DSD Math Ga Part 7

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Participant ID 320036100145
Participant Name Poonam
Test Center Name Ion Digital Zone IDZ2 Mundka
Test Date 25/09/2021
Test Time 8:30 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject TGT Natural Science-(Female)
Section : General Ability
Q.1 Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from
the given statement.
Statement:
Some rainbow are rain.
All rain are earth.
All earth are natural.
Conclusions:
(I) Some earth are rain.
(II) No earth is rain.
(III) Atleast some rainbow are earth.
Ans A. Only II follows
B. Only I follow
C. None follows
D. Only I and III follow
Question ID : 1034351222
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Q.2 From the given alternatives select the one that will complete the question figure.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.3 In a college of 82 students, Nitin's rank is thirty-fifth from the top. Prashant is ranked
eighth above Nitin. What is the Prashant rank from the bottom?
Ans A. 57
B. 58
C. 56
D. 55
Q.4 Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
Statement:
Some campus are station.
Some stations are cat.
Conclusions:
(I) All campus are station.
(II) Some station are campus.
B. Both I and II follow
C. Neither I nor II follows
D. Only I follow
Q.5 In the following figure, triangle represents personal clinic, circle represents doctors,
pentagon represents hospital, rectangle represents pharmacy and square represents
social service.
What does letter ‘D’ represents?
Ans A. Doctors who work in hospital and is in social service
B. Doctors who work in hospital and personal clinic
C. Doctors who have pharmacy and personal clinic
D. Doctors who have pharmacy and work in hospital
Q.6 Select the set of numbers that is similar to the following set of numbers.
(10, 12, 15)

Ans A. (68, 70, 73)
B. (60, 62, 66)
C. (30, 32, 36)
D. (21, 23, 27)
Q.7 Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.8 From the given alternatives select the one which is the mirror image of given Question
Figure .
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.9 In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the
conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.
Statement:
S>J≤F≥T=Q
Conclusions:
I. S > F
II. F ≥ Q
B. Both I and II follow
C. Either I or II follows
D. Only I follows
Q.10 Three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
Statement:
All painting are artists.
Some artist are famous.
No famous is great.
Conclusions:
(I) Some artist are great.
(II) Some artist are painting.
B. Neither I nor II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Only I follow
Q.11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
2, 5, 10, 17, ?, 37
Ans A. 26
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
Q.12 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:
BLX : GR :: HNV : ?
Ans A. LQ
B. RK
C. JS
D. KR
Q.13 Find the wrong term in the letter-cluster series given below:
CGTM, JNMG, QUHA, XBBU, EIVO

Ans A. XBBU
B. EIVO
C. JNMG
D. QUHA
Q.14 In the following figure, triangle represents fresher, circle represents experience,
pentagon represents highly qualified, rectangle represents company and square
represents employee.
What does letter ‘I’ represents?
Ans A. Companies which hire employees who are fresher and experienced and highly
qualified
B. Companies which hire employees who are experienced and highly qualified
C. Companies which hire employees who are fresher and highly qualified
D. Companies which hire employees who are fresher and experienced but not highly
qualified
Q.15 Find out the odd word from the given alternatives.
Ans A. Maldives
B. Afghanistan
C. Mizoram
D. Denmark
Q.16 Find the number of triangle in the given figure.
Ans A. 11
B. 9
C. 10
D. 8
Q.17 From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is
hidden/embedded.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.18 Find the missing term in the following letter-cluster series given below:
TYC3, YEH9, ? , IQR21, NWW27

Ans A. DLM15
B. DKN15
C. DKM15
D. EKM15
Q.19 Ankit, Suresh, Dinesh, Raj, Pankaj and Rajat are six members of a club. Each of them
has a different profession i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F, each of them like different color i.e.
Yellow, White, Red, Orange, Green and Pink. Person, profession and color given above
are not necessarily in the same order. Dinesh's profession is C and he does not like
green colour. The favorite color of E is pink. The one who is in B likes Orange colour.
Raj's profession is F. Suresh's profession is A and he likes white colour. Ankit likes
yellow colour. Pankaj's favorite color is orange.
What is Ankit's profession?

Ans A. D
B. E
C. F
D. C
Q.20 If ARTIST is coded as YWLVSA then how will FLOWER be coded as?
Ans A. FMQZIW
B. WIZQMF
C. WIMFIZ
D. QZIWMF
Section : General Awareness
Q.1 What is the name of the autobiography of Adolf hitler?

Ans A. Long Walk To Freedom
B. The Nazi
C. Mein Kampf
D. The Nazi Rule
Q.2 To which sport does the “hook pass” terminology belong?

Ans A. Football
B. Rugby
C. Volleyball
D. Basketball
Q.3 ______ is a classical dance form of Assam.

Ans A. Bhangda
B. Sattriya
C. Cheraw
D. Lavani
Q.4 The famous “Ganga Sagar Mela”, an annual fair is held in which state of India?
Ans A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Uttarakhand
Q.5 When does the National Consumer Day observed in India?

Ans A. 30th December
B. 24th December
C. 20th December
D. 25th December
Q.6 In 1921, ______ set up the National Fascist Party.

Ans A. Hitler
B. Mussolini
C. Lenin
D. Churchill
Q.7 Which of the following city has become the first Indian city to achieve 100 per cent
COVID-19 vaccination?
Ans A. Bhubaneswar
B. Ahmadabad
C. Kochi
D. Bangalore
Q.8 Which ruler built the Mughal Gardens of Srinagar?

Ans A. Shahjahan
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb
Q.9 Harappa was situated on the banks of the river ______.

Ans A. Brahmaputra
B. Sutlej
C. Ravi
D. Indus
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Q.10 Which of the following is a Ferrous Mineral?

Ans A. Copper
B. Lead
C. Bauxite
D. Manganese
Q.11 Anodising is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of ______.

Ans A. Fluorine
B. Aluminium
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
Q.12 ______ allots symbols to political parties in India.

Ans A. The Judiciary
B. The President
C. The Party leaders
D. The Election Commission
Q.13 Who became the first woman to ascend all Seven Summits by climbing the highest
peak on every continent?
Ans A. Junko Tabei
B. Malavath Purna
C. Premlata Agarwal
D. Bachendri Pal
Q.14 Trophic level in an ecosystem represents ______.

Ans A. Water level
B. Salt level
C. Oxygen levels
D. Energy level
Q.15 The Renaissance first began in ______.

Ans A. Australia
B. Spain
C. Italy
D. France
Q.16 In which of the following state India's first jute mill was established?
Ans A. Madhya Pradesh
B. West Bengal
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
Q.17 In Amoeba, food is digested in a ______.

Ans A. Food vacuoles
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Plastid
Q.18 Which city will host the Durand Cup 2021?

Ans A. Indore
B. Pune
C. Kolkata
D. Dehradun
Q.19 Which is the second highest civilian award conferred for exceptional and
distinguished service to an Indian?
Ans A. Padma Bhushan
B. Bharat Ratna
C. Padma Vibhushan
D. Padma Shri
Q.20 Shri Devendra Jhajharia who was Arjun award recipient of 2017 belongs to which
game?
Ans A. Kabaddi
B. Athletics
C. Football
D. Basketball
Section : Arithmetic Ability
Q.1 12 men can do a piece of work in 10 days while 9 women can do the same work in 20
days. If 3 men start working and work for 'T' days and after that 3 women joined them
and together they take 6 more days to finish the remaining work, then what is the
value of 'T'?
Ans A. 30
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
Q.2
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.3 The radius and height of a right circular cone are in ratio of 5 : 12 and its volume is
2512 cu cm. The radius of the cone is :( π = 3.14)
Ans A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 24 cm
Q.4 If (p – q) = 8, then what is the value of q3 - p3 + 24pq?

Ans A. 512
B. -343
C. 729
D. -512
Q.5 In a company, there are 80 workers. The ratio of male workers to female workers is 9 :
7. The average salary of all workers is Rs.20000. If the average salary of male workers
is Rs.2000 less than that of the female workers, then what is the average salary of male
workers?
Ans A. Rs.18500
B. Rs.19125
C. Rs.18980
D. Rs.18775
Q.6 The following table shows the total number of votes polled and percentage of invalid
votes for a village.
What is the number of valid votes polled in 1985?

Ans A. 7140
B. 7440
C. 6425
D. 5600
Q.7 A parallelogram has sides in the ratio 3 : 4. The length of altitude on larger side is 20
cm. Find the length of altitude on smaller side.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.8 A train moving with speed of 81 km/hr crosses a pole and platform in 8 seconds and
22 seconds, respectively. Find the length of the platform.
Ans A. 400 meters
B. 495 meters
C. 460 meters
D. 315 meters
Q.9 The following line graph represents percentage wise breakup of males, females and
children out of the respective total number of people in five colonies A, B, C, D and E.
If the number of females in colony B exceeds the number of children in colony C by

112 and the total number of males in both the colonies is 1400, then find the total
number of people in C.
Ans A. 1900
B. 1600
C. 2100
D. 1800
Q.10 Venu saves 25 percent of his income. If his income increases by 25 percent and still he
saves the same amount as before, the percentage increase in his expenditure is_____.
Ans A. 25 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 33.33 percent
D. 26 percent
Q.11 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.12 The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 2,800 at the end of six years is Rs.
2100. What would be the simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 6875 at the same
rate and same period?
Ans A. Rs. 5,025.25
B. Rs.4,556.5
C. Rs.4,895.25
D. Rs.5,156.25
Q.13 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
(6)3 + (2)3 + 3(6 × 2) 8= ?
Ans A. 200
B. 512
C. 272
D. 300
Q.14 P and Q started a business with investment of Rs.2400 and Rs.3600 respectively. If at
the end of 3 years Q withdraws Rs.1800, then what is the ratio of profit share of P to Q
at the end of 5 year?
Ans A. 5 : 7
B. 3 : 5
C. 5 : 6
D. 7 : 9
Q.15 An item of marked price Rs.80 was sold in Rs.68. What is the rate of discount?
Ans A. 15 percent
B. 86 percent
C. 85 percent
D. 14 percent
Q.16 The speed of a car is 2 times the speed of a passenger train. If the car travels at the
speed of 85 kmph, what will be the difference in the time taken by the passenger train
and the time taken by the car to cover 935 km.?
Ans A. 22 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 11 hours
D. 5 hours
Q.17 The average of n numbers is 42. If 75 percent of the numbers are increased by 4 each
and the remaining numbers are decreased by 8 each, then what is the average of the
numbers, so obtained?
Ans A. 44
B. 43.8
C. 43
D. 42.5
Q.18 The selling price of 40 products is same as the cost price of ‘x’ products. Find the
value of ‘x’ if the profit earned is 25 percent by selling x articles.
Ans A. 45
B. 60
C. 50
D. 75
Q.19 In an examination, out of 100 students 80 percent of the girls and 70 percent of the
boys passed. How many boys appeared in the examination if total pass percentage
was 75 percent?
Ans A. 70
B. 40
C. 20
D. 50
Q.20 Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and pipe B can empty the same full tank in 10
hours. If pipe A is halved open and pipe B is one-third open, then in how many hours
does the empty tank get filled while pipe A and B working simultaneously?
Ans A. 120
B. 80
C. 90
D. 60
Section : General English
Q.1 Select the word which means the same as the following group of the words.
Lack of skill, ability, or competence.

Ans A. Prowess
B. Dexterity
C. Ineptitude
D. Proficiency
Q.2 Select the most appropriate antonym for the given word.
Comprehensive
Ans A. Apprehensive
B. Apprehension
C. Shallow
D. Suburbia
Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A. Blotched
B. Semmantic
C. Syllabus
D. Essences
Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The bear didn’t attack the lady because he was afraid ______ her.
Ans A. for
B. of
C. at
D. as
Q.5 One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
error, choose ‘No error’.
The document is silent on the exact science of prioritising actions, especially when all
sources of pollution demand intervention at the same time.
Ans A. actions, especially when all sources
B. of pollution demand intervention at the same time
C. The document is silent on the exact science of prioritising
D. No error
Q.6 In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Tricks of the trade.

Ans A. A particular profession
B. Special skills or knowledge
C. A trick to deceive
D. An easy task
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.
One needs to know the difference ______ watercolour and acrylic paints before
starting to paint.
Ans A. between
B. in
C. among
D. from
Q.8 In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one that best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Hold the fort.

Ans A. To maintain or guard something temporarily
B. To stop talking about something
C. To avoid being found guilty of a crime.
D. To finish something before time
Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracketed part in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’.
The fundamental rights granted to us by our Constitution cannot be (encroached by)

any person or group of persons.
Ans A. encroached into by
B. No Improvement
C. encroached with
D. encroached upon by
Q.10 One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
error, choose ‘No error’.
The approach has resulted in a range of false solutions that offers an illusion of action
but have little impact in reality.
Ans A. false solutions that offers an illusion
B. of action but have little impact in reality
C. No error
D. The approach has resulted in a range of
Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.
No need to cry over ______ milk. It is time you got up and go about your usual routine.
Ans A. spilt
B. spilling
C. slipped
D. spill
Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’.
The weather reports is prepared by the Meteorological Department of the Government.

Ans A. No improvement
B. are prepared
C. is prepare
D. prepared
Q.13 In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, and S. The
positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four
alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.
S1. Can anyone

P. falsehood triumph
Q. and let
R. for a long time
S. suppress the truth
S6. permanently?
Ans A. QPRS
B. RQSP
C. SRQP
D. PRQS
Q.14 Select the CORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans A. Ferociuos
B. Farocious
C. Ferocious
D. Feroecious
Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Narcissism
Ans A. Arrogance
B. Modesty
C. Insanity
D. Humility
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer the questions below.
The Mexican drug war is the Mexican theater of the global war on drugs, as led by the U.S.
federal government that has resulted in an ongoing asymmetric low-intensity conflict between
the Mexican government and various drug trafficking syndicates. When the Mexican military
began to intervene in 2006, the government's principal goal was to reduce drug-related
violence. The Mexican government has asserted that their primary focus is on dismantling the
powerful drug cartels, and on preventing drug trafficking demand along with the U.S.
functionaries. Violence escalated soon after the arrest of Miguel Ángel Félix Gallardo in 1989;
he was the leader and the founder of the first Mexican drug cartel, the Guadalajara Cartel, an
alliance of the current existing cartels (which included the Sinaloa Cartel, the Juarez Cartel,
the Tijuana Cartel, and the Sonora Cartel).
Due to his arrest, the alliance broke and certain high-ranking members formed their own
cartels and each of them fought for control of territory and trafficking routes. Although Mexican
drug trafficking organizations have existed for several decades, their influence increased after
the demise of the Colombian Cali and Medellín cartels in the 1990s. Mexican drug cartels now
dominate the wholesale illicit drug market and in 2007 controlled 90% of the cocaine entering
the United States. Arrests of key cartel leaders, particularly in the Tijuana and Gulf cartels,
have led to increasing drug violence as cartels fight for control of the trafficking routes into the
United States. The U.S. Congress passed legislation in late June 2008 to provide Mexico with
US$1.6 billion for the Mérida Initiative as well as technical advice to strengthen the national
justice systems. During the 1970s and early 1980s, Colombia's Pablo Escobar was the main
exporter of cocaine and dealt with organized criminal networks all over the world. While
Escobar's Medellin Cartel and the Cali Cartel would manufacture the products, Miguel Ángel
Félix Gallardo's Guadalajara Cartel would oversee distribution.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Which of the following drug cartels is not a Mexican drug cartel?
Ans A. Medellín cartel
B. Tijuana Cartel
C. Sonora Cartel
D. Juarez Cartel
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 What was the main reason behind the increasing influence of the Mexican drug
trafficking organizations?
Ans A. The demise of the Colombian cartels.
B. The U.S. policies regarding drug control in Mexico were held back.
C. Mexican drug organizations were very powerful compare to any of other cartels.
D. The U.S. cartels were shut down by the government.
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Which of the following statements is NOT correct here according to the given
passage?
Ans A. The U.S. Congress passed legislation to provide Mexico with financial aid.
B. The U.S. Congress passed legislation to provide Mexico with technical advice to
strengthen the national justice systems.
C. Mexican drug cartels now dominate the country’s government.
D. Mexican drug trafficking organizations have existed for several decades.
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Violence erupted in Mexico after the arrest of key leaders of two cartels. Which two
cartels are being talked about in this case?
Ans A. Tijuana and Sonora cartels
B. Sonora and Gulf cartels
C. Tijuana and Gulf cartels
D. Sinaloa and Sonora cartels
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Miguel Ángel Félix Gallardo was the chief leader and the founder of the first Mexican
drug cartel. According to the given passage, which among the followings was the first
Mexican drug cartel?
Ans A. Guadalajara Cartel
B. Juarez Cartel
C. Sinaloa Cartel
D. Tijuana Cartel
Section : General Hindi
Q.1 निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्‍य सम्‍बंधवाचक सर्वनाम का सही उदाहरण है?
Ans A. वह कु छ लाया था।
B. जो देता है सो लेता है।
C. कौन शोर कर रहा है?
D. मैं अपने आप काम कर लूँगा।
Q.2 निम्‍नलिखित में से किस वाक्‍य में अल्‍पविराम चिन्‍ह का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है?
Ans A. अजय ने सुनिल को बुरा-भला कहा जिससे उसके दिल का गुबार निकल गया।
B. पड़ोसी से पहले जैन साहब की घुटती थी, बच्‍चों में लड़ाई हो गई, तो अब दाल जूतियों में बँटने लगी।
C. अंत में अर्जुन और कर्ण का भीषण युद्ध हुआ, दोनों का युद्ध देखकर सारे लोग दंग रह गए।
D. उसकी दादी बहुत बीमार है, लगता है बस दो दिन की मेहमान है।
Q.3 निम्‍नलिखित में से "निशीथ" का विलोम शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

Ans A. सन्‍यासी
B. वैरागी
C. प्रदोष
D. मध्‍याह्न
Q.4 निम्‍नलिखित में से "लम्‍बोदर, पीताम्‍बर" शब्‍द कौन-से शब्‍द कहलाते है?
Ans A. रूढ़ शब्‍द
B. यौगिक शब्‍द
C. यौगिक एवं योगरूढ़ शब्‍द
D. योगरूढ़ शब्‍द
Q.5 निम्‍नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

Ans A. अम्‍बीका
B. संपति
C. बिद्वान
D. तरं गिणी
Q.6 दिए गए शब्द-युग्‍म के सही अर्थ-भेद का चयन कीजिए-
सुधि - सुधी
Ans A. सुई - किनारा
B. स्‍मरण - समझदार
C. समझदार - नासमझ
D. पश्‍चाताप - समझदार
Q.7 निम्‍नलिखित में से संदेहवाचक वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए-

Ans A. जो परिश्रम करे गा वो सफल होगा।
B. आप जीवन में बहुत उन्‍नति करें ।
C. हर्षा अब कार्यालय से घर पहुच चुकी होगी।
D. यदि वर्षा होगी तो फसल भी अच्‍छी होगी।
Q.8 निम्‍नलिखित में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए-

Ans A. आयुष के कॉलेज में कॉमर्स की विद्या दी जाती है।
B. रोशन की शंकाओं का निराकरण हो जाना चाहिए।
C. गुण्‍डों ने चौराहे पर रूधिर कर दिया।
D. वाल्‍मीकि ने रामायण की रचना की।
Q.9 निम्‍नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "इमली के पात पर दण्‍ड पेलना" का क्‍या अर्थ है?
Ans A. आजीवन किसी चिज से पिछा न छू टना।
B. न जाने भविष्‍य में क्‍या होगा।
C. एक ही वस्‍तु के अनेक आकांक्षी।
D. सीमित साधनों से बड़ा कार्य करने का प्रयास करना।
Q.10 निम्‍नलिखित में से उस वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए, जिसमें अपादान कारक की विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया
गया है?
Ans A. शिक्षक ने विद्यार्थी को बुलाया।
B. पुस्‍तक टेबल पर है।
C. मैं वर्मा जी से आशुलिपि सीखता हूँ।
D. सौरभ ने बहन के लिए मिठाई खरीदी।
Q.11 निम्‍नलिखित में से "द्विपंचाशत्" का सही तद्भव शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

Ans A. बत्‍तीस
B. बावन
C. बहत्‍तर
D. बयानवे
Q.12 निम्‍नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाले वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए-

Ans A. कुं भ के मेले में भोपाल के चार व्‍यक्ति भी थे।
B. आदित्‍य ने उस दृश्‍य का सुन्‍दर चित्रण किया।
C. पठित समाज में अंधविश्‍वास नहीं है।
D. मैने बहुत परिश्रम करके धन कमाया है।
Q.13 निम्‍नलिखित में से "कपट" का पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

Ans A. त्रास
B. दम्‍भ
C. मह
D. तनया
Q.14 निम्‍नलिखित में से मुहावरा "तालू से जीभ न लगना" का क्‍या अर्थ है?
Ans A. टाल-मटोल करना।
B. अधिकार जमाना।
C. किसी गंभीर बीमारी से पीड़ित होना।
D. बोलते रहना।
Q.15 निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्‍द कर्मधारय समास का उदाहरण नहीं है?
Ans A. लौहपुरुष
B. नीलकमल
C. सत्‍याग्रह
D. चन्‍द्रमुखी
Comprehension:
निम्‍नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्‍यानपूर्वक अध्‍ययन कर प्रश्‍नों के उत्‍तर दीजिए-
मानव-जीवन के आदिकाल में अनुशासन की कोई संकल्‍पना नहीं थी और ना आज की भांति बड़े-बड़े नगर या
राज्‍य ही थे। मानव जंगल में रहता था, ‘जिसकी लाठी उसकी भैंस’ वाली कहावत उसके जीवन पर पूर्णत: चरितार्थ
होती थी, व्यक्ति पर किसी भी नियम का बंधन या किसी प्रकार के कर्तव्यों का दायित्व नहीं था, किं तु इतना स्वतंत्र
और निरं कु श होते हुए भी मानव प्रसन्‍न नहीं था। आपसी टकराव होते थे, अधिकारों-कर्तव्यों में संघर्ष होता था
और नियमों की कमी उसे खलती थी। धीरे -धीरे उसकी अपनी ही आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए समाज और
राज्य का उद्भव और विकास हुआ। अपने उद्देश्य की सिद्धि एवं आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए मानव ने अंततः
कु छ नियमों का निर्माण किया। उनमें से कु छ नियमों के पालन करवाने का अधिकार राज्य को और कु छ का
अधिकार समाज को दे दिया गया। व्यक्ति के बहुमुखी विकास में सहायक होने वाले इन नियमों का पालन ही
अनुशासन कहलाता है। अनुभव सबसे बड़ा शिक्षक होता है। समाज ने प्रारं भ में अपने अनुभवों से ही अनुशासन
के इन नियमों को सिखा, विकसित किया और सुव्यवस्थित किया होगा।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक निम्‍न में से कौन-सा है?
Ans A. मानव-जीवन का आदिकाल।
B. आदिकाल में मनुष्‍य की आवश्यकताऐं।
C. अधिकारों-कर्तव्यों में आपसी संघर्ष।
D. अनुशासन की संकल्‍पना।
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, ______ सबसे बड़ा शिक्षक होता है।
Ans A. स्वतंत्रता
B. आवश्‍यकता
C. अनुभव
D. समाज
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आदिकाल में मानव प्रसन्‍न नहीं था, क्‍योंकि ______
Ans A. वह जंगलों में रहता था।
B. किसी भी वस्‍तु का लेन-देन आसान नहीं था।
C. आवश्‍यकताओं की पर्याप्‍त पूर्ति हो पाती थी।
D. उस काल में सामाजिक नियमों का निर्धारण नहीं हुआ था।
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश का प्रतिपाद्य है कि ______
Ans A. मनुष्‍य को किसी भी नियम का बंधन या किसी भी प्रकार के कर्तव्यों का कोई दायित्व नहीं होना चाहिए।
B. मनुष्‍य को अपने अनुभवों से अनुशासन के नियमों को नहीं सीखना चाहिए।
C. मनुष्‍य को सामाजिक नियमों का पालन नहीं करना चाहिए।
D. मनुष्‍य को सामाजिक नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए।
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्‍द “उद्भव” का पर्यायवाची नहीं है?
Ans A. अवसान
B. आविर्भाव
C. उत्पति
D. उद्गम
Section : Discipline1
Q.1 Which of the following is the basic principle of a branch of physics called fibre optics?
Ans A. Refraction through thin lenses
B. Angle of minimum deviation
C. Lateral magnification
D. Total internal reflection
Q.2 If the displacement Δx is small, we can take the force F(x) as approximately constant
and the work done is then:
Ans A. ΔW = F(x). Δx
B. ΔW = F(x)/ Δx
C. ΔW = F(x+Δx)
D. F(x) = W. Δx
Q.3 The waves with the frequency above the audible range of human being are called
______.
Ans A. Supersonic waves
B. Hypersonic waves
C. Ultrasonic waves
D. Infrasonic waves
Q.4 An average human being can hear sound of frequency upto:

Ans A. 40 kHz
B. 20 kHz
C. 35 kHz
D. 30 kHz
Q.5 In a ballistics demonstration a police officer fires a bullet of mass 60.0 g with speed
200 ms-1 on soft plywood of thickness 4.00 cm. The bullet emerges with only 8 percent
of its initial kinetic energy. What is the emergent speed of the bullet?
Ans A. 50.89 ms-1
B. 56.56 ms-1
C. 119 ms-1
D. 63.2 ms-1
Q.6 Which of the following equations is the correct representation of momentum?

[mass m and velocity v and momentum is denoted by p of the body]
Ans A. p = m-v
B. p = m/v
C. p = mv
D. p = v/m
Q.7 Which of the following is/can be treated as real object?
Choose the correct code.

1. the point object from where the incident rays diverge
2. the point where the incident rays would meet if there were no mirror.
Ans A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both 1 and 2
Q.8 Which of the following has the correct value of 1 unit of Work/Energy in J?
Ans A. 1 calorie (cal) = 1.186 J
B. 1 erg = 10-6 J
C. 1 kilowatt hour (kWh) = 3.6 × 10-6 J
D. 1 electron volt (eV) = 1.6 × 10-19 J
Q.9 According to Newton’s third law of motion, mark the correct option.
1. Action and reaction act on different bodies and so they can be cancelled out.
2. The internal action and reaction forces between different parts of a body do,
however, sum to zero.
Ans A. 1 only
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 2 only
Q.10 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. Archimedes Principle is not an independent principle.

2. Archimedes Principle is an independent principle.
3. Archimedes Principle can be deduced from Newton’s Law of Motion.
Choose the correct code–
Ans A. Only 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. Only 1
Q.11 When light meets a surface separating 2 transparent media, ______.
Choose the correct code:

1. Reflection occurs
2. Refraction occurs
Ans A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 2 only
Q.12 Pascal’s Law is concerned with -

Ans A. Forces between two surfaces in contact
B. Intermolecular forces of gases
C. Tension in string
D. Pressure in a liquid
Q.13 ______ is/are called fluid/s.
1. Liquid
2. Gas
Ans A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Both 1 and 2
Q.14 A bullet of mass 0.08 kg moving with a speed of 50 ms-1 enters a heavy wooden block
and is stopped after a distance of 40 cm. What is the average resistive force exerted by
the block on the bullet?
Ans A. 350N
B. 300N
C. 220N
D. 250N
Q.15 Sound waves are:
1. Longitudinal waves
2. Transverse waves
B. Both 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Q.16 For air the refractive index of light is ______.

Ans A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. very close to 1
Q.17 If the net external force is zero, a body at rest continues to remain at rest and a body in
motion continues to move with a uniform velocity. This property of the body is called
______.
Ans A. Resistance
B. Inertia
C. Mobility
D. Acceleration
Q.18 Which of the following external agencies can exert force on a body even from a
distance?
Ans A. Magnetic forces
B. Hands
C. Stream
D. Wind
Q.19 Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. the focal length of a converging lens is positive

2. the power of a converging lens is negative
3. the power of a converging lens is positive
Ans A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Q.20 The space between the lens and retina of an eye is filled with ______.
Ans A. Suspensory ligament
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Vitreous humour
D. Aqueous humour
Q.1 Which of the following type of coal is a shade of dull black with very little visible plant
matter?
Ans A. Sub-bituminous
B. Anthracite
C. Peat
D. Lignite
Q.2 How is an aerosol formed?

Ans A. When liquid gets trapped in solid
B. When small bubbles of gas are trapped in liquid
C. When small droplets of liquid or particles of solid are dispersed in a gas
D. When mixture of tiny droplets of one liquid is suspended in another
Q.3 Which of the following is a property of a mixture and not a compound?

Ans A. It has totally different properties as compared to the constituent substances.
B. It is formed when elements react.
C. It has a variable composition.
D. The constituents can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical procedures.
Q.4 Chlorine is obtained as a mixture of two isotopes 35Cl17 and 37Cl17 . These isotopes
are present in the ratio of 4 : 1. What will be the average atomic mass of chlorine?
Ans A. 35.7 u
B. 36.1 u
C. 35.2 u
D. 35.4 u
Q.5 Calculate the work done in moving a charge of 5C across two points having a potential
difference of 25V.
Ans A. 125 J
B. 50 J
C. 12.5 J
D. 5 J
Q.6 Which of the following is the reason for an iron core increasing the magnetic field of a
coil of wire?
1. The iron atoms line up to add the magnetic field.

2. Iron is, among other things, attracted to a magnetic field.
Ans A. Only 1
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Only 2
Q.7 What is the maximum capacity of electron accommodation of the N-shell in an atom?
Ans A. 28
B. 30
C. 18
D. 32
Q.8 Which of the following was not an observation in Rutherford’s α-Ray scattering
experiment?
1. Most of the α-particles were deflected by small angles.

2. A few α-particles were deflected by large angles.
Ans A. Only 2
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Only 1
D. Both 1 and 2
Q.9 Find the equivalent resistance of the following combination of resistors–
Ans A. 3 Ω
B. 4 Ω
C. 12 Ω
D. 6 Ω
Q.10 Which of the following is not a limitation of using hydroelectric power?

Ans A. Dams can be very expensive to build.
B. The hydroelectric power plants cannot be sited at a place of our choice.
C. There needs to be a sufficient, and continuously strong water current, or water head,
to produce energy.
D. Electricity can’t be generated constantly.
Q.11 We can now produce magnified image of surface of elements showing atoms by using
a technique called STM. What is the full-form of STM?
Ans A. Scanning Tunnelling Microscopy
B. Super Telemetric Microscopy
C. Stimulated Telescopic Microscopy
D. Segmented Telemetric Magnification
Q.12 Which of the following methods is most suitable for separation of salt and camphor?
Ans A. Chromatography
B. Sublimation
C. Centrifugation
D. Evaporation
Q.13 Which of the following elements is present in the highest amount (percent by mass) in
the human body?
Ans A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Magnesium
D. Hydrogen
Q.14 Which of the following parameters will be of highest importance if we want to separate
two miscible liquids by distillation process?
Ans A. Boiling Point
B. Freezing Point
C. Solubility in water
D. Viscosity
Q.15 What will be the wavelength of a wave that is produced in air and travels at a speed of
300 ms-1 at the frequency of 60,000 Hz?
Ans A. 0.60 cm
B. 0.40 cm
C. 0.65 cm
D. 0.50 cm
Q.16 Which of the following atoms don’t exhibit the valency of 2?

Ans A. O
B. Be
C. C
D. Mg
Q.17 Mendeleev in his Periodic Table had predicted about an element called Eka-Boron.
What is it called now?
Ans A. Germanium
B. Gallium
C. Caesium
D. Scandium
Q.18 Newlands’ law of Octaves was not applicable to elements of atomic masses higher
than-
Ans A. 55 u
B. 50 u
C. 40 u
D. 35 u
Q.19 Which of the following will have the electronic configuration of 2, 8, 18, 32, 18, 8, 1?
Ans A. Rb
B. Zr
C. Fr
D. Cs
Q.20 Torricelli is associated with the invention of which of the following devices?
Ans A. Manometer
B. Thermometer
C. Spring balance
D. Barometer
Q.1
Ans A. Sub-zero temperature
B. HCl
C. Low pressure
D. Yeast
Q.2 Which of the following is the chemical formula of polyethylene terephthalate or PET?
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.3 Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of-

Ans A. Cyanocobalamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Biotin
Q.4 What is the density of diamond?

Ans A. 3.78 g cm-3
B. 3.51 g cm-3
C. 2.15 g cm-3
D. 4.16 g cm-3
Q.5 Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Ans A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin K
Q.6 Which of the following is not a property of alkanes?

Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.7 What is the half-life of 14C?

Ans A. 5120 years
B. 5730 years
C. 5500 years
D. 6100 years
Q.8 Consider the reaction

Cu (s) + I2 (s) → CuI2 (s)
Which of the following statements is correct?
1. In the reaction a copper atom loses two electrons to become a cupric ion.
2. In the reaction iodine atom gains two electrons to become an iodide ion.
Choose the correct code-
B. Only 1
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Only 2
Q.9 Which of the following is most ductile metal?

Ans A. Cadmium
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Mercury
Q.10 Match the following indicators with the colour that they will exhibit in basic solution–
Choose the correct code -

Ans A. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
B. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
C. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
D. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
Q.11 Though metals have high melting points but which of the following metals have very
low melting point?
Ans A. Gallium
B. Molybdenum
C. Rhenium
D. Tungsten
Q.12 Which of the features is NOT correct about Monera?
1. These organisms do not have a defined nucleus or organelles.

2. They are all autotrophic.
Ans A. Only 2
B. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Only 1
Q.13 Which of the following is made by reacting phenol and formaldehyde?

Ans A. Bakelite
B. PTFE
C. Polythene
D. Nylon 6
Q.14 Consider the following statements about a kingdom –
1. These are heterotrophic eukaryotic organisms.

2. An example of this kingdom is mushroom.
Which kingdom is being talked about?
Ans A. Plantae
B. Protista
C. Animalia
D. Fungi
Q.15 Which of the following is an example of combination reaction?

Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Q.16 Which of the following is not a property of ionic compounds?

Ans A. They are crystalline solids.
B. These compounds conduct electricity in their molten state and in aqueous solutions.
C. These compounds are generally soluble in water but are insoluble in organic solvents
such as ether, alcohol, carbon tetrachloride etc.
D. The melting points and boiling points of these compounds are lower than those of
covalent compounds.
Q.17 Which of the following is an example of a weak base?

Ans A. Barium hydroxide
B. Ammonium hydroxide
C. Caesium hydroxide
D. Rubidium hydroxide
Q.18 How many strong acids are there?

Ans A. 12
B. 7
C. 5
D. 9
Q.19 Which of the following is NOT a main raw-material for the manufacture of cement?
Ans A. Limestone
B. Gypsum
C. Calcium Oxychloride
D. Clay
Q.20 Which of the following is an acute disease?

Ans A. Cancer
B. Malaria
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. T.B
Q.1 Consider the following statements about an air-pollutant –
1. It is produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels like petrol, natural gas, coal or
wood.
2. It is colourless and odourless gas.
Which of the following gases is being talked about?
Ans A. CO2
B. CO
C. NO2
D. SO2
Q.2 Biomagnification of which of the following can lead to disturbed calcium metabolism
and ultimately thinning of eggshells of birds?
Ans A. Zinc
B. Mercury
C. DDT
D. Lead
Q.3 Which of the following is present in the Prokaryotic cell?

Ans A. Chloroplast
B. Cytoplasm
C. Lysosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.4 Which of the following phenomenon converts nitrogen into oxides of nitrogen?
Ans A. Greenhouse effect
B. Lightning
C. Raining
D. Snowing
Q.5 Gustatory receptor present in-

Ans A. Tongue
B. Eye
C. Hand
D. Nose
Q.6 Which of the following is found in plant cells only?

Ans A. Vacuoles
B. Centrosome
C. Granules
D. Plastids
Q.7 Myopia can be caused due to–
1. excessive curvature of the eye lens

2. elongation of the eyeball
Choose the correct code-
B. Only 1 but not 2
C. Either 1 or 2
D. Only 2 but not 1
Q.8 What is the average diameter of the eyeball of a human?

Ans A. .23 cm
B. 2.3 mm
C. 2.3 cm
D. 23 cm
Q.9 Leishmania is a parasitic Protozoa which causes ______ disease.

Ans A. Dengue
B. Malaria
C. Kala- Azar
D. Small pox
Q.10 Which of the following parts of living organisms preferentially absorb UV rays, and its
high energy breaks the chemical bonds within these molecules?
Ans A. Carbohydrates and proteins
B. DNA and chromosomes
C. Carbohydrate and chromosomes
D. DNA and proteins
Q.11 Which of the following crops is a major source of proteins for energy requirement?
Ans A. Pigeon pea
B. Wheat
C. Maize
D. Linseed
Q.12 Where are the reflex arcs formed in our body?

Ans A. Spinal cord
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Liver
Q.13 Which of the following carry out cellular respiration and are called powerhouse of
cell?
Ans A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Both Ribosomes and Mitochondria
D. Nucleus
Q.14 How many enzymes are there in the pancreatic juice?

Ans A. 10
B. 8
C. 3
D. 6
Q.15 Which of the following is known as malarial parasite?

Ans A. Bunyaviridae
B. Wuchereria
C. Plasmodium
D. Taenia
Q.16 Mendel selected how many pairs of contrasting characters of pea plant for his
experiment?
Ans A. 5
B. 8
C. 6
D. 7
Q.17 Who is known as the father of genetics?

Ans A. Aristotle
B. Robert Hooke
C. Isaac Newton
D. Gregor Johann Mendel
Q.18 Many invertebrates like Planaria and some vertebrates like lizards replace lost body-
parts by ______.
Ans A. Fragmentation
B. Budding
C. Fission
D. Regeneration
Q.19 The carbohydrates which are not used immediately in plants are stored in which of the
following forms?
Ans A. Roughage
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. Protein
Q.20 Which of the following statements is correct?

Ans A. 12 pairs of cranial nerves emerge from the brain.
B. 42 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord.
C. 32 pairs of cranial nerves emerge from the brain.
D. 21 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord.
Q.1 How many different species do Indian cattle belong to?

Ans A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Q.2 What is the density of water at 4oC?

Ans A. 4 g/m3
B. 3 g/m3
C. 2 g/m3
D. 1g/m3
Q.3 Which of the following nutrients are provided by fertilisers to plants?
1. Nitrogen
2. Phosphorus
3. Potassium
Ans A. 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 1 and 2
D. Only 2 and 3
Q.4 Which of the following is the process of separation of solid from the liquid by allowing
the former to settle down and pouring off the latter?
Ans A. Decantation
B. Titration
C. Distillation
D. Filtration
Q.5 Carrot grass came to India when India imported -

Ans A. Wheat from Israel
B. Wheat from USA
C. Rice from Israel
D. Rice from USA
Q.6 How many ways are there for obtaining fish?

Ans A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Q.7 Taj Mahal is also a victim of pollution which has led to the same to suffer from ‘Marble
cancer’. Which of the following is mainly responsible for this?
Ans A. Water pollution
B. Smog
C. Photochemical smog
D. Acid Rain
Q.8 For which of the following factors is variety improvement done?
1. Change in maturity duration

2. Wider adaptability
Choose the suitable code.
Ans A. Both 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Only 1
Q.9 In which cropping pattern does the farmer get two crops simultaneously at one time or
within a short interval of time from the same field?
Ans A. Organic farming
B. Crop rotation
C. Mixed cropping
D. Multi cropping
Q.10 In India distribution through the ration system was initiated in the ______.
Ans A. 1970’s
B. 1940’s
C. 1960’s
D. 1950’s
Section : Teaching Methodology
Q.1 Under which organisation's aided project did NCERT develop an instructional material
titled "Science is Doing"?
Ans A. WHO
B. UNESCO
C. OECD
D. UNICEF
Q.2 Which of the following is not a feature of sex?

Ans A. It is nature-made.
B. It changes from time to time
C. It is individual based.
D. It is the biological construct.
Q.3 Which of the following is a correct statement regarding CCE?

Ans A. It is used to promote all round development of the students.
B. It includes only the summative evaluation.
C. It however, can't determine the process of learning.
D. Its full-form is Complete and Continuous Evaluation.
Q.4 In which of the following teaching method laws and principles are derived on the basis
of experiences, examples and experiments?
Ans A. Seminar
B. Story-telling method
C. Heuristic method
D. Inductive method
Q.5 A which stage the child should be engaged in learning principles of science through
familiar experiences, working with hands to design simple technological units and
modules (e.g. designing and making a working model of a windmill to lift weights) and
continuing to learn more on environment and health through activities and surveys?
Ans A. Primary stage
B. Higher-secondary stage
C. Secondary stage
D. Upper-primary stage
Q.6 Which of the following co-curricular activities is not related to the motor development
of students?
Ans A. Book binding
B. Clay modelling
C. Newspaper reading
D. Kitchen and flower gardening
Q.7 In which year did E. L. Thorndike develop the theory of trial and error learning?
Ans A. 1911
B. 1913
C. 1912
D. 1914
Q.8 Which of the following chapters of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provide for the
duties of appropriate Government, Local authority and Parents?
Ans A. IV
B. VI
C. V
D. III
Q.9 Which of the following sections of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the
constitution of State Advisory Council?
Ans A. 31
B. 34
C. 32
D. 33
Q.10 Which of the following is not a process by which children learn?
1. Imitation
2. Observation
Ans A. Both 1 and 2
B. Only 1
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Only 2

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2/3/22, 10:53 PM https://cdn.digialm.

Section : General Ability

D. Only I and III follow

B. Both I and II follow

C. Neither I nor II follows

What does letter ‘D’ represents?

Ans A. Doctors who work in hospital and is in social service

B. Doctors who work in hospital and personal clinic

C. Doctors who have pharmacy and personal clinic

D. Doctors who have pharmacy and work in hospital

(10, 12, 15)

B. (60, 62, 66)

C. (30, 32, 36)

D. (21, 23, 27)

B. Both I and II follow

B. Neither I nor II follows

C. Both I and II follow

Q.12 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

CGTM, JNMG, QUHA, XBBU, EIVO

What does letter ‘I’ represents?

Q.16 Find the number of triangle in the given figure.

TYC3, YEH9, ? , IQR21, NWW27

What is Ankit's profession?

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What is the name of the autobiography of Adolf hitler?

D. The Nazi Rule

Q.2 To which sport does the “hook pass” terminology belong?

Q.3 ______ is a classical dance form of Assam.

Q.5 When does the National Consumer Day observed in India?

Q.6 In 1921, ______ set up the National Fascist Party.

Q.8 Which ruler built the Mughal Gardens of Srinagar?

Q.9 Harappa was situated on the banks of the river ______.

Q.10 Which of the following is a Ferrous Mineral?

Q.11 Anodising is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of ______.

Q.12 ______ allots symbols to political parties in India.

C. The Party leaders

D. The Election Commission

Q.14 Trophic level in an ecosystem represents ______.

Q.15 The Renaissance first began in ______.

Q.17 In Amoeba, food is digested in a ______.

Q.18 Which city will host the Durand Cup 2021?

Section : Arithmetic Ability

Q.4 If (p – q) = 8, then what is the value of q3 - p3 + 24pq?

What is the number of valid votes polled in 1985?

If the number of females in colony B exceeds the number of children in colony C by

(6)3 + (2)3 + 3(6 × 2) 8= ?

Section : General English

Lack of skill, ability, or competence.

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

B. of pollution demand intervention at the same time

C. The document is silent on the exact science of prioritising

Tricks of the trade.

B. Special skills or knowledge

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Hold the fort.

B. To stop talking about something

C. To avoid being found guilty of a crime.

D. To finish something before time