evaporation and other losses. Head
at the plant is 15 m and the plant efficiency may be assumed as 80%.
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 0 b) 1
c) ∞ d) 1⁄ to 1⁄
4 6
a: ______.
reach
a) 1 b) 0
c) <1 d) >1
Page 5 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set Q
between ______.
the reservoir
d) None of these
is: ______.
a) 123°-34’ b) 133°-34’
c) 143°-34’ d) 153°-34’
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
any one in details.

sketches.
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set Q
Section – II

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a: ______.
reach
a) 1 b) 0
c) <1 d) >1
between ______.
the reservoir
d) None of these
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set R
is: ______.
a) 123°-34’ b) 133°-34’
c) 143°-34’ d) 153°-34’
a) 0 b) 1
c) ∞ d) 1⁄ to 1⁄
4 6
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
any one in details.

sketches.
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set R
Section – II

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 0 b) 1
c) ∞ d) 1⁄ to 1⁄
4 6
a: ______.
reach
Page 13 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set S
a) 1 b) 0
c) <1 d) >1
between ______.
the reservoir
d) None of these
is: ______.
a) 123°-34’ b) 133°-34’
c) 143°-34’ d) 153°-34’
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
any one in details.

sketches.
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-27
Set S
Section – II

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B. Tech) (Sem – II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Answer Book Page No. 3 (starting page of the Answer Book). Each
2) Don't forget to mention the Question Paper Set (P/Q/R/S) at the top of
the same page.
1) The code for masonry structures, “IS 1905 - 1987 Code of practice for
structural use of unreinforced masonry” was published in year ______.
a) 1968 b) 1969
c) 1970 d) 1971
2) In As per IS 1905 a masonry wall is an isolated load bearing vertical
member width of which does not exceeds ______ times its thickness.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
3) Slenderness ratio of masonry wall depends upon ______.
a) Height b) Thickness
c) both a and b d) none
4) For a masonry wall with both ends restrained, the effective height if ______.
a) 0.75Ha b) 0.80Ha
c) 0.95Ha d) 1.0Ha
5) Test carried out on brick materials are ______.
a) soundness b) hardness
c) structure d) all above
6) A wall in which facing and backing is done by bonding two different
material is ______.
a) Veneered b) faced
c) solid d) cavity
7) The inner portion in cavity wall is called as ______.
a) Panel b) leaf
c) both a & b d) none
8) For a 200mm thick solid masonry wall having 3.2m height with both ends
restrained against deformation, the slenderness ratio is ______.
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) 13
Page 1 of 20
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Set P
9) The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of
less than 4 is by ______.
a) Shear b) Vertical tensile splitting
c) Buckling d) Any of the above
10) If the ratio of center to center spacing of intersecting walls to actual
thickness of intersecting wall is more than 20, then the stiffening
coefficient for wall proper will be ______.
a) 0 b) Between 0 and 1
c) 1 d) Greater than 1
11) For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance between
openings one above the other in a load bearing wall shall not be less
than ______.
a) 50 cm b) 60 cm
c) 75 cm d) 100 cm
12) The effective height of free-standing non-load bearing wall and column
respectively will be ______.
a) 1.0H and 1.0H b) 1.5H and 1.5H
c) 2.0H and 1.5H d) 2.0H and 2.0H
13) In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective
thickness is taken as ______.
a) Sum of thickness of both leaf
b) Two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
c) Actual thickness of the stronger leaf
d) Larger of b and c
14) Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean
mortars because rich mortars have ______.
a) High shrinkage b) less strength
c) Both a and b d) none
Page 2 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q2 and Q6 are compulsory.
2) Attempt any 2 questions from the remaining questions in both Sections I
and II respectively.
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt the following questions.
a) Enlist different types of mortars used in masonry construction. 02
b) Design an interior wall of two storied building with 100mm thick RCC slab 08
of effective span 2.65m. The wall is 3.6m long and is stiffened at both the
ends by 100mm thick intersecting walls as shown in Figure 1 below. The
ceiling height of each floor is 3m. Considering basic compressive stress as
0.96 N/mm2 design wall AB.
Take Live Load from

Roof 1.5kN/m2
Floor 2kN/m2
Weight of
Roof 1.96kN/m2
Floor 0.2kN/m2
Page 3 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set P
a) Discuss different types of classification of bricks. 02
b) Design an interior wall of three storied building with ceiling height 3m. The 07
wall is stiffened by intersecting walls 200mm thick at 3600mm c/c as
shown in Figure 2.
Take Load from

Roof 16kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m

a) Explain in detail the properties of mortar. 02
b) Design an exterior wall of a workshop building 3.6m high carrying steel 07
truss at the top with 4.5m spacing. The wall is securely tied at the roof and
floor level as shown below in Figure 3. The loading may be considered as
follows.
Concentrated reaction from truss at top of wall = 30kN.
Roof load = 7kN/m.
Neglect wind load.
Q.5 Attempt the following questions. 09

a) Define wall and list different types of walls with the help of neat sketches.
b) Explain briefly the factors affecting compressive strength of masonry.
c) Write short notes on effective height of masonry wall.
Section – II
a) Give the limitations of reinforced masonry. 02
b) Design an interior wall of two storied wall carrying concrete slab with ceiling 08
height 3m. The wall is stiffened by intersecting walls 100mm thick at
3600mm c/c. also the wall has door opening size of 900 x 2000 mm at a
distance 200mm from one side of intersecting walls.
Take Load from
Roof 15kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m
Page 4 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set P
a) Design an interior cross wall AB of a building supporting unequal roof slabs
as shown in Figure 4 below. Assuming triangular bearing pressure and
loading as 10 kN/m2. The storey height is 3.8m and the wall is fixed to
foundation block below.

a) Design an external wall of single storied building. The inner leaf of which
supports an eccentric load of 7kN/m at an eccentricity of 25mm. The wall is
unstiffened at one end which supports a concrete roof at top and resist over
a foundation block. Height of wall is 4.0m as shown below in Figure 5.

a) Explain the design criteria of walls subjected to transverse loading.
b) Briefly discuss the steps involved in the design of eccentrically loaded solid
wall.
c) Explain the steps involved in consideration of loads and design of masonry
wall with openings.
Page 5 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
the same page.
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) 13
than ______.
a) 50 cm b) 60 cm
c) 75 cm d) 100 cm
a) 1.0H and 1.0H b) 1.5H and 1.5H
c) 2.0H and 1.5H d) 2.0H and 2.0H
Page 6 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set Q
a) 1968 b) 1969
c) 1970 d) 1971
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) 0.75Ha b) 0.80Ha
c) 0.95Ha d) 1.0Ha
material is ______.
c) solid d) cavity
a) Panel b) leaf
Page 7 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Take Live Load from

Roof 1.5kN/m2
Floor 2kN/m2
Weight of
Roof 1.96kN/m2
Floor 0.2kN/m2
Page 8 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set Q
shown in Figure 2.
Take Load from

Roof 16kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m

follows.
Roof load = 7kN/m.
Neglect wind load.

Section – II
Take Load from
Roof 15kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m
Page 9 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set Q


wall.
wall with openings.
Page 10 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
the same page.
than ______.
a) 50 cm b) 60 cm
c) 75 cm d) 100 cm
a) 1.0H and 1.0H b) 1.5H and 1.5H
c) 2.0H and 1.5H d) 2.0H and 2.0H
a) 1968 b) 1969
c) 1970 d) 1971
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
Page 11 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set R
a) 0.75Ha b) 0.80Ha
c) 0.95Ha d) 1.0Ha
material is ______.
c) solid d) cavity
a) Panel b) leaf
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) 13
Page 12 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Take Live Load from

Roof 1.5kN/m2
Floor 2kN/m2
Weight of
Roof 1.96kN/m2
Floor 0.2kN/m2
Page 13 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set R
shown in Figure 2.
Take Load from

Roof 16kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m

follows.
Roof load = 7kN/m.
Neglect wind load.

Section – II
Take Load from
Roof 15kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m
Page 14 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set R


wall.
wall with openings.
Page 15 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
the same page.
material is ______.
c) solid d) cavity
a) Panel b) leaf
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) 13
than ______.
a) 50 cm b) 60 cm
c) 75 cm d) 100 cm
a) 1.0H and 1.0H b) 1.5H and 1.5H
c) 2.0H and 1.5H d) 2.0H and 2.0H
Page 16 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set S
a) 1968 b) 1969
c) 1970 d) 1971
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
a) 0.75Ha b) 0.80Ha
c) 0.95Ha d) 1.0Ha
Page 17 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Masonry Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Take Live Load from

Roof 1.5kN/m2
Floor 2kN/m2
Weight of
Roof 1.96kN/m2
Floor 0.2kN/m2
Page 18 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set S
shown in Figure 2.
Take Load from

Roof 16kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m

follows.
Roof load = 7kN/m.
Neglect wind load.

Section – II
Take Load from
Roof 15kN/m
Floor 12.5kN/m
Page 19 of 20
SLR-HL-28
Set S


wall.
wall with openings.
Page 20 of 20
SLR-HL-33
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B. Tech) (Sem– II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) Identify the correct order of construction of flexible pavement from top to
bottom.
1) Subgrade
2) Prime Coat
3) Tack Coat
4) Dense Bituminous Macadam
5) Bituminous Concrete
6) Wet Mix Macadam
7) Granular Subbase
Select the correct answer from below options:
a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 b) 1,7,6,2,4,3 and 5
c) 1,6,7,3,5,2 and 4 d) 5,3,4,2,6,7 and 1
2) In three-layer elastic system of pavement design, what is Layer-1,2 and 3
(From top to Bottom).
a) Layer-1-Subgrade, Layer-2-BC and DBM and Layer-3-WMM and GSB
b) Layer-1- WMM and GSB, Layer-2-BC and DBM and Layer-3- Subgrade
c) Layer-1-Subgrade, Layer-2- WMM and GSB and Layer-3- BC and DBM
d) Layer-1- BC and DBM, Layer-2- WMM and GSB, Layer-3-Subgrade
3) ______ is a multiplier to convert the given number of commercial vehicles
having different axle configurations and different axle weights into an
equivalent number of standard axle load (80 kN single axle with dual
wheels) repetitions.
a) Lane Distribution Factor
b) Vehicle Damage Factor
c) Directional Distribution Factor
d) Cumulative no of standard axles
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c) Tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer and vertical
compressive strain on top of subgrade
5) The vehicle carries a rear single axle weight of 16 tonnes, what is the
EWLF? (Use fourth power rule and considerer standard axle weight as
8.16 tonne)
a) 15.78 b) 14.78
c) 13.78 d) 12.78
6) The transverse distribution of heavy vehicles across the width of the
carriageway is called ______.
a) Equivalent wheel load factor
b) Lane Distribution Factor
c) Vehicle Damage Factor
d) Equivalent Single Wheel Load Factor
7) In rigid pavement, when the width of the slab exceeds 4.5 to 5.0m, the
type of joint required is?
a) Contraction joint b) Construction joint
c) Expansion joint d) Longitudinal joint
8) Identify the correct order of concrete pavement layers in correct order
from bottom to top.
a) GSB, Subgrade, DEC, PQC and 125-micron Polyethylene sheet
b) 125-micron Polyethylene sheet, GSB, Subgrade, DLC and PQC
c) DLC, PQC, 125-micron Polyethylene sheet, GSB and Subgrade
d) Subgrade, GSB, DLC, 125-micron Polyethylene sheet and PQC
9) The standard wheel load considered for the design of flexible pavement
using IIT PAVE software is: ______.
a) 10 kN on each single wheel b) 20 kN on each single wheel
c) 30 kN on each single wheel d) 40 kN on each single wheel
10) Arrange the correct sequence of design steps of flexible pavement design
using IRC-37-2018.
1) Select a trial thickness
2) Actual strains using IIT PAVE
3) Calculation of Allowable strains
4) Calculation of resilient modulus of all materials
5) Comparison of Actual strains and allowable strains
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
11) In flexible pavement, the CTB and CTSB layers are designed based
on ______.
a) CBR Value of material b) Modulus of subgrade reaction
c) Flexural strength d) Unconfined Compressive strength
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12) The main purpose of the Dry Lean Concrete (DLC) layer in rigid
pavement is to ______.
a) Provide good bond between two layers
b) Provide a good riding surface
c) Provide a effective drainage of pavement system
d) Provide a uniform, stable and permanent support to the concrete slab
laid over it
13) As per IS-456-2000, the flexural strength can be calculated using the
below equation: (𝐹𝑐𝑟 - Flexural strength of concrete & 𝑓𝑐𝑘 - characteristic
compressive strength of concrete)
a) 𝐹𝑐𝑟 = 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 𝐹𝑐𝑟 = 0.78√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 𝐹𝑐𝑟 = 0.75√𝑓𝑐𝑘 d) 𝐹𝑐𝑟 = 0.8√𝑓𝑐𝑘
14) The dowel bars are designed based on ______.
a) Yield stress of dowel bars
b) Bearing stress of dowel bars
c) Tensile strength of dowel bars
d) Allowable working stress in dowel bar
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section – I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Solve any one full question from
remaining question no. 3 and 4
2) In Section – II, Q. No. 5 is compulsory. Solve any one full question from
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any two questions 10

a) Draw a neat sketch of flexible pavement and show component parts of all
layers. Briefly explain function of all layers.
b) Explain ESWL. Briefly explain the graphical method of determination of
ESWL.
c) What is VDF? Determine the Equivalent Wheel Load Factor or VDF value
of the following two axle loads in terms of the standard axle load of 8.16
tonne.

a) A flexible pavement of thickness 48cm is laid over a subgrade. A circular
load of 16cm with uniform contact pressure 6.5kg/cm2 is applied. Assume
the elastic modulus of the subgrade as well as pavement layer to be
900kg/cm2. Use Deflection Factor chart given in Fig-I.
Assuming homogenous elastic single layer system determine.
1) The deflection of the pavement surface under the center of the load
2) The total thickness of flexible pavement using data Design Wheel
Load=5000kg, Tyre pressure=6.0kg/cm2, Elastic
modulus=150kg/cm2 and permissible deflection=0.25cm
b) If the CBR of the soil used in the upper 500 mm of embankment is 8% and
the CBR of the borrow soil used for preparing the 500 mm thick compacted
subgrade above embankment is 20%, what is the effective subgrade
Modulus/CBR for design of flexible pavement? Consider Poisson’s
ratio=0.35. Use surface deflection, 𝛿=1.41mm from IIT PAVE software.
Draw a neat sketch of equivalent subgrade system diagram.
c) Design a bituminous pavement as per IRC-37-2018 with Granular Base
and Sub-base layers using the following input data.
1) Four lane divided carriageway
2) Initial traffic in the year of completion of construction = 5000 cvpd
(two-way)
3) Traffic growth rate per annum = 6.0 per cent
4) Design life period = 20 years
5) Vehicle damage factor = 5.2
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6) Effective CBR of subgrade estimated = 7 %
7) Marshall mix design carried out on the bituminous mix to be used in
the bottom bituminous layer (DBM) for an air void content of 3 %
resulted in an effective bitumen content (by volume) of 11.5 %
8) Lane Distribution Factor=0.75
9) Computed horizontal tensile strain using IIT PAVE software =
0.000146.
10) Computed vertical compressive strain using IIT PAVE software =
0.000243
11) Consider VG-40 grade bitumen with resilient modulus of 3000 Mpa
12) Poisson’s ratio=0.35
Assume trial thickness as below: BC-40mm, DBM-150mm, WMM-250mm
and GSB- 230mm.
Q.4 Answer any three questions 18

a) Draw a neat sketch of rigid pavement and show component parts of all
b) With sketch describe the significance of design wheel load and contact
pressure in design of pavement.
c) Find ESWT at depths of 50mm, 200mm and 400mm for a dual wheel
carrying 2044 kN each. The centre-to-centre tyre spacing is 200mm and
distance between the walls of the two tyres is 100 mm. Use (log) equation
to calculate ESWL.
d) Plate bearing tests were conducted using 30cm diameter plate on soil
subgrade and over a base course of thickness 45cm. The pressure yielded
at 0.5cm deflection on the subgrade and base course were 1.25kg/cm 2 and
8kg/cm2 respectively. Design the thickness requirement of flexible
pavement for a wheel load of 5100kg with tyre pressure of 8.0kg/cm 2 for an
allowable deflection of 0.5cm using Burmister two-layer deflection factor
chart shown in Fig-II.
Section – II

a) What is the objective of providing dowel bars and tie bars in rigid
pavement?
b) With a diagram explain the working principle of Benkelman beam for
measurement of pavement deflection.
c) C.C. Pavement is constructed using the following data:
1) Modulus of elasticity 3.3 x 105 kg/cm2
4) Modulus of subgrade reaction-25kg/cm3
Calculate stresses at Interior, Edge and comer by Westergaard's method.
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differential during day to be 0.6°C per cm slab thickness (for warping stress
at interior and edge) and maximum temperature differential of 0.4°C per
cm slab thickness during the night (for warping stress at the corner).
Assume e=10x10-6per°C, E=3x105 kg/cm2, 𝜇=0.15. Use Bradbury chart
given in Figure-Ill.
b) Design the thickness cement concrete pavement as per IRC-58-2002 for a
two-lane two-way National Highway in Gujarat State. The total two-way
traffic is 3000 commercial vehicles per day at the end of the construction
period. The design parameters are:
1) Flexural strength of Concrete-81.5kg/cm2
2) Effective Modulus of subgrade reaction of the DLC=24.25kg/cm 3
3) Elastic modulus of concrete=40417kg/cm2
5) CBR of subgrade soil=6.0%
6) Coefficient of thermal coefficient=10x10-60C
7) Rate of traffic increase=0.075
8) Spacing of contraction joints=4.5m
9) Width of slab=3.5m
10) Load Safety Factor=1.2
11) Assume Trial Thickness=33cm
12) The temperature differential=21°C
13) Tyre Pressure=8kg/cm2
14) Design life=20 years
15) Wheel Load=8000kg
16) Joint width=2.0cm
17) Assume trial thickness=19cm
Note: Check for temperature stress at edge and Corner is not necessary
The axle load spectrum obtained from axle load survey and stress ratio
with allowable repetitions are given in Table-1 and 2 respectively.
Table-1 - Axle Load Survey Data with Stress from chart
Single Axle Loads Tandem Axle Loads
Axle Load Percentage of Stress, Axle Load Percentage of Stress,
class, tons axle loads kg/cm2 class, tons axle loads kg/cm2
19-21 0.6 42.30 34-38 0.3 30.24
17-19 1.5 39.0 30-34 0.3 -
15-17 4.8 35.50 26-30 0.6 -
13-15 10.8 33.80 22-26 1.8 -
11-13 22 - 18-22 1.5 -
9-11 23.3 - 14-18 0.5 -
<9 30.0 - <14 2.0 -
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Table-2 - Stress Ratio and Allowable Repetition in CC Pavement
c) Design a Dowel bar as per IRC-58-2015 using given data below:

1) Slab thickness, h = 300 mm
2) Joint width, z=20mm
3) Modulus of subgrade reaction, k = 80 MPa/m
4) Radius of relative stiffness, 1 = 1035.3 mm
5) E for dowel bar = 2 x 105 MPa
6) Modulus of dowel support, kmds= 415000 MPa/m
7) Wheel load for dowel bar design=80KN
8) Load Transfer=40%
9) Characteristics compressive Strength of Concrete, fck=40Mpa for
M40 grade
10) Assume Diameter of Dowel bar=38mm, Length=500mm & spacing=300m
11) First dowel bar is placed at a distance of 150 mm from the pavement
edge

a) Design a Tie bar as per IRC-58-2015 using given data below:
1) Slab Thickness = 0.33 m
2) Lane width, b = 3.5 m
3) Coefficient of friction, f = 1.5
4) Density of concrete, kN/m3 = 24
5) Allowable tensile stress in plain bars, Mpa=125
6) Allowable bond stress for plain tie bars, MPa = 1.75
7) Allowable bond stress for deformed tie bars, MPa = 2.46
8) Assume Diameter of Tie bar=12mm
9) Design Tie bar at plain bars
b) Write a short note on any two:
1) Factors effecting flexible pavement design
2) Layered systems concepts of Pavement Design
3) Factors effecting Rigid Pavement Design
4) Principles of Rigid Pavement Design as per IRC-58-2015
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c) The BBD studies conducted on a two-lane existing pavement. Design the
overlay thickness as per IRC-81 using the data given below: Use Figure-IV
for overlay thickness.
1) Consider moisture correction factor seasonal correction factor= 1.04
2) Cumulative number of standard axles=100msa
Table-3-BBD Survey Data:
Chainage 17 17.05 17.1 17.15 17.2 17.25 17.3 17.35
Rebound
0.84 0.83 0.32 1.57 0.52 0.44 0.43 0.67
Deflection, mm
Pavement
37 37 37 37 37 37 37 37
Temperature,°C
d) Explain how warping stresses are formed in C.C. pavements. Describe the
Westergaard’s equations to calculate warping stresses at critical locations.
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from bottom to top.
using IRC-37-2018.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
on ______.
laid over it
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bottom.
1) Subgrade
2) Prime Coat
3) Tack Coat
6) Wet Mix Macadam
7) Granular Subbase
a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 b) 1,7,6,2,4,3 and 5
c) 1,6,7,3,5,2 and 4 d) 5,3,4,2,6,7 and 1
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8.16 tonne)
a) 15.78 b) 14.78
c) 13.78 d) 12.78
Page 13 of 40
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

ESWL.
tonne.

(two-way)
Page 14 of 40
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Set Q
0.000146.
0.000243
and GSB- 230mm.

to calculate ESWL.
Section – II

pavement?
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19-21 0.6 42.30 34-38 0.3 30.24
17-19 1.5 39.0 30-34 0.3 -
15-17 4.8 35.50 26-30 0.6 -
13-15 10.8 33.80 22-26 1.8 -
11-13 22 - 18-22 1.5 -
9-11 23.3 - 14-18 0.5 -
<9 30.0 - <14 2.0 -
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M40 grade
edge

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Chainage 17 17.05 17.1 17.15 17.2 17.25 17.3 17.35
Rebound
0.84 0.83 0.32 1.57 0.52 0.44 0.43 0.67
Deflection, mm
Pavement
37 37 37 37 37 37 37 37
Temperature,°C
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Set Q
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
on ______.
laid over it
bottom.
1) Subgrade
2) Prime Coat
3) Tack Coat
6) Wet Mix Macadam
7) Granular Subbase
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Set R
a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 b) 1,7,6,2,4,3 and 5
c) 1,6,7,3,5,2 and 4 d) 5,3,4,2,6,7 and 1
8.16 tonne)
a) 15.78 b) 14.78
c) 13.78 d) 12.78
from bottom to top.
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Set R
using IRC-37-2018.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Page 23 of 40
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

ESWL.
tonne.

(two-way)
Page 24 of 40
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Set R
0.000146.
0.000243
and GSB- 230mm.

to calculate ESWL.
Section – II

pavement?
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19-21 0.6 42.30 34-38 0.3 30.24
17-19 1.5 39.0 30-34 0.3 -
15-17 4.8 35.50 26-30 0.6 -
13-15 10.8 33.80 22-26 1.8 -
11-13 22 - 18-22 1.5 -
9-11 23.3 - 14-18 0.5 -
<9 30.0 - <14 2.0 -
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M40 grade
edge

Page 27 of 40
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Chainage 17 17.05 17.1 17.15 17.2 17.25 17.3 17.35
Rebound
0.84 0.83 0.32 1.57 0.52 0.44 0.43 0.67
Deflection, mm
Pavement
37 37 37 37 37 37 37 37
Temperature,°C
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Set R
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Set R
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from bottom to top.
using IRC-37-2018.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 d) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
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Set S
on ______.
laid over it
bottom.
1) Subgrade
2) Prime Coat
3) Tack Coat
6) Wet Mix Macadam
7) Granular Subbase
a) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 b) 1,7,6,2,4,3 and 5
c) 1,6,7,3,5,2 and 4 d) 5,3,4,2,6,7 and 1
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8.16 tonne)
a) 15.78 b) 14.78
c) 13.78 d) 12.78
Page 33 of 40
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Pavement Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

ESWL.
tonne.

(two-way)
Page 34 of 40
SLR-HL-33
Set S
0.000146.
0.000243
and GSB- 230mm.

to calculate ESWL.
pavement for a wheel load of 5100kg with tyre pressure of 8.0kg/cm2 for an
Section – II

pavement?
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Set S
19-21 0.6 42.30 34-38 0.3 30.24
17-19 1.5 39.0 30-34 0.3 -
15-17 4.8 35.50 26-30 0.6 -
13-15 10.8 33.80 22-26 1.8 -
11-13 22 - 18-22 1.5 -
9-11 23.3 - 14-18 0.5 -
<9 30.0 - <14 2.0 -
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M40 grade
edge

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Chainage 17 17.05 17.1 17.15 17.2 17.25 17.3 17.35
Rebound
0.84 0.83 0.32 1.57 0.52 0.44 0.43 0.67
Deflection, mm
Pavement
37 37 37 37 37 37 37 37
Temperature,°C
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Set S
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Infrastructure Planning and Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) _____ offers a set of techniques that give you the Practical Performance
Analyst the opportunity to understand change in application.
a) Capacity building b) Life cycle technique
c) Performance Modeling d) None
2) The best practices in IT Infrastructure include ______.
a) Knowledge Gathering b) Creation of Standards
c) Maintaining Consistency d) all of these
3) _____ risk is an institutional risk.
a) Site related b) Operation
c) Cultural d) None
4) ‘Insurance requirements is a _____ risk mitigation technique’.
a) Contractual b) Operation
c) Cultural d) None
5) ‘_____ discoveries could lead to delays in approvals’.
a) Historical b) Archaeological
c) Cultural d) None
6) ‘Partnering and team building is a _____ risk mitigation methodology’.
a) Non-Contractual b) Operation
c) Cultural d) Site related
7) Political instability comes under _____ risk.
c) Economic d) Site related
8) The assertion ‘improper geological investigations is site related risk’ is, _____.
a) True b) False
c) Partially true d) None
Page 1 of 12
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9) A life cycle assessment (LCA) measures the _____ impacts of a product
or service.
a) Mechanical b) Environmental
c) Political d) Social
10) Role of civil engineering is _____.
a) providing good transportation facilities
b) providing well planned water supply
c) providing good infrastructure
d) all of above
11) Smart city ______.
a) can provide opportunity to develop
b) should provide cost effective health care
c) should provide modern lifestyle for future generation
d) None of these
12) India has _____ largest railway network in the world.
a) first b) second
c) third d) fourth
13) About ______ % of energy developed in India is by thermal power plants.
a) 51 b) 61
c) 71 d) 81
14) ______ is the suitable final work plan to a time scale.
a) Budgeting b) Scheduling
c) Work flow d) Auditing
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from Section I.
2) Solve any two questions from Section II.
3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What is project life cycle? Explain in brief. 05

b) Enlist different players involved in an infrastructure project. 04
c) Classify infrastructures with examples. 05
Q.3 a) Enlist risks involved in Infrastructure projects. Explain any one in brief. 05
b) Describe the duties of an Infrastructure engineer. 04
c) Write the importance of Special Economic Zone. Highlight its advantages. 05
Q.4 a) Demonstrate the usefulness of public private partnership (PPP). Identify 06

the sectors which can adopt it.
b) Compare merits and demerits of privatization of different sectors. 08
Section – II
Q.5 a) State the importance of Project planning. 05

b) Elaborate the meaning of Performance Modelling and Life Cycle Analysis 05
techniques.
c) How can be Improved the Government’s role in infrastructure 04
Implementation?
Q.6 a) What are the stages in successful planning of infrastructure? Write in detail 08
all the stages involved.
b) Explain ‘An integrated framework for successful Infrastructure’. 06
Q.7 Write notes on (Any two). 14

a) Role of infrastructure in development of Nation
b) Construction risks mitigation
c) Transportation Sector of infrastructure
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) True b) False
or service.
d) all of above
d) None of these
a) first b) second
c) third d) fourth
a) 51 b) 61
c) 71 d) 81
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c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

techniques.
Implementation?

Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-37
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) None of these
a) first b) second
c) third d) fourth
a) 51 b) 61
c) 71 d) 81
c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) True b) False
or service.
d) all of above
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-37
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

techniques.
Implementation?

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-37
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) True b) False
or service.
d) all of above
d) None of these
a) first b) second
c) third d) fourth
a) 51 b) 61
c) 71 d) 81
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
c) Cultural d) None
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-37
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

techniques.
Implementation?

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-39
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Solid and Hazardous Waste Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Composting process is affected due to ______.
a) Temperature b) Moisture content
c) C/N ratio d) All of the above
2) Household hazardous waste includes batteries and ______.
a) Radioactive waste b) Food waste
c) Leachate d) Nail Polish
3) What is recovered in the magnetic separation?
a) Ferrous materials b) Non-Ferrous materials
c) Heat d) None of the above
4) Separation, processing of solid waste are used to reduce ______.
a) Volume of S.W. b) Weight of S.W.
5) The composting process of SWM is ______.
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Heterothermic d) None of the above
6) ______ is the cheapest method of waste disposal.
a) Incineration b) Pyrolysis
c) Landfills d) Composting
7) Biomedical Wastes and management rules was implemented in year ______.
a) 1980 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2016
8) What is the main purpose of hazard identification?
a) To minimize the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
d) To reduce probability of occurrence
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9) Characteristic of hazardous waste that causes fire is ______.
a) Ignitibility b) Corrosivity
c) Reactivity d) Toxicity
10) Acidic waste possess ______ character.
a) Ignitable b) Corrosive
c) Toxic d) Reactive
11) Which of the following is the most important variable in the construction of
soil liners?
a) Type of compaction b) Permeability
c) Flammability d) Ignitability
12) Drainage pipes of leachate collection system is filled with ______.
a) Gravel b) Dust
c) Clay d) Grass
13) What is the normal storage time of incinerable hazardous waste at the
incinerator site?
a) 4 months b) 5 months
c) 6 months d) 7 months
14) According to CPCB the major criteria considered for selection of
technologies are ______.
a) Waste quantity b) Chemical analysis
c) Lead content d) Mercury content
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) Estimate the moisture content of solid waste sample of 150 kg using the 05
following data
Sr. No. Component % by mass Moisture content (%)
1 food waste 15 62
2 paper 30 10
3 cardboards 08 06
4 plastic 12 03
5 grass 12 60
6 wood 06 04
7 metals 17 03
b) Explain various factors affecting Solid waste management of a city. 05
Q.3 a) Enlist and explain numerous types of incinerators with a neat sketch. 05
b) Solid waste weighing 250 tonnes is used for incineration as per MSW 04
norms. Calculate heat value in kJ/kg using Ultimate analysis method.
Following constituents of the waste are:
Carbon - 180 tonnes
Hydrogen - 10 tonnes
Oxygen - 60 tonnes
Q.4 a) Explain methodology, and factors affecting composting process. 05

b) Explain advantages of shredding in detail. 04

a) Banglore composting
b) Recycling of plastic waste
c) SWM rules
d) Physical characteristics of solid waste
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Section – II
Q.6 a) Define “hazards” and discuss the characteristics of “hazards”. 06

b) Classify the types of hazards. 04
Q.7 a) Analyze the risk assessment plan in case of earthquake. 05

b) Discuss the various qualitative assessment of damage. 04
Q.8 a) Discuss the various types of hazardous wastes. 05

b) Illustrate the characteristics of hazardous waste using examples. 04
Q.9 a) Discuss the guidelines for storage of hazardous waste. 05

b) Describe the various types of Landfills. 04
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


soil liners?
a) Gravel b) Dust
c) Clay d) Grass
incinerator site?
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) 1980 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2016
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
following data
1 food waste 15 62
2 paper 30 10
3 cardboards 08 06
4 plastic 12 03
5 grass 12 60
6 wood 06 04
7 metals 17 03
Carbon - 180 tonnes
Oxygen - 60 tonnes


c) SWM rules
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Set Q
Section – II




Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


soil liners?
a) Gravel b) Dust
c) Clay d) Grass
incinerator site?
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Set R
a) 1980 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2016
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
following data
1 food waste 15 62
2 paper 30 10
3 cardboards 08 06
4 plastic 12 03
5 grass 12 60
6 wood 06 04
7 metals 17 03
Carbon - 180 tonnes
Oxygen - 60 tonnes


c) SWM rules
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Set R
Section – II




Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 1980 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2016
soil liners?
a) Gravel b) Dust
c) Clay d) Grass
incinerator site?
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
following data
1 food waste 15 62
2 paper 30 10
3 cardboards 08 06
4 plastic 12 03
5 grass 12 60
6 wood 06 04
7 metals 17 03
Carbon - 180 tonnes
Oxygen - 60 tonnes


c) SWM rules
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Set S
Section – II




Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Open Channel Flow & River Hydraulics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) At critical depth discharge is ______.
a) maximum for given specific energy
b) minimum for given specific energy
c) maximum for given specific force
d) minimum for given specific force
2) Uniform flow in open channel exists when the flow is steady and the
channel is ______.
a) Friction less
b) Non prismatic
c) Prismatic
d) Prismatic and depth of flow is constant along the channel
3) If the Froude’s number is 8.2 then the jump is known as ______.
a) Steady b) Oscillating
c) Undular d) none
4) Specific force represents the sum of pressure force and ______.
a) Datum head
b) Momentum flux per unit weight
c) Momentum flux and datum head
d) None
5) The flow in open channel may be characterized as laminar when ______.
a) Re < 500 b) Re > 2000
c) Re > 4000 d) 500 < Re > 2000
6) For the trapezoidal section ______.
a) Side slope equal to 45°
b) Depth of flow equal to half bed width
c) Shape is of half hexagon
d) None
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7) River plains are made up of ______.
a) Alluvium Black soil b) Red soil
c) Black soil d) None
8) The maximum velocity in open channel occurs at ______.
a) Near the channel bottom b) At the free surface
c) Little below the free surface d) None
9) On what basis for designing the regime state is obtained?
a) Silt and Velocity of Flow b) Silt
c) Velocity d) Depth of Channel
10) Whose theory was the first to provide semi-theoretical analysis of the
problem of incipient condition of bed motion?
a) Lacey’s theory b) Kennedy’s theory
c) Shield’s theory d) Strickler’s equation
11) The Lacey's equation for a regime channel consists of a set of ‘x’
independent equation relating to flow, where ‘x’ is equal to ______.
a) 1 b) 3
c) 5 d) 8
12) River training work serves the following purposes:
a) Protect the river bed and banks
b) Direct the river flow in desired condition
c) Increase or decrease of the river discharge
d) Protect the surrounding land from flooding
13) The dimension of Kinematic viscosity is _______.
a) LT-2 b) L2T-1
3
c) L T-1 d) LT-1
14) Kinematic similarity between model and prototype is the similarity of ______.
a) Discharge b) Streamline pattern
c) Shape d) Forces
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
2) All questions are compulsory.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is permitted.
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any four 16
a) Define kinetic energy correction factor (𝛼) and momentum correction factor
(𝛽) and derive their expressions.
b) What do you understand by most economical channel section? and show
that for trapezoidal section Half of top width= Length of one of sloping side
and hydraulic mean depth- half the depth of flow.
c) A 3.5 m wide rectangular channel covey’s 10 m3/s of water with velocity 5
m/s. State is there formation of hydraulic jump if yes calculate height,
length and strength of Jump and what is loss of energy per kg of water.
d) Derive the modified GVF equation and draw a neat sketch and show all
details.
e) Derive the expression for Hydraulic Jump. Assume suitable data.
Q.3 Solve any Two 12

a) A hydraulic jump is formed in a 5.0 m wide rectangular channel carrying a
discharge of 20m3/sec. The pre jump depth is 0.5 m. Find the post jump
depth, post jump Froude’s number and energy loss in the jump.
b) What is specific energy curve? Draw a neat sketch and show all details.
c) A discharge of 800 m3/s flows down a spillway and then passes on a 55 m.
wide concrete apron (n = 0.012) the velocity of water at the toe of spillway
is 10 m/s. A tail water depth of 4.40 m the channel below causes a
hydraulic jump on the horizontal apron. Determine,
1) Depth before the jump
2) Length of jump
3) Energy loss in jump
4) Specific force at the toe
Section – II
a) Write short notes on
1) Spurs
2) Meandering of river
b) Design a regime channel by using ‘Lacey’s theory’ from the data
discharge= 50 m3/sec and silt factor=1.12
c) A model of water meter is tested in 110 mm diameter pipe. The discharge
was 50 lit/sec and pressure difference is 0.10 N/mm2. What will be the
discharge in pipe of 550 mm diameter pipe and what will be the pressure?
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Set P
d) What do you understand by river training works? Explain its types with
examples.
e) Draw a neat sketch of current meter and explain its working in details.
Q.5 Solve any two 12

a) Oil of kinematic viscosity is 5.5 x10-5 m2/sec is used in prototype in which
both gravity and viscous forces are important. What should be the viscosity
of liquid used in dynamically similar model of scale 1:9? Also find
discharge ratio and time ratio for this model.
b) Explain ‘Similitude’ and what are its types? and derive the equation for
Froude’s number.
c) Design a regime channel by using ‘Kennedy’s Theory’ using the following
data
1) Discharge 40 m3/sec
2) Kutter’s Coefficient (N=0.0022)
3) m= 1, side slope 0.5: 1, B/D 7.5 also find bed slope
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) 1 b) 3
c) 5 d) 8
a) LT-2 b) L2T-1
3
c) L T-1 d) LT-1
c) Shape d) Forces
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Set Q
channel is ______.
a) Friction less
b) Non prismatic
c) Prismatic
c) Undular d) none
a) Datum head
d) None
a) Re < 500 b) Re > 2000
c) Re > 4000 d) 500 < Re > 2000
d) None
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.

2) Length of jump
Section – II
1) Spurs
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
examples.

Froude’s number.
data
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) 1 b) 3
c) 5 d) 8
a) LT-2 b) L2T-1
c) L3T-1 d) LT-1
c) Shape d) Forces
channel is ______.
a) Friction less
b) Non prismatic
c) Prismatic
c) Undular d) none
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Set R
a) Datum head
d) None
a) Re < 500 b) Re > 2000
c) Re > 4000 d) 500 < Re > 2000
d) None
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.

2) Length of jump
Section – II
1) Spurs
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
examples.

Froude’s number.
data
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
d) None
a) 1 b) 3
c) 5 d) 8
a) LT-2 b) L2T-1
c) L3T-1 d) LT-1
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Set S
c) Shape d) Forces
channel is ______.
a) Friction less
b) Non prismatic
c) Prismatic
c) Undular d) none
a) Datum head
d) None
a) Re < 500 b) Re > 2000
c) Re > 4000 d) 500 < Re > 2000
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.

2) Length of jump
Section – II
1) Spurs
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
examples.

Froude’s number.
data
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Concrete Structures- I
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
question carries one mark expect MCQ. 13 which carry 2 marks.
3) IS 456:2000 is not allowed while solving the MCQ.
1) In reinforced cement concrete structures, the steel reinforcement consists 01
of ______.
a) Deformed bars
b) Cold twisted bars
c) Mild steel and medium tensile steel bars
d) All of these
2) The horizontal distance between parallel main reinforcement bars in a 01
solid slab shall not be more than
a) Two times the effective depth of solid slab or 300 mm whichever is less
b) Two times the effective depth of solid slab or 450 mm whichever is less
c) Three times the effective depth of solid slab or 300 mm whichever is less
d) Three times the effective depth of solid slab or 450 mm whichever is
less
3) In an under-reinforced concrete beam 01
a) actual depth of neutral axis is less than the critical depth of neutral axis
b) moment of resistance is less than that of balanced sections
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
4) The side face reinforcement, if required in a T beam will be 01
a) 0.1 % of the web area
b) 0.15% of the web area
c) 0.02 to 0.03% of the web area
d) Half of the longitudinal reinforcement
5) The width of the flange of the L-beam is taken as 01
a) one-sixth of the effective span of L-beam
b) breadth of rib plus one-half of the clear distance between the rib
c) breadth of rib plus four times the thickness of the slab
d) minimum value of (a), (b) or (c)
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Set P
6) The bending moment coefficient of a continuous beam at end supports 01
for the dead load and live load is _____ of the effective span.
a) -1/10 b) -1/12
c) 1/10 d) 1/12
7) According to IS 456:2000, the maximum compressive strain in concrete 01
under axial compression is ______.
a) 0.0035 b) 0.002
c) 0.0030 d) 0.0045
8) Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do 01
not exceed their least lateral dimension ______.
a) Two times b) Three times
c) Four times d) Five times
9) The torsion resisting capacity of a given reinforced concrete section ______.
a) decreases with decrease in stirrup spacing 01
b) decreases with increase in longitudinal bars
c) does not depend upon stirrup and longitudinal steels
d) increases with increase in stirrup and longitudinal steels
10) The longitudinal shearing stresses acting on the surface between the 01
steel and concrete are called ______.
a) bond stresses b) tensile stresses
c) compressive stresses d) None of these
11) A T beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if 01
its neutral axis ______.
a) Falls within flange
b) Falls below flange
c) Coincides with the geometrical centre of beam
d) Falls below the centroidal axis of the beam
12) In case of over reinforced section which element fails first ______. 01
a) Both steel and concrete simultaneously
b) Neither steel or concrete
c) Steel
d) Concrete
13) The rectangular beam of width, 250 mm is having effective depth of 327 02
mm. The concrete grade is M20 and the grade of reinforcing steel is
Fe415. As per limit state method, the lever arm in a balanced section is
equal to ______.
a) 157mm b) 183mm
c) 209mm d) 262mm
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 2 & 6 are compulsory
2) Solve any two questions from question no. 3 to 5 in Section – I.
3) Solve any two questions from question no. 7 to 9 in Section – II.
4) Use of IS 456:2000 Original and non-programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if required and state it clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 A rectangular section of effective size 300 mm x 500 mm effective subjected to 08
a factored moment of 220 kNm. find the reinforcement required. Use M20
concrete and Fe415 steel.
Q.3 A hall has clear dimension 3m x 9m. with wall thickness 230mm. The live load 10
on the slab is 3 kN/m2 excluding floor finish. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe500
steel, design the slab.
Q.4 Design a rectangular beam of section 230mm x 600mm of effective span 6m. 10
Effective cover for reinforcement should be kept as 50mm. Imposed load on the
beam is 40 kN/m. Concrete used is M25 and steel is Fe415.
Q.5 A T- beam slab floor has 125 mm thick slab forming part of T-beams which are 10
of 8m clear span. The end bearings are 450 mm thick. Spacing of T- beams is
3.2 m. The live load on the floor is 3 kN/m2. Design one of the intermediate
beam. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Section – II
Q.6 Find the area of steel required for a short reinforced concrete column 400 mm x 08
400 mm to carry an axial load of 1000 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
Q.7 Determine reinforcement required for a beam size 230 mm x 600 mm subjected 10
to shear force of 60kN, torsinal moment of 35 kN.m and bending moment of 80
kN.m. Use M20 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Q.8 Design a circular column of diameter 400 mm subjected to a load of 1300 kN. 10
The column is having spiral ties. The column is 3 m long and is effectively held
in position at both ends but not restrained against rotation. Use M25 concrete
and Fe415 steel.
Q.9 Design a continuous rectangular beam of span 7 m to carry a dead load of 10

10 kN/m and a live load of 15 kN/m. The beam is continuous over more than 3
spans and is supported by columns. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
c) Steel
d) Concrete
of ______.
a) Deformed bars
d) All of these
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
less
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
a) -1/10 b) -1/12
c) 1/10 d) 1/12
a) 0.0035 b) 0.002
c) 0.0030 d) 0.0045
equal to ______.
a) 157mm b) 183mm
c) 209mm d) 262mm
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
and Fe415 steel.

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
c) Steel
d) Concrete
of ______.
a) Deformed bars
d) All of these
less
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) -1/10 b) -1/12
c) 1/10 d) 1/12
a) 0.0035 b) 0.002
c) 0.0030 d) 0.0045
equal to ______.
a) 157mm b) 183mm
c) 209mm d) 262mm
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
and Fe415 steel.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) -1/10 b) -1/12
c) 1/10 d) 1/12
a) 0.0035 b) 0.002
c) 0.0030 d) 0.0045
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
c) Steel
d) Concrete
of ______.
a) Deformed bars
d) All of these
less
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
equal to ______.
a) 157mm b) 183mm
c) 209mm d) 262mm
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
and Fe415 steel.

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Principles of Management and Quantitative Techniques
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) MBO is developed by ______.
a) Gilberth b) Peter Drucker
c) Fayol d) Taylor
2) F.W. Taylor introduced ______.
a) Line organization b) Line & staff organization
c) Functional organization d) Effective organization
3) Simplex method is the method used for ______.
a) value analysis b) network analysis
c) linear programming d) queuing theory
4) Transportation problem can be solved if ______.
a) No. of rows = no. of columns b) No. of rows ≥ no. of columns
c) No. of rows ≤ no. of columns d) All of these
5) Hungerian trial and error method is suitable for solving ______.
a) Transportation problem b) Assignment problem
c) Games theory d) Simplex method
6) Decision making under risk is ______.
a) Deterministic b) Probabilistic
c) Uncertain d) None of these
7) Games without a saddle point require players to play _______.
a) Pure strategy b) Mixed strategy
c) Market strategy d) None of these
8) In ABC analysis least monitoring and control is required for _____.
a) A class items b) B class items
c) C class items d) All of these
9) The cost of keeping items in inventory is called _______.
a) Set up cost b) Holding cost
c) Shortage cos d) None of these
10) EOQ model helps to find _______.
a) Optimum size of order b) Time interval between order
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
Page 1 of 20
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Set P
11) What is at the heart of any ERP?
a) Information b) Employees
c) Customers d) Database
12) Break even analysis consists of ______.
a) fixed expenses b) variable cost
c) sales revenue d) All of these
13) Average Chart and Range Chart is used for _____.
a) Attributes b) Variables
c) Both (a) and (b) d) none
14) The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3
standard deviations of the distribution mean is ____.
a) 95.5 b) 96.7
c) 97.6 d) 99.7
Page 2 of 20
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Enlist and write a note on the “Function of Management”.
b) A firm produces three products. These products are processed on three
different machines. The time required to manufacture one of each of the
three products and the daily capacity of three machines is given in the
table below:
Machine capacity
Machine Time per unit (minutes)
(minutes/day)
M1 2 3 2 440
M2 4 — 3 470
M3 2 5 — 430
Formulate the above data in LPP which is required to determine the daily
number of units to be manufactured for each product. The profit per units
for product 1, 2 and 3 is Rs. 40/-, Rs. 30/- and Rs. 60/- respectively.
Q.3 Attempt the following question.
a) Use Simplex Method to solve the following LPP. 06
Max. 𝑍 = 6𝑥1 + 8𝑥2
Subject to
30𝑥1 + 20𝑥2 ≤ 300
5𝑥1 + 10𝑥2 ≤ 110
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
b) Find the initial basic feasible solution by Least Cost Method. 04
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 48 60 56 58 140
F2 45 55 53 60 260
F3 50 65 60 62 360
F4 52 64 55 61 220
Demand 200 320 250 210
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Set P
Q.4 Attempt below question.
a) A company is bringing out a new product in market with three strategy of 03
production line like full, partial and minimal. The state of nature may be
Good demand, fair demand and poor demand with following payoff of profit
as shown in table below:
State of Nature Production Line
(Demand) Full Partial Minimal
Good 80 70 50
Fair 50 45 40
Poor -25 -10 0
Take optimal decision under each of the following decision rules:
1) Maximax
2) Maximin
3) Laplace
b) Construct the dual to the primal problem: 03
Max. 𝑍 = 3𝑥1 + 5𝑥2
Subject to
2𝑥1 + 6𝑥2 ≤ 50
3𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 35
5𝑥1 − 3𝑥2 ≤ 10
−𝑥2 ≥ −20
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
c) Find the Saddle Point using the dominance rule. 04
Player B
B1 B2 B3
A1 5 9 3
Player A A2 6 -12 -11
A3 8 16 10
Section – II
Q.5 Attempt above question.

a) Explain in brief about “Inventory and cost associated with Inventory” along 06
with objective of Inventory management?
b) A construction company consumes 4000 bags of cement per month. Price 04
per bag of cement is Rs. 320/-. Inventory cost is Rs. 30/- and procurement
cost per order is Rs. 500/-
Find economic order quantity and number of order to be placed per month?
Q.6 Attempt above question

a) Explain in brief “ERP” system and its use in Civil construction sector. 04
b) Explain in brief various technical terms of “Break Even Analysis” with neat 05
sketch.
Page 4 of 20
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Set P
a) Explain in brief “Importance of Quality Control Technique in construction 04
sector”?
b) Construct X Control Chart using following data as given below: A2 = 0.58 05
Sample Observation
Sample
I II III IV V
No.
1 42 65 75 81 87
2 42 45 68 70 90
3 19 24 80 81 81
4 36 54 69 77 84
5 42 51 60 59 78
Page 5 of 20
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 95.5 b) 96.7
c) 97.6 d) 99.7
c) Fayol d) Taylor
Page 6 of 20
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Set Q
Page 7 of 20
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

table below:
Machine capacity
(minutes/day)
M1 2 3 2 440
M2 4 — 3 470
M3 2 5 — 430
Max. 𝑍 = 6𝑥1 + 8𝑥2
Subject to
30𝑥1 + 20𝑥2 ≤ 300
5𝑥1 + 10𝑥2 ≤ 110
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 48 60 56 58 140
F2 45 55 53 60 260
F3 50 65 60 62 360
F4 52 64 55 61 220
Demand 200 320 250 210
Page 8 of 20
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Set Q
Good 80 70 50
Fair 50 45 40
Poor -25 -10 0
1) Maximax
2) Maximin
3) Laplace
Max. 𝑍 = 3𝑥1 + 5𝑥2
Subject to
2𝑥1 + 6𝑥2 ≤ 50
3𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 35
5𝑥1 − 3𝑥2 ≤ 10
−𝑥2 ≥ −20
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Player B
B1 B2 B3
A1 5 9 3
Player A A2 6 -12 -11
A3 8 16 10
Section – II


sketch.
Page 9 of 20
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Set Q
sector”?
Sample Observation
Sample
I II III IV V
No.
1 42 65 75 81 87
2 42 45 68 70 90
3 19 24 80 81 81
4 36 54 69 77 84
5 42 51 60 59 78
Page 10 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 95.5 b) 96.7
c) 97.6 d) 99.7
c) Fayol d) Taylor
Page 11 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Set R
Page 12 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

table below:
Machine capacity
(minutes/day)
M1 2 3 2 440
M2 4 — 3 470
M3 2 5 — 430
Max. 𝑍 = 6𝑥1 + 8𝑥2
Subject to
30𝑥1 + 20𝑥2 ≤ 300
5𝑥1 + 10𝑥2 ≤ 110
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 48 60 56 58 140
F2 45 55 53 60 260
F3 50 65 60 62 360
F4 52 64 55 61 220
Demand 200 320 250 210
Page 13 of 20
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Set R
Good 80 70 50
Fair 50 45 40
Poor -25 -10 0
1) Maximax
2) Maximin
3) Laplace
Max. 𝑍 = 3𝑥1 + 5𝑥2
Subject to
2𝑥1 + 6𝑥2 ≤ 50
3𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 35
5𝑥1 − 3𝑥2 ≤ 10
−𝑥2 ≥ −20
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Player B
B1 B2 B3
A1 5 9 3
Player A A2 6 -12 -11
A3 8 16 10
Section – II


sketch.
Page 14 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Set R
sector”?
Sample Observation
Sample
I II III IV V
No.
1 42 65 75 81 87
2 42 45 68 70 90
3 19 24 80 81 81
4 36 54 69 77 84
5 42 51 60 59 78
Page 15 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 95.5 b) 96.7
c) 97.6 d) 99.7
Page 16 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Set S
c) Fayol d) Taylor
Page 17 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

table below:
Machine capacity
(minutes/day)
M1 2 3 2 440
M2 4 — 3 470
M3 2 5 — 430
Max. 𝑍 = 6𝑥1 + 8𝑥2
Subject to
30𝑥1 + 20𝑥2 ≤ 300
5𝑥1 + 10𝑥2 ≤ 110
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 48 60 56 58 140
F2 45 55 53 60 260
F3 50 65 60 62 360
F4 52 64 55 61 220
Demand 200 320 250 210
Page 18 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Set S
Good 80 70 50
Fair 50 45 40
Poor -25 -10 0
1) Maximax
2) Maximin
3) Laplace
Max. 𝑍 = 3𝑥1 + 5𝑥2
Subject to
2𝑥1 + 6𝑥2 ≤ 50
3𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 35
5𝑥1 − 3𝑥2 ≤ 10
−𝑥2 ≥ −20
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Player B
B1 B2 B3
A1 5 9 3
Player A A2 6 -12 -11
A3 8 16 10
Section – II


sketch.
Page 19 of 20
SLR-HL-46
Set S
sector”?
Sample Observation
Sample
I II III IV V
No.
1 42 65 75 81 87
2 42 45 68 70 90
3 19 24 80 81 81
4 36 54 69 77 84
5 42 51 60 59 78
Page 20 of 20
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech.) (Semester-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Geosynthetics and Reinforced Soil Structures
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

Q.1 Choose the correct alternative from the given option. 10
1) The modern concept of reinforced earth was invented by _____.
a) Terzaghi b) Skempton
c) Henri Vidal d) Bjerrum
2) Why is carbon black added to geosynthetic?
a) To increase tensile strength
b) To reduce the effect of exposure to ultra violet rays
c) To protect from biological degradation
d) All of the above
3) What is the core of GCL made of_____.
a) Thick non-woven geotextile b) Bentonite clay
c) Kaolinite clay d) Corrugated plastic sheet
4) In a PVD section which parts acts as a drainage medium ____.
a) Geotextile b) Cover Inner Core
5) Which is the monomer of PVC ____.
a) Nylon b) Ethylene
c) Vinyl chloride d) Teflon
6) The width of grips for performing the grab tensile strength is _____.
a) 76 mm b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm d) 200 mm
7) The result of the dynamic puncture test is reported in units of _____.
a) kilo b) Newtons Newtons
c) mm d) kPa
8) What are the hydraulic properties of geosynthetics?
a) Gradient ratio b) Permittivity
c) Transmissivity d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
9) What is abrasion resistance?
a) It is the strip tensile strength of an abraded specimen
b) It is the wide width tensile strength of the abraded specimen
c) It is the ratio of the tensile strength of the abraded specimen to that of
virgin specimen
d) It is the ratio of the tensile strength of the virgin specimen and the
abraded specimen
10) What are the disadvantages of reinforced concrete retaining walls?
a) Construction height is limited due to practical reasons
b) Long construction times
c) Self-weight is so high that foundation should be strong
d) All of the above
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any Eight questions.
Q.2 What is Geosynthetic? Explain advantages of geosynthetics. 05
Q.3 List out different types of Geosynthetics. Explain any four. 05
Q.4 Explain in detail Erosion Control. What are the different types of erosion 05
forces & List different Protection Systems.
Q.5 What is Landfill? Explain role of Geosynthetics in Landfills. 05
Q.6 What are the concepts of reinforced soil? 05
Q.7 What are the mechanical properties of geosynthetics? 05
Q.8 What is Embankment/Slope? Draw different failure modes of embankments. 05
Q.9 Explain in detail Pavement applications of Geosynthetics. 05
Q.10 Write in detail functions of geosynthetics. 05
Q.11 How are impact and abrasion test conducted? 05
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) 76 mm b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm d) 200 mm
c) mm d) kPa
virgin specimen
abraded specimen
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

virgin specimen
abraded specimen
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Set R
a) 76 mm b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm d) 200 mm
c) mm d) kPa
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) 76 mm b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm d) 200 mm
c) mm d) kPa
virgin specimen
abraded specimen
d) All of the above
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Set S
d) All of the above
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-47
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

1) Arrange the following survey in correct order which they conduct in
locating the alignment of rural roads.
1) Preliminary survey
2) Reconnaissance
3) Determination of final center line
4) Final location & Detailed survey
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 d) 4, 1, 2 and 3
2) The cross slope of the country for rolling terrain is lies between ______.
a) 0-10% b) 10-25%
c) 25-60% d) >60%
3) The standard width of single lane carriageway for both plain and rolling as
well as mountainous and steep terrain shall be ______.
a) 3.5m b) 5.5m
c) 3.75m d) 7.0m
4) The Intermediate sight distance is equal to ______.
a) Equal to Stopping Sight Distance
b) Twice the Stopping Sight Distance
c) Thrice the Stopping Sight Distance
d) Equal to Overtaking Sight Distance
5) Maximum density requirement for construction of subgrade and earthen
shoulders is _____.
a) 1.44gm/cc b) 1.52gm/cc
c) 1.65gm/cc d) 2.0gm/cc
6) Loas Angeles abrasion test of aggregate measures?
a) Strength Property b) Hardness Property
c) Toughness Property d) Durability
7) Specific Gravity of bitumen lies between ______.
a) 2-2.5 b) 1.0-1.05
c) 2.5-3 d) <0.5
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
8) The standard axle load considered for single axle in pavement design of
rural road is ______.
a) 10.2 tonne b) 15.0 tonne
c) 8.17 tonne d) 14.2 tonne
9) Arrange the correct order of rural construction with flexible pavement from
bottom to top: _______.
a) Drainage layer, Subgrade, subbase layer, Base Layer & Surface
course
b) Surface course Subgrade, Drainage layer, subbase layer & Base
Layer
c) Subgrade, Drainage layer, subbase layer, Base Layer & Surface
course
d) Base Layer, Subgrade, Drainage layer, subbase layer & Surface
course
10) The minimum camber value required for concrete surface is _______.
a) 4% b) 3.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.0%
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
3) Assume suitable data whenever needed & mention it clearly.
Q.2 Solve any FIVE questions. (Each carries 8 marks) 40

a) What is the objective of reconnaissance survey? Discuss the information
collected in this survey.
b) Briefly outline the importance of below road cross sectional elements with
mentioning geometric design standards.
1) Transition curves
2) Road Camber
3) Sight Distance
4) Superelevation
c) Explain the step-by-step construction process of road fly-ash embankment
mentioning its requirement and specifications.
d) Write a brief note on applications of Lime stabilization and Cement
Stabilization.
e) Determine the AADT as per IRC-SP-72-2015 using below data: Lean
season traffic (T)=60 vehicles per day, Duration of harvesting season
(t)=30 days. Traffic at the peak harvesting season increases by 5 times.
f) Elaborate the importance of below tests with its desirable values:
1) Los Angeles abrasion tests
2) Bitumen Penetration tests
3) Softening point tests
g) Explain with neat sketch surface and sub-surface drainage system for
rural roads.
h) Write a detailed note on advantages of below materials in the rural road
construction.
1) Fly ash
2) Iron and steel slag
3) Granulated Blast furnace slag
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) 2-2.5 b) 1.0-1.05
c) 2.5-3 d) <0.5
course
Layer
course
course
a) 4% b) 3.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.0%
2) Reconnaissance
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 d) 4, 1, 2 and 3
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) 0-10% b) 10-25%
c) 25-60% d) >60%
a) 3.5m b) 5.5m
c) 3.75m d) 7.0m
shoulders is _____.
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

2) Road Camber
3) Sight Distance
4) Superelevation
Stabilization.
rural roads.
construction.
1) Fly ash
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

course
Layer
course
course
a) 4% b) 3.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.0%
2) Reconnaissance
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 d) 4, 1, 2 and 3
a) 0-10% b) 10-25%
c) 25-60% d) >60%
a) 3.5m b) 5.5m
c) 3.75m d) 7.0m
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Set R
shoulders is _____.
a) 2-2.5 b) 1.0-1.05
c) 2.5-3 d) <0.5
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

2) Road Camber
3) Sight Distance
4) Superelevation
Stabilization.
rural roads.
construction.
1) Fly ash
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) 3.5m b) 5.5m
c) 3.75m d) 7.0m
shoulders is _____.
a) 2-2.5 b) 1.0-1.05
c) 2.5-3 d) <0.5
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Set S
course
Layer
course
course
a) 4% b) 3.5%
c) 3.0% d) 2.0%
2) Reconnaissance
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
c) 3, 2, 1 and 4 d) 4, 1, 2 and 3
a) 0-10% b) 10-25%
c) 25-60% d) >60%
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-48
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Rural Roads
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

2) Road Camber
3) Sight Distance
4) Superelevation
Stabilization.
rural roads.
construction.
1) Fly ash
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-49
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Planning for Sustainable Development
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any five questions.
Q.1 Attempt any five of the following question. (10 marks each)
1) Enlist the principles of sustainable development. 10
2) Explain the need of Innovation strategies & Environmental Management. 10
3) Analyze institutional theory in sustainable development in detail? 10
4) What are the policy responses for environmental degradation? 10
5) What measures can be undertaken for sustainable development in civil 10

engineering projects?
6) What do you understand by ‘Squaring the circle’ concept in sustainable 10

management?
7) Explain the contribution of innovation in sustainable development? 10
Page 1 of 4
SLR-HL-49
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


management?
Page 2 of 4
SLR-HL-49
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


management?
Page 3 of 4
SLR-HL-49
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


management?
Page 4 of 4
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
TQM and MIS in Civil Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

1) What is the full form of TQM?
a) True quality machining b) Total quality management
c) True quantitative machining d) Total queue management
2) The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is ______.
a) Customer satisfaction b) Employee satisfaction
c) Skill enhancement d) Environmental issues
3) Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on ______.
a) Employee b) Customer
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
4) TQM & ISO both focuses on ______.
a) Customer b) Employee
c) Supplier d) All of the above
5) A fundamental attribute of TQM is ______.
a) Drawing control charts
b) Top management's direct involvement
c) Meeting ISO 9000 audit
d) All of above
6) The information of MIS comes from the ______.
a) Internal source
b) External source
c) Both internal and external source
7) An information system that supports the planning and assessment needs
of executive management is ______.
a) DSS b) ERP
c) MIS d) None of the above
8) The back bone of any organization is ______.
a) Information b) Employee
c) Management d) Capital
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Set P
9) Which one is not Prerequisite of an effective MIS?
a) Database b) Support from staff
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
10) A computer-based information system ______.
a) Require manually input b) No need manually input
c) Auto input d) None of these
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.2 Solve any four. 20

a) Explain the importance of Quality control in Construction sector?
b) What are the factors to be considered to have good quality control in
construction project?
c) Explain in brief with Objective and significance of “Total Quality
Management”?
d) Explain in brief the Quality Circle and its function.
e) Explain in brief “Supply Chain Management” as a tool in TQM.
f) What is “Six Sigma”? Explain in brief “Object and function of Six Sigma for
Quality control”.

a) What is “Management Information System (MIS)”? Explain in brief
Objective and function MIS.
b) Explain in brief the difference between “Data and Information”.
c) Explain in brief “Data Processing system and MIS”.
d) Explain the use of MIS in field of construction industry.
e) Define the term Database and its benefits to any sector.
f) Explain in brief the role of computer in construction industry.
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) Internal source
b) External source
a) DSS b) ERP
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Set Q
d) All of above
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

Management”?
Quality control”.

Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

d) All of above
a) Internal source
b) External source
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Set R
a) DSS b) ERP
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

Management”?
Quality control”.

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

d) All of above
a) Internal source
b) External source
a) DSS b) ERP
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-50
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

Management”?
Quality control”.

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-51
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Earthquake Resistant Non Engineered Construction
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any five questions.
Q.1 Write detailed note on internal structure of Earth. 10
Q.2 Which are the seismic waves generated after earthquake. 10
Q.3 Explain the different magnitude scales to measure an earthquake. 10
Q.4 What are causes of damages due to earthquake in the stone masonry 10
construction?
Q.5 What is meant by Strengthening? Explain few Strengthening features for walls. 10
Q.6 Explain the significance of RC bands in masonry construction. 10
Page 1 of 4
SLR-HL-51
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
construction?
Page 2 of 4
SLR-HL-51
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
construction?
Page 3 of 4
SLR-HL-51
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
construction?
Page 4 of 4
SLR-HL-52
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Engineering Economics, Estimation & Costing
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

1) ‘Money received today is more worth than money received in future’ is
based on which of the following term
a) Time Value of money b) Storage Value of Money
c) Time Machine d) Cash Value of Machine
2) A Project assumed monetary gain or loss by discounting entire cash
inflow or outflow by utilizing the necessary rate of return is
a) Net recorded cash value
b) Net discounted cash value
c) Net future value
d) Net present value
3) A sum of Rs 10000 is deposited in a bank as a fixed deposit for 3 years.
The bank pays 9% interest annually. How much money, in Rs., will be
received at the maturity if the fixed deposit is encashed?
a) 12950 b) 12700
c) 11800 d) none of the above
4) Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of
the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 - i)n b) NPV + (1 - i)n
c) NPV(1 + i) n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n
5) The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) less than 1 b) +ve
c) -ve d) zero
6) Considers impact of cash flow even after payback period
a) Net present value
b) return on investment
c) Sensitivity analysis
d) simple payback period
7) The net present value (NPV) is
a) equal to the sum of the present values of all cash flows
b) equal to the sum of returns
c) equal to the sum of all cash flows
Page 1 of 16
SLR-HL-52
Set P
8) While submitting a tender, the contractor is required to deposit some
amount with the department as a guarantee of the tender known as
a) Earnest money b) Bank Guarantee
c) Security Deposit d) Caution money
9) In India the flexible pavement is designed as per
a) msa b) Ksa
c) csa d) Fsa
10) Make out an estimate for a work the following data are necessary-
Drawing, Specification and _____.
a) materials b) Rates
c) labours d) Transportation
11) The quantity of sand required for RCC (1:2:4) for 15 cubic metres of work
is ________.
a) 4.76 m3 b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3 d) 6.51 m3
12) Workout the years purchase of the property if the rate of interest is 6%
per annum _______.
a) 6 b) 16.67
c) 0.1667 d) 0.06
13) The value at the end of utility of property but without dismantling is known
as _______.
a) Scrap Value b) Salvage value
c) Market value d) Book value
14) Definition of “Employee’' under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 includes
a) Skilled labour - Clerical labour
b) Skilled and unskilled both labour - Manual labour
c) Skilled and unskilled both labour - Manual and clerical both labour
d) Unskilled labour- Manual labour
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-52
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) From Section – I Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5.
2) From Section – II Q. 6 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q.7 to Q. 9.
Section – I
Q.2 A) Prepare a measurement sheet for the following items of construction of a 08
compound wall around a plot of 6.50m × 12.20m. Assume the following
specifications for the following items.
a) Excavation Trench for foundation: Width=0.60m, Depth below
GL=1.000m
b) PCC(M10) 0.10 thick below foundation: Width=0.60m,
c) UCR in foundation height = 0.800m
d) PCC(M10) 0.10 thick above foundation
B) Also prepare an Abstract sheet for these items by assuming suitable 04

market rates.
Q.3 A) What are thumb rules for determining the following quantities of materials? 04
a) No.of cement bags required for construction of building
b) Steel reinforcement required for RCC in cement concrete
B) Detailed specifications for buildings. 04
Q.4 Carry out Rate analysis of following items of work 08

a) Plane Cement Concrete (M10) in Foundation
b) UCR in Foundation
Q.5 Compare following methods of calculating depreciation 08

a) Straight line method, declining balance method.
b) Sinking fund method, quantity survey method
Section - II
Q.6 A) Prepare a tender notice for the work of construction of your house of G+1 08
storied RCC structure of 100 Sqm built up area. Make suitable
assumptions for required data.
B) Compare Item Rate contract and Percentage rate contract. 04
Q.7 Explain following Acts 08

a) Minimum Wages Act
b) Workers Compensation Act
Page 3 of 16
SLR-HL-52
Set P
Q.8 a) Explain Belting Method of Valuation. 04
b) Calculate Years Purchase for a property with a useful life of 30 years if 04
rate of interest is 5% per year. Assume rate of interest for sinking fund as
3%.
Q.9 a) Enlist and Explain the ‘Factors affecting valuation of properties’. 04

b) Enlist and explain the different types of values. 04
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-52
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) msa b) Ksa
c) csa d) Fsa
is ________.
a) 4.76 m3 b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3 d) 6.51 m3
per annum _______.
a) 6 b) 16.67
c) 0.1667 d) 0.06
as _______.
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
c) Net future value
a) 12950 b) 12700
the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 - i)n b) NPV + (1 - i)n
c) NPV(1 + i) n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n
c) -ve d) zero
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
GL=1.000m

market rates.


Section - II

Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
3%.

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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

is ________.
a) 4.76 m3 b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3 d) 6.51 m3
per annum _______.
a) 6 b) 16.67
c) 0.1667 d) 0.06
as _______.
c) Net future value
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) 12950 b) 12700
the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 - i)n b) NPV + (1 - i)n
c) NPV(1 + i) n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n
c) -ve d) zero
a) msa b) Ksa
c) csa d) Fsa
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
GL=1.000m

market rates.


Section - II

Page 11 of 16
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Set R
3%.

Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) msa b) Ksa
c) csa d) Fsa
is ________.
a) 4.76 m3 b) 10.32 m3
c) 8.43 m3 d) 6.51 m3
per annum _______.
a) 6 b) 16.67
c) 0.1667 d) 0.06
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
as _______.
c) Net future value
a) 12950 b) 12700
the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 - i)n b) NPV + (1 - i)n
c) NPV(1 + i) n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n
c) -ve d) zero
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
GL=1.000m

market rates.


Section - II

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Set S
3%.

Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth. Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Construction Engineering, Management & Construction Practices
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Crashing is ______.
a) Abandoning the project
b) Completing the project with all possible haste
c) Reduction in duration for few of the activities
d) Reducing cost of the project with all possible modifications
2) CPM method of network analysis is ______.
i) ideally suited for linearly extending works
ii) Meant essentially for R and D activities
iii) Activity Oriented
iv) Used for planning, scheduling and controlling purposes
a) i and ii b) ii and iii
c) iii and iv d) i and iv
3) Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS)?
a) The life cycle phases b) The logical order of tasks
c) The scope of the project d) Project costs
4) The critical path _____.
a) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
b) Is a mixture of all paths
c) Is the longest path
d) Is the shortest path
5) Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between ______.
a) its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
b) its latest start time and earliest start time
c) its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
d) its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
6) The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is
known as _____.
a) crash time b) normal time
c) optimistic time d) standard time
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Set P
7) Independent float is the amount of time by which:
a) Start of the activity can be delayed without affecting EST of
subsequent activity
b) reduces the float of subsequent activities
c) completion of an activity can be delayed beyond EFT without
affecting EST
d) completion of an activity can be delayed beyond earliest possible
finishing time
8) According to Heinrich ______ % are unsafe conditions and _____ % are
unsafe acts which are preventable.
a) 10, 88 respectively b) 2, 98 respectively
c) 98, 2 respectively d) 88, 10 respectively
9) The very first thing you should do if you are the first to witness or discover
an accident on the job site is to ______.
a) Go find at least one co-worker to help you so you can work as a team
b) Go to the scene and help the person(s) injured
c) Find and fill out the necessary forms to document the incident
d) Activate the emergency response system
10) The highway accidents occur mostly at ______.
a) Both day and night b) Early morning hours
c) Night time d) Day time
11) Which of these causes the most construction site fatalities?
a) Electrocution b) Trench collapses
c) Falls d) Contact with chemicals
12) Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
a) Dragline b) Hoe
c) Clamshell d) Power Shovel
13) A _____ is very useful equipment and it can be used for construction work
like to clear the site of work, to make the land level, etc.
a) Scraper b) Grader
c) Excavator d) Bulldozer
14) In the production of prefabricated structures how does the material used in
construction affect the element?
a) material quality and economic design
b) smaller members
c) disuninting of members
d) Joints
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
2) Q. No. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two questions from Q. No.3 to Q.
No. 5.
No. 9.
Section – I
Q.2 Find Project details in the following table. 12

Activity Duration (Days) Precedence
1-2 4 -
1-3 5 -
2-3 3 1-2
3-4 7 1-3, 2-3
a) Draw the Bar Chart.
b) Draw the CPM Network.
c) Show the Critical Path and Duration of the Project.
Q.3 Answer the following questions. 08

a) Explain stepwise procedure of network compression using suitable example.
b) What are the three time estimates in PERT? Explain how to calculate
expected time using these three time estimates.
Q.4 Compare. 08
a) CPM with PERT
b) Resource leveling with Resource smoothening
Q.5 Answer following questions. 08

a) What is BIM? Which software is available as BIM? Explain the output of
BIM.
b) Explain reports possible using MS Project software.
Section – II
Q.6 Write detailed Notes on. 12

a) Power Shovel
b) Bulldozer
c) Scraper
Q.7 Explain. 08
a) Safety Measures in Construction
b) Safety- against accidents
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Q.8 Compare. 08
a) Tunnel formwork with Mivan formwork
b) Tower Crane with Mobile Crane
Q.9 Explain. 08
a) Explain use of Dredging Equipment.
b) Stepwise procedure for construction of Diaphragm wall.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Dragline b) Hoe
b) smaller members
d) Joints
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
(WBS)?
known as _____.
subsequent activity
affecting EST
finishing time
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
No. 5.
No. 9.
Section – I

1-2 4 -
1-3 5 -
2-3 3 1-2
3-4 7 1-3, 2-3

Q.4 Compare. 08
a) CPM with PERT

BIM.
Section – II

a) Power Shovel
b) Bulldozer
c) Scraper
Q.7 Explain. 08
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Set Q
Q.8 Compare. 08
Q.9 Explain. 08
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Dragline b) Hoe
b) smaller members
d) Joints
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
(WBS)?
known as _____.
subsequent activity
affecting EST
finishing time
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
No. 5.
No. 9.
Section – I

1-2 4 -
1-3 5 -
2-3 3 1-2
3-4 7 1-3, 2-3

Q.4 Compare. 08
a) CPM with PERT

BIM.
Section – II

a) Power Shovel
b) Bulldozer
c) Scraper
Q.7 Explain. 08
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Set R
Q.8 Compare. 08
Q.9 Explain. 08
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

known as _____.
subsequent activity
affecting EST
finishing time
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) Dragline b) Hoe
b) smaller members
d) Joints
(WBS)?
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
No. 5.
No. 9.
Section – I

1-2 4 -
1-3 5 -
2-3 3 1-2
3-4 7 1-3, 2-3

Q.4 Compare. 08
a) CPM with PERT

BIM.
Section – II
a) Power Shovel
b) Bulldozer
c) Scraper
Q.7 Explain. 08
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Q.8 Compare. 08
Q.9 Explain. 08
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Concrete Structures - II
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Book. Page No.3 (starting page of the Answer Book).
same page.
3) Write the correct option for each question.
4) While solving MCQ IS 456-2000, IS 1343 are not allowed.
1) In design of a footing, the depth considering bending moment is checked 01
at ______.
a) The free end of footing
b) Face of the column
c) A distance d/2 (half of the effective depth) from the face of the column
d) None of these
2) For the design of vertical wall of height H for a circular tank the cantilever 01
action considered for a height ‘h’ is ______ from the bottom of tank.
a) H/3 b) 1 m
c) Both a and b d) H/3 or 1 m whichever is more
3) The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as ______. 01
a) Rise b) Tread
c) Winder d) Flight
4) In a counter fort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid 01
span is provided on ______.
a) Front face only b) Inner face only
c) Both front face and inner face d) None of the above
5) The minimum width of stem slab at bottom is ______. 01
a) H/15 b) H/12
c) H/18 d) H/20
6) Line along which the total resultant prestressing force acts is called 01
as ______.
a) Kern point b) Cable profile
c) Cable line d) Cable
7) A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because ______. 01
a) Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
b) Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
c) Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
d) All the above
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8) The algebraic sum of bending moments due to prestress and external 01
loads is called as ______
a) Primary prestressing moment b) Secondary prestressing moment
c) Resulting moment d) All of above
9) A square isolated footing for a square column of size 300mm x 300mm is 02
made to transfer the characteristic load, P = 800kN to the ground.
Consider weight of footing as 10% of the characteristic axial load. The
safe bearing capacity of soil is 155 kN/m2. The dimension of the square
footing should not be less than ______.
a) 956mm b) 1434mm
c) 1912mm d) 2390mm
10) A rectangular pretensioned prestressed concrete beam has straight 02
concentric force with a prestressing force of 1000 kN. The beam is
300 mm X 500 mm in section. M20 grade concrete is used. The loss of
prestress due to elastic shortening is ______.
a) 22.37 MPa b) 32.47 MPa
c) 48.33 MPa d) 52.33 MPa
11) The floor to floor height of a building is 3.0m. The tread depth of a step is 02
250mm and the rise height of a step is 150mm. The total number of steps
to be provided for accessing next floor is equal to ______.
a) 18 b) 19
c) 20 d) 21
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Concrete Structures- II
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Draw neat sketch's where required and Assume suitable data if required
and slate it clearly.
3) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
4) Solve any two from Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 5 and Q. No. 7 to Q. No. 9 from
each section.
5) Use of IS 456. IS 1343 and IS 3370 part IV and non-programmable
calculator is allowed.
Section – I
Q.2 The dog-legged staircase for building in which the vertical distance between 08
floors is 3.2 m. The live load is taken as 4 kN/m2 including floor finish. Assume
150 mm riser and 250 mm tread and width of stair is 1.20 m. Use M20 concrete
and Fe415 steel. Stair is supported by beams of width 230 mm at the end of
landing slab.
Q.3 Design the stem slab of a cantilever retaining wall to retain an earth 10
embankment with a horizontal top 3.6 m above ground level. SBC of soil is
220 kN/m2, angle of friction ϕ = 30° and density of earth 17 kN/m3. coefficient of
friction between concrete and ground 0.5. Use M25 concrete and Fe500 steel.
Q.4 A square column 420 mm X 420 mm carries an axial load of 1400 kN. Design 10
square footing to support the column. The SBC of soil is 200 kN/m 2. Use M20
Q.5 Design a water tank having capacity 52200 liters, resting on firm ground is free 10
at top, bottom as well as vertical edges are fixed, the depth of water is 3.2 m,
Assume free board of 300 mm and solve by IS code method. Use M25 concrete
and Fe500 steel.
Section – II
Q.6 A prestressed concrete beam 400 mm x 600 mm in section has a span 6 m and 08
is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 6 kN/m and a concentrated load of
150 kN at mid span. The prestressing tendons are located at 150 mm from
bottom of the section. If prestressing force is 1200 kN, calculate the extreme
stresses in concrete for the mid span section. Solve by following methods:
stress concept method, strain concept method, load balancing concept.
Q.7 A rectangular prestressed concrete beam has span of 10 m and has to carry a 10
live load of 16 kN/m excluding the self weight of beam. Given fc= 15 N/mm 2 and
fs=1000 N/mm2. Design the beam using 6 mm tendons. Weight of concrete is
24 kN/m3
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Set P
Q.8 A prestressed concrete beam 250 wide and 650 mm deep is subjected to an 10
effective prestressing force of 1345 kN along the longitudinal centroidal axis.
The cable may be assumed to be symmetrically placed over mild steel anchor
plate in an area 150 mm X 350 mm. Design the end block by IS code method.
Q.9 A pretensioned beam 250 mm wide and 360 mm deep is prestressed by 10 10

wires of 8 mm diameter initially stressed to 1050 N/mm2. The centroid of the
steel wires is located at 100 mm from the soffit. Determine the maximum stress
in the concrete immediately after transfer allowing elastic shortening of concrete
only at the level of the centroid of steel. If, however the concrete is subject to
additional shortening due to creep and shrinkage and the steel is subject to a
relaxation of stress of 5 percent, find the final percentage loss of stress in the
steel wires. Take Es = 210 N/mm2, Ec = 36.85 N/mm2, creep coefficient
ϕ = 1.60, total residual shrinkage strain = 3 X 10-4.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
same page.
a) H/15 b) H/12
c) H/18 d) H/20
as ______.
d) All the above
at ______.
d) None of these
a) H/3 b) 1 m
a) Rise b) Tread
c) Winder d) Flight
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) 22.37 MPa b) 32.47 MPa
c) 48.33 MPa d) 52.33 MPa
a) 18 b) 19
c) 20 d) 21
a) 956mm b) 1434mm
c) 1912mm d) 2390mm
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
each section.
Section – I
landing slab.
and Fe500 steel.
Section – II
24 kN/m3
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q

Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
same page.
a) Rise b) Tread
c) Winder d) Flight
a) H/15 b) H/12
c) H/18 d) H/20
as ______.
d) All the above
at ______.
d) None of these
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) H/3 b) 1 m
a) 18 b) 19
c) 20 d) 21
a) 956mm b) 1434mm
c) 1912mm d) 2390mm
a) 22.37 MPa b) 32.47 MPa
c) 48.33 MPa d) 52.33 MPa
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
each section.
Section – I
landing slab.
and Fe500 steel.
Section – II
24 kN/m3
Page 11 of 16
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Set R

Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
same page.
d) All the above
at ______.
d) None of these
a) H/3 b) 1 m
a) Rise b) Tread
c) Winder d) Flight
a) H/15 b) H/12
c) H/18 d) H/20
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
as ______.
a) 956mm b) 1434mm
c) 1912mm d) 2390mm
a) 22.37 MPa b) 32.47 MPa
c) 48.33 MPa d) 52.33 MPa
a) 18 b) 19
c) 20 d) 21
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
each section.
Section – I
landing slab.
and Fe500 steel.
Section – II
24 kN/m3
Page 15 of 16
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Set S

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-55
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B. Tech) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Earthquake Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
answer book. Page no 03 (Starting page of the Answer Book).
3) Each MCQ carries two marks each.
1) The transmissibility is zero at the frequency ratio (𝜔 ∕ 𝜔𝑛 ) equal to
a) 0.5 b) 1.0
c) Ѵ2 d) 22
2) The response is greatly affected by damping in the region
a) 𝜔 ∕ 𝜔𝑛 < 0.5 b) 𝜔 ∕(d)©/co
𝜔𝑛 > 1.5
n= l
c) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 0 d) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 1
3) The increase in damping in a dynamic system, the transmissibility when
the frequency ratio is equal to Ѵ2.
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Has no effect d) None of above
4) A building structure suffers torsion under seismic action when
a) The centre of gravity does not coincide with the centre of rigidity
b) The centre of gravity does not coincide with the centre of stiffness
c) The centre of rigidity does not coincide with the centre of stiffness
d) The centre of gravity coincides with the centre of stiffness
5) _____ is the building structure which has least lateral force resistance.
a) Ordinary moment-resisting RCC frame
b) Special moment-resisting RCC frame
c) Shear wall structure
d) Masonry structure
6) The slenderness ratio of masonry is the ratio of
a) Length of wall to height of wall
b) Length of wall to thickness
c) Height of wall to area of cross-section
d) None of above
7) Special confining reinforcement is provided in the form of
a) Longitudinal reinforcement b) Temperature reinforcement
c) Lateral reinforcement d) Shrinkage reinforcement
Page 1 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
2) Attempt any two questions from the remaining of each section.
3) Use of only IS 1893:2016 is allowed.
Section – I
Q.2 From first principle derive the governing differential equation for forced vibration 09
of a Undamped SDOF system. Obtain the general solution of this differential
equation.
Q.3 What do you understand by force transmissibility? Derive an expression for 09

force transmissibility to the foundation of a SDOF system subjected to harmonic
force.
Q.4 a) Explain the step by step procedure of construction of response spectrum. 05

b) What is combined spectrum? What are its characteristics? 04
Section – II
Q.5 It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. three storied residential building having 10

plan dimensions as shown in fig.1 in zone III with following data. Determine the
lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 300 × 550 mm &
beams sizes are 300 × 450 mm. The slab thickness is 120mm & thk. of walls is
230mm. The ht. of floor is 3.0 m & Live load is 3.5 kN/m2. IS 13920 provisions
are incorporated in the structure. The strata is Medium.
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Set P
Q.6 What do you understand by a response reduction factor? Why it is incorporated 09
in the expression for evaluating seismic forces?
Q.7 Explain how rational ductility of singly reinforced and doubly reinforced RCC 09
section is evaluated?
Q.8 Explain the strengthening arrangements for masonry construction. 09
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
d) None of above

a) 0.5 b) 1.0
c) Ѵ2 d) 22
a) 𝜔 ∕ 𝜔𝑛 < 0.5 b) 𝜔 ∕(d)©/co
𝜔𝑛 > 1.5
n= l
c) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 0 d) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 1
Page 4 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
equation.

force.

Section – II

Page 5 of 12
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Set Q
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
d) None of above

a) 0.5 b) 1.0
c) Ѵ2 d) 22
a) 𝜔 ∕ 𝜔𝑛 < 0.5 b) 𝜔 ∕(d)©/co
𝜔𝑛 > 1.5
n= l
c) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 0 d) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 1
Page 7 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
equation.

force.

Section – II

Page 8 of 12
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Set R
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) 𝜔 ∕ 𝜔𝑛 < 0.5 b) 𝜔 ∕(d)©/co
𝜔𝑛 > 1.5
n= l
c) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 0 d) 𝜔⁄𝜔𝑛 = 1
d) None of above
a) 0.5 b) 1.0
c) Ѵ2 d) 22
Page 10 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
equation.

force.

Section – II

Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-55
Set S
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth. Year (B. Tech) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Civil ENGINEERING
Traffic Engineering and Management
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


1) Select the correct statement,
a) Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity
b) Traffic capacity should be always be more than traffic volume
c) Spot seed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
d) 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed
2) The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and
pedestrians involved in accident is known as,
a) Spot maps b) Pie charts
c) Condition diagram d) Collision diagram
3) If the space headway is 7m, then the jam density in vehicle/km is _____.
a) 142 b) 144
c) 145 d) 146
4) If the jam density is 145vehicles/km, and velocity is 60kph then the
capacity flow is ______.
a) 2175 b) 2200
c) 2375 d) 2500
5) Level of Service A and F represents _______.
a) Forced Flow and Free Flow respectively
b) Free Flow and Forced Flow respectively
c) Both are free flow
d) Both are Forced flow
6) With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the
lane______.
a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value
at optimum speed
d) first decreases and then increases after reaching a maximum value
at optimum speed
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
7) In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress specifications, if the sum
of the ratios of normal flows to saturation flow of two directional traffic
flows is 0.50 and the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds, the optimum
cycle length in seconds is ______.
a) 100 b) 80
c) 60 d) 40
8) Two broken yellow line marking at center of road indicates ______.
a) No passing allowed on both side
b) Passing allowed on one side
c) Passing allowed on both side
d) Passing allowed only for left side vehicle
9) Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with _______.
a) Parallel parking b) 30° angle parking
c) 45° angle parking d) 90° angle parking
10) When volume of the road reaches maximum flow or the capacity, the
volume capacity ratio approaches to a value of _______.
a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 0.0 d) 0.5
11) Speed regulations on roads is decided on the basis of _______.
a) 60th percentile cumulative frequency
b) 85th percentile cumulative frequency
c) 55th percentile cumulative frequency
d) 98th percentile cumulative frequency
12) On a road the free speed was 65 kmph and the space headway at jam
density was 6.25m. What is the maximum flow which could be expected
on this road?
a) 2600 vph b) 1625 vph
c) 1300 vph d) 406 vph
13) If present ADT is 5000 vehicles and annual increase is 10%, the average
future flow after 5 years will be ______.
a) 6050 vehicles b) 7050 vehicles
c) 8050 vehicles d) 9050 vehicles
14 A traffic stream in a particular direction of a two-lane road is moving with
a constant speed of 50 kmph, with an average headway of 2.52 seconds.
The longitudinal distance between two consecutive vehicles is ______.
a) 30m b) 35m
c) 38m d) 42m
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set P
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any two questions (each carry 7 marks) 14

a) What are the objects and scope of traffic engineering? Explain briefly.
b) From an in-out survey conducted for a parking area consisting of 40 bays,
the initial count was found to be 25. Table-1 gives the result of the
survey. The number of vehicles coming in and out of the parking lot for a
time interval of 5 minutes is as shown in the Table-1 below. Find the
accumulation, total parking load, average occupancy and efficiency of the
parking lot.
Table-1-In-Out Survey data
In-out survey data In-out survey data
Time In Out Time In Out
5 3 2 35 2 7
10 2 4 40 4 2
15 4 2 45 6 4
20 5 4 50 4 1
25 7 3 55 3 3
30 8 2 60 2 5
c) Explain Spot speed, running speed, Space-mean speed, time mean
speed and average speed.
d) Write a short note on any two.
1) Level of Service
2) Passenger Car Unit
3) Collision and Condition Diagram
4) O-D survey
Q.3 Answer any TWO questions (each carry 7 marks) 14

a) Explain the relationship between speed, travel time, volume, density and
capacity?
b) Discuss the various types of on street parking with their advantages and
disadvantages.
c) Define the term capacity. Explain terms basic capacity, possible capacity
and practical capacity.
d) A vehicle skids through a distance equal to 40m before colliding with
another parked vehicle, the weight of which is 60% of the former. After
collision both the vehicles skid through 12m before stopping. Compute
the initial speed of moving vehicle, assuming average friction coefficient,
f=0.6.
Page 3 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set P
Section – II

a) Explain general principles governing application of speed limits in Rural
and Urban area.
b) With neat sketches show some of the important types of warning signs
and mention the functions of each.
c) Write a short note on ITS applications in urban transport system.
d) A fixed type 2 - phase signal is to be provided at an intersection having a
North - South and an East - West Road, where only straight-ahead traffic
is permitted. The design hour flows from the various arms and the
saturation flows for these arms are given in the following table.
Design hour North South East West
flow(q) in PCU s/hour 800 400 750 600
Saturation flow (s) in
2400 2000 3000 3000
PCU s /hour
Calculate the optimum cycle time and green times for the minimum
overall delay. Use Webster’s method. Assume time lost per phase due to
starting delays as 2 seconds and value of amber period is 2 seconds.
Sketch the timing diagram for each phase.

a) What are the objects of highway lighting? Explain various design factors
to be considered in road lighting.
b) Marks the different signs for below locations as per IRC-67-2001.
1) Three arm priority junction
2) Four aim priority junction
3) Flyover approach in rural section
4) Curve delineation in divided highway
c) Explain with neat sketch.
1) Roadway Delineators
2) Hazard Markers
3) Safety Barriers
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set Q
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 0.0 d) 0.5
on this road?
a) 2600 vph b) 1625 vph
c) 1300 vph d) 406 vph
7) A traffic stream in a particular direction of a two-lane road is moving with
a) 30m b) 35m
c) 38m d) 42m
Page 5 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set Q
a) 142 b) 144
c) 145 d) 146
a) 2175 b) 2200
c) 2375 d) 2500
lane______.
a) Increase
b) Decreases
at optimum speed
at optimum speed
a) 100 b) 80
c) 60 d) 40
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set Q
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

parking lot.
5 3 2 35 2 7
10 2 4 40 4 2
15 4 2 45 6 4
20 5 4 50 4 1
25 7 3 55 3 3
30 8 2 60 2 5
1) Level of Service
4) O-D survey

capacity?
disadvantages.
f=0.6.
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set Q
Section – II

and Urban area.
2400 2000 3000 3000
PCU s /hour

2) Hazard Markers
3) Safety Barriers
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set R
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


on this road?
a) 2600 vph b) 1625 vph
c) 1300 vph d) 406 vph
a) 30m b) 35m
c) 38m d) 42m
a) 142 b) 144
c) 145 d) 146
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set R
a) 2175 b) 2200
c) 2375 d) 2500
lane______.
a) Increase
b) Decreases
at optimum speed
at optimum speed
a) 100 b) 80
c) 60 d) 40
a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 0.0 d) 0.5
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set R
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

parking lot.
5 3 2 35 2 7
10 2 4 40 4 2
15 4 2 45 6 4
20 5 4 50 4 1
25 7 3 55 3 3
30 8 2 60 2 5
1) Level of Service
4) O-D survey

capacity?
disadvantages.
f=0.6.
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set R
Section – II

and Urban area.
2400 2000 3000 3000
PCU s /hour

2) Hazard Markers
3) Safety Barriers
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set S
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


lane______.
a) Increase
b) Decreases
at optimum speed
at optimum speed
a) 100 b) 80
c) 60 d) 40
a) 1.0 b) 1.5
c) 0.0 d) 0.5
Page 13 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set S
on this road?
a) 2600 vph b) 1625 vph
c) 1300 vph d) 406 vph
a) 30m b) 35m
c) 38m d) 42m
a) 142 b) 144
c) 145 d) 146
a) 2175 b) 2200
c) 2375 d) 2500
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Seat
No. Set S
Civil ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

parking lot.
5 3 2 35 2 7
10 2 4 40 4 2
15 4 2 45 6 4
20 5 4 50 4 1
25 7 3 55 3 3
30 8 2 60 2 5
1) Level of Service
4) O-D survey

capacity?
disadvantages.
f=0.6.
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-59
Set S
Section – II

and Urban area.
2400 2000 3000 3000
PCU s /hour

2) Hazard Markers
3) Safety Barriers
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Advanced Railway Track
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Traffic passing though ‘special class’ level crossing should be more
than_____ Train Vehicle Unit (TVU).
a) 10000 to 20000 b) 30000 to 50000
c) 20000 to 30000 d) Above 50000
2) Indication post for detonators should be provide data at a distance of
_____ m & ______m for B.G.
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 500 m & 1200 m
c) 600 m & 1200 m d) 600 m & 1000 m
3) For protection of level crossing gate in an emergency on BG, Double line,
the gateman should place one detonator at one place & three detonator
at subsequent place at a distance of _____ m & ______ m respectively.
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 600 m & 1200 m
c) 500 m & 1000 m d) 300 m & 900 m
4) In an unmanned Level crossing, stop board should be provided at a
distance of from the centre of nearest track ______.
a) 5 m b) 10 m
c) 7.5 m d) None of these
5) Replacement of swing gates by lifting barrier existing manned Level
Crossings shall be carried out where TVU is more than ______.
a) 4000 b) 50,000
c) 40,000 d) 60,000
6) TSR is recommended when the %age of unserviceable sleeper become
more than ______.
a) 20% b) 40%
c) 30% d) None of these
7) Through renewal of rubber pads shall be planned after ______ years.
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) 4
Page 1 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Set P
8) Minimum shoulder ballast in tangential track of LWR: ______.
a) 300mm b) 350mm
c) 600mm d) 500m
9) LWR/CWR can be laid on vertical curve where algebraic difference
between two grades is: ______.
a) 2mm/m b) 4mm/m
c) 3mm/m d) 5mm/m
10) SEJ must not fall on curves having radius ______.
a) > 3500m b) <3500m
c) 440m d) >440m
11) Minimum gap at SEJ in 52 kg. rail shall be: _____.
a) 40mm b) 120mm
c) 60mm d) 190mm
12) Hot weather patrolling is to be introduced in LWR territory having
sleepers other than _____.
a) When the rail temperature goes beyond tm+10
b) When the rail temperature goes beyond td+ 20
c) When the rail temperature goes beyond td+ 10
d) None of these
13) Maintenance operation in a LWR should be restricted to a temperature
range of _____ degree centigrade.
a) td+10 to td-30 b) td to td-20
c) 30 to 45 d) td+5 to td -25
14) Oiling in SEJ is must, once ______.
a) Daily b) Fortnightly
c) Weekly d) Monthly
Page 2 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Question No. 2 is compulsory and attempt any two from the remaining.
2) Question No. 8 is compulsory and attempt any two from the remaining.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain the following: 06

1) On- Track Maintenance
2) Mobile Maintenance Unit
3) Sectional Gangs
b) With the help of diagram, illustrate the tamping procedure 04
Q.3 a) Explain Preliminary Works for Track Renewal. 04

b) Explain the renewal of Sleepers. 05
Q.4 a) Elaborate the inspection of Level crossing. 04

b) Explain signs of Destressing in Group-I and Group-II Bridges. 05
Q.5 a) Describe the chemical and mechanical composition of all types of steel 05
used in Indian Railway tracks.
b) Explain the handling process of rails. 04
Section – II
Q.6 a) Illustrate the reasons behind defects found in Rails. 04

b) Elaborate with the help of a diagram details of LWR. 05
Q.7 a) With the help of diagram explain Alumina Thermite process. 04

b) Identify the various types of derailments and mention the aspects of 05
derailments.
Q.8 a) Explain diamond crossing with help of diagram. 05

b) A main line track on BG is having LWR of 52 kgs Laid at 40°C. The 05
maximum rail temperature is 60°C and the minimum rail temperature is
0°C. Calculate the following:
1) Tension in rail
2) compression in rail
3) tensile stress and
4) compressive stress
Q.9 a) Illustrate the requirement of Railway station, (at least six points). 04
b) Discuss Nadal’s Formula and its application. 05
Page 3 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 300mm b) 350mm
c) 600mm d) 500m
a) 2mm/m b) 4mm/m
c) 3mm/m d) 5mm/m
a) > 3500m b) <3500m
c) 440m d) >440m
a) 40mm b) 120mm
c) 60mm d) 190mm
d) None of these
c) 30 to 45 d) td+5 to td -25
a) 10000 to 20000 b) 30000 to 50000
c) 20000 to 30000 d) Above 50000
Page 4 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Set Q
_____ m & ______m for B.G.
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 500 m & 1200 m
c) 600 m & 1200 m d) 600 m & 1000 m
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 600 m & 1200 m
c) 500 m & 1000 m d) 300 m & 900 m
a) 5 m b) 10 m
a) 4000 b) 50,000
c) 40,000 d) 60,000
more than ______.
a) 20% b) 40%
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) 4
Page 5 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

3) Sectional Gangs


Section – II


derailments.

1) Tension in rail
Page 6 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 40mm b) 120mm
c) 60mm d) 190mm
d) None of these
c) 30 to 45 d) td+5 to td -25
a) 10000 to 20000 b) 30000 to 50000
c) 20000 to 30000 d) Above 50000
_____ m & ______m for B.G.
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 500 m & 1200 m
c) 600 m & 1200 m d) 600 m & 1000 m
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 600 m & 1200 m
c) 500 m & 1000 m d) 300 m & 900 m
Page 7 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Set R
a) 5 m b) 10 m
a) 4000 b) 50,000
c) 40,000 d) 60,000
more than ______.
a) 20% b) 40%
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) 4
a) 300mm b) 350mm
c) 600mm d) 500m
a) 2mm/m b) 4mm/m
c) 3mm/m d) 5mm/m
a) > 3500m b) <3500m
c) 440m d) >440m
Page 8 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

3) Sectional Gangs


Section – II


derailments.

1) Tension in rail
Page 9 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

more than ______.
a) 20% b) 40%
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) 4
a) 300mm b) 350mm
c) 600mm d) 500m
a) 2mm/m b) 4mm/m
c) 3mm/m d) 5mm/m
a) > 3500m b) <3500m
c) 440m d) >440m
a) 40mm b) 120mm
c) 60mm d) 190mm
d) None of these
c) 30 to 45 d) td+5 to td -25
Page 10 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Set S
a) 10000 to 20000 b) 30000 to 50000
c) 20000 to 30000 d) Above 50000
_____ m & ______m for B.G.
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 500 m & 1200 m
c) 600 m & 1200 m d) 600 m & 1000 m
a) 400 m & 800 m b) 600 m & 1200 m
c) 500 m & 1000 m d) 300 m & 900 m
a) 5 m b) 10 m
a) 4000 b) 50,000
c) 40,000 d) 60,000
Page 11 of 13
SLR-HL-61
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

3) Sectional Gangs


Section – II


derailments.

1) Tension in rail
Page 12 of 13
Page 13 of 13
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Construction Productivity
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Productivity measurement is complicated by
a) the competition's output
b) the fact that precise units of measure are often unavailable
c) stable quality
d) the workforce size
2) Production improvement spending will be mostly on
a) Direct Labour b) Indirect labour
c) Material d) Overhead
3) The single-factor productivity measures
a) Output per labor hour b) Output per machine
c) Output per ton of material d) Any one of these
4) Total work content =
a) Basic work content + Excess time
b) Basic work content - Excess time
c) Basic work content + Ineffective time
d) Basic work content – Ineffective time
5) Which of the following adds idle time due to short runs?
a) Excessive product variety b) Lack of Standardization
c) Both (A) and (B) d) Design changes
6) Preventive maintenance improves
a) Material productivity b) Labour productivity
c) Machine productivity d) Capital productivity
7) Productivity =
a) Input / Output b) Output / Input
c) Output – Input d) Input – Output
8) The elimination of which of the following will improve industrial
productivity
a) Excess time b) Ineffective time
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Set P
9) The time for which the worker or machine or both remain idle due to the
shortcomings of the management or workers is known as
a) Excess time b) Idle time
c) Ineffective time d) Work content
10) Productivity can be increased by
a) By increasing the output from the same input
b) By reducing the input for the same output
c) Both (A) and (B)
11) Raw material productivity can be increased by
a) Proper choice of design b) Reuse of material
c) Scrap control d) All of the above
12) Productivity can be measured in which of the following input resource(s)
a) Material input b) Capital and Land Input
c) All of the above d) None of these
13) The resources utilized for production are
a) Materials, Machines, Manpower
b) Materials, Methods, Machines
c) Machines, Manpower, Methods
d) Methods, Machine, Manpower
14) Productivity is the ____ of production system.
a) Measurement b) Efficiency
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section – I, all questions are compulsory.
2) In Section – II, Question No. 5 is compulsory and Solve any two of
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
Section – I
Q.2 Solve the following. 12

a) 1200 Sqm of construction of Solid block masonary without finishing is
proposed to be done by 4 crews each of 1 mason and 1 helper. The
standard productivity is 20 Sqm/day/crew. Working time is 8Hr/day. How
much duration will be required for completing the work?
b) Compare the following two categories of productivity loss
1) losses that result from a reduction in an organization’s ability to
execute on its primary value proposition
2) losses that result from personnel being paid but unable to perform
their duties
Q.3 Answer the following. 08

a) What are the factors influencing employee performance?
b) How to measure productivity?
Q.4 Write Notes On 08

a) Labour Productivity improvement with new Technologies
b) Advantages due to increased labour productivity
Section – II
Q.5 Explain the following. 12

a) Factors influencing Productivity
b) Sources of Lost time
c) Tools to identify Productivity loss
Q.6 Write Notes on 08

a) Influence of Human Factors on productivity
b) Methods of Motivating for improved productivity
Q.7 Explain the following 08
a) Work sampling
b) Compare Tour approach with Crew Approach

a) Crew Balance Chart
b) Flow Diagrams
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

productivity
c) Both (A) and (B)
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Set Q
c) stable quality
14) Productivity =
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

their duties


Section – II


a) Work sampling

b) Flow Diagrams
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) stable quality
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Set R
11) Productivity =
productivity
c) Both (A) and (B)
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

their duties


Section – II


a) Work sampling

b) Flow Diagrams
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

2) Productivity =
productivity
c) Both (A) and (B)
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Set S
c) stable quality
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-62
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

their duties


Section – II

a) Work sampling

b) Flow Diagrams
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Environmental Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
4) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it clearly .

1) System approach provides the ______ scheme that makes involvement
accessible.
a) Life cycle planning b) Life cycle integration
c) Decision making d) Integrated Training
2) ______ is an art of obtaining the best results in design, construction and
planning of any engineering system.
a) Optimization b) Simulation methods
c) CPM or PERT d) Optimal design
3) _____ is a mathematical technique suitable for optimization of multistage
decision problems
a) Dynamic programming b) Queuing theory
c) Design of Experiments d) Game Theory
4) ______ is a method for numerical procedure solving differential equations
associated with field problems.
a) Mathematic Programming
b) Finite elements
c) Stochastic process
d) Statistical methods
5) _______ is an organizational level or layer of nature which consist lowest
level of all biotic and abiotic elements.
a) Environment b) Ecology
c) Ecosystem d) Biology
6) ____ includes testing and experimentation models as a iterative process.
a) System approach b) System Programming
c) Statistical analysis d) System analysis
7) The _______ is used to convey changes in the numbers, age class
distribution, sex ratio and behavior of population through time and space.
a) Population density b) Population dynamics
c) Population dispersion d) Population Chemistry
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Set P
8) The ________ model provides easy access to data for the formation and
implementation to effective solid waste management.
a) Integrated waste model
b) Municipal waste management
c) Sustainable waste management
d) Environmental waste management
9) Internal flow like recirculation released with pumps fulfill the requirements
in _______ models.
a) Flow variable b) Statistical Flow
c) Laminar flow d) Gravitational How
10) For a model modification the transformation factor between total
suspended solids and COD is _______.
a) 0.5 b) 0.75
c) 1.5 d) 2.5
11) _______ are the interfaces between inflow and outflow.
a) Venturimetr b) Orifice
c) Connectors d) Junction box
12) The _______ examines the extreme points in a systematic manner,
repeating the algorithm until optimal solution is reached.
a) Graphical method b) Optimal method
c) Statistical method d) Simplex method
13) _______ is a combined meteorology and diffusion model.
a) Meteorological model b) Gaussian plume model
c) Dispersion Model d) Atmospheric dispersion model
14) ________ estimates temporal and spatial emission based on per unit of
activity and meteorology.
a) Emission model b) Receptor model
c) Source dispersion model d) Plume Behavior
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining. Question no. 6 is compulsory in section II,
and solve any two questions from the remaining.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it dearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain with neat sketch the scope of system approach. 05

b) Explain the characteristics of Integrated Waste Management. 05
Q.3 a) Explain three basic models which are used in system approach. 05
b) Explain what is building modeling. 04
Q.4 a) Explain ecological modeling of an ecosystem. 04

b) Explain the research methodology of Effective Waste Management. 05
Q.5 Write Short Notes

a) Characteristics of Population Ecology 05
b) Reuse and Recovery of Paper 04
Section – II
Q.6 a) What is Linear Programming and discuss the application of LP in civil 05

Engineering
b) Explain the basic concept of Wastewater model. 05
Q.7 a) Explain the pollutant standard index criteria. 04
b) Explain the point source Gaussian plume model. 05
Q.8 a) Explain the wastewater treatment process (Aerobic Process). 05

b) Explain the salient features of Optimization. 04

a) Motor Vehicle Emission 05
b) Inflow Model 04
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

in _______ models.
a) 0.5 b) 0.75
c) 1.5 d) 2.5
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Set Q
accessible.
decision problems
b) Finite elements
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

Engineering


b) Inflow Model 04
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


accessible.
decision problems
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-63
Set R
b) Finite elements
in _______ models.
a) 0.5 b) 0.75
c) 1.5 d) 2.5
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No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

Engineering


b) Inflow Model 04
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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

in _______ models.
a) 0.5 b) 0.75
c) 1.5 d) 2.5
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
accessible.
decision problems
b) Finite elements
Page 11 of 12
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No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

Engineering


b) Inflow Model 04
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Water Power Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Annual depreciation of the plant is proportional to the earning capacity of
the plant void _____.
a) sinking fund depreciation b) straight line depreciation
c) reducing balance depreciation d) none of above
2) A nuclear power plant is variably used as a _____.
a) base load plant b) peak load plant
c) stand by plant d) none
3) The load factor for the peak day of the year determines the required _____.
a) Water storage b) Pondage
c) Generating capacity d) None
4) Water hammer process in penstock result in _____.
a) pressure decreases
b) noise decreases
c) noise increases, pressure increases, velocity decreases
d) None
5) Minimum pressure occurs in fall flowing power tunnel at the time of _____.
a) load rejection b) load acceptance
c) head race d) fail race
6) Unit power in a turbine is _____.
a) p/H1/2 b) P/H
c) P/H 3/2 d) P/H 3/4
7) On what factors does the selection of a water turbine depends?
a) Speed b) Nature of load
c) Working head d) All
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
8) Pump storage scheme are used to improve the _____.
a) load factor
b) power factor
c) delivery factor
d) plant capacity factor as well as load factor of the power system
9) A turbine is called reaction turbine if at the inlet of turbine, the total energy
is _____.
a) kinetic b) pressure
c) kinetic and pressure d) none
10) When a gate valve, installed in a pressure pipe is suddenly closed, water
hammer pressure is caused on the pipe shell, in the portion ______.
a) Downstream of the valve b) upstream of the valve
11) In hydro electric power station what is an enlarge body of water just
above the intake and used as a regulating reservoir called _____.
a) penstock b) spillways
c) reservoir d) fore bay
12) Jet ratio 'm' is defined as the ratio of _____.
a) Diameter of jet of water to diameter of pelton wheel
b) Velocity of vane to velocity of jet of water
c) Velocity of flow to velocity of jet of water
d) Diameter of pelton wheel to diameter of jet
13) The draft tube is provided to _____.
a) reduce the effect of water hammer
b) raise the water surface of the stream to create an artificial head
c) increase the acting head on the water wheel
14) Surge tank is necessarily provided _____.
a) long penstocks b) short length penstocks
c) surface penstocks d) embedded penstocks
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
3) Use only non-programmable calculator is allowed.
4) Draw neat labelled diagrams whenever necessary.
Section – I

a) What do you understand by non-conventional sources of power generation?
What is the scope of these sources in India?
b) Discuss the merits and demerits of Hydropower as compared to other
power plants.
c) When runoff river plant operates as peak load station with weakly factor of
25% what will be the minimum flow in the river so that the station serve as
peak load station? With installed capacity 12000 KN, operating head 15 M
and plant efficiency as 85%.
d) Common load shared by two stations base load plant with 50 MW capacity
and other beuing standby plant with 55 MW capacity. The yearly output for
base load station is 200 × 106 KWh, and for standby station is 20 × 106
KWh. The peak load taken by standby station is 18 MW which works for
2400 hrs during the year. The base load station takes peak load as 30
MW. Calculate annual load factor, plant use factor, and capacity factor for
both the stations.
e) What do you understand by base load and peak load power plants?
Q.3 Solve any two. 12

a) What do you understand by Run of river plants? What are the parts and
arrangement of such plants? Draw a neat sketch.
b) A penstock, with an internal diameter 1.20 m, supplies water at a head
equivalent to 17.0 kg/cm2. There is a possibility of 20% in the pressure due
to transient conditions. The design stress and the efficiency of the joint
may be assumed to be 1000 kg/cm2and 85% resp. Find the wall thickness
of penstock.
c) The 95% dependable discharge of river is 20 m3/sec. if the head utilized is
25m, calculate.
1) Theoretical HP, and Kw
2) Approximate amount of power outputs
3) Total yearly developable energy
4) Actual capacity that may be installed to utilize all average flow and
energy
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Section – II

a) What are the advantages of reaction turbine over the Pelton wheel turbine
in respect of efficiency, size, cost and maintenance?
b) Explain the function of Anchor block and enlist the forces acting on it.
c) A power canal, bed width 15m, may be assumed to be rectangular in
shape with a steady state of flow of 3m. The canal supplies water to a
power house with three turbines, each turbine rated at a discharge of
30 m3/s. If the in the power house is suddenly thrown off so that two of the
turbines have to be shut down, what would be the height of the surge in
the canal.
d) Power house is equipped with 4 units of vertical shaft Pelton turbines to be
coupled with 70000kVA, 3 phase. 50 hertz generation. The generation are
provided with 10 pairs of poles. The gross design head is 505m and
transmission efficiency of head race tunnel and penstocks together is to be
94percent.The four units together will provide for a power of 348000hp at a
guaranteed efficiency of 91 percent. The nozzle efficiency is 0.98.
Find:
1) the design discharge for the turbine
2) jet dia. and no. of jets
3) the nozzle tip diameter
4) the pitch circle dia. of the wheel
5) the specific speed and
6) number of buckets on the wheel
e) Enlist the different types of Draft tubes. Sketch any two and write the
advantages of them.

a) What topographical features are in favour of adopting underground power
plant? What are its types? Draw neat layout.
b) A Closed cycle power plant with gross head 400 m has head race tunnel of
4.5 m dia. and 800 m long. Flow velocity is 8.5m/s and coefficient of friction
0.02 overall efficiency of pumping and generation at 85% and 90%
respectively. Calculate plant efficiency.
c) Describe how ocean tides one generated? also state the limitations of tidal
power generation.
Page 4 of 16
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No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) load factor
b) power factor
c) delivery factor
is _____.
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
b) noise decreases
d) None
a) p/H1/2 b) P/H
c) P/H 3/2 d) P/H 3/4
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

power plants.
both the stations.

of penstock.
25m, calculate.
energy
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Set Q
Section – II

the canal.
Find:
advantages of them.

power generation.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

Page 9 of 16
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Set R
b) noise decreases
d) None
a) p/H1/2 b) P/H
c) P/H 3/2 d) P/H 3/4
a) load factor
b) power factor
c) delivery factor
is _____.
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

power plants.
both the stations.

of penstock.
25m, calculate.
energy
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Set R
Section – II

the canal.
Find:
advantages of them.

power generation.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) p/H1/2 b) P/H
c) P/H 3/2 d) P/H 3/4
a) load factor
b) power factor
c) delivery factor
is _____.
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
b) noise decreases
d) None
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

power plants.
both the stations.

of penstock.
25m, calculate.
energy
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-64
Set S
Section – II

the canal.
Find:
advantages of them.

power generation.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Repairs and Rehabilitation of Structures
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) Who is responsible for the combination of the polymer particles?
a) monomer b) nanomer
c) tetramer d) crystal
2) Which metal is used for making a foamed concrete?
a) Aluminum b) Zinc
c) a & b both d) none of the above
3) Process of maintaining different components of building so that it can
provide proper service throughout its working life is known as ______.
a) Building Maintenance b) Building Management
c) Building Service d) All of the above
4) ______ type of plaster defect generates a series of hair cracks inside the
plaster.
a) Crazing b) Blistering
c) Flaking d) Popping
5) Honey combing in concrete is caused due to ______.
a) Inadequate compaction b) Chemical reaction
c) Shock waves d) Lack of curing
6) Bacterial concrete is a _____ concrete.
a) Porous b) Self-healing
c) foamed d) vacuum
7) Epoxy resins have ______.
a) poor mechanical strength b) poor thermal strength
c) low tensile strength d) none of the above
8) One of the testing equipment used for inspection is ______.
a) Strain Gauge b) Measuring Jar
c) Test Tubes d) None of these
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
9) Which NDT test work on the principle of rebound of the elastic mass?
a) Hammer test b) Ultrasonic test
c) Chloride test d) None of the above
10) In case of damaged pretressed concrete I girders, ______ are used for
restoring strength.
a) Pre-tensioning b) Post-tensioning
c) Chemicals d) Dies
11) The corrosion of reinforcement due to extreme exposure is common for
structure located in ______.
a) Dry conditions b) Costal zones
c) Regional zones d) Hot condition
12) The structural concrete slab panels can be repaired by ______.
a) Internal Bonding b) External Bonding
c) Stress Bonding d) Layered bonding
13) A fire detector cannot detect ______.
a) Radiation b) Heat
c) Light d) Smoke
14) In case of dormant cracks, wider than about 1 m, it is more economical to
use ______ technique.
a) Epoxy resin b) Grouting and sealing
c) Tensioning d) Ranging
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any two questions: 12

a) Write a note on fiber reinforced concrete.
b) Write a note on methods of repairs of cracks in concrete.
c) Describe causes of distress in concrete structures.

a) Describe Shotcrete and Guniting.
b) Explain underpinning and shoring.
c) Explain about the importance of maintenance and various facets of
maintenance of a concrete structure in detail.
Section – II

a) Write a note on Jacketing of column.
b) Write a note on repairs in underwater structures.
c) Explain the term Retrofitting and Rehabilitation.

a) Explain use of sensors for building instrumentation.
b) Describe engineered demolition techniques for dilapidated structures.
c) Describe with sketches the strengthening methods - Retrofitting, Jacketing
used for structures.
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


restoring strength.
c) Light d) Smoke
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Aluminum b) Zinc
plaster.
c) foamed d) vacuum
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) Light d) Smoke
a) Aluminum b) Zinc
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Set R
plaster.
c) foamed d) vacuum
restoring strength.
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) foamed d) vacuum
restoring strength.
c) Light d) Smoke
Page 10 of 12
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Set S

a) Aluminum b) Zinc
plaster.
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-69
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Air & Noise Pollution and Control
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) Seasonal Changes affect the thickness of ______ of atmosphere.
a) Stratosphere b) Troposphere
c) Mesosphere d) Hydrosphere
2) The change of air temperature with height influence the upward lift of air
pollutant discharge into atmosphere is also known as ______.
a) Subsidence inversion b) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
c) Temperature gradient d) Adiabatic lapse rate
3) Instruments used for wind speed record is ______.
a) Thermometer b) Barometer
c) Anemometers d) Solariometer
4) The Photochemical smog formation at Los Angeles is a typical example
of ______ on air pollution.
a) Humidity b) Solar Radiation
c) Precipitation d) Mixing Height
5) ______ type of plume is emitted under extreme inversion condition.
a) Fanning b) Coning
c) Looping d) Lofting
6) ______ diagram shows the prevailing direction of wind.
a) Stack effluent Theories b) Dispersion Model
c) Wind Rose d) Stack Height
7) The prime factors in order to minimize air pollution problems by site
selection are ______.
a) Potential effects of surrounding area
b) Meteorological factors and climate
c) Clean air available
d) Topographical features
8) ______ diseases like bronchitis and asthma are aggravated by high
concentration of particulate matter, SO2, NO2 and Photochemical Smog.
a) Chronic Pulmonary b) Eye Irritation
c) Nose and Throat Irritation d) Cancer
Page 1 of 12
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9) Cyclone Separator works on the principle of ______.
a) Gravity Force b) Inertia Force
c) Centrifugal Force d) None of these
10) _______ removes both gaseous and Particulate Contaminants.
a) Venturi Scrubber b) Gravitational settling Chamber
c) Electrostatic Precipitator d) Wet Scrubber
11) The Ringelmann scale is a scale for measuring the apparent density
of ______.
a) odour b) noise
c) gas d) smoke
12) When did Central Pollution Control board establish?
a) 1954 b) 1964
c) 1974 d) 1994
13) The Unit used for measuring noise pollution is ______.
a) Joule b) Decibel
c) Newton d) Nano Unit
14) According to Noise Pollution Rule 2000, the night time noise standard for
the educational institute is ______.
a) 55 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 40 dB
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain Global effects of Air Pollution and its Climate Change. 05
b) Explain meteorological factors influencing air pollution. 05
Q.3 a) Explain scope of Air Pollution and its sources of Air Pollution. 05
b) Explain with neat sketch "Plume Behavior". 04
Q.4 a) What is photochemical smog and explain the theory of formation of smog 05
with respective to nitrogen dioxide?
b) Explain the Mechanism action of air pollutants on Human Health. 04
Q.5 a) Explain in 'Emission Standards' in detail. 05

b) Write a short note on ‘Acid Rain'. 04
Section – II
Q.6 a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Electrostatic Precipitator. 05

b) Describe the sources and control of Noise Pollution. 05
Q.7 a) A fabric filter is to be constructed using bags having 30 cm diameter and 05

5.5 m height. The bag having is to receive 12.7 m 3/sec air and filtering
velocity is restricted to 2.3 m/min. Determine the number of bags required
for continuously cleaned operation.
b) Explain with neat sketch and working operation of Settling Chamber. 04
Q.8 a) Explain the causes and effects of Noise Pollution. 05

b) Explain the basic concepts of Noise Pollution Standards. 04
Q.9 a) Explain ‘Sound Pressure" in detail. 05

b) Write a short note on ‘Packed Towers' with the help of neat diagram. 04
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


of ______.
a) odour b) noise
c) gas d) smoke
a) 1954 b) 1964
c) 1974 d) 1994
a) Joule b) Decibel
a) 55 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 40 dB
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

Section – II




Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


of ______.
a) odour b) noise
c) gas d) smoke
a) 1954 b) 1964
c) 1974 d) 1994
a) Joule b) Decibel
a) 55 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 40 dB
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Set R
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

Section – II




Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


of ______.
a) odour b) noise
c) gas d) smoke
a) 1954 b) 1964
c) 1974 d) 1994
a) Joule b) Decibel
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Set S
a) 55 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 40 dB
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-72
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

Section – II




Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) The monthly rainfall at a place A during September 1996 was recorded as
55 mm above normal. Here, the term normal means _______.
a) The rainfall in the same month in the previous year
b) The rainfall was normally expected based on previous month’s data
c) The average rainfall computed from past 12 months’ record
d) The average monthly rainfall for September computed from a specific
30 years of the past record
2) The following recording rain-gauges does not produce the mass curve of
precipitation as record:
a) Symons’ rain-gauge
b) Tipping bucket type rain-gauge
c) Weighing bucket type rain-gauge
d) Natural syphon type rain-gauge
3) Depth-area-duration curves of precipitation are drawn as ______.
a) Minimising envelopes through the appropriate data points
b) Maximising envelopes through the appropriate data points
c) Best-fit mean curves through the appropriate data points
d) Best-fit straight through the appropriate data points
4) What is the area under a conditional Cumulative density function?
a) Zero b) Infinity
c) One d) Changes with CDF
5) Larger values of r2(R2) imply that the observations are more closely
grouped about the ______.
a) Average value of the independent variables
b) Average value of the dependent variable
c) Least squares line
d) Origin
6) In regression analysis, the variable that is used to explain the change in
the outcome of an experiment, or some natural process, is called ______.
a) the independent variable b) the predictor variable
c) the explanatory variable d) All of the above
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
7) The basic assumptions of the unit-hydrograph theory are ______.
a) Nonlinear response and time invariance
b) Time invariance and linear response
c) Linear response and linear time variance
d) Nonlinear time variance and linear response
8) An IUH is a direct runoff hydrograph of ______.
a) 1 cm magnitude due to rainfall excess of 1-h duration
b) That occurs instantaneously due to rainfall excess of 1-h duration
c) Unit rainfall excess precipitating instantaneously over the catchment
d) Occurring at any instant in long duration
9) The probable maximum flood is ______.
a) The standard project flood of an extremely large river
b) A flood adopted in the design of all kind of spillways
c) An extremely large, but physically possible flood in the region
d) The maximum possible flood that can occur anywhere in the country
10) A bridge is designed for a 50-year flood. The probability that only one
flood of the design capacity or higher will occur in the 75 years life of the
bridge is ______.
a) 0.020 b) 0.220
c) 0.786 d) 0.336
11) The hydrologic flood routing methods use ______.
a) Equation of continuity only
b) Momentum and Continuity equations both
c) Energy equation only
d) Equation of motion only
12) The Muskingum method of flood routing assumes the storage S is related
to inflow rate /and outflow rate Q of a reach as, ______.
a) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 — (1 − 𝑥)𝑄] b) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝑄 + (1 − 𝑥)𝐼]
c) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 + (1 – 𝑥)𝑄] d) 𝑆 = 𝐾𝑥[𝐼 − (1 — 𝑥)𝑄]
13) Which of the following is not a negative effect of storm water?
a) Volume b) Runoff
c) Potential contaminants d) Evaporation
14) Which of these is a single event?
a) Monsoon rain b) Flash flood
c) Flood d) Volcanic eruption
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks
3) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions from
the remaining of each section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) A catchment area has a seven rain-gauge stations. In a year the annual 05
rainfall recorded by the gauges are as follows:
Station P Q R S T U V
Rainfall (cm) 130.0 142.1 118.2 108.5 165.2 102.1 146.9
For a 5% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall, calculate the

minimum number of additional stations required to be established in the
catchment.
b) Describe the salient characteristics of precipitation on India. 05
Q.3 a) Define Correlation and its types along with graphical representation. 04
b) Analysis of data on maximum one-day rainfall depth at Madras indicated 05
that a depth of 280 mm had a return period of 50 years. Determine the
probability of a one-day rainfall depth equal to or greater than 280 mm at
Madras occurring (a) Once in 20 successive years, (b) Two times in 15
successive years, and (c) At least once in 20 successive years.
Q.4 a) List the factors affecting the seasonal and annual runoff of a catchment. 04
Describe each in detail.
b) A small watershed is 250 ha in size has group C soil. The land cover can 05
be classified as 30% open forest and 70% poor quality pasture. Assuming
AMC at average condition and the soil to be black cotton soil, estimate the
direct runoff volume due to rainfall of 75 mm in one day. Take CN for open
forest and Pasture as 60 and 86 respectively.
Q.5 a) What is sequent peak algorithm? Discuss the procedure involved in the 04
analysis of sequent peak along with suitable sketches.
b) A storm with 10 cm of precipitation produced a direct runoff of 5.8 cm. The 05
duration of the rainfall was 16 hours and its distribution is given as below.
Estimate the φ-index of the storm.
Time from start (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Cumulative rainfall (cm) 0 0.4 1.3 2.8 5.1 6.9 8.5 9.5 10.0
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Section – II
Q.6 Given the ordinates of a 4-h unit hydrograph as below: 10

Time (h) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
Ordinate of 4-h
0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
UH (m3/s)
Derive the ordinates of 12-h for the same catchment.
Q.7 a) Explain the term Rainfall Excess (ER). How is ERH of a storm obtained? 04
b) What is an Instantaneous unit-hydrograph? What are the characteristics of 05
IUH?
Q.8 a) Distinguish between Storage routing and Channel routing. 04

b) Route the following flood hydrograph through a river reach for which 05
K = 12.0 h and x = 0.15. At the start of the inflow flood, the outflow
discharge is 10 m3/s.
Time (h) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54
Inflow (m3/s) 10 20 50 60 55 45 35 27 20 15
Q.9 a) Enlist the major causes of urban flooding. 05

b) Discuss any two the following in detail: 04
1) Water Sensitive Urban Design (WSUD)
2) Low Impact Development (LID)
3) Sustainable Urban Drainage System (SUDS)
4) Best Management Practices (BMPs)
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


bridge is ______.
a) 0.020 b) 0.220
c) 0.786 d) 0.336
a) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 — (1 − 𝑥)𝑄] b) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝑄 + (1 − 𝑥)𝐼]
c) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 + (1 – 𝑥)𝑄] d) 𝑆 = 𝐾𝑥[𝐼 − (1 — 𝑥)𝑄]
a) Volume b) Runoff
Page 5 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set Q
a) Zero b) Infinity
d) Origin
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Rainfall (cm) 130.0 142.1 118.2 108.5 165.2 102.1 146.9

catchment.
Time from start (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set Q
Section – II

Time (h) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
Ordinate of 4-h
0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
UH (m3/s)
IUH?

Time (h) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54
Inflow (m3/s) 10 20 50 60 55 45 35 27 20 15

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 — (1 − 𝑥)𝑄] b) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝑄 + (1 − 𝑥)𝐼]
c) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 + (1 – 𝑥)𝑄] d) 𝑆 = 𝐾𝑥[𝐼 − (1 — 𝑥)𝑄]
a) Volume b) Runoff
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set R
a) Zero b) Infinity
d) Origin
bridge is ______.
a) 0.020 b) 0.220
c) 0.786 d) 0.336
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Rainfall (cm) 130.0 142.1 118.2 108.5 165.2 102.1 146.9

catchment.
Time from start (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set R
Section – II

Time (h) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
Ordinate of 4-h
0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
UH (m3/s)
IUH?

Time (h) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54
Inflow (m3/s) 10 20 50 60 55 45 35 27 20 15

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


bridge is ______.
a) 0.020 b) 0.220
c) 0.786 d) 0.336
Page 13 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set S
a) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 — (1 − 𝑥)𝑄] b) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝑄 + (1 − 𝑥)𝐼]
c) 𝑆 = 𝐾[𝑥𝐼 + (1 – 𝑥)𝑄] d) 𝑆 = 𝐾𝑥[𝐼 − (1 — 𝑥)𝑄]
a) Volume b) Runoff
a) Zero b) Infinity
d) Origin
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Surface Hydrology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Rainfall (cm) 130.0 142.1 118.2 108.5 165.2 102.1 146.9

catchment.
Time from start (h) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-74
Set S
Section – II

Time (h) 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44
Ordinate of 4-h
0 20 80 130 150 130 90 52 27 15 5 0
UH (m3/s)
IUH?

Time (h) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54
Inflow (m3/s) 10 20 50 60 55 45 35 27 20 15

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B. Tech) (Sem – II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Advanced Concrete Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
question carries two marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. (2 marks each) 14
1) If the slump of the concrete mix is 75mm, its workability is considered to
be ______.
a) Very high b) High
c) Medium d) Low
2) Fineness of cement is done by the sieve ______.
a) 600µ b) 300µ
c) 150µ d) 90µ
3) Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?
a) The use of larger size and/or rounded aggregate gives higher
workability.
b) For the same water content, use of finer sand increases the
workability
c) The grading of fine aggregate is more critical than the grading of
coarse aggregate for workability
d) For high-strength concrete a coarser grading is preferred
4) Modulus of elasticity of concrete can be assumed as ______.
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚 2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
5) To calculate tensile strength of concrete from the compressive strength,
the following formula may be used ______.
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
6) The strength of light-weight concrete depends upon ______.
a) Density of concrete b) Size of aggregates
c) Type of cement d) Mix proportion
7) The temporary joints left between the subsequent concreting operation
is ______.
a) Contraction joints b) Construction joints
c) Isolation joints d) Expansion joints
Page 1 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) In Section – I Q. No. 2 is compulsory and solve any two questions from
remaining questions. (Q. No. 3, 4 and 5)
2) In Section – II Q. No. 6 is compulsory and solve any two questions from
Section – I
Q.2 Classify the various concrete chemicals based on their use. 10
Q.3 Compare the relative merits and demerits of various workability tests. 09
Q.4 Discuss the maturity of concrete. How is it measured? What are its uses in 09
concrete industry?
Q.5 How can aggregate cause efflorescence in concrete? How does the maximum 09
size of aggregate affect the workability of concrete with given water content?
Section – II
Q.6 Describe the methods of manufacturing of ferro-cement. 10
Q.7 What are the particular requirements for pumpability of a concrete mix? 09
Q.8 What are the special precautions to be adopted on the site for efficiently using 09
ready mixed concrete? Explain in detail.
Q.9 What are the particular problems in pumping lightweight aggregate concrete? 09
Page 2 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚 2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
is ______.
be ______.
c) Medium d) Low
a) 600µ b) 300µ
c) 150µ d) 90µ
workability.
workability
Page 3 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
concrete industry?
Section – II
Page 4 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
is ______.
be ______.
c) Medium d) Low
a) 600µ b) 300µ
c) 150µ d) 90µ
workability.
workability
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚 2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚 2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
Page 5 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
concrete industry?
Section – II
Page 6 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) 600µ b) 300µ
c) 150µ d) 90µ
workability.
workability
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚 2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
a) 5000√𝑓𝑐𝑘 b) 0.7√𝑓𝑐𝑘
c) 200 𝐾𝑁/𝑚𝑚2 d) 0.27√𝑓𝑐𝑘
is ______.
be ______.
c) Medium d) Low
Page 7 of 8
SLR-HL-77
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
concrete industry?
Section – II
Page 8 of 8
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Culvert is the type of bridge whose span is _____.
a) Between 6m-60m b) Above 60m
c) Less than 6m d) None of these
2) For small bridges, with open foundations, the economical span is
approximately equal to _____ times height of Pier.
a) 2.0 b) 1.2
c) 1.0 d) 1.5
3) Total load in case of IRC 70R tracked loading is _____.
a) 700kN b) 710kN
c) 1000kN d) 554kN
4) For spans greater than 9m, impact factor for wheeled vehicle is ______.
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
5) The ground contact length of the track of IRC class AA loading is _____.
a) 3.6m b) 4.57m
c) 3.5m d) None of these
6) Impact force for IRC class A & B is given by _____
a) AB b) B+L
If = If =
B+L A
c) A d) None of these
If =
B+L
7) Total load of class AA wheeled is ______.
a) 700kN b) 400kN
c) 554kN d) 332kN
8) Braking force is assumed to act along the line parallel to roadway &
______ above it.
a) 1.2m b) 1.5m
c) 1.8m d) 2.0m
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) Solid deck slab is adopted for spans _____.
a) More than 8m b) More than 20m
c) Less than 8m d) Between 10-25m
10) The pier cap or abutment cap should be of minimum ______ concrete.
a) M20 grade b) M25 grade
c) M30 grade d) Any one of these
11) Following is not the function of the pier cap or abutment cap ______.
a) Provides immediate bearing surface for the support of the super
structure at pier and abutment location
b) Disperses the strip load from bearing to the substructure evenly.
c) Prevent rain water from dripping down the sides and ends of the
pier.
d) Resist all horizontal forces acting on bridges.
12) In case of urban site, suitable pier is ______.
a) Cellular pier b) Trestle pier
c) Inboard pier d) Hammerhead pier
13) Fixed bearing allow ______.
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
c) Both rotational as well as translation
d) Restrict rotation as well as translation
14) Two span girder requires ______.
a) Fixed bearing at central support & expansion bearing at the two
abutments
b) Fixed bearing at all supports
c) Expansion bearing on all supports
d) Expansion bearing at central support & Fixed bearing at the two
abutments
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any four questions.

a) What are the basic components of bridge structure? Explain with the help 05
of Sketch with their functions.
b) What is economical span? Derive the equation for the same. 04
Q.3 Find the design bending moment of Two-lane bridge solid deck slab for 09
following data:
a) Effective span- 7 m
b) Carriage way width -9 m
c) Kerb- 600 x 275 on both side
d) Live load- IRC Class A (Two lane)
e) Wearing coat - 100 mm thick
f) Use M-25 concrete and Fe-415 steel
g) Use α = 2.82
Q.4 A RCC T beam type bridge having deck slab of 225 mm thick, wearing coat of 10
90 mm thick, three longitudinal girders and five cross girders. Determine the
Design bending moment for all the longitudinal girders. Use following additional
data
a) Carriage way width-7.5 m
b) Span of bridge -14m
c) Live Load - IRC class AA Tracked
d) Kerb- 600 mm wide, 400 mm deep
e) Web thickness for Longitudinal and cross girder- 300 mm
f) Longitudinal Girder spacing - 280 mm
g) Use M-30 concrete and Fe -415 steel
Q.5 Design a slab panel having size of 3 m x 3.5 m. Consider IRC class AA tracked 09
loading. Use Pigeaud’s chart. Consider thickness of slab as 200 mm and
wearing coat thickness as 80 mm. Use M- 25 concrete and Fe- 415 steel. Refer
Fig 1 and 2 for Pigeuad’s coefficient.
Page 3 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set P
Section – II
Q.6 Verify the adequacy of pier for the following data: 10

Top width of pier- 1.8 m, Height of pier upto springing level -14 m, C/C distance
of bearing-1.2 m, Side batter 1:14, HFL-1.2 m below the bearing level. Span of
bridge- 14 m, Self weight of the superstructure =200 kN/m, Live load- IRC class
AA tracked. Material of pier = M20 concrete.
Q.7 Verify the suitability of abutment as shown in the fig 7.1 Use following data 09
Density of soil - 19 kN/m3, Friction angle of soil (∅)31°
Coefficient of friction - 0.6, Live load IRC class AA tracked.
Q.8 a) Design a elastomeric unreinforced bearing pad for following data 05

Vertical load (sustained) = 195 kN,
Vertical load (dynamic) = 100 kN,
Horizontal force = 95 kN
Modulus of rigidity of elastomer-1 N/mm2
coefficient of friction = 0.35
b) Write a note on types of expansion joints. 04
Q.9 Write a note on following (Any three). 09

a) Cantilever method of construction
b) Functions of bearing
c) Approach slab
d) Reinforced earth retaining wall
e) Types of bridge inspection
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

______ above it.
a) 1.2m b) 1.5m
c) 1.8m d) 2.0m
pier.
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
Page 5 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set Q
abutments
abutments
a) 2.0 b) 1.2
c) 1.0 d) 1.5
a) 700kN b) 710kN
c) 1000kN d) 554kN
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
a) 3.6m b) 4.57m
a) AB b) B+L
If = If =
B+L A
If =
B+L
a) 700kN b) 400kN
c) 554kN d) 332kN
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

following data:
g) Use α = 2.82
data
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set Q
Section – II



c) Approach slab
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

pier.
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
abutments
abutments
a) 2.0 b) 1.2
c) 1.0 d) 1.5
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set R
a) 700kN b) 710kN
c) 1000kN d) 554kN
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
a) 3.6m b) 4.57m
a) AB b) B+L
If = If =
B+L A
If =
B+L
a) 700kN b) 400kN
c) 554kN d) 332kN
______ above it.
a) 1.2m b) 1.5m
c) 1.8m d) 2.0m
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

following data:
g) Use α = 2.82
data
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set R
Section – II



c) Approach slab
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) AB b) B+L
If = If =
B+L A
If =
B+L
a) 700kN b) 400kN
c) 554kN d) 332kN
______ above it.
a) 1.2m b) 1.5m
c) 1.8m d) 2.0m
pier.
Page 13 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set S
a) Rotation only
b) Translation only
abutments
abutments
a) 2.0 b) 1.2
c) 1.0 d) 1.5
a) 700kN b) 710kN
c) 1000kN d) 554kN
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
a) 3.6m b) 4.57m
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Design of Bridges
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I

following data:
g) Use α = 2.82
data
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-79
Set S
Section – II



c) Approach slab
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Railway & Harbour Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

1) Once the head wore out during service, the rail could be inverted and
reused. In which type of the rail this facility is available?
a) Double headed rail
b) Bull Headed rail
c) Flat footed rail
d) Both Bull headed and Double headed rails
2) For a sleeper density of (n+6), number of sleepers required for constructing
a Broad Gauge (BG) railway track of length 650m is: _____.
a) 975 b) 918
c) 950 d) 980
3) Bearing plates are used to fix ______.
a) Flat footed rails to the wooden sleepers
b) Double headed rails to the wooden sleepers
c) Bull headed rails to the wooden sleepers
d) Flat footed rails to the cast iron sleepers
4) The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are
respectively, ______.
a) 12m and 12m b) 13m and 12m
c) 12m and 13m d) 13m and 13m
5) Longitudinal movement of rails with respect to sleepers is called?
a) Coning of wheels b) Creep of rails
c) Wear of rails d) Tilting of rails
6) The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail is
called?
a) Switch angle b) Angle of crossing
c) Angle of turnout d) None of these
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
7) Which one of the following types of steel is used in the manufacturing of
metro and mono rails?
a) Mild Steel b) Cast steel
c) Manganese Steel d) Bessemer Steel
8) Match List-I (Signals) with List-II (Function) and select the correct answer
using the code given below:
List-I List-II
A Outer signal 1 Departure signal
B Starter Signal 2 Reception signal
C Repeater signal 3 Shunting signal
D Disc signal 4 Co-acting signal
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3
9) In type-II Windrose Diagram covers ______.
a) Direction and duration of Wind
b) Only Duration of Wind
c) Only Direction of Wind
d) Direction, duration and intensity of wind
10) Which one of the following instance of performance of aircraft is not
considered for determining basic runway length?
a) Normal Landing Case b) Normal take-off case
c) Engine failure case d) Emergency landing case
11) The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is
2845m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5%, then the revised
runway length will be: ______.
a) 2845m b) 2910m
c) 3030m d) 3130m
12) The phenomenon of movement and deposition of sand in a zig-zag style
due to drifting of sand in the vicinity of coast is called:
a) Littoral drift b) Sedimentation
c) Beach drift d) Trough action
13) ______ is a structure constructed at the tip of a breakwater near the
harbour entrance.
a) Dolphin b) Wharf
c) Pier heads d) Jetties
14) Slip is the space of water area between two ______.
a) Adjacent fenders b) Adjacent piers
c) Adjacent jetties d) Adjacent dolphins
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
3) In Section-I, Q. No. 2 is compulsory and solve any ONE full question from
remaining questions Q. No. 3 and 4.
4) In Section-II, Q. No. 5 is compulsory and solve any full ONE full question
Section – I

a) What do you understand by gauge? Mention the different gauges used on
Indian Railways and its suitability.
b) Discuss the necessity and effects of coning of wheels and tilting of rails.
c) Draw a neat sketch of a left-hand-turn out and name its various components.
Describe any one method of designing a turnout.

a) Calculate the superelevation and the maximum permissible speed for a 2°
BG transitioned curve on a high-speed route with a maximum sanctioned
speed of 110 km/h. The speed for calculating the equilibrium
superelevation as decided by the chief engineer is 80 km/h and the booked
speed of goods trains is 50 km/h. Assume G=1750mm and Radius=875m.
b) Calculate the maximum permissible load that a BG locomotive with three
pairs of driving wheels bearing an axle load of 22tonne each can pull on a
straight level track at a speed of 80 km/h. Also calculate the reduction in
speed if the train has to run on a rising gradient of 1 in 200. Assume the
coefficient of friction to be 0.2.
c) If a 8° curve track diverges from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction
in the layout of B. G. Yard, calculate the super elevation and the speed on
the branch line, if the maximum speed permitted on the main line is 45
kmph. Assume any data required suitably. Use 30m arc length.
d) What is superelevation? Why is it necessary to provide superelevation on
the curves of a railway track?

a) What is meant by a crossing number and a crossing angle? How is crossing
angle determined? Explain methods for the same.
b) Differentiate between the following:
1) Reception signals and departure signals
2) Semaphore signal and warner signal
3) Repeating signal and co-acting signal
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
c) Illustrate the working principle of key interlocking and mechanical
interlocking with merits and de-merits.
d) Compare the various characteristics of steam, diesel and electric traction.
Section – II

a) What are the imaginary surfaces? Explain any two imaginary surfaces with
neat sketch.
b) What is a wind rose diagram? What are its types and explain any one with
neat sketch?
c) What are the fenders? Why are they used? Describe various types of
fenders with sketches.

a) Design an exit taxiway joining a runway and a parallel main taxiway. The
total angle of turn is 350 and the maximum turn-off speed is 80 kmph.
Assume radius of entrance curve =731m, runway width=45m, taxiway
width=22.5m. Draw a neat sketch showing all the design elements.
Assume the separation clearance as 217.75m
b) Define breakwater and list the different types of breakwaters. Explain any
one with neat sketch.
c) What are dolphins? Describe their types.
d) Explain with neat sketches the limiting heights of objects in the approach
and turning zone of an instrumental runway.

a) Explain how the basic runway length is determined on the basis of the
performance characteristics of jet and conventional engine aircrafts.
b) The length of a runway under standard conditions is 2100m. The airport is
to be provided at elevation of 410m above the mean sea level. The airport
reference temperature is 32°C. Determine the length of runway. Apply
corrections for elevation and temperature as per ICAO and for gradient as
per FAA specifications. The construction plan provides following data:
End to end of 0 300 900 1500 1800 2100 2700

runway (m) to to to to to to to
0-320 320 900 1500 1800 2100 2700 3000
Grade (%) +1.00 -0.50 +0.50 + 1.00 -0.50 -0.40 -0.10

c) Draw a neat sketch of dry dock (plan and section) and label all components,
and explain the working principle of dry dock.
d) Determine the turning radius of the taxiway for a supersonic transport
aircraft with a wheel base of 30m and tread of main loading gear as 7.2 m
for a design turning speed of 60kmph. Assume co-efficient of friction
between tyre and pavement surface as 0.13 and width of taxiway
pavement as 22.50m.
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

List-I List-II
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3
a) 2845m b) 2910m
c) 3030m d) 3130m
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
harbour entrance.
a) Dolphin b) Wharf
b) Bull Headed rail
c) Flat footed rail
a) 975 b) 918
c) 950 d) 980
called?
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II

neat sketch.
neat sketch?


End to end of 0 300 900 1500 1800 2100 2700

0-320 320 900 1500 1800 2100 2700 3000
Grade (%) +1.00 -0.50 +0.50 + 1.00 -0.50 -0.40 -0.10

pavement as 22.50m.
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) 2845m b) 2910m
c) 3030m d) 3130m
harbour entrance.
a) Dolphin b) Wharf
b) Bull Headed rail
c) Flat footed rail
a) 975 b) 918
c) 950 d) 980
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Set R
called?
List-I List-II
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Set R
Section – II

neat sketch.
neat sketch?


End to end of 0 300 900 1500 1800 2100 2700

0-320 320 900 1500 1800 2100 2700 3000
Grade (%) +1.00 -0.50 +0.50 + 1.00 -0.50 -0.40 -0.10

pavement as 22.50m.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

called?
List-I List-II
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 2 4 1 3
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) 2845m b) 2910m
c) 3030m d) 3130m
harbour entrance.
a) Dolphin b) Wharf
b) Bull Headed rail
c) Flat footed rail
a) 975 b) 918
c) 950 d) 980
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-85
Set S
Section – II

neat sketch.
neat sketch?


End to end of 0 300 900 1500 1800 2100 2700

0-320 320 900 1500 1800 2100 2700 3000
Grade (%) +1.00 -0.50 +0.50 + 1.00 -0.50 -0.40 -0.10

pavement as 22.50m.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-86
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Open Elective-III: Economic policies in India
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


1) LPG model of Deployment was introduced in ______.
a) 1990 b) 1962
c) 1991 d) none of these
2) Water seed fertilizer technology popularly known as ______.
a) Growth development b) Green revolution
c) Peasant reforms d) None of these
3) Consider the following statements:
I) Bulk of employment is in rural areas.
II) The disguised unemployment in agricultural sector is perennial
III) Industrialisation rendered several people jobless in India
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III
c) I, II and III d) None of these
4) The price level is the ______.
a) weighted average price of all goods
b) weighted average price of all goods and services
c) weighted average price of all services
d) weighted average price of exported goods and services
5) Which of the following is the best measure of how inflation affects
consumers?
a) The increase in the price of gold
b) The increase in the consumer price index
c) The increase in the price of a single product
d) The decrease in the consumer price index
6) When rational consumers expect inflation to occur, they are more likely
to ______.
a) Buy expensive goods sooner
b) Postpone the purchase of expensive goods.
c) Hoard dollars
d) Invest in newly issued fixed rate bonds that have not accounted for
the expected inflation
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Set P
7) Green Revolution resulted in significant increase of agricultural productivity
due to ______.
a) High yielding variety of grains
b) Use of pesticides
c) Improved management techniques
d) All the three
8) The choice between high markups and high volume is part of which of the
following retailer marketing decisions?
a) Target market decisions
b) Product assortment and services decisions
c) Pricing decisions
d) Promotion decisions
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased
competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which
stage in the PLC?
a) decline stage b) introduction stage
c) growth stage d) maturity stage
10) What particular market failure does the “market failure argument” against
free trade refer to?
a) Knowledge and technology spill-overs
b) Unemployment
c) Environmental externalities
d) Any market failure that occurs in the tradable sector
11) Selling of state owned assets ______.
a) Deregulation b) Privatisation
c) Integration d) Nationalisation
12) The Keynesian theory of employment provides the solution of?
a) Frictional unemployment b) Disguised unemployment
c) Cyclical unemployment d) Seasonal unemployment
13) A nation's balance of trade is equal to its exports less its imports of ______.
a) goods b) goods and services
c) financial assets d) official reserves
14) If exchange rates float freely, the exchange rate for any currency is
determined by the ______.
a) demand for it
b) supply of it
c) demand for and the supply of it
d) official reserves that back it
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q.2 is compulsory, attempt any two out of Q.3 to Q.5
2) Q. 6 is compulsory, attempt any two out of Q.7 to Q.9
Section – I
Q.2 Answer the following questions 12
a) Explain the term 'Economic Policy’.
b) Discuss the characteristics of Indian Economy.
c) Explain the Eleventh five year plan.

a) State the need and objectives of economic policy in India
b) What do you mean by national income? How it estimates?

a) Examine the basic demographic Features of India and their relevance for
India economic policy for development.
b) What is the concept of Unemployment? Discuss.

a) What is the importance of agriculture in the Indian economy?
b) Explain the rural and agricultural marketing. Enlist the basic facilities
needed for agricultural marketing.
Section – II
a) What is meant by industrialization? Discuss the role of industrialization.
b) Discuss the industrial sector in post-reform period.
c) Discuss the role of public sector.

a) Discuss the role of infrastructure in economic development.
b) Write a short note on the Monetary Policy of India.

a) Discuss status of foreign trade before Independence
b) Discuss the role of FDI.

a) Explain the fiscal federalism in India.
b) Explain the concept and features of Bureaucracy.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


stage in the PLC?
b) Unemployment
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) demand for it
b) supply of it
a) 1990 b) 1962
consumers?
to ______.
c) Hoard dollars
due to ______.
d) All the three
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II



Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) demand for it
b) supply of it
a) 1990 b) 1962
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
consumers?
to ______.
c) Hoard dollars
due to ______.
d) All the three
stage in the PLC?
b) Unemployment
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-86
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II



Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-86
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


to ______.
c) Hoard dollars
due to ______.
d) All the three
stage in the PLC?
b) Unemployment
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) demand for it
b) supply of it
a) 1990 b) 1962
consumers?
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-86
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II



Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-87
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth. Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Professional Practice, Law and Ethics
Time: 02:00 PM To 5:00 PM


1) A contract consist of
a) Mutual promises or agreement enforceable by law
b) Agreement not enforceable by law
c) Involuntary obligations
d) None of these
2) The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is
a) Offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration
b) Agreement, consideration, Offer, acceptance,
c) Offer, consideration, acceptance, agreement
d) Offer, acceptance, consideration, agreement
3) Profession Means
a) Any paid occupation, job and career
b) Specialized person in his job area
c) Any way of serving livelihood
d) None of these
4) Which of the following matter are not referred to arbitration?
a) Civil matters b) Matrimonial matters
c) Banking matters d) Property matters
5) Industrial acts are useful for
a) guarantee of employee welfare
b) provision of legal platform
c) removes extortion of workers
d) All of these
6) Workmans compensation act consist of which of following provisions of act
a) Partial disablement b) Total disablement
c) Amount of compensation d) All of these
7) Safety provisions in Indian Factory Act does not cover
a) Fencing of machinery b) Precaution against fire
c) Lunch rooms d) Protection eyes
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Set P
8) What protects the intellectual property created by artists
c) Registered Designs d) Trademarks
9) Which among the following form a type on intellectual property?
i) Trade secret
ii) Digital signature
iii) Trademarks
iv) Copyrights
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
10) What does a trademark protect?
a) Invention b) Work of art
c) Logo d) Secret formula
11) Which among following is not a provision in Indian Factory act
a) Health b) Welfare
c) Minimum Wages d) Safety
12) Which is similarity in Mediation and Conciliation?
a) They should be same b) They both use a messenger
c) They are same d) There isn't any similarity
13) Lok Adalat means
a) Women's court b) Men's court
c) people's court d) Children court
14) The first and farthest professional ethics is
a) To strive for excellence
b) To take care to environment
c) To serve the needy and poor of the society
d) None of these
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Instructions: 1) Q.2 is compulsory. Solve any two out of Q.3 to Q.5.
2) Q.6 is compulsory. Solve any two out of Q.6 to Q.9.
Section – I
Q.2 Answer the following: 12

a) Compare Professional Ethics and Business Ethics
b) What is Code of Conduct for Professionals?
c) Explain conflict of interest with suitable example.
Q.3 Explain 08
a) Role governed by RERA for Builders and Developers.
b) Role of Institution of Engineers (India) as stakeholder.
Q.4 Explain 08
a) Offer and acceptance as per Indian Contract act
b) Essentials of Valid contract
Q.5 Explain 08
a) Whistleblowing
b) Gift and Bribe
Section – II
Q.6 Write detailed notes on: 12

a) Arbitration
b) Conciliation
c) Basic types of Dispute Resolution
Q.7 Explain: 08
a) Features of ’LOK ADALAT'
b) Contract labour
Q.8 Explain: 08
a) Industrial Dispute Act
b) Workmen’s Compensation Act

a) Compare Patent. Trademark and Copyright
b) Write note on ‘RERA Act 2017’
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING


i) Trade secret
iii) Trademarks
iv) Copyrights
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
6) Lok Adalat means
d) None of these
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
d) None of these
10) Profession Means
d) None of these
d) All of these
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Section – I

Q.3 Explain 08
Q.4 Explain 08
Q.5 Explain 08
a) Whistleblowing
b) Gift and Bribe
Section – II

a) Arbitration
b) Conciliation
Q.7 Explain: 08
b) Contract labour
Q.8 Explain: 08

Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-87
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING


3) Lok Adalat means
d) None of these
d) None of these
7) Profession Means
d) None of these
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-87
Set R
d) All of these
i) Trade secret
iii) Trademarks
iv) Copyrights
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-87
Seat
No. Set R
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Section – I

Q.3 Explain 08
Q.4 Explain 08
Q.5 Explain 08
a) Whistleblowing
b) Gift and Bribe
Section – II

a) Arbitration
b) Conciliation
Q.7 Explain: 08
b) Contract labour
Q.8 Explain: 08

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-87
Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING


i) Trade secret
iii) Trademarks
iv) Copyrights
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2,3 and 4
8) Lok Adalat means
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
d) None of these
d) None of these
12) Profession Means
d) None of these
d) All of these
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Section – I

Q.3 Explain 08
Q.4 Explain 08
Q.5 Explain 08
a) Whistleblowing
b) Gift and Bribe
Section – II

a) Arbitration
b) Conciliation
Q.7 Explain: 08
b) Contract labour
Q.8 Explain: 08

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-88
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
MACHANICAL ENGINEERING
Design of Machine Elements
Day & Date: Wednesday 25-01-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
3) Answer cannot be changed once it is marked.


1) The first step in machine design procedure is _____.
a) Mechanism selection b) layout preparation
c) market survey d) Design of various parts
2) In case of repeated load which of the following is correct?
a) σm = 0 b) σmin = 0
c) σmax = 0 d) σa = 0
3) Factor of Safety is the ratio of _____.
a) working stress to failure stress
b) working load to failure load
c) impact load to static load
d) failure stress to working stress
4) Rankine’s theory is preferred to design for _____.
a) ductile materials b) composite materials
c) brittle materials d) any material
5) Maximum shear stress in a shaft subjected to torsional and bending
moments is given by _____.
a) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
b) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑏 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
c) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑡 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
d) 32/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
6) The width & height of a square key are usually taken as _____.
a) d b) d/6
c) d/8 d) d/4
7) The simplest type of couplings is _____.
a) clamp coupling b) muff coupling
c) flanged coupling d) flexible coupling
Page 1 of 24
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Set P
8) Wahl factor in spring design is given by _____.
a) 4C − 4 / (4C − 1) + 0.615 / C
b) 4C − 1 / (4C − 4) + 0.615 / C
c) 3C − 4 / (3C − 1) + 0.615 / C
d) 3C − 1 / (3C − 4) + 0.615 / C
9) For two springs connected in parallel, the combined stiffness is given by
_____.
a) k1 + k2 b) k1k2
c) k1k2 / (k1 + k2) d) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
10) Stress concentratin factor Kt with usual notations is given by,
a) 𝜎𝑚𝑎𝑥 /𝜎𝑚𝑖𝑛 b) 𝜎𝑜 /𝜎𝑚𝑎𝑥
c) 𝜎𝑚𝑖𝑛 /𝜎𝑚𝑎𝑥 d) 𝜎𝑚𝑎𝑥 /𝜎𝑜
11) Notch sensitivity q in terms of fatigue stress concentration factor Kf and
theoretical stress stress concentration factor Kt is given by _____.
a) (Kf - 1) / (Kt - 1) b) (Kt - 1) / (Kf - 1)
c) Kf / Kt d) Kt / Kf
12) The optimum velocity for Dunlop flat belts is approximately _____.
a) 5 m/s b) 18 m/s
c) 50 m/s d) 30 m/s
13) Throat of a weld t in terms of the leg length h is given by _____.
a) 1.414h b) 0.5h
c) 2h d) 0.707h
14) If the bolts are subjected to an eccentric load with the bolt axes
perpendicular to the plane of line of application of load, every bolt will be
subjected to _____.
a) primary & secondary shear forces
b) primary shear force & tensile force
c) primary shear force & compressive force
d) tensile force & secondary shear force
Page 2 of 24
SLR-HL-88
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.
2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
4) Assume additional suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
5) Draw the neat diagrams wherever required.
Section – I
Q.2 a) A cantilever beam made of cold drawn steel 20C8 (Sut = 540 N/mm2) is 08
subjected to a completely reversed load of 1 kN as shown in fig. (2 - a).
The notch sensitivity factor q at the fillet can be taken as 0.85. Take, Ka =
surface finish factor = 0.78, Kb = size factor = 0.85, Kc = reliability factor =
0.897, Kt = stress concentration factor = 1.35
Determine the diameter of the beam for a life of 10000 cycles.
b) Explain with a block diagram the basic procedure of design of a machine 06

element.
Q.3 a) Two rods, required to withstand a tensile force of 30 kN, are connected by 08
a knuckle joint. The rods and the pin are made of plain carbon steel 40C8
(Syt = 380 N/mm2). The factor of safety is 6.
Calculate,
i) The diameter of rods
ii) The diameter of the knuckle pin on the basis of bending failure.
Assume thickness of fork as 75 % of the rod diameter and thickness of
eye as 125 % of the rod diameter.
b) What do you mean by stress concentration? Explain the causes of stress 06
concentration in a component.
Page 3 of 24
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Q.4 a) It is required to select a flat belt drive for a compressor running at 720 rpm 08
driven by a 25 kW, 1440 rpm motor. The space is available for a centre
distance of 3 m. The belt is open type. Assume a belt velocity of 18 m/s.
The reference belt velocity may be taken as 5.08 m/s. Refer the data
provided for flat belts.
b) Discuss distortion energy theory of failure. State the important equations. 06
Section – II
Q.5 a) A transmission shaft is supported on two bearings 1m apart. Power is 08

supplied by a coupling located to the left of left hand bearing. Power is
transmitted from the shaft by means of a belt pulley, 250 mm diameter,
located at 300 mm from the left hand bearing. The mass of the pulley is
20 kg and the ratio of belt tensions on slack & tight sides is 2:1. The belt
tensions act vertically downward. The shaft is made of steel FeE300
(Syt = 300 N/mm2) and the factor of safety is 3. Determine the shaft
diameter if it transmits 10 kW power at 360 rpm.
b) An ISA (200 x 100 x 10) mm angle is welded to a steel plate by fillet welds 06
as shown in fig. (5-b). The angle is subjected to a static force of 150 kN
and the permissible shear stress for the weld is 70 N/mm2. Determine the
lengths of weld at the top and bottom.
Q.6 a) A helical compression spring made of a circular wire is subjected to an 08

axial force varying from 1000 N to 2000 N. Over this range of force, the
deflection should be approximately 5 mm. The spring idex is 5. The spring
is made of stell wire of Grade 1 (G = 81370 N/mm2). The constants A & m
are 1753 and 0.182 respectively. The permissible shear stress for the
spring wire is 50% of the ultimate tensile strength. Design for this spring
the following.
i) wire diameter
ii) mean coil diameter
iii) number of active coils
b) The standard cross section for a flat key fitted on a 50 mm diameter shaft 06
is (16 x 10) mm. The key is transmitting 475 N-m torque from the shaft to
the hub. The key is made of steel (Syt = Syc = 230 N /mm2). Determine the
length of the key if the factor of safety is 3.
Page 4 of 24
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Set P
Q.7 a) A wall bracket is attached to a wall by means of four identical bolts, two at 08
A and two at B as shown in fig. (7-a). Assuming that the bracket is held
against the wall and prevented from tipping about point C by all four bolts
and using an allowable tensile stress in the bolts as 35 N / mm 2, determine
the size of the bolts on the basis of maximum principal stress theory.
b) Determine the expression to calculate the combined stiffness for the two 06
helical springs connected in
i) series and
ii) parallel
Data for selection of Flat Belts
1) Preferred diameters (in mm) of cast iron and mild steel pulleys are as below.
100, 112, 125, 140, 160, 180, 200, 224, 250, 280, 315, 355, 400, 450, 500, 560,
630, 710, 800, 900, 1100
2) Table for Load Correction Factor (Fa):

Type of load Fa
i) Normal load 1.0
ii) Steady load e.g. centrifugal pumps, fans light 1.2
machine tools, conveyors
iii) International load e.g. heavy duty fans, blowers, 1.3
compressors, reciprocating pumps, line shaft,
heavy duty machines
iv) Shock load e.g. vacuum pumps, rolling mills, 1.5
hammers, grinders
3) Table for Arc of Contact Factor (Fa):

𝛼𝑠 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200
(Degrees)
𝐹𝑑 1.33 1.26 1.19 1.13 1.08 1.04 1.00 0.97 0.94
4) Power transmitting capacities of belts:

HI-SPEED: 0.0118 kW per mm width per ply
FORT: 0.0147 kW per mm width per ply
Page 5 of 24
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Set P
5) Table for standard widths of belts (in mm):
3-Ply 25 40 50 63 76
4-Ply 40 44 50 63 76 90 100 112 125 152
5-Ply 76 100 112 125 152
6-Ply 112 125 152 180 200
Page 6 of 24
SLR-HL-88
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 4C − 4 / (4C − 1) + 0.615 / C
b) 4C − 1 / (4C − 4) + 0.615 / C
c) 3C − 4 / (3C − 1) + 0.615 / C
d) 3C − 1 / (3C − 4) + 0.615 / C
_____.
a) k1 + k2 b) k1k2
c) k1k2 / (k1 + k2) d) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
a) (Kf - 1) / (Kt - 1) b) (Kt - 1) / (Kf - 1)
a) 5 m/s b) 18 m/s
c) 50 m/s d) 30 m/s
a) 1.414h b) 0.5h
c) 2h d) 0.707h
subjected to _____.
Page 7 of 24
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Set Q
a) σm = 0 b) σmin = 0
c) σmax = 0 d) σa = 0
a) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
b) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑏 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
c) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑡 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
d) 32/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
a) d b) d/6
c) d/8 d) d/4
Page 8 of 24
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
The notch sensitivity factor q at the fillet can be taken as 0.85. Take, K a =

element.
Calculate,
Page 9 of 24
SLR-HL-88
Set Q
Section – II


the following.
i) wire diameter
Page 10 of 24
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Set Q
i) series and
ii) parallel
100, 112, 125, 140, 160, 180, 200, 224, 250, 280, 315, 355, 400, 450, 500, 560,
630, 710, 800, 900, 1100

Type of load Fa
i) Normal load 1.0
heavy duty machines
hammers, grinders

𝛼𝑠 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200
(Degrees)
𝐹𝑑 1.33 1.26 1.19 1.13 1.08 1.04 1.00 0.97 0.94

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3-Ply 25 40 50 63 76
4-Ply 40 44 50 63 76 90 100 112 125 152
5-Ply 76 100 112 125 152
6-Ply 112 125 152 180 200
Page 12 of 24
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) (Kf - 1) / (Kt - 1) b) (Kt - 1) / (Kf - 1)
a) 5 m/s b) 18 m/s
c) 50 m/s d) 30 m/s
a) 1.414h b) 0.5h
c) 2h d) 0.707h
subjected to _____.
a) σm = 0 b) σmin = 0
c) σmax = 0 d) σa = 0
Page 13 of 24
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a) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
b) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑏 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
c) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑡 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
d) 32/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
a) d b) d/6
c) d/8 d) d/4
a) 4C − 4 / (4C − 1) + 0.615 / C
b) 4C − 1 / (4C − 4) + 0.615 / C
c) 3C − 4 / (3C − 1) + 0.615 / C
d) 3C − 1 / (3C − 4) + 0.615 / C
_____.
a) k1 + k2 b) k1k2
c) k1k2 / (k1 + k2) d) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
Page 14 of 24
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

element.
Calculate,
Page 15 of 24
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Set R
Section – II


the following.
i) wire diameter
Page 16 of 24
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Set R
i) series and
ii) Parallel
100, 112, 125, 140, 160, 180, 200, 224, 250, 280, 315, 355, 400, 450, 500, 560,
630, 710, 800, 900, 1100

Type of load Fa
i) Normal load 1.0
heavy duty machines
hammers, grinders

𝛼𝑠 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200
(Degrees)
𝐹𝑑 1.33 1.26 1.19 1.13 1.08 1.04 1.00 0.97 0.94

Page 17 of 24
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Set R
3-Ply 25 40 50 63 76
4-Ply 40 44 50 63 76 90 100 112 125 152
5-Ply 76 100 112 125 152
6-Ply 112 125 152 180 200
Page 18 of 24
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) d b) d/6
c) d/8 d) d/4
a) 4C − 4 / (4C − 1) + 0.615 / C
b) 4C − 1 / (4C − 4) + 0.615 / C
c) 3C − 4 / (3C − 1) + 0.615 / C
d) 3C − 1 / (3C − 4) + 0.615 / C
_____.
a) k1 + k2 b) k1k2
c) k1k2 / (k1 + k2) d) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
a) (Kf - 1) / (Kt - 1) b) (Kt - 1) / (Kf - 1)
a) 5 m/s b) 18 m/s
c) 50 m/s d) 30 m/s
a) 1.414h b) 0.5h
c) 2h d) 0.707h
Page 19 of 24
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Set S
subjected to _____.
a) σm = 0 b) σmin = 0
c) σmax = 0 d) σa = 0
a) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
b) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑏 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
c) 16/𝜋𝑑3 [𝑀𝑡 + {(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 }1/2 ]
d) 32/𝜋𝑑3 [(𝑀𝑏 )2 + (𝑀𝑡 )2 ]1/2
Page 20 of 24
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

element.
Calculate,
Page 21 of 24
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Set S
Section – II


the following.
i) wire diameter
Page 22 of 24
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Set S
i) series and
ii) Parallel
100, 112, 125, 140, 160, 180, 200, 224, 250, 280, 315, 355, 400, 450, 500, 560,
630, 710, 800, 900, 1100

Type of load Fa
i) Normal load 1.0
heavy duty machines
hammers, grinders

𝛼𝑠 120 130 140 150 160 170 180 190 200
(Degrees)
𝐹𝑑 1.33 1.26 1.19 1.13 1.08 1.04 1.00 0.97 0.94

Page 23 of 24
SLR-HL-88
Set S
3-Ply 25 40 50 63 76
4-Ply 40 44 50 63 76 90 100 112 125 152
5-Ply 76 100 112 125 152
6-Ply 112 125 152 180 200
Page 24 of 24
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
4) Assume suitable data if required.

1) NC machines used for drilling, boring, reaming, tapping is ______.
a) Contouring type b) Straight cut
c) Point to point d) None of the above
2) Windowing transformation means ______.
a) Window to viewport transformation
b) Geometric transformation
c) Vertices transformation
d) None of these
3) Miscellaneous function used for Coolant off is ______.
a) M 07 b) M 09
c) M 08 d) M 10
4) Concatenations can be done using _____.
a) Viewing coordinates b) Polar coordinate
c) Cylindrical coordinate d) Homogeneous coordinate
5) The preparatory function used for circular clockwise interpolation function
is _____.
a) G03 b) G02
c) G04 d) G01
6) In the following geometric modeling which is not 3D modeling?
a) Wireframe modeling b) Surface modeling
c) Drafting d) Solid Modeling
7) Retrieval type and generative type are the types of ______.
a) F.M.S. b) Group Technology
c) C.A.P.P. d) DNC
8) Which type of tool magazines are generally used to handle large number
of tools?
a) Drum type b) Chain type
c) Turret type d) Both a & b
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) The curve which is tangent at first and last segment of polygon is ______.
a) Bezier Curve b) Spline Curve
c) Hermite Curve d) None of the above
10) In numerical control systems, DNC stands for _____.
a) Dedicated Numerical Control b) Direct Numerical Control
c) Distributed Numerical Control d) b & c
11) Creation, analysis, modification and optimization is ______.
a) CIM b) CAD
c) CAM d) CAD/CAM
12) The machine zero on lathe is generally set on the machine at ______.
a) Top right side b) Top left side
c) At top mid position d) None of the above
13) CSG is a _____.
a) Wire frame modeling scheme b) Solid modeling scheme
c) Surface modeling scheme d) All the above
14) FANUC, CNUMERIC, SIEMENS are CNC ______.
a) Programming language b) Controllers
c) Machines d) None
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-89
Seat
No. Set P
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
4) Solve any TWO questions from Q. No. 2 to Q.No.4.
5) Question No 5 is Compulsory.
6) Solve any ONE question from Q. No.6 and Q.No.7.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain Product cycle with respect to CAD-CAM-CAE. 08

b) Enlist the schemes of solid modeling? Explain any one. 06
Q.3 a) What is meant by Geometrical transformations? Explain types of 08

Geometrical transformations with equation.
b) Enlist the different types of FE analysis. Explain any 02 types in detail. 06
Q.4 a) Translate a triangle with coordinates A (1,1), B (3,3) and C (4,1) by 5 units 08
in X-direction and 2 units in Y-direction.
b) Discuss the concept of Flexible Manufacturing System (FMS) with 06
industrial application and neat sketch.
Section – II
Q.5 a) For following component make a part program on CNC machine. 08

Work material: Mild steel, Tool materials: HSS,
Work size: Diameter 100mm and Length 80 mm.
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b) Enlist the different G and M codes with their meaning and explain any 01. 06
Q.6 a) Describe Automatic Tool Changer with neat sketch. 08

b) Explain types of DNC with neat sketch. 06
Q.7 a) Explain Tool length and cutter diameter compensation with example. 08
b) Explain types of NC System. 06
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

of tools?
a) CIM b) CAD
c) CAM d) CAD/CAM
6) CSG is a _____.
c) Machines d) None
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
d) None of these
a) M 07 b) M 09
c) M 08 d) M 10
is _____.
a) G03 b) G02
c) G04 d) G01
c) C.A.P.P. d) DNC
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-89
Seat
No. Set Q
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 7 of 16
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Set Q

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-89
Seat
No. Set R
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) CIM b) CAD
c) CAM d) CAD/CAM
3) CSG is a _____.
c) Machines d) None
d) None of these
a) M 07 b) M 09
c) M 08 d) M 10
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
is _____.
a) G03 b) G02
c) G04 d) G01
c) C.A.P.P. d) DNC
of tools?
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 11 of 16
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Set R

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-89
Seat
No. Set S
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

c) C.A.P.P. d) DNC
of tools?
a) CIM b) CAD
c) CAM d) CAD/CAM
8) CSG is a _____.
c) Machines d) None
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
d) None of these
a) M 07 b) M 09
c) M 08 d) M 10
is _____.
a) G03 b) G02
c) G04 d) G01
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CAD-CAM-CAE
Time: 10:00 PM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Page 15 of 16
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Set S

Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Semester -I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) How is cooling of the material done is normalising process?
a) Furnace b) Cooling tower
c) Still air d) Liquid chamber
2) Phase transformation during hardening transforms ______.
a) BCC to FCC b) FCC to BCT
c) BCT to HCP d) FCC to HCP
3) ______ is a eutectic mixture of 𝛼 iron and Fe3C..
a) Pearlite b) Martensite
c) Ledeburite d) Sorbite
4) Which reaction does this equation denote?
Liquid → Solid 2 + Solid 1
a) Eutectic b) Peritectic
c) Eutectoid d) Peritectoid
5) In which of the following test specimen is in the form of the simply
supported beam?
a) Izod test b) Rockwell hardness test
c) Charpy test d) Brinell test
6) What is the crystal structure of Y-Gamma iron?
a) Face-centered cubic b) Body-centered cubic
c) Hexagonal closely packed d) Body-centered tetrahedral
7) Which of the following compound is used for fine polishing as Levigating
Powder?
a) Iron oxide b) Nitric oxide
c) Silicon carbide d) Aluminum oxide
8) Permanent deformation of material with respect to time due to constant load
and variable temperature is termed as ______.
a) Elasticity b) Isotropy
c) Hardness d) Creep
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) Magnetic Particle Test can be done on ______.
a) Brass b) Plain Carbon Steel
c) Bronze d) Invar
10) For Annealing of hypereutectoid steels, they are heated in a range above ____.
a) 910+50 °C b) 273 + 50 °C
c) 551-770 °C d) 723 +50 °C
11) The eutectic point in the iron-iron carbide phase diagram occurs at
______ weight % composition of carbon.
a) 0.022 b) 0.77
c) 2.11 d) 4.3
12) Which of the following properties are determined by impact test?
a) Relative Toughness b) True Toughness
c) Elongation d) Ductility
13) Which of the following NDT is fast method of testing?
a) DPT b) MPT
c) Eddy Current d) UT
14) Which of the following components are manufactured by Powder
Metallurgy?
a) Carbide tool tip b) Piston
c) Cermets d) Ball Bearing Balls
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set P
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Both Section are compulsory.
2) Answer any two questions from Section I and Section II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram. Label all the constituents and 06
temperatures correctly.
b) Explain the following terms in brief: 04
1) Eutectic transformations
2) Curie Temperature
3) Alfa-Ferrite
4) Hypo Eutectoid Steel
c) Draw the microstructure of 0.4% C and 1.4% C Steel. 04
Q.3 a) Give typical composition, properties and application of any 5 of the 10

following.
1) HSLA
2) Naval Brass
3) HSS
4) Invar
5) Babbitt
6) Tool Steel
7) OHNS
b) Compare between Brasses and Bronzes. 04
Q.4 Write a note on any three of the following. 14

a) Gibbs Phase Rule
b) Grey Cast Iron
c) Classification of Metallic Materials
d) Critical Temperatures in Iron-iron Carbide diagram
e) Nano Materials
Section – II
Q.5 a) Draw T-T-T Diagram for eutectoid steel. 05

b) What are the characteristics Martensitic Transformation? 05
c) Explain different quenching media used in Heat Treatment. 04
Q.6 a) Compare between Annealing and Normalizing. 04

b) Explain with sketch the advantages and limitations of Eddy Current Test. 05
c) Discuss the manufacturing process of powder metallurgy product. 05
Page 3 of 16
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Q.7 a) Draw Stress strain curve for mild steel and cast. 04
b) Draw flow chart for manufacture of self-lubricating bearings. 04
c) Explain the process of tempering in details. 03
d) Compare between Charpy & Izod Impact Test. 03
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set Q
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) Bronze d) Invar
a) 910+50 °C b) 273 + 50 °C
c) 551-770 °C d) 723 +50 °C
a) 0.022 b) 0.77
c) 2.11 d) 4.3
a) DPT b) MPT
Metallurgy?
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
supported beam?
Powder?
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
3) Alfa-Ferrite

following.
1) HSLA
2) Naval Brass
3) HSS
4) Invar
5) Babbitt
6) Tool Steel
7) OHNS

a) Gibbs Phase Rule
b) Grey Cast Iron
e) Nano Materials
Section – II


Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set R
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 0.022 b) 0.77
c) 2.11 d) 4.3
a) DPT b) MPT
Metallurgy?
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Set R
supported beam?
Powder?
c) Bronze d) Invar
a) 910+50 °C b) 273 + 50 °C
c) 551-770 °C d) 723 +50 °C
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set R
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
3) Alfa-Ferrite

following.
1) HSLA
2) Naval Brass
3) HSS
4) Invar
5) Babbitt
6) Tool Steel
7) OHNS

a) Gibbs Phase Rule
b) Grey Cast Iron
e) Nano Materials
Section – II


Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Set R
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set S
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


Powder?
c) Bronze d) Invar
a) 910+50 °C b) 273 + 50 °C
c) 551-770 °C d) 723 +50 °C
a) 0.022 b) 0.77
c) 2.11 d) 4.3
a) DPT b) MPT
Page 13 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Set S
Metallurgy?
supported beam?
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Seat
No. Set S
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
3) Alfa-Ferrite

following.
1) HSLA
2) Naval Brass
3) HSS
4) Invar
5) Babbitt
6) Tool Steel
7) OHNS

a) Gibbs Phase Rule
b) Grey Cast Iron
e) Nano Materials
Section – II


Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-90
Set S
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set P
Industrial Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which type of layout is used in automobile industry?
a) Product b) Process
c) Fixed d) Group
2) One TMU = _____ minutes.
a) 0.001 b) 0.006
c) 0.0006 d) 0.0001
3) Basic time + Allowances = _______.
a) Normal time b) Standard time
c) Observed time d) Watch time
4) Average rating of a worker during time study is _____.
a) 50% b) 200%
c) 110% d) 100%
5) In method study, critical examination is done through _____.
a) Work sampling technique b) Stop watch technique
c) Questioning technique d) Multiple activity chart
6) Merit Rating is used for _____.
a) Job analysis
b) Performance appraisal of the employees
c) Incentive scheme
d) Standard time calculation
7) Paired comparison method is a technique of _____.
a) Job evaluation b) Method study
c) Merit Rating d) Work sampling
8) The most frequently used components are arranged in _____.
a) Left side b) Right side
c) Central location d) Anywhere
9) Method study symbol indicate _____.
a) Storage b) Transportation
c) Inspection d) Delay
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
10) Only operation and inspection symbols are used in drawing ______.
a) Operation process chart b) Flow process chart
c) Multiple activity chart d) Travel chart
11) The quantitative information is one which concerns the ______.
a) value of some variable
b) rate of change
c) condition or status of system
d) presence or absence of some specific object
12) Fixed type layout is suitable for _____.
a) Textile industry b) Automobile industry
c) Sugar industry d) Ship industry
13) Productivity can be increased by _____.
a) Same production with increase in input
b) Same production with decrease in output
c) Increase in production without increase in input
d) Increase in input as compared to output
14) If Observed time is 10 min and performance rating is 150 then Normal time
is _____.
a) 10 min b) 15 min
c) 16.5 min d) 25 min
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) What is productivity? Discuss the factors affecting productivity. 07

b) Explain multiple activity chart. 07
Q.3 a) Define method study and explain the steps involved in method study. 07
b) Describe ergonomic consideration at workplace. 07
Q.4 a) Explain two handed process chart. 06

b) Write short notes 08
1) Anthropometry
2) Flow diagram and string diagram
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain various types of layout. 07

b) Explain various types of allowances. How to calculate the standard time? 07
Q.6 a) What is merit rating? List merit rating methods and explain any one in 07
detail.
b) Discuss the factors affecting plant location. 07
Q.7 a) Discuss work sampling method its need and procedure. 06

b) Write short note on (Any Two) 08
1) Principles and objectives of plant layout
2) Performance rating
3) Objectives of job evaluation and its procedure
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

b) rate of change
is _____.
a) 10 min b) 15 min
c) 16.5 min d) 25 min
c) Fixed d) Group
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) 0.001 b) 0.006
c) 0.0006 d) 0.0001
a) 50% b) 200%
c) 110% d) 100%
a) Job analysis
c) Incentive scheme
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


1) Anthropometry
Section – II

detail.

Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

b) rate of change
is _____.
a) 10 min b) 15 min
c) 16.5 min d) 25 min
c) Fixed d) Group
a) 0.001 b) 0.006
c) 0.0006 d) 0.0001
a) 50% b) 200%
c) 110% d) 100%
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Set R
a) Job analysis
c) Incentive scheme
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


1) Anthropometry
Section – II

detail.

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Job analysis
c) Incentive scheme
b) rate of change
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Set S
is _____.
a) 10 min b) 15 min
c) 16.5 min d) 25 min
c) Fixed d) Group
a) 0.001 b) 0.006
c) 0.0006 d) 0.0001
a) 50% b) 200%
c) 110% d) 100%
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-91
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


1) Anthropometry
Section – II

detail.

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-93
Seat
No. Set P
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) _____ is defined as the time interval between the two successive grinds.
a) Machinability b) Tool Wear
c) Tool Life d) Machinability Index
2) Flank wear occurs mainly on the _____.
a) nose part of the cutting tool
b) front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
c) face of cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
d) both (a) and (b)
3) Angle between the rake face and plane perpendicular to rake face is
known as: _____.
a) Side rake angle b) Side relief angle
c) End relief angle d) Back rake angle
4) Which of the following will give better chip flow?
a) Negative back rake angle tool b) Zero back rake angle tool
c) Positive back rake angle tool d) None of the mentioned
5) The function of stripper is _____.
a) To strip of the material from the punch
b) Remove material from the punch
c) fixed the strip and punch
6) In press tool Cutting Force is calculated by _____ where, σsh =shear strength.
a) (Pxt)/σsh b) P x t x σsh
∗
c) P/(t σsh) d) (P x σsh)/t
7) Which of the following forming processes is suitable for making utensils
and cup shaped objects?
a) Forging b) Deep drawing
c) Rolling d) Wire drawing
Page 1 of 20
SLR-HL-93
Set P
8) The most common material for multipoint cutting tool is _____.
a) Mild steel b) HSS
c) Stainless Steel d) None of these
9) Chip thickness ratio is the ratio of _____.
a) (chip thickness after cut + before cut)/100
b) chip thickness after cut to before cut
c) chip thickness before cut after cut
d) (chip thickness after cut - before cut)/100
10) In an ASA system its tool signature is 8-15-6-7-10-10-3, the tool relief
angle is _____.
a) 8 b) 15
c) 6 d) 7
11) The use of jigs and fixtures _____.
a) Facilitates deployment of less skilled labor for production
b) Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying
out etc.
c) reduced manual handling operations
d) All of the above
12) The relationship between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) m/min is given
as _____.
a) V n T = C b) VT n = C
c) V n /T = C d) T n /V = C
13) Instrument which is used for measurement of cutting force in metal
cutting ______.
a) Dynamometers b) Merchants circle
c) Lee & shaffers theory d) Speedometer
14) Draw ratio/Limiting draw ratio is represented as _____.
a) (D − d)/d b) D/d
2 2
c) (D − d )/d 2 d) H/d
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No. Set P
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
2) Attempt any two question out of Q.No.3,4, and 5 from Section I
3) Attempt any two question out of Q.No.7,8, and 9 from section II
4) Make suitable assumptions, if required and state them clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Design press tool for the component shown in Fig. No. I and calculate the 14
following and draw one sectional view of press tool.
1) Cutting force
2) Total clearance
3) Strip layout
4) Die thickness
OR
b) Design a draw tool for given component Fig-II also calculate the following 14
(draw2 one sectional view of assembly)
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
6) Die and punch clearance
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Q.3 a) The tool life equation for HSS tool is VT 0.14 f 0.7 d0.4 = Constant. The tool life 04
(T) of 30 min is obtained using the following cutting conditions: V=45m/min,
f=0.35 mm, d=2.0 mm. If speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (d) are
increased individually by 25% find the tool life (in min).
b) What do you mean by Machinability and its index? 03
Q.4 a) In orthogonal turning of a cylindrical tube of wall thickness 5 mm, the axial 04
and the tangential cutting forces were measured as 1259 N and 1601 N,
respectively. The measured chip thickness after machining was found to
be 0.3 mm. The rake angle was 10° and the axial feed was 100 mm/min.
the rotational speed of the spindle was 1000 rpm. Find the shear strength
of the material.
b) Differentiate between orthogonal and oblique cutting. 03
Q.5 Write a short note (Any Two). 07

a) Cutting Fluids
b) Types of chips
c) Press operations
d) Tool life
Section - II
Q.6 a) Design and draw a drilling jig for component shown in Fig-I below. Hole 14
size ∅10mm × 2 holes draw one sectional view.
OR
b) Design and draw a milling fixture for component shown in above Fig-I for
milling slot 20x10 draw one sectional view.
Q.7 a) Explain in brief about Economic order quantity for batch production. 04
b) Explain break even analysis for equipment selection. 03
Q.8 a) Describe the nomenclature and geometry of single point cutting tool as per 04
ASA system.
b) Explain 3-2-1 Principle. 03
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Q.9 Write short notes on following (any two): 07
a) Box type Jig
b) Fool proofing
c) Effect on tool geometry on tool life
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Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

angle is _____.
a) 8 b) 15
c) 6 d) 7
out etc.
d) All of the above
as _____.
c) V n /T = C d) T n /V = C
cutting ______.
a) (D − d)/d b) D/d
2 2
c) (D − d )/d 2 d) H/d
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d) both (a) and (b)
known as: _____.
∗
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No. Set Q
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Section – I
1) Cutting force
2) Total clearance
3) Strip layout
4) Die thickness
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
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of the material.

a) Cutting Fluids
b) Types of chips
c) Press operations
d) Tool life
Section - II
OR
ASA system.
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a) Box type Jig
b) Fool proofing
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Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

out etc.
d) All of the above
as _____.
c) V n /T = C d) T n /V = C
cutting ______.
a) (D − d)/d b) D/d
c) (D2 − d2 )/d2 d) H/d
d) both (a) and (b)
known as: _____.
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c) P/(t ∗ σsh) d) (P x σsh)/t
angle is _____.
a) 8 b) 15
c) 6 d) 7
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No. Set R
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Section – I
1) Cutting force
2) Total clearance
3) Strip layout
4) Die thickness
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
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of the material.

a) Cutting Fluids
b) Types of chips
c) Press operations
d) Tool life
Section - II
OR
ASA system.
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a) Box type Jig
b) Fool proofing
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No. Set S
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

∗
angle is _____.
a) 8 b) 15
c) 6 d) 7
out etc.
d) All of the above
as _____.
c) V n /T = C d) T n /V = C
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cutting ______.
a) (D − d)/d b) D/d
2 2
c) (D − d )/d 2 d) H/d
d) both (a) and (b)
known as: _____.
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No. Set S
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Section – I
1) Cutting force
2) Total clearance
3) Strip layout
4) Die thickness
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
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of the material.

a) Cutting Fluids
b) Types of chips
c) Press operations
d) Tool life
Section - II
OR
ASA system.
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a) Box type Jig
b) Fool proofing
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No. Set P
Industrial Hydraulics & Pneumatics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Telescopic cylinders have _____.
a) Only two stage units b) Only three stage units
c) Multistage units d) All of the above
2) Why are hydraulic cylinders cushioned?
a) Cushioning decelerates the piston of a cylinder
b) Stress and vibrations can be increased
c) Both a and b
3) When the angle of swash plate decreases ______.
a) Flow rate increases
b) Flow rate decreases
c) Flow rate does not depend on swash plate angle
4) Which stage in two stage direction control valve is solenoid operated?
a) Main stage direction control valve
b) Pilot stage direction control valve
c) Both stages in two stage direction control are solenoid operated
5) Hydraulic accumulator is used for _____.
a) Accumulating oil
b) Supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
c) Generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
d) Supplying energy when main supply fails
6) In Bleed-off circuit rate of flow of oil is controlled ______.
a) In the bypass line leading towards the tank
b) At inlet of the actuator
c) At outlet of the actuator
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7) In counter balancing circuit holding pressure is used to ______.
a) To prevent falling of the load while descending
b) To allow falling of the load while descending
c) To prevent raising of the load while ascending
d) All of the above
8) The regenerative circuit of a double - acting cylinder is used _____.
a) To increase the out-stroke speed of piston
b) To decrease the out-stroke speed of piston
c) To increase the inward stroke speed of piston
d) Both b & c
9) A pneumatic symbol is: ______.
a) Different from a hydraulic part used for the same function
b) The same as a hydraulic part used for the same function
c) Not to be compared to a hydraulic part used for the same function
d) All of above
10) How is reverse flow possible in pilot operated check valve?
a) Spring force lifts the ball due to which reverse flow is possible
b) Fluid pressure lifts the ball due to which reverse flow is possible
c) Both a and b
11) Mostly Service unit (FRL) is _____.
a) At outlet of compressor b) At inlet of the compressor
c) Both a and b d) All of the above
12) A pressure relief valve can be ______.
a) Direct operated b) Pilot operated
c) Solenoid operated d) All the above
13) Time delay valve is _____.
a) Pneumatic Pressure Control Valve
b) Pneumatic Direction Control Valve
c) Pneumatic Flow Control Valve
d) Hydraulic Pressure Control Valve
14) Why the pilot operated check valve used in clamping operation?
a) To reduce leakage in spool valve
b) To avoid decrease in pressure during clamping
c) Both a and b
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any Four of the Followings. 16

a) Discuss the simple hydraulic system and write its applications.
b) Explain with neat sketch construction and working of gear pump.
c) State different types of accumulators. Explain gas loaded accumulator.
d) Explain with neat sketch working of 4/2 direction control valve.
e) Differentiate between meter in and meter out circuit.
Q.3 Solve any two of the followings. 12

a) State different types of actuators. Explain in detail the telescopic cylinder.
b) Explain construction and working of pilot operated pressure relief valve.
c) Explain the hydraulic circuit for sequencing of two linear actuators.
Section – II

a) State types of rotary actuators. Explain in detail vane motor.
b) Write short note on air lubricator in FRL unit.
c) How air compressor are classified. Discuss its selection criteria.
d) Sketch and explain working of time delay valve with its symbol.
e) Explain pneumatic braking system in automobiles.

a) Discus the working of quick exhaust valve with its application.
b) Write short note on pneumatic power tools.
c) Explain with neat sketch clamping circuit in pneumatics.
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carry one mark.
same page.

d) Both b & c
d) All of above
c) Both a and b
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c) Both a and b
c) Both a and b
a) Accumulating oil
d) All of the above
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Section – I


Section – II


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same page.

c) Both a and b
c) Both a and b
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a) Accumulating oil
d) All of the above
d) Both b & c
d) All of above
c) Both a and b
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) All of the above
d) Both b & c
d) All of above
c) Both a and b
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c) Both a and b
c) Both a and b
a) Accumulating oil
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Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) An image which contains about 256 different intensity levels between
black and white is a _____ image.
a) Color b) Binary
c) Grayscale d) Monochrome
2) The two most commonly used image sensors in modern cameras are
a) CCD and CDI b) CCD and CMOS
c) CMOS and CDI d) RGB and HSV
3) Zero crossing of gradient represents location of corner in an image.
a) True b) False
4) Silhouette is obtained with back light source.
a) True b) False
5) Which of the following operation involves plotting an image histogram?
a) Corner detection b) Thresholding
c) Region growing d) None of the above
6) The process in which small part of image is compared with large image
and located in large image, is called
a) pattern recognition b) template matching
c) region growing d) split and merge technique
7) If path traced by end effector of robot arm is complex and continuous,
then robot programming should be done by following approach
a) manual leadthrouh
b) powered leadthrouh
c) textual programming method
8) In the context of camera, the term CMOS stands for
a) Camera Multiple Operating System
b) Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
c) Closed Circuit Operating System
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9) Charge to voltage converter for Individual pixel is employed in
a) CCD camera b) CMOS camera
c) Vidicon Camera d) None of the above
10) Bin picking application of robot involves
a) Identification and Servoing b) Identification and inspection
c) Inspection and Servoing d) None of the above
11) Seam tracking in continuous arc welding is an example of

a) Visual servoing and navigation
b) Inspection
c) Identification
d) Inspection and identification
12) The application in which the purpose of machine vision system is to
recognize and classify an object is called
a) Inspection
b) Identification
c) Visual servoing and navigation
13) The process of _____ is a technique which relates the location of pixels in
the image array to the points in the scene.
a) Camera calibration b) Camera orientation
c) Camera adaptation d) Camera adjustment
14) The acronym AGV stands for
a) Automatic Guided Vehicle b) Automated Guided Vehicle
c) Automated Gliding Vehicle d) Automatic Gliding Vehicle
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No. Set P
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from Section I and Section II
4) Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
Section – I
Q.2 a) With block diagram of Machine Vision system, state the objective of 07
machine vision system.
b) Explain with neat sketch successive approximation type AD converter. 07
Q.3 a) Define an edge in an image and explain the process of edge detection. 07
b) Discuss in detail image thresholding. 07
Q.4 a) Determine the area, minimum aspect ratio, the diameter, perimeter, 10
centroid and thinness measures of the image.
b) Why do we need image processing? Explain 04
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain the working of Moravec corner detector. 07
b) Draw neat sketch of CCD image sensor and explain its working. 07
Q.6 a) Discuss in detail about split and merge technique and region growing 08
approach of segmentation.
b) Explain in brief manual leadthrough and powered leadthrough robot 06
programming methods.
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Q.7 Write a short note on (Any Three) 14
a) Inspection application of machine vision in robotics.
b) Visual servoing and navigation application of machine vision in robotics.
c) Template matching
d) Sampling and quantization
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No. Set Q
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM



b) Inspection
c) Identification
a) Inspection
b) Identification
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a) Color b) Binary
a) True b) False
a) True b) False
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No. Set Q
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
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No. Set R
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


b) Inspection
c) Identification
a) Inspection
b) Identification
a) Color b) Binary
a) True b) False
a) True b) False
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Seat
No. Set R
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
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No. Set S
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM



b) Inspection
c) Identification
a) Inspection
b) Identification
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a) Color b) Binary
a) True b) False
a) True b) False
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No. Set S
Machine Vision
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II
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No. Set P
3D Printing Material
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which of the following is typically the most expensive type of 3D printer?
a) SLA b) SLM
c) FDM d) None of the above
2) What printer melts metal?
a) SLS b) SLM
c) SLA d) FDM
3) SLA printer’s package material is in a ______.
a) Chain b) Spool
c) Cartridge d) None of the above
4) What material is not used in 3D printing?
a) Nylon b) ABS
c) PLA d) PVC
5) Which file type is most commonly exported from CAD software?
a) SLDRT b) JPG
c) STL d) X3G
6) Process of forming metal powder by directing molten metal through an
orifice after which it is break into small particle using high pressure fluid is
known as?
a) Atomization b) Reduction
c) Crushing d) Electrolysis
7) In Fused Deposition Modelling, the raw material is used in the form of __.
a) Wax b) Wire
c) Powder d) All the above mentioned
8) In the process of Selective Laser Sintering, raw material used is in the form
of ______.
a) Machining Wax b) Foam Core
c) Powder d) Rubber
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9) What is the first step in the design process?
a) Make a prototype b) Identify the problem or the need
c) Market your idea d) Test and retest
10) Choose the correct sequence to generate prototype.
a) 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - STL file - RP prototype
b) CAD solid model - 3D CAD data - RP prototype - STL file
c) STL file - 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - RP prototype
d) 3D CAD data - STL file - CAD solid model - RP prototype
11) From following, the alternative name for Rapid Prototyping is ______.
a) Additive Manufacturing b) Layer Manufacturing
c) Direct CAD Manufacturing d) All of the above
12) Process of converting STL file model in to layers is called ______ in RP.
a) chopping b) slicing
c) cutting d) trimming
13) Full form of STL is ______.
a) Straight-lithography b) Streto-lithography
c) Stereo-lithography d) Straight-lipsography
14) In the ______ process, one starts with a single block of solid material
larger than the final size of the desired object and material is removed
until the desired shape is reached.
a) Subtractive process b) Additive process
c) Formative process d) All of the above
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Q.2 Discuss in detail the steps in 3D Printing. 10
Q.3 Enlist the different Composite materials used in 3D Printing? Illustrate in detail 09
types of Composite materials with their characteristics and applications.
Q.4 Compare Conventional Manufacturing Vs Additive Manufacturing. 09
Q.5 Enlist different metal and alloy materials used in 3D Printer. Explain in detail 09
applications and characteristics of any 03 metal and alloy materials.
Section – II
Q.6 Discuss various forms of raw material used in 3D Printing. 10
Q.7 Enlist the different techniques to generate the powder. And explain with neat 09
sketch Gas Atomization process.
Q.8 Describe different application of 3D printing in the field of Medical, Aerospace 09

and Automobile in detail.
Q.9 What is meant by Performance Requirements in 3D printing? Discuss the 09

significance of Performance Requirements to Material Requirements in 3D
printing with example.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

of ______.
c) Powder d) Rubber
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a) SLA b) SLM
a) SLS b) SLM
c) SLA d) FDM
a) Chain b) Spool
a) Nylon b) ABS
c) PLA d) PVC
a) SLDRT b) JPG
c) STL d) X3G
known as?
a) Wax b) Wire
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Section – II


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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) SLA b) SLM
a) SLS b) SLM
c) SLA d) FDM
a) Chain b) Spool
a) Nylon b) ABS
c) PLA d) PVC
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a) SLDRT b) JPG
c) STL d) X3G
known as?
a) Wax b) Wire
of ______.
c) Powder d) Rubber
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Section – II


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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

known as?
a) Wax b) Wire
of ______.
c) Powder d) Rubber
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Set S
a) SLA b) SLM
a) SLS b) SLM
c) SLA d) FDM
a) Chain b) Spool
a) Nylon b) ABS
c) PLA d) PVC
a) SLDRT b) JPG
c) STL d) X3G
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from the remaining.
from the remaining.
Section – I
Section – II


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No. Set P
Energy Conservation, Audit and Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Transfer of heat without a conveying medium is possible with ______.
a) Conduction b) Radiation
c) Convection d) None of the above
2) Fossile fuels are ______.
a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Renewable source of energy
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) and b)
3) World oil reserves are estimated to last over ______.
a) 45 years b) 60 years
c) 200 years d) 75 years
4) Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called as ______.
a) Energy Ratio b) Energy intensity
c) Per capita consumption d) None of the above
5) What is energy Science?
a) Study of Energy
b) Study of energy conversion
c) Study of energy and its conversion in other forms
d) Study of energy generation
6) Acid rain is caused by the release of the following components from
combustion of fuels.
a) SOx and NOx b) Sox and CO2
c) CO2 and NOx d) H2O
7) Energy manager should be well versed with ______.
a) Manufacturing and processing skills
b) Managerial and technical skills
c) Technical and marketing skills
d) Managerial and commercial skills
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8) Which of the following is a good medium for constant temperature heating?
a) Water b) Steam
c) Coolant d) Diesel
9) The effectiveness of a heat exchanger depends on ______.
a) Specific heat of hot fluid b) Specific heat of cold fluid
c) Inlet temperature of hot fluid d) LMTD
10) Energy management is a key component of ______.
a) Environmental management b) Carbon management
c) Nitrogen management d) Water management
11) The Act which has been enacted to provide for efficient use of energy and
its conservation and for matters connected therewith is?
a) Indian Electricity Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2001
c) Indian Electricity Act 2010 d) Energy Conservation Act 2007
12) Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the
sources of renewable energy?
a) Solar energy b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy d) Hydro-electrical energy
13) ______ is called as the bio gas.
a) Bio ethanol b) Bio methane
c) Bio diesel d) Bio butane
14) Energy recovery is typically via production of ______.
a) Gas b) Heat
c) Light d) Steam
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What are the various types of energies? Explain each type in brief. 07
b) Explain Current energy scenario in India. 07
Q.3 a) Explain detailed Energy Audit with its steps. 07

b) Explain different instruments and equipments used for energy audit. 07
Q.4 Answer the following questions. (Any four) 14

a) Merits and demerits of Energy Management
b) Describe Energy and Environment.
c) Importance Energy Audit in Indian Industry
d) Explain Energy Policy Planning.
e) Four Principles of Energy Management
Section – II
Q.5 a) Describe energy conservation opportunity HVAC system. 07

b) Explain Energy performance assessment and efficiency improvement of 07
Furnace.
Q.6 a) Explain Different Financial Analysis Techniques. 07

b) What are the direct and indirect benefits of waste heat recovery? 07

a) Concept of Waste heat recovery
b) NPV (Net Present Value) with formula
c) Energy conservation opportunity in Cooling Tower
d) Energy performance assessment and efficiency improvement of Boiler
e) Simple Payback Period
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Water b) Steam
a) Gas b) Heat
c) Light d) Steam
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c) Both a) and b)
a) Study of Energy
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Furnace.


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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Gas b) Heat
c) Light d) Steam
c) Both a) and b)
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Set R
a) Study of Energy
a) Water b) Steam
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Furnace.


Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-98
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Water b) Steam
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-98
Set S
a) Gas b) Heat
c) Light d) Steam
c) Both a) and b)
a) Study of Energy
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-98
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

Furnace.


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Introduction to Electric and Hybrid Vehicles
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Full form of EV is ______.
a) Energy voltage b) Electric vehicles
c) Electric voltage d) Energy vehicles
2) Full form of ICV is ______.
a) Internal combustion vehicles b) Internet combustion vehicles
c) Internally combined vehicles d) Internet combined vehicles
3) What’s the difference between a plug-in hybrid and a battery electric
vehicle?
a) There is no difference
b) A plug-in hybrid only accepts AC power, while a battery electric
vehicle accepts AC and DC power
c) A plug-in hybrid can be powered by either the battery or the gasoline
engine. A pure electric vehicle is powered only by the battery
4) The performance of a vehicle is usually described by ______.
a) Its maximum cruising speed b) Grade-ability
c) Acceleration d) All of the above
5) Which of the following is NOT the type of Hybrid Vehicle?
a) Plug-in Hybrid b) Parallel Hybrid
c) Natural Gas for Vehicles d) Series Hybrid
6) The transmission requirements of a vehicle depend on the characteristics
of ______.
a) The power plant
b) The performance requirements of the vehicle
c) The power plant and the performance requirements of the vehicle
7) Which type of motor is widely used for electric vehicle?
a) Induction motor b) DC shunt motor
c) BLDC d) Series motor
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
8) Speed of D.C. shunt motors are controlled by ______.
a) Flux control method b) Rheostatic control method
c) Voltage control method d) All of these
9) In a series-switched hybrid ______.
a) Is the weakest engine in series with the wheels
b) The engines simultaneously drive the front and the rear axle
c) Is the strongest engine in series with the wheels
d) Goes the power through a succession of motors to the wheels
10) Electric Vehicles are generally powered by _____.
a) Aluminum batteries b) Lead-acid batteries
c) Sodium batteries d) Magnesium batteries
11) Full form of HVDC is ______.
a) High Voltage Direct Current
b) High Voltage Distribution Combination
c) High Value Direct Current
d) High Value Distribution Combination
12) Full form of EMU is ______.
a) Electronics Multiple Unit b) Electrical Multiple Unit
c) Electrical Multiple Usage d) Electrical Multiple User
13) The electric motor in a hybrid car can also act as: ______.
a) Cooling fan b) Fuel pump
c) Generator d) None of these
14) The value of area under acceleration-time graph is ______.
a) Velocity b) Displacement
c) Force d) Impulse
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any two questions from each section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Discuss the concept of Range Extender Battery. 07

b) Explain in short History of Electric Vehicles. 07
Q.3 a) Describe Electric Motor characteristics. 07

b) Discuss in detail strategy for battery cost reduction. 07
Q.4 a) Explain with neat sketch Series and Parallel hybrid electric drive. 07
b) Write a note on concept of hybrid electric drive. 07
Section – II
Q.5 a) Describe with neat sketch construction & working of AC Induction motor. 07
b) What is SRM Motor? State advantages & disadvantages of SRM Motors. 07
Q.6 a) What is Chopper? Discuss with neat sketch its working advantages & 07
limitations.
b) What is VFD? Discuss each section of VFD with neat sketch in detail. 07
Q.7 a) Define the following terms. 08

1) Energy efficiency
2) Idling
3) Deceleration
4) Regeneration Efficiency
b) What is Drive Cycle? Discuss any one case of drive cycle in detail. 06
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


c) Force d) Impulse
Page 4 of 12
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vehicle?
of ______.
a) The power plant
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II
limitations.

2) Idling
3) Deceleration
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


c) Force d) Impulse
vehicle?
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
of ______.
a) The power plant
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II
limitations.

2) Idling
3) Deceleration
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


of ______.
a) The power plant
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
c) Force d) Impulse
vehicle?
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II
limitations.

2) Idling
3) Deceleration
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
Page 1 of 12
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d) Store of value
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No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-100
Set S
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 12 of 12
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No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
10)
except _____.
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
Page 4 of 12
SLR-HL-101
Set Q
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-101
Set R
that are of _____
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-101
Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-101
Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-101
Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 1 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 2 of 8
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
Page 3 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 4 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
Page 5 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 6 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 7 of 8
SLR-HL-102
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 8 of 8
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-103
Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Happy b) Sad
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Set R
profession
d) All the above
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-104
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Machine Design – I
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries on mark.
Same page.
1) Hooke’s law holds good up to
a) breaking point b) yield point
c) elastic limit d) plastic limit
2) When a circular shaft is subjected to torque, the torsional shear stress is
a) directly proportional to the distance from the axis
b) inversely proportional to the distance from the axis
c) proportional to the square of the distance from the axis
d) constant throughout the cross-section
3) The neutral axis of a beam is
a) layer subjected to tensile stress
b) layer subjected to compressive stress
c) layer subjected to zero stress
4) Stress concentration occurs due to
a) abrupt change in cross-section
b) discontinuities in components
c) internal cracks and flaws
d) any one of the above
5) Cold working
a) increases fatigue strength
b) decreases fatigue strength
c) has no influence on fatigue strength
6) The designation M 36 x 2 means
a) metric fine threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
b) metric coarse threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
c) metric threads of 36 mm pitch diameter and 2 mm pitch
d) metric threads of 36 mm core diameter and 2 mm pitch
Page 1 of 20
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Set P
7) The weakest plane in a fillet weld is
a) the throat b) side parallel to the force
c) smaller of two sides d) side normal to the force
8) A rivet is specified by
a) shank diameter b) length of rivet
c) type of head d) material of rivet
9) A transmission shaft subjected to bending and torsional moments should
be designed on the basis of
a) Rankine theory
b) Coulomb, Tresca and Guest theory
c) Huber von Mises theory
d) Goodman or Soderberg diagrams
10) In case of sunk key,
a) the keyway is cut in the shaft only
b) the keyway is cut in the hub only
c) the keyway is cut in both the shaft and the hub
11) When the helical extension spring is subjected to axial tensile force, the
type of stress induced in the spring wire is,
a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) bending stress
d) torsional shear stress
12) Two springs of stiffness k1 and k2 are connected in series, the combined
stiffness of the connection is given by
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2
a) b)
𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 − 𝑘2
c) 𝑘1 + 𝐾2 𝑘1 + 𝑘2
d)
𝑘1 𝑘2
13) The stress is induced in the belt is,
a) tensile stress b) compressive stress
c) direct shear stress d) torsional shear stress
14) A V belt designated as B 4430 Lp has
a) 4430 mm as diameter of small pulley
b) 4430 mm as nominal pitch length
c) 4430 mm as diameter of large pulley
d) 4430 mm as center distance between pulleys
Page 2 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Answer any two questions from each section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain Design Procedure for Cotter joint. 07

b) Define Factor of safety. Explain factor affecting on selection of Factor of 04
safety and its physical significance.
c) Explain design procedure for machine element. 03
Q.3 a) A plate made of steel 20C8 (Sut = 440 N/mm2) in hot rolled and 08
normalized condition is shown in Fig. It is subjected to a completely
reversed axial load of 30 kN. The notch sensitivity factor q can be taken as
0.8 and the expected reliability is 90%. The size factor is 0.85. The factor
of safety is 2. Determine the plate thickness for infinite life. Take
Ka = 0.67, Kb = 0.85, For 90% reliability, Kc = 0.897, Kt = 2.51
c) Explain the Goodman and Soderberg diagram. 06
Q.4 a) A V-belt drive is required for a 15-k W, 1440 rpm electric motor, which 08
drives acentrifugal pump running at 360 rpm for a service of 24 hours per
day. From space considerations, the center distance should be
approximately 1m. Take d=200mm, Fa=1.2, Pr=6.36. Determine
(i) belt specifications
(ii) number of belts
(iii) correct center distance
(iv) pulley diameters
(Refer the standard table given at the end of question paper)
b) Differentiate between Flat Belt Drive and V-Belt Drive. 06
Page 3 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set P
Section – II
Q.5 a) The standard cross-section for a flat key, which is fitted on a 50 mm 07
diameter shaft, is 16 x 10 mm. The key is transmitting 475 N-m torque from
the shaft to the hub. The key is made of commercial steel (Syt = Syc = 230
N/mm2). Determine the length of the key, if the factor of safety is 3.
b) Differentiate between Rigid Coupling and Flexible Coupling. 04
c) Explain ASME code used for shaft design. 03
Q.6 a) Explain series and parallel springs for finding the Stiffness of Spring. 06
b) It is required to design a helical compression spring subjected to a 08
maximum force of 1250 N. the deflection of the spring corresponding to the
maximum force should be approximately 30 mm. The spring index can be
taken as 6. The spring is made of patented and cold-drawn steel wire. The
ultimate tensile strength and modulus of rigidity of the spring material are
1090 and 81370 N/mm2 respectively. The permissible shear stress for the
spring wire should be taken as 50% of the ultimate tensile strength.
Consider the spring has square and ground end. Design the spring and
calculate:
i) Wire diameter
ii) Mean coil diameter
iii) Number of active coils
iv) Total number of coils
v) Free length of the spring
vi) Pitch of the coil
Q.7 a) Derive the equation for Strength of butt welds. 04

b) An electric motor weighing 10 kN is lifted by means of an eye bolt as 04
shown in Fig. The eye bolt is screwed into the frame of the motor. The eye
bolt has coarse threads. It is made of plain carbon steel 30C8
(Syt = 400 N/mm2) and the factor of safety is 6. Determine the size of the
bolt.
c) A plant, 75mm wide and 10mm thick, is joined with another steel plate by 06
mean of single transverse and double parallel fillet welds, as shown in Fig.
the joint is subjected to a maximum tensile force of 55 kN. The permissible
tensile and shear stresses in the weld material are 70 and 50 N/mm2
respectively. Determine the required length of each parallel fillet weld.
Consider 15 mm of length for starting and stopping of the weld run.
Page 4 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set P
Page 5 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries on mark.
Same page.
a) Rankine theory
a) tensile stress
c) bending stress
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2
a) b)
𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 − 𝑘2
c) 𝑘1 + 𝐾2 𝑘1 + 𝑘2
d)
𝑘1 𝑘2
Page 6 of 20
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Set Q
12) Cold working
Page 7 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Page 8 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set Q
Section – II
calculate:
i) Wire diameter

bolt.
Page 9 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set Q
Page 10 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries on mark.
Same page.
a) tensile stress
c) bending stress
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2
a) b)
𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 − 𝑘2
c) 𝑘1 + 𝐾2 𝑘1 + 𝑘2
d)
𝑘1 𝑘2

Page 11 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set R
9) Cold working
a) Rankine theory
Page 12 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Page 13 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set R
Section – II
calculate:
i) Wire diameter

bolt.
Page 14 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set R
Page 15 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carries on mark.
Same page.
a) Rankine theory
a) tensile stress
c) bending stress
Page 16 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set S
𝑘1 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2
a) b)
𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 − 𝑘2
c) 𝑘1 + 𝐾2 𝑘1 + 𝑘2
d)
𝑘1 𝑘2

14) Cold working
Page 17 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Page 18 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set S
Section – II
calculate:
i) Wire diameter

bolt.
Page 19 of 20
SLR-HL-105
Set S
Page 20 of 20
SLR-HL-106
Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which one of the following is an output device?
a) Scanner b) Keyboard
c) Drum plotter d) none of these
2) Which of the following is type of curve in geometric modeling?
a) Bezier b) Benazir
c) NURBS d) Both a) and c)
3) Reflection about X axis is
a) Y flips b) X flips
c) X-Y flips d) None of the above
4) If the no. of nodes increases,
a) Accuracy decreases b) Accuracy increases
c) Accuracy remains same d) None
5) In group technology, on part family is on collection of parts based on ___
a) Shape b) Size
c) Similar processing steps d) Any of these
6) ROBOT is example of
a) Programmable automation b) Flexible automation
c) Fixed automation d) All above
7) Stress analysis of spur gear can be conveniently done using software
a) Ansys b) Pro-E
c) Auto Cad d) Catia
8) The device used in NC machine tools to read a program on punched tape
is called as
a) Program scanner b) Program reader
c) Punched tape reader d) None of these
9) Adaptive control system reduces
a) Machining time b) Non-productive time
c) Power output d) None of these
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
10) The predefined sequence of movement of machine parts in CNC, stored
in MCU is called as
a) Machine cycles b) Operation cycles
c) Canned cycles d) None of these
11) The part of CNC machine tool where multiple tools are stored is called as
a) Tool magazine b) Spindle
c) Tool store d) Tool room
12) Miscellaneous command program stop in CNC is
a) M09 b) M10
c) M11 d) M00
13) G71 preparatory code is used for
a) Absolute presetting b) Absolute coordinate setting
c) Metric unit setting d) none of these
14) G03 code in part programming is used for
a) Linear movement b) Rapid movement
c) Interpolation clockwise d) Interpolation anticlockwise
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-106
Seat
No. Set P
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any two questions from each section i.e. Section I & Section II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain product cycle with CAD/CAM. 07

b) What is automation? Discuss its nature in today’s context in industry. 07
Q.3 a) Translate a triangle with coordinates A (3,5) B (3,8) and C (7,5) by 7 units 07
in x direction and 2 units in Y direction and then to be rotate it by 90
degree at point A. Show and explain Graphical Representation clearly.
b) General steps used in FEM and explain it in short. 07
Q.4 Solve any four of the following questions. 14

a) Group Technology
b) CAD/CAM Data Exchange
c) FEM
d) Bezier curve
e) Integration of CAD and CAM
Section – II
Q.5 a) Prepare a part program using G and M codes for stepped component 07
given below. The various details are:
Work material : Aluminum Tool Material : HSS
Work piece size : φ 30 x 80 Spindle speed : 200 rpm
Feed rate: 200 mm/min All dimensions are in mm
b) Differentiate between NC and CNC machine tools. 07
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Q.6 a) What is part programming? Explain the procedure associated with NC part 07
programming.
b) What is the concept of DNC? Discuss its advantages and limitations. 07
Q.7 Answer the following questions. (Any Four) 14

a) FMS
b) Pallets
c) Adaptive control
d) Enlist and explain any four M Codes
e) ATS
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

is called as
in MCU is called as
a) M09 b) M10
c) M11 d) M00
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a) Shape b) Size
a) Ansys b) Pro-E
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


a) Group Technology
c) FEM
d) Bezier curve
Section – II
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
programming.

a) FMS
b) Pallets
c) Adaptive control
e) ATS
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) M09 b) M10
c) M11 d) M00
a) Shape b) Size
Page 9 of 16
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a) Ansys b) Pro-E
is called as
in MCU is called as
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


a) Group Technology
c) FEM
d) Bezier curve
Section – II
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
programming.

a) FMS
b) Pallets
c) Adaptive control
e) ATS
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Ansys b) Pro-E
is called as
in MCU is called as
a) M09 b) M10
c) M11 d) M00
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) Shape b) Size
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
CAD-CAM & CAE
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


a) Group Technology
c) FEM
d) Bezier curve
Section – II
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
programming.

a) FMS
b) Pallets
c) Adaptive control
e) ATS
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech.) (Semester - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Which of the following methods of powder manufacture is regarded as
mechanical method of powder manufacture?
a) Reduction b) condensation
c) Milling d) none of these
2) Which of the following component is manufactured by powder metallurgy?
a) Ball bearing b) Clutch lever
c) Torch nozzle d) Tungsten filament
chemical process of powder manufacture?
4) Annealing Heat Treatment is used to______
a) get fine pearlite b) get coarse pearlite
c) get martensite d) get bainite
5) Martensite is having _____ crystal structure.
a) BCC b) FCC
c) BCT d) HCP
6) Retained Austenite can be completely removed by_____.
a) Sub zero treatment b) Annealing
c) Normalizing d) Martempering
7) The medium used in gas nitriding is_____
a) ammonia b) butane
c) propane d) none of these
8) Behavior of material under constant load with respect to time is determined
in ____ test.
a) Tensile test b) Fatigue test
c) creep test d) Hardness test
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9) True toughness of material can be measured by_____
a) Impact test b) Tensile test
c) Creep test d) Fatigue test
10) Al-Si alloys are given ____
a) Modification treatment b) Precipitation treatment
c) Malleabilizing treatment d) None
11) Pearlite is product of _____ transformation.
a) Monotectic b) Eutectoid
c) Eutectic d) Peritectic
12) Tin is having _____ structure.
a) BCC b) BCT
c) HCP d) FCC
13) Which of the following phases present in Fe-Fe3C diagram have FCC
structure?
a) Alpha ferrite b) Delta ferrite
c) Cementite d) Austenite
14) Which of the following steel contains tungsten as alloying element?
a) HSLA steel b) HSS
c) Water hardening steel d) None
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) Draw Fe-Fe3C equilibrium diagram. Label all the temperatures & 06
constituents.
b) With the help of above diagram, explain the slow cooling of 0.2% carbon 06
steel & draw the microstructure of this steel.
c) Explain (i) A1 temperature (ii) A3 temperature. 02
Q.3 a) Give typical composition, properties & applications of Any 5 of the following. 10
i) Hadfield Mn steel
ii) Ferritic Stainless steel
iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass
v) Free cutting steel
vi) Muntz metal
vii) Spring steel
b) Explain the modification treatment given to Al-Si system. 04
Q.4 Answer the following (Any 4) 14

a) Compare between Gray Cast Iron & White Cast Iron. 04
b) Explain why Copper is an essential constituent of Babbitts. 03
c) Draw neat sketch of Interstitial solid solution & Substitutional solid solution. 04
d) What are composites? What are their applications? 03
e) Explain the application of Lever arm principle. 03
Section – II
Q.5 a) Draw TTT diagram for eutectoid steel. 04

b) Compare Annealing & Normalizing 04
c) Explain the purposes of Tempering. 03
d) Enlist various quenching media & their characteristics. 03
Q.6 a) Explain the significance of Hardenability? Which factors improve 03

hardenability?
b) Compare between Brinell & Rockwell hardness Tests 04
c) Explain why OHNS steels are subjected to subzero treatment. 03
d) Draw the typical flow chart for manufacturing of self-lubricated bearing by 04
Powder metallurgy
Page 3 of 16
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Q.7 a) Discuss various methods of Powder manufacturing. 03
b) Explain X-ray radiography test with neat sketch. 04
c) Explain Eddy current test with neat sketch. 04
d) Write a note on Tensile testing 03
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


in ____ test.
a) BCC b) BCT
c) HCP d) FCC
structure?
Page 5 of 16
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a) BCC b) FCC
c) BCT d) HCP
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
constituents.
iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass
vi) Muntz metal
vii) Spring steel

Section – II


hardenability?
Powder metallurgy
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set R
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) BCC b) BCT
c) HCP d) FCC
structure?
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) BCC b) FCC
c) BCT d) HCP
in ____ test.
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-107
Seat
No. Set R
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
constituents.
iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass
vi) Muntz metal
vii) Spring steel

Section – II


hardenability?
Powder metallurgy
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


in ____ test.
a) BCC b) BCT
c) HCP d) FCC
structure?
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) BCC b) FCC
c) BCT d) HCP
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-107
Seat
No. Set S
Metallurgy
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
constituents.
iii) HSS
iv) Naval Brass
vi) Muntz metal
vii) Spring steel

Section – II


hardenability?
Powder metallurgy
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Seat
No. Set P
ss

Industrial Engineering and Operation Research
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Productivity is defined as _____.
a) Output b) Input
Input Output
c) Output × Input d) None of above
2) Gilberth contributed to _____.
a) Time study b) Motion study
c) Project study d) Value engg.
3) Method study symbol ∇ indicates _____.
a) Storage b) Inspection
c) Operation d) Delay
4) SIMO chart used in _____.
a) Time study b) Micromotion study
c) Memo-motion study d) Inventory control
5) Personal allowance for male worker is _____.
a) 5% b) 6%
c) 4% d) 8%
6) Job evaluation is _____.
a) Worth of jobs
b) Skill required by a worker
c) Job assessment
d) Relative value of job
7) Merit rating is the method of determining worth of _____
a) A job
b) An individual employee
c) A particular division in workshop
d) Machine
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8) Operations Research cannot give perfect _____ to problems.
a) Answers b) Solutions
c) Both A and B d) Decisions
9) A feasible solution to LPP _____
a) Must satisfy all constraints
b) Need not satisfy all constraints
c) Must be corner point of feasible region
d) Must optimize objective function
10) The northwest corner rule requires that we start allocating units to
shipping routes in the:
a) Lower right corner of the table
b) Upper right corner of the table
c) Highest costly cell of the table
d) Upper left-hand corner of the table
11) Which of the following is used to come up with a solution to the assignment
problem?
a) MODI method
b) Northwest corner method
c) Stepping-stone method
d) Hungarian method
12) An objective function is maximized when it is a _____ function.
a) Passive b) Profit
c) Cost d) None of the above
13) In a project network, the critical path _____.
a) May be the shortest path
b) Is the longest path
c) May be longest path
14) Network models help in project management for _____.
a) Planning b) Scheduling
c) Controlling d) All of above
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any Two Questions form Section I and II
4) Make suitable assumptions if required.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Define productivity and explain different factors affecting on productivity. 07
b) Explain basic procedure and steps in work study. 07
Q.3 a) What is meant by micromotion study and explain SIMO chart? 07
b) Explain with figure multiple activity chart. 07
Q.4 a) The observed time and performance rating of a time study is given below 07
Element 1 2 3 4 5
Observed time (min.) 0.2 0.08 0.6 0.12 0.10
Performance rating 85 80 90 85 80
Assume: Relax allowance 15%
Contingency allowance 2%
Calculate std. time/PC.
b) List the various methods of job evaluation and explain any one. 07
Section – II
Q.5 a) Write in brief on types of OR models. 07
b) Solve following LPP by Graphical Method. 07
Maximize 𝑍 = 8𝑥1 + 6𝑥2
s. t. 4𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 60
2𝑥1 + 4𝑥2 ≤ 48
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Q.6 a) Solve the following assignment problem for minimizing the total cost of 07
assigning workers to jobs.
Jobs
1 2 3 4 5
1 35 30 18 11 24
Workers
2 32 33 21 10 21
3 24 27 29 22 11
4 9 8 28 35 26
5 26 19 17 24 11
Page 3 of 16
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b) Solve the following transportation problem using LCM method to minimize 07
total cost.
Destination
D1 D2 D3 D4 ↓ Supply
S1 5 3 6 4 30
S2 3 4 7 8 15
S3 9 6 5 8 15
Demand → 10 25 18 7
Q.7 a) A certain project has the following data: 07
Activity Time in months

1-2 2
1-3 2
1-4 1
2-5 4
3-6 8
3-7 5
4-6 3
5-8 1
6-9 5
7-8 4
8-9 3
i) Construct the network
ii) Determine critical path and its duration
iii) Discuss the importance of float.
b) Compare PERT and CPM. 07
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

problem?
a) MODI method
d) Hungarian method
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) Output b) Input
Input Output
a) 5% b) 6%
c) 4% d) 8%
a) Worth of jobs
c) Job assessment
a) A job
d) Machine
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Element 1 2 3 4 5
Section – II
s. t. 4𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 60
2𝑥1 + 4𝑥2 ≤ 48
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Jobs
1 2 3 4 5
1 35 30 18 11 24
Workers
2 32 33 21 10 21
3 24 27 29 22 11
4 9 8 28 35 26
5 26 19 17 24 11
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
total cost.
Destination
S1 5 3 6 4 30
S2 3 4 7 8 15
S3 9 6 5 8 15
Demand → 10 25 18 7

1-2 2
1-3 2
1-4 1
2-5 4
3-6 8
3-7 5
4-6 3
5-8 1
6-9 5
7-8 4
8-9 3
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

problem?
a) MODI method
d) Hungarian method
a) Output b) Input
Input Output
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Set R
a) 5% b) 6%
c) 4% d) 8%
a) Worth of jobs
c) Job assessment
a) A job
d) Machine
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Element 1 2 3 4 5
Section – II
s. t. 4𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 60
2𝑥1 + 4𝑥2 ≤ 48
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Jobs
1 2 3 4 5
1 35 30 18 11 24
Workers
2 32 33 21 10 21
3 24 27 29 22 11
4 9 8 28 35 26
5 26 19 17 24 11
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
total cost.
Destination
S1 5 3 6 4 30
S2 3 4 7 8 15
S3 9 6 5 8 15
Demand → 10 25 18 7

1-2 2
1-3 2
1-4 1
2-5 4
3-6 8
3-7 5
4-6 3
5-8 1
6-9 5
7-8 4
8-9 3
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Worth of jobs
c) Job assessment
a) A job
d) Machine
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
problem?
a) MODI method
d) Hungarian method
a) Output b) Input
Input Output
a) 5% b) 6%
c) 4% d) 8%
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-108
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Element 1 2 3 4 5
Section – II
s. t. 4𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 ≤ 60
2𝑥1 + 4𝑥2 ≤ 48
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0
Jobs
1 2 3 4 5
1 35 30 18 11 24
Workers
2 32 33 21 10 21
3 24 27 29 22 11
4 9 8 28 35 26
5 26 19 17 24 11
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
total cost.
Destination
S1 5 3 6 4 30
S2 3 4 7 8 15
S3 9 6 5 8 15
Demand → 10 25 18 7

1-2 2
1-3 2
1-4 1
2-5 4
3-6 8
3-7 5
4-6 3
5-8 1
6-9 5
7-8 4
8-9 3
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
a) Linear motion b) Rotary motion
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
2) Metallic Seals are suitable for
a) Low pressure system
b) High pressure and temperature system
c) Extremely low temperature application
d) Dynamic application
3) When is a pressure reducing valve used?
a) It is used when higher pressure than system pressure is required
b) It is used when lower pressure than system pressure is required
c) When absolutely zero pressure is required
d) All the above
4) Which of the following gas is used in gas charged accumulator?
a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen d) All the above
5) In Bleed-off circuit rate of flow of oil is controlled
c) Both a. and b
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7) In counter balancing circuit holding pressure is used to
d) All of the above
8) The _______ converts the compressed air energy into mechanical energy
in the form of force and linear movement in one direction only.
a) Double-acting cylinder b) Piston cylinders
c) Single-acting cylinder d) Short-stroke cylinders
9) Where is an intercooler connected in a two stage compressor?
a) Intercooler is connected after the two stage compressor
b) Intercooler is connected between the two stages of the compressor
c) Intercooler is connected before the two stage compressor
10) Which of the following is a component used in air generation system?
a) Pressure switch b) Pressure gauge
c) Intercooler d) Drier
11) Check valve is a type of
a) Pressure reducing valve b) Pressure relief valve
c) Directional control valve d) None of the above
12) A pressure relief valve can be
13) Meter out circuit can be used for
a) Opposing load b) Running away load
c) Both a & b d) None of above
14) Time delay valve is
a) Pneumatic Flow Control Valve
b) Hydraulic Flow Control Valve
c) Pneumatic Pressure Control Valve
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Use of nonprogrammable calculator is allowed.
Section – I

a) Explain cylinder cushioning effect in hydraulic system.
b) Explain construction and working of vane type pump.
c) Explain with neat sketch hydraulic intensifier.
d) Explain with neat sketch working of 3/2 spool type direction control valve.
e) Explain hydraulic circuit for sequencing of two cylinder.

a) Define actuator. Explain with neat sketch and symbol tandem cylinder.
b) Explain construction and working of pressure compensated flow control
valve.
c) Explain in detail the regenerative circuit in hydraulic application.
Section – II
Q.4 Solve any Four of the Followings. (4*4 Marks= 16 Marks) 16

a) Explain with a sketch construction & working of the gear type motor.
b) Classify the air compressor. Explain selection criteria of compressor.
c) Write short note on quick exhaust valve.
d) Explain in detail 5/2 direction control valve in pneumatics with symbol.
e) Explain with neat sketch time delay circuit.

a) What is FRL unit? Explain with a neat sketch construction & working of air
lubricator.
b) Sketch and explain pilot operated pressure relief valve with symbol.
c) Explain with neat sketch pneumatic meter out circuit of speed control.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
d) All the above
c) Both a. and b
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


valve.
Section – II


lubricator.
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


d) All the above
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
c) Both a. and b
d) All of the above
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


valve.
Section – II


lubricator.
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) Both a. and b
d) All of the above
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Set S
\

d) All the above
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


valve.
Section – II


lubricator.
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B. Tech) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Non-Conventional Machining
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page

Q.1 Objective types of questions 14

1) Non-Traditional machining is recommended when we need the following
features?
a) Complex shapes b) High surface quality
c) Low-rigidity structures d) All of the mentioned
2) In mechanical machining, the material is removed by _____
a) Erosion b) Corrosion
c) Abrasion d) Vaporization
3) Which of the following process has the lowest rate of metal removal?
a) Electro discharge machining b) Electro-chemical machining
c) Abrasive jet machining d) Electron beam machining
4) Abrasive carrying liquid for the abrasive slurry in USM is
a) Water b) Heavy paraffin oil
c) Silicone oil d) Any oil
5) In Ultrasonic machining, the material is removed by
a) anodic dissolution b) thermal melting
c) abrasive action d) electrochemical oxidation
6) In EDM the metal removal is carried out by
a) fracture of work material due to impact of grains
b) electrolysis
c) melting and vaporization
7) In electrochemical machining, the metal is removed by
a) Dissolution in the electrolyte solution
b) Molecular transfer
c) Ionic bombardment
d) Ultraviolet rays
8) Chemical machining provides
a) Good surface finish b) High material removal rate
c) Uniform material removal d) None of them
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9) The main requirement of the property of the tool material in ECM is
a) High Thermal conductivity
b) Low thermal conductivity
c) Moderate electrical conductivity
d) Low electrical conductivity
10) Electrolyte’s electrical conductivity value increases due to
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Distribution of hydrogen gas bubbles
d) All of the above
11) During electrochemical grinding, the material is removed by
a) Mechanical abrasive action
b) Electrochemical dissolution
c) Both of them
d) None of them
12) The surface finish produced by Electro-chemical machining shows
a) Low corrosion resistance b) Low wear resistance
c) Low friction resistance d) Low fatigue strength
13) Which of the following is not a type of protective coating?
a) Metallic b) Non-metallic
c) Organic d) Inorganic
14) Electrochemically machined surfaces have
a) High residual stresses and improved fatigue strength
b) High residual stresses and reduced fatigue strength
c) Insignificant residual stresses and reduced fatigue strength
d) Insignificant residual stresses and improved fatigue strength
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume additional suitable data wherever necessary and
mention it clearly.
4) Figure to the right indicates lull marks.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Give classification of Non-Conventional Machining Processes 04

b) Compare Conventional machining processes and Non-Conventional
Machining Processes 05
c) Explain Abrasive Water Jet Machining. 05
Q.3 a) Explain the need for Non-Conventional Machining Processes . 05

b) Explain Abrasive Jet Machining. 05
c) Give applications of EDM 04
Q.4 a) Explain Electric Discharge Machining (EDM). 05

b) What is flushing? Explain different types with their advantages. 04
c) Compare Abrasive Water Jet Machining & Water Jet Machining 05
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain Chemical Machining. 05

b) Explain Photochemical Machining . 05
c) Explain Laser Beam machining (LBM). 04
Q.6 a) Explain Electro-Chemical Machining Processes . 05

b) Explain Plasma Arc machining (PAM). 05
c) Explain the Chemical and Physical vapor deposition process. 04
Q.7 a) Explain Ion Beam machining (IBM). 04

b) Give the applications of the coating process 05
c) Explain the Metallic coating process with advantages and limitations. 05
Page 3 of 12
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page


a) Temperature
b) Pressure
d) All of the above
c) Both of them
d) None of them
Page 4 of 12
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features?
b) electrolysis
d) Ultraviolet rays
Page 5 of 12
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
mention it clearly.
Section – I



Section – II



Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page


c) Both of them
d) None of them
features?
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
b) electrolysis
d) Ultraviolet rays
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
d) All of the above
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-111
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
mention it clearly.
Section – I



Section – II



Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-111
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page


b) electrolysis
d) Ultraviolet rays
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
d) All of the above
c) Both of them
d) None of them
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
features?
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
mention it clearly.
Section – I



Section – II



Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set P
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
Q.1 A) Choose the correct alternatives from the options. (Each question 06
carries one mark)
1) In an ASA system if tool signature is 8°-140-5°-6°-10°-16°-3° mm the Back
Rack angle is ______.
a) 16° b) 3°
c) 5° d) 8°
2) In metal cutting if the shear angle is Shorter the plane of shear will be
larger hence the required force will be ______.
a) Less b) More
c) Fixed d) Not predict
3) In press tool combination die is used for _______.
a) Two cutting operation
b) Two bending operation
c) One cutting and one forming operation
d) Both forming operation
4) In deep draw, drawing force is equal to _______.
a) dt 6y (D/d-C) b) d 6y (D/d-C)
c) dt (D/d-C) d) None of these
where d = shell dia, t = thickness, D = blank dia, 6y = yield strength,
c = constant
5) Fixture is normally used for ______.
a) Drilling and reaming b) Turning
c) Milling d) None of Above
6) No profit no loss occur at point ______.
a) EOQ b) Break even point
c) EOP d) None of Above
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
B) Attempt the following multiple choice correct answer type 08
questions. (Each question carry two marks)
7) For locating and clamping round job ______.
a) Box jig b) Only jig
c) Only fixture d) Indexing jig
8) In metal cutting while drawing merchant circle number of assumptions as
follows ______.
a) The cutting velocity remains constant
b) Continuous chip without built up edge
c) No constant cutting velocity
d) Continuous chip with built up edge
9) In Jig or fixture diamond pin locater is used when _______.
a) There is two already machined parallel holes in work piece
b) Two or more than two parallel holes in work piece
c) One hole is already machined in work piece
d) No hole is exist in the work piece
10) In press tool the main purpose of spring loaded stripper ______.
a) To hold the strip b) To guide the punch
c) Strip out the material d) Two cut the material
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
2) Solve any two questions from section - I (from Q. 3, 4 and 5) and
section – II (from Q. 7, 8 and 9).
Section – I
Q.2 a) Design a press tool for the component shown in fig-I giving following 14
details.
1) Cutting force
2) Clearance between punch and die
3) Stripping force and no of bolts and bolt size need for die clamping
Also draw one sectional view of assembly of press tool and part name.
OR
Q.2 b) Design a draw tool for given component Fig-II also calculate the following
(draw one sectional view of assembly).
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) Draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
Page 3 of 16
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Q.3 a) The following observations were made during on orthogonal cutting 04
operation.
1) rake angle - 20°
2) shear angle - 29.54°
3) cutting force - 300N
4) feed force - 120N
5) cutting velocity = 102 m/min
Determine
1) shear strain
2) work done in shear
b) Sketch and explain in brief about velocity relation in orthogonal cutting. 03
Q.4 a) Explain in brief about tool dynamometer. 03

b) List types of tool materials and explain in brief any two materials. 04
Q.5 Writes a short note on (any two) 07

a) Types of stripper in press tool
b) Types of chips
c) Type of coolant
Section – II
Q.6 a) Design drill jig for drilling die 25mm hole draw one view of sectional 14
assembly with parts name.
OR
b) Design milling fixture for milling 110 x 10 face draw one view of sectional 14
Q.7 a) Explain in brief about breakeven point. 04

b) Explain in brief about geometry of twist drill. 03
Q.8 a) With neat sketch explain in brief about any two indexing devices used in 04
jig or fixture.
b) List type of bush (drill bush) used in jig and explain in brief used of each 03
drill brush.
Q.9 Writes short notes on (any two) 07

a) 3-2-1 principle for jig & fixture
b) Effect of tool geometry on tool life
c) Locating and clamping devices used in fixture
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
carries one mark)
a) 16° b) 3°
c) 5° d) 8°
a) Less b) More
c = constant
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
follows ______.
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set Q
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.
1) Cutting force
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) Draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
operation.
Determine
1) shear strain


b) Types of chips
c) Type of coolant
Section – II
OR

jig or fixture.
drill brush.

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set R
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
carries one mark)
c = constant
a) 16° b) 3°
c) 5° d) 8°
a) Less b) More
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
follows ______.
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set R
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.
1) Cutting force
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) Draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
operation.
Determine
1) shear strain


b) Types of chips
c) Type of coolant
Section – II
OR

jig or fixture.
drill brush.

Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set S
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
carries one mark)
c = constant
a) 16° b) 3°
c) 5° d) 8°
a) Less b) More
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
follows ______.
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Seat
No. Set S
Tool Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
details.
1) Cutting force
OR
1) Blank size
2) No of draws
3) Draw ratio
4) Drawing force
5) Blank force
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-112
Set S
operation.
Determine
1) shear strain


b) Types of chips
c) Type of coolant
Section – II
OR

jig or fixture.
drill brush.

Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
d) Store of value
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No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 3 of 12
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No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 9 of 12
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No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 12 of 12
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No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
10)
except _____.
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 3 of 12
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No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
that are of _____
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-114
Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 1 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 2 of 8
SLR-HL-115
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
Page 3 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 4 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
Page 5 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 6 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
Page 7 of 8
SLR-HL-115
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 8 of 8
SLR-HL-116
Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-116
Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-116
Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-116
Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Happy b) Sad
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
profession
d) All the above
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-117
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
1) When the axes of two shafts are parallel, use _____.
a) crossed helical gears b) bevel
c) worm gears d) spur or helical gears
2) Which of the following type of gears are free from axial thrust?
a) Herringbone gears b) Bevel gears
c) Worm gears d) Helical gears
3) The initial contact in helical gears is _____.
a) point b) line
c) surface d) unpredictable
4) When two bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angle are used
to transmit power between shafts that are intersecting at right angle, they
are called,
a) spiral bevel gears b) Miter gears
c) straight bevel gears d) hypoid gears
5) When bevel gears are used to transmit power between shafts that are
intersecting at an angle greater than 90°, and if the pitch angle of one of
the gears is 90°, they are called,
a) spiral bevel gears b) crown gears
6) Worm gears are widely used when
a) velocity ratio is high
b) space is limited
c) axes of shafts are non-intersecting
d) all the three
7) The axial component of resultant force on worm wheel is equal to
a) tangential component on worm
b) radial component on worm
c) axial component on worm
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
8) A cylinder is considered as thin cylinder when the ratio of inner diameter
to the wall thickness is,
a) more than 15 b) less than 15
c) equal to 15 d) none of these criteria
9) The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on the basis of,
a) radial stress b) longitudinal stress
c) circumferential stress d) principal shear stress
10) The thickness of thick cylinder shell with open ends and made of ductile
material is determined by _______.
a) Lame's equation b) Clavarino's equation
c) Birnie’s equation d) Barlow’s equation
11) Autofrettage is,
a) a surface coating process of cylinders for corrosion resistance
b) a heat treatment process for cylinders to relieve residual stresses
c) a process of pre-stressing the cylinder to develop residual
compressive stress at the inner surface
d) a surface hardening process of cylinder to improve wear resistance
12) In radial bearings, the load acts
a) along the axis of rotation
b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation
c) parallel to the axis of rotation
d) a and c
13) Rolling contact bearings as compared to sliding contact bearings have
a) lower starting torque
b) require considerable axial space
c) generate less noise
d) costly
14) In case of full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bushing with the
journal is
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 360°
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) What are the various types of gear tooth failures? State their causes and 06
Remedies.
b) A pair of spur gears with 20° full-depth involute teeth consists of a 20 teeth 08
pinon meshing with a 41 teeth gear. The module is 3 mm while the face
width is 40 mm. The material for pinion as well as gear is steel with an
ultimate tensile strength of 600 N/mm2. The gears are heat treated to a
surface hardness of 400 BHN. The pinion rotates at 1450 rpm and the
service factor for the application is 1.75. Assume that velocity factor
accounts for the dynamic load and the factor of safety is 1.5.
Determine the rated power that the gears can transmit.
(Lewis form factor is 0.32 for 20 teeth)
Q.3 a) Derive the expression for virtual number of teeth for helical gears. 06
b) A pair of parallel helical gears consists of a 20 teeth pinion meshing with a 08
100 teeth gear. The pinion rotates at 720 rpm. The normal pressure angle
is 20°, while the helix angle is 25°. The face width is 40 mm and the normal
module is 4 mm. The pinion as well as the gear is made of steel 40C8
(Sut = 600 N/mm2) and heat treated to a surface hardness of 300 BHN.
The service factor and the factor of safety are 1.5 and 2 respectively.
Assume that the velocity factor accounts for the dynamic load and
calculate the power transmitting capacity of gears. (Y= 0 3475)
Q.4 a) Explain the following terms 06

i. Frequency distribution
ii. Probability distribution
iii. Normal curve
b) What is autofrettage? What are the methods of pre-stressing the cylinder? 04
c) The inner diameter of a cylindrical tank for liquefied gas is 250 mm. The
gas pressure is limited to 15 MPa. The tank is made of plain carbon steel 04
10C4 (Sut = 340 N/mm2 and m = 0.27) and the factor of safety is 5.
Calculate the cylinder wall thickness.
Page 3 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Set P
Section – II
Q.5 a) Draw neat sketch of bevel gear indicating its terminology 06

b) A pair of bevel gears, with 20° pressure angle, consists of a 20 teeth pinion 08
meshing with a 30 teeth gear. The module is 4 mm, while the face width is
20 mm. The material for the pinion and gear is steel 50C4 (Sut = 750
N/mm2). The gear teeth are lapped and ground (Class-3) and the surface
hardness is 400 BHN. The pinion rotates at 500 rpm and receives 2.5 kW
power from the electric motor. The starting torque of the motor is 150% of
the rated torque. Determine the factor of safety against bending failure and
against pitting failure. (Y= 0 33712)
Q.6 a) Explain power transmitting capacity of worm gears based on thermal 06

consideration.
b) 1 kW power at 720 rpm is supplied to the worm shaft. The number of starts 08
for threads of the worm is four with a 50 mm pitch-circle diameter. The
worm wheel has 30 teeth with 5 mm module. The normal pressure angle is
20°. Calculate the efficiency of the worm gear drive and the power lost in
friction.
Q.7 a) A single-row deep groove ball bearing is subjected to a radial force of 8 kN 06

and a thrust force of 3 kN. The values of X and Y factors are 0.56 and 1.5
respectively. The shaft rotates at 1200 rpm. The diameter of the shaft is 75
mm and Bearing No. 6315 (C =112 000 N) is selected for this application.
i) Estimate the life of this bearing, with 90% reliability.
ii) Estimate the reliability for 20 000 h life.
b) The following data is given for a 360° hydrodynamic bearing: 08
radial load = 3.2 kN, journal speed = 1490 rpm, Journal diameter = 50 mm,
bearing length = 50 mm, radial clearance = 0.05 mm,
viscosity of lubricant = 25 cP
Assuming that the total heat generated in the bearing is carried by the total
oil flow in the bearing, calculate
i) coefficient of friction;
ii) power lost in friction;
iii) minimum oil film thickness;
iv) flow requirement in liters/min; and
v) temperature rise.
For S = 0.121, 1/d = 1
𝑟 ℎ 𝑄
(𝑐 ) 𝑓 = 3.22 ( 𝑐0 ) = 0.4 𝑟𝑐𝑛 𝑙 = 4.33
1
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Seat
No. Set Q
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
4) Autofrettage is,
d) a and c
d) costly
journal is
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 360°
Page 5 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Set Q
a) point b) line
are called,
b) space is limited
d) all the three
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Seat
No. Set Q
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Remedies.

iii. Normal curve
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Set Q
Section – II


consideration.
friction.

For S = 0.121, 1/d = 1
𝑟 ℎ 𝑄
(𝑐 ) 𝑓 = 3.22 ( 𝑐0 ) = 0.4 𝑟𝑐𝑛 𝑙 = 4.33
1
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Seat
No. Set R
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
1) Autofrettage is,
d) a and c
d) costly
journal is
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 360°
a) point b) line
Page 9 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Set R
are called,
b) space is limited
d) all the three
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Seat
No. Set R
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Remedies.

iii. Normal curve
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Set R
Section – II


consideration.
friction.

For S = 0.121, 1/d = 1
𝑟 ℎ 𝑄
(𝑐 ) 𝑓 = 3.22 ( 𝑐0 ) = 0.4 𝑟𝑐𝑛 𝑙 = 4.33
1
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-118
Seat
No. Set S
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
b) space is limited
d) all the three
6) Autofrettage is,
d) a and c
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
d) costly
journal is
a) 60° b) 90°
c) 180° d) 360°
a) point b) line
are called,
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Machine Design - II
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Remedies.

iii. Normal curve
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II


consideration.
friction.

For S = 0.121, 1/d = 1
𝑟 ℎ 𝑄
(𝑐 ) 𝑓 = 3.22 ( 𝑐0 ) = 0.4 𝑟𝑐𝑛 𝑙 = 4.33
1
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Instrumentation & Control
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Intermediate stage of an instrument is used to ______.
a) sense primary signal b) condition & transmit the signal
c) give a record or indication d) covert the signal form
2) A dead weight pressure gauge is used for ______.
a) producing high pressures
b) accurate load measurement
c) checking magnitude of given weight
d) calibrating mechanical pressure gauges
3) Unit of thermoelectric power is ______.
a) mV/0 C b) ℃/mV
c) mA/℃ d) ℃/mA
4) If we observe two stationary images of a mark on a rotating shaft, ______.
a) fr = 2ff b) ff = fr
c) ff = 2fr d) ff = 1/2 fr
5) Change in resistance of a wire by positioning of a slider is used in ______.
a) potentiometer b) electric tachometer
c) turbine meter d) LVDT
6) The Hydraulic load Cell is used to measure load up to _______.
a) 25 MN b) 250 MN
c) 2.5 MN d) 0.5 MN
7) The gauge factor of strain gauge defines ______.
a) K = ∆R b) K = R/L
c) K = ∆R/∆L d) K = (∆R/R)/(∆L/L)
8) An air conditioner is an example of ______.
a) manual open loop system b) manual closed loop system
c) automatic open loop system d) automatic closed loop system
9) Derivative Time is given by _______.
a) K d /K p b) K p /K d
c) K d /K i d) K i /K d
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
10) In block diagram algebra, series blocks are ______.
a) added b) integrated
c) multiplied d) subtracted
11) Angles of departure are needed in a root locus if a system has ______.
a) real poles b) real zeros
c) complex conjugate poles d) complex conjugate zeros
12) A root locus has any branches approaching infinity when ______.
a) P = Z b) P > Z
c) Z > P d) Z = 0
13) 'Gain Margin' is always calculated at _______.
a) gain cross-over frequency b) resonant frequency
c) corner frequency d) phase cross-over frequency
14) For a marginally stable system, ______.
a) G.M. & P.M. are positive b) G.M. & P.M. are zero
c) G.M. & P.M. are infinity d) G.M. & P.M. are negative
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from each section
3) Figures to right indicate full marks
5) Use university graph paper & semi-long paper if required.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain following system characteristics. 04

i) precision
ii) fidelity
b) Explain with a neat sketch ‘Rotameter’. 06
c) Explain the basic principle of working of 'Thermistors'. 04
Q.3 a) Explain with a block diagram ‘Generalised Measurement System’. 06

b) Explain with a neat sketch ‘Inductive Pickup Tachometer’. 04
c) Explain with a neat sketch ‘Prony Brake Dynamometer’. 04
Q.4 a) Derive the expression for Gauge Factor for an electrical strain gauge. 06
b) Explain with a neat sketch working of ‘L.V.D.T.’ 04
c) Explain with a neat sketch working of ‘Proving Ring’ for force 04
measurement.
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain with a suitable example Automatic Control System. 05

b) For the block diagram of a feedback control system as shown in fig. (5-b), 06
obtain the closed loop transfer function C(S)/R(S).
c) Explain the ‘Angle Condition’ in Root Locus and its importance. 03
Q.6 a) For a control system represented by, 09

K
G(S)H(S) =
S(S 2
+ 2S + 2)
Sketch the complete Root Locus and comment on the system stability.
Page 3 of 16
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b) Explain with a graph, P + I control system. What do you mean by ‘Integral 05
Time’?
Q.7 a) For a unity feedback system given by, 08

80(S + 2)
G(S) =
S(S + 2)(S + 20)
Sketch the Bode Plots and comment on the system stability.
b) State general predictions to identify break away points in root locus on the 03
real axis.
c) Explain nature of Bode Plots for the poles and zeros at the origin. 03
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) P = Z b) P > Z
c) Z > P d) Z = 0
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) mV/0 C b) ℃/mV
c) mA/℃ d) ℃/mA
c) ff = 2fr d) ff = 1/2 fr
a) 25 MN b) 250 MN
c) 2.5 MN d) 0.5 MN
a) K = ∆R b) K = R/L
c) K = ∆R/∆L d) K = (∆R/R)/(∆L/L)
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) precision
ii) fidelity

measurement.
Section – II


K
G(S)H(S) =
S(S 2
+ 2S + 2)
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Time’?

80(S + 2)
G(S) =
S(S + 2)(S + 20)
real axis.
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) P = Z b) P > Z
c) Z > P d) Z = 0
a) mV/0 C b) ℃/mV
c) mA/℃ d) ℃/mA
c) ff = 2fr d) ff = 1/2 fr
Page 9 of 16
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a) 25 MN b) 250 MN
c) 2.5 MN d) 0.5 MN
a) K = ∆R b) K = R/L
c) K = ∆R/∆L d) K = (∆R/R)/(∆L/L)
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) precision
ii) fidelity

measurement.
Section – II


K
G(S)H(S) =
S(S 2
+ 2S + 2)
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Time’?

80(S + 2)
G(S) =
S(S + 2)(S + 20)
real axis.
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 25 MN b) 250 MN
c) 2.5 MN d) 0.5 MN
a) K = ∆R b) K = R/L
c) K = ∆R/∆L d) K = (∆R/R)/(∆L/L)
a) P = Z b) P > Z
c) Z > P d) Z = 0
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) mV/0 C b) ℃/mV
c) mA/℃ d) ℃/mA
c) ff = 2fr d) ff = 1/2 fr
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) precision
ii) fidelity

measurement.
Section – II


K
G(S)H(S) =
S(S 2
+ 2S + 2)
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Time’?

80(S + 2)
G(S) =
S(S + 2)(S + 20)
real axis.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Thermal conductivity of solid metals ______ with rise in temperature.
c) remains same d) unpredictable
2) Thermal diffusivity of a substance is ______.
a) directly proportional to the thermal conductivity
b) inversely proportional to the density of substance
c) inversely proportional to specific heat
d) all above
3) Which one of the dimensionless number has significant role in natural
convection?
a) Stanton b) Grashoff
c) Reynolds d) Nusselt
4) The radiation shape factor between two parallel plates is ______.
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.5 d) 0.33
5) Up to the critical radius of insulation ______.
a) Heat loss decreases with addition of insulation
b) Heat loss increases with addition of insulation
c) Heat loss remains constant
d) There occurs a decrease in heat flux
6) Which type of heat exchanger is used in automobile radiator?
a) Parallel flow b) Counter flow
c) Cross flow d) Regenerator
7) Dropwise condensation usually occurs in ______.
a) Oily surfaces b) Glazed surface
c) Smooth surface d) Coated surface
8) Compared to parallel flow heat exchanger, LMTD in the case of counter
flow heat exchanger is ______.
a) lower b) higher
c) same d) unpredictable
Page 1 of 16
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9) A ______ body reflects entire radiation incident on it.
a) black b) gray
c) white d) transparent
10) The parameter NTU (Number of transfer units) used in the analysis of
heat exchanger is specified as ______.
a) UA/Cmin b) AUCmin
c) U/ACmin d) ACmin/U
11) In fins parameter ‘m’ equals to ______.
a) ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝐾𝐴𝑐/𝑠
b) 𝐾𝐴𝑐/𝑠
𝑚=√
ℎ𝑝
c)
ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝑈𝐴
d) None of these
12) For a perfectly black body ______.
a) 𝛼 = 1, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 0 b) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 1
c) 𝛼 + 𝜏 = 1, 𝜌 = 0 d) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 1, 𝜏 = 0
13) The overall heat transfer coefficient is used in case of ______.
a) Conduction b) Convection
c) Radiation d) Conduction and Convection
14) An increase in convective coefficient over a fin ______ effectiveness.
c) does not influence d) none of above
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
3) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.
Section – I

a) Define thermal conductivity. Explain the effect of temperature on thermal 04
conductivity of solid liquids and gases.
b) Derive an expression for critical radius of insulation for cylinder 05
c) The door of a cold storage plant is made from two 6 mm thick glass sheet 05
separated by a uniform air gap of 2 mm. The temperature of air inside
room is -18°C and the ambient air temperature is 35°C assuming heat
transfer coefficient between glass and air as 23.26 W/m2K determine rate
of heat leakage into room per unit area of door. Neglect the convection
effect in the air gap and take K for glass as 0.75 W/mK and k for air as
0.02W/mK.

a) Explain fin effectiveness and fin efficiency. 04
b) Derive an expression for steady state one dimensional heat flow through 05
the hollow cylinder without heat generation?
c) A very long 25 mm diameter copper (K=380 W/mK) rod extends from a 05
surface at 120°C. The temperature of surrounding air is 25°C and the heat
transfer coefficient over the rod is 10W/m2K. Calculate:
1) Heat loss from the rod.
2) How long the rod should be in order to be considered infinite?
Q.4 Attempt the following questions 04

a) Explain the following terms:
1) Absorptivity
2) Reflectivity
3) Transmissivity
4) Emissivity
b) Explain the concept of shape factor. State the properties of shape factor. 05
c) A solid steel ball of 5 cm in diameter and initially at 450°C is quenched in 05
controlled environment in which the temperature is maintained at 90°C with
convection coefficient of 115 W/m2K. Determine the time taken by the ball
to attain a temperature of 150°C.
Take following properties for steel
C = 420 J/kgK, 𝜌 = 8000 Kg/m3, k = 46W/mK
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Section – II
Q.5 a) Derive an expression for LMTD of counter flow heat exchanger. 05
b) Explain film wise condensation and drop wise condensation. 04
c) In a counter flow heat exchanger water is heated from 25°C to 65°C by an 05
oil of specific heat 1.45KJ/Kg K and mass flow rate of 0.9 Kg/Sec. The oil
is cooled from 230°C to 160°C. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is
420 W/m2K, Calculate -
i)) Rate of heat transfer
ii) Mass flow rate of water
iii) The surface area of heat exchanger
Q.6 a) Using dimensional analysis show that Nu=f(Gr,Pr) for natural convection. 05
b) A liquid mercury flows at a rate of 1.6 Kg/Sec through a copper tube of 05
20mm diameter. The mercury enters the tube at 15°C and leaves the at
35°C .Calculate the tube length for constant heat flux at the tube wall
which is maintained at an average temperature of 50°C.Use the co-relation
as Nu=7+0.025(Re.pr)0.8
The properties of mercury at 25°C are -
Density (𝜌)=13582kg/m3, Cp=140J/Kg°C,
Kinematic viscosity (v)=1.5x10-7m2/Sec, Pr=0.0248
c) Explain the classification of heat exchanger 04
Q.7 a) Explain construction, working and Applications of heat pipe. 04

b) Explain with neat sketch boiling curve and its different regimes. 04
c) Derive an expression for effectiveness of a parallel flow heat exchanger. 06
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) lower b) higher
a) black b) gray
a) ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝐾𝐴𝑐/𝑠
𝑚=√
ℎ𝑝
c)
ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝑈𝐴
d) None of these
a) 𝛼 = 1, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 0 b) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 1
c) 𝛼 + 𝜏 = 1, 𝜌 = 0 d) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 1, 𝜏 = 0
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q

d) all above
convection?
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.5 d) 0.33
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

0.02W/mK.


1) Absorptivity
2) Reflectivity
3) Transmissivity
4) Emissivity
C = 420 J/kgK, 𝜌 = 8000 Kg/m3, k = 46W/mK
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II
as Nu=7+0.025(Re.pr)0.8

Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-120
Seat
No. Set R
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝐾𝐴𝑐/𝑠
𝑚=√
ℎ𝑝
c)
ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝑈𝐴
d) None of these
a) 𝛼 = 1, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 0 b) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 1
c) 𝛼 + 𝜏 = 1, 𝜌 = 0 d) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 1, 𝜏 = 0
d) all above
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
convection?
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.5 d) 0.33

a) lower b) higher
a) black b) gray
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

0.02W/mK.


1) Absorptivity
2) Reflectivity
3) Transmissivity
4) Emissivity
C = 420 J/kgK, 𝜌 = 8000 Kg/m3, k = 46W/mK
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section – II
as Nu=7+0.025(Re.pr)0.8

Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) lower b) higher
a) black b) gray
a) ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝐾𝐴𝑐/𝑠
𝑚=√
ℎ𝑝
c)
ℎ𝑝
𝑚=√
𝑈𝐴
d) None of these
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) 𝛼 = 1, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 0 b) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 0, 𝜏 = 1
c) 𝛼 + 𝜏 = 1, 𝜌 = 0 d) 𝛼 = 0, 𝜌 = 1, 𝜏 = 0

d) all above
convection?
a) 1 b) 0
c) 0.5 d) 0.33
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Heat Transfer
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

0.02W/mK.


1) Absorptivity
2) Reflectivity
3) Transmissivity
4) Emissivity
C = 420 J/kgK, 𝜌 = 8000 Kg/m3, k = 46W/mK
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II
as Nu=7+0.025(Re.pr)0.8

Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Industrial & Quality Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) ______ is defined as “the discipline dealing with what is good and bad &
with moral duty & obligation”.
a) Rule b) Organisation culture
c) Protocol d) Ethics
2) ______ are the ends towards which the activity is aimed.
a) purpose b) mission
c) objectives d) programs
3) Close control, close supervision is advantage of ______.
a) Narrow Span b) Wide Span
c) Close Span d) Open Span
4) If ______ then this could results in frustration of subordinates.
a) Power > Responsibility b) Power < Responsibility
c) Power = Responsibility d) Power > Authority
5) ______ leader's uses his or her power very little, if at all, giving subordinates
a high degree of independence in their operations.
a) Autocratic b) Democratic
c) The free rein d) Ideal
6) Theory ______ is optimistic, dynamic, flexible.
a) X b) Z
c) Y d) Positive
7) The financial needs which required up to ______ are treated as short
term funds.
a) Seven months b) One year
c) Two years d) three years
8) ______ is the routes taken by the product/goods as they move from the
organization/producer to the ultimate consumer or user.
a) Routing b) Channel of distribution
c) Path d) Delivery
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) Cost associated with defective products being shipped to the customers
are called as ______.
a) Cost of internal failure b) Cost of external failure
c) Rejection cost d) Total cost of failure
10) The quality of design is concerned with the ______ for the manufacture of
the product.
a) exactness of specification b) fitness of specification
c) correctness of specification d) tightness of specification
11) In double sampling plan 'C2' is the acceptance number for the ______.
a) First and last combined
b) First and second sample combined
c) Last two combined
d) First three combined
12) The producers risk is denoted by ______.
a) 𝜌 b) 𝛽
c) 𝛼 d) 𝛿
13) AOQ is given by the relation _______.
a) P’. Pa ( N - n / N ) b) Pa . P’ ( N - n / n )
c) Pa . P’ ( n - N / n ) d) Pa . P’ ( N + n / N )
14) LTPD stands for
a) Lot Tolerance Perfect Defective
b) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective
c) Lot Tolerable Percent Defective
d) Lot Tolerance Piece Defective
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from Section – I.
2) Solve any two questions from Section – II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What is system approach to the management? 05

b) Write difference between narrow span and wide span. 05
c) Explain Maslow’s motivational theory. 04
Q.3 a) Describe steps in planning process. 05

b) Discuss selection process in detail. 05
c) What are channels of distribution of Industrial goods and consumers 04
goods?
Q.4 a) Explain leadership behavior in detail. 05

b) Elaborate types of finance and sources of finance. 05
c) What are reasons for weak delegation of authority? 04
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain Pareto analysis & cause effect diagram. 05

b) Write note on supplier partnership. 05
c) What is quality of design? Explain factors affecting it. 04
Q.6 a) Write note on benchmarking. 04

b) A manufacturer purchases small bolts in cartons that usually contains 06
several thousands of bolts. Each shipment consists of a number of
cartons. As a part of acceptance procedure for these bolts, 400 bolts are
selected at random from each carton & are subjected to visual inspection
for certain defect. In shipment of 10 cartons the respective percentage of
defectives in the samples from each carton are 0, 0, 0.5, 0.75, 0, 2.0, 0.25,
0, 0.25 & 1.25. Does this shipment of bolts appear to exhibit statistical
control with respect to the quality characteristics examined in the
inspection?
c) Write note on any two Quality gurus. 04
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Q.7 a) Write short note on six sigma. 04
b) A double sampling plan is as follows: 06
1) Select a sample of 2 from a lot of 20. If both article inspected bare
good, accept the lot, if both are defective, reject the lot. If 1 is good &
1 defective, take the second sample of one article.
2) If the article in the second sample is good, accept the lot. If it is
defective reject the lot. If a lot of 25% defective is submitted, what is
the probability of acceptance? Compute this by the method i.e.
theoretically correct rather than an approximate method
c) Explain cost of internal failures and cost of external failures. 04
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

c) Path d) Delivery
the product.
a) 𝜌 b) 𝛽
c) 𝛼 d) 𝛿
a) P’. Pa ( N - n / N ) b) Pa . P’ ( N - n / n )
c) Pa . P’ ( n - N / n ) d) Pa . P’ ( N + n / N )
7) LTPD stands for

Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) X b) Z
c) Y d) Positive
term funds.
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


goods?

Section – II


inspection?
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 𝜌 b) 𝛽
c) 𝛼 d) 𝛿
a) P’. Pa ( N - n / N ) b) Pa . P’ ( N - n / n )
c) Pa . P’ ( n - N / n ) d) Pa . P’ ( N + n / N )
4) LTPD stands for
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) X b) Z
c) Y d) Positive
term funds.
c) Path d) Delivery
the product.
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


goods?

Section – II


inspection?
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) X b) Z
c) Y d) Positive
term funds.
c) Path d) Delivery
the product.
a) 𝜌 b) 𝛽
c) 𝛼 d) 𝛿
a) P’. Pa ( N - n / N ) b) Pa . P’ ( N - n / n )
c) Pa . P’ ( n - N / n ) d) Pa . P’ ( N + n / N )
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
9) LTPD stands for
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-121
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


goods?

Section – II


inspection?
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

Q.1 Choose the correct alternative 14
1) Which of the following is not needed to generate a schedule performance
index (SPI)?
a) Earned value b) Actual cost
c) Planned value d) Basis of estimate
2) Cost variance is computed by _____
a) Subtracting planned value from actual cost
b) Subtracting actual cost from earned value
c) Subtracting budget at completion from earned value
d) Subtracting BAC from ETC
3) Critical path is _____.
a) Minimum time required to complete the project
b) ETC
c) normal path on the project
4) Project is a _____ endeavour.
a) Perpetual b) Permanent
c) Temporary d) None of the above
5) Your project is experiencing resource constraints at certain times in the
project timeline, requiring you to adjust start and finish dates on the
schedule. What tool is best to use in this situation?
a) Resource levelling b) Feeding buffer
c) Critical Path method d) Resource smoothing
6) You are three months into a six month project. Assume the budget burn
rate is constant. The budget at completion (BAC) is $120,000. AC =
$65,000. The SPT = 1.2. What is the CPI of this project? (Round to 2
decimal places)?
a) 1.25
b) 1.25
c) 1.11
d) It cannot be determined from the information given
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7) Criterion weights to rank the projects within each category is a part of _____.
a) Prioritise the Projects
b) Reduce the Criteria Set
c) Projects held in Reserve
d) Assembling
8) Project Management, the end users and developers require to know the _____.
a) cost of the project b) duration
c) Length d) All the above
9) The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks
and resources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets
for specific project is known as _____.
a) Project management b) Process Management
c) Process d) Activities
10) Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project
management?
a) Specification delays b) Product competition
c) Testing d) Staff turnover
11) From the following calculate critical Path Duration in days
Activity: 1-2 2-3 2-4 3-5 4-6 5-6
Duration: 3 4 3 3 2 2
a) 13 days b) 8 days
c) 11 days d) 12 days
12) The three phases involved in the management of large projects are
a) scheduling, operating, evaluating.
b) scheduling, designing, operating.
c) planning, scheduling, evaluating.
d) planning, scheduling, controlling.
13) There is a need of dummy activity when
a) network contains two or more activities having identical starting and
ending events.
b) the network contains two or more activities that have the same
starting events.
c) the network contains two or more activities that have different ending
events.
d) the network contains two or more activities that have the same
ending events.
14) The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon
the _____.
a) Uniform distribution curve
b) Exponential distribution curve
c) U-shaped distribution curve
d) Normal distribution curve
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Solve any two questions from each section.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain Project Management Process in detail 07

b) What is risk management? Explain steps in risk management. 07
Q.3 a) Explain role of Project Manager. 07

b) Explain break even analysis with its importance in project management. 07
Q.4 Write a short note on: (Any 2) (2X7) 14

a) Monte Carlo Simulation
b) Cost Estimating Methods
c) Project Lifecycle
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain Purpose of Project Execution and Control. 07

b) Explain various features in the MS Project in detail. 07
Q.6 a) What is Project Controlling? Explain various steps in Project Control 07

Process.
b) Explain importance of Project Performance measurement. Explain 07
benefits and challenges of Performance Measurement and Evaluation.
Q.7 Write a short note on: (Any 2) (2x7) 14

a) Earned Value Analysis/Method (EVA/EVM)
b) WBS
c) Project Management Information System (PMIS)
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Seat
No. Set Q
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

management?
Activity: 1-2 2-3 2-4 3-5 4-6 5-6
Duration: 3 4 3 3 2 2
ending events.
starting events.
events.
ending events.
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Set Q
the _____.
index (SPI)?
b) ETC
decimal places)?
a) 1.25
b) 1.25
c) 1.11
d) Assembling
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II


Process.

b) WBS
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

Activity: 1-2 2-3 2-4 3-5 4-6 5-6
Duration: 3 4 3 3 2 2
ending events.
starting events.
events.
ending events.
the _____.
index (SPI)?
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
b) ETC
decimal places)?
a) 1.25
b) 1.25
c) 1.11
d) Assembling
management?
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II


Process.

b) WBS
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

decimal places)?
a) 1.25
b) 1.25
c) 1.11
d) Assembling
management?
Activity: 1-2 2-3 2-4 3-5 4-6 5-6
Duration: 3 4 3 3 2 2
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
ending events.
starting events.
events.
ending events.
the _____.
index (SPI)?
b) ETC
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Project Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II


Process.

b) WBS
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Industrial Product Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options 14

1) The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency
of the product performance
a) Functional aspect b) Operational aspect
c) Durability aspect d) Aesthetic aspect
2) The appearance of a product is the total visual effect produced by
structure, form, material, dimensions and colour.
a) True b) False
3) Tactile and visual are the types of _____.
a) Texture b) Form
c) Shape d) Colour
4) Cost estimation, and thereby profitability, also is necessary for determining
the economic advantage of the business.
a) True b) False
5) One of the most difficult aspects of product development is recognizing,
understanding, and managing _____.
a) Trade-offs b) Dynamics
c) Details d) Economics
6) The _____ function plays the lead role in defining the physical form of the
product to best meet customer needs.
a) Design b) Manufacturing
c) Marketing d) None of the above
7) The collection of individuals developing a product forms the _____.
a) Supply team b) Project team
c) Marketing team d) None of the above
8) The necessity to know the environment in which the product will be used
is termed as _____.
a) Design Situation b) Design Analysis
c) Aesthetics d) Ergonomics
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Set P
9) In six hats techniques, Red hat stands for _____.
a) Emotions b) Optimism
c) New Ideas d) Information
10) The design for environment is essentially due to _____.
a) Customer Demand b) Government Laws
c) ISO Requirement d) All of the above
11) _____ is more detailed and physical.
a) Lateral thinking b) Vertical thinking
c) Creative thinking d) None of the above
12) Fear of _____ blocks creativity.
a) Making Mistakes b) Being Criticized
c) Being Alone d) All of the above
13) _____ helps in establishing the interchangeability of products.
a) Standardization b) Simplification
c) Diversification d) Specialization
14) _____ is a three-dimensional area enclosed by a surface.
a) Form b) Shape
c) Line d) None of the above
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.
3) Make suitable assumption if necessary and state it clearly.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Compare requirements of industrial products with consumer products. In 07

what way they differ from each other?
b) Discuss the visual effect of line and form for cars and sport vehicles. 07
Q.3 a) Discuss the aspect of ergonomic design of radial drilling machine. 07

b) Explain the statement “Form Follows Function”. 07
Q.4 Write short note (any two) 14

a) Concept of ergonomics and aesthetics with examples
b) Mechanics of seeing with suitable examples
c) Concept of Unit and Concept of order with suitable examples
Section – II
Q.5 a) How the creative ideas are generated with the help of brain storming 07
session? How it is effectively conducted?
b) Explain role of setting specification and market requirements in product 07
design.
Q.6 a) Explain in detail the process of concept development. 07

b) Explain the challenges in successful product development. 07

a) Creativity
b) Cost estimation
c) Six hats techniques
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


is termed as _____.
a) Form b) Shape
a) True b) False
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Set Q
a) Texture b) Form
c) Shape d) Colour
a) True b) False
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II
design.


a) Creativity
b) Cost estimation
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Form b) Shape
a) True b) False
a) Texture b) Form
c) Shape d) Colour
a) True b) False
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
is termed as _____.
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II
design.


a) Creativity
b) Cost estimation
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


is termed as _____.
a) Form b) Shape
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) True b) False
a) Texture b) Form
c) Shape d) Colour
a) True b) False
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II
design.


a) Creativity
b) Cost estimation
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Seat
No. Set P
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


Duration: 30 Minutes
1) In addition polymerization reaction the polymer is formed in a _____ step
a) single b) three
c) double d) None
2) Epoxy resin is example of _____ plastic
a) Thermoplastics b) Thermosetting
c) elastomers d) None
3) Which of the following is an additive used for saving base plastic material?
a) Fillers b) Plasticizers
c) Pigments d) None of these
4) _____ is the most of commonly used manufacturing process for the
plastic component.
a) Injection molding b) Blow Molding
c) Transfer Molding d) Rotational Molding
5) The Rotational Molding is _____ plastic forming process
a) High Temperature
b) Low Temperature, High Pressure
c) Low Pressure
d) High Temperature, Low Pressure
6) For the more precise dimensional stability of Thermosets, ______ is used.
a) Transfer moulding b) Compression moulding
c) Any moulding process d) Calendering
7) In _____ welding method, the workpieces to be joined are irradiated with
a steam of neutron
a) Infrared b) Hot gas
c) Nuclear d) Heated tool
8) Materials having a _____ shrinkage allowance can be molded with close
tolerance.
a) Low b) Medium
c) High d) None
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Set P
9) The ratio of volume of loose plastic powder to the volume of moulding is
known as _____.
a) Clamping force b) Density factor
c) Bulk factor d) None
10) The depth of loading chamber is

a) Inversely proportional to projected area
b) Inversely proportional to change in volume of plastic material
c) Directly proportional to projected area
11) The heat to be removed by cooling circuits depend on
a) Specific heat of material
b) Injection temperature of material
c) Latent heat of material
d) All of the above
12) The properties of the polymer will also depend on the _____ available for
cooling.
a) time b) area
c) peed d) momentum
13) It is the _____ operation that sets the shape of thermoplastics.
a) heating b) Grinding
c) cutting d) Cooling speed
14) _____ are mixed with plastics to improve their flow characteristics &
decrease their brittleness.
a) Stabilizers b) Plasticizers
c) Colorants d) Fillers
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1 Solve any two questions from Section I and any two questions
from Section II.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it clearly.
3) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain the process of Injection moulding with a neat diagram. 05

b) Differentiate between addition and condensation polymerization. 04
c) Explain the different tests carried out on plastic material explain any one. 05
Q.3 a) Explain the additives used in the plastics . 04

b) Explain design rules related to Ribs for plastic parts. 05
c) Explain with neat sketch hot gas welding. 05
Q.4 a) A product has to be designed for an assembly of body of spray bottle. The 07
body of spray bottle has the dimensions as shown in the figure below. The
plastic body of spray bottle cap has to be designed to fit on the top of the
bottle. The top end of the bottle is having diameter of 50 mm and its nozzle
20 mm.
b) Explain various tolerances and allowances considered for plastics parts 03

design.
c) Explain rotational moulding process with neat sketch. 04
Page 3 of 16
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P
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain main parts of compression mould with neat sketch. 04

b) Design a compression mold for the component shown in figure below 07
which is made up of melamine material. Take K=2; compression
pressure=90 kg/cm2; density=1.7 gm. /cm3.
c) What are different types of injection moulds? Explain one of them with neat 03
sketch.
Q.6 a) Explain types transfer moulds and their main parts with neat sketch. 05
b) Explain cooling system for injection mould with neat sketch. 05
c) Write short note on- 04
i) Design of loading chamber
ii) Design of punch
Q.7 a) Find out the cooling time required for a mould with heaviest wall thickness 05
40 mm, for polypropylene material with following properties-
Thermal conductivity = 0.22 w/m K
Density = 0.545 gm/cm3
Specific heat = 1.68 kJ/kg k
b) Explain Ejection System for Injection mould with neat sketch. 05
c) What are the applications of plastic in agriculture sector? 04
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


tolerance.
a) Low b) Medium
c) High d) None
known as _____.

d) All of the above
cooling.
a) time b) area
c) peed d) momentum
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) single b) three
c) double d) None
plastic component.
a) High Temperature
c) Low Pressure
a steam of neutron
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from Section II.
Section – I


20 mm.

design.
Page 7 of 16
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Q
Section – II

sketch.
ii) Design of punch
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) All of the above
cooling.
a) time b) area
c) peed d) momentum
a) single b) three
c) double d) None
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
plastic component.
a) High Temperature
c) Low Pressure
a steam of neutron
tolerance.
a) Low b) Medium
c) High d) None
known as _____.

Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from Section II.
Section – I


20 mm.

design.
Page 11 of 16
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R
Section – II

sketch.
ii) Design of punch
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a steam of neutron
tolerance.
a) Low b) Medium
c) High d) None
known as _____.

d) All of the above
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
cooling.
a) time b) area
c) peed d) momentum
a) single b) three
c) double d) None
plastic component.
a) High Temperature
c) Low Pressure
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Plastic Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
from Section II.
Section – I


20 mm.

design.
Page 15 of 16
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S
Section – II

sketch.
ii) Design of punch
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-126
Seat
No. Set P
T. Y (B. Tech) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Railway Transportation
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Which of the following is not a type of Urban Trains?
a) Monorail Train b) Metro train
c) Tram Train d) Bullet Train
2) Which of the following is not a type of Freight Trains?
a) Shunting Trains b) Pilots Trains
c) Funicular Train d) Merry Go Round (MGR) Train
3) Power Locomotives includes _____
a) Steam Locomotive
b) Diesel Locomotive
c) Electric Locomotive
d) All of the above
4) Single rail Car includes _____
a) Diesel b) Electric
c) Gas Turbine d) All of the above
5) Types of Freight Train includes _____
a) Conventional Load b) Hazardous Goods
c) Transport Small parcels d) All of the above
6) Railway Operations includes _____
a) Technical b) Commercial
c) Maintenance d) All of the above
7) Which of the following is not a part of Track Panel?
a) Rails b) Sleepers
c) Ballast d) Elastic Pads
8) The Static vertical load includes _____
a) Axle load b) Wheel weight
c) Daily Traffic load d) All of the above
9) Adhesion force is a part of _____
a) Braking Force b) Longitudinal force
c) Traction force d) All of the above
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Set P
10) Rail creep force is a part of _____
11) The internal reason of derailment includes ______
a) Excessive speed
b) Poor condition and design of rolling stock
c) Poor quality and track layout
d) All of the above
12) This of the following is not a part of Railway maintenance operations _____.
a) Railway Infrastructure
b) Marketing
c) Rolling stocks
d) Equipment used for Railway Operations
13) This of the following is not a part of Railway systems and premises _____
a) Railway Stations b) Railway Depots
c) Bridges d) Staff Quarters
14) The characteristics of curve resistance is
a) Curve resistance increases with the speed of the train
b) Curve resistance depends upon the central angle of the curve
c) Curve resistance is less with new rails compared to that with old rails
d) All of the above
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Day & Date: Friday, 24-02-2023 Marks : 56
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All question are compulsory.
Section – I
Q.2 Solve:
a) Explain difference between Monorail Metrorail. 04
b) Explain Push-Pull train operation. 04
c) What are the types of Passenger carrier trains? 06
Q.3 Solve:
a) What are the capabilities of the railway system? Explain any one in detail. 06
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the railway transportation? 04
c) Explain behavior of a single railway wheel set and behavior of a whole 04
vehicle.
Q.4 Solve:
a) What are the types of causes of Derailment? Explain in brief. 06
b) Write a short note on Derailment as a result of vehicle overturning. 04
c) Write a classification of Freight carrier trains. 04
Section – II
Q.5 Solve:
a) What are the types of ‘Vertical loads’ on rail? Explain any One in detail. 04
b) What are the types of ‘Design loads of bridges’? Draw loading model for 04
Model 71 and Model SW.
c) A train with 20 wagons, each weighing 18 t, is supposed to run at a speed 06
of 50 km/h. The tractive effort of a 2-8-2 locomotive with a 22.5 t load on
each driving axle is 15t. The weight of the locomotive is 120t. The rolling
resistance of the wagons and locomotive are 2.5 kg/t and 3.5 kg/t,
respectively. The resistance, which depends upon the speed, is computed
to be 2.65 t. Find out the steepest gradient for these conditions.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Q.6 Solve:
a) Explain Wave motion theory for the Development of Creep. 04
b) What are the types of ‘Longitudinal loads’ on rail? Explain any One in 04
detail.
c) Calculate the maximum permissible load that a BG locomotive with three 06
pairs of driving wheels bearing an axle load of 22t each can pull on a
speed if the train has to run on a rising gradient of 1 in 200. What would
be the further reduction in speed if the train has to negotiate a 4° curve on
the rising gradient? Assume the coefficient of friction to be 0.2.
Q.7 Solve:
a) What are the types of ‘Transverse loads’ on rail? Explain any one in detail. 04
b) What are the types Bogies? Explain any one in details. 04
c) List and explain the various resistances that a locomotive in motion has to 06
overcome.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) Excessive speed
d) All of the above
b) Marketing
c) Rolling stocks
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) Steam Locomotive
d) All of the above
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve:
Q.3 Solve:
vehicle.
Q.4 Solve:
Section – II
Q.5 Solve:
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Q.6 Solve:
detail.
Q.7 Solve:
overcome.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-126
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) Excessive speed
d) All of the above
b) Marketing
c) Rolling stocks
d) All of the above
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) Steam Locomotive
d) All of the above
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve:
Q.3 Solve:
vehicle.
Q.4 Solve:
Section – II
Q.5 Solve:
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Q.6 Solve:
detail.
Q.7 Solve:
overcome.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-126
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) Excessive speed
d) All of the above
b) Marketing
c) Rolling stocks
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
d) All of the above
a) Steam Locomotive
d) All of the above
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve:
Q.3 Solve:
vehicle.
Q.4 Solve:
Section – II
Q.5 Solve:
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Q.6 Solve:
detail.
Q.7 Solve:
overcome.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) _____ is golden band between Researcher based design & creative
design.
a) why not b) where to do
c) why to do d) how to do
2) _____ is example of tangible product.
a) cycle b) hotel
c) airline d) services of doctors
3) Generally, Rockwell and Brinell test are used for _____ testing.
a) brittleness b) ductility
c) hardness d) toughness
4) At the very beginning involving everybody together to emerge the
engineering design is called ______.
a) social work in design
b) smart work in design
c) reliable concept in engineering
d) concurrent concept of engineering design
5) FMEA Means ______.
a) failure mode effect analysis b) failure mode efficiency analysis
c) failure mode end analysis d) failure mode energy analysis
6) _____ is a set of graphical pasteurization of operation and various
movements, so that it from using this you can make a graphical
representation of any process or operation.
a) Therblig b) Bar chart study
c) Flow chart d) System
7) Brain storming may be _____.
a) group creativity technique b) individual creative technique
c) silent technique d) very difficult technique to learn
8) _____ is depends upon availability of material.
a) true design b) rational design
c) optimum design d) configuration design
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
9) _____ is first step in material selection.
a) Translation b) Screening
c) Detaching d) Attaching
10) Screening by applying attribute limits, that is known as _____.
a) Delphy's method b) Crachy's method
c) Ashby's method d) Raighter method
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Answer any four questions from the following questions.
Q.2 Explain steps in material selection process. 10
Q.3 Why we use concurrent engineering? Explain in detail. 10
Q.4 With the help of suitable case study, explain Serial engineering Versus 10
Concurrent engineering.
Q.5 Explain design of work system in detail. 10
Q.6 Explain Failure Mode Effect Analysis in detail. 10
Q.7 Explain material property chart in detail. 10
Q.8 Write short note on Design thinking and innovation. 10
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

design.
a) cycle b) hotel
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

design.
a) cycle b) hotel
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

Page 10 of 12
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Set S
design.
a) cycle b) hotel
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Design Practice
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Joining Technologies for Metals
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which of the following defects occur when the deposited metal is not
focused on the root of weld?
a) Inclusion of slag b) inadequate penetration
c) Incomplete fusion d) Porosity
2) Following gases are used in tungsten inert gas welding
a) hydogen and oxygen b) Co2 and H2
c) argon and neon d) helium and neon
3) Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrodes
a) LASER welding b) MIG welding
c) TIG welding d) ion beam welding
4) The metal is solidified in the joint is called
a) Base metal
b) Weld metal
c) Creator
d) Cold face
5) TIG welding is best suited for welding
a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel
c) Carbon steel d) Aluminium
6) Welding process which generally not preferred for the joining of austenitic
stainless steel is
a) Submerged arc welding b) Shielded metal arc welding
c) Tungsten inert gas welding d) Metal inert gas welding
7) Which of the following factor does not promote the solidification cracking?
a) metal under compression
b) Lack of ferrite in austenitic stainless steel
c) Incorrect filler in aluminum alloys
d) none
8) Preheating a low alloy steel prior to welding to minimize the risk of ____.
a) excessive distortion b) porosity
c) weld cracking d) Lack of fusion
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9) The temperature of a carburising flame in gas welding is _____ that of a
neutral or Oxidizing flame.
a) lower than b) higher than
c) equal to d) unrelated to
10) In arc welding is created between the electrode and work by
a) Flow of current b) Voltage
c) Material characteristics d) Contact resistance
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instruction: 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.
5) Use university graph paper & semi-log paper if required.
Section - I
Q.2 a) Explain submerged arc welding. 05

b) Give comparison between TIG and MIG welding processes. 05
Q.3 a) Explain the effect of gases on Weld Properties. 05

b) Classify Joining Process. 05
Q.4 a) Explain Welding parameters. 05

b) Explain Oxy Fuel Gas welding. 05
Section - II
Q.5 a) What are the common aluminium welding defects? 05

b) What is weld Thermal Cycle? 05
Q.6 a) Explain Solidification Cracking. 05

b) What is Haz Softening? 05
Q.7 a) Write a note on Residual stress in weld joint. 05

b) Write a note on Fundamental of weldiability of metal. 05
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Base metal
b) Weld metal
c) Creator
d) Cold face
stainless steel is
d) none
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section - I



Section - II



Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Base metal
b) Weld metal
c) Creator
d) Cold face
stainless steel is
d) none
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section - I



Section - II



Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-129
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Base metal
b) Weld metal
c) Creator
d) Cold face
stainless steel is
d) none
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-129
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section - I



Section - II



Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Steam Power Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


1) A power cycle continuously converts _____ into _____.
a) heat, heat b) work, heat
c) heat, work d) work, work
2) The path followed in a vapour power cycle is _____.
a) boiler-condenser-turbine-pump
b) boiler-turbine-condenser-pump
c) boiler-turbine-pump-condenser
d) boiler-pump-turbine-condenser
3) Work output of turbine is _____ the work input to the pump.
a) much larger b) much smaller
c) equal to d) none of the mentioned
4) What is the use of reheat cycle in steam turbines?
a) To remove the moisture from the steam
b) To increase the steam temperature
c) To increase steam pressure
d) None of the mentioned
5) When boiler pressure is increased efficiency is _____.
a) decreased b) increased
c) remains constant d) none of the mentioned
6) What does thermodynamic efficiency of steam turbine mean?
a) Ratio of power developed to the power that can be developed by
ideal turbine
b) Ratio of power that can be developed by ideal turbine to the power
developed by the actual turbine
c) Ratio of inlet temperature to outlet temperature
7) In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is
connected to water space and the other end is connected to _____.
a) water space also b) chimney
c) steam space d) superheater
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8) What is the function of a cooling tower in a power plant?
a) It cools the hot water coming back from the condenser
b) It cools the hot water being supplied to the condenser
c) It heats the cold water coming back from the condenser
d) It heats the cold water being supplied to the condenser
9) Mechanical draft cooling tower size is _____ the size of the natural draft
cooling tower.
a) smaller than b) larger than
c) equal to the d) very much larger than
10) What is rotor steam turbine?
a) Spinning component with wheels
b) Spinning component with wheels and blades disconnected
c) Spinning component with wheels and blades connected
d) Spinning component with blades
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Explain Reheat & Regenerative Vapour Power Cycle. 10
Q.3 Explain different Steam Cycles for nuclear power plant and also brief about low 10
temperature power cycles.
Q.4 Differentiate between Fire tube and Water tube boilers. Also mention different 10
Mountings and Accessories of a boiler.
Section – II
Q.5 What is mean by Compounding of turbine? Explain Pressure & velocity 10

compounding of a turbine.
Q.6 Draw Velocity triangle of an Impulse turbine and explain various efficiencies of 10
steam turbine.
Q.7 Giving significance of Cooling tower, explain hygrometry chart in brief. 10
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


ideal turbine
cooling tower.
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II

steam turbine.
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


cooling tower.
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
ideal turbine
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II

steam turbine.
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


ideal turbine
cooling tower.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
Section – II

steam turbine.
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
1) Below is the main component of refrigeration system EXCEPT: ______.
a) Compressor b) Condenser
c) Evaporator d) Pump
2) Which type of air cooling system is used for transportation?
a) Regenerative air cooling system
b) Boot strap air cooling system
c) Reduced ambient air cooling system
d) None of above
3) Inorganic compounds are ______.
a) 500 series b) 700 series
c) 200 series d) 1000 series
4) For the refrigerant R134a, 'a' stands for: ______.
a) Isomers b) Isotopes
c) Epimers d) Polymers
5) When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the
coefficient of performance of reversed Carnot cycle can be improved by
______.
a) Operating the machine at higher speeds
b) Operating the machine at lower speeds
c) Raising the higher temperature
d) Lowering the higher temperature
6) In aqua-ammonia and Lithium-bromide vapour absorption refrigeration
systems, the refrigerants are respectively _______.
a) Water and Water
b) Ammonia and Water
c) Water and Lithium bromide
d) Ammonia and Lithium bromide
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7) In a compound compression refrigeration system, the compression of
refrigerant is carried out in ______ compressor.
a) Single b) Zero
c) Multiple d) All of above
8) When BPF of the cooling coil is 0.3, then its efficiency will be ______.
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 0.7 d) 0.3
9) The humidification process on the psychrometric chart is shown by ____.
a) Horizontal line b) Vertical line
c) Inclined line d) Curved line
10) For the air DBT=WBT=20°C, Then effective temperature will be ______.
a) Equal to 20°C b) Less than 20°C
c) Greater than 20°C d) Unpredictable
11) The conditioned air supplied to a room must have capacity to take _____.
a) Sensible Heat Load
b) Both Sensible & Latent Heat Load
c) Latent Heat Load
d) None of Above
12) The Duct is made of ______.
a) Galvanized Iron b) Fibre Glass
c) Aluminum d) Any one of these
13) Equivalent length (Le) for calculation of dynamic pressure loss is given by
equation ______.
𝑓 𝑓𝑐
a) 𝑐𝑚 b) 𝑚
𝑓𝑚 𝑐𝑚
c) 𝑐 d) 𝑓
14) The degree of warmth or cold felt by a human body depends mainly on
_______.
a) dry bulb temperature b) air velocity
c) relative humidity d) all of Above
Page 2 of 16
SLR-HL-131
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any two questions from both sections.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Draw the P-V & T-S diagram for Bell Coleman cycle & with the help of it 05
show that for Bell Coleman cycle
1
COP = 𝛾−1
( )
𝑅𝑝 𝛾 − 1
Where Rp = pressure ratio
b) With schematic diagram and T-s plot explain Linde system for liquefaction 05
of air.
c) Explain Effect of change in evaporator & condenser pressure on COP of 04
VCC.
Q.3 a) Explain the various thermodynamic properties of refrigerants. 05

b) A Carnot refrigeration cycle absorbs heat at 270K & rejects it at 300K. 05
1) Calculate the COP of this refrigeration Cycle.
2) If the cycle absorbing 1130 kJ/min at 270K, how many kJ of work is
required per second?
3) If the Carnot heat pump operates between the same temperatures as
the above refrigeration cycle, what is the COP?
4) How many kJ/min will heat pump deliver at 300K if it absorbs 1130
kJ/min at 270K?
c) Explain with the help of neat diagram Electrolux Refrigeration System. 04
Q.4 a) The temperature limits of an ammonia refrigerating system are 25°C and 05
-10°C. If the gas is dry at the end of compression, calculate the coefficient
of performance of the cycle by assuming no under cooling of the liquid
ammonia. Use the following table for the properties of ammonia.
Temp. (°C) Liquid Heat Latent Heat Liquid

(kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) Entropy(kJ/kgK)
25 298.9 1166.94 1.1242
-10 135.37 1297.68 0.5443
b) Explain by flow diagram and on p-h diagram multiple evaporators at 05
different temperature with individual compressor & individual expansion
valve.
c) Draw neat diagram of Regenerative air cooling system for air craft 04
refrigeration and explain it with the help of its T-S diagram.
Page 3 of 16
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Section – II
Q.5 a) A sample of moist air has DBT of 43°C & WBT of 29°C. Calculate the 05
following without making use of psychrometric Chart.
1) Partial Pressure of water vapour
2) Specific Humidity
3) Relative Humidity
4) Dew Point Temperature
5) Enthalpy
b) What are the different factors (load components) are considered in load 05
estimation sheet for comfort application?
c) Write down general rules in designing the duct. 04
Q.6 a) Define GSHF, RSHF & ERSHF and show those lines on layout of 05
psychrometric chart.
b) Write a short note on types of fan used in air conditioning applications. 05
c) Define the following. 04
1) DPT
2) Sp. Humidity
3) Degree of Saturation
Q.7 a) Develop an equation for equivalent diameter of circular duct for a 05

rectangular duct when quantity of air passing through both the duct is
same.
b) An air conditioning system is to be designed for small office for winter 05
conditions with following data:
Outdoor condition: 10°C DBT and 8°C WBT
Required indoor condition: 20°C DBT and 60% RH
Amount of air circulated: 0.3 m3/min/person
Seating capacity of the office: 50 persons
The required condition is achieved first by heating and then by adiabatic
humidifying. Find the following:
1) Heating capacity of coil in kW and surface temperature if bypass
factor is 0.32.
2) Capacity of humidifier
c) Explain the factors affecting on Human Comfort. 04
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 0.7 d) 0.3
c) Latent Heat Load
d) None of Above
equation ______.
𝑓 𝑓𝑐
a) 𝑐𝑚 b) 𝑚
𝑓𝑚 𝑐𝑚
c) 𝑐 d) 𝑓

_______.
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Set Q
d) None of above
______.
a) Water and Water
a) Single b) Zero
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-131
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1
COP = 𝛾−1
( )
𝑅𝑝 𝛾 − 1
of air.
VCC.

kJ/min at 270K?

25 298.9 1166.94 1.1242
-10 135.37 1297.68 0.5443
valve.
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II
5) Enthalpy
1) DPT
2) Sp. Humidity

same.
factor is 0.32.
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
c) Latent Heat Load
d) None of Above
equation ______.
𝑓 𝑓𝑐
a) 𝑐𝑚 b) 𝑚
𝑓𝑚 𝑐𝑚
c) 𝑐 d) 𝑓

_______.
d) None of above
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
______.
a) Water and Water
a) Single b) Zero
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 0.7 d) 0.3
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1
COP = 𝛾−1
( )
𝑅𝑝 𝛾 − 1
of air.
VCC.

kJ/min at 270K?

25 298.9 1166.94 1.1242
-10 135.37 1297.68 0.5443
valve.
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section – II
5) Enthalpy
1) DPT
2) Sp. Humidity

same.
factor is 0.32.
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) Water and Water
a) Single b) Zero
a) 0.5 b) 1
c) 0.7 d) 0.3
c) Latent Heat Load
d) None of Above
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Set S
equation ______.
𝑓 𝑓𝑐
a) 𝑐𝑚 b) 𝑚
𝑓𝑚 𝑐𝑚
c) 𝑐 d) 𝑓

_______.
d) None of above
______.
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1
COP = 𝛾−1
( )
𝑅𝑝 𝛾 − 1
of air.
VCC.

kJ/min at 270K?

25 298.9 1166.94 1.1242
-10 135.37 1297.68 0.5443
valve.
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II
5) Enthalpy
1) DPT
2) Sp. Humidity

same.
factor is 0.32.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem – I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Automobile Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
1) Which of the following statements regarding four-wheel drive is correct?
a) All the four wheels are powered
b) All the four wheels can be steered
c) Vehicle has four wheels
2) The number of points at which the engine - clutch-gear box unit is supported
on the chassis frame is ______.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
3) ______ is the resistance offered by air to the movement of a vehicle.
a) air resistance b) grade resistance
c) rolling resistance d) total resistance
4) The ability of the rear wheels to transmit tractive effort without slipping is
known as ______.
a) pull b) push
c) torque d) traction
5) The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be ______.
a) zero b) minimum
c) maximum d) none of these
6) The component of the torque converter that allows multiplication of torque
is the ______.
a) turbine b) impeller
c) pump d) stator
7) By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjacent gears have their
speeds ______.
a) increased b) reduced
c) equalized d) un-equalized
8) Most popular manual steering gear for cars today is ______.
a) worm and wheel type b) rack and pinion type
c) cam and roller type d) worm and nut type
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9) One purpose of a recirculating ball type steering gear is to reduce the ______.
a) operating friction b) operating cost
c) toe-out during- turns d) number of parts
10) The function of master cylinder is ______.
a) to decrease pressure unequally in all cylinders
b) to increase pressure unequally in all cylinders
c) to increase pressure equally in all cylinders
d) to decrease power equally in all cylinders
11) Air brakes are mostly used in case of ______.
a) cars b) trucks
c) jeeps d) three-wheelers
12) The MacPherson system consists of a ______.
a) diagonal stay b) a single arm
c) telescopic strut d) all above
13) The components suspension systems are: ______.
a) springs
b) dampers or shock absorbers
c) stabilizer and a linkage system
d) all of these
14) A Fuel Cell is an electrochemical device that combines ______ and
______ to produce electricity, with water and heat as its by-product.
a) Hydrogen and Water b) Hydrogen and Oxygen
c) a and b d) none of these
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain in detail the front engine front wheel drive arrangement with a neat 06
sketch and write its advantages and disadvantages.
b) Define the following. 04
1) Chassis
2) Draw bar pull
3) Gradient resistance
4) Tractive effort
c) Explain single plate clutch with neat sketch. 04
Q.3 a) The coefficient of rolling resistance weighing 62293.5 N is 0.018 and 10

coefficient of air resistance is 0.0276 in the formula R = KW+KaAV 2 in N.
Where, A is m2 of the frontal area and V is the speed in km/h. The
transmission efficiency in top gear of 6.2: 1 is 90 % and in the second gear
of 15:1 is 80 %. The frontal area is 5.574 m2. If the truck has to have a
maximum speed of 88 km/h in the top gear, calculate
(i) The engine brake power required
(ii) The engine speed if the driving wheels have an effective
diameter of 0.8125 m
(iii) The maximum grade the truck can negotiate at the above engine
speed in second gear and
(iv) The maximum drawbar pull available on the level at the above
engine speed in second gear.
b) Describe fluid clutch with neat sketch. 04
Q.4 a) Explain synchromesh gear box with neat sketch of synchronizer unit and 06
also describe its advantages over other type of gear boxes.
b) Write short note on the following. 08
1) Electric fuel gauge
2) Electric horn
Page 3 of 16
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Section – II
Q.5 a) What are the functions of a steering system? Explain worm and worm 06
wheel steering gear box.
1) Camber
2) Caster
3) King pin inclination
4) Included angle
c) Write short note. (Any One) 04
1) Disc brake
2) Anti-lock Braking System (ABS)
Q.6 a) A vehicle has its wheel base equal to 3 times the height of its C.G. above 06
ground. If the vehicle is braked on all four wheels over a road adhesion
factor of 0.6, determine the weight transfer from the rear to the front
wheels.
b) Explain airbrake system. 04
c) Write short note (Any One) 04
1) Power steering
2) Under steer & over steer
Q.7 a) What are the functions and purpose of the suspension system? 06
Differentiate independent and conventional suspension systems.
b) Explain with neat sketch shock absorber. 04
1) Hotch-kiss and Torque tube drive
2) Electronic Control Unit
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) cars b) trucks
a) springs
d) all of these
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
known as ______.
a) pull b) push
a) zero b) minimum
is the ______.
c) pump d) stator
speeds ______.
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1) Chassis
2) Draw bar pull
4) Tractive effort

2) Electric horn
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II
1) Camber
2) Caster
4) Included angle
1) Disc brake
wheels.
1) Power steering
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) cars b) trucks
a) springs
d) all of these
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
known as ______.
a) pull b) push
a) zero b) minimum
is the ______.
c) pump d) stator
speeds ______.
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1) Chassis
2) Draw bar pull
4) Tractive effort

2) Electric horn
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section – II
1) Camber
2) Caster
4) Included angle
1) Disc brake
wheels.
1) Power steering
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
is the ______.
c) pump d) stator
speeds ______.
a) cars b) trucks
a) springs
d) all of these
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
known as ______.
a) pull b) push
a) zero b) minimum
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
1) Chassis
2) Draw bar pull
4) Tractive effort

2) Electric horn
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II
1) Camber
2) Caster
4) Included angle
1) Disc brake
wheels.
1) Power steering
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Robotics and Artificial Intelligence
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page
1) The main function of the robot is ______.
a) Sensing the environment by external sensor
b) Decision making
c) Performing
d) all
2) A 3D object in 3D space has got ______ degree/s of freedom.
a) 1 b) 5
c) 6 d) 4
3) Which of the following is a robot specification?
a) Control wrist b) payload
c) robot energy d) None of this
4) DC motors that are used in closed loop position control are called ______
motors.
a) Synchronous b) Steeper
c) Brushless d) Servo motors
5) A smart sensor can do which of the following?
a) Compensate for random errors
b) Automatic calibration of accuracy
c) Adjust for non linearities
d) all of the above
6) The most widely used technique of control for industrial robots is ______
control.
a) PI b) PD
c) PID d) ID
7) The process of finding the position of the end effector when the joint
variable are know is called ______.
a) Forward Kinematics b) Inverse Kinematics
c) Forward Dynamics d) Inverse Dynamics
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
8) Artificial Intelligence is a technique which enables machines to ______
human behaviour.
a) Mimic b) Ignore
c) Forget d) None of the above
9) The ______ search generates all nodes at a particular level before
proceeding to the next level of the tree.
a) Breadth First b) Depth First
c) Hill Climbing d) Production Systems
10) ______ are viewed as 'rules of thumb' that domain experts could use to
generate good solutions without exhaustive search (rule-based expert
systems).
a) Heuristics b) Nodes
c) Production Systems d) Exhaustive Search
11) Who is called the father of fuzzy logic?
a) Lotfi Zadeh b) Plato
c) George Boole d) Aristotle
12) The simplest form of neural networks where input data travels in one
direction only, passing through artificial neural nodes and exiting through
output nodes is called ______.
a) Feed Forward ANN b) Recurrent ANN
c) Gated Recurrent ANN d) None of the above
13) The two most commonly used technologies for imaging sensors are ______.
a) RGB and HSV b) CDD and CMOS
c) RGB and CIE d) CCD and CMOS
14) Imaging sensors in ______ cameras have both length and breadth.
a) Volume scan b) Area Scan
c) Line Scan d) Perimeter
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No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain major components of an industrial robot. 07

b) Give classification of industrial robots. 07
Q.3 a) Explain inductive and capacitive type of proximity sensors used in robots. 07
b) Explain hydraulic actuators used in robots with their advantages and 07
limitations.
Q.4 a) Explain various end effectors used in industrial robots. 07

b) Explain forward kinematics for 2 DOF Planar Manipulator with suitable 07
diagram.
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain depth first and breadth first search techniques used in Al with 07
example.
b) Explain Hill Climbing Method used in Al with diagrams. 07
Q.6 a) Explain Components of Fuzzy Logic Systems Architecture. 07

b) Explain Artificial Neural Network with example. 07
Q.7 a) Explain various applications of Machine Vision Systems. What are 07

advantages of using a Machine Vision System?
b) Explain CCD and CMOS sensors used in Machine Vision Systems. 07
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page
human behaviour.
a) Mimic b) Ignore
systems).
b) Decision making
c) Performing
d) all
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a) 1 b) 5
c) 6 d) 4
motors.
d) all of the above
control.
a) PI b) PD
c) PID d) ID
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

limitations.

diagram.
Section – II
example.


Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page
b) Decision making
c) Performing
d) all
a) 1 b) 5
c) 6 d) 4
motors.
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d) all of the above
control.
a) PI b) PD
c) PID d) ID
human behaviour.
a) Mimic b) Ignore
systems).
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

limitations.

diagram.
Section – II
example.


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page
control.
a) PI b) PD
c) PID d) ID
human behaviour.
a) Mimic b) Ignore
systems).
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Set S
b) Decision making
c) Performing
d) all
a) 1 b) 5
c) 6 d) 4
motors.
d) all of the above
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

limitations.

diagram.
Section – II
example.


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Production and Operations Management
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them clearly.

1) KAIZEN is Japanese word in which" KAI"means and "ZEN" means _____.
a) Plan, do b) Muda, muri
c) change, better d) None of above
2) "ABC" analysis is done by arranging items in decreasing order of _____.
a) Total Inventory costs b) Item value
c) Annual usage valued d) Item demand
3) “______” is one of benefits of six sigma.
a) Top-down approach b) Down-Top approach
c) Left-right approach d) None of above
4) If two variables, x and y, have a very strong linear relationship, then ______.
a) there is evidence that 𝑥 causes a change in 𝑦
b) there is evidence that 𝑦 causes a change in 𝑥
c) there might not be any causal relationship between 𝑥 and 𝑦
d) None of these alternatives is correct
5) The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control
is ______.
a) Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling- Follow up
b) Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
c) Scheduling-Routing- Dispatching-Follow up
d) Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching
6) “MAD” in relation with forecasting error stands for ______.
a) Main absolute data b) Mean analysis data
c) Mean absolute deviation d) None of these
7) In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the ______.
a) response, or dependent, variable
b) independent variable
c) intervening variable
d) is usually x
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8) If the actual demand for a period is 100 units but forecast demand was 90
units. The forecast error is _______.
a) -10 b) +10
c) -5 d) +5
9) Forecast used for New product planning, capital expenditure, facility
location are ______.
a) Long range time horizon b) short range time horizon
c) medium range time horizon d) None of above
10) Which of the following is not primary function for plant maintenance?
a) maintenance of existing plant and equipment
b) alterations to existing equipment and buildings
c) selling of old machineries
d) equipment inspection and lubrication
11) Which of the following is a production planning technique?
a) Dispatching b) Loading
c) Inspection d) expediting
12) Productivity can be improved by _____.
a) increasing inputs while holding outputs steady
b) decreasing outputs while holding inputs steady
c) increasing inputs and outputs in the same proportion
d) decreasing inputs while holding outputs steady
13) The full form of " ERP " stands for ______
a) Enterprise Revenue Planning b) Enterprise Recovery Planning
c) Enterprise Resource Planning d) Enterprise Report Planning
14) Which of the following means 'visual cards'?
a) Poka-Yoke b) Kanban
c) Both of above d) None of above
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Section I and Section II are compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions from Section I and Section II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Explain objectives and scope of Production Management in detail. 07

b) Explain with example different types of manufacturing systems. 07
Q.3 a) Explain Exponential smoothening method of Forecasting with example. 07

b) A dealer for LCD television forecasts the demand for televisions at the 07
rate of 500 per month for next three months. The actual demand turned
out to be 400,560 and 700. Calculate forecast error and bias and also
comment on same.
Q.4 Write short Note on following.

a) Functions of Production Planning and control 04
b) Line Balancing 05
c) Aggregate Planning 05
Section – II
Q.5 a) What are different types of Inventory? Explain various costs associated 07
with Inventory.
b) Write short note on Inventory control techniques? Explain "ABC analysis" 07
technique in detail.
Q.6 a) Write difference between Preventive Vs Breakdown maintenance. 07

b) Define value engineering and value analysis. Explain value analysis 07
procedure.

a) Just in time (JIT) 05
b) Six Sigma 05
c) Supply chain management (SCM) 04
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) -10 b) +10
c) -5 d) +5
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is ______.
d) is usually x
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


comment on same.

Section – II
with Inventory.

procedure.

b) Six Sigma 05
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

Page 7 of 12
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Set R
is ______.
d) is usually x
a) -10 b) +10
c) -5 d) +5
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


comment on same.

Section – II
with Inventory.

procedure.

b) Six Sigma 05
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) is usually x
a) -10 b) +10
c) -5 d) +5
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Set S
is ______.
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


comment on same.

Section – II
with Inventory.

procedure.

b) Six Sigma 05
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

1) Scrap and rework factor is considered as _____ in equipment selection.
a) Operational b) Economic
c) Technical d) Management
2) ISO 13399 is an international _____ information standard.
a) Cutting tool b) General purpose machine
c) Special purpose machine d) Gauge
3) Organisation establishes relationship between ______.
a) People, work & management b) Customer, work & resource
c) People, work & resource d) None of the above
4) symbol used in drawing to interpret ______.
a) Perpendicularity b) Position
c) Symmetry d) Concentricity
5) The process assesses the practicality of the proposed plan for the project
is called _____ study.
a) Technical b) Managerial
c) Feasibility d) Economical
6) Which of the following can be categorized as specific tooling ______?
a) SPM b) Gages
c) Jigs and fixture d) Micro – base tool
7) Symbol used for inspection in method study is ______.
a) Circle b) Square
c) Pyramid d) Triangle
8) ______ of the following product is not continuous/process mfg. system.
a) Steel b) Petrochemical
c) Cement d) Ball pen
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9) A milk powder tin is being weighed as it is filled is an example of _____.
a) Operation cum transportation
b) Operation cum inspection
c) Transportation cum inspection
10) _____ is the input for process planning.
a) Design drawing b) Jigs and fixtures
c) Tools d) Machine
11) _____ of following is most important skill which is not required by a
process engineer.
a) Knowledge of jigs and fixtures
b) Knowledge of manufacturing process
c) Design of product
d) Interpret engg. drawings
12) In process picture sheet, locator is considered as ______.
a) Square b) Circle
c) Triangle d) Arrow
13) Type-II 02
Match the pairs:
a) SPM b) Job Production
c) Standard M/C d) Mass production
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
2) Answer any one full question from the remaining in each Section.
Section – I
Q.2 Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the component in figure 1 w.r.t. data 14
supplied there in along following lines.
a) Route sheet
b) Operations list indicating sequence of operation indicating machine
selected, holding methods, tool specifications and machining parameters
per set up.
c) Gauges and or inspection methods and instruments.
Q.3 a) Write a note on Part Print Analysis with suitable example. 07

b) What is feasibility study? Explain. 07
Q.4 a) What are the functions of process and product engineer in an 07

organization?
b) Explain types of production in detail. 07
Q.5 a) What is tolerance stack? Discuss methods to control the tolerance stack. 07
b) Explain manufacturing system, input and output of process engineering. 07
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Section – II
Q.6 Draw the process picture sheet for any four operations for manufacturing the 14
component in Figure I w.r.t. sequence. Use standard symbols for locating
whenever required.
Q.7 a) What are the factors in tool selection and explain it with suitable example? 07
b) Explain feasibility with its aspects. 07
Q.8 a) Write a note on selection criteria for GPM and SPM. 07

b) What are the various sources of information to select machine and 07
equipment?
Q.9 a) How do you classify the operations? Explain any three operations with neat 07
sketch.
b) Write a short note various sources of information. 07
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No. Set Q
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

c) Tools d) Machine
process engineer.
a) Square b) Circle
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a) SPM b) Gages
a) Circle b) Square
13) Type-II 02
Match the pairs:
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
a) Route sheet
per set up.


organization?
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II
whenever required.

equipment?
sketch.
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

process engineer.
a) Square b) Circle
a) SPM b) Gages
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) Circle b) Square
c) Tools d) Machine
13) Type-II 02
Match the pairs:
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
a) Route sheet
per set up.


organization?
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
Section – II
whenever required.

equipment?
sketch.
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) SPM b) Gages
a) Circle b) Square
c) Tools d) Machine
process engineer.
a) Square b) Circle
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
13) Type-II 02
Match the pairs:
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Process Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
a) Route sheet
per set up.


organization?
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
Section – II
whenever required.

equipment?
sketch.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B. Tech) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
Finite Element Method
carry one mark.
same page.
4) Assume the suitable data wherever necessary.


1) Size of shape function matrix of 2D element having 3 nodes is _____.
a) 2×6 b) 3×3
c) 4×6 d) 2×5
2) The displacement at any point for ID simplex element is obtained by _____.
a) 𝑢 = 𝑁𝑖 𝑢𝑖 + 𝑁𝑗 𝑢𝑗 b) (𝑥𝑗 − 𝑥) (𝑥 − 𝑥𝑖 )
𝑢= 𝑢𝑖 + 𝑢𝑗
𝐿 𝐿
c) 𝑢 = 𝑎 + 𝑏𝑥 d) All of these
3) Formula for Galerkin method is _____.
a) ∫ 𝑓(𝑥)𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0 b) ∫ 𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
c) 𝑅(𝑥) = 0 d) ∫ 𝑅 2 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
4) Summation of all shape functions within one element is equal to
a) 0 b) 1
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
5) The potential energy in a spring is given by the equation
a) 1 b) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑔
𝜋 = 𝐾𝑈 2 − 𝐹𝑈
2
c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑐 2 c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑘 2
6) A measure of distortion of a element is
a) Bandwidth b) Damping ratio
c) Aspect ratio d) Shape function
7) A problem which is not a function of a time
a) Eigenvalue problem b) Steady state problem
c) Transient problem d) Propagation problem
8) In finite element method the term finite stands for
a) Finite number of element
b) Finite number of nodes
c) Finite number of equations
d) Finite number of degrees of freedom
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9) Interpolation function for a 2 noded simplex 1-D element is _____.
a) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 b) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑎3 𝑥 2
c) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑎3 𝑦 d) None the above
10) Model analysis means finding
a) Mode shapes b) Natural frequencies
11) Improvement in the accuracy of finite element mesh by increasing the
order of interpolation function used in the elements is
a) h-refinement b) p-refinement
c) mesh refinement d) p-h refinement
12) If the order of displacement interpolation function and geometry
interpolation function is the same, then the element is called _____.
a) Subparametric b) Superparametric
c) Isoparametric d) Parametric
13) Post processing means
a) Meshing b) Solving
c) Result analysis d) Discretization
14) In _____ element the value of field variable remains unchanged in the
circumferential direction.
a) 1D and 2D b) Beam
c) Truss d) Axisymmetric
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Instructions: 1) Answer any two questions from Section I and Section II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Obtain solution of differential equation by using Galerkin’s method. 07

𝜕 2𝑢
3 2 + 𝑥 + 2 = 0, 0≤𝑥≤1
𝜕𝑥
Take boundary conditions as 𝑢(0) = 𝑢(1) = 0
b) Explain Simplex, Complex and Multiplex elements. 07
Q.3 a) Find nodal displacement in stepped bar as shown in figure 1. 07

Take 𝐴1 = 20𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴2 = 10𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 𝐿2 = 100𝑚𝑚, 𝐸 = 200 × 103 𝑀𝑃𝑎
b) Explain steps in finite element method with examples. 07
Q.4 Attempt the following.

a) Using Lagrange polynomials write down the shapes functions for a 1-D 04
cubic truss element.
b) What are the properties of Stiffness matrix? Explain. 06
c) Write a note on principle of minimum potential energy. 04
Section – II
Q.5 a) Solve the following problem for all unknowns. Impose the boundary 12
conditions using the penalty method. Refer figure 2.
𝐴1 = 900𝑚𝑚2 𝐴2 = 400𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴3 = 200𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿2 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿3 = 70𝑚𝑚
𝐸1 = 70 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸2 = 105 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸3 = 200 𝐺𝑃𝑎
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b) What are superparametric elements? 02
Q.6 a) Calculate the value of field variable at the point A(2.0, 1.5), which is located 07
inside the triangle as shown in figure 3.
The nodal values for field variable are 𝑈𝑖 = 3.5, 𝑈𝑗 = 2.2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑈𝑘 = 4.4
b) What is convergence study? Why is it necessary to do a convergence study 07

in FEA?
Q.7 Write short note on (Any Three) 14

a) Geometric non-linearity
b) Mesh refinement
c) Harmonic analysis
d) Transient analysis
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 b) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑎3 𝑥 2
a) 2×6 b) 3×3
c) 4×6 d) 2×5
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
𝐿 𝐿
a) ∫ 𝑓(𝑥)𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0 b) ∫ 𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
c) 𝑅(𝑥) = 0 d) ∫ 𝑅 2 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
a) 0 b) 1
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
a) 1 b) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑔
𝜋 = 𝐾𝑈 2 − 𝐹𝑈
2
c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑐 2 c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑘 2
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Section – I

𝜕 2𝑢
3 2 + 𝑥 + 2 = 0, 0≤𝑥≤1
𝜕𝑥

Take 𝐴1 = 20𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴2 = 10𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 𝐿2 = 100𝑚𝑚, 𝐸 = 200 × 103 𝑀𝑃𝑎

Section – II
𝐴1 = 900𝑚𝑚2 𝐴2 = 400𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴3 = 200𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿2 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿3 = 70𝑚𝑚
𝐸1 = 70 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸2 = 105 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸3 = 200 𝐺𝑃𝑎
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q

in FEA?

b) Mesh refinement
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 2×6 b) 3×3
c) 4×6 d) 2×5
𝐿 𝐿
a) ∫ 𝑓(𝑥)𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0 b) ∫ 𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
c) 𝑅(𝑥) = 0 d) ∫ 𝑅 2 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
a) 0 b) 1
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) 1 b) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑔
𝜋 = 𝐾𝑈 2 − 𝐹𝑈
2
c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑐 2 c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑘 2
a) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 b) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑎3 𝑥 2
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Section – I

𝜕 2𝑢
3 2 + 𝑥 + 2 = 0, 0≤𝑥≤1
𝜕𝑥

Take 𝐴1 = 20𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴2 = 10𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 𝐿2 = 100𝑚𝑚, 𝐸 = 200 × 103 𝑀𝑃𝑎

Section – II
𝐴1 = 900𝑚𝑚2 𝐴2 = 400𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴3 = 200𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿2 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿3 = 70𝑚𝑚
𝐸1 = 70 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸2 = 105 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸3 = 200 𝐺𝑃𝑎
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-137
Set R

in FEA?

b) Mesh refinement
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-137
Seat
No. Set S
carry one mark.
same page.


a) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 b) 𝑎1 + 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑎3 𝑥 2
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) 2×6 b) 3×3
c) 4×6 d) 2×5
𝐿 𝐿
a) ∫ 𝑓(𝑥)𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0 b) ∫ 𝑅(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
c) 𝑅(𝑥) = 0 d) ∫ 𝑅 2 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 0
a) 0 b) 1
c) 0.5 d) 1.5
a) 1 b) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑔
𝜋 = 𝐾𝑈 2 − 𝐹𝑈
2
c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑐 2 c) 𝜋 = 𝑀𝑘 2
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Section – I

𝜕 2𝑢
3 2 + 𝑥 + 2 = 0, 0≤𝑥≤1
𝜕𝑥

Take 𝐴1 = 20𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴2 = 10𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 𝐿2 = 100𝑚𝑚, 𝐸 = 200 × 103 𝑀𝑃𝑎

Section – II
𝐴1 = 900𝑚𝑚2 𝐴2 = 400𝑚𝑚2 , 𝐴3 = 200𝑚𝑚2
𝐿1 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿2 = 80𝑚𝑚, 𝐿3 = 70𝑚𝑚
𝐸1 = 70 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸2 = 105 𝐺𝑃𝑎, 𝐸3 = 200 𝐺𝑃𝑎
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in FEA?

b) Mesh refinement
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Railway Systems Management
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) weight of the engine is categorized in_____.
a) Sprung Mass b) Unsprung Mass
c) Non-Sprung Mass d) Dummy Mass
2) weight of the wheels is categorized in______.
3) weight of the break is categorized in______.
4) ____ dampers are used to allow full fresh air into the car under normal
operating conditions.
a) Fresh Air b) Existing Air
c) Exist Air d) None of Above
5) _____ is not a coupling used in Railway Coaches.
a) Screw Coupling b) Side Buffer Coupling
c) Central Buffer Coupling d) Tie Coupling
6) In______ coupling accident & life damage chances are more.
c) Central Buffer Coupling d) None of these
7) _____ is not a method of defrosting in A.C.
a) Manual b) Pressure Control
c) Temperature Control d) Allied Method
8) Which is the following components of a semaphore signals?
a) Movable Arm b) Crank Rod
c) Spectacle Frame d) All of These
9) The following is not a classification of maintenance
a) Corrective maintenance b) Timely maintenance
c) Scheduled maintenance d) Preventive maintenance
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10) BeIt of an electric motor is broken, it needs ______.
a) Corrective Maintenance b) Scheduled Maintenance
c) Preventive Maintenance d) Timely Maintenance
11) _____ is not a part of fire trangle
a) Fuel b) Heat
c) Oxygen d) Water
12) ____ is not a stage for fire.
a) Propagation. b) Period of Decline
c) Flash Over d) Fully Developed
13) Railway Meets around_____ % of freight Transportation.
a) 45 b) 70
c) 90 d) 60
14) Maintenance consist of the following action(s)
a) Replace of component b) Repair of component
c) Service of component d) All of the above
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
2½ Figures to right indicate full marks.
Section – I
Q.2 a) What is function of Break? Explain Vacuum Breaks used in Railways. 07

b) What is necessity of Air Suspension in Railways? Explain various loading 07
steps in Air Spring.
Q.3 a) Explain different types of Couplings used in railways for joining two 08
coaches. Explain advantages of CBC Couplers.
b) Write short note on ventilation cut-off switch & freezing protections. 06
Q.4 a) Write checkpoints for shell maintenance. 08

b) What is future of signalling w.r.t. Railways? 06
Section – II
Q.5 a) Write short note on CBTC (communication based train Control). 08

b) Explain - Rolling stock management in Trains 06
Q.6 a) Explain - Rolling stock interior & ergonomics 07

b) Write short note on - safety devices & fire extinguisher 07
Q.7 a) Write process of maintenance for Traction Motor & Gear Box in Railways. 08
b) Write short note on Scrap Management in Railways. 06
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Fuel b) Heat
c) Oxygen d) Water
a) 45 b) 70
c) 90 d) 60
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Fuel b) Heat
c) Oxygen d) Water
a) 45 b) 70
c) 90 d) 60
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Set R
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Fuel b) Heat
c) Oxygen d) Water
a) 45 b) 70
c) 90 d) 60
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth. Year (B.Tech.) (Sem– I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Entrepreneurship Development
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


1) The term Entrepreneur is derived from the _____ word.
a) English b) Tamil
c) Hindi d) French
2) Refusal to adopt and use opportunities to make changes in production ___
entrepreneur.
a) Fabian b) Imitative
c) Innovative d) Drone
3) Environmental scanning focuses_____
a) Profit b) Ideas
c) Production d) Creativity
4) The person who creates an enterprise is called
a) Entrepreneur b) Managers
c) Leaders d) Owners
5) A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which
entails setting up a new distinct business unit and board of directors can
be regarded as?
a) Ecopreneur b) Technopreneur
c) Intrapreneur d) Social Entrepreneur
6) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a) Need for independence b) Need for affiliation
c) Need for achievement d) Risk taking
7) A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a
business name and sell its products or services is known as _____.
a) A cooperative. b) A franchise.
c) An owner-manager business d) A limited company.
8) State Industrial corporations engage in the development of _____.
a) industrial estates b) institutional estates
c) individual investors d) agricultural entrepreneurs
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9) Business plan is an important _____ for entrepreneurs.
a) document b) tool
c) vision d) mission
_____ Report is a document where in all the details obtained from technical
10)
analysis, financial analysis, profitability analysis etc. are put together.
a) Feasibility b) Project
c) Both d) None
11) To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set
up a number of _____.
a) financial advisors b) financial intermediaries
c) Industrial estates d) financial institutions
12) SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of _____.
a) IDBI b) IFCI
c) ICICI d) SFC
13) District Industries Centres are located _____.
a) in each district b) in each state
c) only in selected districts d) only in selected states
14) SIDBI stands for _____.
a) Small Institutions Development Bank of India
b) Small Industries Development Bank of India
c) Small Industries Derivatives Bank of India
d) Small Industries Development Bureau of India
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
2) Neat sketches must be drawn whenever necessary.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Describe the importance and significance of growth of entrepreneurial 07

activity.
b) Explain various characteristics and qualities of entrepreneurs. 07
Q.3 a) Explain various factors influencing entrepreneurial development and 07

motivation.
b) What is EDP? Explain phases and problems faced by EDPs. 07
Q.4 a) Describe various problems face by potential Entrepreneur and their 07

probable solutions.
b) What is franchising? Explain its advantages and limitations to franchisor 07
and franchisee.
Section – II
Q.5 a) What is Idea generation? Describe various sources and methods of idea 07
generation.
b) What is business plan? Explain Financial and marketing Plan. 07
Q.6 a) What is project report? Describe its elements and significance. 07

b) Explain sole proprietorship and partnership with their advantages and 07
limitations.
Q.7 a) Describe various Steps in setting up a small unit. 07

b) Explain SIDBI, NABARD, DIC and their role in Development of SMEs. 07
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) document b) tool
3)
c) Both d) None
a) IDBI b) IFCI
c) ICICI d) SFC
a) English b) Tamil
c) Hindi d) French
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Set Q
entrepreneur.
a) Profit b) Ideas
be regarded as?
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

activity.

motivation.

probable solutions.
and franchisee.
Section – II
generation.

limitations.

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) IDBI b) IFCI
c) ICICI d) SFC
a) English b) Tamil
c) Hindi d) French
entrepreneur.
a) Profit b) Ideas
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Set R
be regarded as?
a) document b) tool
14)
c) Both d) None
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

activity.

motivation.

probable solutions.
and franchisee.
Section – II
generation.

limitations.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) document b) tool
5)
c) Both d) None
a) IDBI b) IFCI
c) ICICI d) SFC
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) English b) Tamil
c) Hindi d) French
entrepreneur.
a) Profit b) Ideas
be regarded as?
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

activity.

motivation.

probable solutions.
and franchisee.
Section – II
generation.

limitations.

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Product Life Cycle Management
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The sequence of a traditional production supply chain is:
a) Supplier-Storage-Product-Storage-Distributor-Retailer-Customer
b) Supplier-Storage-Product-Storage-Retailer-Distributor-Customer
c) Supplier-Storage-Product-Distributor-Storage-Retailer-Customer
d) Storage-Supplier-Product-Storage-Distributor-Retailer-Customer
2) The process of product design is:
a) Ideation-Drawing- Analysing-Velidation.
b) Drawing- Ideation - Analysing- Validation.
c) Drawing- Analysing- Validation- Ideation.
d) Ideation- Validation- Analysing- Drawing.
3) The activities of designing and producing a container for a product are
known as:
a) Purchase-sale b) Presentation
c) Promotion d) Packaging
4) In which of the following stages of product life cycle a company reduces
sales promotion to take advantage of heavy consumer demand?
a) Introduction b) Growth
c) Maturity d) Decline
5) As the product passes through different stages of a product life cycle, the
product variety
a) increases b) decreases and then increases
c) remains the same d) decreases
6) Branding of product
a) makes it more saleable
b) differentiates it from other products in the market
c) make it more attractive for customer
d) gives customer rebate on MRP
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7) When two separate companies or two divisions within the same company
agree to place both of their respective brands on a particular product or
enterprise, this arrangement is termed as
a) Differential Branding
b) Cobranding
c) Dual Branding
d) Both Cobranding and Dual Branding
8) What does the term PLC stands for?
a) Product life cycle b) Production life cycle
c) Product long cycle d) Production long cycle
9) When a new product arrives in the market with higher quality, higher
value and new features better than its competitors. Such products are
known as
a) Superior products b) Develop superior products
c) Unique superior products d) New products
10) Which of the following is not a characteristic of “Market Introduction
Stage” in PLC?
a) Demands has to be created
b) Costs are low
c) Makes no money at this stage
d) Slow sales volume to start
e) There is little or no competition
11) Increased competition leads to price decrease, increasing public
awareness, sales volume increase significantly are the characteristics of
in PLC
a) Mature stage b) Decline stage
c) Growth stage d) Market introduction stage
12) _______ includes review of sales, profit projections and cost for a new
product, to find out whether it satisfied the company objective or not.
a) Product Development b) Business Analysis
c) Marketing Strategy d) Test Marketing
13) Color and size of the product, brand and packaging are considered as
a) Chemical features of product b) Physical features of product
c) Product designing d) Product manufacture
14) The most important performance dimension for product development
project is
a) Time to market b) Time to target
c) Time to consumer d) Time to seller
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Answer any two questions from section I and Section II.
Section – I
Q.2 a) Define PLM. List and explain different phases in PLM. 07

b) What is the difference between PLM and ERP? 07
Q.3 a) Explain PLM Characteristics and scope of PLM. 07

b) What are PLM external drivers and internal drivers? 07
Q.4 a) What is Digital Manufacturing? Definition, Process & Benefits. 07

b) What is the Need & Significance of PLM? 07
Section – II
Q.5 a) Explain the Product life cycle management system, system architecture, 07
Information models and product structure.
b) What is information model and data model? 07
Q.6 a) Explain the PLM Strategy, Principles for PLM strategy. 07

b) What are the Product Data issues in Access, Applications, Arc*hiving 07
Availability, Change, Confidentiality?
Q.7 Write Short note on Any Four 14
a) Product Structure
b) Benefits of PLM
c) Need of PLM
d) PDM
e) Stages in NPD (New Product Development)
f) PLM as Business Strategy
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

known as
Stage” in PLC?
b) Costs are low
in PLC
project is
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
known as:
product variety
b) Cobranding
c) Dual Branding
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

b) Benefits of PLM
c) Need of PLM
d) PDM
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-143
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

in PLC
project is

known as:
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
product variety
b) Cobranding
c) Dual Branding
known as
Stage” in PLC?
b) Costs are low
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

b) Benefits of PLM
c) Need of PLM
d) PDM
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

b) Cobranding
c) Dual Branding
known as
Stage” in PLC?
b) Costs are low
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
in PLC
project is
known as:
product variety
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I



Section – II

b) Benefits of PLM
c) Need of PLM
d) PDM
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y.(B.Tech) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
Digital Communication
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
4) Assume data wherever necessary


1) The process of converting the analog sample into discrete form is called
a) Modulation b) Multiplexing
c) Quantization d) Sampling
2) The characteristics of compressor in 𝜇-law companding are
a) Continuous in nature b) Logarithmic in nature
c) Linear in nature d) Discrete in nature
3) The error probability of a PCM is
a) Calculated using noise and inter symbol interference
b) Gaussian noise + error component due to inter symbol interference
c) Calculated using power spectral density
d) All of the above
4) For a binary symmetric channel, the random bits are given as
a) Logic 1 given by probability P and logic 0 by (1-P)
b) Logic 1 given by probability 1-P and logic 0 by P
c) Logic 1 given by probability P2 and logic 0 by 1-P
d) Logic 1 given by probability P and logic 0 by (1 -P)2
5) Information rate is defined as
a) Information per unit time
b) Average number of bits of information per second
c) rH
d) All of the above
6) If two events are statistically independent then P(AB)= _____.
a) P(A) b) P(B/A) X P(A)
c) P(A) X P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
7) For hamming distance dmin and t errors in the received word, the
condition to be able to correct the errors is
a) 2𝑡 + 1 ≤ dmin b) 2𝑡 + 2 ≤ dmin
c) 2𝑡 + 1 ≤ 2dmin d) Both a and b
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8) In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 and 0 are
represented by carrier with phase shift of
a) Π/2 b) Π
c) 2Π d) 0
9) ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth
a) Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal
b) Half the bandwidth of baseband signal
c) Double the bandwidth of baseband signal
10) The probability of error of DPSK is _____ than that of BPSK.
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Same d) Not predictable
11) In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is transmitted with signal value ‘1’ and
‘0’ indicates
a) No carrier
b) Half the carrier amplitude
c) Amplitude of modulating signal
12) For M equally likely messages, M >> 1, if the rate of information R > C,
the probability of error is
a) Arbitrarily small b) Close to unity
c) Not predictable d) Unknown
13) Costas loop is a method for
a) Frame synchronization b) Carrier synchronization
c) Symbol synchronization d) None of these
14) Why spread spectrum technique is inefficient for a single user?
a) Large transmission bandwidth b) Small transmission bandwidth
c) Fixed transmission bandwidth d) Fixed null bandwidth
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Both sections are compulsory.
Section - I
Q.2 Attempt any Two of the following. 12

a) Given the alphabets with probabilities {0.4, 0.2, 0.2, 0.1, 0.1} calculate
efficiency using Huffman codes Technique and Shannon Fanno coding
Technique. Compare the result.
b) Illustrate with a neat diagram PCM Generation and PCM Regeneration
technique.
c) Illustrate with a neat diagram Baseband binary data Transmission.
Q.3 Attempt any Four of the following 16

a) Discuss the different types of Sampling.
b) What are the drawbacks of delta modulation? How they can be reduced.
c) In a binary PCM a ‘zero’ occurs with probability 1/4 and ‘one’ occurs with
probability 3/4, calculate information carried by each bit.
d) Explain ISI problem how it can be reduced.
e) Discuss why Quantization is important in Digital Communication & its types
in brief
Section - II
Q.4 Attempt Any Two of the following. 12

a) With suitable diagram explain DSSS transmitter & receiver
b) The generation matrix for (6,3) block code is given below find all code
vectors of this code.
1 0 0 1 1 0
𝐺 = [0 1 0 0 1 1]
0 0 1 1 1 1
What is the minimum distance between the code vectors?
How many errors can be detected? How many errors can be correct?
c) With suitable waveforms explain QPSK & OQPSK.
Q.5 Attempt Any Four of the following 16

a) Explain with block diagram QAM.
b) Explain with block diagram DPSK modulator and demodulator.
c) State advantages and disadvantages of spread spectrum techniques.
d) For message 𝑀 = [0 1 0 1] and 𝑔(𝑥) = 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥 3 show a systematic (7,4)
cyclic code encoder circuit and stepwise encoding of M.
e) Explain optimum receiver
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Π/2 b) Π
c) 2Π d) 0
a) Higher b) Lower
‘0’ indicates
a) No carrier
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set Q
d) All of the above
c) rH
d) All of the above
c) P(A) X P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
a) 2𝑡 + 1 ≤ dmin b) 2𝑡 + 2 ≤ dmin
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

technique.

in brief
Section - II

1 0 0 1 1 0
𝐺 = [0 1 0 0 1 1]
0 0 1 1 1 1

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


‘0’ indicates
a) No carrier
d) All of the above
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set R
c) rH
d) All of the above
c) P(A) X P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
a) 2𝑡 + 1 ≤ dmin b) 2𝑡 + 2 ≤ dmin
a) Π/2 b) Π
c) 2Π d) 0
a) Higher b) Lower
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

technique.

in brief
Section - II

1 0 0 1 1 0
𝐺 = [0 1 0 0 1 1]
0 0 1 1 1 1

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


c) P(A) X P(B) d) P(A) + P(B)
a) 2𝑡 + 1 ≤ dmin b) 2𝑡 + 2 ≤ dmin
a) Π/2 b) Π
c) 2Π d) 0
a) Higher b) Lower
‘0’ indicates
a) No carrier
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set S
d) All of the above
c) rH
d) All of the above
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

technique.

in brief
Section - II

1 0 0 1 1 0
𝐺 = [0 1 0 0 1 1]
0 0 1 1 1 1

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Digital Signal Processing
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The value of the twiddle factor W 813 is ______.
a) −j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j 0.707 d) j
2) With signal x(n) = {2, 4 , 5 ,7, 6}, if x1(n) = x((n − 2))5 then x1(n) will be _____.
a) {5,7, 6,2, 4} b) {7,6, 2,4, 5}
c) {4 , 5 ,7,6, 4} d) {2, 4 , 5 , 7,68}
3) If the sequence x(n) is of finite duration then ROC is entire Z plane,
except possibly ______.
a) z = 0 b) z = ∞
c) z = 0 and/or z = ∞ d) z = 0 and z = ∞
4) The magnitude response for DFT exhibits complex conjugate property if
time sequence is _____.
a) A real sequence b) A complex sequence
c) An imaginary sequence d) Not a real sequence
5) Decimation in time FFT decimates ______.
a) DFT coefficients b) Input sequence
c) Both sequence and DFT d) None
6) Circular convolution can be performed using the methods _____.
a) Concentric Circle b) Matrix Multiplication
7) DIT algorithm related to ______.
a) x(k) shuffled b) x(n)shuffled
c) x(k) and X(n)shuffled d) None
8) Which of the following is not true for IIR filters _____.
a) Impulse response duration is infinite
b) They have poles
c) They give linear phase response
d) None of above
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9) The FIR filter of order M gives linear phase response if _____.
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
c) h(n) = h(M − 1 − n) d) None of these
10) The mapping at bilinear transformation is _____.
a) One to one mapping b) Many to one mapping
c) Many to many mapping d) None of the above
11) Butterworth filters have _____.
a) Wide transition region b) Sharp transition region
c) Oscillation in transition region d) Maximally flat passband
12) Which realization method minimizes the delay elements?
a) Direct form-I b) Direct form-II
c) Cascade d) Parallel
13) Which of the following properties are true for an IIR filter designed using
bilinear Transform method?
a) Requires the use of antiasing filter
b) Requires prewarping the filter cutoff frequencies
c) Not suited for the design of HP filters
d) Results in unique mapping from analog to digital frequencies
14) The addressing mode that is convenient for FFT computation is ______.
a) Indirect addressing b) Circular mode addressing
c) Bit reversed addressing d) Memory mapped addressing
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any four 20

a) Draw and explain the block diagram of DSP system
b) The first five points of the 8 Point DFT of a real valued sequence are
{28, −4 + j9.565, −4 + j4, −4 + j1.656, −4}. Determine remaining three
points.
c) Draw direct form realization structure of the system whose impulse response
is h(n) = {1,3, −2,4,5}
d) Find the circular convolution of the two finite duration sequences
x1 (n) = {1, −1, −2, 3, −1} x2 (n) = {1, 2, 3}.
e) Consider the signal X(n) = {1, 4, 5, 2, −4, 6}, obtain following sequences
x1(n) = x((−n))6
x2(n) = x((n − 2))6
x3(n) = x((n + 1))6
Q.3 Attempt any one. 08

a) Find the output y(n) of a filter whose impulse response is h(n) = {1,1,1} and
input signal x(n) = {3, −1, 0, 1, 3, 2, 0, 1, 2, 1} using overlap save method.
b) Find DFT of the sequence x(n) = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT FFT
algorithm.
Section – II

a) Compare FIR filters & IIR filters. Why IIR filters cannot give linear phase
characteristics? Explain.
b) Given αp = 2 dB, αs = 10 dB, Ωp = 20rad/sec, Ωs = 30 rad/sec. Determine
the order of the Butterworth filter.
c) Explain in detail the Multiply and Accumulate (MAC) unit of digital signal
processor.
d) Draw and explain the structure for 4 x 4 Baron Multiplier for unsigned
numbers.
e) Explain in brief windowing. Compare different window characteristics
based on transition width and stop band attenuation.
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a) The desired frequency response of a low pass filter is
−𝜋 𝜋
𝑒 −2𝑗𝑤 ≤𝜔≤
𝐻𝑑 (𝑒 𝑗𝑤 ) = { 4 4
𝜋 𝜋
0 ≤ |𝜔| ≤
4 4
Determine hd (n). Also determine h(n) using symmetric Rectangular
window of length 5.
b) Explain steps for designing IIR filter using Impulse Invariance method. For
1
the analog transfer function H(s) = (s+1)(s+2) determine H(z) using impulse
Invariance method. Assume T = 1 sec.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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same page.

b) They have poles
d) None of above
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
a) −j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j 0.707 d) j
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a) {5,7, 6,2, 4} b) {7,6, 2,4, 5}
c) {4 , 5 ,7,6, 4} d) {2, 4 , 5 , 7,68}
a) z = 0 b) z = ∞
c) z = 0 and/or z = ∞ d) z = 0 and z = ∞
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Section – I

points.
is h(n) = {1,3, −2,4,5}
x1 (n) = {1, −1, −2, 3, −1} x2 (n) = {1, 2, 3}.
x1(n) = x((−n))6
x2(n) = x((n − 2))6
x3(n) = x((n + 1))6

algorithm.
Section – II

processor.
numbers.
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−𝜋 𝜋
𝐻𝑑 (𝑒 𝑗𝑤 ) = { 4 4
𝜋 𝜋
0 ≤ |𝜔| ≤
4 4
window of length 5.
1
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a) −j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j 0.707 d) j
a) {5,7, 6,2, 4} b) {7,6, 2,4, 5}
c) {4 , 5 ,7,6, 4} d) {2, 4 , 5 , 7,68}
a) z = 0 b) z = ∞
c) z = 0 and/or z = ∞ d) z = 0 and z = ∞
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b) They have poles
d) None of above
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
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Section – I

points.
is h(n) = {1,3, −2,4,5}
x1 (n) = {1, −1, −2, 3, −1} x2 (n) = {1, 2, 3}.
x1(n) = x((−n))6
x2(n) = x((n − 2))6
x3(n) = x((n + 1))6

algorithm.
Section – II

processor.
numbers.
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−𝜋 𝜋
𝐻𝑑 (𝑒 𝑗𝑤 ) = { 4 4
𝜋 𝜋
0 ≤ |𝜔| ≤
4 4
window of length 5.
1
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b) They have poles
d) None of above
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
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a) −j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j 0.707 d) j
a) {5,7, 6,2, 4} b) {7,6, 2,4, 5}
c) {4 , 5 ,7,6, 4} d) {2, 4 , 5 , 7,68}
a) z = 0 b) z = ∞
c) z = 0 and/or z = ∞ d) z = 0 and z = ∞
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

points.
is h(n) = {1,3, −2,4,5}
x1 (n) = {1, −1, −2, 3, −1} x2 (n) = {1, 2, 3}.
x1(n) = x((−n))6
x2(n) = x((n − 2))6
x3(n) = x((n + 1))6

algorithm.
Section – II

processor.
numbers.
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−𝜋 𝜋
𝐻𝑑 (𝑒 𝑗𝑤 ) = { 4 4
𝜋 𝜋
0 ≤ |𝜔| ≤
4 4
window of length 5.
1
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) In 8051 an external interrupt 1 vector address is of ______.
a) 000BH b) 001BH
c) 0013H d) 0023H
2) This program code will be executed continuously:
STAT: MOV A, #01h
JNZ A, STAT
a) True b) False
3) The 8051 has _____ 16-bit counter/timers.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
4) MOV A, @R1 will: ______.
a) copy R1 to the accumulator
b) copy the accumulator to R1
c) copy the contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the accumulator
d) copy the accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in R1
5) When the 8051 is reset and the ̅̅̅̅
𝐸𝐴 line is HIGH, the program counter
points to the first program instruction in the: ______.
a) Internal code memory b) External code memory
c) Internal data memory d) External data memory
6) The I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory
are: _______.
a) ports 1 and 2 b) ports 1 and 3
c) ports 0 and 2 d) ports 0 and 3
7) LCALL instruction of 8051 is ______ byte instruction.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
8) In 8051 ______ bit of ______ register can be used to double the baud rate.
a) SM0, SCON b) SMOD, PCON
c) Gate, TMOD d) SM0, PCON
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9) Operating CCP1 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by
writing to ______ register.
a) PR1 b) TMR2
c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
10) In PIC to make Port B an input port, we must place ______ in register ______.
a) 00 h, PORTB b) FF h, PORTB
c) 00 h, TRISB d) FF h, TRISB
11) In PIC 16F877 interrupt vector is at ______ in program memory.
a) 0000 h b) 0004 h
c) 0040 h d) 0400 h
12) If IRP bit of STATUS register is set, then ______ will gets selected.
a) Bank 0 b) Bank 1
c) Bank 2 or 3 d) Bank 0 or 1
13) What is the address of the last location of on-chip flash program memory
for PIC 16F877?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
14) The file with the ______ extension is downloaded into PIC ROM.
a) hex b) asm
c) obj d) all
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
2½ Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it clearly.
Section – I

a) List the three buses found in computer systems and state briefly the
purpose of each bus.
b) What is the purpose of program counter, stack pointer and instruction
decoder?
c) What are the CPU different registers and their purpose in 8051
microcontroller?
d) Define addressing mode. Explain the different addressing modes in 8051
with suitable example.
e) Draw and explain the bit formats of TMOD and TCON registers.

a) What are the functions of the following 8051 pins?
ALE EA- PSEN- RST XTAL1 & XTAL2
b) Write 8051 program to transfer the message “YES” serially at 9600 baud,
8-bit data, 1 stop bit. Do this continuously.
c) What are the modes of operation of Timer in 8051? Write a program Timer
0 to generate a square wave of 20.5 KHz.
Section – II

a) List out the features of PIC 16F877.
b) How internal memory is organized in PIC 16F877?
c) Interface one digit seven segment display to 8051 and write a program to
display “0” to “9”.
d) Explain Timer1 operation in PIC 16F877.
e) How WDT and BOR internally operate?

a) Draw and explain interfacing of ADC 0808/09 to 8051. Write a program to
covert analog voltage on channel 1 to digital.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of a unipolar stepper motor to 8051 and write
a program to rotate the stepper motor in clockwise direction continuously.
c) How do you operate CCP module in PWM mode? Explain PWM operation.
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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a) PR1 b) TMR2
c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
a) 0000 h b) 0004 h
c) 0040 h d) 0400 h
a) Bank 0 b) Bank 1
for PIC 16F877?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
a) hex b) asm
c) obj d) all
a) 000BH b) 001BH
c) 0013H d) 0023H
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STAT: MOV A, #01h
JNZ A, STAT
a) True b) False
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
11) MOV A, @R1 will: ______.
are: _______.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

decoder?
microcontroller?

Section – II


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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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a) 0000 h b) 0004 h
c) 0040 h d) 0400 h
a) Bank 0 b) Bank 1
for PIC 16F877?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
a) hex b) asm
c) obj d) all
a) 000BH b) 001BH
c) 0013H d) 0023H
STAT: MOV A, #01h
JNZ A, STAT
a) True b) False
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
8) MOV A, @R1 will: ______.
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are: _______.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
a) PR1 b) TMR2
c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

decoder?
microcontroller?

Section – II


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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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same page.

are: _______.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
a) PR1 b) TMR2
c) PR2 d) CCP1RL
a) 0000 h b) 0004 h
c) 0040 h d) 0400 h
a) Bank 0 b) Bank 1
for PIC 16F877?
a) 0FFF h b) 1FFF h
c) FFFF h d) 7FFF h
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a) hex b) asm
c) obj d) all
a) 000BH b) 001BH
c) 0013H d) 0023H
STAT: MOV A, #01h
JNZ A, STAT
a) True b) False
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
13) MOV A, @R1 will: ______.
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Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

decoder?
microcontroller?

Section – II


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T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
Information Technology and Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) Take odd man out- MS Project, MS Access, DB2, Oracle _____.
a) MS Project b) MS Access
c) DB2 d) Oracle
2) Collection of computing systems used by organization in information
system is referred as- ______.
a) e infrastructure b) information technology
c) Processes d) all of these
3) Which of below is not a major economical impact of information system
on organization ______.
a) shrink in organization size b) change in workplace
c) reduction in transaction cost d) outsourcing of services
4) Which of below is a legal issue with e commerce ______.
a) admissible evidence b) digital signature
c) Jurisdiction d) all of these
5) Software is a _____ product.
a) Complex b) intangible
c) non conform d) all of these
6) _____ are software systems designed to support machine to machine
interaction over a network.
a) Information technology b) Cloud computing
c) Web services d) Apps
7) A business analyst is an example of _____.
a) data worker b) information worker
c) knowledge worker d) manager
8) Take an odd man out- NEFT, IRCTC, RTGS, PayTM, _____.
a) NEFT b) IRCTC
c) RTGS d) PayTM
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9) A typical organization is devoted to the principle of ______.
a) bureaucracy b) efficiency
c) information d) knowledge
10) A typical business undergoes which of below pressure _____.
a) legal b) political
c) technological d) all of these
11) Key member leaving project team is an example of _____.
a) internal risk b) forecast
c) Issue d) all of these
12) A working model that is functionally equivalent to a component of the
product is called ______.
a) spiral model b) v model
c) waterfall model d) none of these
13) Two types of database query are _____ and ______.
a) select, update b) action, select
c) action, update d) action, retrieval
14) Which of below is a sources of data into an enterprise?
a) Clicksteram at web site b) CRM input
c) supply chain input d) all of these
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T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem- I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve Any Two. 12

a) Classify information systems based on its levels.
b) With suitable diagram explain flow of e payment with credit/debit card.
c) With suitable example evaluate need, challenges and benefits of ECM.
Q.3 Solve Any Four. 16

a) Compare OLAP and data mining.
b) What are the different models of web mining?
c) With suitable example explain data, database, information and knowledge.
d) Describe any four models of e business.
e) With suitable example compare forward and reverse auctions.
Section – II
Q.4 Solve Any Two 12

a) With suitable example describe any six attributes of the software project.
b) With suitable example explain how ERP interfaces with other enterprise
systems.
c) With suitable diagram and example explain various flows and processes in
supply chain management.

a) With suitable example discuss any two ethical issues related to information
systems.
b) With suitable example explain - copyright and patent.
c) Justify with example - a software project requires a good project management.
d) Evaluate importance and different types of milestones.
e) Justify - information systems and organization influence each other.
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a) NEFT b) IRCTC
c) RTGS d) PayTM
c) DB2 d) Oracle
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Section – I


Section – II

systems.

systems.
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c) DB2 d) Oracle
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a) NEFT b) IRCTC
c) RTGS d) PayTM
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Section – I


Section – II

systems.

systems.
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a) NEFT b) IRCTC
c) RTGS d) PayTM
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c) DB2 d) Oracle
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Section – I


Section – II

systems.

systems.
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Managerial Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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same page.

1) In the Production of Wheat, all of the following are variable factors that
are used by the farmer except:
a) The seed and fertilizer used when the crop is planted
b) The field that has been cleared of trees and in which the crop is
planned
c) The tractor used by the farmer in planting and cultivating not only
wheat but also corn and barley
d) The Number of Hours that the farmer spends in cultivating the wheat
fields
2) Identify the Correct statement:
a) The Average Product is at its maximum when marginal product is
equal to Average Product
b) The Law of Increasing returns to scale relates to the effect of
changes in factor Proportions
c) Economies of scale arise only because of indivisibilities of factor
proportions
d) Internal economies of scale can accrue when industry expands
beyond optimum
3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
a) Its supply for the economy is limited
b) It’s a immobile
c) Its usefulness depends on human efforts
d) It is produced by our forefathers
4) Which of the following statement is true?
a) Accumulation of capital depends solely on income of individuals
b) Saving can be influenced by government policies
c) External economies go with size and internal economies with location
d) The Supply curve of labour is an upward slopping curve
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5) Diminishing Marginal Returns Implies
a) Decreasing Average variable Costs
b) Decreasing Marginal Costs
c) Increasing Marginal Costs
d) Decreasing Average fixed costs
6) In Economics we use the term scarcity to mean
a) Abstract scarcity and lack of resource in less developed countries
b) Relative scarcity i.e. scarcity in relation to the wants of the society
c) Scarcity during times of business failure and natural calamities
d) Scarcity caused on account of excessive consumption by the rich
7) The Marginal, Average and Total Product Curves encountered by the firm
production in the short run exhibit all of the following relationship except:
a) When total product rising, average and marginal product may be
either rising or falling
b) When marginal product is negative, total product and average
product are falling
c) When average product is at a maximum, marginal product equals
average product, and total product is rising
d) When marginal product is at a maximum, average product equals
marginal product, and total product is rising
8) What implication (s) dose resource scarcity have for the satisfaction of
wants?
a) Not all wants can be satisfied
b) We Will never be faced with the need to make a choices
c) We must develop ways to decrease our individual wants
d) The discovery of new natural resource is necessary to increase our
ability to satisfy wants
9) Which of the following is a normative statement
a) Planned economies allocate resources via government department
b) Most transitional economies have experienced problems of falling
output and rising prices our past decade
c) There is a greater degree of consumer sovereignty in market
economies than planned economies
d) Reducing in inequality should be major priority for mixed economies
10) Demand for a commodity refers to:
a) Desire backed by ability to pay for the commodity
b) Need for the commodity and willingness to pay for it
c) The quantity demanded of that commodity at a certain price
d) The quantity of the commodity demanded at a certain price during
any particular period of time
11) Contraction of demand is result of:
a) Decrease.in the number of Consumers
b) Increase in the price of the good concerned
c) Increase in the price of other goods
d) Decrease in the income of purchasers
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12) All but one of the following are assumed to remain the same while
drawing an individual’s demand curve for a commodity. Which one is it?
a) The preference of the individual
b) His monetary income
c) Price of the commodity
d) Price of related goods
13) A Study of how increase in the corporate income tax rate will affect the
national unemployment rate is an example of
a) Macro-Economics b) Descriptive Economics
c) Micro-Economics d) Normative Economics
14) Identify the Factor which Generally keeps the Price-Elasticity of demand
for a Good low
a) Verify of uses for that good
b) Very low Price of a Commodity
c) Close Substitute for that Good
d) High Proportion of the Consumer’s Income spent on it
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Section – I
Q.2 Solve any four questions. 16

a) What are the Basic Functions of Business Managers? How does
Economics helps Business managers in Performing their Functions?
b) What is law of Equimarginal Utility? What is the Condition for Equi-
Marginal Utility?
c) Define Budget Line. How is basis of deriving the Budget Line? What
purpose does budget line serves in consumer Analysis?
d) What is the Major Area of Business Decision Making? How does Economic
theory Contribute to Managerial decisions?
e) Explain the concepts separately
1) Income Elasticity of demand
2) Price elasticity of demand
3) Elasticity of Price expectations
f) What is the condition for Consumer Equilibrium under Ordinal utility
approach to consumer analysis? Explain and Illustrate Graphically.
Q.3 Solve any two questions. 12

a) What are major Marco-economics Issues Related Directly to business
decision making? What is their Significance in Business Decisions?
b) What is meant by Elasticity of Demand? How is the Elasticity of Demand
measured?
c) Explain the Regression method for estimating a leaner function, and
estimating the error term.
Section – II
Q.4 Solve any Four questions. 16

a) What is Purpose of demand for casting? What are the necessary steps
that need to be taken for Forecasting demand for a Product?
b) What are the opinion Poll method and Delphi Method?
c) What are the methods used for Forecasting demand? Discuss in detail the
survey method of Forecasting demand for consumer goods. What are the
advantages and Limitations?
d) State and Illustrate Cobb-Douglas Production Function. What are
Properties of Cobb-Doulas Production Function.
e) What is Linear Programming? Discuss usefulness of its application to
Practical Business problems.
f) What is meant by Production? Distinguish between Fixed and Variable
Inputs.
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Q.5 Solve any three questions. 12
a) What is the meaning of demand in economics? How is demand different
from desire, want and need?
b) Explain and illustrate the relationship Between Marginal Cost, Average
Cost and Total Cost Assuming a short run non linear cost function?
c) Plot the following data on a graph and Find the trend equation for sales.
Year 1970 1971 1972 1973 1974 1975 1976
Total Sales 1150 1020 3050 3000 2950 3060 4030
(units)
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wants?
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for a Good low
planned
fields
proportions
beyond optimum
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product are falling
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Section – I

Marginal Utility?

measured?
Section – II

Inputs.
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Year 1970 1971 1972 1973 1974 1975 1976
Total Sales 1150 1020 3050 3000 2950 3060 4030
(units)
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for a Good low
planned
fields
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proportions
beyond optimum
product are falling
wants?
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Section – I

Marginal Utility?

measured?
Section – II

Inputs.
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Year 1970 1971 1972 1973 1974 1975 1976
Total Sales 1150 1020 3050 3000 2950 3060 4030
(units)
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product are falling
wants?
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for a Good low
planned
fields
proportions
beyond optimum
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Section – I

Marginal Utility?

measured?
Section – II

Inputs.
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Year 1970 1971 1972 1973 1974 1975 1976
Total Sales 1150 1020 3050 3000 2950 3060 4030
(units)
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Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
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same page.

1) ______ is the progressive eroding of the relevance of territorial bases for
social, economical and political activities process and relations.
a) Globalization b) Privatization
c) Liberalization d) None of these
2) _____ is development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
a) Accountability b) Sustainability
c) Globalization d) All of these
3) _____ are moral philosophy or ethics concerned with criteria of what is
morally rights and wrong.
a) Normative Ethical Theories b) Descriptive Ethics Theories
c) Traditional Ethics Theories d) All of these
4) Model of ethical decision-making seek to represent things _____.
a) The different stages in decision-making
b) The different influences on that process
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
5) Which is a stage of Ethical Decision Making?
a) Make Moral Judgement b) Individual Factors
c) Situational Factors d) All of these
6) What is Full Form Of CSR?
a) Corporate Social Reporting
b) Corporate Social Research
c) Corporate Social Responsibility
d) None of these
7) Which responsibility makes corporations to do what is right and fair even
when they are not compelled to do so by the legal framework?
a) Ethical Responsibility b) Legal Responsibility
c) Philanthropic Responsibility d) Economic Responsibility
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8) _____ the application of rules and procedures to people in a consistent
and avoiding arbitrarily decision-making and without discrimination on
bases other than merit.
a) Discrimination b) Employees Privacy
c) Right and Duties d) Due Process and Lay off
9) The claim that employees should also have a certain degree influence on
their tasks, their job environmental and their company goals that is a _____.
a) Discrimination b) Employee Privacy
c) Right to participation d) Due Process and Lay off
10) CSO stands for what?
a) Civil Society Organization
b) Consumer Society Organization
c) Central Statistics Office
d) None of these
11) _____ seek to punish the target company for its actions. Therefore, rather
than communicating displeasure, the boycotters actively seek to cause
the firm harm, usually by aiming for significant erosion of sales.
a) Instrumental Boycotts b) Catalystic Boycott
c) Expressive Boycott d) Punitive Boycott
12) Customer is stakeholder of organization.
a) True b) False
13) ______ is the long- term maintenance of the system according to
environmental and economical and Social consideration.
a) Security b) Sustainability
c) Business Ethics d) None of above
14) Characteristics of Civil Society are ______.
a) Social change b) Social accountability
c) Community empowerment d) All of above
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No. Set P
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any four of the following. 16

a) Explain Sustainability - a key Context for Business Ethics.
b) Write a short note on: Importance of Business Ethics.
c) Illustrate the methods of assessing ethical performance.
d) What are key features of Corporate?
e) What are main contents of code of ethics?
Q.3 Solve any two of the following. 12

a) Explain the components of business ethics management.
b) What is stakeholder theory of firm?
c) Explain in detail Normative Ethical Theories.
Section – II

a) Explain the ethical issues in firm-employee relationship.
b) Explain the functions of CSO.
c) Write a short note on marketing & consumer.
d) List & explain the ethical issues in CSO.
e) Write a short note on globalization-business government relation.

a) Explain the concept of Data identity and security.
b) Explain the Ethics of pollution control.
c) What are Ethical challenges of globalization?
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No. Set Q
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) None of these
a) True b) False
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Set Q
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
d) None of these
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No. Set Q
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set R
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) True b) False
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
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d) None of these
d) None of these
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No. Set R
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set S
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) None of these
d) None of these
a) True b) False
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c) Both a and b
d) None of these
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No. Set S
Business Ethics
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set P
T.Y (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov– 2022
Artificial Intelligence
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) If a machine can change its course of action based on the external
environment on its own, the machine is called?
a) Mobile b) Intelligent
2) The “Father of Artificial Intelligence” is _____.
a) Alan Turing b) Charles Babbage
c) John McCarthy d) None of the above
3) Which of the following are heuristic search algorithms?
a) Best First Search Algorithm b) A*Search Algorithm
4) Which of the following is the common language for Artificial Intelligence?
a) Python b) Java
c) Lisp d) PHP
5) Which of the following is a type of artificial intelligence agent?
a) Learning AI Agent b) Simple Reflex AI Agent
c) Goal-Based AI Agent d) All of the above
6) Which of the following are appropriate levels for a knowledge- based Al
agent?
a) Knowledge Level b) Logical Level
c) Implementation Level d) All of the above
7) Decisions of Victory/Defeat are made in Game trees using which
algorithm?
a) DFS b) BFS
c) Heuristic Search d) Min/Max Algorithm
8) What are the different types of Artificial Intelligence approaches?
a) Strong Approach b) Weak Approach
c) Applied Approach d) All of the above
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9) How an Al agent does interact with its environment?
a) Using sensors and perceivers b) Using only sensors
c) Using only perceivers d) None of the above
10) The correct ways to solve a problem of state-space search are?
a) Forward from the initial state b) Backward from the goal
11) Out of the given options, which of the following algorithms uses the least
memory?
a) DFS b) BFS
c) Both a) and b) are the same d) Cannot be compared
12) What is the work of Task Environment and Rational Agents?
a) Problem and Solution b) Solution and Problem
c) Observation and Problem d) Observation and Solution
13) How is a decision reached upon by a decision tree?
a) No test b) Single Test
c) Double Test d) Multiple sequences of tests
14) The different types of machine learning are?
a) Supervised b) Unsupervised
c) Reinforcement d) All of the above
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any FOUR questions. 16

a) Explain AO* Search Algorithm with example.
b) Define Artificial Intelligence and what are the Applications of Al?
c) State & explain different types of Agents.
d) Write short notes.
1) Description logics
2) Situation calculus
e) Differentiate Informed & Uninformed search.
Q.3 Solve any TWO questions. 12

a) Explain Heuristic Search Algorithm with example.
b) What is Knowledge based system? Explain First Order Logic in details.
c) State Different types of uniformed search algorithm. Explain any one in
details along with advantages & disadvantages.
Section – II

a) Write a note on Bayesian Network.
b) Explain in detail about conditional Probability.
c) What is elementary game theory? Explain with example.
d) What is Utility Theory? How it will become helpful for talking decision?
e) Describe the issues in knowledge representation.

a) Explain Decision Tree in details with one example.
b) Explain Probability and Bayes’ theorem along with example.
c) What is Reinforcement learning? Explain types of Reinforcement learning.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


memory?
a) DFS b) BFS
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Set Q
a) Python b) Java
c) Lisp d) PHP
agent?
algorithm?
a) DFS b) BFS
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


memory?
a) DFS b) BFS
a) Python b) Java
c) Lisp d) PHP
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Set R
agent?
algorithm?
a) DFS b) BFS
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


agent?
algorithm?
a) DFS b) BFS
memory?
a) DFS b) BFS
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Set S
a) Python b) Java
c) Lisp d) PHP
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set P
Data Processing & Feature Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
3) Figures to the right indicates full.


1) Data Analysis is a process of ______.
a) Inspecting data b) Cleaning data
c) Transforming data d) All of the above
2) Amongst which of the following step is performed by data scientist after
acquiring the data?
a) Deletion b) Data Replication
c) Data Integration d) Data Cleansing
3) Amongst which of the following is / are the true about regression analysis?
a) Describes associations within the data
b) Modeling relationships within the data
c) Answering yes/no questions about the data
d) All of the mentioned above
4) By normalizing relations or sets of relations, one minimizes ______.
a) Data b) Fields
c) Redundancy d) Database
5) A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ______.
a) Bar graph b) Line graph
c) Scatterplot d) All of the mentioned above
6) Which of the following techniques would perform better for reducing
dimensions of a data set?
a) Removing columns which have too many missing values
b) Removing columns which have high variance in data
c) Removing columns with dissimilar data trends
d) None of these
7) Clustering belongs to ______ data analysis.
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the mentioned above
8) What is the use of the bin/ binary data structure?
a) to have efficient insertion b) to have efficient region query
c) to have efficient deletion d) to have efficient traversal
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9) ______ techniques can be used to reduce the number of values for a given
continuous attribute, by dividing the range of the attribute into intervals.
a) Discretization b) Transformation
c) Smoothing d) Generalization
10) Which of the following method is used for finding optimal of cluster in K-
Mean algorithm?
a) Elbow method b) Manhattan method
c) C. Ecludian method d) All of the above
11) The Noise and outliers, missing values and duplicate data are problems
of ______.
a) Processing data b) Mapping Data
c) Evaluating data d) Data quality
12) ANN stands for ______.
a) Ariel Neural Network b) Artificial Neural Nucleus
c) Artificial Neural Network d) Ariel Neural Nucleus
13) Create new attributes that can capture the important information in a data
set much more efficiently than the original attributes ______.
a) Feature Creation b) Feature Selection
c) PCA d) All of the above
14) The histogram of oriented gradients (HOG) is a feature descriptor used in
computer vision and image processing for the purpose of ______.
a) object detection b) object classification
c) object clustering d) All of the above
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any FOUR. 16

a) Explain data scale types with suitable example.
b) Write short note on “Structured Features”
c) Explain kind of features in data science.
d) What is meant by Dimensionality Reduction?
e) Illustrate singular value decomposition method
Q.3 Attempt any TWO. 12

a) Explain in detail Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
b) Explain how to improve the data quality.
c) What do you mean by incomplete features?
Section – II

a) Explain the process of binarization.
b) What is the Objective Function of k-Means?
c) Explain the image gradients.
d) Explain the convolution layer of Neural Network.
e) Write variance scaling with examples.

a) Explain in detail k-means clustering.
b) Explain the manual feature Extraction HOG.
c) Explain the log and power transform and its generalization in brief.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


Mean algorithm?
of ______.
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Set Q
acquiring the data?
a) Data b) Fields
d) None of these
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


of ______.
acquiring the data?
a) Data b) Fields
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Set R
d) None of these
Mean algorithm?
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


d) None of these
Mean algorithm?
of ______.
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Set S
acquiring the data?
a) Data b) Fields
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set P
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
answer book. Each question carries one mark


1) Which of the following managed components is responsible for relaying
messages between communications channels such as MQTT, IPC, and
the cloud?
a) MQTT bridge b) Moquette
c) device shadows d) None of these
2) Managing streams for real-time processing applies to the _____.
a) edge and the cloud b) edge only
c) cloud only d) None of these
3) Which of the following managed components is responsible for
synchronizing the state between the edge and the cloud?
4) All of the logic of the component could be contained in the recipe life cycle
scripts and does not require an _____.
a) artifact b) config file
c) program d) certificate
5) Bounded context and ubiquitous language are distinct concepts within __.
a) data-driven design b) domain-driven design
c) architecture-driven design d) None of these
6) _____ can be deployed to IoT Greengrass devices either locally or
remotely.
a) Group Version b) Definition version
c) Components d) Function Definition
7) The {"temperature": 70} message is an example of _____ data and is
serializable.
a) Structured b) Unstructured
c) Semi structured d) None of above
8) _____ is not the most optimized data format for big data processing.
a) Apache ORC b) Parquet
c) AVRO d) JSON
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9) Image data from a camera and transmitted as binary data is an example
of _____ data.
10) Who is the primary persona at the heart of any industrial solution?
a) industrialists b) operators and maintainers
c) programmers d) data injectors
11) A single component can both reset configuration and ______ in a new
configuration.
a) restart b) replace
c) merge d) None of above
12) IoT Greengrass operates at the _____ layer of the OSI model.
a) Physical b) Network
c) Application d) None of above
13) Edge devices can belong to multiple _____ and each thing group can
define one active deployment.
a) thing groups b) thing artifacts
c) IAM roles d) policies
14) Which of the following managed components is responsible for deploying
a local MQTT broker and connecting leaf devices?
a) Bridge b) Moquette
c) Device shadows d) None of these
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Seat
No. Set P
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any THREE. 12

a) What are the three primary types of tools needed to deliver intelligence
workloads at the edge?
b) Describe one use case for the smart home vertical that ties in with one
more of the key benefits for ML-powered edge solutions?
c) What is the benefit of isolating your code and dependencies from other
services?
d) What is the benefit of using a publish/subscribe model to exchange
messages?

a) What is the benefit of decoupling services in your edge architecture?
b) What do you think is the worst-case scenario if your home network router
was compromised by an attacker but was still processing traffic as normal?
c) What are the common components of an edge solution?
Section – II

a) Can you modify an artifact stored in the cloud after it has been included in a
registered custom component?
b) What is the benefit of performing a data modeling exercise?
c) Discuss at least one benefit of using a serverless function for processing
loT data?
d) What business intelligence (BI) services can you use for data exposition to
end consumers?

a) What are some examples that differentiate static and dynamic resources of
an edge component?
b) Is there any relevance of ETL architectures for edge computing?
(Hint: Think lambda.)
c) What do you think is necessary to have an operational data store or a data
lake/data warehouse?
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No. Set Q
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


c) AVRO d) JSON
of _____ data.
configuration.
the cloud?
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
remotely.
serializable.
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

services?
messages?

Section – II

loT data?
end consumers?

an edge component?
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


configuration.
the cloud?
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
remotely.
serializable.
c) AVRO d) JSON
of _____ data.
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

services?
messages?

Section – II

loT data?
end consumers?

an edge component?
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


remotely.
serializable.
c) AVRO d) JSON
of _____ data.
configuration.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
the cloud?
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Industrial IoT
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

services?
messages?

Section – II

loT data?
end consumers?

an edge component?
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Seat
No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
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Set P
d) Store of value
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No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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Set R
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
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Set P
10)
except _____.
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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 6 of 12
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No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
that are of _____
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 2 of 8
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 4 of 8
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
Page 5 of 8
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 6 of 8
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 8 of 8
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Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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a) Happy b) Sad
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
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profession
d) All the above
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) Parity check bit coding is used for
a) Error correction b) Error detection
c) Error correction and detection d) None of the above
2) The channel capacity according to Shannon’s equation is
a) Maximum error free communication
b) Defined for optimum system
c) Information transmitted
d) All of the above
3) According to Shannon Hartley theorem
a) The channel capacity becomes infinite with infinite bandwidth
b) The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth
c) Has a tradeoff between bandwidth and Signal to noise ratio
d) Both b and c are correct
4) The mutual information
a) Is symmetric b) Always non negative
c) Both a and b are corrected d) None of the above
5) Synchronization of signals is done using
a) Pilot clock
b) Extracting timing information from the received signal
c) Both a and b
6) The data rate of QPSK is ______ of BPSK.
a) Thrice b) Four times
c) Twice d) Same
7) The bandwidth of BFSK is ______ than BPSK.
a) Lower b) Same
c) Higher d) Not predictable
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8) Equalization in digital communication
a) Reduces inter symbol interference
b) Removes distortion caused due to channel
c) Is done using linear filters
d) All of the above
9) Scrambling of data is
a) Removing long strings of 1’s and 0’s
b) Exchanging of data
c) Transmission of digital data
d) All of the above
10) In Adaptive Delta Modulation, the slope error reduces and
a) Quantization error decreases
b) Quantization error increases
c) Quantization error remains same
11) DPCM is a technique
a) To convert analog signal into digital signal
b) Where addition between successive samples of the analog signals
are encoded into n-bit data streams
c) Where subtraction codes are the quantized values of the predicted
value
d) All of the above
12) One of the disadvantages of PCM is
a) It requires large bandwidth b) Very high noise
c) Cannot be decoded easily d) All of the above
13) The negative statement for Shannon’s theorem states that
a) If R > C, the error probability increases towards Unity
b) If R < C, the error probability is very small
c) Both a and b
14) Entropy is
a) Average information per message
b) Information in a signal
c) Amplitude of signal
d) All of the above
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
2) Use of Steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed.
Section – I

a) Draw the block diagram of digital communication system. Explain function
of source encoder & channel encoder.
b) Write Short Note on Data formats.
c) Define discrete rate & Information rate.
d) State sampling theorem. Explain Nyquist rate in detail.
e) Explain ADM in detail.
Q.3 Attempt any Two. 12

a) Explain Duo-binary baseband PAM System in detail.
b) Write Operation of
i) Scrambling
ii) Unscrambling
c) Apply Huffman coding procedure for the following message ensemble.
Calculate efficiency of it.
[X] [X1 X2 X3 X4 X5]
[P] [0.4 0.2 0.2 0.1 0.1]
Section – II
a) Draw neat block diagram of QAM system. Explain its working.
b) Define Pseudo noise sequences. Also explain properties of it.
c) With the help of suitable waveform explain DPSK.
d) With the help of basic principle explain frequency hoping of spread
spectrums what are its advantages.
e) Define need of error control coding.
a) Compare binary ASK, FSK & PSK.
b) Describe M-Ary PSK encoding technique with neat block diagram.
c) Explain DS-SS With coherent BPSK.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
value
d) All of the above
c) Both a and b
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7) Entropy is
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
a) Pilot clock
c) Both a and b
c) Twice d) Same
a) Lower b) Same
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


i) Scrambling
ii) Unscrambling
[X] [X1 X2 X3 X4 X5]
[P] [0.4 0.2 0.2 0.1 0.1]
Section – II
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
value
d) All of the above
c) Both a and b
4) Entropy is
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
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a) Pilot clock
c) Both a and b
c) Twice d) Same
a) Lower b) Same
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Page 8 of 12
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


i) Scrambling
ii) Unscrambling
[X] [X1 X2 X3 X4 X5]
[P] [0.4 0.2 0.2 0.1 0.1]
Section – II
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
c) Twice d) Same
a) Lower b) Same
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
value
d) All of the above
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c) Both a and b
9) Entropy is
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
a) Pilot clock
c) Both a and b
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


i) Scrambling
ii) Unscrambling
[X] [X1 X2 X3 X4 X5]
[P] [0.4 0.2 0.2 0.1 0.1]
Section – II
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Z-Transform reduces to Fourier transform when it is evaluated on ______.
a) a half circle b) Z circle
c) Unit circle d) Imaginary circle
2) The following realization minimizes the delay elements _______.
a) Direct form-l realization b) Direct form-lI realization
c) Cascade form realization d) Parallel realization
3) DFT of an impulse function is ______.
a) 𝛿[𝑛] b) 1
c) 𝛿[𝑛 − 1] d) None
4) The value of the twiddle factor W45 is ______.
a) j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j0.707 d) −j
5) With signal x(n) = {2, 4, 3, -1, 7} , if x1(n) = x((n-3))5 then x1(n) will be ______.
a) {3, -1, 7, 2, 4} b) {-1, 7, 2, 4, 3}
c) {4, 3, -1, 7, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, -1, 7}
6) The number of complex multiplications required with direct computation of
N point DFT is N2. After first step DIT FFT, this count reduces to _____.
a) N2 − 1 b) N2 /2
c) N2 /2 + N/2 d) N2 /2 − N/2
7) If the linear convolution x1 = [1, 2, 3, 4] and x2 = [1, 2, 3] is
{1,4,10,16,17,12}, the 4-point circular convolution between x1 & x2 will
be ______.
a) {1,4,10,16} b) {10,16,17,12}
c) {13,21,16,17} d) {18,16,10,16}
8) TMS320C54 processor uses ______ architecture.
a) Simple b) Complex
c) Harward d) Von Neumann
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9) The FIR filter of order M gives linear phase response if ______.
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
10) With increase in the length of the filter, width of main lobe ______.
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) None of these
11) Which of the following has the best transition width characteristics?
a) Bartlett b) Rectangular
c) Blackman d) Hamming
12) FIR filters are _______.
a) All pole filters b) All zero filters
c) Pole zero filters d) Unstable filters
14) Butterworth filters have ______.
c) Oscillation in transition region d) Maximally flat pass band
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) State and prove circular time reversal property of DFT of a DT signal.
b) If x(n) = {1,5,3,2} Determine
i) x1(n) = x((-n))4
ii) x2(n) = x((n-1))4
c) Compute 4-point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1, 3, 4, -5}
d) Compute IDFT of X(k) = {15, 2 + 3j, -3, 2-3j}
e) Draw a direct form realization for the following linear phase FIR filters.
h(n) = {1, 5, 3, 7, 3, 5, 1}
f) Compute 4-point circular convolution of sequences x(n) = {1 2 3} &
h(n) = {2,5,1,4}

a) List out the similarities and differences between DIT and DIF algorithms.
Find DFT of the sequence x(n) = {4,3,5,7} using DIT.
b) Obtain Direct form I, Direct form II realizations for the system.
y(n) = -0.1y(n-1)+0.2y(n-2)+3x(n)+3.6x(n-1)+0.6 x(n-2)
c) Obtain the output of a filter using overlap & add method whose input &
impulse response are as below.
x(n) = {1,2,1,3,1,4,1,5,1,6} & h(n) = {1 2 3}
Section – II

a) Describe the applications of DSP in various fields.
b) Explain in detail Multiply & Accumulate (MAC) unit of digital signal processor.
c) Draw and explain the barrel shifter block of DSP chip.
d) Explain in brief windowing. Compare different window characteristics based on
transition width and stop band attenuation.
e) Convert the analog filter to digital filter whose system function is
(s + 0.3)
H(s) =
(s + 0.3)2 + 16
Use bilinear transformation. Assume T = 1s.
f) Given the desired specifications Ωp, Ωs, δ1, δ2 of Butterworth filter derive
the relation for obtaining order N & cutoff frequency Ωc.
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a) Explain in brief Impulse Invariant method.
b) Design a digital Butterworth filter to meet the following constraints.
0.9 ≤ |H(ejw )| ≤ 1 0 ≤ ω ≤ 0.5π
jw 0.75π ≤ ω ≤ π
|H(e )| ≤ 0.2
Using Bilinear transformation. Use T = 1 sec.
c) Explain finite word length effect in designing FIR filters.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) 𝛿[𝑛] b) 1
a) j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j0.707 d) −j
a) {3, -1, 7, 2, 4} b) {-1, 7, 2, 4, 3}
c) {4, 3, -1, 7, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, -1, 7}
a) N2 − 1 b) N2 /2
c) N2 /2 + N/2 d) N2 /2 − N/2
be ______.
a) {1,4,10,16} b) {10,16,17,12}
c) {13,21,16,17} d) {18,16,10,16}
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) x1(n) = x((-n))4
ii) x2(n) = x((n-1))4
h(n) = {1, 5, 3, 7, 3, 5, 1}
h(n) = {2,5,1,4}

y(n) = -0.1y(n-1)+0.2y(n-2)+3x(n)+3.6x(n-1)+0.6 x(n-2)
x(n) = {1,2,1,3,1,4,1,5,1,6} & h(n) = {1 2 3}
Section – II

(s + 0.3)
H(s) =
(s + 0.3)2 + 16
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
0.9 ≤ |H(ejw )| ≤ 1 0 ≤ ω ≤ 0.5π
jw 0.75π ≤ ω ≤ π
|H(e )| ≤ 0.2
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 𝛿[𝑛] b) 1
a) j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j0.707 d) −j
a) {3, -1, 7, 2, 4} b) {-1, 7, 2, 4, 3}
c) {4, 3, -1, 7, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, -1, 7}
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a) N2 − 1 b) N2 /2
2
c) N /2 + N/2 d) N2 /2 − N/2
be ______.
a) {1,4,10,16} b) {10,16,17,12}
c) {13,21,16,17} d) {18,16,10,16}
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) x1(n) = x((-n))4
ii) x2(n) = x((n-1))4
h(n) = {1, 5, 3, 7, 3, 5, 1}
h(n) = {2,5,1,4}

y(n) = -0.1y(n-1)+0.2y(n-2)+3x(n)+3.6x(n-1)+0.6 x(n-2)
x(n) = {1,2,1,3,1,4,1,5,1,6} & h(n) = {1 2 3}
Section – II

(s + 0.3)
H(s) =
(s + 0.3)2 + 16
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Set R
0.9 ≤ |H(ejw )| ≤ 1 0 ≤ ω ≤ 0.5π
jw 0.75π ≤ ω ≤ π
|H(e )| ≤ 0.2
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) N2 − 1 b) N2 /2
2
c) N /2 + N/2 d) N2 /2 − N/2
be ______.
a) {1,4,10,16} b) {10,16,17,12}
c) {13,21,16,17} d) {18,16,10,16}
a) h(n) < ∞ b) h(n) = h(−n)
Page 13 of 16
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a) 𝛿[𝑛] b) 1
a) j b) 1
c) −0.707 + j0.707 d) −j
a) {3, -1, 7, 2, 4} b) {-1, 7, 2, 4, 3}
c) {4, 3, -1, 7, 2} d) {2, 4, 3, -1, 7}
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) x1(n) = x((-n))4
ii) x2(n) = x((n-1))4
h(n) = {1, 5, 3, 7, 3, 5, 1}
h(n) = {2,5,1,4}

y(n) = -0.1y(n-1)+0.2y(n-2)+3x(n)+3.6x(n-1)+0.6 x(n-2)
x(n) = {1,2,1,3,1,4,1,5,1,6} & h(n) = {1 2 3}
Section – II

(s + 0.3)
H(s) =
(s + 0.3)2 + 16
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
0.9 ≤ |H(ejw )| ≤ 1 0 ≤ ω ≤ 0.5π
jw 0.75π ≤ ω ≤ π
|H(e )| ≤ 0.2
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Semester-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) The microprocessor of a computer can operate on any information if it is
present in _____ only.
a) Program Counter
b) Flag
c) Main Memory
d) Secondary Memory
2) In 8-bit microprocessor, how many opcodes are present?
a) 246
b) 278
c) 250
d) 256
3) Which of the following is not true about the address bus?
a) It consists of control PIN 21 to 28
b) It is a bidirectional bus
c) It is 16 bits in length
d) Lower address bus lines (AD0 – AD7) are called “Line number”
4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of operations in a
microprocessor?
a) Opcode fetch, memory read, memory write, I/O read, I/O write
b) Opcode fetch, memory write, memory read, I/O read, I/O write
c) I/O read, opcode fetch, memory read, memory write, I/O write
d) I/O read, opcode fetch, memory write, memory read, I/O write
5) Which of the following is a special-purpose register of microprocessor?
a) Program counter b) Instruction register
c) Accumulator d) Temporary register
6) How many flip-flops are there in a flag register of 8085 microprocessor?
a) 4 b) 5
c) 7 d) 10
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7) What does a microprocessor understand after decoding opcode?
a) Perform ALU operation
b) Go to memory
c) Length of the instruction and number of operations
d) Go to the output device
8) When the microcontroller executes some arithmetic operations, then the
flag bits of which register are affected?
a) PSW
b) SP
c) DPTR
d) PC
9) How are the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity flag affected if
the write instruction
MOV A,#9C
ADD A,#64H
a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
10) PSEN stands for_____
a) Program Select Enable
b) Peripheral Store Enable
c) Program Store Enable
d) Peripheral Select Enable
11) How many rows and columns are present in a 16*2 alphanumeric LCD?
a) rows=2, columns=32
b) rows=16, columns=2
c) rows=16, columns=16
d) rows=2, columns=16
12) For writing commands on an LCD, RS bit is
a) Set b) Reset
c) Set & reset d) none of the mentioned
13) What is the purpose of a special function register SPBRG in USART?
a) To control the operation associated with baud rate generation
b) To control an oscillator frequency
c) To control or prevent the false bit transmission of 9th bit
d) All of the above
14) The capture operation in counter mode is feasible when mode of CCP
module is ____.
a) synchronized
b) asynchronized
c) synchronized as well as asynchronized
d) irrespective of synchronization
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Seat
No. Set P
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three 12

a) Explain the interrupts structure of 8085.
b) Explain different Addressing Modes of 8051 Microcontroller with examples.
c) Explain the Memory organization & Mapping
d) Explain difference between Microprocessor and Microcontroller.

a) Explain the microprocessor 8085 Architecture and instructions.
b) Draw and explain architecture of intel-51, 8-bit Microcontroller.
c) Explain different mode for serial communication for 8051 Microcontroller.
Section – II

a) Explain the architecture of PIC 16F877A.
b) How SPI Protocol Works.
c) Explain different Addressing Modes of PIC 16F877A.
d) Explain Timer module in PIC 16F877A.

a) Discuss interfacing of external 16K EPROM and 8K RAM with the
microcontroller 8051.
b) Explain interfacing of stepper motor with microcontroller. Write program to
rotate stepper motor in clockwise direction continuously in full step mode.
c) Explain CCP module in PIC 16F877A in detail.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) PSW
b) SP
c) DPTR
d) PC
MOV A,#9C
ADD A,#64H
a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
a) Set b) Reset
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d) All of the above
module is ____.
a) synchronized
b) asynchronized
a) Program Counter
b) Flag
c) Main Memory
d) Secondary Memory
a) 246
b) 278
c) 250
d) 256
microprocessor?
a) 4 b) 5
c) 7 d) 10
b) Go to memory
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Set b) Reset
d) All of the above
module is ____.
a) synchronized
b) asynchronized
a) Program Counter
b) Flag
c) Main Memory
d) Secondary Memory
a) 246
b) 278
c) 250
d) 256
Page 7 of 12
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microprocessor?
a) 4 b) 5
c) 7 d) 10
b) Go to memory
a) PSW
b) SP
c) DPTR
d) PC
MOV A,#9C
ADD A,#64H
a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
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Seat
No. Set R
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 4 b) 5
c) 7 d) 10
b) Go to memory
a) PSW
b) SP
c) DPTR
d) PC
MOV A,#9C
ADD A,#64H
a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Set b) Reset
d) All of the above
module is ____.
a) synchronized
b) asynchronized
a) Program Counter
b) Flag
c) Main Memory
d) Secondary Memory
a) 246
b) 278
c) 250
d) 256
microprocessor?
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Microcontrollers
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Electro Magnetic Engineering
Day & Date: Tuesday 07-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Curl of gradient A is _____.
a) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 1 b) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = ∞
c) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 0 d) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = −∞
2) ∇2 is _____.
a) Vector b) Scalar
c) Depend on direction d) None of the above
3) Which of following is zero?
a) Grad div A b) div Gradient V
c) div curl A d) curl curl A
4) Electric dipole moment is given by _____.
a) 𝑃 = 𝑄𝑑 2 b) 𝑃 = Ψ𝑑 3
c) 𝑃 = 𝚀𝑑 d) None of above
5) Relation between potential V & electric field E
a) 𝐸 = −∇𝑉 b) 𝐸 = ∇𝑉
c) 𝑉 = −∇𝐸 d) ∇𝑉 = ∇𝐸
6) Which of the following statement for a divergence of electric and magnetic
flux densities?
a) Both are zero
b) It is zero for the electric flux density.
c) These are zero for static densities but non zero for time varying
densities?
d) It is zero for the magnetic flux density.
7) The unit of relative permeability is _____.
a) henry/metre b) henry
c) henry/sq.m d) it is dimensionless
8) The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the
current through the coil changes is known as
a) Self-inductance b) Mutual inductance
c) Series aiding inductance d) Capacitance
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9) For static magnetic field Maxwell’s curl equation is given by
a) ∇ ∙ 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽 b) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽
c) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ =0 d) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 /𝐽
10) A time varying magnetic field produces
a) both magnetic and electric fields
b) electric field only
c) magnetic field only
11) A transmission line is specified in terms of _____.
a) R, G,L b) G, L,C
c) R, G, L,C d) None of these
12) In a fully lossless line, 𝜎 = _____.
a) 0 b) 1
c) ∞ d) None of these
13) Antenna tuning is done by changing its _____.
a) Inductive reactances b) Capacitive reactances
14) Resonant frequency of an antenna depends upon its _____.
a) Physical length b) Electrical length
c) None of these d) Cannot say
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
a) Given 𝐴 = 2𝑎̂𝑥 + 4𝑎̂𝑦 and 𝐵 = 6𝑎̂𝑧, Find the Smaller angle between them
using Cross product.
b) State and Explain Biot Savarts law.
c) Point charge of +3𝜇𝐶 and−3𝜇𝐶 located at (0,0,1) mm and (0,0,-1) mm
respectively, Find E at (1,2,1.5) mm
d) Explain differential components for cylindrical system.
e) Derive the Lorentz’s force equation for moving charges.

a) Derive the expression for Electric field intensity due to infinite line charge.
b) State the explain point form of Ampere’s Law.
c) Let 𝐸 = (−6𝑦) 𝑎⃛ + (6) 𝑎⃛ + 5
𝑥2 𝑥 𝑥 𝑦 𝑎𝑦
V/m and calculate
i) VPQ given P(-7,2,1) & Q (4,1,2)
ii) VP if V = 0 at (2,0,-1)
Section – II
a) State the Maxwell’s Equation in integral and Point form derived from
Faradays Law.
b) Define the term displacement current and conduction current.
c) Derive the transmission line equation stating with field theory.
d) Define Directive Gain and Directivity of antenna.
e) Explain the term Skin depth.

a) A lossless 100Ω transmission line is terminated in 200 + j200Ω. Find
i) Voltage reflection coefficient
ii) VSWR
iii) Impedance at 0.375𝜆 from load
iv) Shortest length of line for which impedance is purely resistive for 15V
applied to the line
v) The value of this resistance
b) State and derive poynting theorem and give its significance.
c) Derive the equation for reflection coefficient and transmission coefficient by
perfect dielectric medium for normal incidence.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) ∇ ∙ 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽 b) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽
c) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ =0 d) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 /𝐽
a) R, G,L b) G, L,C
a) 0 b) 1
a) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 1 b) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = ∞
c) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 0 d) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = −∞
9) ∇2 is _____.
a) Vector b) Scalar
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a) 𝑃 = 𝑄𝑑 2 b) 𝑃 = Ψ𝑑 3
a) 𝐸 = −∇𝑉 b) 𝐸 = ∇𝑉
c) 𝑉 = −∇𝐸 d) ∇𝑉 = ∇𝐸
flux densities?
a) Both are zero
densities?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

c) Let 𝐸 = (−6𝑦) 𝑎⃛ + (6) 𝑎⃛ + 5
V/m and calculate
i) VPQ given P(-7,2,1) & Q (4,1,2)
ii) VP if V = 0 at (2,0,-1)
Section – II
Faradays Law.

ii) VSWR
applied to the line
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) R, G,L b) G, L,C
a) 0 b) 1
a) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 1 b) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = ∞
c) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 0 d) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = −∞
6) ∇2 is _____.
a) Vector b) Scalar
a) 𝑃 = 𝑄𝑑 2 b) 𝑃 = Ψ𝑑 3
a) 𝐸 = −∇𝑉 b) 𝐸 = ∇𝑉
c) 𝑉 = −∇𝐸 d) ∇𝑉 = ∇𝐸
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flux densities?
a) Both are zero
densities?
a) ∇ ∙ 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽 b) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽
c) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ =0 d) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 /𝐽
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

c) Let 𝐸 = (−6𝑦) 𝑎⃛ + (6) 𝑎⃛ + 5
V/m and calculate
i) VPQ given P(-7,2,1) & Q (4,1,2)
ii) VP if V = 0 at (2,0,-1)
Section – II
Faradays Law.

ii) VSWR
applied to the line
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


flux densities?
a) Both are zero
densities?
a) ∇ ∙ 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽 b) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 𝐽
c) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ =0 d) ∇ × 𝐵 ⃑ = 𝜇0 /𝐽
a) R, G,L b) G, L,C

a) 0 b) 1
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a) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 1 b) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = ∞
c) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = 0 d) ∇ × (∇𝐴) = −∞
11) ∇2 is _____.
a) Vector b) Scalar
a) 𝑃 = 𝑄𝑑 2 b) 𝑃 = Ψ𝑑 3
a) 𝐸 = −∇𝑉 b) 𝐸 = ∇𝑉
c) 𝑉 = −∇𝐸 d) ∇𝑉 = ∇𝐸
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

c) Let 𝐸 = (−6𝑦) 𝑎⃛ + (6) 𝑎⃛ + 5
V/m and calculate
i) VPQ given P(-7,2,1) & Q (4,1,2)
ii) VP if V = 0 at (2,0,-1)
Section – II
Faradays Law.

ii) VSWR
applied to the line
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No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem-I) (Old) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) An IT project can produce _____.
a) a system
b) a software package
c) recommendation based on study
d) all of these
2) Select appropriate sequence _____.
a) database, data, knowledge, information
b) data, database, knowledge, information
c) data, database, information, knowledge
d) information, database, knowledge, data
3) Which of below is an example of TPS _____.
a) business intelligence b) payroll
c) ERP d) expert system
4) ____ and ____ are the two views of database
a) action, query b) partitioned, replicated
c) information, knowledge d) physical, logical
5) The processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work
required, is part of project _____ management.
a) integration b) scope
c) cost d) quality
6) A _____ query is simply a data retrieval query.
a) action b) get
c) select d) all of these
7) Two types of decision support systems are
a) model driven, data driven b) data based, information based
c) middle, upper d) TPS, ERP
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8) Take odd man out – NEFT, ERP, RTGS, UPI
a) NEFT b) ERP
c) RTGS d) UPI
9) In _____ model, typically, the outcome of one phase acts as the input for
the next phase sequentially.
a) RAD b) Waterfall
c) Prototyping d) SDLC
10) Which of below is not true about organizations?
a) closed system b) social unit
c) interact with environment d) have a structure
11) Which of below is a component of an IS?

a) Purpose b) Context
c) Hardware d) All of these
12) What for IS & IT are used in Digital Enterprises?

a) Research b) Boost employee productive
c) Customer support d) All of these
13) _____ are software system designed to support machine to machine

interaction over a network
14) Take odd man out - MS Project, MS Access, DB2, Oracle

a) MS Word b) MS Access
c) DB2 d) Oracle
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
a) Explain partitioned database with – diagram, advantages and disadvantages
b) With suitable examples explain any two e - payment systems used in India.
c) What are components of information system? Discuss with suitable diagram.

a) Differentiate – data mart Vs data warehouse
b) Justify with example – IT flattens organization structure
c) To whom IT supports in a typical organization?
d) Discuss Cloud Computing - SAAS model
e) How IT infrastructure for a typical organization is decided?
Section – II
a) Justify : IT projects are as complex as other engineering projects.
b) Discuss need of and how supply chain management system is being
implemented.
c) Explain economical impact of IS on organization.

a) Discuss ethical issues related to information systems.
b) With a typical example explain decision support system
c) Compare OLAP and OLTP
d) What is deskilling ad alienation? Comment on how it is rising because of IT.
e) What are the types of IPR?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) NEFT b) ERP
c) RTGS d) UPI
a) RAD b) Waterfall




c) DB2 d) Oracle
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a) a system
d) all of these
c) cost d) quality
a) action b) get
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Section – II
implemented.

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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.




c) DB2 d) Oracle
a) a system
d) all of these
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c) cost d) quality
a) action b) get
a) NEFT b) ERP
c) RTGS d) UPI
a) RAD b) Waterfall
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Section – II
implemented.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) action b) get
a) NEFT b) ERP
c) RTGS d) UPI
a) RAD b) Waterfall



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Set S
c) DB2 d) Oracle
a) a system
d) all of these
c) cost d) quality
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Section – II
implemented.

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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) Which of the following is considered production Economics?
a) Tilling of Soil
b) Singing a song before friends
c) Preventing a child from falling into a manhole on the road
d) Painting a picture for pleasure
changes in factor proportions.
proportions.
beyond optimum.
a) Its supply for the economy is limited.
d) It is produced by our forefathers.
d) The supply curve of labour is an upward slopping curve
5) Macroeconomics is also called _____ Economics.
a) Applied b) Aggregate
c) Experimental d) None of the above
a) Abstract scarcity ad lack of resource in less developed countries
b) Relative scarcity i.e scarcity in relation to the wants of the society
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7) Business economics is
a) Abstract and applies the tools of Microeconomics
b) Involves practice application of economic theory in business decision
making
c) Incorporates tools from multiple disciplines.
d) (b) and (c) above
wants?
a) Not all wants can be satisfied.
b) We will never be faced with the need to make a choices
ability to satisfy wants.
a) Planned economies allocate resources Via government development
10) Demand for a commodity refers to :

a) Decrease in the number of consumers
d) Price of related goods.
13) Which of the following pairs of goods is an example of substitutes?
a) Tea ad sugar b) Tea and coffee
c) Pen and ink d) Shirts trousers
14) In the case of a straight lie demand curve meeting the two axes, the price
elasticity of demand at the mid-point of the line would be:
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 2
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – 1
a) Define Managerial Economics and Discuss its Scope, What is the importance
of Managerial Economics.
Marginal Utility?
c) Define and Distinguish between Income Elasticity and price Elasticity.
d) What is the Major Area of Business Decision Making? How dose
Economic theory Contribute to Managerial decisions.
e) What is meant by Utility? Distinguish Between Cardinal and Ordinal
Concept of Utility.
approach to consumer analysis? Explain and illustrate Graphically.

a) What are major Macro-economics Issues Related Directly to business
decision making? What is their significance in Business decisions?
b) What is meant by Utility? What are the conditions for Application of Law of
Diminishing Utility?
c) What is meant by Elasticity of Demand? How is the Elasticity of Demand
measured?
SECTION – II
a) What is purpose of demand of casting? What are the necessary steps that
need to be taken for Forecasting demand for a Product?
b) What are the methods used for Forecasting demand? Discuss in detail the
survey method of forecasting demand for consumer goods. What are the
c) Define and Distinguish between Arc Elasticity and Point Elasticity.
d) What is Linear Programming? Discuss usefulness of its application to
e) What is meant by production? Distinguish between Fixed and Variable
Inputs.
f) What is Opportunity Cost? Give some Examples of Opportunity Cost.
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a) Explain following Cost Concepts with examples.
i) Variable Cost
ii) Fixed Cost
iii) Explicit Cost
iv) Implicit Cost
c) Explain the Law of supply through a supply schedule and a supply curve.
Why does a supply curve slop upward to the right? What factors cause a
rightward shift in the supply curve?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
wants?

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Set Q
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 2
a) Tilling of Soil
proportions.
beyond optimum.
making
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – 1
Marginal Utility?
Concept of Utility.

measured?
SECTION – II
Inputs.
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Set Q
i) Variable Cost
ii) Fixed Cost
iii) Explicit Cost
iv) Implicit Cost
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 2
a) Tilling of Soil
proportions.
beyond optimum.
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Set R
making
wants?
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – 1
Marginal Utility?
Concept of Utility.

measured?
SECTION – II
Inputs.
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
i) Variable Cost
ii) Fixed Cost
iii) Explicit Cost
iv) Implicit Cost
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
making
wants?
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 2
a) Tilling of Soil
proportions.
beyond optimum.
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – 1
Marginal Utility?
Concept of Utility.

measured?
SECTION – II
Inputs.
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
i) Variable Cost
ii) Fixed Cost
iii) Explicit Cost
iv) Implicit Cost
Page 16 of 16
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
Page 8 of 8
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No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set P
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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a) Happy b) Sad
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
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Set R
profession
d) All the above
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech) (Sem – II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov - 2022
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
Q.1 Select an appropriate option. 14
1) The OSI model consists of _____ layers.
a) Five b) Seven
c) Eight d) Nine
2) End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in.
a) Network Layer b) Session Layer
c) Data Link Layer d) Transport Layer
3) What protocol is used between E-Mail servers.
a) FTP b) SMTP
c) SNMP d) POP3
4) CRC stands for _____
a) cyclic redundancy check b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check d) cyclic repeat check
5) Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access
control?
a) CSMA/CD b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA d) HDLC
6) The network layer is concerned with _____ of data.
a) bits b) frames
c) packets d) bytes
7) A 4 byte IP address consists of ______
a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
8) The network layer protocol for internet is ______
a) Ethernet b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol d) file transfer protocol
9) Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP b) UDP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP d) HTTP and FTP
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10) Transport layer protocols deals with _____.
a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) man to man communication
11) Which is not a application layer protocol.
a) HTTP b) SMTP
c) FTP d) TCP
12) Application layer offers _____ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
13) Which is a time-sensitive service.
a) File transfer b) File download
c) E-mail d) Internet telephony
14) Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol.
a) SMTP b) HTTP
c) FTP d) SIP
Page 2 of 12
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No. Set P
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain in brief of each layer in OSI model.
b) Elaborate IEEE802.4 & IEEE802.5.
c) Explain TCP/IP Model.
d) What is Internet Domain Name System? Draw & explain Domain Server
message format.

a) Explain distance vector routing with its limitations.
b) Differentiate between IPv4 and IPv6.
c) Elaborate Sub netting and Masking Protocol.
Section – II

a) Describe Error detection and error correction Methods.
b) What is MAC? Explain different protocols of MAC.
c) Write difference between Bluetooth 5.1, 5.2.
d) Explain HTTP Protocol.

a) Explain shortest path routing.
b) Explain TCP connection establishment, using three way handshaking.
c) Explain Flow control methods of Data link layer.
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Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) HTTP b) SMTP
c) FTP d) TCP
a) End to end
a) SMTP b) HTTP
c) FTP d) SIP
a) Five b) Seven
c) Eight d) Nine
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a) FTP b) SMTP
c) SNMP d) POP3
control?
a) bits b) frames
c) packets d) bytes
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No. Set Q
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

message format.

Section – II


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No. Set R
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) HTTP b) SMTP
c) FTP d) TCP
a) End to end
a) SMTP b) HTTP
c) FTP d) SIP
a) Five b) Seven
c) Eight d) Nine
a) FTP b) SMTP
c) SNMP d) POP3
control?
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a) bits b) frames
c) packets d) bytes
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Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

message format.

Section – II


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No. Set S
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) bits b) frames
c) packets d) bytes
a) HTTP b) SMTP
c) FTP d) TCP
a) End to end
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a) SMTP b) HTTP
c) FTP d) SIP
a) Five b) Seven
c) Eight d) Nine
a) FTP b) SMTP
c) SNMP d) POP3
control?
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No. Set S
Computer Networks
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

message format.

Section – II


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No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and should be solved in first 30 minutes in answer
Book. Don’t forget to mention Question paper Set (P/Q/R/S) on top of
page.


1) A ______ processor has less number of general purpose registers.
a) CICS b) RISC
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
2) ARM uses the _____ bit instruction set to improve code density.
a) 32 b) 64
c) 8 d) 16
3) The _______ assembler directive is used to store 32 bit data in memory.
a) ALIGN b) DCD
c) DCB d) DCW
4) ______ mode is the mode that the processor is in after reset.
a) System b) Supervisory
c) User d) Abort
5) LPC2148’s maximum operating frequency is ______ MHz.
a) 100 b) 50
c) 80 d) 60
6) In LPC2148 ______ pin select register is used to configure port pins
P1.16 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2 b) IODIR2
c) PINSEL0 d) PINSEL1
7) In ARM7TDMI-S, S stands for ______.
c) Synthesizable d) None of the above
8) Inter task communication can be done through _______.
a) Mailboxes b) Message queues
c) Pipes d) All of above
9) In ______ kernels, each task requires to do something to explicitly give
up control of the CPU.
a) Non-preemptive b) Preemptive
c) Micro d) None of the above
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10) The ______ state corresponds to a task which resides in memory but has
not been made available to the multitasking kernel.
a) Waiting b) Running
c) Ready d) Dormant
11) A ______ function is a function that can be used by more than one task
without fear of data corruption.
a) Non-reentrant b) Reentrant
c) Swap d) None of above
12) A semaphore is a protocol mechanism used to: ______.
a) Control access to a shared resource
b) Signal the occurrence of an event
c) Allow two tasks to synchronize their activities
d) All of above
13) For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be _______.
a) minimal b) maximum
c) zero d) dependent on the scheduling
14) μcos − II can manage up to _______ tasks.
a) 32 b) 64
c) 128 d) 256
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No. Set P
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
3) Assume suitable data if wherever necessary.
Section – I

a) Define embedded system. Explain major characteristics which differs
embedded system from desktop computer.
b) List down the differences between RISC and CISC architecture.
c) Examine the content of all registers and memory locations after the execution
of following instruction independently. (R7=0x00004000, R0=0x00000001,
R1=0x00000002, R2=0x00000003, R3=0x00000004, R4=0x00000000)
1) LDMIA R7, {R0, R2-R4}
2) STMIA R7! , {R1, R3}
d) Write an ARM ASM code to add two 64 bit numbers.
e) Discuss the all GPIO registers of LPC2148 with one example each.

a) Explain ARM programmer’s model in detail. (Operating modes, Register
model, Program status registers, Data types etc.)
b) In RISC architecture an instruction requires four stages to execute:
stage 1 (instruction fetch) requires 30 ns, stage 2 (instruction decode) = 9 ns,
stage 3 (instruction execute) = 20 ns and stage 4 (store results) = 10 ns.
An instruction must proceed through the stages in sequence. What is the
minimum asynchronous time for any single instruction to complete?
c) Write embedded C code to configure LPC2148 CPU clock for 60 MHz if
the 10 MHz external crystal is used as a clock source. Discuss procedure
for determining PLL setting and list required conditions.
Section – II

a) Discuss shared data problems and explain any one method to solve it.
b) Define the context and context switching. What are the steps involved in
μcos − II context switching?
c) Elaborate the problem of priority inversion and mechanism to prevent the
same with example.
d) What is non-preemptive kernel? Elaborate in detail with example and
proper diagram.
e) List down the types of priority-based kernels. Discuss the preemptive
kernel with example.
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a) Elaborate with examples inter-task/process communication tool semaphore
used in RTOS environment.
b) Define is a task? Sketch state transition diagram and discuss different task
states in detail.
c) Create four RTOS tasks to blink LED’s connected to LPC2148 port pins
P0.4 through P0.7 at 1Hz, 1.5Hz, 2Hz and 2.5 Hz respectively.
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Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
page.


c) Ready d) Dormant
d) All of above
a) 32 b) 64
c) 128 d) 256
a) CICS b) RISC
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a) 32 b) 64
c) 8 d) 16
a) ALIGN b) DCD
c) DCB d) DCW
c) User d) Abort
a) 100 b) 50
c) 80 d) 60
P1.16 to P1.31.
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No. Set Q
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

R1=0x00000002, R2=0x00000003, R3=0x00000004, R4=0x00000000)
1) LDMIA R7, {R0, R2-R4}
2) STMIA R7! , {R1, R3}

Section – II

same with example.
proper diagram.
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states in detail.
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No. Set R
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
page.


d) All of above
a) 32 b) 64
c) 128 d) 256
a) CICS b) RISC
a) 32 b) 64
c) 8 d) 16
a) ALIGN b) DCD
c) DCB d) DCW
c) User d) Abort
a) 100 b) 50
c) 80 d) 60
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P1.16 to P1.31.
c) Ready d) Dormant
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Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

R1=0x00000002, R2=0x00000003, R3=0x00000004, R4=0x00000000)
1) LDMIA R7, {R0, R2-R4}
2) STMIA R7! , {R1, R3}

Section – II

same with example.
proper diagram.
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states in detail.
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No. Set S
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
page.


P1.16 to P1.31.
c) Ready d) Dormant
d) All of above
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a) 32 b) 64
c) 128 d) 256
a) CICS b) RISC
a) 32 b) 64
c) 8 d) 16
a) ALIGN b) DCD
c) DCB d) DCW
c) User d) Abort
a) 100 b) 50
c) 80 d) 60
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No. Set S
Embedded Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

R1=0x00000002, R2=0x00000003, R3=0x00000004, R4=0x00000000)
1) LDMIA R7, {R0, R2-R4}
2) STMIA R7! , {R1, R3}

Section – II

same with example.
proper diagram.
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states in detail.
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No. Set P
Electronics System Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
the question carries one mark.
2) Don't forget to mention the Question Paper Set (P/Q/R/S) at the top of the
same page.
4) Figures to the right indicate in full marks.
1) Transducer is used to convert a ______.
a) physical quantity into an electrical signal
b) electrical signal into a physical quantity
c) physical quantity into a mechanical quantity
d) physical quantity into a chemical quantity
2) LM35 always requires an external calibration circuitry: ______.
a) True b) False
3) Why Vref is set of ADC0804 to 2.56 V if analog input is connected to the
LM35?
a) to set the step size of the sampled input
b) to set the ground for the chip
c) to provide supply to the chip
d) all of the mentioned
4) Number of cells connected in series provide a ______.
a) High current carrying capacity b) Higher Voltage
c) Higher power d) None of the above
5) Ni-Cd batteries are made of ______ chemical composition.
a) Nickel and Calcium b) Nickel and Cadmium
c) Nitrogen and Cadmium d) None of the mentioned
6) In case of industrial or military products the prime requirement is ______.
a) Best reliability b) Low cost
c) Aesthetic design d) None of the above
7) A computer program is used to translate between lower-level representation
of the computer program is called _______.
a) Compiler b) Assembler
c) Cross-compiler d) Operating system
8) Laminate in a PCB is made of ______.
a) insulating base b) conducting base
c) semi-conductive base d) Ferrous material base
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9) PCBs should be fabricated with ______ layers.
a) Odd number b) even number of
c) any number of d) None of these
10) In RS232 standards logic “0” is represented by ______.
a) -3 to -25 V b) 3 to 25 V
c) 0 to 0.8 V d) 2 to 5 V
11) Which lines are utilized during the enable state of hardware flow control in
DTE and DCE devices of RS232?
a) CD & IR b) DSR & DTR
c) RTS & CTS d) None of the above
12) In DHT 11 ______ method is used for measuring the temperature.
a) Resistive b) Inductive
c) Capacitive d) None of these
13) Thermocouple is a ______.
a) Primary device b) Secondary transducer
c) Tertiary transducer d) None of the mentioned
14) An electronic device which converts physical quantity or energy from one
form to another is called ______.
a) Sensor b) Transistor
c) Transducer d) Thyristor
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain different stages in electronic product development.
b) Explain various goals of software design.
c) Explain different types of batteries.
d) Explain the working and interfacing of LDR.
e) Write a short note on humidity sensor DHT11. Show its interfacing.

a) Explain different constructs of regular program.
b) Develop temperature measurement system using LM35 and 8051.
c) Design a single cell Li-ion battery Charger with temperature compensation
using LM317. Assume suitable battery specification.
Section – II

a) Explain PCB design rules for digital circuits.
b) Explain layout rules in PCB design.
c) Write a short note on Smart Card Systems.
d) Explain RS485 serial protocol.
e) Compare memory mapped IO and IO mapped IO.

a) Develop the system for RFID based attendance monitoring system.
b) In PCB design explain interconnection parameters Resistance and
Capacitance.
c) Explain hardware and software components of temperature controller
system.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
a) -3 to -25 V b) 3 to 25 V
c) 0 to 0.8 V d) 2 to 5 V
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a) True b) False
LM35?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Capacitance.
system.
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
a) True b) False
LM35?
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a) -3 to -25 V b) 3 to 25 V
c) 0 to 0.8 V d) 2 to 5 V
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Capacitance.
system.
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.
a) -3 to -25 V b) 3 to 25 V
c) 0 to 0.8 V d) 2 to 5 V
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a) True b) False
LM35?
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Capacitance.
system.
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No. Set P
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) A test bench is used _______
a) Verify the functionality of a design
b) To generate primitives
c) To generate net list
d) None of above
2) Which of the following attribute returns the time elapsed since the previous
transaction on S ______.
a) S’active b) S’event
c) S’Last_active d) S’Last_value
3) Which of the following is a valid signal declaration?
a) signal x : std_logic =’2’ b) signal x <= 5;
c) signal x := 5; d) signal x : std_logic := ‘1’;
4) Which of the following feature can be used to specify the parameters for
a component at the time of instantiation?
a) Generate b) Attribute
c) Generics d) Signals
5) When the following signal assignment statement executes at 5 ns, the
new value will be assigned to signal at what time?
X <= 4 after 5 ns ;
a) 10 ns; b) 10ns + ∆
c) 5 ns d) 5 ns + ∆
6) The delay model models the delays introduced by wiring which simply
delays the signal by specified delay is _____.
a) Transport b) Inertial
c) Delta d) None of these
7) Assuming the left operand as BIT - vector, “1101010” sll 2 is
a) “0101010” b) “0101000”
c) “0101011” d) None of these
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8) A single pattern that may be interpreted as a result of all the applied tests
in testing is _____
a) MIC b) PRBSG
c) SIC d) Signature
9) No. of flip-flops /CLB in FPGA XC4000 is _____
a) 4 b) 2
c) 6 d) 1
10) CMOS logic consists of _____.
a) pull up network b) pull down network
c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
11) Input Resistance of CMOS Inverter is _____.
a) Extremely LOW b) Extremely High
c) Infinity d) Zero
12) Which of the following method is used for testing the sequential circuit?
a) Random tests b) Scan path technique
c) Path sensitizing technique d) All of these
13) In a CMOS inverter with Vtn < Vin < VDD / 2, the states of p-device and
n-device are _____
a) saturated, nonsaturated
b) linear, saturated
c) nonsaturated, cutoff
d) None of these
14) Input of synthesis process are _____.
a) RTL VHDL description
b) Circuit constraints and attributes design
c) Technology library
d) All of above
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No. Set P
VLSI Design
Day & Date: Wednesday, 22-02-2023 Marks: 56
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
a) Explain with suitable example different forms of wait statement. What is
the significance of wait for 0 ns?
b) Explain the transport and inertial delays in VHDL
c) Write VHDL code for 8:1 Multiplexer.
d) If A=”101”, B=”011” and C=”010” what are the values of following statements.
i) A ror 2 ii) A & not B = “111110”,
iii) A or B and C iv) (A & B) or (B & C)
e) Write VHDL code for D flip flop with asynchronous reset.
Q.3 Solve any TWO 12

a) What are the major differences between VHDL functions and VHDL
Procedures? Write VHDL function for 4 bit addition.
b) Write VHDL code for half adder. Also write the test bench for testing it.
c) Write VHDL code for a Moore FSM to detect the sequence 101 at the
input. It should produce output z equal to 1 whenever the sequence is
detected on input x.
Section – II
a) Explain the architecture of macrocell in Xilinx 9500 series CPLD.
b) Explain place and route process of EDA tools.
c) Explain the CMOS noise margin in detail.
d) Obtain the complete test set for circuit shown below using path sensitizing.
e) Draw and explain the schematic arrangement for testing sequential circuits.
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a) Draw and Explain Xilinx Spartan 4000 FPGA architecture.
b) Explain in detail simulation steps in RTL simulation.
c) Draw and Explain DC characteristics of CMOS Inverter.
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No. Set Q
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


in testing is _____
a) MIC b) PRBSG
c) SIC d) Signature
a) 4 b) 2
c) 6 d) 1
c) Infinity d) Zero
n-device are _____
d) None of these
d) All of above
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d) None of above
X <= 4 after 5 ns ;
a) 10 ns; b) 10ns + ∆
c) 5 ns d) 5 ns + ∆
a) “0101010” b) “0101000”
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No. Set Q
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
i) A ror 2 ii) A & not B = “111110”,

Section – II
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VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


c) Infinity d) Zero
n-device are _____
d) None of these
d) All of above
d) None of above
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X <= 4 after 5 ns ;
a) 10 ns; b) 10ns + ∆
c) 5 ns d) 5 ns + ∆
a) “0101010” b) “0101000”
in testing is _____
a) MIC b) PRBSG
c) SIC d) Signature
a) 4 b) 2
c) 6 d) 1
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No. Set R
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
i) A ror 2 ii) A & not B = “111110”,

Section – II
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No. Set S
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) “0101010” b) “0101000”
in testing is _____
a) MIC b) PRBSG
c) SIC d) Signature
a) 4 b) 2
c) 6 d) 1
c) Infinity d) Zero
n-device are _____
d) None of these
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d) All of above
d) None of above
X <= 4 after 5 ns ;
a) 10 ns; b) 10ns + ∆
c) 5 ns d) 5 ns + ∆
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No. Set S
VLSI Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
i) A ror 2 ii) A & not B = “111110”,

Section – II
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No. Set P
T.Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) A process can be ____.
a) single threaded
b) multithreaded
c) both single threaded and multithreaded
d) none of the mentioned
2) The model in which the one kernel thread is mapped to many user-level
threads is called:
a) Many to One model b) One to Many model
c) Many to Many model d) One to One model
3) The long-term scheduler _____.
a) selects processes which have to be brought into the ready queue
b) selects processes which have to be executed next and allocates
CPU
c) selects processes which heave to remove from memory by swapping
4) Round robin scheduling falls under the category of _____.
a) Non-preemptive scheduling b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
5) Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average
waiting time?
a) FCFS b) SJF
c) Round robin d) priority
6) From the time of submission of a process to the time of completion, The
interval is termed as_____.
a) Waiting time b) Turnaround time
c) Response time d) Throughput
7) Which of the following system call is used for opening or creating a file?
a) Red b) White
c) Open d) Close
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8) Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of
other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all the mentioned
9) Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) Banker’s algorithm b) Round-robin algorithm
c) Peterson’s algorithm d) Karn’s algorithm
10) Thrashing_____ the CPU utilization.
a) increases b) keeps constant
c) decreases d) none of the mentioned
11) LRU page - replacement algorithm associates with each page the_____.
a) time it was brought into memory
b) the time of that page’s last use
c) page after and before it
12) _____ page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s Anomaly.
a) Optimal b) LRU
c) FCFS d) None of the mentioned
13) Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) physical address b) absolute address
c) logical address d) none of the mentioned
14) Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves
data from secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation b) paging
c) mapping d) none of the mentioned
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No. Set P
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section-I
Q.2 Answer any four. 16

a) Define process and explain different components of process.
b) List different types of operating systems. Describe any two types of
operating systems in detail.
c) What is the necessity of system call? List different systems calls used in
operating systems. Explain any two systems calls.
d) Why inter-process communication is required? Explain shared memory
and message passing mechanism of inter process communication.
e) Describe various activities involved in process management. Specify
different components of process control block.

a) List different multi-threading models and describe any two in detail.
Compare between process and thread.
b) What is race condition? Explain use of turn variable and semaphore to
ensure mutual exclusion to avoid race condition.
c) Following table shows processes along with their arrival and burst time
Process Burst time (ms) Arrival time (ms)
P1 10 0
P2 8 0
P3 6 1
P4 3 2
P5 4 1
Calculate average TAT and average WT for shortest job first (SJF) and
shortest remaining time first (SRTF) scheduling algorithm.
Section – II
Q.4 Attempt any four. 16

a) What is deadlock? Describe necessary conditions to create deadlock.
b) What are logical and physical addresses in operating system? Compare
between logical and physical address.
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c) The following table shows allocated and required resources for processes
execution.
Process Resource Allocated Resource requested
R1 R2 R1 R2
P1 1 0 0 0
P2 0 1 0 0
P3 0 0 1 1
P4 0 0 1 0
Draw resource allocation graph. Is deadlock available in RAG? Justify your
answer
d) Apply Banker’s algorithm to find safe sequence of process execution.
Assume current available resources as A= 2, B=3, C=0
Process Resource allocated Maximum resources required
A B C A B C
P0 0 1 0 7 5 3
P1 3 0 2 3 2 2
P2 3 0 2 2 0 2
P3 2 1 1 9 2 2
P4 0 0 2 4 3 3
e) What is free space management in operating system? Describe different
methods of free-space management.
Q.5 Attempt any two. 12

a) Describe contiguous and non-contiguous memory allocation in detail. What
are internal and external fragmentation issues related to memory
allocation.
b) In case of optimal page replacement algorithm following is page reference
String- Reference String = {7, 0, 1, 2, 0, 3, 0, 4, 2, 3, 0, 3, 2, 1, 2, 0, 1, 7, 0,
1} and number of frames in RAM = 3. Find page faults, page hits, page
fault ratio and page hit ratio.
c) What are the drawbacks of paging? Describe segmentation in operating
system. How segmentation overcome paging drawbacks?
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Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) mutual exclusion
other resources
a) Optimal b) LRU
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) single threaded
b) multithreaded
threads is called:
CPU
waiting time?
a) FCFS b) SJF
a) Red b) White
c) Open d) Close
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Seat
No. Set Q
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section-I


P1 10 0
P2 8 0
P3 6 1
P4 3 2
P5 4 1
Section – II

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Set Q
execution.
R1 R2 R1 R2
P1 1 0 0 0
P2 0 1 0 0
P3 0 0 1 1
P4 0 0 1 0
answer
A B C A B C
P0 0 1 0 7 5 3
P1 3 0 2 3 2 2
P2 3 0 2 2 0 2
P3 2 1 1 9 2 2
P4 0 0 2 4 3 3

allocation.
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) Optimal b) LRU
a) single threaded
b) multithreaded
threads is called:
CPU
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
waiting time?
a) FCFS b) SJF
a) Red b) White
c) Open d) Close
a) mutual exclusion
other resources
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section-I


P1 10 0
P2 8 0
P3 6 1
P4 3 2
P5 4 1
Section – II

Page 11 of 16
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Set R
execution.
R1 R2 R1 R2
P1 1 0 0 0
P2 0 1 0 0
P3 0 0 1 1
P4 0 0 1 0
answer
A B C A B C
P0 0 1 0 7 5 3
P1 3 0 2 3 2 2
P2 3 0 2 2 0 2
P3 2 1 1 9 2 2
P4 0 0 2 4 3 3

allocation.
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) Red b) White
c) Open d) Close
a) mutual exclusion
other resources
a) Optimal b) LRU
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) single threaded
b) multithreaded
threads is called:
CPU
waiting time?
a) FCFS b) SJF
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section-I


P1 10 0
P2 8 0
P3 6 1
P4 3 2
P5 4 1
Section – II

Page 15 of 16
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Set S
execution.
R1 R2 R1 R2
P1 1 0 0 0
P2 0 1 0 0
P3 0 0 1 1
P4 0 0 1 0
answer
A B C A B C
P0 0 1 0 7 5 3
P1 3 0 2 3 2 2
P2 3 0 2 2 0 2
P3 2 1 1 9 2 2
P4 0 0 2 4 3 3

allocation.
Page 16 of 16
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No. Set P
Optical Communication
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Index grading may be achieved through the _____ of mobile ions across
the core cladding interface within molten glass.
a) Diffusion b) Doping
c) Separation d) Combination
2) The graded index profile which produce the best results for multimode
optical propagation have refractive index profile
a) Circular b) Rectangular
c) Triangular d) Parabolic
3) Attenuation per Km expressed in
a) Ampere b) Decibel per Km
c) Watt d) None of these
4) The spectral linewidth of an LED operating at room temperature is the 0.8
to 0.9 𝜇m wavelength band is usually between _____ at the half
maximum intensity points
a) 10 to 15 mm b) 20 to 30 mm
c) 25 to 40 nm d) 10 to 15 nm
5) The internal quantum efficiency of LED decreases with _____.
a) Increase in temp b) Decrease in temp
c) increase in pressure d) Both a and c
6) Injection laser will generally supply _____of optical output power.
a) Megawatts b) Kilowatts
c) Milliwatts d) None
7) LASER works on _____ principle.
a) Absorption b) Stimulated emission
c) Spontaneous emission d) Both b & c
8) SLD offers _____ spectral line width.
a) Narrow b) Broad
c) Constant d) Non liner
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9) _____ is a multi-functional element of optical network.
a) HOP b) Optical Mode
c) Wavelength d) None of these
10) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers _____ the bit rate.
a) Stabilizes b) Decreases
c) Increases d) None of these
11) _____ is a multiplexing technique used to combine optical signals.
a) FDM b) WDM
c) TDM d) None of these
12) The basic performance of WDM system is determine by _____.
a) Noise added in channel b) Transmission loss
c) Insertion loss d) All of these
13) In optical cable design the strain on the fiber in the cable does not exceed
_____ %.
a) 5 b) 0.8
c) 2.2 d) 0.2
14) OTDM stand for _____ Time _____ Multiplexing
a) Orthogonal, Duplex b) Optical, Duplex
c) Orthogonal, Division d) Optical, Division
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Section – I
Q.2 Answer the following (Any Four) 16
a) An optical fiber has a numerical aperture of 0.20 and a cladding refractive
index of 1.59. Determine
i) The acceptance angle for the fiber in water which has a refractive
index of 1.33
ii) The critical angle at the core-cladding interface.
b) Derive the expression for Numerical Aperture
c) Briefly write about non-linear scattering losses observed in fiber optics.
d) Explain the principle operation / concept of double heterojunction LED.
e) Write Comparison between step index fiber and graded index fiber
Q.3 Answer the following (Any Two) 12
a) A silica optical fiber with core diameter large enough to be considered ray
theory analysis has a core refractive index of 1.50 and a cladding refractive
i) The critical angle at the core-cladding interface
ii) The NA for the fiber
iii) The acceptance angle in air for the fiber.
b) What are splices? Explain techniques for splicing.
c) With energy state diagram explain working of laser
Section – II
a) A GaAs has a bandgap energy of 1.43 eV at 300 K. Determine the wavelength
above which an intrinsic photodetector fabricated from this material will rcease to
operate.
b) Write a short note on WDM.
c) Write a short note on semiconductor optical amplifiers.
d) What is FDDI? Explain in brief.
e) Explain the following terms: Quantum Efficiency & Responsivity.
a) The radiative and nonradiative recombination lifetimes of the minority
carriers in the active region of a double-heterojunction LED are 60 ns and
100 ns respectively. Determine the total carrier recombination lifetime and
the power internally generated within the device when the peak emission
wavelength is 0.87 𝜇m at a drive current of 40 mA.
b) Explain in details types of Optical Amplifiers.
c) Draw the equivalent circuit diagram of low impedance front end receiver
amplifier and obtain the S/N ratio.
Page 3 of 12
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Narrow b) Broad
a) FDM b) WDM
_____ %.
a) 5 b) 0.8
c) 2.2 d) 0.2
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a) 10 to 15 mm b) 20 to 30 mm
c) 25 to 40 nm d) 10 to 15 nm
Page 5 of 12
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
index of 1.33
Section – II
operate.
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) FDM b) WDM
_____ %.
a) 5 b) 0.8
c) 2.2 d) 0.2
a) 10 to 15 mm b) 20 to 30 mm
c) 25 to 40 nm d) 10 to 15 nm
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Set R
a) Narrow b) Broad
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
index of 1.33
Section – II
operate.
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Narrow b) Broad
a) FDM b) WDM
_____ %.
a) 5 b) 0.8
c) 2.2 d) 0.2
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) 10 to 15 mm b) 20 to 30 mm
c) 25 to 40 nm d) 10 to 15 nm
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
index of 1.33
Section – II
operate.
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Robotics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Following question includes Section I & Section II.
Section – I

a) Classify robot on coordinate system and explain with neat diagram.
b) List and elaborate any two control methods of robotics.
c) Discuss key issues for locomotion.
d) Define transducer and sensor. Discuss proximity sensor with neat diagram.
e) List and elaborate any two-position sensor.
Section - II
Q.2 Attempt any Three. 30

a) Discuss welding and spray-painting applications of robots.
b) Describe working of robotics for part sorting application with neat sketch.
c) Compare stationary and mobile robots based on construction, speed,
capacity and applications.
d) With neat sketch explain basic visual sensing system.
Page 1 of 4
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No. Set Q
Robotics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

Section - II

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Seat
No. Set R
Robotics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

Section - II

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No. Set S
Robotics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

Section - II

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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech.) (Sem– II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Automotive Electronics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the option. 10

1) What does a sensor do?
a) it selects transmission gear ratio
b) it measures some variable
c) it is an output device
d) it sends signals to the driver
2) The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is _____
a) Slow air leakage
b) better fuel efficiency
c) less chance of running flat
d) All mentioned
3) What does a microcomputer use to interface with other systems?
a) parallel interface b) analog-to-digital converter
c) digital-to-analog converter d) all of the above
4) A thermistor is, _____.
a) a semiconductor temperature sensor
b) a device for regulating engine temperature
c) a temperature control system for the passenger
d) a new type of transistor
5) What advantages does digital signal processing have over analog signal
processing?
a) digital is more precise
b) digital doesn’t drift with time and temperature
c) the same digital hardware can be used in many filters
d) all of the above
6) Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of ____.
a) Power b) Fuel consumption
c) Engine r.p.m. d) Distance
7) Which of the following is used by the Hall Effect pickup?
a) Thermistors b) Potentiometers
c) Inductive transducers d) Semiconductors
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8) The skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided
through ____
a) antilock braking system b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system d) driving system
9) An ohmmeter can be used to measure _____.
a) plug lead resistance b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system d) all of the above
10) The ignition component that steps up voltage is the:
a) spark plug b) condenser
c) coil d) king lead
Page 2 of 12
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three: 12

a) Give brief information on instrumentation amplifier and Comparator.
b) What is working principle, characteristics of coolant temp sensor.
c) Classify and discuss IC engines in brief.
d) Explain different types of MAP sensor.
Q.3 Attempt any one: 08

a) Explain different electrical and electronic components used in automobiles.
b) Discuss different types of ADCs.
Section – II

a) What are the types of actuators? Explain hydraulic actuators used in
automobiles.
b) What are different methods of speed control in DC motor?
c) Discuss in brief electronic ignition system.
d) Discuss in brief on-board board diagnosis system in automotive.

a) Describe working and different types of solenoid valves used in automotive.
b) Explain CAN bus working principle and CAN bus physical layer in detail.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

through ____
a) Slow air leakage
d) All mentioned
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processing?
d) all of the above
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

automobiles.

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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

a) Slow air leakage
d) All mentioned
processing?
d) all of the above
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through ____
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

automobiles.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

processing?
d) all of the above
through ____
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Slow air leakage
d) All mentioned
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II

automobiles.

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Electronic Instrumentation
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.1 Choose the correct alternative from the options. 10

1) Which of below is dynamic characteristics of an instrument?
a) Accuracy b) Resolution
c) Fidelity d) Sensitivity
2) In signal generators, _____.
a) Energy is created
b) Energy is generated
c) Energy is converted from a simple d.c. source into a.c. energy at
specific frequency
d) All of the above
3) For measuring speed of motor_____ is used.
a) Tachometer b) pH meter
c) X-Y recorder d) X-Y plotter
4) For lower accuracies ____.
a) digital acquisition system is used
b) both digital and analog acquisition systems are used
c) analog acquisition system is used
d) mechanical data acquisition system is sued
5) The degree of closeness of a measurement compared to the expected
value is _____.
a) Measurement b) resolution
c) precision d) accuracy
6) In single channel data acquisition system, the output of the buffer circuitry
is ____.
a) Analog b) digital
c) zero d) mixed
7) _____ is a quantitative measure of acidity.
a) Indicator b) pH
c) Hp d) balance scale
Page 1 of 12
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8) Environmental and observational are the types of_____ errors.
a) Systematic b) Gross
c) Random d) Statistical
9) An Ultrasonic sensor is used to measure ____.
a) Distance b) Speed
c) pH Value d) Temperature
10) Harmonics Distortion is due to?
a) DC level of the signal
b) distortion in measuring equipment
c) Non linear device or system
d) none of mentioned
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-182
Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Both Sections are compulsory.
3) Use of electronic component data sheet is allowed.
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any three questions: 12

a) Define the following terms related to measurement
1) Arithmetic mean
2) Average value
3) Deviation
4) Standard deviation
b) What are international, primary, secondary, and working standards of
measurement?
c) What is electromagnetic interference? What causes electromagnetic
interference? How to prevent EMI?
d) Draw block diagram of digital tachometer and describe it’s working.
Q.3 Solve any one question: 08

a) Draw block diagram of electronic counter and describe various of modes of
working.
b) Why AC signal conditioning is necessary? With suitable block diagram
explain working of AC signal conditioning system.
Section – II

a) What is wave analyzer? What is the principle of its working? Explain
working of Basic wave analyzer with suitable circuit.
b) Explain operation of X-Y recorder with help of block diagram.
c) Discuss in brief self-testing of smart sensor and their applications.
d) Discuss application and limitation of spectrum analyzer.

a) What is DAS? Draw block diagram of DAS. Write function of each block.
b) With suitable block diagram explain working of data logger.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

is ____.
c) zero d) mixed
a) Indicator b) pH
specific frequency
d) All of the above
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
value is _____.
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-182
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

1) Arithmetic mean
2) Average value
3) Deviation
measurement?

working.
Section – II


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

specific frequency
d) All of the above
value is _____.
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
is ____.
c) zero d) mixed
a) Indicator b) pH
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-182
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

1) Arithmetic mean
2) Average value
3) Deviation
measurement?

working.
Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

value is _____.
is ____.
c) zero d) mixed
a) Indicator b) pH
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
specific frequency
d) All of the above
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-182
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I

1) Arithmetic mean
2) Average value
3) Deviation
measurement?

working.
Section – II


Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-183
Seat
No. Set P
Programming with Java
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which of the following is not an OOPS concept in Java?
a) Polymorphism b) Inheritance
c) Compilation d) Encapsulation
2) Find the output of the following code.
int Integer = 24;
char String = ‘I’;
System.out.print(Integer);
System.out.print(String);
a) Compile Error b) 24
I
c) 24I d) Exception
3) Select the valid statement to declare and initialize an array.
a) Int [] A={}
b) Int [] A={1,2,3}
c) Int [] A=[1,2,3]
d) Int [][] A={}
4) What is the extension of compiled java classes?
a) .txt b) .js
c) .class d) .java
5) Identify Valid Identifiers from below:
a) Score b) Class
c) Highest score d) 1number
6) Identify the corrected definition of a package ____.
a) A package is a collection of editing tools
b) A package is collection of classes
c) A package is a collection of classes and interfaces
d) A package is a collection of interfaces
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7) Which option is false about the final keyword?
a) A final method cannot be overridden in its subclasses.
b) A final class cannot be extended
c) A final class can not extend other classes
d) A final method can be inherited
8) Which key word is used for accessing the features of a package?
a) Package b) Import
c) Extends d) Export
9) How may threads can be executed at a time?
a) Only one thread b) Multiple threads
c) Only main (main method) d) Two threads
thread
10) All Java exceptions can be handled gracefully.

a) True b) False
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
2) Figures to right indicate the full marks.
Section – I
a) Distinguish between OOP features of Java & C++
b) List and explain principles of Object Oriented Programming.
c) What do you mean by object and class? Explain each with examples.
d) What is access specifier in Java? List & Explain different access
specifiers?
Q.3 Attempt the following. 12

a) Define Strings and explain different String methods in Java.
b) Describe in detail:
i) Different features of Java
ii) Java Virtual Machine and difference between bytecode and Machine
code?
Section – II

a) What is an exception and how Java handles exceptions? Explain in detail.
b) Distinguish between Inheritance and aggregation.
c) What is the difference between Final, Finally and Finalize in Java?
d) Differentiate between Abstract class and Interface

a) Explain the terms:
i) super
ii) abstract
iii) extends
b) Answer the following.

i) What is Java Interface and why it’s needed?
ii) Differentiate between overloading and overriding.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

thread

a) True b) False
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
int Integer = 24;
I
c) 24I d) Exception
a) Int [] A={}
b) Int [] A={1,2,3}
c) Int [] A=[1,2,3]
d) Int [][] A={}
a) .txt b) .js
c) .class d) .java
a) Score b) Class
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
specifiers?

code?
Section – II


i) super
ii) abstract
iii) extends

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

thread
a) True b) False
int Integer = 24;
I
c) 24I d) Exception
a) Int [] A={}
b) Int [] A={1,2,3}
c) Int [] A=[1,2,3]
d) Int [][] A={}
a) .txt b) .js
c) .class d) .java
a) Score b) Class
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-183
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
specifiers?

code?
Section – II


i) super
ii) abstract
iii) extends

Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-183
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Int [] A={}
b) Int [] A={1,2,3}
c) Int [] A=[1,2,3]
d) Int [][] A={}
a) .txt b) .js
c) .class d) .java
a) Score b) Class
thread
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) True b) False
int Integer = 24;
I
c) 24I d) Exception
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Section – I
specifiers?

code?
Section – II


i) super
ii) abstract
iii) extends

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech.) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
1) Thyristor is a ______.
a) DC switch b) bilateral device
c) latch proof device d) voltage controlled device
2) Inductor is connected in series with the thyristor to ______.
a) reduce dv/dt across it b) protect against di/dt
c) protect over voltage d) trigger thyristor
3) Class D commutation is ______.
a) Auxiliary commutation technique
b) load commutation technique
c) current commutation technique
d) resonant pulse commutation technique
4) PIV for single phase full bridge controlled rectifier is ______.
a) 2Vm b) Vm
c) 3Vm d) 4Vm
5) Three phase full wave bridge converter with inductive load acts as ______.
a) Single quadrant converter b) Two quadrant converter
c) Three quadrant converter d) Four quadrant converter
6) In a three-phase full controlled rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz,
then output ripple frequency will be ______.
a) 150 Hz b) 300 Hz
c) 100 Hz d) 200 Hz
7) In Three phase full controlled bridge rectifier PIV across any thyristor is
_______.
a) √2 𝑉𝑚 b) √3 𝑉𝑚
c) 𝑉𝑚 d) √3 𝑉𝐿𝐿
8) The average value of the output voltage in a step - down de chopper is
given by ______.
a) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 b) 𝑉0 = 𝐾 𝑉 𝑠
c) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /𝐾 d) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /(1 − 𝐾)
Page 1 of 16
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9) Class A and Class B choppers ______.
a) Two quadrant converters b) Three quadrant converters
c) Single quadrant converters d) None
10) For step up chopper Vs is source voltage, RL is load resistance and K is
duty cycle average output voltage of this chopper is ______.
a) 𝐾 × 𝑉𝑠 b) (1 − 𝐾)/𝑉𝑠
c) 𝑉𝑠/𝐾 d) 𝑉𝑠/(1 − 𝐾)
11) The number of thyristors required for single phase midpoint
cycloconverters ______.
a) 8 b) 6
c) 4 d) 2
12) Cycloconverter is a combination of ______.
a) Positive and negative converter
b) Two positive converter
c) Two negative converter
d) None
13) Speed control of three phase AC motor can be obtained from ______.
a) Multiphase chopper b) Three phase controlled rectifier
c) 3 phase bridge Inverter d) Three phase dual converter
14) Three phase inverter converts ______.
a) fixed DC to three phase AC b) AC to DC
c) DC to DC d) AC to three phase AC
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain the various mechanisms by which thyristors may be turn on.
b) What is commutation? How commutation takes place in class C
complementary commutation technique. Sketch associated waveforms.
c) Derive an expression for average output dc voltage for single phase full
wave controlled bridge rectifier with highly inductive load.
d) A single phase semiconverter is operated from 120V, 50Hz AC supply.
The RL is 10Ω.If the average output voltage is 25% of the maximum
possible output voltage. Determine
1) Firing angle 2) Average DC voltage
e) Derive an expression of average dc output voltage of three phase half
wave controlled rectifier with resistive load. Draw associated waveforms.

a) Explain following methods of over voltage protections circuits.
1) Snubber circuits for dv/dt suppression
2) Electronic crowbar circuit
b) Derive an expression for Vdc and Vrms of three phase semiconverter with
resistive load for continuous conduction mode. Draw neat waveform for 𝛼=30°.
c) Design microcontroller based firing scheme for Three phase fully controlled
rectifiers.
Section – II

a) Explain working of step down chopper and derive an expression for output
voltage, duty cycle and effective input resistance.
b) Explain operation of single phase midpoint cycloconverter with resistive
load. The frequency is f0/fs= 1/5. Sketch associated waveforms.
c) Explain operation of single phase full bridge voltage source inverter with
inductive load. Draw associate waveforms.
d) Explain operation of basic series resonant inverter. Draw associated
waveforms.
e) Describe the control circuit block diagram for three phase cycloconverter.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
a) Explain working of load commutated chopper. Sketch associated
waveform.
b) Draw a block diagram of microcontroller based speed control of four
quadrant AC drive and explain its working.
c) With an appropriate circuit diagram discuss working principle of three
phase bridge inverter using 180° conduction mode, feeding star connected
purely resistive load. Draw associated line and phase voltage waveforms.
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Seat
No. Set Q
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
given by ______.
a) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 b) 𝑉0 = 𝐾 𝑉 𝑠
c) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /𝐾 d) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /(1 − 𝐾)
a) 𝐾 × 𝑉𝑠 b) (1 − 𝐾)/𝑉𝑠
c) 𝑉𝑠/𝐾 d) 𝑉𝑠/(1 − 𝐾)
a) 8 b) 6
c) 4 d) 2
d) None
Page 5 of 16
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a) 2Vm b) Vm
c) 3Vm d) 4Vm
a) 150 Hz b) 300 Hz
c) 100 Hz d) 200 Hz
_______.
a) √2 𝑉𝑚 b) √3 𝑉𝑚
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Seat
No. Set Q
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


rectifiers.
Section – II

waveforms.
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
waveform.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Seat
No. Set R
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) 8 b) 6
c) 4 d) 2
d) None
a) 2Vm b) Vm
c) 3Vm d) 4Vm
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Set R
a) 150 Hz b) 300 Hz
c) 100 Hz d) 200 Hz
_______.
a) √2 𝑉𝑚 b) √3 𝑉𝑚
given by ______.
a) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 b) 𝑉0 = 𝐾 𝑉 𝑠
c) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /𝐾 d) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /(1 − 𝐾)
a) 𝐾 × 𝑉𝑠 b) (1 − 𝐾)/𝑉𝑠
c) 𝑉𝑠/𝐾 d) 𝑉𝑠/(1 − 𝐾)
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


rectifiers.
Section – II

waveforms.
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
waveform.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Seat
No. Set S
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) 150 Hz b) 300 Hz
c) 100 Hz d) 200 Hz
_______.
a) √2 𝑉𝑚 b) √3 𝑉𝑚
given by ______.
a) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 b) 𝑉0 = 𝐾 𝑉 𝑠
c) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /𝐾 d) 𝑉0 = 𝑉 𝑠 /(1 − 𝐾)
a) 𝐾 × 𝑉𝑠 b) (1 − 𝐾)/𝑉𝑠
c) 𝑉𝑠/𝐾 d) 𝑉𝑠/(1 − 𝐾)
a) 8 b) 6
c) 4 d) 2
d) None
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) 2Vm b) Vm
c) 3Vm d) 4Vm
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Seat
No. Set S
Power Electronics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


rectifiers.
Section – II

waveforms.
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-184
Set S
waveform.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set P
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) What is the condition for linear region?
a) Vgs lesser than Vt b) Vgs greater than Vt
c) Vds lesser than Vgs d) Vds greater than Vgs
2) As source drain voltage increases, channel depth _____.
a) Increases b) decreases
c) logarithmically increases d) exponentially increases
3) Gate area can be given as ______.
a) L/W b) L*W
c) 2L/W d) L/2W
4) The overall delay is _____ to the relative resistance r.
a) Directly Proportional b) Inversely Proportional
c) Exponentially proportional d) Not dependent
5) Increase in switching speed _____ the noise problems.
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) none of these
6) To design 3 input NOR Gate using CMOS Logic _____ number of
Transistors are required if input signal is available in double rail format.
a) 4 b) 6
c) 8 d) 10
7) To design 3 input NAND Gate using Ratioed Logic _____ number of
Transistors are required if inputs are available in double rail format.
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
8) A stored value remains valid as long as supply voltage is applied to the
circuit is known as _____ storage device.
a) Dynamic b) Bistable
c) Static d) None of these
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9) The _____ circuit store a charge on parasitic capacitor for temporary
basis and it requires a periodic refresh of its stored value.
10) The amount of time the input signal should be stable before the clock
edge occurs is called as ______.
a) Dynamic time b) static time
c) Hold Time d) Setup time
11) A _____ signal is one that has the same frequency but an unknown
phase offset with respect to the local clock.
a) Synchronous b) Mesochronous
c) plesiochronous d) Asynchronous
12) The spatial variation in arrival time of a clock transition on an integrated
circuit is commonly referred to as ______.
a) Clock Skew b) Clock Jitter
c) Handshaking d) Normalization
13) For synchronous circuits to solve the clock related to problem _____ is/are
the solutions.
a) Clock Distribution
b) Use synchronizers and Arbiters
c) Use PLL
d) All of these
14) With 4 bit select lines _____ operations can be performed by ALU.
a) 10 b) 12
c) 16 d) 18
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
4) Draw neat diagrams.
Section – I

a) With the help of diagram discuss construction and working of n-MOS also
calculate value of β for given parameters of n-MOS transistor designed
using Si as W / L ratio is 3.5, oxide layer thickness is 1.15 nm, the electron
mobility is 85 sq. cm/V sec. The threshold voltage is 0.3V. The Si specific
permittivity is 3.5 and permittivity of free space is 8.85 x 10^ -14 F/cm.
b) What do you mean by technology scaling and how it is achieved in MOS
transistor design?
c) Draw and Explain CMOS inverter in detail and discuss transfer
characteristics.
d) How Dynamic Logic is used in CMOS Design explain using example.
e) What is pass transistor? How it is used in designing CMOS Logic Gate
using Example explain?

a) Briefly explain in detail accumulation, depletion and inversion modes in
MOS transistors.
b) Calculate total power dissipation in CMOS inverter for frequency 10 MHz
with Static power dissipation of 15μW, VDD = 3.3 V and C = 30 fF.
c) Design 2 input XOR gate using CMOS Logic and comment on number of
transistors required to implement it.
Section – II

a) What is bi-stability Principle? How it is used to design Latch explain using
example.
b) What is multiplexer-based latch? Explain the use of multiplexer-based
latch to implement D Latch.
c) With the help of diagram explain use of PLL for clock synchronization.
d) What is clock skew and clock jitter? What are the reasons of clock skew
and jitter?
e) With the help of circuits explain ALU in detail.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
a) Explain operating principle of True single-phase clocked register (TSPCR)
with help of diagram.
b) Explain timing classification in interconnect design.
c) With the help of Diagram explain Static RAM implementation.
Page 4 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set Q
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

the solutions.
c) Use PLL
d) All of these
a) 10 b) 12
c) 16 d) 18
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) L/W b) L*W
c) 2L/W d) L/2W
a) 4 b) 6
c) 8 d) 10
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set Q
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

transistor design?
characteristics.

MOS transistors.
Section – II

example.
and jitter?
Page 7 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Set Q
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set R
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

the solutions.
c) Use PLL
d) All of these
a) 10 b) 12
c) 16 d) 18
a) L/W b) L*W
c) 2L/W d) L/2W
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) 4 b) 6
c) 8 d) 10
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set R
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

transistor design?
characteristics.

MOS transistors.
Section – II

example.
and jitter?
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Set R
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set S
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) 4 b) 6
c) 8 d) 10
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
the solutions.
c) Use PLL
d) All of these
a) 10 b) 12
c) 16 d) 18
a) L/W b) L*W
c) 2L/W d) L/2W
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Seat
No. Set S
CMOS VLSI Design
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

transistor design?
characteristics.

MOS transistors.
Section – II

example.
and jitter?
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-185
Set S
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech.) (Sem -I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which of these is not true for TDD?
a) TDD uses different time slots for transmission and reception paths
b) Single radio frequency can be used
c) Duplexer is required
d) It increases the battery life of mobile phones
2) The connectivity from exchange to customer premises termed as _____.
a) Data network b) Access Network or Local Loop
c) Bridge network d) None of the above
3) The process of channel coding, Encryption, Multiplexing and modulation for
Trans direction and reverse for reception are to be carried out by _____.
a) BTS b) BSC
c) MSC d) MS
4) The CDMA system has a soft capacity limit. That is increasing the number
of users will _____ the system performance.
c) stabilize d) None of the above
5) CDMA base stations consumes ______ power than GSM and also covers
a _____ distance.
a) more, large b) less, large
c) less, less d) None of the above
6) The cell size in CDMA is _____ compared to GSM.
a) larger b) smaller
c) same d) None of the above
7) Which of this is the interface between MS & BSS?
a) Um b) A
c) Abis d) None of the above
Page 1 of 12
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Set P
8) Which of this is the interface between BTS and BSC?
a) Um b) A
9) Which of this is the interface within the GSM network architecture between
the BSS (Base Station Subsystem) and an MSC (Mobile Switching Centre)?
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
10) The smallest inter frame spacing in MAC of 802.11 is _____.
a) DIFS b) PIFS
c) SIFS d) QIFS
11) RFCOMM in a Bluetooth Protocol Stack is a _____ Interface.
a) Host Controller b) Link Control
c) Serial Line d) Radio Frequency
12) Bluetooth is the wireless technology for _____.
a) local area network b) personal area network
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the mentioned
13) Mostly _____ is used in wireless LAN.
a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
14) IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is _____.
a) for a limited period b) for unlimited period
c) not time dependent d) none of the mentioned
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set P
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: All questions are compulsory.
Section – I

a) Compare different multiplexing schemes.
b) Explain what a "Platform" is and what effect it has on mobile apps
development. In your opinion, what are the 5 most useful mobile technologies
currently available on cell phones?
c) With suitable diagram explain concept of handoff and issues associated
with it.
d) With suitable example show how user capacity increases by decreasing
cluster size. What is trade off for this?
e) Discuss limitations of CDMA.

a) Derive an expression for S/I ratio and N (cluster size). With suitable
example explain how this expression is used by a design engineer to plan
cellular architecture.
b) Explain long code scrambling in forward traffic channel in detail for
CDMA-IS95.
c) Explain TCH/FS, SACCH & FACCH channel coding in GSM signal
processing.
Section – II

a) Explain its advantages & disadvantages with suitable examples of WLAN.
b) What are different management functions supported by MAC?
c) What are the characteristics of a mobile environment?
d) What is tunneling? Why it is required?
e) What is encapsulation? Why it is required?

a) Describe infrastructure architecture for WLAN. Explain its advantages &
disadvantages with suitable examples.
b) What are the services of IEEE 802.11 MAC layer?
c) With suitable example and signal diagram, explain optimization in mobile
IP.
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set Q
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Um b) A
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
a) DIFS b) PIFS
c) SIFS d) QIFS
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Set Q
a) BTS b) BSC
c) MSC d) MS
a _____ distance.
a) Um b) A
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set Q
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with it.

CDMA-IS95.
processing.
Section – II


IP.
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set R
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) BTS b) BSC
c) MSC d) MS
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a _____ distance.
a) Um b) A
a) Um b) A
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
a) DIFS b) PIFS
c) SIFS d) QIFS
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set R
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with it.

CDMA-IS95.
processing.
Section – II


IP.
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set S
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Um b) A
a) Um b) A
a) A b) B
c) C d) D
a) DIFS b) PIFS
c) SIFS d) QIFS
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) BTS b) BSC
c) MSC d) MS
a _____ distance.
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-186
Seat
No. Set S
Mobile Technology
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with it.

CDMA-IS95.
processing.
Section – II


IP.
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set P
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

1) After the execution of following ARM instruction the content of R2 register
will be ______ RSB R2, R2, R2, LSL #3.
a) R3 * 7 b) R2 * 7
c) R3 * 8 d) R2 * 8
2) In ARM Cortex M3 processor Nested Vectored Interrupt Controller (NVIC)
supports ______.
a) Nested interrupt b) Vectored interrupt
c) Dynamic priority d) All of above
3) ARM Cortex-M3 processor supports _____ interfaces.
a) Code memory buses b) System bus
c) Private peripheral bus d) All of above
4) What is the value of R1 after MVN R1, #7 is executed?
a) 0x00000007 b) 0xFFFFFF8
c) 0xFFFFFFE d) 0xFFFFFFC
5) Let R0=0x00000000 and R1=0x00000055. What will be the content of R0
after execution of instruction “ADD R0, R1, R1, LSL #1”?
a) 0x00000000 b) 0x00000005
c) 0x000000FF d) 0x0000000A
6) The _____ flag is set when a comparison of two data returns an equal
result.
a) Zero b) Overflow
c) Negative d) Carry
7) LPC1768’s maximum operating frequency is _____ MHz.
a) 100 b) 110
c) 12 d) 60
8) ______ supports a long-range communication.
a) ZigBee b) GPRS
c) Bluetooth d) All of the above
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Set P
9) _____ controls the publish-subscribe messaging pattern in MQTT.
a) MQTT broker b) MQTT client
c) MQTT server d) None of these
10) The MQTT publish-subscribe protocol is _____ driven.
a) Event b) Broker
c) Client d) All of these
11) Things in IoT support ______.
a) Actuation b) Sensing
c) Data Collection d) All of above
12) CoAP is an implementation of _____ model.
a) Message Oriented Middleware b) RESTful
13) _____ can be considered as the skeleton for smart cities?
a) Banks b) Transportation
c) Buildings d) Sensors
14) Sensor-Cloud deals with ______.
a) Sensor-as-a-Service b) Sensor-in-Cloud
c) Sensor-for-Service d) None of these
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set P
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) List down all GPIO registers of LPC1768. Discuss IOSET register in details
with examples.
b) Draw a use case diagram for creating authentication code using SHA1
algorithm.
c) List down and discuss the flags available in ARM Processors.
d) Discuss the link register in details with neat diagrams.
e) With a neat diagram illustrate the IoT reference architecture suggested by
Oracle.

a) Interface four LEDs to LPC1768 port pins P0.18-P0.21. Write an
embedded c program to blink LEDs simultaneously.
b) What do you mean by coarse-grain and fine-grain authorizations?
c) What is significance of exceptions and interrupt in embedded application
development and also explain the role of interrupt vector address and
interrupt service routine.
Section – II

a) Write a short note on Zigbee mesh routing.
b) With a neat state diagram discuss Classic Bluetooth connection process.
c) Write short note on RFID tags and RFID frequency bands.
d) Write short note on Message Oriented Middleware (MOM) protocols.
e) What is a Cloud? Discuss PaaS services supported in Cloud.

a) List down different messages used in CoAP and elaborate with neat
diagram a CoAP message format.
b) With a neat state diagram discuss Bluetooth Low Energy mode connection
process.
c) Discuss the working principal of near-field RFID tags with neat diagrams.
Page 3 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set Q
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) ZigBee b) GPRS
a) Event b) Broker
a) R3 * 7 b) R2 * 7
c) R3 * 8 d) R2 * 8
supports ______.
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) 0x00000007 b) 0xFFFFFF8
a) 0x00000000 b) 0x00000005
c) 0x000000FF d) 0x0000000A
result.
a) Zero b) Overflow
a) 100 b) 110
c) 12 d) 60
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set Q
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with examples.
algorithm.
Oracle.

Section – II


process.
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set R
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) R3 * 7 b) R2 * 7
c) R3 * 8 d) R2 * 8
supports ______.
a) 0x00000007 b) 0xFFFFFF8
a) 0x00000000 b) 0x00000005
c) 0x000000FF d) 0x0000000A
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
result.
a) Zero b) Overflow
a) 100 b) 110
c) 12 d) 60
a) ZigBee b) GPRS
a) Event b) Broker
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set R
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with examples.
algorithm.
Oracle.

Section – II


process.
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set S
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

result.
a) Zero b) Overflow
a) 100 b) 110
c) 12 d) 60
a) ZigBee b) GPRS
a) Event b) Broker
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) R3 * 7 b) R2 * 7
c) R3 * 8 d) R2 * 8
supports ______.
a) 0x00000007 b) 0xFFFFFF8
a) 0x00000000 b) 0x00000005
c) 0x000000FF d) 0x0000000A
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-187
Seat
No. Set S
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

with examples.
algorithm.
Oracle.

Section – II


process.
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-190
Seat
No. Set P
Database Management System


1) Which type of data can be stored in the database?
a) Image oriented data
b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video
d) All of the above
2) Which of the following is not a function of the database?
a) Managing stored data b) Manipulating data
c) Security for stored data d) Analysing code
3) Identify the correct statement(s)
a) A candidate Key is a set of one or more attributes that, taken collectively
allows us to identify any entity in the entity set
b) A Super Key is a set of one or more attributes that, taken collectively
c) A Super Key for which no proper subset is also a Superkey is called
a Candidate Key
d) All of the above
4) Consider the two relation below. The primary keys are underlined Identify
all possible foreign key(s) from the options
Customer (Customerld, customer_name, Orderld)
Orders (Orderld, Ordername, customer_name)
a) Customerld, Orderld b) Orderld, customer_name
c) Orderld d) customer_name
5) Identify the correct “Create Table” Statement for table given below:
Emp_id Last_name First_name Age
1 Rai Sanjiv 24
2 Singh Sanjiv 24
3 Roy Raman 23
4 Roy Raman 21
Page 1 of 20
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Set P
a) Create table employee(
Emp_id int,
Last_namevarchar(55) not null,
First_namevarchar(55),
Age int,
Primary key(ID))
b) Create table employee(
Emp_id int not null,
Age int,
Primary key(ID,Last_name))
c) Create table employee(
Emp_id int,
Age int,
d) Create table employee(
Emp_id int,
Age int,
Primary key(Last_name)
6) Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function?
a) COUNT b) COMPUTE
c) SUM d) MAX
7) Which operator is used to compare a value to a specified list of values?
a) ANY b) BETWEEN
c) ALL d) IN
8) In addition to removing undesirable characteristics, normalization also
eliminates _____ anomalies.
a) Insert b) Update
c) Delete d) All of the above
9) Non-prime attributes cannot be transitively dependent, so the relation
must have the _____ normal form.
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) Fourth
A hashing function is used to generate the _____ of the data blocks in
10)
this technique.
a) Data b) Addresses
c) Numbers d) Records
11) The nonleaf nodes of the B+- tree structure form a
a) Multilevel clustered indices b) Sparse indices
c) Multilevel dense indices d) Multilevel sparse indices
12) What is the Dirty Read Problem also known as?
a) W-W Conflict b) W-R Conflict
c) R-R Conflict d) None
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13) Identify the correct statement(s) about the compatibility matrix given
below
S X
S True False
X False False
a) If a transaction holds an S lock on them, other transactions will be
allowed to obtain X lock on the same
b) If a transaction holds an S lock on them, other transaction will not be
allowed to obtain a S lock on the same then
c) If a transaction holds X lock on them, other transaction will be allowed
to hold X or S lock on them
d) If a transaction holds an S lock on them, other transactions will allow
to hold only S lock
14) A transaction that is inserting a new tuple into the database is given an
a) Shared lock b) Mutual lock
c) Exclusive lock d) NO lock
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Section – I
Q.2 Answer the following (Any Three) 12

a) What are drawbacks of using File Processing System?
b) Explain different aggregation functions with example.
c) Explain concept of cardinality with example
d) Define
i) Entity&Entity Sets
ii) Attributes, Types of Attributes - Composite, Derived, Stored, Multivalued
e) What are different DDL Statements? Create and insert commands with
syntax and suitable examples
Q.3 Answer the following (Any One) 08

a) Draw an ER diagram for a university database
Drawing of ER model of university database application considering the
constraints -
i) Each department has multiple instructors
ii) Each department is headed by one instructor as HOD
iii) Each department offers multiple courses, each course is taught by a
single instructor.
iv) A student may enroll for many courses.
v) Department - the relevant attributes are department Name and
location.
vi) Course - The relevant attributes are courseNo, course Name,
Duration, and prerequisite.
vii) Instructor - The relevant attributes are Instructor Name, Room No,
and telephone number.
viii) Student - The relevant attributes are Student No, Student Name, and
date of birth.
b) Consider following tables and write the given query in SQL
EmployeeInfo Table:
EmpID EmpFname EmpLname Department Project Address DOB Gender
1 Sanjay Mehra HR P1 Hyderabad(HYD) 01-12-1976 M
2 Ananya Mishra Admin P2 Delhi(DEL) 02-05-1968 F
3 Rohan Diwan Account P3 Mumbai (BOM) 01-01-1980 M
4 Sonia Kulkarni HR P1 Hyderabad(HYD) 02-05-1992 F
5 Ankit Kapoor Admin P2 Delhi(DEL) 03-07-1994 M
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EmployeePosition Table:
EmpID Emp Position Data of Joining Salary
1 Manager 01-05-2022 500000
2 Executive 02-05-2022 75000
3 Manager 01-05-2022 90000
2 Lead 02-05-2022 85000
1 Executive 01-05-2022 300000
i) Write a query to fetch the number of employees working in the department ‘HR’.
ii) Write a query to find the names of employees that begin with ‘S’
iii) Write a query to fetch details of all employees excluding the employees
with first names, “Sanjay” and “Sonia” from the EmployeeInfo table.
iv) Write a query find number of employees whose DOB is between
02/05/1970 to 31/12/1975 and are grouped according to gender
Q.4 Explain the following joins with examples in SQL along with syntaxes 08
a) Inner Join
b) Right Join
c) Left Join
d) Full Outer Join
Section – II
Q.5 Solve (Any Three) 12
a) What is view serializable schedule? Check whether the following schedule
is view serializable? If yes, Find the Correct Serial Schedule
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
S1
b) Define Normalization. Explain 1NF and 2NF with suitable examples
c) Explain the terms: i) Transaction ii) ACID Property
d) Explain B+ tree with examples and how insertion works
e) Define Indexing. Explain primary Index, Secondary Index and Clustering Index.
Q.6 Solve (Any One) 08
a) Explain Hashing in database with suitable example.
b) Convert the below Schedule into Serial Schedule using Conflict Serializable
Method
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
write(X)
Read(X)
write(X)
Q.7 Explain Time Stamp Protocol with suitable example 08
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a) Insert b) Update
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) Fourth
3)
this technique.
below
S X
S True False
X False False
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to hold only S lock

d) All of the above
a Candidate Key
d) All of the above
1 Rai Sanjiv 24
2 Singh Sanjiv 24
3 Roy Raman 23
4 Roy Raman 21
Emp_id int,
Age int,
Primary key(ID))
Age int,
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Emp_id int,
Age int,
Emp_id int,
Age int,
a) COUNT b) COMPUTE
c) SUM d) MAX
a) ANY b) BETWEEN
c) ALL d) IN
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No. Set Q
Section – I

d) Define

constraints -
single instructor.
location.
date of birth.
EmployeeInfo Table:
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1 Manager 01-05-2022 500000
2 Executive 02-05-2022 75000
3 Manager 01-05-2022 90000
2 Lead 02-05-2022 85000
1 Executive 01-05-2022 300000
a) Inner Join
b) Right Join
c) Left Join
d) Full Outer Join
Section – II
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
S1
Method
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
write(X)
Read(X)
write(X)
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No. Set R


below
S X
S True False
X False False
to hold only S lock
d) All of the above
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a Candidate Key
d) All of the above
1 Rai Sanjiv 24
2 Singh Sanjiv 24
3 Roy Raman 23
4 Roy Raman 21

Emp_id int,
Age int,
Primary key(ID))
Age int,
Emp_id int,
Age int,
Emp_id int,
Age int,
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a) COUNT b) COMPUTE
c) SUM d) MAX
a) ANY b) BETWEEN
c) ALL d) IN
a) Insert b) Update
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) Fourth
14)
this technique.
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No. Set R
Section – I

d) Define

constraints -
single instructor.
location.
date of birth.
EmployeeInfo Table:
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1 Manager 01-05-2022 500000
2 Executive 02-05-2022 75000
3 Manager 01-05-2022 90000
2 Lead 02-05-2022 85000
1 Executive 01-05-2022 300000
a) Inner Join
b) Right Join
c) Left Join
d) Full Outer Join
Section – II
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
S1
Method
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
write(X)
Read(X)
write(X)
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No. Set S


a) COUNT b) COMPUTE
c) SUM d) MAX
a) ANY b) BETWEEN
c) ALL d) IN
a) Insert b) Update
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) Fourth
5)
this technique.
below
S X
S True False
X False False
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Set S
to hold only S lock
d) All of the above
a Candidate Key
d) All of the above
1 Rai Sanjiv 24
2 Singh Sanjiv 24
3 Roy Raman 23
4 Roy Raman 21
Emp_id int,
Age int,
Primary key(ID))
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Age int,
Emp_id int,
Age int,
Emp_id int,
Age int,
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Seat
No. Set S
Section – I

d) Define

constraints -
single instructor.
location.
date of birth.
EmployeeInfo Table:
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Set S
1 Manager 01-05-2022 500000
2 Executive 02-05-2022 75000
3 Manager 01-05-2022 90000
2 Lead 02-05-2022 85000
1 Executive 01-05-2022 300000
a) Inner Join
b) Right Join
c) Left Join
d) Full Outer Join
Section – II
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
read(Y)
S1
Method
T1 T2 T3
read(X)
read(Y)
read(Y)
write(Y)
write(X)
write(X)
Read(X)
write(X)
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No. Set P
Advanced Communication Engineering
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) If Pi is incident power Pf is forward power Pb is back power then coupling
factor (c) is given by ______.
a) c=10log10Pi/Pf b) c=20log19Pi/Pf
c) c=10log10Pf/Pi d) c=10log10Pi/Pb
2) A Duplexer is used to ______.
a) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
b) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
c) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
d) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference
3) The drift space converts ______ modulation into ______ modulation.
a) Low level, High level b) Current, Velocity
c) Velocity, Current d) High level, Low level
4) A microwave junction is supposed to be matched at all ports if in the S
matrix ______.
a) all the diagonal elements are zero
b) all the diagonal elements are equal but not zero
c) all the diagonal elements are complex
d) is Hermitian
5) MESFETS are ______.
a) Bipolar microwave transistor b) Tripolar microwave transistor
c) Unipolar microwave transistor d) None
6) Drawback of continuous wave radar is ______.
a) They cannot measure temperature
b) They cannot measure range
c) They cannot measure speed
d) They cannot measure phase
7) The type of radar that is used to eliminate clutter in navigational application
is _______.
a) pulse radar b) tracking radar
c) MTI radar d) monopulse radar
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8) Which of the following is not a part of TTC?
a) Tele-command transmitter b) Delta processor
c) Delay line d) All of these
9) Which of the following has largest traffic capacity?
a) Communication sub-system
b) Power Sub-system
c) Altitude and orbit control sub-system
d) None
10) ______ angles determine where to point an earth station so that it
intercepts the satellite.
a) elevation, Azimth b) inclination, Azimth
c) both d) none
11) Which of the following factor is taken into account for satellite link design?
a) Absorption of signal
b) Various noise sources present
c) Gain of transmitter and receiving antenna at both end
d) All of the above
12) Satellite multiple access techniques are ______.
a) Frequency b) Time
c) Space d) All of the above
13) The angle b/w incident ray & normal to the plane is ______.
a) Angle of reflection b) Angle of Incident
c) Angle of coefficient d) None of these
14) In second generation, wavelength of multimode fiber is ______.
a) 1310 nm b) 850 nm
c) 1420 nm d) 1550 nm
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any two of the following question. 12

a) Explain construction and working of two cavity Klystron. State its
performance parameters.
b) Draw block diagram of Pulse radar system and explain its working
principle.
c) Explain construction and working two-hole directional coupler. Derive its
S-matrix.
Q.3 Attempt any four of the following question. 16

a) With suitable Diagram explain working of Circulator.
b) Explain radar system. State its advantages and disadvantages.
c) Write a note on Phased array Radar.
d) Explain construction and working of TRAPATT diode.
e) Explain factors affecting range of radar.
Section – II

a) With suitable block diagrams explain Attitude and orbital control system.
b) Explain construction and working of LASER diode.
c) Explain working of GPS system.

a) Draw the block diagram of optical fiber communication.
b) State range and application of LEO, MEO and GEO satellites.
c) Explain basic antenna types used for satellite.
d) Write a note on multiple accesses in satellite.
e) Explain different losses in optical fiber.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


b) Power Sub-system
d) None
c) both d) none
d) All of the above
a) 1310 nm b) 850 nm
c) 1420 nm d) 1550 nm
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matrix ______.
d) is Hermitian
is _______.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

principle.
S-matrix.

Section – II


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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


d) All of the above
a) 1310 nm b) 850 nm
c) 1420 nm d) 1550 nm
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matrix ______.
d) is Hermitian
is _______.
b) Power Sub-system
d) None
c) both d) none
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

principle.
S-matrix.

Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


is _______.
b) Power Sub-system
d) None
c) both d) none
d) All of the above
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Set S
a) 1310 nm b) 850 nm
c) 1420 nm d) 1550 nm
matrix ______.
d) is Hermitian
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

principle.
S-matrix.

Section – II


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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov- 2022
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
1) For a sound wave relationship between velocity and temperature is given
by, _____.
a) V2 = V1 √T2 /T1 b) V1 = V2 √T2 /T1
c) V2 = V1 √T1 /T2 d) V2 = V1 √T/T1
2) The average rate of flow of sound energy through a cross-sectional area
is called as ______.
a) Intensity of sound b) Vibrations of sound
3) ______ is the spectral purity of colour light.
a) Luminance b) Brightness
c) Hue d) Saturation
4) The phase of the colour subcarrier burst signal in PAL system is along
the axis at ______.
a) ±180° b) ±45°
c) 180 ± 45° d) None
5) In subtractive colour theory Cyan is formed by subtracting ______.
a) White – Red b) White – Green
c) White – Blue d) None of above
6) 625-B monochrome TV follows the interlaced scanning system, and each
frame is divided into two fields, with _______.
a) 312.5 lines/field b) 315 lines/field
c) 625 lines/field d) 156 lines/field
7) The hue and saturation of a colour put together is known as ______.
a) Colour mixing b) Chrominance
c) Monochrome signal d) None of above
8) Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is used to compress ______.
a) Music b) Pictures
c) Images d) Frames
9) A video consists of a sequence of ______.
a) Frames b) Signals
c) Packets d) Slots
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10) Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG-2), was designed for high-quality
DVD with a data rate of ______.
a) 3 to 6 Mbps b) 4 to 6 Mbps
c) 5 to 6 Mbps d) 6 to 8 Mbps
11) Raster images are also known as ______.
a) Bitmap images b) Vector images
c) Clip art images d) Multimedia images
12) The two new signals generated in PAL system are ______.
a) (B - Y) and (R - Y) b) R and B
c) I and Q d) U and V
13) Paint programs and image editors are used for creating and editing ______.
a) Text b) Vector images
c) Bitmap images d) HTML codes
14) Rooms vibrate and respond most readily to ______.
a) Low frequencies b) High frequencies
c) Mid frequencies d) None of the above
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Seat
No. Set P
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) Define Amplitude, Frequency, Phase, and Wavelength for a sound wave.
b) Write down step by step procedure for producing records.
c) Discuss why FM is preferred to AM for sound signal transmission.
d) Synchronizing pulses transmitted along with the picture signal justify the
statement.
e) How is the illusion of continuity created in television pictures? Why has the
frame reception rate been chosen to be 25 and not 24 as in motion pictures?

a) If the gap width is 6 microns and the speed of tape is 4.75cm/s, calculate
the maximum frequency of recording. What will happen if the tape speed is
increased to 19cm/s? Comment for video frequencies.
b) Discuss the factors which influence the choice of sub-carrier frequency in a
colour TV system. Justify the choice of 3.579545 MHz as the subcarrier
frequency in the NTSC system. How does it affect the line and field
frequencies?
c) Explain with a suitable block diagram the encoding process in the PAL
colour system. Why is the colour burst signal transmitted after each
scanning line?
Section – II

a) Discuss advantages of digital television.
b) Explain how surround sound effect is produced in a digital TV system.
c) Discuss different image data types and their file formats.
d) List down different JPEG modes and discuss any one mode.
e) Discuss the benefits offered by compression schemes in designing
multimedia systems.

a) Draw a neat block diagram of a digital video transmitter and discuss the
function of each block.
b) Illustrate with a neat diagram the design for PA system for public meeting?
c) Discuss bit allocation algorithm for MPEG-1 Layer 1 and Layer 2.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
c) Images d) Frames
c) Packets d) Slots
by, _____.
a) V2 = V1 √T2 /T1 b) V1 = V2 √T2 /T1
c) V2 = V1 √T1 /T2 d) V2 = V1 √T/T1
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the axis at ______.
a) ±180° b) ±45°
c) 180 ± 45° d) None
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

statement.

frequencies?
scanning line?
Section – II

multimedia systems.

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
by, _____.
a) V2 = V1 √T2 /T1 b) V1 = V2 √T2 /T1
c) V2 = V1 √T1 /T2 d) V2 = V1 √T/T1
the axis at ______.
a) ±180° b) ±45°
c) 180 ± 45° d) None
Page 7 of 12
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c) Images d) Frames
c) Packets d) Slots
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

statement.

frequencies?
scanning line?
Section – II

multimedia systems.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
c) Images d) Frames
c) Packets d) Slots
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
by, _____.
a) V2 = V1 √T2 /T1 b) V1 = V2 √T2 /T1
c) V2 = V1 √T1 /T2 d) V2 = V1 √T/T1
the axis at ______.
a) ±180° b) ±45°
c) 180 ± 45° d) None
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Audio Video Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

statement.

frequencies?
scanning line?
Section – II

multimedia systems.

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


1) ______ assumes that the presence of a particular feature in a class is
unrelated to the presence of any other feature.
a) Decision tree b) Regression analysis
c) Naive Bayes classifier d) all of these
2) Which of below is not a data mining model?
a) classification b) transformation
c) clustering d) regression
3) Take the odd man out: Lp norm, Jaccord index, dynamic time warping,
window-based methods
a) Lp norm b) Jaccord index
c) dynamic time warping d) window based methods
4) The process of _______ divides the ranges of the numeric attribute into
various ranges.
a) binarization b) averaging
c) histogram d) discretization
5) ______ focuses on a single attribute at a time.
a) classification b) univariate analysis
c) predictive clustering d) all of these
6) Distance functions are highly sensitive to ______.
a) data distribution b) dimensionality
c) data type d) all of these
7) Take odd man out: association rule mining, decision tree, support vector
machine, regression analysis.
a) association rule mining b) decision tree
c) support vector machine d) regression analysis
8) For which type of data an appropriate feature can be extracted using
Fourier Transform?
a) image b) speech
c) ECG signal d) all of these
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9) Take odd man out: range, variance, mean, standard deviation.
a) range b) variance
c) mean d) standard deviation
10) Two types of collaborative filtering are ______ & ______ based.
a) person, people b) attribute, class
c) supervised, unsupervised d) none of these
11) ______ merges the data from multiple data stores.
a) data store merger b) data warehouse
c) ETL d) all of these
12) Finding number of horizontal and vertical lines from raw image data for
OCR is an example of feature _______.
a) transformation b) selection
c) extraction d) merging
13) If I am collecting data based on financial status of people across the city
and wish to include sufficient samples of millionaires, the sampling
method used is ______ sampling.
a) static b) biased
c) stratified d) reservoir
14) Categorizing customers according to their similarities can be done using ____.
a) decision tree b) k means clustering
c) logistic regression d) all of these
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) Predicting electricity consumption is very challenging task in a city like
Solapur. The total electricity consumption depends on attributes like time
of the day, season and temperature. Past data 50,000 records is available.
Describe a data analytic system which can predict electricity consumption
of Solapur city given the features. Give detailed steps.
b) Bank ABC wish to buy machine learning based software to decide whether
to grant a business loan to customer or not. Bank already has complete
data of past 20,000 records which consists of the features/attributes and
correct outcome for each record. Design a scheme to check the
performance of the software to be bought based on various performance
parameters. Also evaluate the Type I and type II errors associated.
c) Data set given: 10, 8, 20, 15, 17. Normalize it to {0 to 1} and {1 to 4} using
min-max normalization.
Q.3 Solve Any Four 16

a) With suitable example compare different types of feature subset selection
b) Compare: data science, data analytics and machine learning.
c) With suitable example describe how mining may help in marketing of a
product.
d) With suitable example compare Euclidean distance and Manhattan distance.
e) With suitable example show how to calculate Jaccard Index for binary set
data
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
Section – II

a) Given below transaction list at a supermarket, calculate how many ‘3 item
item-set’ can be found with support >33 % and confidence >50 % using
association rule mining. Also find out confidence and support for the
association rule ‘a person who buys bread and butter also buys milk’.
Transaction List
t ion
1 ListMilk Egg Bread Butter
2 Milk Butter Egg Ketch up
3 Bread Butter Ketchup
4 Milk Bread Butter
5 Bread Butter Cookies
6 Milk Bread Butter Cookies
7 Milk Cookies
8 Milk Bread Butter
9 Bread Butter Egg Cookies
10 Milk Butter Bread
11 Milk Bread Butter
12 Milk Bread Cookies Ketch up
b) Given below training data, using linear regression analysis method
1) Predict price of the house with age 30 years
2) Calculate residual error for house with age 15 years
Age of House Price of House ($,000)
(X) (Y)
10 350
15 250
20 300
20 240
25 225
c) Compare OLTP and OLAP.

a) Compare supervised learning and unsupervised learning.
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of K Means Clustering?
c) Compare different types of data warehouse.
d) With suitable example discuss dimensionality reduction using axis rotation.
e) With suitable example describe star schema.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


Fourier Transform?
a) image b) speech
a) static b) biased
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
various ranges.
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


product.
data
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II

Transaction List
t ion
4 Milk Bread Butter
7 Milk Cookies
8 Milk Bread Butter
(X) (Y)
10 350
15 250
20 300
20 240
25 225

Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) static b) biased
various ranges.
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Fourier Transform?
a) image b) speech
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Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


product.
data
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Section – II

Transaction List
t ion
4 Milk Bread Butter
7 Milk Cookies
8 Milk Bread Butter
(X) (Y)
10 350
15 250
20 300
20 240
25 225

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No. Set S
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


Fourier Transform?
a) image b) speech
a) static b) biased
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various ranges.
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No. Set S
Data Analytics
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


product.
data
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Set S
Section – II

Transaction List
t ion
4 Milk Bread Butter
7 Milk Cookies
8 Milk Bread Butter
(X) (Y)
10 350
15 250
20 300
20 240
25 225

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No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING
Computer Architecture
Day & Date: Wednesday,22-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

1) Computer architecture deals with ______.
a) The sizes of data types that are supported.
b) The sizes of data types and the types of operations that are supported
c) The types of operations
d) Interfaces to peripheral devices
2) In memory-mapped I/O ______.
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
b) The I/O devices have a separate address space
c) The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
d) A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation
3) The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is ______.
a) The former offers faster transfer of data
b) The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space
c) The devices have to deal with fewer address lines
d) No advantage as such
4) The method of accessing the I/O devices by repeatedly checking the
status flags is ______.
a) Program-controlled I/O b) Memory-mapped I/O
c) I/O mapped d) Interrupt driven I/O
5) Which of the following is a type of architecture used in the computers
nowadays?
a) Micro architecture b) Harvard Architecture
c) Von-Neumann Architecture d) System Design
6) If the decimal point is placed to the right of the first significant digit, then
the number is called ______.
a) Orthogonal b) Normalized
c) Determinate d) None of the mentioned
7) ______ constitute the representation of the floating number.
a) Sign digit b) Significant digits
c) Exponent digits d) All of the mentioned
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8) Execution of several activities at the same time _____.
a) processing b) parallel processing
c) serial processing d) multitasking
9) A term for simultaneous access to a resource, physical or logical ____.
a) Multiprogramming b) Multitasking
c) Threads d) Concurrency
10) ______ leads to concurrency.
a) Serialization b) Parallelism
c) Serial processing d) Distribution
11) A type of parallelism that uses micro architectural techniques _____.
a) instructional b) bit level
c) bit based d) increasing
12) MIPS stands for ______.
a) Mandatory Instructions/sec b) Millions of Instructions/sec
c) Most of Instructions/sec d) Many Instructions / sec
13) Several instructions execution simultaneously in ______.
a) processing b) multitasking
c) serial processing d) parallel processing
14) The main objective in building the multi-microprocessor is ______.
a) greater throughput
b) enhanced fault tolerance
c) greater throughput and enhanced fault tolerance
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No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain the levels of machines in the computer hierarchy.
b) Explain fixed point number representation in detail.
c) Convert (23.375)10 to base 2 number.
d) Explain hardware components of instruction set architecture.
e) Draw and explain functional behavior of RAM cell.

a) Explain IEEE 754 standard format used to store floating point number in
memory.
b) What is fetch execute cycle? Draw and explain an example of data path.
c) Explain methods for managing the IO devices.
Section – II

a) Explain main stream classes of computing environment.
b) Explain the classes of parallelism and parallel architecture.
c) Explain basic compiler techniques for exposing instruction level parallelism.
d) Draw and explain basic structure of centralized shared memory
multiprocessor based on multi core chip.
e) Explain hardware-based speculation.

a) Explain the impact of time, volume, commoditization on a cost of computing
system.
b) Explain challenges of parallel processing.
c) Explain basic schemes for enforcing coherence.
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

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nowadays?
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


memory.
Section – II


system.
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No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

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nowadays?
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


memory.
Section – II


system.
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No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

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nowadays?
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


memory.
Section – II


system.
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No. Set P
COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGGINERING
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) The application/applications of Artificial Intelligence is/are
a) Expert Systems b) Gaming
c) Vision System d) All of these
2) Rational agent always does the right thing.
a) True b) False
c) Either true or false d) None of the above
3) Which of the following machines requires input from the humans but can
interpret the outputs themselves?
a) Actuators b) Sensor
c) Agents d) AI system
4) In state-space, the set of actions for a given problem is expressed by
the_____.
a) Intermediate States
b) Successor function that takes current action and returns next state
c) Initial States
5) Consider the problem of preparing a schedule for a class of students.
What type of problem is this?
a) Search Problem
b) Backtrack Problem
c) Constraint Satisfaction Problem
d) Planning Problem
6) First Order Logic is also known as _____.
a) Propositional Logic b) Predicate Logic
c) Description Logic d) None of the above
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7) If according to the hypothesis, the result should be positive, but in fact it is
negative, then it is knows as _____.
a) False Negative Hypothesis b) False Positive Hypothesis
c) Specialized Hypothesis d) Consistent Hypothesis
8) Where does the bayes rule can be used?
a) Solving queries b) Increasing complexity
c) Decreasing complexity d) Answering probabilistic query
9) A Bayesian network is a probabilistic graphical model that represents a
set of variables and their conditional dependencies via _____.
a) Directed acyclic graph b) Cyclic graph
c) Undirected graph d) Linear graph
10) Which is true for Decision theory?
a) Decision Theory = Probability theory + utility theory
b) Decision Theory = Inference theory + utility theory
c) Decision Theory = Uncertainty + utility theory
d) Decision Theory = Probability theory + preference
11) There are various types of game models, which are based on
a) The number of players participating
b) The sum of gains or losses
c) Both of the above
12) Which of the following is/are types of Machine Learning there?
a) Supervised Learning b) Unsupervised Learning
c) Reinforcement Learning d) All of the above
13) _____ reinforcement occurs due to a particular behavior, increasing the
strength and the frequency of the behavior while _____ reinforcement is
strengthening of a behavior because a negative condition is stopped or
avoided.
a) Positive, Positive b) Negative, Negative
c) Positive, Negative d) Negative, Positive
14) Artificial Intelligence shares many concepts with _____ e.g. action,
consciousness, epistemology, and even free will.
a) Psychology b) Philosophy
c) Mentality d) None of the above
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I
Q.2 Attempt any Three of the following. 12

a) Elaborate all the areas of scope for Artificial Intelligence.
b) Discuss the blind search algorithms and explain which is the best algorithm
in them.
c) Explain A* algorithm.
d) Write a note on reasoning with defaults
Q.3 Attempt any Two of the following 16

a) Explain working of Minimax algorithm with the example. Elaborate
properties and limitations of Minimax algorithm.
b) Write the note on first order logic. Explain with the example.
c) Write a note on Intelligent agents and their types with the example
Section - II
Q.4 Attempt Any Three of the following. 12

a) Write a note on utility theory.
b) What are the types of algorithms used in supervised learning? Elaborate
each of them.
c) Explain Q learning.
d) Write a case study on the past, present and future of Al.
Q.5 Attempt Any Two of the following 16

a) Explain Bayes rule. What is the Bayesian network? Explain with examples.
b) Write a note on decision theory. Explain Markov decision process.
c) Differentiate between supervised learning and unsupervised learning. How
is semi-supervised learning a mixture of these two?
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avoided.
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a) True b) False
the_____.
c) Initial States
a) Search Problem
d) Planning Problem
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

in them.

Section - II

each of them.

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No. Set R
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avoided.
a) True b) False
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the_____.
c) Initial States
a) Search Problem
d) Planning Problem
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

in them.

Section - II

each of them.

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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


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avoided.
a) True b) False
the_____.
c) Initial States
a) Search Problem
d) Planning Problem
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section - I

in them.

Section - II

each of them.

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No. Set P
COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The state of a process is defined by ______.
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) next activity to be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
2) A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is _____.
a) compaction b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space d) none of the mentioned
3) SPOOLING stands for ______
a) Spontaneous primary operation online
b) Simultaneous peripheral operation online
c) Small peripheral operation online
d) None of these
4) The PCB of a process does not contain ______.
a) The value of the cpu registers
b) The process state
c) Memory management information
d) Context switch time
5) Process synchronization can be done at ______.
a) Hardware level b) Software level
6) Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job queue b) PCB queue
c) Device queue d) Ready queue
7) Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s
Anomaly
a) Optimal replacement
b) LRU
c) FIFO
d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO
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8) Time quantum is defined in ______.
a) SJF scheduling algorithm b) FCFS scheduling algorithm
c) RR scheduling algorithm d) Priority scheduling algorithm
9) A solution to the critical section problem must satisfy which of the
following condition?
a) Mutual exclusion b) Progress
c) Bounded waiting d) All of these
10) Which of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) Pipe b) Semaphore
c) Socket d) Thread
11) Which of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) Physical address b) Absolute address
c) Logical address d) None of the above
12) Effective access time is directly proportional to _____.
a) page fault rate b) hit ratio
c) memory access time d) none of the mentioned
c) Elevator algorithm d) Karn’s algorithm
14) The number of processes completed per unit time is known as ______.
a) Output b) Throughput
c) Efficiency d) Capacity
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Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three (Each carries 4 marks) 12

a) Explain PCB with example.
b) What is the major problem in Priority Scheduling? And how to solve it?
c) What is a Semaphore? Explain its operations.
d) What is spooling? Explain with example.
Q.3 Attempt any two (Each carries 8 marks) 16

a) What is process scheduler? Describe long term, short term and medium
term scheduler in detail.
b) Consider the following set of processes, with the length of the cpu burst
time given in milliseconds,
Process Burst Time
P1 10
P2 1
P3 2
P4 1
P5 5
The processes are assumed to have arrived in the order P1, P2, P3, P4,
P5 all at time 0. Answer the following.
i) Draw Gantt charts that illustrate the execution of these processes
using FCFS and SJF - non preemptive.
ii) What is average waiting time for both are scheduling algorithms in part (i)?
iii) What is average turnaround time for both are scheduling algorithms in
part (i)?
iv) Which scheduling algorithm results in minimal average waiting time
(over all process)?
Represent waiting time and turnaround time for all processes in table.
c) Explain classical problems of Synchronization in terms of Dining Philosopher
problem.
Section – II

a) Explain the steps for page fault handling.
b) Explain four essential conditions for the occurrence of deadlock.
c) Explain swapping mechanism in paging.
d) Write a note on DMA.
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a) Explain deadlock prevention technique in detail.
b) Let there be five processes (P1 to P5) and three resource types A, B and
C. Resource type A has 10 instances. Resource type B has 5 instances.
Resource type C has 7 instances.
Suppose that at time, t0, the following snapshot of the system has been
taken:
Allocation Max Available
A B C A B C A B C
P1 0 1 0 7 5 3 3 3 2
P2 2 0 0 3 2 2
P3 3 0 2 9 0 2
P4 2 1 1 2 2 2
P5 0 0 2 4 3 3
i) What is the content of need matrix?
ii) Find the safe sequence. Is this system safe at time t0?
iii)If process, P2 sends one additional request, can it be granted? Say
P2 send the request of (1,0,2).
c) Explain Paging in detail.
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Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

c) Socket d) Thread
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d) None of these
Anomaly
b) LRU
c) FIFO
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No. Set Q
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Process Burst Time
P1 10
P2 1
P3 2
P4 1
P5 5
part (i)?
(over all process)?
problem.
Section – II

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taken:
A B C A B C A B C
P1 0 1 0 7 5 3 3 3 2
P2 2 0 0 3 2 2
P3 3 0 2 9 0 2
P4 2 1 1 2 2 2
P5 0 0 2 4 3 3
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No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) None of these
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Anomaly
b) LRU
c) FIFO
c) Socket d) Thread
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No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Process Burst Time
P1 10
P2 1
P3 2
P4 1
P5 5
part (i)?
(over all process)?
problem.
Section – II

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taken:
A B C A B C A B C
P1 0 1 0 7 5 3 3 3 2
P2 2 0 0 3 2 2
P3 3 0 2 9 0 2
P4 2 1 1 2 2 2
P5 0 0 2 4 3 3
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No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

Anomaly
b) LRU
c) FIFO
c) Socket d) Thread
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d) None of these
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No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Process Burst Time
P1 10
P2 1
P3 2
P4 1
P5 5
part (i)?
(over all process)?
problem.
Section – II

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taken:
A B C A B C A B C
P1 0 1 0 7 5 3 3 3 2
P2 2 0 0 3 2 2
P3 3 0 2 9 0 2
P4 2 1 1 2 2 2
P5 0 0 2 4 3 3
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No. Set P
Data Base Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) To include integrity constraint in an existing relation use _____.
a) Create table b) Modify table
c) Alter table d) Drop table
2) For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called
the _____ of that attribute.
a) Domain b) Relation
c) Set d) Schema
3) Database ______ which is the logical design of the database, and the
database ______ which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a
given instant in time.
a) Instance, Schema b) Relation, Schema
c) Relation, Domain d) Schema, Instance
4) ______ expresses the number of entities to which another entity can be
associated via a relationship set.
a) Mapping Cardinality b) Relational Cardinality
c) Participation Constraints d) None of the mentioned
5) Identify the correct statement.
a) Logical level Abstraction: hide details of data types.
b) Logical level Abstraction: describes how schema is stored in a data
base.
c) Logical level Abstraction: describes how a record is stored.
d) Logical level Abstraction: describes accessibility of the database by
an individual user
6) A relational database consists of a collection of _____.
a) Tables b) Fields
c) Records d) Keys
7) In case of any failure, a log of each transaction can be recovered there
from some ______ storage.
c) Recovery d) System
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8) In existing table, ALTER TABLE statement is used to _____.
a) Add columns b) Add constraints
c) Delete Columns d) Delete constrains
e) All of the above
9) SQL Query to delete all rows in a table without deleting the table (structure,
attributes, and indexes)
a) DELETE FROM table_name;
b) DELETE TABLE table_name;
c) DROP TABLE table_name;
d) NONE
10) Wrong statement about UPDATE keyword is ______.
a) lf WHERE clause in missing in statement the all records will be updated.
b) Only one record can be updated at a time using WHERE clause
c) Multiple records can be updated at a time using WHERE clause
d) None is wrong statement
11) Wrong statement about ORDER BY keyword is ______.
a) Used to sort the result-set in ascending or descending order
b) The ORDER BY keyword sorts the records in ascending order by default.
c) To sort the records in ascending order, use the ASC keyword.
d) To sort the records in descending order, use the DECENDING keyword.
12) Correct syntax query syntax to drop a column from a table is ______.
a) DELETE COLUMN column_name;
b) DROP COLUMN column_name;
c) ALTER TABLE table__name DROP COLUMN column_name;
d) None is correct
13) The primary indexes, secondary indexes and cluster indexes are all types
of ______.
a) Ordered indexes b) Unordered indexes
c) linear indexes d) Relative search indexes
14) Which of the following is an operation of transactions?
a) Read b) Write
c) Commit d) All of the above
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Illustrate different Keys of DBMS.
b) Compare Database management system over file storage system
c) Classify different types of attributes.
d) Construct the following SQL queries for Bank Schema
1) Find all customers of the bank who have an account but not a loan.
2) Find the names of all customers who live on the same street and in
the same city as “Smith”.
Bank Schema
branch (branch name, branch city, assets)
Customer (customer name, customer street, customer city)
Loan (loan number, branch name, amount)
Borrower (customer name, loan number)
Account (account number, branch name, balance)
Depositor (customer name, account number)

a) Find the highest normal form of a relation.
1) R(A,B,C,D,E) with FD set {A->D, B->A, BC->D, AC->BE}
2) R(A,B,C,D,E) with FD set as {BC->D, AC->BE, B->E}
b) Explain Various 'Joins' with example.
c) Construct E-R Diagram for online movie ticket booking database.
Section – II

a) Enlist different indexing technique with appropriate example.
b) Explain Bitmap Indices with example.
c) Draw and explain transaction state.
d) Write various types of failures.

a) What do you mean by concurrency control? Explain two-phase locking
protocol.
b) Explain deadlock detection and recovery from deadlock.
c) Check whether the schedule is view serializable or not?
S: R2(B); R2(A); R1(A); R3(A); W1(B); W2(B); W3(B);
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

e) All of the above
d) NONE
d) None is correct
of ______.
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a) Read b) Write
c) Set d) Schema
base.
an individual user
a) Tables b) Fields
c) Records d) Keys
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Bank Schema

Section – II


protocol.
Page 6 of 13
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) None is correct
of ______.
a) Read b) Write
c) Set d) Schema
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base.
an individual user
a) Tables b) Fields
c) Records d) Keys
e) All of the above
d) NONE
Page 8 of 13
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Bank Schema

Section – II


protocol.
Page 9 of 13
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Tables b) Fields
c) Records d) Keys
e) All of the above
d) NONE
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d) None is correct
of ______.
a) Read b) Write
c) Set d) Schema
base.
an individual user
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

Bank Schema

Section – II


protocol.
Page 12 of 13
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No. Set P
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
Design and Analysis of Algorithm
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory?
a) Best case b) Worst case
c) Average case d) Null case
2) If for an algorithm time complexity is given by O(1) then the complexity of
it is ______.
a) constant b) polynomial
c) exponential d) none of the mentioned
3) What is the worst case complexity of binary search using recursion?
a) O(nlogn) b) O(logn)
c) O(n) d) O(n2)
4) Which of the following method is used for sorting in merge sort?
a) Merging b) Partitioning
c) Selection d) Exchanging
5) The result of the fractional knapsack is greater than or equal to 0/1
knapsack.
a) True b) False
6) Which of the following statement about 0/1 knapsack and fractional
knapsack problem is correct?
a) In 0/1 knapsack problem items are divisible and in fractional
knapsack items are indivisible
b) Both are the same
c) 0/1 knapsack is solved using a greedy algorithm and fractional
knapsack is solved using dynamic programming
d) In 0/1 knapsack problem items are indivisible and in fractional
knapsack items are divisible
7) Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____ problems.
a) All pair shortest path b) Single source shortest path
c) Network flow d) Sorting
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8) The correct matching for the following pairs is
A. Multistage graph 1. Greedy Method
B. Kruskal Algorithm 2. Dynamic Programming
C. Merge Sort 3. Backtracking
D. Hamilton Cycle 4. Divide and Conquer
a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) None
9) Floyd Warshall’s Algorithm is used for solving _____.
a) All pair shortest path problems
b) Single Source shortest path problems
c) Network flow problems
d) Sorting problems
10) Which of the following problems is similar to that of a Hamiltonian path
problem?
a) knapsack problem b) closest pair problem
c) travelling salesman problem d) assignment problem
11) Backtracking algorithm is implemented by constructing a tree of choices
called as?
a) State-space tree b) State-chart tree
c) Node tree d) Backtracking tree
12) Where is the n-queens problem implemented?
a) Carom b) Chess
c) Ludo d) Cards
13) _____ is the class of decision problems that can be solved by non-
deterministic polynomial algorithms.
a) NP b) P
c) Hard d) Complete
14) Problems that can be solved in polynomial time are known as?
a) intractable b) tractable
c) decision d) complete
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain binary search and Write binary search algorithm
b) Find time complexity using steps count method for following code.
Algorithm Add(a,b,c,m,n)
{
for i:=1 to m do
for j:=1 to n do
C[i,j]=a[i,j]+b[i,j]
}
c) What are different specification of algorithm?
d) Find an optimal solution to knapsack problem using greedy method.
M=60, n=5 (p1…….p5) = {15,25,40,20,36} and (w1…….w5) = {5,5,10,10,6}
Q.3 Solve any one. 08

a) Write an algorithm based on divide and conquer methodology to sort
algorithm using merge sort. And prove time complexity of Merge sort is
O(n log n).
OR
b) Explain optimal merge pattern in detail and find an optimal merge pattern
for 8 files whose length (3,5,7,9,12,14,15,17). Calculate no of record move.
Q.4 Find minimum weight /cost spanning tree using prim's algorithm & Kruskal 08
algorithm.
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Section – II

a) Write a short note on flow shop scheduling.
b) Design a three-stage system with device types D1, D2, D3. The cost are
$30, $15, $20 respectively. The cost of system is to be no more than
$105.The reliability of each device is 0.9, 0.8, 0.5 respectively.
c) State and explain Graph coloring problem with example.
d) Explain N queen problem. And explain N=4 Draw its portion of permutation
tree.

a) Find minimum cost path from s to t multistage graph using forward
approach.
OR
b) Write recursive algorithm for backtracking and explain it in detail.
Q.7 Consider the following directed graph. Find optimal tour length of travelling 08
sales person problem.
0 2 9 10
1 0 6 4
[ ]
15 7 0 8
6 3 12 0
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) None
d) Sorting problems
problem?
called as?
a) Carom b) Chess
c) Ludo d) Cards
a) NP b) P
c) Hard d) Complete
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Set Q
it is ______.
c) O(n) d) O(n2)
knapsack.
a) True b) False
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

{
for i:=1 to m do
for j:=1 to n do
}
M=60, n=5 (p1…….p5) = {15,25,40,20,36} and (w1…….w5) = {5,5,10,10,6}

O(n log n).
OR
algorithm.
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
Section – II

tree.

approach.
OR
0 2 9 10
1 0 6 4
[ ]
15 7 0 8
6 3 12 0
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-202
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

called as?
a) Carom b) Chess
c) Ludo d) Cards
a) NP b) P
c) Hard d) Complete
it is ______.
c) O(n) d) O(n2)
knapsack.
a) True b) False
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a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) None
d) Sorting problems
problem?
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

{
for i:=1 to m do
for j:=1 to n do
}
M=60, n=5 (p1…….p5) = {15,25,40,20,36} and (w1…….w5) = {5,5,10,10,6}

O(n log n).
OR
algorithm.
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Set R
Section – II

tree.

approach.
OR
0 2 9 10
1 0 6 4
[ ]
15 7 0 8
6 3 12 0
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 d) None
d) Sorting problems
problem?
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
called as?
a) Carom b) Chess
c) Ludo d) Cards
a) NP b) P
c) Hard d) Complete
it is ______.
c) O(n) d) O(n2)
knapsack.
a) True b) False
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

{
for i:=1 to m do
for j:=1 to n do
}
M=60, n=5 (p1…….p5) = {15,25,40,20,36} and (w1…….w5) = {5,5,10,10,6}

O(n log n).
OR
algorithm.
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Set S
Section – II

tree.

approach.
OR
0 2 9 10
1 0 6 4
[ ]
15 7 0 8
6 3 12 0
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No. Set P
Reinforcement Learning
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Reinforcement learning is ______.
a) Unsupervised learning b) Supervised learning
c) Feedback based learning d) None of these
2) The multi-armed bandit problem is a generalized use case for ______.
a) Reinforcement learning b) Supervised learning
c) Unsupervised learning d) All of these
3) The key idea of using DP is the use of ______ to organize and structure
the search for good policies.
a) Activation functions b) Value functions
c) Policy functions d) Discount factor
4) All the updates done in DP algorithms are called ______ because they
are based on an expectation over all possible next states.
a) Predicted updates b) Sample updates
c) Expected updates d) Past updates
5) The process of making a new policy that improves on an original policy,
by making it greedy with respect to the value function of the original
policy, is called ______.
a) Policy prediction b) Policy process
c) Greedy Policy process d) Policy improvement
6) Any RL tasks composed of a set of states, actions and rewards that
follows the ______ would be considered as MDP.
a) Markov property b) Backup policy
c) Bootstrap property d) Bellman equation
7) The use of a ______to formalize the idea of a goal is one of the most
distinctive features of reinforcement learning.
a) Policy b) Action
c) Reward signal d) State
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8) In many cases the agent-environment interaction does not break naturally
into identifiable episodes, but goes on continually without limit. We call
these as ______.
a) Episodic task b) Continuous task
9) Methods for solving reinforcement learning problems that use models and
planning are called ______.
a) Model-free method b) Model-based method
10) A ______ would produce all possible sums and their probabilities of
occurring, whereas a ______would produce an individual sum drawn
according to this probability distribution.
a) Distribution model, Sample model
b) Sample model, Distribution model
c) Sample model, Stochastic model
d) None of these
11) ______ includes all the processes such as planning, acting, model-
learning, and direct RL which occurs continually.
a) MDP b) Dyna-Q
c) Q-learning d) Monte Carlo
12) The motivation behind Dyna-Q+ is to give a ______for actions that have
not been tried for a long time, since there is a greater chance that the
dynamics for that actions might have changed.
a) Bonus reward b) Discounted reward
c) Punishment d) None of these
13) TD learning is combines ideas from ______.
a) Monte Carlo and dynamic programming
b) Greedy method and Monte Carlo
c) Dynamic programming and Greedy method
d) None of these
14) In the given equation, total_reward = 𝑅1 + 𝛾𝑅2 + 𝛾 2 𝑅2 + 𝛾 3 𝑅3 + ⋯ . , 𝛾 is
called as ______.
a) Discount rate b) Punishment value
c) Reward d) State value
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt Any THREE. 12

a) What is reinforcement learning? Explain with diagram the steps in
reinforcement learning.
b) What role do Exploration and Exploitation take w.r.t Reinforcement
learning?
c) Explain the Multi armed bandit problem. List its applications.
d) What is the Markov property? Explain concept of MDP with its elements.
Q.3 Attempt Any ONE. 08

a) Explain policy and value function. Derive the bellman equation for value
function and explain how it is used to find the optimal policy.
b) Explain the following Action-value methods along with their mathematical
equations for computing action value in 10-armed bandit problem:
1) Sample-Averaging method
2) ε-greedy method
3) Incremental implementation method
Q.4 Illustrate with diagram and equation the unified notation for episodic tasks and 08
continuous task.
Section – II

a) List the features of Temporal Difference Learning. Illustrate each of them.
b) Illustrate the working of SARSA (On-Policy TD control) method.
c) Explain the value iteration method in dynamic programming.
d) Differentiate between model based and model free learning

a) What is Samuel’s Checkers Player? Explain its working in detail.
b) Write short notes:
1) Dyna-Q
2) Monte Carlo method
Q.7 What is Prioritized sweeping? Why it is needed? Explain it in detail. 08
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


these as ______.
d) None of these
a) MDP b) Dyna-Q
d) None of these
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called as ______.
a) Policy b) Action
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

learning?

2) ε-greedy method
continuous task.
Section – II


1) Dyna-Q
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) MDP b) Dyna-Q
d) None of these
called as ______.
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Set R
a) Policy b) Action
these as ______.
d) None of these
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

learning?

2) ε-greedy method
continuous task.
Section – II


1) Dyna-Q
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) Policy b) Action
these as ______.
d) None of these
a) MDP b) Dyna-Q
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Set S
d) None of these
called as ______.
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

learning?

2) ε-greedy method
continuous task.
Section – II


1) Dyna-Q
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Seat
No. Set P
Data Preprocessing & Visualization
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


1) Which of the measures given here are based on every item of the series
(uses all Observations)?
a) Range b) Standard Deviation
c) Quartile Deviation d) All of the above
2) Find the median of the following data:
160,180, 200, 280, 300, 320, 400
a) 140 b) 300
c) 180 d) 280
3) A feature F1 can take certain value: A, B, C, D, E, & F and represents
grade of students from a college. Which of the following statement is true
in following case?
a) Feature F1 is an example of nominal variable.
b) Feature F1 is an example of ordinal variable.
c) It doesn’t belong to any of the above category
d) Both of these
4) What are the benefits of Data Visualizations?
a) Better Analysis b) Identifying patterns
c) Exploring Business Insights d) All of the above
5) “The sum of squares of deviations of the values is least” when deviations
are taken from ______.
a) Median b) Mode
c) Arithmetic Mean d) Geometric Mean
6) In a week the prices of a bag of rice were 350, 280, 340, 290, 320, 310,
300. The range is ______.
a) 60 b) 90
c) 70 d) 100
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7) Taking mean centring for a given variable is achieved by:
a) Taking the mean of all scores (ignoring from which variable they
come) and subtracting each score from it.
b) Taking each score and subtracting from it the mean of all scores (for
that variable).
c) Taking each score and dividing it by the mean of all scores (for that
variable).
d) Taking each score, subtracting the mean and then dividing by the
standard deviation.
8) The combined effect of two variables on another is known conceptually as
______, and in statistical terms as ______.
a) Mediation, an interaction effect
b) Moderation, a direct effect
c) Moderation, an interaction effect
d) Mediation, a direct effect
9) Which of the following quantities does not affect the width of the
confidence interval for a population proportion?
a) Sample Proportion b) Population Size
c) Sample size d) Confidence level
10) Which of the following is true about hypothesis testing?
a) Hypothesis are statements about the population(s)
b) Results are said to be statistically significant when the p-value is
greater than the alpha level.
c) The test statistic is a population parameter
11) What will be printed?
import numpy as np
a = np.array([1,2,3,5,8])
b = np.array([0,3,4,2,1])
c=a+b
c = c*a
print (c[2])
a) 7 b) 12
c) 10 d) 21
12) A Tabular arrangement for classifying data into different groups is called __.
a) Standard deviation b) frequency distribution
c) Secondary data d) Arithmetic Mean
13) Which of the following ways to create a Multilndex (multi-level index)?
a) From a list of arrays using Multilndex.from_arrays()
b) From an array of tuples using Multilndex.from_tuples()
c) rom a crossed set of iterables using Multilndex.from_product()
d) All of the above
14) Amongst which of the following is a correct syntax for panda's dataframe?
a) Pandas.DataFrame(data, index, dtype, copy)
b) pandas.DataFrame( data, index, columns, dtype, copy)
c) pandas.DataFrame(data, index, dtype, copy)
d) pandas.DataFrame( data, index, rows, dtype, copy)
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt Any FOUR: 16

a) Write a program to create an empty array of 3X4 and full array of 3X3 of
INTEGER type?
b) What type of plot would you use if you need to demonstrate “relationship”
between variables/parameters?
c) What is nominal variable and ordinal variable? Explain with examples.
d) What are ways of creating 1D, 2D and 3D arrays in NumPy?
e) How do you convert Pandas DataFrame to a NumPy array?
Q.3 a) Define a Range? What are the Applications of Range? Explain the method 06
of How to Find Range with example?
b) Find the standard deviation of the average temperatures recorded over a 06
five-day period last winter:
18,22,19,25,12
Section – II

a) What is Data visualization? What are the advantages of Data Visualization?
b) Draw a diagram of Box plot representing multi-variate categorical variables.
c) Define a scatter plot? Write syntax of scatter plot and explain its parameter
in the syntax.
d) Name any 4 libraries in Python used for Data Analysis and Scientific
computations?
e) How can we visualize more than three dimensions of data in a single chart?
Q.5 Attempt Any ONE: 12

a) Describe in detail Three-Dimensional Plotting in Matplotlib.
b) What is a dynamic technique in data visualization? explain with Example.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


import numpy as np
a = np.array([1,2,3,5,8])
b = np.array([0,3,4,2,1])
c=a+b
c = c*a
print (c[2])
a) 7 b) 12
c) 10 d) 21
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Set Q
d) All of the above
160,180, 200, 280, 300, 320, 400
a) 140 b) 300
c) 180 d) 280
in following case?
d) Both of these
a) Median b) Mode
a) 60 b) 90
c) 70 d) 100
that variable).
variable).
standard deviation.
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

INTEGER type?
18,22,19,25,12
Section – II

in the syntax.
computations?

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


import numpy as np
a = np.array([1,2,3,5,8])
b = np.array([0,3,4,2,1])
c=a+b
c = c*a
print (c[2])
a) 7 b) 12
c) 10 d) 21
d) All of the above
160,180, 200, 280, 300, 320, 400
a) 140 b) 300
c) 180 d) 280
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
in following case?
d) Both of these
a) Median b) Mode
a) 60 b) 90
c) 70 d) 100
that variable).
variable).
standard deviation.
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

INTEGER type?
18,22,19,25,12
Section – II

in the syntax.
computations?

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM


a) 60 b) 90
c) 70 d) 100
that variable).
variable).
standard deviation.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
import numpy as np
a = np.array([1,2,3,5,8])
b = np.array([0,3,4,2,1])
c=a+b
c = c*a
print (c[2])
a) 7 b) 12
c) 10 d) 21
d) All of the above
160,180, 200, 280, 300, 320, 400
a) 140 b) 300
c) 180 d) 280
in following case?
d) Both of these
a) Median b) Mode
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

INTEGER type?
18,22,19,25,12
Section – II

in the syntax.
computations?

Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Network Security and Secure Coding
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) What is Cyber Security?
a) Cyber Security provides security against malware
b) Cyber Security provides security against cyber-terrorists
c) Cyber Security protects a system from cyber attacks
d) All of the mentioned
2) Which of the following is an objective of network security?
a) Confidentiality b) Integrity
c) Availability d) All of the above
3) Which of the following is a type of cyber attack?
a) Phishing b) SQL Injections
c) Password Attack d) All of the above
4) Which of the following act violates cyber security?
a) Exploit b) Attack
c) Threat d) Vulnerability
5) Which of the following do Cyber attackers commonly target for fetching IP
address of a target or victim user?
a) ip tracker b) emails
c) websites d) web pages
6) Which of the following is an internet scam done by cyber-criminals where
the user is convinced digitally to provide confidential information?
a) MiTM attack b) Phishing attack
c) Website attack d) DoS attack
7) ____ is the cyclic practice for identifying & classifying and then solving
the vulnerabilities in a system.
a) Bug protection b) Bug bounty
c) Vulnerability measurement d) Vulnerability management
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8) A _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two
parties.
a) KDC b) CA
c) KDD d) None of above
9) In the _____ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the
original IP header.
a) Transport b) Tunnel
c) AH d) ESP
10) In _____ the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the
massage.
a) IPSec b) SSL
c) TLS d) PGP
11) _____ is a computer on a network which act as an intermediary for
connections with other computers on the network.
a) Proxy Server b) Anonymizer
c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
12) Phishing execute following sequential steps
a) Planning, Collection, Setup, Attack
b) Planning, Setup, Collection, Attack
c) Planning, Setup, Attack, Collection
d) Collection, Planning, Setup, Attack
13) Following is the event dependent program executed only when certain
event occur _____.
a) Logic Bomb b) Salami
c) Email Bombing d) Trojan Horse
14) Financial motivation hacking coming under type of _____.
a) Hungry for Recognition b) Not interested in Recognition
c) The insider d) The Outsider
Page 2 of 3
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Seat
No. Set P
Network Security and Secure Coding
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) Explain Security Service.
b) Write a note on secure hash function.
c) Write a note on key management Kerberos.
d) Write a note on ARP attack.
e) Explain model of internetwork security.
Q.3 Attempt any Two: 12

a) Explain block cipher modes of operation with suitable diagram.
b) Explain approaches of message authentication.
c) Describe digital signature standard.
Section – II
Q.4 Attempt Any Four: 16

a) Explain viruses with their structure, type and nature in detail.
b) Write note of fuzzing.
c) Write a note on PGP.
d) Define the term:
i) E-mail bombing
ii) Salami attack
iii) Logic bomb
iv) Data didding
e) Explain instruction detection system.
Q.5 Attempt Any Two: 12

a) Write a note S/MIME.
b) Explain Encapsulating security payload.
c) Write a note on Firewall Design principal.
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No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
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d) Store of value
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No. Set P
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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Seat
No. Set Q
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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Seat
No. Set R
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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Set S
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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Seat
No. Set S
Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
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Set P
10)
except _____.
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
that are of _____
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
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Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
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Set P
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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Set Q
a) Happy b) Sad
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
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Set R
profession
d) All the above
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
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Set S
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set P
System Programming
Day & Date: Saturday, 25-01-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
3) Assume data wherever necessary.
1) The designer expresses the ideas in terms related to the_____.
a) application domain b) execution domain
c) all of the above d) none of the above
2) The semantic gap has many consequences like ______.
a) large development time b) large development efforts
c) poor quality of software d) all of the above
3) Program generation activities and program execution activities are the
processing activities that come under______.
a) Processing activities
b) Language processing activities
c) All of the above
4) Which of the following might be used to convert high-level language
instructions into machine language?
a) System software b) Applications software
c) An operating environment d) An interpreter
5) Indicate which of the following is not true about an interpreter?
a) Interpreter generates an object program from the source program
b) Interpreter is a kind of translator
c) Interpreter analyses each source statement every time it is to be
executed
d) All of the above
6) Which of the following program converts assembly language program to
object programs?
a) Assembler b) Compiler
c) Macro processor d) Linker
7) ______ converts the programs written in assembly language into
machine instructions.
a) Machine compiler b) Interpreter
c) Assembler d) Converter
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8) A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory
ready for execution
a) Assembler b) Linker
c) Loader d) Load and go
9) During macro expansion each statement is replaced by ______.
a) The original program
b) The sequence of assembly statement
c) By specific symbols
10) A macro can be defined at ______.
a) Beginning of a program b) End of a program
c) After initialization of program d) Anywhere in a program
11) Macro processor is an inbuilt function of -
a) Assembler b) Loader
c) Linker d) Editor
12) To overcome the problems of the assembler in dealing with branching
code we use ______.
a) Interpreter b) Debugger
c) Op-Assembler d) Two-pass assemble
13) Compiler can check ______.
a) Syntax Error b) Logical Error
c) Both Logical and Syntax Error d) None of the above
14) Translator for low level programming language were termed as______.
c) Linker d) Loader
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No. Set P
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All Questions are compulsory.
Section – I

a) Describe front end & back end of toy compiler with the help of examples.
b) What is IR? Prepare an IR by making front end analysis of following
program
P : integer;
Q, R: real;
Q: = R + P;
c) List and explain types of elements of assembly language programming.
d) Classify the fundamental language processing activities.
e) Define and Describe Nested macro call.
f) Define macro definition, call and expansion in detail with the help of
examples.
Q.3 Attempt any One. 06

a) Define Language processor? List and explain different types of language
processor with example.
b) Write down the tasks performed in the analysis phase and synthesis phase
of Assembler.

a) List major issues in code generation for expression. Explain operand &
register Descriptor with example.
Section – II
Q.5 Attempt any Four 16

a) Explain aspects of compilation.
b) What are triples, quadruples and indirect triples? Explain.
c) Define linker? And what are binary programs & object modules used in
linker?
d) What is absolute loader? How it differs from relocating loader.
e) What is Loader? Explain the four basic functions of any loader.
f) Compare linking address & loading address.
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a) Compare the direct linking and self relocating loader.
b) List & explain the PL features used in implementation of aspects of
compilation.

Describe the working of direct linking loader & various data structures used in
loader.
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No. Set Q
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
ready for execution
c) Linker d) Editor
code we use ______.
c) Linker d) Loader

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Set Q
c) All of the above
executed
d) All of the above
object programs?
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No. Set Q
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

program
P : integer;
Q, R: real;
Q: = R + P;
examples.

of Assembler.

Section – II

linker?
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
compilation.

loader.
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No. Set R
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
c) Linker d) Editor
code we use ______.
c) Linker d) Loader
c) All of the above
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Set R
executed
d) All of the above
object programs?
ready for execution
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No. Set R
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

program
P : integer;
Q, R: real;
Q: = R + P;
examples.

of Assembler.

Section – II

linker?
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
compilation.

loader.
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No. Set S
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
object programs?
ready for execution
c) Linker d) Editor
code we use ______.
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
c) Linker d) Loader
c) All of the above
executed
d) All of the above
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No. Set S
System Programming
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

program
P : integer;
Q, R: real;
Q: = R + P;
examples.

of Assembler.

Section – II

linker?
Page 15 of 16
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Set S
compilation.

loader.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) The following C program:
main ()
{
fork(); fork(); printf(“yes”);
}
prints yes:
a) only once b) twice
c) four times d) eight times
2) The state of a process is defined by :
a) Job Queue b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue d) Ready Queue
4) Mutual exclusion can be provided by the ______.
a) mutex locks b) binary semaphores
5) Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before
the parent terminates _______.
a) Normally b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally d) None of these
6) The TestAndSet instruction is executed:
a) after a particular process b) periodically
c) atomically d) none of these
7) Round robin scheduling falls under the category of:
a) Non preemptive scheduling b) Preemptive scheduling
c) None of these d) Both (a) and (b)
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8) What is the reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
a) banker’s algorithm b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm d) kern’s algorithm
10) CPI fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
a) program counter b) status register
c) instruction register d) program status word
12) ______ is the concept in which a process is copied into main memory
from the secondary memory according to the requirement.
a) Paging b) Demand paging
c) Segmentation d) Swapping
13) In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced _____.
a) oldest page is chosen b) newest page is chosen
c) random page is chosen d) none of the mentioned
14) A ______ is a set of wires and a rigidly defined protocol that specifies a
set of messages that can be sent on the wires.
a) port b) node
c) bus d) none of the mentioned
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No. Set P
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Solve any three of the following questions. 12

a) What is the major problem in Priority Scheduling? And how to solve it?
b) What is a semaphore? Explain its operations.
c) What is a process? Explain its state transition diagram.
d) Explain Time-Sharing operating systems.
e) Describe critical section problem. State the solution to CS problem.
Q.3 Solve any two of the following questions. 16

a) Consider the following set of processes with arrival time and burst time in
milliseconds as given below.
P No. AT BT
1 0 7
2 1 5
3 2 3
4 3 1
5 4 2
6 5 1
1) Draw Gnatt chart that illustrate execution of processes in Pre-emptive
SJF manner.
2) Calculate average waiting time for Pre-emptive SJF scheduling
algorithm.
3) Calculate average Turnaround time for Pre-emptive SJF scheduling
algorithm.
b) What is process Scheduler? Describe long-term, short-term, and medium-
c) Explain Monitor in detail.
Section – II

a) Explain deadlock prevention in detail
b) Explain FIFO page replacement policy with example.
c) Explain Swapping with the help of diagram.
d) Write note on deadlock characterization.
e) Write short note on application I/O interface.
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a) Write and explain Banker’s algorithm for deadlock avoidance with the help
of example.
b) Explain Paging in detail.
c) What is virtual memory? Explain demand paging in detail.
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) port b) node
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
main ()
{
}
prints yes:
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Seat
No. Set Q
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


P No. AT BT
1 0 7
2 1 5
3 2 3
4 3 1
5 4 2
6 5 1
SJF manner.
algorithm.
algorithm.
Section – II

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Set Q
of example.
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Seat
No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) port b) node
main ()
{
}
prints yes:
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


P No. AT BT
1 0 7
2 1 5
3 2 3
4 3 1
5 4 2
6 5 1
SJF manner.
algorithm.
algorithm.
Section – II

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Set R
of example.
Page 12 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) port b) node
main ()
{
}
prints yes:
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S
Operating Systems
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


P No. AT BT
1 0 7
2 1 5
3 2 3
4 3 1
5 4 2
6 5 1
SJF manner.
algorithm.
algorithm.
Section – II

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Set S
of example.
Page 16 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Software Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The second step in software development life cycle is _______.
a) System Design
b) Requirement analysis and specification
c) System Testing
d) Coding
2) SDLC stands for ________.
a) System Development Life cycle
b) Software Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
3) An SRS provides a reference for ______ of the final product.
a) Verification b) Implementation
c) Validation d) Justification
4) _______ is one of the characteristics of software process.
a) Maintainability b) Efficiency
c) Reliability d) Predictability
5) A _______ is a systematic approach to creating a design by applying of a
set of techniques and guidelines.
a) design methodology
b) Validation
c) Testing
d) Coding
6) _______ coupling occurs due to methods of a class invoking methods of
other classes.
a) Component b) Interaction
c) Inheritance d) Simple
7) ______ cohesion occurs when there is no meaningful relationship among
the elements of a module.
a) Logical b) Temporal
c) Coincidental d) Sequential
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8) Black box testing is also called as _____.
a) structural testing b) interface testing
c) stress testing d) Functional testing
9) A detailed project schedule is never ______.
a) fixed
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) static
10) _____ is defined as the auditing and reporting procedures used to
provide the stakeholders with data needed to make well-informed
decisions.
a) Quality control
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality assessment
d) None of these
11) CMM means ______.
a) Common Maturity Model
b) Cost Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Model
d) All
12) The weakness of the ______ model is it requires co-located teams in
Agile Project Management.
a) Adaptive PMLC
b) Prototype
c) Linear
d) Iterative PMLC
13) ______ analysis is the key to learning from the past so to provide future
improvements.
a) Project closure b) Functional closure
c) Quality closure d) Risk
14) White Box Testing is also called as ______.
a) functional testing b) structural testing
c) stress testing d) interface testing
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) What are the different characteristics of a software process?
b) What are the different components of SRS?
c) Describe waterfall model of software development in detail.
d) How design principles used in function and object-oriented design.
e) What is cohesion? Describe all types of cohesion used in design.

a) What is SRS? Explain different need and characteristics of SRS.
b) Describe Spiral model of software development in detail.
c) Explain design principles used in function and object-oriented design.
Section – II

a) Describe about quality concept in software project.
b) What is process capability baseline in project planning?
c) Describe black box testing in detail.
d) Explain Capability Maturity Model (CMM) in detail.
e) Describe new management responsibilities in agile project management.

a) How effort estimation and scheduling is applied in software project?
b) Describe Adaptive project management life cycle in detail.
c) Describe white box testing in detail.
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) fixed
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) static
decisions.
a) Quality control
d) None of these
4) CMM means ______.
d) All
a) Adaptive PMLC
b) Prototype
c) Linear
d) Iterative PMLC
improvements.
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Set Q
a) System Design
c) System Testing
d) Coding
b) Validation
c) Testing
d) Coding
other classes.
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

d) All
a) Adaptive PMLC
b) Prototype
c) Linear
d) Iterative PMLC
improvements.
a) System Design
c) System Testing
d) Coding
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
b) Validation
c) Testing
d) Coding
other classes.
a) fixed
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) static
decisions.
a) Quality control
d) None of these
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-213
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

other classes.
a) fixed
b) variable
c) dynamic
d) static
decisions.
a) Quality control
d) None of these
d) All
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
a) Adaptive PMLC
b) Prototype
c) Linear
d) Iterative PMLC
improvements.
a) System Design
c) System Testing
d) Coding
b) Validation
c) Testing
d) Coding
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
$ Database Engineering
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


1) A view of database that appears to an application program is known as:
a) Schema b) Subschema
c) Virtual table d) None of the above
2) An abstraction concept for building composite object from their
component is called:
a) Specialization b) Normalization
c) Generalization d) Aggregation
3) Let R = (A, B, C, D) and F ={A → B, A → C, BC → D } then A → −> D is in F+.
Then which of following is correct?
a) A → D in F+ is always true
b) A → D is in F+ but for that D → A must be satisfied
c) A → D is not in F+
d) None of these
4) The output of Data Definition Language (DDL) is stored in
a) Relation b) Cache
c) Data dictionary d) E-R diagram
5) Rename is binary operation
a) True b) False
6) We say that a relation schema Ris in first normal form (1 NF) if ______
a) The domains of all attributes of R are atomic
b) The relation schema do not allow NULL values
c) The relation schema do not allow NULL attributes
d) The relation schema has a foreign key
7) In SQR, which command is used to remove rows from a table?
a) DELETE b) REMOVE
c) TRUNCATE d) Both a and c
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Set P
8) ______ index has an index entry search key value in the data file.
a) Sparse b) Dense
c) Both a and b d) None
9) Consider two statements for two-phase locking protocol
S1: In growing phase a transaction may obtain locks
S2: In growing phase a transaction may not release any lock
a) Both S1 and S2 are true b) Only S1 is true
c) Only S2 is true d) Both S1 and S2 are false
10) Which of the log is not in transaction state?
a) Start b) Write
c) Rollback d) Commit
11) Check-point are used for
a) Transaction recovery
b) Transaction concurrency control
c) Designing serializable schedule
d) Designing optimized query
12) For the B+ tree, following is true
a) Each no-leaf node has between [n/2] to n2 children
b) Each no-leaf node has between [n/2] to [n/4] children
c) Each no-leaf node has between [n/2] to n children
d) Each no-leaf node has same number of children
13) Which of the following scenarios lead to an non-recoverable schedule?
a) A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted
transaction
b) A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted
transaction
c) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an committed
transaction
d) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted
transaction
14) In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction ______downgrade a write
lock to a read look.
a) Cannot, in the growing phase only
b) Can under all circumstances
c) Can in the shrinking phase only
d) Cannot in the shrinking phase only
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three from the following. 12

a) Explain with example various attributes types in ER model.
b) Explain with example Generalization and Specialization.
c) Explain with example dependency preservation.
d) Explain with example Third Normal Form (3NF).
e) Explain cardinality constraints and participating constraints.
Q.3 Attempt any two from the following. 16

a) What is functional dependency? Explain the way to find closure of a set of
functional dependency.
b) Explain fundamental relational algebra operations with examples.
c) List and explain drawbacks of file processing system.
Section – II

a) Explain transaction model with example.
b) Explain the concept of shadow paging.
c) Explain deferred database modifications with example.
d) Explain Dense and Sparse Indexing with suitable diagram.
e) Give difference between Ordered indices and Hashing with one example.
Which is better to use.

a) Explain two-phase protocol in detail.
b) List the ACID properties and explain each property in detail with a suitable
example.
c) Explain in detail the concept of check points in recovery systems.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) Sparse b) Dense
a) Start b) Write
transaction
transaction
transaction
transaction
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
d) None of these
a) True b) False
a) DELETE b) REMOVE
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Section – I


Section – II


example.
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carry one mark.
same page.


transaction
transaction
transaction
transaction
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d) None of these
a) True b) False
a) DELETE b) REMOVE
a) Sparse b) Dense
a) Start b) Write
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Section – I


Section – II


example.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) DELETE b) REMOVE
a) Sparse b) Dense
a) Start b) Write
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transaction
transaction
transaction
transaction
d) None of these
a) True b) False
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Section – I


Section – II


example.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Time Complexity is ______
a) Space required by program
b) Amount of machine time necessary for running program
c) Time required for programmer to code
d) All of above
2) Algorithm A is said to be _____ recursive if it call another algorithm which
in turn calls A.
a) Indirect b) Direct
c) Pointed d) Related
3) ______ method is used for solving recurrence relation.
a) Division b) Substitution
c) Replacement d) None of these
4) For merging two sorted listed list of sizes m and n into sorted list of size
m + n, we require comparison of ______.
a) O(m + n) b) O(m)
c) O(n) d) O(log m + log n)
5) Which of the following sorting algorithms has the lowest worst-case complexity?
a) Merge sort b) Bubble sort
c) Quick sort d) Selection sort
6) Job sequencing with deadlines is an example of _____ greedy method.
a) subset paradigm b) ordering paradigm
c) both a) and c) d) none of the above
7) In an optimal storage on tape problem if (𝜆1, 𝜆2, 𝜆3) = (5,10,3) then the
optimal ordering of program is
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 3, 2
8) Which algorithm design technique is the most efficient one for solving the
problem of real knapsack?
a) Enumerating strategy b) Divide and conquer
c) Greedy strategy d) Backtracking
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9) Which one of the following algorithm design techniques is used in finding
all pairs of shortest distance in Graph?
a) Dynamic programming b) Backtracking
c) Greedy method d) Divide and conquer
10) _______ is a generated node which is too expanded further or all of
whose children have been generated.
a) Live node b) E-node
c) Dead ode d) Root Node
11) The smallest number of colors needed to color a graph G is called its ___
a) Face number b) Chromatic number
c) Edges number d) Vertex number
12) If a problem Q is known to be NP-hard, then which of the following is true?
a) If Q is in NP then Q is NP-complete
b) Q is not NP-complete
c) Q is not in NP
d) Not all problem is NP can be reduce to Q
13) A problem is NP-Complete if the problem is _____
a) NP-Hard b) P only
c) P Hard and in NP d) NP Hard but not in NP
14) Which of the following statements are true?
1) The problem of determining whether there exists a cycle in an
undirected graph is in P
undirected graph is in NP
3) If a problem A is NP-complete, there exists a non-deterministic
polynomial time algorithm to solve A
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only d) 3 only
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I
a) Define space and time complexity with suitable example.
b) State and prove time complexity of Merge sort.
c) Explain Binary Search with suitable example.
d) Using Greedy approach find maximum profit earned for the given
Knapsack problem.
Profit = (12,10,8,11,14,7,9)
Weight = (4,6,5,7,3,1,6)
M=18
e) Symbol Frequency
A 70 Million
B 3 Million
C 20 Million
D 37 Million
Find decode tree and code for particular symbol.
Q.3 Solve any One. 08

a) Sort following elements using Quick sort (Show each iteration).
65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 55, 50, 45
b) Find the minimum cost spanning tree using Prims and Kruskals algorithm.
(show each iteration)
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SECTION – II
a) Write a note on – Reliability design.
b) Solve 0/1 Knapsack problem using Dynamic Programming
N = 3, m = 6 profit = {1, 2, 5} and weight = {2, 3, 4}
c) Draw portion of solution space tree for 4- Queen problem using backtracking.
e) Explain Hamilton cycle.
f) Define P, NP, NP-hard problem.
g) Find all pair shortest path using dynamic programming for following
diagraph

a) Find the minimum cost from s to t in multistage graph using backward
approach.
b) Consider following directed graph and edge lengths are given by matrix.
Find optimal tour travelling sales person.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

c) Q is not in NP
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a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only d) 3 only
d) All of above
in turn calls A.
a) O(m + n) b) O(m)
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 3, 2
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I
Knapsack problem.
Profit = (12,10,8,11,14,7,9)
Weight = (4,6,5,7,3,1,6)
M=18
e) Symbol Frequency
A 70 Million
B 3 Million
C 20 Million
D 37 Million

65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 55, 50, 45
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SECTION – II
diagraph

approach.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

c) Q is not in NP
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only d) 3 only
d) All of above
in turn calls A.
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a) O(m + n) b) O(m)
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 3, 2
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SECTION – I
Knapsack problem.
Profit = (12,10,8,11,14,7,9)
Weight = (4,6,5,7,3,1,6)
M=18
e) Symbol Frequency
A 70 Million
B 3 Million
C 20 Million
D 37 Million

65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 55, 50, 45
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SECTION – II
diagraph

approach.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1 d) 1, 3, 2
c) Q is not in NP
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a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 only d) 3 only
d) All of above
in turn calls A.
a) O(m + n) b) O(m)
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I
Knapsack problem.
Profit = (12,10,8,11,14,7,9)
Weight = (4,6,5,7,3,1,6)
M=18
e) Symbol Frequency
A 70 Million
B 3 Million
C 20 Million
D 37 Million

65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 60, 55, 50, 45
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SECTION – II
diagraph

approach.
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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
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d) Store of value
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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
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a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Socialism
b) Capitalism
d) All of the above
a) False b) True
d) All of the above
d) Store of value
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b) Economy as whole
c) Trade relations
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Economics
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


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Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
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10)
except _____.
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Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
5)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
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No. Set Q
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
2)
except _____.
a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
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that are of _____
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Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 10 yrs b) 30 yrs
c) 60 yrs d) 70 yrs
a) Art b) Invention
c) Goods d) Ideas
that are of _____
a) 1856 b) 1880
c) 1905 d) 1850
8)
except _____.
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No. Set S
Management
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

example.

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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


2) What is culture?
a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
7) What is culture?
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
4) What is culture?
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) 2% b) 3%
c) 5% d) 7%
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


OR
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set Q
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set R
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


c) Overeating
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No. Set S
Stress and Coping
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
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Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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a) Happy b) Sad
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
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profession
d) All the above
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM


a) Happy b) Sad
a) Self-confidence
c) Physical courage
d) Social courage
profession
d) All the above
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a) Culture b) Value
c) Society d) Moral
a) Moral b) Ethics
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
OR
judgments.

OR

b) Self confidence
c) Commitment
f) Code of ethics
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No. Set P
T. Y. (B.Tech.) (Sem – II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Compiler Construction
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
Q.1 Multiple choice questions 14
1) A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and
produce code for different machine is called _____.
a) Optimizing compiler b) One pass compiler
c) Cross compiler d) Multipass compiler
2) Task of the lexical analysis is _____.
a) To scan the source program and generate the basic elements or
tokens of the language
b) To support macro call
c) To report errors in source program
d) All of these
3) In operator precedence parsing, precedence relations are defined _____.
a) For all pair of non-terminals b) For all pair of terminals
c) To delimit the handle d) All of these
4) Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler?
a) Parser b) Lexical analysis
c) Code generation d) Code optimization
5) Synthesized attribute can be easily simulated by a _____.
a) LL grammar b) LR grammar
c) Ambiguous grammar d) Operator grammar
6) Which of the following is not a feature of compiler?
a) Scan the entire program first and translate into machine code
b) To remove syntax errors
c) Slow for debugging
d) Execution time is more
7) A programmer by mistakes writes a program to multiply two numbers
instead of dividing them, how can this error be detected?
a) Compiler b) Interpreter
c) Compiler or interpreter d) None of the mentioned
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8) Running time of a program depends on _____.
a) Addressing mode b) Order of computations
c) The usage of machine idioms d) All of the mentioned
9) Peep Hole optimization is _____.
a) Loop Optimization b) Local Optimization
c) Constant folding d) Data Flow analysis
10) The graph that shows basic blocks and their successor relationship is
called _____.
a) Dag b) Flow Graph
c) Control Graph d) Hamilton Graph
11) The specific task storage manager performs _____.
a) Allocation/ deal location of programs
b) Protection of storage area assigned to the program
c) Allocation/ deal location of programs & protection of storage area
assigned to the program
12) An intermediate code form is ______.
a) Postfix notation b) Syntax trees
c) Three address code d) All of these
13) Reduction in strength means _____.
a) Replacing run time computation by compile time computation
b) Removing loop invariant computation
c) Removing common sub expression
d) Replacing a costly operation by a relatively cheaper one
14) The optimization which avoids test at every iteration is _____.
a) Loop jamming b) Loop unrolling
c) Constant folding d) All of these
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three of the following questions. 12

a) Explain the terms with example:
i) Tokens
ii) Lexeme
b) What are compiler construction tools? Explain.
c) Explain types of derivation with example.
d) Explain L attributed definition of SDD with example.
Q.3 Attempt any one of the following questions. 08

a) Explain SLR parser in detail with example.
b) What is input buffering? Explain in detail with double buffer and sentinel
concept.

a) Explain bottom up evaluation of S- attributed definition with example.
b) Explain process of compilation with various phases in detail.
Section – II

a) Explain Activation record with its fields.
b) Explain the terms with example:
i) Triple
ii) Quadruple
c) What is DAG? Explain with example
d) Explain common sub expression elimination.

a) Write an algorithm for partitioning into basic blocks by considering following
program code.
prod = 0;
i = 1;
do
{
prod=prod+a[i]∗b[i];
i=i+1;
}while(i<=10);
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b) Explain translation of switch-case statement in 3 address code.

a) Explain storage allocation strategies in detail.
b) What is optimization? Explain peephole optimization techniques in detail.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
called _____.
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d) All of these
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) Tokens
ii) Lexeme

concept.

Section – II

i) Triple
ii) Quadruple

program code.
prod = 0;
i = 1;
do
{
i=i+1;
}while(i<=10);
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q

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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
d) All of these
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Set R
called _____.
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) Tokens
ii) Lexeme

concept.

Section – II

i) Triple
ii) Quadruple

program code.
prod = 0;
i = 1;
do
{
i=i+1;
}while(i<=10);
Page 11 of 16
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Set R

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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
called _____.
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d) All of these
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

i) Tokens
ii) Lexeme

concept.

Section – II

i) Triple
ii) Quadruple

program code.
prod = 0;
i = 1;
do
{
i=i+1;
}while(i<=10);
Page 15 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Unix Operating System
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Kernel maintains the ______ of buffers that preserves the least recently
used order.
a) First list b) Queue
c) Tree d) Stack
2) ______ algorithm is used for conversion of Byte offset to Block number in
file system.
a) map b) bmap
c) bread d) none of these
3) ______ is used to write error messages to standard error file.
a) < b) >
c) 2> d) err
4) ______ algorithm is used for validity fault handler.
a) fault b) vfault
c) bfault d) mfault
5) _____ data structure is used for allocation of swap space.
a) malloc b) map
c) region table d) page table
6) The syntax of the system call chown is _______.
a) chown(pathname,owner)
b) chown(filename,owner)
c) chown(pathname,owner,group)
d) chown(filename,owner,group)
7) The state _____ is logically the same as ready to run in memory.
a) zombie b) preempted
c) ready to run d) sleeping
8) A ______ file type field indicates that disk inode is assigned.
a) zero b) negative value
c) non-zero d) none of these
9) ______ process is commonly called init because it is responsible for
initializing of new process.
a) process 0 b) process1
c) Swapper d) Superuser
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10) A process can synchronize its execution with the termination of a child by
executing _______ system call.
a) wait b) exec
c) fork d) exit
11) The system call ______ creates special files in the system, including
named pipes, device files and directories.
a) mknod b) mkfs
c) creat d) pipe
12) Moving between kernel and user mode is called as _____.
a) change in mode b) context switch
c) kernel running d) none of above
13) ______ has access rights to all files in the system.
a) User process b) User
c) Superuser d) Group owner
14) Algorithm used for handling signal is ______.
a) psig b) issig
c) sigcatch d) sighandle
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I

a) What are different Processor Execution Levels (PEL). What is the role of
PEL in operating system?
b) Consider that, block number 2 is the start block of the inode list and there
are 8 inode per block. Calculate the block number for inode number 8 and
calculate byte offset for the same. (Size of disk inode = 64 bytes)
c) Describe different advantages and disadvantages of Buffer Cache.
d) Write a short note on Pipe System call.

a) Explain architecture of Unix operating system with the help of block
diagram of system kernel in detail.
b) Describe in detail the scenario of getblk alogorithm used to allocate buffer
for a disk block.
c) Explain how kernel allocates an inode to newly created file using ialloc
algorithm and how it releases the inode using ifree algorithm.
Section – II

a) What is signal? Explain algorithm used for recognizing it.
b) Describe system boot and init process in detail.
c) Explain system calls used for time.
d) Explain fork System call in detail.

a) What is Context of process? Explain components of context of process in
detail.
b) What are different data structures used by a system which supports demand
paging? Explain in detail.
c) Describe Process state transition diagram in detail.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) wait b) exec
c) fork d) exit
a) mknod b) mkfs
c) creat d) pipe
a) psig b) issig
used order.
c) Tree d) Stack
file system.
a) map b) bmap
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a) < b) >
c) 2> d) err
a) fault b) vfault
c) bfault d) mfault
a) malloc b) map
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


for a disk block.
Section – II


detail.
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) mknod b) mkfs
c) creat d) pipe
a) psig b) issig
used order.
c) Tree d) Stack
file system.
a) map b) bmap
a) < b) >
c) 2> d) err
a) fault b) vfault
c) bfault d) mfault
a) malloc b) map
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a) wait b) exec
c) fork d) exit
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Section – I


for a disk block.
Section – II


detail.
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Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
a) wait b) exec
c) fork d) exit
a) mknod b) mkfs
c) creat d) pipe
a) psig b) issig
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used order.
c) Tree d) Stack
file system.
a) map b) bmap
a) < b) >
c) 2> d) err
a) fault b) vfault
c) bfault d) mfault
a) malloc b) map
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


for a disk block.
Section – II


detail.
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No. Set P
Computer Organization and Architecture
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.


1) SIMD represents an organization that ______.
a) refers to a computer system capable of processing several programs
at the same time.
b) represents organization of single computer containing a control unit,
processor unit and a memory unit.
c) includes many processing units under the supervision of a common
control unit.
d) none of above
2) Floating point representation is used to store ______.
a) Boolean values b) whole numbers
c) real integers d) integer
3) In computers, subtraction is generally carried out by ______.
a) 9's complement b) 10's complement
c) 1's complement d) 2's complement
4) What characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent
storage?
a) too slow b) unreliable
c) it is volatile d) too bulky
5) Computers use addressing mode techniques for ______.
a) giving programming versatility to the user by providing facilities as
pointers to memory counters for loop control
b) to reduce no. of bits in the field of instruction
c) specifying rules for modifying or interpreting address field of the instruction
d) all the above
6) The circuit used to store one bit of data is known as ______.
a) Register b) Encoder
c) Decoder d) Flip Flop
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7) (2FAOC) 16 is equivalent to ______.
a) (195 084) 10 b) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2
8) The addressing mode used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y, is ______.
a) Absolute b) indirect
c) index d) none of these
9) Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are ______.
a) internal b) external
c) hardware d) software
10) Which memory unit has lowest access time?
a) Cache b) Registers
c) Magnetic Disk d) Main Memory
11) The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by ______.
a) The involvement of the processor for the operation
b) The method accessing the I/O devices
c) The amount of data transfer possible
12) The DMA transfers are performed by a control circuit called as ______.
a) Device interface b) DMA controller
c) Data controller d) Overlooked
13) The pipelining process is also called as ______.
a) Superscalar operation b) Assembly line operation
c) Von Neumann cycle d) None of the mentioned
14) Each stage in pipelining should be completed within ______ cycle.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Answer all the questions Section – I & Section - II.
Section – I

a) Define Bus and explain system bus.
b) Differentiate between RISC & CISC.
c) Differentiate between SRAM & DRAM.
d) Explain floating point numbers with example.
e) Explain cache memory with dig.

a) Explain memory Hierarchy with different levels of memory.
b) Explain booths multiplication algorithm, with example.
c) Explain generations of computer.
Section – II

a) Explain pipelining with example.
b) Differentiate between Memory mapped I/O & Isolated I/O.
c) Differentiate between loosely coupled & tightly coupled multiprocessor.
d) Explain direct memory access with dig.
e) Explain shared memory.

a) Describe asynchronous and synchronous model of pipelining.
b) Explain Symmetric multiprocessor arch.
c) Explain bus arbitration in DMA.
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.


a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
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at the same time.
control unit.
d) none of above
storage?
d) all the above
a) (195 084) 10 b) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.


a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
at the same time.
control unit.
d) none of above
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storage?
d) all the above
a) (195 084) 10 b) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
same page.


a) (195 084) 10 b) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2
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a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
at the same time.
control unit.
d) none of above
storage?
d) all the above
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Artificial Intelligence is about ______ .
a) Playing a game on Computer
b) Making a machine Intelligent
c) Programming on Machine with your Own Intelligence
d) Putting your intelligence in Machine
2) Select the most appropriate situation for that a blind search can be used.
a) Real-life situation b) Small Search Space
c) Complex game d) All of the above
3) Among the given options, which search algorithm requires less memory?
a) Optimal Search b) Depth-firstsearch
c) Breadth-First Search d) Linear Search
4) Which of the following is the branch of Artificial Intelligence?
a) Machine Learning b) Cyber forensics
c) Full-Stack Developer d) Network Design
5) Which of the following is a component of Artificial Intelligence?
a) Learning b) Training
c) Designing cost d) Puzzling
6) What is the function of an Artificial Intelligence “Agent”?
a) Mapping of goal sequence to an action
b) Work without the direct interference of the people
c) Mapping of precept sequence to an action
d) Mapping of environment sequence to an action
7) Which of the following machine requires input from humans but can
c) Agents d) Al system
8) Face Recognition system is based on which type of approach?
a) Weak Al approach b) Applied Al approach
c) Cognitive Al approach d) Strong Al approach
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9) Which algorithm is used in the Game tree to make decisions of Win/Lose?
a) Heuristic Search Algorithm
b) DFS/BFS algorithm
c) Greedy Search Algorithm
d) Min/Max algorithm
10) Among the given options, which is not the required property of Knowledge
representation?
a) Inferential Efficiency
b) Inferential Adequacy
c) Representational Verification
d) Representational Adequacy
11) What is the name of Artificial Intelligence which allows machines to
handle vague information with a deftness that mimics human intuition?
a) Human intelligence b) Boolean logic
c) Functional logic d) Fuzzy logic
12) The available ways to solve a problem of state-space-search.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
13) Which agent deals with the happy and unhappy state?
a) Utility-based agent
b) Goal-based agent
c) Model-based agent
d) Learning agents
14) Automatic Reasoning tool is used in _____.
a) Personal Computers b) Microcomputers
c) LISP Machines d) All of the above
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
Q.2 Attempt any five. 30

a) Give some real-world applications of Al
b) How Artificial intelligence. Machine Learning, and Deep Learning differ
from each other?
c) What are the types of Machine Learning?
d) What is NLP? What are the various components of NLP?
e) What is Bayes rule explain Bayes rule with example?
f) Explain Sequential decision problem with example.
g) What is reinforcement learning? How does reinforcement learning work?

a) What is the difference between supervised and unsupervised learning in
Al?
b) Explain Game theory in Al. How many types of game theory in Al.
c) Write a note BFS and DFS with example.

a) Write a short note on Al in the present and in the future.
b) i) Blind Search (Uninformed search)
1) Iterative deepening search
2) Bidirectional search
ii) Informed Search
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

representation?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
b) Goal-based agent
d) Learning agents
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

from each other?

Al?

ii) Informed Search
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No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
b) Goal-based agent
d) Learning agents
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Set R
representation?
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

from each other?

Al?

ii) Informed Search
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No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

representation?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
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Set S
b) Goal-based agent
d) Learning agents
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

from each other?

Al?

ii) Informed Search
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No. Set P
T.Y. (B. Tech) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Object Oriented Modeling & Design
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
1) ______ characterize mainstream object-oriented language.
a) Identity b) Classification
c) Polymorphism d) All of the above
2) A ______ represents the specification of an asynchronous stimulus
communicated between instances.
a) Event b) Process
c) Thread d) Signal
3) Aggregation is a ______ relationship.
a) “is a part of” b) “is a Kind of”
c) “is a replica of” d) “Has a”
4) The triangle notation for ______ to connect a super class to its subclasses.
a) Generalization b) Composition
c) Aggregation d) None of the above
5) A module is a logical construct for _______.
a) Grouping Classes b) Generalization
c) Association d) All of the above
6) ______ is a Building Blocks of the UML.
a) Things b) Diagrams
c) Relationships d) All of the option
7) Composition is a stronger form of ______.
a) Aggregation b) Inheritance
c) Encapsulation d) All of the above
8) In object-oriented design
a) Operations and methods are identical
b) Methods specify algorithms whereas operations only state what is to
be done
c) Methods do not change values of attributes
d) Methods and constructor are same
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9) The Unified Modeling Language:
a) is a notation useful for graphically depicting an object-oriented
analysis or design model.
b) allows one to capture design decisions of a system.
c) promotes communication among key personnel involved in
development.
d) All of the above
10) A class is divided into ______.
a) Name compartment b) Operation compartment
c) Attribute compartment d) All of the above
11) In Unified Modelling Language, diagrams that organize system elements

into groups are classified as _____.
a) Package diagrams b) System diagrams
c) Organized diagram d) Class diagrams
12) Components can be represented by which of the following _____.

a) Component symbols
b) Stereotypes
c) Rectangular boxes
d) Both component symbols & Stereotypes
13) UML provides which of these levels of visibility that can be applied to
attributes and operations?
a) Public b) Protected and private
c) Package d) All of the mentioned
14) Weak entities are represented in UML diagrams by using aggregations

called
a) Qualified segregation b) Non-qualified aggregation
c) Non-qualified segregation d) Qualified aggregation
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No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I
a) Explain object, links and association with diagram.
b) Explain the inheritance concept with example.
c) Explain state, event and operations with suitable diagram.
d) Explain elements of data flow diagram with diagram.

a) Explain object-oriented Styles.
b) Draw a class model for Railway Reservation System.
c) Explain about object diagram compiler.
SECTION – II
a) Explain state Machine Diagram in UML
b) Explain Activity diagram with example
c) Explain Deployment Diagram with example
d) Write note on Object Oriented Language features?

a) Explain Core Elements of use case diagram for Hospital Management
System.
b) Explain State chart diagrams and Nested State Chart diagram in UML
with example.
c) Explain steps for building a Sequence Diagram in UML. Elaborate with
an Example
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No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
be done
development.
d) All of the above


b) Stereotypes

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called
a) Event b) Process
c) Thread d) Signal
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

System.
with example.
an Example
Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

b) Stereotypes


called
a) Event b) Process
c) Thread d) Signal
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Set R
be done
development.
d) All of the above
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

System.
with example.
an Example
Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
be done
development.
d) All of the above
b) Stereotypes
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Set S
called
a) Event b) Process
c) Thread d) Signal
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

System.
with example.
an Example
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No. Set P
Artificial Neural Network
Day & Date: Friday 24-02-2023 Max. Marks: 70
Time: 10:00 AM To 1:00 PM


c) Vision Systems d) All of the above
a) Utility-based agent b) Model-based agent
c) Goal-based Agent d) Learning Agent
3) What are the compositions for agents in artificial intelligence?
a) Program
b) Architecture
c) Both Program and Architecture
4) How do you represent “All dogs have tails”?
a) ⋎X : dog(x) àhastail(x) b) ⋎X : dog(x) àhastail(y)
c) ⋎X : dog(y) àhastail(x) d) ⋎X : dog(x) àhasatail(x)
5) The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called
a) Extraction b) Abstraction
c) Information Retrieval d) Mining of data
6) Which of the Following problems can be modelled as CSP?
a) 8-Puzzle problem b) 8-Queen problem
c) Map Coloring problem d) All of the mentioned
7) Zero sum games are the one in which there are two agents whose actions
must alternate and in which the utility values at the end of the game are
always the same.
a) True b) False
8) Where does the Baye’s rule can be used?
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9) Chance Nodes are represented by _____.
a) Disks b) Squares
c) Circles d) Triangles
10) Which of the following is also called as exploratory learning?
a) Supervised learning b) Active learning
c) Unsupervised learning d) Reinforcement learning
11) A* is optimal if h(n) is an admissible heuristic-that is, provided that h(n)
never underestimates the cost to reach the goal.
a) True b) False
12) A* algorithm is based on _____.
a) Breadth-First-Search b) Depth-First -Search
c) Best-First-Search d) Hill climbing
13) Which rule is applied for the Simple reflex agent?
a) Simple-action rule b) Simple & Condition-action rule
c) Condition-action rule d) None of the above
14) Which of the following uses machine-learning technology to become smarter
and more capable of understanding natural language questions and
requests?
a) Netflix b) Siri
c) Cogito d) Deepblue
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No. Set P
Q.2 Answer the following (Any Five) 30

a) Describe the Components that define a well-defined search problem.
b) Differentiate between informed and uninformed search algorithm.
c) Explain A* searching technique in detail with example. Discuss conditions
for the optimality of this technique.
d) With an example AND-OR Graph in detail.
e) Write a note on Monotonic Reasoning and Non-Monotonic Reasoning with
example.
f) Differentiate between Supervised Learning and Unsupervised Learning.

a) For each of the following activities, give a PEAS description of the task
environment and characterize it in terms of the properties listed in Section
like
- Interactive English Tutor
- Taxi Driver
b) Explain Uniform Cost Search Algorithm and find the shortest path between
Sibiu and Bucharest using Uniform Cost Search Algorithm.
c) With proper example explain Decision tree and the types of nodes in
Decision tree.
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Consider a vocabulary with the following symbols:
i) Occupation (p, o): Predicate. Person p has occupation o.
ii) Customer (p1, p2): Predicate. Person p1 is a customer of person p2.
iii) Boss (p1, p2): Predicate. Person p1 is a boss of person p2.
iv) Doctor, Surgeon, Lawyer, Actor: Constants denoting occupations.
v) Emily, Joe: Constants denoting people.
Use these symbols to write the following assertions in first-order logic:
a) Emily is either a surgeon or a lawyer.
b) Joe is an actor, but he also holds another job.
c) All surgeons are doctors.
d) Joe does not have a lawyer (i.e., is not a customer of any lawyer).
e) Emily has a boss who is a lawyer.
f) There exists a lawyer all of whose customers are doctors.
g) Every surgeon has a lawyer.
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No. Set Q


a) Disks b) Squares
a) True b) False
requests?
a) Netflix b) Siri
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Set Q
a) Program
b) Architecture
always the same.
a) True b) False
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Seat
No. Set Q

example.

like
- Taxi Driver
Decision tree.
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Set Q
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Seat
No. Set R


a) True b) False
requests?
a) Netflix b) Siri
a) Program
b) Architecture
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Set R
always the same.
a) True b) False
a) Disks b) Squares
Page 10 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R

example.

like
- Taxi Driver
Decision tree.
Page 11 of 16
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Set R
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Seat
No. Set S


always the same.
a) True b) False
a) Disks b) Squares
a) True b) False
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Set S
requests?
a) Netflix b) Siri
a) Program
b) Architecture
Page 14 of 16
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Seat
No. Set S

example.

like
- Taxi Driver
Decision tree.
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Set S
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Seat
No. Set P
T.Y (B. Tech) (Sem-II) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

1) Which of the following is not a supervised learning algorithm?
a) Decision Tree b) Naive Bayesian
c) PCA d) Linear Regression
2) A Data Scientist ______
a) Asks the right questions
b) Performs data wrangling and data visualization
c) Acquires data
d) All of the above
3) Mean, Mode, Median, Range, Variance are types of ______statistic.
a) Inferential statistic b) Descriptive statistic
4) Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression?
a) It is used for interpretation b) It discovers casual relationship
c) It relates input to output d) It is used for predication
5) _____is the ability to train computer to understand both human speech
and written text Select one:
a) Linear Algebra b) Statistics
c) Data mining d) Natural Language Processing
6) ______ occurs when your algorithm has learned too much from your
data, up to the point of mapping curve shapes and rules that do not exist.
a) Under fitting b) None
c) Over fitting d) Cost function
7) In Python ______ package offers all the functionality needed to create
and manipulate matrices.
a) matplotlib b) sklearn
c) scipy d) numpy
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8) ______method is used to avoid over fitting.
a) Regularization b) Dimensionality reduction
c) Rule based machine learning d) Bayesian
9) Which of the following plots can be used to detect an outlier?
a) Boxplot b) Histogram
c) Scatter plot d) All of the above
10) Can decision trees be used for performing clustering? State True/False
a) True b) False
11) Which of the following cannot be a component of time series data?
a) Trend b) Seasonality
c) Noise d) None of the above
12) Tokenization, is a way to ______
a) Find the grammar of the text
b) Split text data into words, phrases and idioms
c) Analyze the sentence structure
d) Find ambiguities
13) Which of the following is a branch of statistics?
14) Which of the following library is use to plot Heatmap?
a) Matplotlib b) Seaborn
c) Scikit-learn d) Nltk
Page 2 of 12
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No. Set P
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I
a) Describe Data Science. Summarize the components of Data Science.
b) What is NLTK? Explain the various functionality provided in NLTK.
c) Illustrate why data visualization is needed in data analytics. In python how
data visualization takes place.
d) Explain Simpson’s Paradox with example.

a) Define Web scrapping. Elaborate the process of web scrapping in detail.
Write advantages of web scrapping.
b) Describe Data preprocessing in data science, why it is important? Explain
the steps involve in data preprocessing.
c) What is statistics? Describe descriptive statistic with example.
SECTION – II
a) Describe Naïve Bayes classifier. Also example its applications.
b) What is sentimental analysis example with their example.
c) Write a short note on overfitting & underfitting.
d) Elaborate the working of Support Vector Machine (SVM).

a) Define Machine Learning. Also describe the need of ML. Explain
supervised machine learning with example
b) Explain Decision Tree algorithm with example. List its advantages and
disadvantages.
c) Explain the K-Nearest Neighbours algorithm with suitable examples.
Page 3 of 12
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No. Set Q
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

a) True b) False
d) Find ambiguities
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Set Q
c) Acquires data
d) All of the above
c) scipy d) numpy
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Seat
No. Set Q
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

disadvantages.
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Seat
No. Set R
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

d) Find ambiguities
c) Acquires data
d) All of the above
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Set R
c) scipy d) numpy
a) True b) False
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

disadvantages.
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No. Set S
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM

c) scipy d) numpy
a) True b) False
d) Find ambiguities
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Set S
c) Acquires data
d) All of the above
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Data Science
Time: 10:00 AM To 01:00 PM
SECTION – I

SECTION – II

disadvantages.
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-228
Seat
No. Set P
UI/UX/ Technology
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Q.1 Attempt any five (6 marks each. 5x6 marks = 30 marks). 30

a) Consider the following CSS.
<style type="text/css">
i. p.margin{
1. margin: 2cm 2cm 1cm 2cm;
2. border: thivk solid red;
3. pading-top: 0.5%
ii. }
</style>
Give its meaning and effect when it applies to a paragraph in your page.
b) How can you define user-defined objects in JavaScript? Explain with
example.
c) List and explain the differences between HTML and XHTML with respect to
element.
d) What is a responsive design?
e) Explain how does parameters passing work in JavaScript.
f) List and explain the steps to define a local site in Dreamweaver.
Q.2 Attempt any two (10 marks each. 2 x 10 marks = 20 marks). 20

a) Explain DOM event handling and levels in DOM.
b) Explain the frames and table tags of HTML with suitable example.
c) Explain the basic process of event-driven computation in creating
JavaScript.
Page 1 of 4
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Seat
No. Set Q
UI/UX/ Technology
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

i. p.margin{
3. pading-top: 0.5%
ii. }
</style>
example.
element.

JavaScript.
Page 2 of 4
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Seat
No. Set R
UI/UX/ Technology
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

i. p.margin{
3. pading-top: 0.5%
ii. }
</style>
example.
element.

JavaScript.
Page 3 of 4
SLR-HL-228
Seat
No. Set S
UI/UX/ Technology
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM

i. p.margin{
3. pading-top: 0.5%
ii. }
</style>
example.
element.

JavaScript.
Page 4 of 4
SLR-HL-229
Seat
No. Set P
Software Licences and Practices
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

1) The copyright board shall be deemed to be a ______.
a) Supreme Court b) High Court
c) Civil Court d) Criminal Court
2) In India first Copyright Act was passed in ______.
a) 1914 b) 1709
c) 1911 d) 1842
3) The user must agree to the ______ terms and agreements when they use
as a open source software.
a) System b) License
c) Community d) Programmer
4) Which of the following is not an open source Software?
a) Linux b) Ubuntu
c) Open Office d) Windows 10
5) Which of the following is a disadvantage of ‘proprietary’ software?
a) You need to be an expert to edit code
b) You have to pay for this type of software
c) Its often free
d) You can edit the source code to customize it
6) The open source method for creating software rely on developers who
voluntarily revel code in the expectation that other developers will
reciprocate is called ______.
a) open source property b) intellectual property
c) software property d) licensing property
7) _____ is a legal instrument governing the usage or redistribution of the
software.
a) GNU Public License b) Reciprocal License
c) Software License d) Academic License
8) Dual licensing is also called as ______.
a) tri-licensing b) business licensing
c) multi licensing d) software licensing
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Set P
9) Microsoft uses and release code under a variety of licenses including __.
a) gpl b) apache
c) ibm d) gnu project license
10) Richard Stallman from MIT, established a special license, the _____
license.
a) GNU b) Free
c) Package d) Commercial
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Instructions: 1) Attempt any four questions from Q.2 to Q.7.
Attempt any Four (Each carries 10 marks) 40
Q.2 With help of examples explain issues with copyright. 10
Q.3 Briefly explain The self-Enforcing Nature of Open Source and Free Software 10
Licenses.
Q.4 Explain in detail Sun Community Source License. 10
Q.5 Explain in detail Multiple and Cross Licensing. 10
Q.6 Explain various types of Software Licenses. 10
Q.7 Briefly Discuss legal impact of open Source and free Software Licensing giving 10
relevant example highlighting the impact.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

software.
a) gpl b) apache
license.
a) GNU b) Free
a) 1914 b) 1709
c) 1911 d) 1842
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
a) Linux b) Ubuntu
c) Its often free
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Licenses.
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) gpl b) apache
license.
a) GNU b) Free
a) 1914 b) 1709
c) 1911 d) 1842
a) Linux b) Ubuntu
c) Its often free
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Set R
software.
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Licenses.
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

a) Linux b) Ubuntu
c) Its often free
software.
a) gpl b) apache
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Set S
license.
a) GNU b) Free
a) 1914 b) 1709
c) 1911 d) 1842
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-229
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 10:00 AM To 12:00 PM
Licenses.
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
COMPUTER ENGINEERING
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
1) In the ______ model request -response protocol is described to access
services of server machine.
a) Workstation- Server model b) Processor pool model
c) Minicomputer model d) All
2) Almost all networks have an upper bound on the size of data that can be
transmitted at a time, this size is known as the ______.
a) Bounded transfer unit b) Maximum transfer unit
c) Minimum transfer unit d) None of the above
3) In distributed system each processor has its own ______.
a) local memory b) Clock
4) ______ is not the issue in the design of distributed operating system.
a) Scalability b) Performance
c) Heterogeneity d) Resource sharing
5) ______ provides group communication facility and implements a secure
and efficient client server based communication protocol.
a) VMTP b) TCP
c) FLIP d) None
6) The ______ handles transmission of messages across the network
between client and server.
a) Server Stub b) RPC Runtime
c) Client stub d) Server
7) Workstation server model is popular because it is used for ______.
a) E-mail b) Editing jobs
c) Executing small programs d) all of the above
8) Each fragment is sent in a packet that has some control information in
addition to the message data, then each packet is known as a ______.
a) MTU b) Multi datagram
c) Datagram d) Segment
9) ______ is not possible in distributed file system.
a) File replication b) Migration
c) Client interface d) Remote access
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Set P
10) In distributed systems, a logical clock is associated with ______.
a) each instruction b) each process
c) each register d) none of the these
11) Polling method is used in ______.
a) Blocking send b) blocking receive
c) Non-blocking send d) Non-blocking receive
12) The null buffer strategy is suitable for synchronous communication.
a) True b) False
13) The process migration involves ______.
a) Transfer data by entire file or immediate portion required
b) Transfer the computation rather than data
c) Execute an entire process or part of it on different sites
14) The strongest and the desirable call semantics in RPC is ______.
a) Exactly -once call semantics
b) Last-one call semantics
c) Last-of-Many call semantics
d) At-least -Once call semantics
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
2) All Questions are compulsory.
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any three of the following. 12

a) Differentiate between the monolithic kernel and microkernel approaches
for designing a distributed operating system. Discuss their relative
advantages and disadvantages.
b) Why are distributed operating systems more difficult to design than
operating Systems for centralized time-sharing systems?
c) Explain RPC mechanism with diagram.
d) Describe what is meant by consistent ordering of messages? What is the
mechanism used to implement it?
e) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of using full file
caching and block caching models for the data - caching mechanism of a
distributed file system.
Q.3 Attempt any one of the following. 08

a) What is an idempotent operation? Which of the following operations are
idempotent:
1) read_next_record (filename)
2) readrecord (filename, recordnumber)
3) append_record (filename, record)
4) writerecord (filename, after_record_n, record)
5) seek (filename, position)
6) add (integer_1, integer_2)
7) lncrement (variable_name)
b) Discuss with an example, how to Keep Track of lost and Out-of-Sequence
Packets in Multidatagram messages.
Q.4 Describe the different types of transparency in distributed systems. 08
Section – II

a) Elaborate how mutex variable and conditional variable can be used for an
application in which two threads of a process have producer -consumer
relationship.
b) Describe the four data transfer models that may be used in a distributed
file system that uses the data caching model for file accessing.
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Set P
c) What will happen in a bully algorithm for electing a coordinator when two or
more processes almost simultaneously discover that the coordinator has
crashed.
d) Compare message passing and Distributed Shared Memory (DSM).
e) Explain the architecture of distributed shared memory (DSM).
a) Discuss the Implementation issues of DSM.
b) Explain the architecture and the services of Distributed File System. (DFS).
Q.7 List and explain the mechanisms for building Distributed File System (DFS). 08
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) True b) False

Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
a) local memory b) clock
a) VMTP b) TCP
c) FLIP d) None
Page 6 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Seat
No. Set Q
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


idempotent:
Section – II

relationship.
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
crashed.
Page 8 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Seat
No. Set R
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) True b) False

Page 9 of 16
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Set R
a) VMTP b) TCP
c) FLIP d) None
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Seat
No. Set R
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


idempotent:
Section – II

relationship.
Page 11 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Set R
crashed.
Page 12 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Seat
No. Set S
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carries one mark.
Same page.
a) True b) False
Page 13 of 16
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Set S
a) VMTP b) TCP
c) FLIP d) None
Page 14 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Seat
No. Set S
Distributed Systems
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


idempotent:
Section – II

relationship.
Page 15 of 16
SLR-HL-230
Set S
crashed.
Page 16 of 16
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech.) (Sem - I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov -
2022
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
1) Machine Learning enables models to train on data sets before being
deployed and continuously adapted as new data is ingested is called as ___.
a) Offline machine learning model
b) Deep Learning model
c) Online machine Learning model
d) None of these
2) On the basis of historical data, we can understand the current reality in
the business is called as ______.
a) Predictive analysis b) Data analytics
c) Descriptive analytics d) All
3) ______ is the ability to train computer to understand both human speech
and written text.
a) Data mining b) Natural Language Processing
c) Statistics d) none
4) Supervised learning and unsupervised learning both require at least one ____.
a) Output attribute b) Input attribute
c) Hidden attribute d) none
5) ______ Technique is used to group the similar types of objects with
similar parameter.
a) Bayesian b) Clustering
c) Association d) none
6) Which of following steps are required to apply machine learning technique to
support business strategy?
a) What is the business problem you are trying to solve
b) When are the hidden data resources that you can take advantage
c) How can you prepare to get your data
d) All
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Set P
7) ______ Algorithm is used to remove redundant data, outliers and other
no useful data.
a) Bayesian b) Dimensionality reduction
c) association d) clustering
a) scipy b) numpy
c) none d) sklearn
9) The driving force behind optimization in machine learning is the response
from a function internal to the algorithm, called the ______.
a) Regression b) cost function
c) logistic regression d) none
10) The process goes on repetitively until there are no more chunks. Chunks can
be small (depending on core memory), and the process is called ______.
a) mini-batch learning b) learning model
c) linear regression d) none
11) ______ involves buying large amounts of goods or services automatically
based on a combination of machine-based transactions, algorithms.
a) Programmatic trading b) cost function
c) mapping d) none
12) ______ is the approach to machine learning that is based on neuroscience.
a) Connectionism b) Neuron
c) Deep learning d) all of above
13) ______ is used to overcome the problem of snooping.
a) training b) testing
c) validation d) none
14) ______ is a phenomenon of observing results that are systematically
prejudiced due to faulty assumptions.
a) bias b) variance
c) mode d) none
Page 2 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set P
2022
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt Any Four. 16

a) Define Machine Learning. Explain Lear verging the power of machine
learning.
b) Explain Different machine Learning Technique.
c) Explain application of machine learning.
d) Explain tying machine learning methods to outcome.
e) Explain the impact of machine learning on application.
Q.3 Attempt Any One. 06

a) Exploring the world of Probabilities.
b) Explain Requirement of collaboration in Machine Learning.

Explain Exploring cost function.
Section – II

a) Explain the term avoiding sample bias and Leakage Trap.
b) Explain the Discovering the incredible Perceptron.
c) Explain Learning curves using cross validation.
d) Explain the future of machine learning as case study.
e) Explain stacking model.

a) Explain the application of Machine Learning to Business problem.
b) Write a short note on following application of machine learning.
1) classifying images
2) scoring opinions and sentiments

Explain the following term
a) Training
b) Testing
c) Validating
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
2022
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
a) scipy b) numpy
c) none d) sklearn
c) mapping d) none
a) bias b) variance
c) mode d) none
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
d) None of these
and written text.
similar parameter.
d) All
no useful data.
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

learning.


Section – II



a) Training
b) Testing
c) Validating
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set R
2022
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
c) mapping d) none
a) bias b) variance
c) mode d) none
d) None of these
and written text.
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Set R
similar parameter.
d) All
no useful data.
a) scipy b) numpy
c) none d) sklearn
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set R
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

learning.


Section – II



a) Training
b) Testing
c) Validating
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set S
2022
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
d) All
no useful data.
a) scipy b) numpy
c) none d) sklearn
c) mapping d) none
Page 10 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Set S
a) bias b) variance
c) mode d) none
d) None of these
and written text.
similar parameter.
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-231
Seat
No. Set S
Machine Learning
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

learning.


Section – II



a) Training
b) Testing
c) Validating
Page 12 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set P
Modern Database System
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
1) In Type Inheritance, the keyword ______ says that, subtype may not be
created, from the given type.
a) not final b) self
c) create d) final
2) Every individual operation in query are parallelized in ______.
a) Interquery parallelism b) Interoperation parallelism
c) Intraopration parallelism d) none
3) The task of correcting and pre-processing the data is called as ______.
a) data Correction b) data warehousing
c) Loading d) Data Cleaning
4) ______ is an unordered collection, where an element may occur multiple
times.
a) Array b) Multiset
c) Create Type d) Structure Type
5) In Quorum Consensus protocol, values for read quorum Qr and Write
Quorum Qw for each data item are chosen as ______, where S is the
weight for all sites.
a) Qr + Qw>S and 2* Qw> S b) Qr + Qw<S and 2* Qw> S
c) Qr + Qw>S and 2* Qw< S d) Qr + Qw< S and 2* Qw< S
6) _______ Partitioning technique is Best suited for Point Queries based on
partitioning attributes.
a) Range Partitioning b) Round Robin Partitioning
c) Hash Partitioning d) All
7) For Joins where partitioning is not applicable, parallelism can be
accomplished by ______ techniques.
a) range partitioning sort b) parallel external sort merge
c) partition parallel join d) fragment and replicate join
8) ______ can best be described as a programming model used to develop
Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.
a) MapReduce b) Mahout
c) Oozie d) All of the mentioned
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9) Most NoSQL databases support automatic ______, meaning that you get
high availability and disaster recovery.
a) processing b) scalability
c) replication d) All of the mentioned
10) A variation of the star schema that allows more than one central fact
table.
a) Snowflake Schema b) Linked star Schema
c) Distributed star Schema d) Constellation Schema
11) NoSQL databases is used mainly for handling large volumes of ______
data.
a) unstructured b) structured
c) semi-structured d) All of the mentioned
12) A global locking system is required in ______.
a) shared disk architecture b) Shared Nothing architecture
c) Shared-memory Architecture d) All of these
13) ______ predicts future trends & behaviour's, allowing business managers
to make proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.
a) Data warehouse b) Data mining
c) Data marts d) Metadata
14) The type of relationship in star schema is _______.
a) many-to-many b) one-to-one
c) one-to-many d) many-to-one
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Answer any four 16

a) List and compare different partitioning techniques.
b) What are different issues in designing a Data Server?
c) How deadlock is handled in distributed database systems?
d) How ranking operation can be performed on database?
e) List and explain 4 methods of OLAP implementation.
Q.3 Answer any Two 12

a) Define Data Warehouse and Data Mining? Explain KDD process in Detail.
b) In Distributed Transaction which protocol is used to ensure Atomicity?
Explain the protocol in detail.
c) Explain Fragment and replicate join and Asymmetric Fragment and
Replicate Join.
Section – II

a) Describe characteristics of MongoDB.
b) Explain Type inheritance with example.
c) Differentiate between object-oriented DBMS and Object-relational DBMS.
d) Explain external Sort merge in detail.
e) With the help of diagram, explain steps in query processing.

a) Explain Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS) Architecture with diagram.
b) In Object oriented database, structured type can have methods. With
example, write declaration, body of method and also explain how this
method can be invoked on instance of Type.
c) List Characteristics of NoSql. Also define Key-value store and Document
Database.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
table.
data.
c) create d) final
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
times.
Page 5 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Replicate Join.
Section – II


Database.
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
data.
c) create d) final
times.
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Set R
table.
Page 8 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Replicate Join.
Section – II


Database.
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
table.
data.
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
c) create d) final
times.
Page 11 of 12
SLR-HL-232
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Replicate Join.
Section – II


Database.
Page 12 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
1) What are the key components of a M2M system?
a) Vortex DDS b) Smart Homes
c) Sensors and Wi-Fi d) Protocols
2) Which is not an IoT communication model
a) Push-Producer b) Publish-Subscribe
c) Request-Response d) Exclusive Pair
3) Which of the following is not an application of IoT?
a) Wearables b) Smart Grid
c) Arduino d) Smart city
4) Choose correct principle of IOT_____.
a) focus on the value b) focus on the machine
c) build a strong machine d) neither one
5) ______ in the IoT Architecture is the hardware and software gateways
that analyze and pre-process the data before transferring it to the cloud.
a) Data center b) Edge IT
c) Gateways d) Data Acquisition
6) In which RFID tag, the range is less.
a) Active b) Semi-passive
c) Passive d) None of the above
7) What is another name for I2C?
a) Signal wire interface b) Two wire interfaces
c) UART d) USART
8) Which one of the following protocols is lightweight?
a) IP b) HTTP
c) MQTT d) CoAP
9) Which of the following IEEE standards is followed by the physical and
MAC layer protocols in ZigBee?
a) IEEE 801.15.4 b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 803.15.4 d) IEEE 804.15.4
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10) Smart warehousing uses _____ based framework.
a) Both RIFT and RIST b) Only RIFT
c) Only RIST d) Only REST
11) Coordinator ZigBee devices act as the bridge between ______.
a) Different networks b) Different edge devices
c) Different fog devices d) All of the above
12) IoT devices can easily lead to catastrophe without ______.
a) Software b) Devices
c) Cloud d) Management System
13) What is the role of Big data in smart grid architecture of IoT?
a) Store data b) Manage Data
c) Collect data d) Security
14) Smart Fitness clothing mainly has which device?
a) Battery b) Bluetooth
c) Sensors d) Internet
Page 2 of 12
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Seat
No. Set P
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

a) What are the characteristics of IoT?
b) Write a note on sources of IoT.
c) Explain automotive IoT.
d) Write in detail application of Actuator.

a) Write in detail physical design of IoT.
b) Write a note on M2M Communications.
c) Explain RFID (Radio Frequency Identification Technology’s) in detail.
Section – II
Q.4 Solve any three. 12

a) Explain IoT privacy & Vulnerability in brief.
b) Explain business model scenario for IoT.
c) Write a note on application of IoT in smart agriculture.
d) Explain the concept of Bluetooth & its low frequency profile in IoT.

a) Explain in detail Constrained application protocol.
b) Write a note on business models in IoT.
c) Explain application of IoT in smart city.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) IP b) HTTP
c) MQTT d) CoAP
a) IEEE 801.15.4 b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 803.15.4 d) IEEE 804.15.4
Page 4 of 12
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Set Q
c) UART d) USART
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Page 7 of 12
SLR-HL-233
Set R
c) UART d) USART
a) IP b) HTTP
c) MQTT d) CoAP
a) IEEE 801.15.4 b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 803.15.4 d) IEEE 804.15.4
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
c) UART d) USART
a) IP b) HTTP
c) MQTT d) CoAP
a) IEEE 801.15.4 b) IEEE 802.15.4
c) IEEE 803.15.4 d) IEEE 804.15.4

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Internet of Things
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


Section – II


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Fourth Year. (B.Tech) (Sem-I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Software Testing and Quality Assurance
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Q.1 Solve Multiple Choice Questions. 14

1) Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d½ All of these
2) The object of _____ within an OO system is to design tests that have a
high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing d) Scenario-based testing
3) Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs?
a) Test/File Generator b) Test Harness System
c) Test Archiving Systems d) Coverage Analyzer
4) Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically &
automatically?
a) Code Inspector b) Static Analyzer
c) Standard Enforcer d) Coverage Analyzer
5) Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases.
a) Mutation analysis b) Validation
c) Verification d) Performance analysis
6) Which of the following is not a conflict in software development team?
a) Simultaneous updates b) Shared and common code
c) Versions d) Graphics issues
7) Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and d) All of these
schedule
8) A testing strategy that test the application as a whole.
a) Requirement Gathering b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing d) System testing
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9) A set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific
function.
a) verification b) testing
c) implementation d) validation
10) Which granularity level of testing checks the behaviour of module
cooperation?
a) Unit Testing b) Integration Testing
c) Acceptance Testing d) Regression Testing
11) Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.
a) True b) False
12) Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart b) Bar chart
c) Control chart d) None of these
13) Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage d) All of these
14) Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing d) None of these
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any Three 12

a) Explain the testing process with attitude towards testing with example.
b) What is software testing? Explain with basics of software testing.
c) Explain the verification and validation model.
d) Explain with example levels of testing.
Q.3 Attempt any one 08

a) State and explain with example all the challenges of testing also explain
test team approach.
OR
b) Explain with Regression Testing, Smoke Testing, Sanity Testing, Ad hoc
Testing.
Q.4 Write note on 08

a) Defect management Process
b) Big-Bang and Sandwich Testing
Section – II
Q.5 Solve any three 12

a) Explain the software quality assurance background issues.
b) State and explain the Reporting Bugs, Isolating and Reproducing Bugs.
c) Explain the statistical of test case organization and tracking.
d) State and explain the benefits of automation and tools.

a) Write ten test cases and justify for the case study of forms with various
fields.
b) Explain with example elements of ISO 900 and CMM standards.

a) Realities of Using Test Tools and Automation
b) SQA Processes and Product Characteristics
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

function.
cooperation?
a) True b) False
d½ All of these
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Set Q
automatically?
schedule
Page 5 of 12
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


test team approach.
OR
Testing.

Section – II


fields.

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No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) True b) False
d½ All of these
automatically?
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schedule
function.
cooperation?
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


test team approach.
OR
Testing.

Section – II


fields.

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

schedule
function.
cooperation?
a) True b) False
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d½ All of these
automatically?
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I


test team approach.
OR
Testing.

Section – II


fields.

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No. Set P
Fourth Year (B.Tech.) (Sem – I) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Business Intelligence
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options: 14

1) A decision_____ is if it is based on well-defined and recurring decision-
making procedure.
a) Structured Decisions b) Unstructured Decisions
c) Semi-structured decisions d) None of the mentioned
2) _____ type of decisions affects the entire organization or at least a
substantial part of it for a long period of time.
a) Tactical decisions b) Strategic decisions
c) Operational decisions d) Structured decisions
3) Independent variable in regression analysis is also known as _____.
a) Predictor variable b) Target variable
c) Outliers d) None of the mentioned
4) Which of the following is/are Benefits of Dimensional Modelling?
a) Faster Data Retrieval b) Better Understandability
c) Extensibility d) All of the mentioned
5) Due to normalization in the Snowflake schema, the redundancy is
reduced and therefore, it becomes easy to maintain and save the storage
space. (State True/False)
a) True b) False
6) _____ is the last step in decision-making process?
a) Intelligence b) Design
c) Choice d) Control
7) DSS refers to_____.
a) Decision Designing System b) Decision Support System
c) Declaration Support System d) Decision Supply System
8) Which of the following techniques is/are adapted to improve the quality of

incomplete data?
a) Elimination b) Inspection
c) Identification d) All of the above
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9) In Univariate analysis data can be display using Frequency distribution
table. (State True/False)
a) True b) False
In which type of variable, changing the order of the unit does not change
10)
their values.
a) Nominal b) Ordinal
c) Predictor d) Target
11) Web mining method is used for_____.
a) Content mining b) Structure mining
c) Usage mining d) All of the above
12) Business Intelligence and data warehousing is used for_____.
a) Forecasting
b) Data Mining
c) Analysis of large volumes of product sales data
d) All of the above.
13) _____ describes the data contained in the data warehouse.
a) Relational data b) Operational data
c) Metadata d) Informational data
14) modelling is used for the design of the data warehouse.
a) Relational model
b) Object-oriented model
c) Dimensional model
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No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any Three (each carries 4 marks): 12

a) How Data mining process provide useful knowledge to decision makers?
Explain with neat diagram.
b) Define Decision system. Describe the phases of Decision-making process
in detail.
c) What do you mean by Ethics on BI?
d) Differentiate between fact table and dimension table.
Q.3 Attempt any Two (each carries 8 marks): 16

a) Draw architecture of business intelligence system and explain its
components.
b) What do you mean by data validation? Explain techniques used for data
validation.
c) Design Dimension Models for “Web page clicking event” using Star
constellation schema
Section – II
a) Describe the purpose of Market basket analysis.
b) Define Time series. How evaluation and analysis of time series take place?
c) Compare Bivariate and multivariate analysis.
d) Write a short note on Web-mining.

a) Describe the purpose of Regression models and explain linear and logistic
regression in detail.
b) Elaborate the classification tree with suitable example.
c) What are the motivation and objectives for the spread of relational
marketing strategies?
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


incomplete data?
a) True b) False
3)
their values.
a) Forecasting
b) Data Mining
a) Relational model
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making procedure.
a) True b) False
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No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

in detail.

components.
validation.
Section – II

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No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM


a) Forecasting
b) Data Mining
a) Relational model
making procedure.
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a) True b) False
incomplete data?
a) True b) False
14)
their values.
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

in detail.

components.
validation.
Section – II

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM



incomplete data?
a) True b) False
5)
their values.
a) Forecasting
b) Data Mining
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a) Relational model
making procedure.
a) True b) False
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No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

in detail.

components.
validation.
Section – II

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No. Set P
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
Q.1 Choose correct alternatives 14
1) Extraction of interesting patterns or knowledge from huge amount of data
is _____.
a) Machine Learning b) Data Mining
c) Transaction Processing d) Data Science
2) Data mining can also applied to other forms such as _____.
i) Data streams
ii) Sequence data
iii) Networked data
iv) Text data
v) Spatial data
a) i, ii, iii and v only b) ii, iii, iv and v only
c) i, iii, iv and v only d) All i, ii, iii, iv and v
3) Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?
a) Characterization and Discrimination (classification)
b) Classification and regression
c) Selection and interpretation
d) Clustering and Analysis
4) Decision Tree is a _____ technique
a) Clustering b) Classification
c) Primary d) Rule cancelling
5) _____ is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of
a target class of data.
a) Data Characterization b) Data Classification
c) Data discrimination d) Data selection
6) Filling missing values is a method involved in _____.
a) Data storage b) Data Cleaning
c) Data Integrity d) Data Dictionary
7) Strategic value of data mining is _____.
a) cost-sensitive b) work-sensitive
c) time-sensitive d) technical-sensitive
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8) The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ______
i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge
ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space
iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining
iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data
a) i, ii and iv only b) ii, iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iii only d) All i, ii, iii and iv
9) The full form of KDD is _____.
a) Knowledge Database
b) Knowledge Discovery Database
c) Knowledge Data House
d) Knowledge Data Definition
10) Cluster is _____.
a) Group on a training data set to transform or simplify data in order to
prepare it for a machine-learning algorithm
b) Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects
c) Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can
potentially be extracted
d) Both a and b
11) The _____ is a symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which
information can potentially be extracted.
a) knowledge b) data
c) algorithm d) program
12) The _____ refers to extracting knowledge from larger amount of data.
a) data abstraction b) data warehouse
c) database d) data mining
13) Knowledge discovery in database refers to _____.
a) whole process of extraction of knowledge from data
b) selection of data
c) coding
d) cleaning the data
14) Data mining is used to refer _____ stage in knowledge discovery in database.
a) selection b) retrieving
c) discovery d) coding
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Seat
No. Set P
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are complusory.
Section – I
a) What is data mining?
b) Explain classic problems in machine learning that are highly related to
data mining.
c) What are different forms of data preprocessing?
d) Illustrate the steps followed by the Web mining framework w.r.t. Health
care and Medical data.

a) Define each of the following data mining functionalities: characterization,
discrimination, association and correlation analysis, classification,
regression, clustering, and outlier analysis. Give examples of each data
mining functionality, using a real-life database that you are familiar with.
b) Use a flowchart to summarize the following procedures for attribute subset
selection
a) stepwise forward selection
b) stepwise backward elimination
c) a combination of forward selection and backward elimination
c) What are major issues in data mining?
Section – II
a) Explain large itemset algorithm
b) How do you measure the quality of rules
c) What are advanced association rule techniques?
d) Explain decision tree based algorithms.

a) Give an example for Apriori with transaction and explain Apriori-gen-algorithm.
b) Explain sampling algorithm with an example.
c) What do you mean by partitioning?
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No. Set Q
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
d) Both a and b
c) coding
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Set Q
is _____.
i) Data streams
ii) Sequence data
iii) Networked data
iv) Text data
v) Spatial data
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Seat
No. Set Q
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
data mining.

selection
Section – II

Page 6 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
c) coding
is _____.
i) Data streams
ii) Sequence data
iii) Networked data
iv) Text data
v) Spatial data
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Set R
d) Both a and b
Page 8 of 12
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No. Set R
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
data mining.

selection
Section – II

Page 9 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.
d) Both a and b
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
c) coding
is _____.
i) Data streams
ii) Sequence data
iii) Networked data
iv) Text data
v) Spatial data
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Seat
No. Set S
Data Mining
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
data mining.

selection
Section – II

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Seat
No. Set P
Fourth Y. (B.Tech) (Sem - Il) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2022
Management Information System
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives. 14

1) Management information systems (MIS) _____.
a) create and share documents that support day-to-day office activities
b) process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)
c) capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver
d) use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers
to run the business
2) The MIS helps the _____ management in goal setting, strategic planning,
and evolving the business plans and their implementation.
a) low level b) middle level
c) top level d) base level
3) Organizational culture is powerful unifying force than _____.
a) Restrains political conflict
b) Restrains common understanding
c) Restrains agreement on procedures and practices
d) All of the above
4) ______ is the first step in system development life cycle.
a) Designing b) Planning
c) Analysis d) Implementation
5) Which of the following is not an IT infrastructure service component?
a) operating system software
b) computing platforms to provide a coherent digital environment
c) physical facilities management to manage the facilities housing physical
components
d) IT education services that provide training to employees
6) Which of the following is a data analysis technology that find hidden
connection between data in disparate sources?
a) HIPPA b) FIP
c) NORA d) Spyware
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7) Which type of infrastructure service stores and manages corporate data
and provides capabilities for analyzing the data?
a) networking b) VOIP
c) telecommunications d) data management
8) All of the following are current hardware platform trends except ____.
a) green computing b) Virtualization
c) Cloud computing d) Unix
9) What is at the heart of any ERP system?
c) Customer d) Database
10) Which of the following is not one of the three main components in a
decision support system?
a) Model b) Communications
c) Data d) Dialogue
11) Business Intelligence and data warehousing are used for which of the
following?
a) Data mining
b) Analysis of large volumes of product sales data
c) What-if scenarios
d) All of the above
12) _____ is the capability to continue as if nothing has happened, even after
a major component failure.
a) Redundancy b) Interoperability
c) Fault Tolerance d) Backup
13) Which of the following describes e-commerce?
a) Doing business electronically b) Doing business
c) Sale of goods d) All of the above
14) The segment in which business directly sells to the end consumer is
called _______
a) C2C b) P2P
c) B2C d) G2G
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No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I
Q.2 Attempt any Four of the following question. 16

a) What’s New in Management Information Systems?
b) What is the impact of information systems on organizations?
c) List and define the three legal traditions that protect intellectual property.
d) What are business processes? How are they related to information
systems?
e) What are the challenges posed by strategic information systems?
f) What specific principles for conduct can be used to guide ethical decisions?
Q.3 Attempt any Two of the following question. 12

a) What is Organization and explain its features?
b) Write and explain the Business Value Chain Model.
c) List and describe the five steps in an ethical analysis.
Section – II

a) What are the components of IT infrastructure?
b) List and describe the problems of the traditional file environment.
c) Define DoS attacks.
d) What are the principal components of telecommunications networks?
e) Describe the principal e-commerce business models.
f) What is meant by security? Explain the need of security.

a) What are the current trends in computer hardware platforms?
b) What are the principal technologies and standards for wireless networking and
Internet access?
c) Explain the role of m-commerce in business with its applications.
Page 3 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


c) Data d) Dialogue
following?
a) Data mining
d) All of the above
called _______
a) C2C b) P2P
c) B2C d) G2G
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Set Q
to run the business
d) All of the above
components
a) HIPPA b) FIP
c) NORA d) Spyware
Page 5 of 12
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

systems?

Section – II


Internet access?
Page 6 of 12
SLR-HL-239
Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


following?
a) Data mining
d) All of the above
called _______
a) C2C b) P2P
c) B2C d) G2G
to run the business
Page 7 of 12
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Set R
d) All of the above
components
a) HIPPA b) FIP
c) NORA d) Spyware
c) Data d) Dialogue
Page 8 of 12
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

systems?

Section – II


Internet access?
Page 9 of 12
SLR-HL-239
Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
carry one mark.
same page.


a) HIPPA b) FIP
c) NORA d) Spyware
c) Data d) Dialogue
following?
a) Data mining
d) All of the above
Page 10 of 12
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Set S
called _______
a) C2C b) P2P
c) B2C d) G2G
to run the business
d) All of the above
components
Page 11 of 12
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Seat
No. Set S
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
Section – I

systems?

Section – II


Internet access?
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Seat
No. Set P
Information & Cyber Security
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
answer book page No. 03 (Starting page of the Answer Book). Each
1) Many Cyber Crimes comes under Indian Penal Code Which one of the
following is an example?
a) Sending Threatening message by Email
b) Forgery of Electronic Record
c) Bogus Website
d) All of above
2) The following cannot be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights
of others
a) Patent b) Design
c) Trademark d) All of the above
3) What is a node?
a) A type of cryptocurrency
b) A Blockchain
c) A computer on a Blockchain network
d) An exchange
4) The term used for a blockchain splits is_____.
a) A merger b) A fork
c) A division d) None of the above
5) Bitcoin is created by _____.
a) Saifedean Ammous b) Vitalik Buterin
c) Satoshi Nakamoto d) None of the above
6) Which of the following is /are offered by the Hash functions?
a) Authentication b) Non repudiation
c) Data Integrity d) All of the above
7) In brute force attack, on average half of all possible keys must be tried to
achieve success.
a) True b) False
8) If the sender and receiver use different keys, the system is referred to as
conventional cipher system.
a) True b) False
Page 1 of 16
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Set P
9) Pretty good privacy (PGP) security system uses
a) Public key cryptosystem
b) Private key cryptosystem
c) Public & Private key cryptosystem
10) Use Caesar’s Cipher to decipher the following
HQFUBSWHG WHAW
a) Abandoned Lock b) Encrypted Text
c) Abandoned Text d) Encrypted Lock
11) lPSec is designed to provide security at the_____.
a) Transport layer b) Network layer
c) Application layer d) Session layer
12) Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?
a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) installing antivirus for protection
13) What is cipher-block chaining?
a) Data is logically 'ANDed' with previous block
b) Data is logically 'ORed' with previous block
c) Data is logically 'XORed' with previous block
14) What is a Hash Function?
a) It creates a small flexible block of data
b) It creates a small fixed block of data
c) It creates a encrypted block of data
Page 2 of 16
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Seat
No. Set P
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

a) Define and Compare Active and Passive attack.
b) Explain Public Key Infrastructure with diagram.
c) Using this Playfair matrix.
M F H I/J K
U N O P Q
Z V W X Y
E L A R G
D S T B C
Encrypt the given message: Must see you over Cadogan West. Coming at
once.
d) Explain – Digital Signature
Q.3 Solve any one of the following questions. 08

a) Encrypt the message "meet me at the usual place at ten rather than eight
oclock"
using the Hill cipher 9 4 with the key
5 7
Show your calculations and the result.
b) Users A and B use the Diffie-Hellman key exchange technique with a
common prime q = 71 and a primitive root 𝛼 = 7.
1) If user A has private key X A = 5, what is A's public key Y A?
2) If user B has private key X B = 12, what is B's public key Y B?
3) What is the shared secret key?
Q.4 Explain in detail RSA Algorithm. 08
Section – II

a) What is Bitcoin? List some properties of Bitcoin.
b) How did forensic happen? How can this be prevented from happening
again in the future?
c) List some applications of block chain life.
d) Explain PGP.
Page 3 of 16
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Set P
a) Define block chain? And list some difference between Public and Private
Blockchain.
b) What are Cyber Security Standards? List different Cyber Security
Standards and explain any one in brief.
Q.7 Explain Proof of Work and proof of Stake. 08
Page 4 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) True b) False
HQFUBSWHG WHAW
a) Data theft
b) Forgery
Page 5 of 16
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Set Q
c) Bogus Website
d) All of above
of others
a) Patent b) Design
10) What is a node?
b) A Blockchain
d) An exchange
achieve success.
a) True b) False
Page 6 of 16
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Seat
No. Set Q
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

M F H I/J K
U N O P Q
Z V W X Y
E L A R G
D S T B C
once.

oclock"
5 7
Section – II

d) Explain PGP.
Page 7 of 16
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Set Q
a) Define block chain? And list some difference between Public and Private
Blockchain.
b) What are Cyber Security Standards? List different Cyber Security
Standards and explain any one in brief.
Q.7 Explain Proof of Work and proof of Stake. 08
Page 8 of 16
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Seat
No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM
a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Bogus Website
d) All of above
of others
a) Patent b) Design
Page 9 of 16
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Set R
7) What is a node?
b) A Blockchain
d) An exchange
achieve success.
a) True b) False
a) True b) False
HQFUBSWHG WHAW
Page 10 of 16
SLR-HL-240
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No. Set R
Time: 02:00 PM To 05:00 PM

M F H I/J K
U N O P Q
Z V W X Y
E L A R G
D S T B C
once.

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5 7
Section – II

d) Explain PGP.
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MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options. 14

a) Both 1 and 2 are shear connections

Q.2 a) Explain plastic section, compact section, semi-compact section, slender 05

Q.6 Find the shape factor for following sections. 10

Q.7 Design a laterally unsupported beam for the following data 09

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options. 14

8) Load on connection is not eccentric for _____.

a) Both 1 and 2 are shear connections

Q.2 a) Explain plastic section, compact section, semi-compact section, slender 05

Q.6 Find the shape factor for following sections. 10

Q.7 Design a laterally unsupported beam for the following data 09

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options. 14

a) Both 1 and 2 are shear connections

Q.2 a) Explain plastic section, compact section, semi-compact section, slender 05

Q.6 Find the shape factor for following sections. 10

Q.7 Design a laterally unsupported beam for the following data 09

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the given options. 14

a) Both 1 and 2 are shear connections

10) Load on connection is not eccentric for _____.

Q.2 a) Explain plastic section, compact section, semi-compact section, slender 05

Q.6 Find the shape factor for following sections. 10

Q.7 Design a laterally unsupported beam for the following data 09

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.2 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.4 a) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose 05

Q.6 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.8 a) Derive Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State 05

Q.9 a) Derive the earth pressure coefficient for active case. 05

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.2 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.4 a) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose 05

Q.6 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.8 a) Derive Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State 05

Q.9 a) Derive the earth pressure coefficient for active case. 05

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.2 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.4 a) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose 05

Q.6 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.8 a) Derive Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State 05

Q.9 a) Derive the earth pressure coefficient for active case. 05

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.2 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.4 a) A falling head permeability test is to be performed on a soil sample whose 05

Q.6 Answer any four questions. 08

Q.8 a) Derive Terzaghi’s equation governing 1-D consolidation. State 05

Q.9 a) Derive the earth pressure coefficient for active case. 05

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Q.3 Answer any three questions. 18

Q.4 Answer any three questions. 18

Q.5 Answer any two questions. 10

Q.6 Answer any three questions. 18

Q.7 Answer any three questions. 18

Fig. I – Bradbury Chart

MCQ/Objective Type Questions