Propulsion

14.1 Propulsion
14.1a.1: Centrifugal and Axial Flow Gas Turbines

1. '' In the gas turbine engine, compression of the air before expansion through the turbine is effective by
one of two basic types of compressor, ''
Which of the following is not one of the types of compressor of the gas turbine engines?
a) integrated flow compressor
b) axial flow compressor
c) centrifugal flow compressor

2. Which compressor is a single or two stage unit employing an impeller to accelerate the air and diffuser to
produce the required pressure rise that is one from the gas turbine engine compressors
a) integrated flow compressor.
b) axial flow compressor
c) centrifugal flow compressor

3. Which compressor is a multi-stage unit employing alternate rows of rotating (rotor) blades and stationary
(stator) blades, to accelerate and diffuse the air until the required pressure rise is obtained that is one from the
gas turbine engine compressors.
a) integrated flow compressor
b) axial flow compressor
c) centrifugal flow compressor

4. Which compressor engine gives more thrust for frontal area?

a) integrated flow compressor engine
b) axial flow compressor engine
c) centrifugal flow compressor engine

14.1a.2. Compressor Construction (centrifugal)

5. Which of the following is a false information with regard the construction of the centrifugal compressor ?
a) Diffuser and air intake system is around the impeller
b) The construction of the compressor centres on the rotor assembly and casings
c) The impeller shaft rotates in ball and roller bearings and is either common to the turbine shaft

6. ''Centrifugal flow compressors have a single or a double - sided impeller and occasionally a two stage.''
For this centrifugal flow compressor, which of the following is false?
a) Single sided impeller is used, as on the Rolls -Royce Dart. The impeller is supported in a casing that also
contains a ring of diffuser blades.
b) Double entry impeller is used, the airflow to the rear side is reversed in direction.
c) If a double entry impeller is used, a plenum chamber is not required

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7. Which of the following is not one of the units of the typical centrifugal compressors?
a) Impellers
b) Diffusers
c) Rotors

8. The choice of centrifugal compressor impeller is determined by

a) the engine design requirements
b) the aircraft design requirements
c) the compressor design requirements

9. At the centrifugal compressor engines, the clearance between the impeller and the diffuser is an
important factor,
a) as too small a clearance converts the kinetic energy into pressure energy
b) as too small a clearance creates vibration
c) as too small a clearance creates an steady airflow

Compressor construction (Axial flow)

10. An axial flow compressor does not consists of

a) rotor assemblies
b) stator blades
c) impeller

11. Which of the following is not one of the rotor assembly types for an axial flow compressor engine ?
a) drop type rotor
b) drum type rotor
c) disc type rotor

12. An axial flow compressor rotor blades are usually designed

a) to give a pressure gradient along their length
b) to distribute the pressure all sections
c) to absorb the pressure in along the compressor

13. The rotor and stator blades of an axial compressor are usually manufactured
a) from aluminum alloy, steel or titanium
b) from cupper, iron and glass fiber composite materials
c) from ceramic, carbon and bronze

14.1a.3 Combustion chambers construction

14. ''There are 3 main types of combustion chamber at present in use for gas turbine engines.''
Which of the following is not a type of combustion chamber?
a) The main chamber
b) the turbo annular chamber
c) the multiple chambers,

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15. Which of the following type of combustion chamber is used on centrifugal compressor engines and
earlier types of axial flow compressor engines?
a) The annular combustion chamber
b) the turbo annular combustion chamber
c) the multiple combustion chambers,

16. At the multiple combustion chamber, the separate flame tubes are all interconnected.
Which of the following is not a cause to connect the flame tubes each other
a) this allows each tube to operate at the same pressure
b) this allows combustion to propagate around the flame tubes during engine starting
c) this allows each tube to set different adjustment

17. Which of the following type of combustion chamber is a combination of the multiple and annular types?
a) The annular combustion chamber
b) the turbo annular combustion chamber
c) the multiple combustion chambers,

18. Which type of combustion chamber consists from a single flame tube, which is contained in an inner and
outer casing ?
a) The annular combustion chamber
b) the turbo annular combustion chamber
c) the multiple combustion chambers,

19. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of the annular combustion chamber?
a) 75% the weight and production cost saving
b) the propagation of combustion is improved
c) interconnectors are required

14.1a.4 Turbine construction

20. The turbine has the task of providing

a) the power to drive the compressor and accessories
b) the air to use combustion chambers
c) the cold air to decrease the temperature in the engine

21. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the turbine ?
a) The nozzle guide vanes
b) Flame tube
c) Turbine blades

22. What is the aim of the turbine blades?

a) to be a barrier between adjacent blades that give the power to the throat
b) to provide wall between adjacent blades that give a variable acceleration of the flow up to the throat
c) to provide passages between adjacent blades that give a steady acceleration of the flow up to the
throat

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14.1a.5 Exhaust system

23. ''Aero gas turbine engines have an exhaust system that passes the turbine discharge gases to
atmosphere at the velocity and in the required direction to provide the resultant thrust.''
Which of the following is created by the turbo jet engine exhaust system?
a) the thrust for flying the aircraft
b) the power for driving the propeller
c) the pressure for the cabin

24. The temperature of the gas entering the exhaust system is between
a) 350°C and 750°C
b) 450°C and 650°C
c) 550°C and 850°C

14.1a.6 Compressor Principles of Operation (centrifugal)

25. Which of the following does not depend on the rotational speed of impeller at the centrifugal
compressors?
a) compressor failure
b) the air mass flow through the compressor
c) Pressure rise

26. Which blades act as '' air straighteners'' at the axial flow compressor?
a) The first row of rotor blades
b) The last row of stator blades
c) The first row of stator blades

14.1a.7 Combustion Chamber Operation

27. ''Air from the engine compressor enters the combustion chamber at a velocity up to 500 feet
persecond, which is far too high for combustion.''
Which of the following should not be done?
a) the chamber must do is decelerate the air
b) raise its static pressure
c) more fuel to be used

28. In normal operation , the overall air /fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can vary
a) between 15:1 and 90:1
b) between 45:1 and 130:1
c) between 90:1 and 180:1

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14.1a.8 Turbine Operation

29. ''The turbine operation depends on the transfer of energy between the combustion gases and the
turbine. The transfer is never 100% because of thermodynamic and mechanical loses.''
Which of the following is the higher efficiency value of the turbine?
a) 60% is an approximate value
b) 75% is an approximate value
c) 90% is an approximate value

30. Efficient combustion has become more and more important which is seen by general public as exhaust
smoke.
Which of the following is not important with regard the efficient combustion?
a) the rapid increase in commercial aircraft traffic
b) the use of modern aircraft systems
c) consequent increase in atmospheric pollution

14.1a.9 Exhaust Gas Flow Operation

31. ''The exhaust gases passes to atmosphere the propelling nozzle, which forms a convergent duct thus
increasing the gas velocity. In turbo jet engine , ''
What is the exit velocity of exhaust gases at the low thrust conditions?
a) transonic
b) supersonic
c) subsonic

32. During the most operating conditions, the exit velocity reaches the speed of sound in relation to the
exhaust gas temperature and the propelling nozzle is then said to be
a) CHOKED
b) OPENED
c) AFTERBURNER

14.1a.10 Turbojet Characteristic

33. Which of the following is incorrect information about turbojet engines?

a) the turbojet engines in most common use in low speed, light aircrafts
b) with this engine the air is drawn in by a compressor which raises internal pressures many times over
atmospheric pressure
c) The compressed air then passed into a combustion chamber where it is mixed with fuel to be ignited
and burned.

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14.1a.11 Turbo Fan Characteristic

34. Which of the following is incorrect information about turbo fan engines?
a) the turbo fan is similar to the turbojet , but with an additional air stream that bypasses the core
compression, combustion and turbine system.
b) All of the jet engines which currently power commercial airlines are turbofans
c) Most turbo fan evolved from the twin spool centrifugal flow compressor engine

14.1a.12 Turbo shaft Characteristic

35. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of the turbo shaft engines?
a) It allows a helicopter rotor or fixed wing propeller to spin at any speed instead of being geared to
be turbine
b) A turboprop derives power directly from the shaft to power a propeller mounted in front of the engine
c) It allows the engine to be split into 2 sections, power turbine / the separate power take off ''free
turbine''

14.1b Electronic Engine Control and Fuel Metering System

14.1b1 Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

36. Which of the following system performs the functions necessary to control the engine?
a) Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)
b) Auto Throttle Control (ATC)
c) Auto Flight Control (AFC)

37. Which of the following is controlled to achieve the required thrust by monitoring and controlling either;
engine pressure ratio (EPR) or N1 low pressure compressor or fan speed?
a) Fuel quantity
b) Fuel type
c) Fuel flow

38. Basically Fuel flow is controlled to achieve the required thrust by monitoring and controlling either;
a) Engine power ratio (EPR) or N1 high pressure compressor or air speed or
b) N1 low pressure compressor or air speed or Engine temperature
c) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) or N1 low pressure compressor or fan speed

39. Which of the following is primary control parameter in FADEC systems?

a) N1 low pressure compressor
b) fan speed
c) Engine pressure ratio (EPR)

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40. Which of the following sends altitude, mach number, airspeed and total air temperature signals to the
FADEC system?
a) Mission Computer (MC)
b) Air Data Computer( ADC)
c) General Avionic Computer(GAC)

41. Which of the following signal is not sent to the FADEC system by ADC?
a) Air speed
b) Total air temperature
c) Attitude

42. Which of the following signal is not one of the FADEC system outputs?
a) Maintenance fault data
b) Engine start/stop
c) Engine parameters

43. Which of the following is incorrect information about engine control system harnesses?
a) Each engine control system includes 2 harnesses, 1 designated internal and 1 designated external
b) The harnesses are labeled A or B and are dedicated to the corresponding FADEC
c) Each engine control system includes 4 harnesses, 2 designated internal and 2 designated external

44. Each FADEC has 2 power supplies . Which of the following is not one of them?
a) The permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
b) 26 VAC
c) 28 VDC essential bus

45. ''The permanent magnet alternator (PMA) is driven by the accessory drive gearbox. It has 4 separate
windings. ''
Which of the following is correct information about the PMA windings?
a) The 2 windings for 3 phase and the 2 windings for single phase
b) One 3 phase winding provides power to channel 'A and B'', the other is backup
c) The 4 windings for 3 phase

46. Engine protection shut down

a) Should N1 exceed 100% (approx 9000 rpm) or N2 exceed 100% (approx 16000 rpm) the overspeed logic
shuts the engine down if one FADECs agree
b) Should N1 exceed 110% (approx 10000 rpm) or N2 is less than 10% (approx 1800 rpm) the overspeed
logic shuts the engine down if both FADECs agree
c) Should N1 exceed 105% (approx 9135 rpm) or N2 exceed 105,5% (approx 16750 rpm) the overspeed
logic shuts the engine down if both FADECs agree

47. The primary supply for the ignition system is provided

a) a single phase by the permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
b) a single phase 26 VAC by the AC bus
c) 28 VDC by the DC essential bus

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48. There are 4 thrust rating modes controlled by buttons on the overhead panel and on the control pedestal.
Engine Thrust Rating Modes in which of the following are given as complete and accurate ?
a) T/O-1 (100% N1 max. take off) / CON (100% N1 max. continuous)/CLB (100%N1 max.climb) CRZ (100%
N1 max.cruise)
b) T/O-1 (100% N1 max. take off) / CON (86% N1 max. continuous)/CLB (76%N1 max.climb) CRZ (70%
N1 max.cruise)
c) T/O-1 (105% N1 max. take off) / CON (90% N1 max. continuous)/CLB (86%N1 max.climb) CRZ (76%
N1 max.cruise)

49. The FADEC will select Take off (T/O-1) mode if the following condition is met.
a) altitude above 1700 feet above the take of altitude and both engines operating
b) altitude greater than 300 feet above and landing gear not locked down
c) Gear down and locked below 1500 feet

50. The takeoff data setting function enables the pilot to input reference data
a) into the FADEC after takeoff
b) into the FADEC prior to takeoff
c) into the FADEC during landing

14.1b2 Fuel Metering System

51. Which of the following is not a task of the fuel control system
a) supplies filtered and measured fuel and measured fuel for combustion
b) supplies pressurized fuel to operate the CVG (Compressor Variable Geometry)system
c) makes fuel analysis

52. Which of the following is not one of the units of the Fuel Control System
a) Engine Control Logic
b) The Throttle Lever
c) Electro Mechanical Fuel Pump And Metering Unit

14.2 Engine Indicating System

14.2.1 Exhaust Gas Temperature / Inter Satage Temperature

53. Which of the following system is incorporated in each engine to effectively measure the temperature of
the exhaust gases?
a) (ECS) Eddy Current Sensors
b) EGT (Exhaust Gas temperature ) indication
c) (FADEC) Full Authority Digital Engine Control

54. EGT (Exhaust Gas temperature ) indication is achieved by measuring an electrical signal
a) produced by a system of thermostat positioned in the hot gas stream
b) produced by a system of thermistor positioned in the hot gas stream
c) produced by a system of thermocouples positioned in the hot gas stream

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55. Which of the following sensor is used by thermo-electric types of temperature indication systems for
temperature sensing?
a) thermostat
b) thermistor
c) thermocouples

56. Which type thermocouple measures the temperature of a solid component as in measurement of cylinder
head temperature of piston engines?
a) The constant type
b) The Immersion Type
c) The contact Type

57. Which type thermocouple is designed for measurement of gas temperature?

a) The constant type
b) The Immersion Type
c) The Contact Type

58. Which immersion type thermocouples are used in the pure jet engine ?
a) Stagnation type
b) Rapid response type
c) Contact Type

59. Which immersion type thermocouples are used in the turbo prop engine ?
a) Stagnation type
b) Rapid response type
c) Contact Type

60. Which of the following is correct to ensure overall measurement of the exhaust gas is taken?
a) 2 or 4 probes are connected in parallel
b) 4 or 6 probes are connected in parallel
c) 6 or more probes are connected in parallel

61. Which of the following type thermocouple is used the exhaust gas temperature measurement?
a) Chromel/alumel
b) Iron/constantan
c) Copper/constantan

62. Which of the following is true about identification of leads of Chromel /Alumel System?
a) Cables consist of 2 leads of similar metal
b) there may be physical size differential with Alumel being smaller than Chromel
c) the positive lead being chromel identified by red insulation and the negative lead being alumel
identified by blue insulation

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63. ''All engines of similar type have slightly different exhaust temperature characteristics and in order that
the indicated temperature is same with all engines.''
Which of the following is used for this problem that is fitted in a junction box on the engine?
a) Thermocouple
b) Ballast Resistors
c) Trimming Resistors

64. The pyrometer measures the blade heat energy of the LPT (Low Pressure Turbine) first stage blades.
The pyrometer is made of
a) Sensor-Fibre optic cable- electronic modul
b) Indicator-Fibre optic cable- electronic modul
c) Sensor-Indicator- electronic modul

14.2.2 Engine Speed (RPM)

65. Engine speed generators operate over a speed range of 0 to 5000 rev/min and are conjunction with
............ .............. to provide ............. ................... of ........... ................ .
Please choose correct option for the blanks
a) engine speed - remote indication - tachometer indicator
b) tachometer indicator-remote indication- engine speed
c) remote indication - engine speed - tachometer indicator

66. To obtain range and sensitivity, tachometer indicators have 2 pointers where
a) 2 pointers are used to indicate ones and hundreds of rpm
b) 2 pointers are used to indicate tens and thousands of rpm
c) 2 pointers are used to indicate hundreds and thousands of rpm

67. Which of the following is mounted on the high speed external gearbox?
a) Eddy Current Sensor
b) The N3 (HP) Tachometer
c) Pulse Prop

14.2.3 Engine Pressure Ratio

68. An accurate measurement of the engine power is to find
a) the engine pressure ratio (EPR)
b) the engine speed measurement
c) the engine temperature

69. Integrated Engine Pressure Ratio (IEPR) has to be used by

a) on a high bypass ratio engine
b) on a pure jet engine
c) on a low bypass ratio engine

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14.2.4 Oil pressure and Temperature

70. Although not an instrument, but more of an indicator, Which of the following gives a light indication on
the flight deck. it is normally set a low pressure limit marker on the oil pressure indicator.
a) the low oil pressure switch
b) oil pressure transmitter
c) oil pressure indicator

71. The oil temperature Indication provides

a) the oil pressure
b) a dial and pointer indication of the oil temperature
c) the amount of oil flow

72. The oil temperature indicating system operating voltages are

a) 115VAC and 5 VAC (Indicator lighting )
b) 28 VDC and 5 VAC (Indicator lighting )
c) 28 VAC and 5 VAC (Indicator lighting )

73. The oil temperature indicator consists of

a) a stationery coil
b) a torque coil
c) a moving coil

74. The temperature sensitive resistance element in the oil temperature bulb measures
a) oil temperature
b) oil pressure
c) oil flow

75. Which of the following is not one of the main part of oil pressure transmitter?
a) a bellows mechanism for measuring pressure
b) a synchro assembly
c) sensors

14.2.5 Fuel Pressure, Temperature and Flow

76. Which of the following is incorrect information about the Fuel Feed Low Pressure Switches
a) The Fuel Feed Low Pressure Switches control the fuel low pressure indicating lights on the overhead
panel.
b) Each switch has inlet port for a temperature sensing line
c) Each switch assembly consists of a cylindrical housing containing a diaphragm and a switch

77. When the fuel in the centre tank is depleted,

a) The centre tank temperature lights are illuminated
b) The centre tank fuel flow lights are illuminated
c) The centre tank boost pump low pressure lights are illuminated

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78. The fuel temperature indicating system allows
a) the fuel temperature in tank no 1 to be read on the forward panel.
b) the fuel flow in tank no 1 to be read on the overhead panel.
c) the fuel pressure in tank no 1 to be read on the forward panel.

79. The fuel temperature indicating system operating voltages are

a) 115VAC
b) 28 VDC
c) 28 VAC

80. The temperature bulb is an armored , bayonet locking-type bulb. It has a temperature range of
a) -20 to +200 C°
b) -50 to +300 C°
c) -50 to +200 C°

81. The fuel flow indicator does not display

a) the fuel consumption rate
b) the total fuel consumed
c) the fuel pressure

82. The flow rate is indicated in graduations around a circular dial. This is normally expressed in
a) Pounds Per Hour (PPH) or Kilogram Per Hour (KGH)
b) Pounds Per Hour (PPH) or Per Square Inch (PSI)
c) Pounds Per Square (PPS) or Kilogram Per Hour (KGH)

83. Which of the following is incorrect information about the flow meter measuring?
a) The flow meter measures mass flow
b) The flow meter is affected by changes in temperature
c) The flow meter is not affected by changes specific gravity of the fuel.

84. The fuel flow indicator displays fuel flow rates of

a) 80 to 8000 pounds per hour on indicator
b) 180 to 10000 pounds per hour on indicator
c) 280 to 12000 pounds per hour on indicator

85. Which of the following system provides an indication when the output pressure of any fuel boost pump
falls below a preset value.
a) The fuel flow indicating system
b) The fuel temperature indicating system
c) The fuel feed low -pressure indicating system

14.2.6 Manifold Pressure

86. Why the pilot uses the Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) gauge indications?
a) it helps the pilot to avoid excessive manifold temperature
b) it helps the pilot to avoid excessive manifold air flow
c) it helps the pilot to avoid excessive manifold pressure

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14.2.7 Engine Mechanical and Electrical Torque Monitoring Systems

87. Which of the following type of Torque Indicator works on the principle whereby and tendency for some
part of the gear transmission to rotate will produce a reaction so that the ring part of the gear will tent to rotate
in the opposite direction ?
a) Torque Pressure Indicator
b) Hydro Mechanical Torque Indicators
c) Electrical Torque Indicating System

88. Which of the following type of Torque Indicating system is used in one type of helicopter currently in
service , for measuring the torsion of the main power shaft ?
a) Torque Pressure Indicator
b) Hydro Mechanical Torque Indicators
c) Electrical Torque Indicating System

89. At the upper figure is a typical torque meter for a twin engined helicopter.
Which of the following is incorrect for this torque meter?
a) The torque for just one engine is given on the instrument with readings in percent
b) The main rotor is given on the instrument with readings in percent
c) The torque for both engines is given on the same instrument with readings in percent

14.2.8 Propeller Speed

90. Which of the following sensor is used for propeller speed and phase information.
a) A magnetic sensor
b) A frequency sensor
c) A concussion sensor

91. The synchrophaser is powered from the aircraft

a) 28V DC
b) 28 VAC
c) 115 VAC

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 Answers
1. A 31. C 61. A
2. C 32. A 62. C
3. B 33. A 63. B
4. B 34. C 64. A
5. B 35. B 65. B
6. C 36. A 66. C
7. C 37. C 67. B
8. A 38. C 68. A
9. B 39. C 69. A
10. C 40. B 70. A
11. A 41. C 71. B
12. A 42. B 72. C
13. A 43. A 73. B
14. A 44. B 74. A
15. C 45. A 75. C
16. C 46. C 76. B
17. B 47. A 77. C
18. A 48. B 78. A
19. C 49. C 79. C
20. A 50. B 80. B
21. B 51. C 81. C
22. C 52. A 82. A
23. A 53. B 83. B
24. C 54. C 84. C
25. A 55. C 85. C
26. B 56. C 86. C
27. C 57. B 87. B
28. B 58. A 88. C
29. C 59. B 89. A
30. B 60. C 90. A
91. A

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