INSTA July 2020 Current Affairs Quiz Compilation

INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS
QUIZ
JULY 2020
WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM WWW.INSIGHTSACTIVELEARN.COM
INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ
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Table of Contents
1. ECONOMY ....................................................................................................................................... 3
2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT....................................................................................................... 12
3. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ............................................................................... 30
4. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ........................................................................................................... 49
5. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS ........................................................................ 60
6. POLITY ........................................................................................................................................... 66
7. STATES ........................................................................................................................................... 68
8. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................... 70
9. MAPS / PLACES .............................................................................................................................. 72
10. MISCELLANEOUS ........................................................................................................................ 77
1. Economy
1) Consider the following statements.
1. In the last 5 years India’s external debt has never been higher than India’s forex reserves.
2. Commercial borrowings constitute the largest component of India’s external debt, followed by non-
resident deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
India’s external debt stood at $558.5 billion in March 2020, an increase of $15.4 billion compared with the year-
ago period, according to RBI data.
Commercial borrowings remained the largest component of the external debt, with a share of 39.4%, followed
by non-resident deposits at 23.4% and short-term trade credit at 18.2%.
Hitting an all-time high of $501.7 billion as on June 5, 2020, India has come a long way since its forex reserves of
$5.8 billion as of March 1991.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Compulsory licensing.

1. Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or
process without the consent of the patent owner.
2. It is included in the WTO’s Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights Agreement.
3. India grants compulsory licenses frequently for the production of generic drugs.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process
without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patent-protected invention itself. It is one of the
flexibilities in the field of patent protection included in the WTO’s agreement on intellectual property — the
TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement.
For compulsory licensing, it’s when the generic copy is produced mainly for the domestic market, not for export.
The patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid compensation for copies of the
products made under the compulsory licence.
The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.
However, the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine the
grounds for granting compulsory licences, and to determine what constitutes a national emergency.
In March 2012, India granted its first compulsory license ever. The license was granted to Indian generic drug
manufacturer Natco Pharma for Sorafenib tosylate, a cancer drug patented by Bayer.
Source Source
3) At any time after the expiration of three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person interested
may make an application for grant of compulsory licence on patent on which of the following grounds?
1. The reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been
satisfied.
2. The patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price.
3. The patented invention is worked in the territory of India by a non-Indian pharmaceutical company.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
At any time after the expiration of three years from the date of the grant of a patent, any person interested may
make an application to the Controller for grant of compulsory licence on patent on any of the following grounds,
namely:—
(a) that the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been
satisfied, or
(b) that the patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price, or
(c) that the patented invention is not worked in the territory of India.
Source

1. WTO uses the factors of trade and the level of economic development of a country as the criteria for
making a distinction between a developed and a developing country member.
2. World Bank uses per capita incomes as the criteria to classify countries as developed and developing
countries.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Under the WTO rules, any country can “self-designate” itself as a developing country. In fact, the WTO does not
lay down any specific criteria for making a distinction between a developed and a developing country
member, unlike in the World Bank where per capita incomes are used to classify countries.
Source
5) International Financial Services Centres can provide which of the following services.
1. Fund-raising services for only individuals and corporations.
2. Risk management operations such as insurance and reinsurance.
3. Merger and acquisition activities among trans-national corporations.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
An IFSC enables bringing back the financial services and transactions that are currently carried out in offshore
financial centers by Indian corporate entities and overseas branches / subsidiaries of financial institutions (FIs) to
India by offering business and regulatory environment that is comparable to other leading international financial
centers in the world like London and Singapore.
It would provide Indian corporates easier access to global financial markets.
What are the services an IFSC can provide?

o Fund-raising services for individuals, corporations and governments.
o Asset management and global portfolio diversification undertaken by pension funds, insurance
companies and mutual funds.
o Wealth management.
o Global tax management and cross-border tax liability optimization, which provides a business
opportunity for financial intermediaries, accountants and law firms.
o Global and regional corporate treasury management operations that involve fund-raising, liquidity
investment and management and asset-liability matching.
o Risk management operations such as insurance and reinsurance.
o Merger and acquisition activities among trans-national corporations.
Source
6) Consider the following statements regarding Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

1. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant real-time payment system developed by RBI.
2. It provides 2 Factor Authentication.
3. It is necessary to have a credit/debit card to perform UPI transaction.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 3 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: b)
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant real-time payment system developed by National Payments
Corporation of India facilitating inter-bank transactions. The interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of
India and works by instantly transferring funds between two bank accounts on a mobile platform.
UPI - Benefits
• Single click Two Factor authentication
• Round the clock availability
• Single Application for accessing different bank accounts
• Tap customers not having credit/debit cards
• Use of Virtual ID is more secure, no credential sharing
Source
7) Consider the following statements about prepaid payment instruments

1. Prepaid payment instruments are those which facilitate purchase of both goods and services against
the value stored on such instruments.
2. Inter-personal remittance transactions is not possible.
3. These payment instruments are licensed and regulated by the Ministry of Finance.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Prepaid payment instruments are those which facilitate purchase of goods and services against the value stored
on such instruments. Value stored on them is paid by the holder using a medium (cash, debit card, credit card
etc).
These are generally issued in the form of smart cards, mobile wallets, paper vouchers, internet accounts/wallets.
Prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) come with a pre-loaded value and in some cases a pre-defined purpose of
payment. They facilitate the purchase of goods and services as well as inter-personal remittance transactions
such as sending money to a friend or a family member.
These payment instruments are licensed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
Source
8) Teaser loan, sometimes seen in news means

a) Loans provided to high net worth individuals.
b) Loans provided to weaker sections of the society with interest rate below the repo rate.
c) Loans which charge lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the rates are increased.
d) None of the above
Solution: c)
Teaser loans are those which charge comparatively lower rates of interest in the first few years after which the
rates are increased.
Source
9) Consider the following statements regarding International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
1. International Financial Services Centres Authority will regulate financial products such as securities,
deposits, financial services, and financial institutions which have been previously approved by any appropriate
regulator in an International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs).
2. It will be headquartered in Gujarat.
3. It will be headed by the Union Finance Minister.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved the appointment of Injeti Srinivas, a retired IAS
officer, as Chairman of International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
He has been appointed as Chairman of IFSCA for a period of three years.
Besides the Chairman, IFSCA has a member each nominated from RBI, IRDAI, SEBI and PFRDA. There are also two
members from the Central Government and full-time or part time members in the Authority.
The finance ministry had established the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) through a
notification. The body will be headquartered in Gandhinagar in Gujarat, as per the notification.
With this, the government has established a unified authority to regulate all financial services in International
Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in the country.
Currently, the banking, capital markets and insurance sectors in IFSC are regulated by multiple regulators such as
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
The main function of the authority will be to regulate financial products such as securities, deposits or contracts
of insurance, financial services, and financial institutions which have been previously approved by any
appropriate regulator in an IFSC.
Source Source
10) Zombie firms, sometimes seen in news implies

a) Firms which earn sufficient profit to finance their debts
b) Firms with create more employment opportunities
c) Firms which are not able to cover their debt-servicing costs with current earnings.
d) Firms supported by the government without taxing on its profits
Solution: c)
Former Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian said India had moved from socialism with limited entry (for
firms) to capitalism without exit. Alas, capitalism without exit is zombieland, full of companies neither dead nor
alive.
The problem has been intensified by Covid-19 and lockdowns. These have mortally wounded lakhs of firms that
have then been rescued by loan moratoriums, loan guarantees, and evergreening of debts. This provides
immediate relief but creates ever-more zombies.
The rescues mounted by the government and RBI will, rightly, save fundamentally productive firms, but also,
wrongly, create many zombies.
In the financial world, companies on life support are called “Zombies”: Those firms which are not even able to
cover their debt-servicing costs with current earnings. They are in bad shape, and probably should have gone
out of business already. Yet, they are being kept alive.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding BHARAT Bond ETFs.

1. BHARAT Bond ETFs are passively managed mutual funds traded on BSE and NSE.
2. Bharat Bond ETF is India’s first corporate debt ETF.
2. They invest in "AAA", "AA" and "A" rated bonds issued by public sector undertakings.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Bharat Bond Exchange Traded Fund’s (ETF) second tranche witnessed a robust response, and was
oversubscribed more than three times.
The Bharat Bond ETF is India’s first corporate debt ETF.
Bharat Bond ETF is a basket of debt papers of Central Public Sector Undertakings, Central Public Sector
Enterprises, Central Public Financial Institutions and includes bonds of any other government organisation. It
invests in constituents of the Nifty Bharat Bond Indices, consisting of AAA rated public sector companies,
implying highest security.
Source
12) Which of the following entities come under the regulation of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
1. Investment Banks
2. Alternative Investment Funds
3. Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
4. Infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs)
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Some of the Financial entities regulated by SEBI.

Investment Banks
Capital Markets
Stock Brokers
Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
Infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs)
Stock Exchanges
Commodities Futures / Options
Alternative Investment Funds
13) Consider the following statements regarding Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
1. Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the RBI.
2. These are purely long-term borrowing used for developmental purposes.
3. The interest rate on WMA is the RBI’s repo rate.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently announced a 60% increase in the Ways and Means Advances (WMA)
limit of state governments over and above the level as on March 31, with a view to enabling them “to
undertake COVID-19 containment and mitigation efforts” and “to better plan their market borrowings”.
WMA it is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the RBI. These borrowings are meant purely
to help them to tide over temporary mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures. In that sense,
they aren’t a source of finance per se. Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934 authorises the central bank to lend to
the Centre and state governments subject to their being repayable “not later than three months from the date
of the making of the advance”.
The interest rate on WMA is the RBI’s repo rate, which is basically the rate at which it lends short-term money
to banks. The governments are, however, allowed to draw amounts in excess of their WMA limits. The interest
on such overdraft is 2 percentage points above the repo rate. Further, no state can run an overdraft with the RBI
for more than a certain period.
Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.

1. The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by
the BRICS states.
2. The state governments in India can seek loan assistance from NDB.
3. India is the second largest shareholder of the NDB.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral
development bank established by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
"The Bank shall support public or private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and
other financial instruments." Moreover, the NDB "shall cooperate with international organizations and other
financial entities, and provide technical assistance for projects to be supported by the Bank."
The authorized capital for NDB is $100 Billion while initial subscribed capital is $50 billion. Initial subscribed
capital was equally distributed among the founding members {$10 billion each}. Voting power of each member
is equal to the number of its subscribed shares in capital stock.
New Development Bank (NDB) had decided to lend Rs 6,000 crores to Andhra Pradesh Government for various
projects.
15) Which of the following are the functions of Banks Board Bureau (BBB)?
1. Improve the governance of Public Sector Banks.
2. Advise the government on top-level bank appointments.
3. Provide adequate capital to the Public Sector Banks to deal with bad loans.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
• Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was set up in February 2016 as an autonomous body– based on the
recommendations of the RBI-appointed PJ Nayak Committee to improve governance of Public Sector Banks
(PSBs).
• It was the part of Indradhanush Plan of government.
• It had replaced Appointments Board of Government.
• Its broad agenda is to improve governance at state-owned lenders. Its mandate also involved advising the
government on top-level bank appointments and assisting banks with capital-raising plans as well as
strategies to deal with bad loans.
• It guides banks on mergers and consolidations and governance issues to address bad loans problem among
other issues.
Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Special economic zones (SEZs) in India.
1. The SEZ Act 2005 envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of
related infrastructure in SEZs.
2. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules.
3. SEZs are exempted from Minimum Alternate tax (MAT).
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in which the business and trade laws are different from the rest of the
country. SEZs are located within a country's national borders, and their aims include increased trade balance,
employment, increased investment, job creation and effective administration.
The main objectives of the SEZ Scheme is generation of additional economic activity, promotion of exports of
goods and services, promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources, creation of employment
opportunities along with the development of infrastructure facilities. All laws of India are applicable in SEZs
unless specifically exempted as per the SEZ Act/ Rules. Sales in the Domestic Tariff Area from the SEZ units are
treated as if the goods are being imported and are subject to payment of applicable customs duties.
SEZs were introduced to India in 2000, following the already successful SEZ model used in China. Prior to their
introduction, India relied on export processing zones (EPZs) which failed to make an impact on foreign investors.
By 2005, all EPZs had been converted to SEZs.
The SEZ Act 2005 envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of related
infrastructure.
Exemption from Minimum Alternate tax (MAT) was withdrawn w.e.f. 1.4.2012.
Source Source
17) Consider the following statements regarding SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunications).
1. SWIFT is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information and
instructions through a standardized system of codes.
2. SWIFT does not facilitate any funds transfer.
3. SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and SWIFT.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications) is a cooperative society under Belgian
law owned by its member financial institutions with offices around the world.
SWIFT messaging system is a messaging network that financial institutions use to securely transmit information
and instructions through a standardized system of codes. Under SWIFT, each financial organization has a unique
code which is used to send and receive payments.
SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by
correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other.
The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier — in other words, it transports messages from one bank to its
intended bank recipient.
SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and SWIFT (Society for Worldwide
Interbank Financial Telecommunication). The company was created to deliver high quality domestic financial
messaging services to the Indian financial community.
2. Ecology and Environment

1) In India, which of the following are considered as ‘exotic wildlife species’
1. Animals named under Appendices I, II and III of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.
2. Species from the Schedules of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
The Environment Ministry’s wildlife division has introduced new rules to regulate the import and export of
‘exotic wildlife species’.
Currently, it is the Directorate-General of Foreign Trade, Ministry of Commerce, that oversees such trade.
Under the new rules, owners and possessors of such animals and birds must also register their stock with the
Chief Wildlife Warden of their States.
Officials of the Wildlife Department will also prepare an inventory of such species and have the right to inspect
the facilities of such traders to check if these plants and animals are being housed in salubrious conditions.
Additionally, stockists will have six months to declare their stock.
The advisory, issued recently, also says ‘exotic wildlife species’ will mean animals named under Appendices I, II
and III of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.
It will not include species from the Schedules of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
The CITES is part of a multilateral treaty that includes plant, animals and birds under varying categories of threat
of extinction and which will be jointly protected by members of the International Union for Conservation of
Nature. India is a signatory to this.
According to World Wildlife Crime Report 2016 of the UN, criminals are illegally trading products derived from
over 7,000 species of wild animals and plants across the world.
In its first global report on the illegal wildlife trade, released recently, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
described wildlife trafficking as a “global threat”, which also has links with other organised crimes such as
modern slavery, drug trafficking and arms trade.
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is an organisation that is tasked with monitoring illegal trade.
Source
2) Polycrack technology, recently seen in news is related to

a) Beekeeping in controlled environment
b) Building Earthquake-resistant structures
c) Detecting fake passports and currency notes
d) Converting feedstock into hydrocarbon liquid fuels
Solution: d)
The country’s first Government-owned Waste-to-Energy Plant was commissioned at the Mancheswar Carriage
Repair Workshop in Odisha.
The plant, a patented technology called Polycrack, is first-of-its-kind in the Indian Railways and fourth in the
country. It converts multiple feed stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water.
What is Polycrack?
It is the world’s very first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which converts multiple feedstocks into
hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon as well as water.
The waste generated will become the feeder material for the waste to energy plant.
The energy which will be produced at the plant, will be in the form of light diesel oil and this oil will be used to
light furnaces.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Schedule V of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
1. The State Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in
Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to be vermin.
2. The hunted wildlife is considered as ‘government property’ and restrictions are imposed on how these
carcasses must be disposed.
3. Earlier wild boar, rhesus macaque, and nilgai have been declared as vermin.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Section 62 in The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Declaration of certain wild animals to be vermin.—
States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin.
[The Central Government] may, by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule
I and Part II of Schedule II to be vermin for any area and for such period as may be specified therein and so long
as such notification is in force, such wild animal shall be deemed to have been included in Schedule V.
Since 2015, the Union Environment Ministry has acceded to requests from Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and
Bihar to declare wild boar, rhesus macaque, and nilgai as vermin within specified territories of these States, and
outside forests and protected areas. Wildlife laws also consider hunted wildlife as ‘government property’ and
impose restrictions on how these carcasses must be disposed.
Wildlife laws divide species into ‘schedules’ ranked from I to V. Schedule I members are the best protected, in
theory, with severe punishments meted out to those who hunt them. Wild boars, nilgai and rhesus monkeys are
Schedule II and III members — also protected, but can be hunted under specific conditions. Crows and fruit bat
fall in Schedule 5, the vermin category.
There are laws in the Wildlife Act that empower every State’s Chief Wildlife Warden to authorise hunters to
cull animals in a region where they are a proven nuisance.
4) Stockholm Declaration 1972, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Regulation of international trade in conventional weapons.
b) Global Security
c) Environment and development
d) Women's empowerment
Solution: c)
The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment was held in Stockholm, Sweden from June 5–16 in
1972. The meeting agreed upon a Declaration containing 26 principles concerning the environment and
development; an Action Plan with 109 recommendations, and a Resolution.
Source
5) Consider the following statements regarding Decarbonizing Transport in Emerging Economies project.
1. Niti Ayog has been instrumental in the launch of Decarbonizing Transport in Emerging Economies
project in India.
2. The project will help India develop a pathway towards a low-carbon transport system.
3. Out of the total carbon dioxide emissions in India, more than 50 percent come from the transport
sector.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
NITI Aayog and the International Transport Forum of OECD jointly launched the Decarbonizing Transport in
Emerging Economies project, in India.
The ambitious five-year project will help India develop a pathway towards a low-carbon transport system
through the development of modelling tools and policy scenarios.
The DTEE project would help India translate its climate ambitions into actions.
The transport sector of India is the third most greenhouse gas emitting sector, where the major contribution
comes from the road transport sector.
Out of the total carbon dioxide emissions in India, 13 percent come from the transport sector. These emissions
have more than tripled since 1990.
Source
6) Consider the following statements regarding Conservation reserves and community reserves.
1. Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of
India which typically act as buffer zones between national parks.
2. These categories were first introduced in the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
3. Lakshadweep Islands recently announced the creation of the world’s first conservation area for sea
cucumbers.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1 only
Solution: c)
The Lakshadweep Islands administration has announced the creation of the world’s first conservation area —
239 sq. km — for endangered sea cucumbers. The announcement came after reports of smuggling of sea
cucumbers and other vulnerable marine species for sale in east Asia.
Sea cucumbers are invertebrates ranging in sizes up to six feet (1.8m). The species is high in demand across
south-east Asia, mainly China, for food and traditional medicine. In India, the species is listed under Schedule I of
the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972, akin to the protection for a tiger, leopard or elephant. They cannot be
transported in any form for commercial use and are also protected under the Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species (CITES), which India is a signatory. A total ban on harvesting of sea cucumbers was
imposed in 2001 under the WPA by the Union environment ministry.
The creation of a protected area puts restrictions on entry and a ban on collection or trade of corals, sea
cucumbers or any other Schedule I (under Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972) marine organisms.
Conservation reserves are protected areas categorised by the Union environment ministry under the Wildlife
(Protection) Amendment Act, 2002. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around
existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land and land use.
Source
7) Consider the following statements regarding Wetlands.

1. In India, Wetlands are regulated under the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986.
2. Wetlands International is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation that works to sustain and
restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Wetlands are regulated under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. The 2010 version of
the Rules provided for a Central Wetland Regulatory Authority; the 2017 Rules replace it with state-level bodies
and created a National Wetland Committee, which functions in an advisory role. The newer regulations removed
some items from the definition of “wetlands” including backwaters, lagoon, creeks, and estuaries.
Wetlands International is a global organisation that works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources
for people and biodiversity. It is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, supported by government
and NGO membership from around the world.
8) Consider the following statements regarding ‘State of India’s Birds 2020’ report.
1. It is the first comprehensive assessment of range, abundance and conservation status of birds in India,
that was released during the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS
COP13).
2. The report is prepared by BirdLife International.
3. Much of the data is based on citizen science, that is information provided by birdwatchers through
various platforms.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The ‘State of India’s Birds 2020’ report, the first comprehensive assessment of range, abundance and
conservation status of birds in India, has underlined concerns about some bird species and good news about a
few others.
Released during CMS COP13, the international conference held in Gandhinagar, the report was prepared as a
partnership among 10 organisations including the World Wildlife Fund, Wildlife Institute of India and Nature
Biodiversity Authority-India. Much of its data is based on citizen science — information provided by
birdwatchers through various platforms.
867: The number of bird species whose status was assessed. This assessment is based on three indices: long-
term trend in abundance (over 25+ years); current annual trend in abundance (last 5 years); and distribution
range size.
Source
9) Consider the following statements regarding Black Carbon.

1. Black carbon is a component of fine particulate matter, formed through the incomplete combustion
of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass.
2. Black carbon increases the albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
3. In the tropics, black carbon in soils significantly contributes to the soil fertility.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1 only
Solution: b)
Black carbon (BC) is a component of fine particulate matter. Black carbon consists of pure carbon in several
linked forms. It is formed through the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass, and is emitted
in both anthropogenic and naturally occurring soot. Black carbon causes human morbidity and premature
mortality.
In climatology, black carbon is a climate forcing agent. Black carbon warms the Earth by absorbing sunlight and
heating the atmosphere and by reducing albedo when deposited on snow and ice.
Black carbon stays in the atmosphere for only several days to weeks, whereas carbon dioxide (CO
2) has an atmospheric lifetime of more than 100 years.
The term black carbon is also used in soil sciences and geology. Especially in the tropics, black carbon in soils
significantly contributes to fertility as it is able to absorb important plant nutrients.
Source Source
10) Recently a rare orchid species Eulophia obtuse, also known as ground orchid was rediscovered in India after
more than 100 years in which state
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Kerala
c) Uttarakhand
d) Uttar Pradesh
Solution: d)
A rare orchid species — Eulophia obtusa — also known as ground orchid has been rediscovered in India after
forest officials and wildlife experts on a routine inspection in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh chanced
upon the white flower with bright pink hues.
In India, the species — listed as “critically endangered” in the IUCN Red List of endangered species — was last
recorded in Pilibhit in 1902. The species was originally described from Uttarakhand in the 19th century. It was
collected by botanists from Gangetic plains but there have been no sightings in the past 100 years. In 2008, the
plant species was sighted in Bangladesh for the first time.
Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and
Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
1. Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an
independent intergovernmental body established to improve the interface between science and policy on issues
of biodiversity and ecosystem services.
2. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
3. India is a member to IPBES.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an

independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for
biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human
well-being and sustainable development. It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94
Governments. It is not a United Nations body. However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the
authorization of the UNEP Governing Council in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
provides secretariat services to IPBES.
IPBES currently has over 134 member States. A large number of NGOs, organizations, conventions and civil
society groupings also participate in the formal IPBES process as observers, with several thousand individual
stakeholders, ranging from scientific experts to representatives of academic and research institutions, local
communities and the private sector, contributing to and benefiting from our work.
The work of IPBES can be broadly grouped into four complementary areas:
- Assessments: On specific themes (e.g. “Pollinators, Pollination and Food Production”); methodological issues
(e.g. “Scenarios and Modelling); and at both the regional and global levels (e.g. “Global Assessment of
Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services”).
- Policy Support: Identifying policy-relevant tools and methodologies, facilitating their use, and catalyzing their
further development.
- Building Capacity & Knowledge: Identifying and meeting the priority capacity, knowledge and data needs of
our member States, experts and stakeholders.
- Communications & Outreach: Ensuring the widest reach and impact of our work.
Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding Global Tiger Initiative (GTI).
1. Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) is a global alliance of governments, international organizations, civil
society, the conservation and scientific communities and the private sector, with the aim of working together to
save wild tigers from extinction.
2. The initiative is led by all tiger range countries (TRCs).
3. The scope of GTI also includes Asiatic Lions.
4. World Bank is one of the founding partners of GTI.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 4
Solution: b)
The Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) was launched in 2008 as a global alliance of governments, international
organizations, civil society, the conservation and scientific communities and the private sector, with the aim of
working together to save wild tigers from extinction. In 2013, the scope was broadened to include Snow
Leopards.
The GTI’s founding partners included the World Bank, the Global Environment Facility (GEF), the Smithsonian
Institution, Save the Tiger Fund, and International Tiger Coalition (representing more than 40 non-government
organizations). The initiative is led by the 13 tiger range countries (TRCs).
In November 2010, leaders of the tiger range countries (TRCs) assembled at an International Tiger Forum in St.
Petersburg, Russia to adopt the St. Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation and endorsed its
implementation mechanism, called the Global Tiger Recovery Program. Their overarching goal was to double
the number of wild tigers across their geographical area from about 3,200 to more than 7,000 by 2022.
Source

1. A wetland is a land area that is saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally, and it takes on
the characteristics of a distinct ecosystem.
2. In India, Wetlands are regulated under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.
3. National Wetland Committee make binding advices to the Government on appropriate policies and
measures to be taken for conservation and management of the wetlands.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
National Wetland Committee advices are not binding.
14) Which of the following states in North-East India have Tiger Reserves.
1. Assam
2. Nagaland
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Mizoram
5. Manipur
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: a)
Only 3 states in North-East India have Tiger Reserves. They are in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram.
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme.
1. Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a flagship programme of NITI Ayog.
2. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme aims to reduce energy consumption and promote
enhanced energy efficiency among specific energy intensive industries in the country.
3. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) is one of the eight national missions under
the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a programme launched by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(BEE) to reduce energy consumption and promote enhanced energy efficiency among specific energy intensive
industries in the country.
Those that overachieved the targets were awarded Energy Saving Certificates or ESCerts.
Those unable to meet their assigned targets were required to purchase ESCerts (from the overachievers)
through a centralised online trading mechanism hosted by the Indian Energy Exchange (IEX).
National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) is one of the eight national missions under the
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) launched by the Government of India in the year 2008.
Source Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Coalbed methane (CBM).

1. Coalbed methane like Shale gas is extracted directly from the rock that is the source of the gas.
2. CBM can be used for power generation, as compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel and as feedstock
for fertilisers.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Coalbed methane (CBM):
CBM, like shale gas, is extracted from what are known as unconventional gas reservoirs — where gas is extracted
directly from the rock that is the source of the gas (shale in case of shale gas and coal in case of CBM).
The methane is held underground within the coal and is extracted by drilling into the coal seam and removing
the groundwater. The resulting drop in pressure causes the methane to be released from the coal.
According to the Central Mine Planning and Design Institute (CMPDI), CBM can be used for power generation, as
compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel, as feedstock for fertilisers, industrial uses such as in cement
production, rolling mills, steel plants, and for methanol production.
Source
17) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Zombie fires’ recently seen in news
1. A zombie fire is a fire that continues to burn underground and then reignites on the surface after a
period of time.
2. It burrow deep in organic soils such as peat lands.
3. There are evidences of zombie fires scattered across the Arctic region.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Dormant "zombie fires" are scattered across the Arctic region. A zombie fire is a fire that continues to burn
underground and then reignites on the surface after a period of time. Embers deep in organic soils such as peat
lands can spark into flames weeks, months and even years later.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding Marine heatwaves.

1. Marine heat waves occur only during summer and not during winter.
2. They can occur in both Equatorial regions and higher latitudes.
3. El Nino can also lead to marine heatwaves.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
Solution: c)
Heatwaves can also occur in the ocean and these are known as marine heatwaves, or MHWs. These marine
heatwaves, when ocean temperatures are extremely warm for an extended period of time can have significant
impacts on marine ecosystems and industries. Marine heatwaves can occur in summer or winter - they are
defined based on differences with expected temperatures for the location and time of year.
The most common drivers of marine heatwaves include ocean currents which can build up areas of warm water
and air-sea heat flux, or warming through the ocean surface from the atmosphere.
El Nino can also lead to marine heatwaves.
Source Source
19) Consider the following statements regarding Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation
(REDD+).
1. Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by
Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. Developing countries would receive results-based payments for results-based actions.
3. REDD+ also focus on conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest
carbon stocks.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Deforestation and forest degradation account for approximately 11 percent of carbon emissions, more than the
entire global transportation sector and second only to the energy sector.
Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties
to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It creates a financial value for the
carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested
lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development. Developing countries would receive results-
based payments for results-based actions. REDD+ goes beyond simply deforestation and forest degradation and
includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was established at COP-17 to function as the financial mechanism for the
UNFCCC, thereby including REDD+ finance. The Warsaw Framework on REDD-plus makes various references to
the GCF, instructing developing country Parties to apply to the GCF for result-based finance. The GCF currently
finances REDD+ programs in phase 1 (design of national strategies or action plans, capacity building) and phase 2
(implementation of national strategies or action plans, demonstration programs).
Uganda has become the first African country to submit results for Reducing emissions from deforestation and
forest degradation (REDD+) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Results-based payments comprise the final REDD+ phase. It provides financial incentives to developing countries
that prove they stopped deforestation during a certain period of time. This is done through rigorous UN-backed
technical evaluations.
Source Source
20) Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) and Forest Investment Program (FIP) are the initiatives by
a) UN Environment
b) World Bank
c) United Nations Development Programme
d) Food and Agriculture Organisation
Solution: b)
Forest Investment Programme (FIP) was established by the World Bank in 2009 for supporting sustainable forest
management and reforestation activities, in line with REDD+ objectives.
Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a World Bank programme and consists of a Readiness Fund and a
Carbon Fund. The FCPF was created to assist developing countries to reduce emissions from deforestation and
forest degradation, enhance and conserve forest carbon stocks, and sustainably manage forests (REDD+).
21) Consider the following statements regarding UN-REDD Programme.

1. UN-REDD Programme is a collaborative programme of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO),
the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The overall development goal of the Programme is to reduce forest emissions and enhance carbon
stocks in forests while contributing to national sustainable development.
3. The UN-REDD Programme depends entirely on voluntary funds.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
United Nations Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (UN-REDD
Programme) is a collaborative programme of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
(FAO), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP), created in 2008 in response to the UNFCCC decisions on the Bali Action
Plan and REDD at COP-13.
The overall development goal of the Programme is "to reduce forest emissions and enhance carbon stocks in
forests while contributing to national sustainable development". The UN-REDD Programme supports nationally
led REDD+ processes and promotes the informed and meaningful involvement of all stakeholders, including
indigenous peoples and other forest-dependent communities, in national and international REDD+
implementation.
The Programme has expanded steadily since its establishment and now has over 60 official Partner Countries
spanning Africa, Asia-Pacific and Latin America-Caribbean.
The UN-REDD Programme depends entirely on voluntary funds.
Source
22) Consider the following statements regarding Methane Emissions.

1. Wetlands contribute the maximum share for the global methane emissions.
2. Temperate regions and Arctic are the major contributors of Methane.
3. Methane is categorised as a Short-lived climate pollutant, that have relatively short lifetime in the
atmosphere.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The amount of methane in Earth’s atmosphere continues to rise. That is the conclusion of two new studies from
the Global Carbon Project.
They found that global emissions of the potent greenhouse gas totalled 576 million metric tons per year for the
2008 to 2017 decade—a 9 percent increase compared to the previous decade.
Across the study years, wetlands contributed 30 percent of global methane emissions, with oil, gas, and coal
activities accounting for 20 percent. Agriculture, including enteric fermentation and manure management, made
up 24 percent of emissions, and landfills comprised 11 percent. Sixty-four percent of emissions came from
tropical regions of South America, Asia, and Africa, with temperate regions accounting for 32 percent and the
Arctic contributing 4 percent.
Short-lived climate pollutants are powerful climate forcers that remain in the atmosphere for a much shorter
period of time than carbon dioxide (CO2), yet their potential to warm the atmosphere can be many times
greater. Certain short-lived climate pollutants are also dangerous air pollutants that have harmful effects for
people, ecosystems and agricultural productivity.
The short-lived climate pollutants: black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and hydrofluorocarbons are the
most important contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect after carbon dioxide, responsible for up
to 45% of current global warming.
Source Source
23) Consider the following statements regarding Kaziranga National Park.

1. Kaziranga National Park hosts 90% of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses.
2. Kaziranga is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for conservation of
avifaunal species.
3. It is declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Kaziranga National Park is a national park in the Golaghat, Karbi Anglong and Nagaon districts of the state
of Assam. The sanctuary, which hosts two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses, is a World
Heritage Site.
The park is home to large breeding populations of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer. Kaziranga is
recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for conservation of avifaunal species.
Located on the edge of the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot, the park combines high species diversity and
visibility.
Assam is traditionally flood prone, and the 1,055 sq km Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve (KNPTR) —
sandwiched between the Brahmaputra river and the Karbi Anglong Hills — is no exception. Among experts there
is a consensus that floods are necessary for Kaziranga by virtue of its ecosystem. “It is a riverine ecosystem, not a
solid landmass-based ecosystem. “The system won’t survive without water.” The entire area of Kaziranga —
formed by alluvial deposits from the Brahmaputra and its tributaries — is centred around the river.
The regenerative nature of floods helps replenish Kaziranga’s water bodies and maintain its landscape, a mix of
wetlands, grasslands and semi-evergreen deciduous forests.
The floodwaters also function as a breeding ground for fish. “The same fish are carried away by the receding
waters into the Brahmaputra — in a way, the park replenishes the river’s stock of fish too.
The waters also help get rid of unwanted plants such as water hyacinth which collect in huge masses in the
landscape. “In a herbivore-dominated area like Kaziranga, it is important we maintain its grassland status. If it
were not for the annual floods, the area would become a woodland.
Many also believe that floods are a way of natural selection. “A number of animals — especially the old, weak —
cannot survive the floods. Only the ones with superior genes survive.
Source
24) Melghat Tiger Reserve, recently in news is located in

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Maharashtra
c) Karnataka
d) Tamil Nadu
Solution: b)
Melghat was declared a tiger reserve and was among the first nine tiger reserves notified in 1973-74 under
the Project Tiger. It is located in northern part of Amravati District of Maharashtra State in India. The Tapti
River and the Gawilgadh ridge of the Satpura Range form the boundaries of the reserve.
Source

1. Flue-gas desulfurization technology is used to reduce air pollution from coal power plants.
2. The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is through vehicular pollution.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
According to an analysis of a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) data released by
environmental NGO Greenpeace, India has more than 15% of all anthropogenic sulphur dioxide (SO2) hotspots
in the world detected by the OMI (Ozone Monitoring Instrument) satellite.
The major SO2 emission hotspots in India are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Neyveli and Chennai in Tamil Nadu,
Talcher and Jharsuguda in Odisha, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Kutch in Gujarat, Ramagundam in Telangana and
Chandrapur and Koradi in Maharashtra.
The vast majority of plants in India lack flue-gas desulfurization technology to reduce their air pollution,
according to the analysis.
As per country-wise world rankings, India was found at the top position in emitting SO2 as it has the maximum
hotspots.
The report said SO2 emissions are a significant contributor to air pollution. The largest source of SO2 in the
atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels in power plants and other industrial facilities.
Source

1. A mobile-based application called KURMA, aimed at turtle conservation, was launched recently.
2. Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) is an action-oriented global partnership working in turtle diversity
hotspots around the world.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
Wildlife enthusiasts can now help scientists and conservationists by updating photos and information on turtles
on the newly launched Kurma mobile application, launched on the occasion of World Turtle Day.
The application, developed by the Indian Turtle Conservation Action Network (ITCAN) in collaboration with the
Turtle Survival Alliance-India and Wildlife Conservation Society-India, not only provides users a database to
identify a species but also provides the location of the nearest rescue centre for turtles across the country.
Kurma app provides a platform for the exchange of vital information on turtles, promises to engage the general
public in ground data collection and provide assistance to enforcement agencies / forest departments.
Tortoise and freshwater turtles are among the most trafficked in the country. A report released in 2019 by
TRAFFIC, an international wildlife trade monitoring organisation, showed that at least 200 tortoises and
freshwater turtles fall prey to illicit poaching and smuggling every week, or 11,000 each year, adding up to over
1,11,130 turtles poached or smuggled between September 2009 and September 2019.
One of the major challenges for freshwater turtle conservation in the country is that wildlife crime prevention
agencies are not sufficiently equipped to know how to distinguish one species from the other, or their
protection status in accordance with CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) and the
Wildlife Protection Act.
The Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) was formed in 2001 as an International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) partnership for sustainable captive management of freshwater turtles and tortoises. Today, the TSA is an
action-oriented global partnership, focusing on species that are at high risk of extinction, and working in turtle
diversity hotspots around the world. Widely recognized as a global catalyst for turtle conservation based on its
reputation for swift and decisive action, the TSA has made a bold commitment to zero turtle extinctions in the
21st Century. The TSA is a recognized force for turtle conservation globally.
Source Source
27) Fly ash is a fine powder that is a by-product of burning pulverized coal in electric generation power plants.
Which of the following are the applications of Fly Ash?
1. Increases the yield of many agricultural crops.
2. Fly ash bricks offer high strength and durability.
3. Filling material for roads and filling abandoned mines.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Fly-ash is used in various sectors like brick making, roads & embankments construction, cement manufacturing,
agricultural uses, reclamation of low-lying areas and mine filling.
Fly-ash has great potentiality in agriculture due to its efficacy in modification of soil health and crop
performance. The high concentration of elements (K, Na, Zn, Ca, Mg and Fe) in fly-ash increases the yield of
many agricultural crops.
Fly-ash bricks are more popular presently since it weighs 28% less than clay bricks as well as shows higher
strength.
28) Consider the following statements regarding Climate & Clean Air Coalition.
1. Climate & Clean Air Coalition is an initiative of Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) for
protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors.
2. It acts as a catalyst to create, implement and share immediate solutions addressing near-term climate
change to improve people’s lives.
3. The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
India has formally joined the Climate & Clean Air Coalition (CCAC), becoming the 65th country to join the
partnership.
The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society and private
sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-
lived climate pollutants across sectors. Complementary to mitigating CO2 emissions, the Coalition acts as a
catalyst to create, implement and share immediate solutions addressing near-term climate change to improve
people’s lives rapidly, and to ensure sustainable development for future generations.
The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs.
At the same time, partners recognize that action on short-lived climate pollutants must complement and
supplement, not replace, global action to reduce carbon dioxide, in particular efforts under the UNFCCC. The
Coalition's objectives are to address short-lived climate pollutants by:
• Raising awareness of short-lived climate pollutant impacts and mitigation strategies
• Enhancing and developing new national and regional actions, including by identifying and overcoming
barriers, increasing capacity, and mobilizing support
• Promoting best practices and showcasing successful efforts
• Improving scientific understanding of short-lived climate pollutant impacts and mitigation strategies
Source
29) Which of the following are the endemic species of the Western Ghats.
1. Nilgiri tahr
2. Lion-tailed macaque
3. Purple Frog
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The hill ranges of the Western Ghats, a global biodiversity hotspot, extend along the west coast of India from the
river Tapti in the north to the southern tip of India.
The Western Ghats contain more than 30 per cent of all plant, fish, herpeto-fauna, bird, and mammal species
found in India. Many species are endemic, such as the Nilgiri tahr (Hemitragus hylocrius) and the lion-tailed
macaque (Macaca silenus).
The amphibians of the Western Ghats are diverse and unique, with more than 80% of the 179 amphibian species
being endemic. The endangered purple frog was discovered in 2003. Several families of frogs, namely of the
genera Micrixalus, Indirana, Nyctibatrachus, are endemic to this region.
Source
30) Consider the following statements regarding Golden langur.

1. It is one of the most endangered primate species of India.
2. It is found only in India.
3. They are listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Gee's golden langur also known as the golden langur, is an Old World monkey found in a small region of western
Assam, India and in the neighboring foothills of the Black Mountains of Bhutan. It is one of the most endangered
primate species of India.
They are listed in Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Gee's golden langur is
currently endangered with the current population trend as decreasing.
The regions of its distribution are very small; the main region is limited to an area approximately 60 miles square
bounded on the south by the Brahmaputra River, on the east by the Manas River, on the west by the Sankosh
River, all in Assam, and on the north by the Black Mountains of Bhutan.
Source
31) The Green Climate Fund has been established by the

a) World Bank
b) United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
d) Bonn Convention
Solution: c)
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the world’s largest dedicated fund helping developing countries reduce their
greenhouse gas emissions and enhance their ability to respond to climate change. It was set up by the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010. GCF has a crucial role in serving the Paris
Agreement, supporting the goal of keeping average global temperature rise well below 2 degrees C. It does this
by channelling climate finance to developing countries, which have joined other nations in committing to climate
action.
Coming from a variety of sources, these resources address the pressing mitigation and adaptation needs of
developing countries.
Source
32) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

1. Some aerosols are reflective, i.e. when the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays back
out of the atmosphere.
2. Mist, dust, particulate air pollutants and smoke are the examples of anthropogenic aerosols.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
An aerosol is a suspension of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas. Aerosols can be natural
or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aerosols are fog, mist, dust, forest exudates and geyser steam. Examples
of anthropogenic aerosols are particulate air pollutants and smoke.
Aerosols influence climate in two primary ways: by changing the amount of heat that gets in or out of the
atmosphere, or by affecting the way clouds form.
Some aerosols, like many kinds of dust from ground-up rocks, are light-colored and even a little bit reflective.
When the sun’s rays beam down on them, they bounce the rays back out of the atmosphere, preventing that
heat from ever reaching Earth’s surface. The effect can be dramatic: The Mt. Pinatubo volcanic eruption in 1991,
in the Philippines, spewed the equivalent of 1.2 square miles of tiny, reflective rock particles into the high
stratosphere—cooling the planet for two full years afterward.
Source Source
3. Government Schemes and Programmes

1) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), sometimes seen in news is under which ministry
a) Ministry of External Affairs
b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
c) Ministry of Finance
d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Solution: b)
Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organisation is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce
and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade. DGFT is responsible for implementing
the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting India's exports. Keeping in line with liberalization
and globalization and the overall objective of increasing of exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of
“facilitator”. The shift was from prohibition and control of imports/exports to promotion and facilitation of
exports/imports, keeping in view the interests of the country.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) recently lifted the ban on export of anti-malarial drug
hydroxychloroquine and formulations made from it.
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
1. Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is an initiative of United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction (UNDRR).
2. It will support developed and developing nations in their efforts to build climate and disaster-resilient
infrastructure.
3. CDRI will also focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure and social infrastructure.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a global Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), at the
UN Climate Action Summit 2019 held in New York City, USA, on September 23, 2019.
The partnership of national governments, UN agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks,
financing mechanisms, private sector, and knowledge institutions will promote the resilience of new and existing
infrastructure systems to climate and disaster risks, thereby ensuring sustainable development.
Developed through consultations with more than 35 countries, CDRI envisions enabling measurable reduction in
infrastructure losses from disasters, including extreme climate events. CDRI thus aims to enable the
achievement of objectives of expanding universal access to basic services and enabling prosperity as enshrined
in the Sustainable Development Goals, while also working at the intersection of the Sendai Framework for
Disaster Risk Reduction and the Paris Climate Agreement.
Established as a platform for generating and exchanging knowledge, CDRI will conduct country-specific and
global activities. CDRI will provide member countries technical support and capacity development, research and
knowledge management, and advocacy and partnerships to facilitate and encourage investment in disaster
resilient infrastructure systems.
In its formative stage, CDRI will focus on developing resilience in ecological infrastructure, social infrastructure
with a concerted emphasis on health and education, and economic infrastructure with special attention to
transportation, telecommunications, energy, and water.
Source
3) Recently the Union Government banned 59 Chinese apps. The Government has the power to ban these apps
under
a) National Security Act of 1980
b) Internet Regulation Act, 1997
c) Information Technology Act, 2000
Solution: c)
The government has emergency powers under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act to block any
content where it is satisfied that it is against the country’s sovereignty, integrity, and defence, and in such cases
the law does not require it serving any prior notice to the concerned content providers before ordering a ban.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PM
FME) scheme.
1. The scheme will assist micro-food processing enterprises with credit-linked subsidy and special focus
will be on supporting farmer producers organisations, self-help groups and cottage industries in rural and tribal
regions.
2. The Government will adopt the ‘One District One Product (ODOP)’ approach.
3. States will be given complete flexibility in deciding what product needs to be promoted and from
which districts.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
In line with the Centre’s ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan’ initiative, the Ministry for Food Processing has launched
the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PM FME) scheme with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore.
The scheme will assist nearly 2 lakh micro-food processing enterprises with credit-linked subsidy and special
focus will be on supporting farmer producers organisations, self-help groups and cottage industries in rural and
tribal regions, over the next five years.
The expenditure under the scheme would to be shared in 60:40 ratio between the Central and State
governments and in 90:10 ratio with North Eastern and Himalayan States.
“The Ministry will adopt the ‘One District One Product (ODOP)’ approach and focus on scaling up existing
clusters. States will be given complete flexibility in deciding what product needs to be promoted and from which
districts”.
These could be perishable or cereal based products such as mango, potato, litchi, tomato, poultry or millet-
based products.
The Ministry has also formally announced the expansion of Operation Greens scheme from tomato, onion and
potato crops to all perishable fruits and vegetables. Under this scheme, 50 per cent subsidy will be provided for
six months for transportation of eligible crops from production clusters to consumption centres and for hiring
storage for three months.
Source

1. The government recently approved the creation of IN-SPACe, a space organisation to ensure greater
private participation in India’s space activities.
2. New Space India Limited (NSIL), is the only public sector company that serve as a marketing arm of
ISRO.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The government recently approved the creation of a new organisation to ensure greater private participation in
India’s space activities.
The new Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe), which is expected to be
functional within six months, will assess the needs and demands of private players, including educational and
research institutions, and, explore ways to accommodate these requirements in consultation with ISRO.
It is not that there is no private industry involvement in India’s space sector. In fact, a large part of
manufacturing and fabrication of rockets and satellites now happens in the private sector.
IN-SPACe is supposed to be a facilitator, and also a regulator. It will act as an interface between ISRO and
private parties, and assess how best to utilise India’s space resources and increase space-based activities.
The private industry will also free up ISRO to concentrate on science, research and development, interplanetary
exploration and strategic launches.
IN-SPACe is the second space organisation created by the government in the last two years. In the 2019 Budget,
the government had announced the setting up of a New Space India Limited (NSIL), a public sector company
that would serve as a marketing arm of ISRO. Its main purpose is to market the technologies developed by ISRO
and bring it more clients that need space-based services.
That role, incidentally, was already being performed by Antrix Corporation, another PSU working under the
Department of Space, and which still exists.
Source
6) Nikshay Poshan Yojana, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Reduce child mortality due to pneumonia
b) Provision of free dialysis services to the poor
c) National TB Elimination Program
d) National AIDS Control Program
Solution: c)
NI-KSHAY is the web enabled patient management system for TB control under the National Tuberculosis
Elimination Programme (NTEP). It is developed and maintained by the Central TB Division (CTD), Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC),
and the World Health Organization Country office for India.
Nikshay is used by health functionaries at various levels across the country both in the public and private sector,
to register cases under their care, order various types of tests from Labs across the country, record treatment
details, monitor treatment adherence and to transfer cases between care providers. It also functions as the
National TB Surveillance System and enables reporting of various surveillance data to the Government of India.
Source
7) The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) can designate individuals as “terrorists” under which of the following
provisions
a) National Security Act, 1980
b) Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
c) The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019
d) Only organisations can be designated as terrorist and not individuals
Solution: c)
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) designated nine more individuals as “terrorists” under the amended anti-
terror law that was passed by the Parliament in 2019.
The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), enacted in 1967, was first amended in 2004, 2008 and 2013.
The UAPA as amended in August 2019 gave the MHA the power to designate individuals as terrorists.
Source
8) Consider the following statements regarding Non-lapsable Central Pool of Resources scheme.
1. Non-lapsable Central Pool of Resources scheme aims to ensure speedy development of infrastructure
in the Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts.
2. Both physical and social infrastructure sectors are considered for providing support under the Central
Pool.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
The broad objective of the Non-lapsable Central Pool of Resources scheme is to ensure speedy development of
infrastructure in the North Eastern Region by increasing the flow of budgetary financing for new infrastructure
projects/schemes in the Region.
Both physical and social infrastructure sectors such as Irrigation and Flood Control, Power, Roads and Bridges,
Education, Health, Water Supply and Sanitation – are considered for providing support under the Central Pool,
with projects in physical infrastructure sector receiving priority.
The Ministry for Development of North-eastern Region (DoNER) allocates funds from NLCPR to various
Northeast states for infrastructure projects.
9) Revised Kisan Credit Card Scheme provides adequate and timely credit to the farmer for which of the
following needs
1. Post-harvest expenses
2. Consumption requirements of farmer household
3. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities
4. Produce Marketing loan
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
The scheme aims at providing adequate and timely cred it for the comprehensive credit requirements of farmers
under single window for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:
• To meet the short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
• Post-harvest expenses
• Produce Marketing loan
• Consumption requirements of farmer household
• Working capital for maintenance of farm assets, activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland
fishery and also working capital required for floriculture, horticulture etc.
• Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy
animals, floriculture, horticulture etc
• Short term credit requirements of rearing of animals, birds, fish, shrimp, other aquatic organisms,
capture of fish.
Source
10) Consider the following statements regarding MGNREGA.

1. The MGNREGA scheme contains a provision for districts affected by drought or other natural disaster
to request an expansion of the scheme to allow for 150 days of work per household.
2. The spending for MGNREGA as a percentage of GDP has decreased from 2014-15 to 2019-20.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
At least 1.4 lakh poor rural households have already completed their quota of 100 days of work under
MGNREGA in the first three months of the year, and will not be eligible for further benefits under the rural
employment guarantee scheme for the rest of the year.
The MGNREGA scheme contains a provision for districts affected by drought or other natural disaster to
request an expansion of the scheme to allow for 150 days of work per household.
With almost 60,000 households which have completed 100 days of work, Chhattisgarh has the highest rate
among States according to central scheme data, followed by Andhra Pradesh with almost 24,500 households in
this category.
Source

1. Under Drug (Price Control) Order, National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) cannot allow
Pharmaceutical companies to raise the prices of essential medicines.
2. The Drugs Prices Control Order is an order issued by the Government of India under Essential
Commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the prices of drugs.
3. All the drugs marketed in the country are under price control.
a) 1, 3
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) has used its emergency powers to allow companies to
raise the price of heparin, a critical blood thinning drug, by 50% until December end.
The pricing regulator cited shortages of the drug in India and rising costs of raw materials imported from China
as reasons for increasing the ceiling price using emergency powers under Paragraph 19 of the Drug (Price
Control) Order.
The Drugs Prices Control Order is an order issued by the Government of India under Sec. 3 of Essential
Commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the prices of drugs.
The Order interalia provides the list of price-controlled drugs, procedures for fixation of prices of drugs, method
of implementation of prices fixed by Govt., penalties for contravention of provisions etc.
Are all the drugs marketed in the country under price control?
No. The National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2011 is adopted as the primary basis for determining
essentiality, which constitutes the list of scheduled medicines for the purpose of price control. The DPCO 2013
contains more than 600 scheduled drug formulations spread across 27 therapeutic groups. However, the prices
of other drugs can be regulated, if warranted in public interest.
Source
12) Which of the following activities are prohibited within the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ).
1. Setting up of new industries and expansion of existing industries without any exceptions.
2. Discharge of untreated wastes and effluents from industries, cities or towns and other human
settlements.
3. Dumping of ash or any wastes from thermal power stations.
4. Mining of rare minerals that are not available outside the CRZ areas.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
Notification under section 3(1) and section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and rule 5(3)(d) of
the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986 declaring Coastal Stretches as Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) and
Regulating Activities in the CRZ.
The following activities are declared as prohibited within the Coastal Regulation Zone namely:
(i) setting up of new industries and expansion of existing industries, except those directly related to
water front or directly needing foreshore facilities;
(ii) manufacture or handling or storage or disposal of hazardous substances as specified in the
Notifications of the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment and Forests;
(iii) setting up and expansion of fish processing units including warehousing (excluding hatchery and
natural fish drying in permitted areas);
(iv) setting up and expansion of units/mechanism for disposal of waste and effluents, except facilities
required for discharging treated effluents into the water course with approval under the Water
(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; and except for storm water drains;
(v) discharge of untreated wastes and effluents from industries, cities or towns and other human
settlements. Schemes shall be implemented by the concerned authorities for phasing out the existing
practices, if any, within a reasonable time period not exceeding three years from the date of this
notification;
(vi) dumping of city or town waste for the purposes of land filling or otherwise; the existing practice, if
any, shall be phased out within a reasonable time not exceeding 3 years from the date of this
Notification;
(vii) dumping of ash or any wastes from thermal power stations;
(viii) land reclamation, funding or disturbing the natural course of sea water with similar obstructions,
except those required for control of coastal erosion and maintenance or clearing of waterways, channels
and ports and for prevention of sandbars and also except for tidal regulators, storm water drains and
structures for prevention of salinity ingress and for sweet water recharge;
(ix) mining of sand, rocks and other substrata materials, except those rare minerals not available
outside the CRZ areas;
(x) harvesting or drawal of ground water and construction of mechanisms therefore within 200 m of
HTL; in the 200 m to 500 m zone it shall be permitted only when done manually through ordinary wells
for drinking, horticulture, agriculture and fisheries;
(xi) construction activities in ecologically sensitive areas as specified in Annexure-I of this Notification;
(xii) any construction activity between the LTL and HTL except facilities for carrying treated effluents and
waste water discharges into the sea, facilities for carrying sea water for cooling purposes, oil, gas and
similar pipelines and facilities essential for activities permitted under this Notification; and
(xiii) dressing or altering of sand dunes, hills natural features including landscape charges for
beautification, recreational and other such purpose, except as permissible under the Notification.
Source
13) Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
1. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is a statutory body whose primary objective is of reducing energy
intensity of the Indian economy.
2. BEE give financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy and its conservation.
3. The items covered under the Star Labeling Programme includes Deep Freezers, Light Commercial Air
Conditioners, Domestic Gas Stove, Ballast and Microwave Oven.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Government of India set up Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) on 1st March 2002 under the provisions of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001. The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies
and strategies with a thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy
Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing energy intensity of the Indian economy.
The Major Promotional Functions of BEE include:

Create awareness and disseminate information on energy efficiency and conservation
Arrange and organize training of personnel and specialists in the techniques for efficient use of
energy and its conservation
Strengthen consultancy services in the field of energy conservation
Promote research and development
Develop testing and certification procedures and promote testing facilities
Formulate and facilitate implementation of pilot projects and demonstration projects
Promote use of energy efficient processes, equipment, devices and systems
Take steps to encourage preferential treatment for use of energy efficient equipment or
appliances
Promote innovative financing of energy efficiency projects
Give financial assistance to institutions for promoting efficient use of energy and its conservation
Prepare educational curriculum on efficient use of energy and its conservation
Implement international co-operation programmes relating to efficient use of energy and its
conservation
In a step further towards its vision of building an energy efficient India, the government-backed Bureau of
Energy Efficiency (BEE) has extended its list of items covered under the ‘Star Labeling Programme’ by adding
Deep Freezers and Light Commercial Air Conditioners (LCAC).
Standards & Labeling Program: The scheme was launched by the Hon'ble Minister of Power in May, 2006 and is
currently invoked for equipments/appliances Room Air Conditioner (Fixed Speed), Ceiling Fan, Colour Television,
Computer, Direct Cool Refrigerator, Distribution Transformer, Domestic Gas Stove, Frost Free Refrigerator,
General Purpose Industrial Motor, Monoset Pump, Openwell Submersible Pump Set, Stationary Type Water
Heater, Submersible Pump Set, Tfl, Washing Machine (Semi/Top Load/Front Load), Ballast, Solid State Inverter,
Office Automation Products, Diesel Engine Driven Monosetpumps For Agricultural Purposes, Diesel Generator
Set, Led Lamps, Room Air Conditioner (Variable Speed), Chillers, Agricultural Pumpset, Microwave Oven, Deep
Freezers, Light Commercial Ac Fixed Speed, Light Commercial Ac Variable Speed.
Source Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.

1. It provides financing facility for investment in projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure
and community farming assets.
2. Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), Self Help Group (SHG) and Joint Liability Groups (JLG) are the
beneficiaries under the scheme.
3. Interest subvention is provided to all loans under this financing facility.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi gave its approval to a new pan India Central
Sector Scheme-Agriculture Infrastructure Fund. The scheme shall provide a medium - long term debt financing
facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming
assets through interest subvention and financial support.
Under the scheme, Rs. One Lakh Crore will be provided by banks and financial institutions as loans to Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Marketing Cooperative Societies, Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs),
Self Help Group (SHG), Farmers, Joint Liability Groups (JLG), Multipurpose Cooperative Societies, Agri-
entrepreneurs, Startups, Aggregation Infrastructure Providers and Central/State agency or Local Body
sponsored Public Private Partnership Project.
All loans under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3% per annum up to a limit of Rs. 2 crore.
This subvention will be available for a maximum period of seven years. Further, credit guarantee coverage will
be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and
Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to Rs. 2 crore.
Agri Infra fund will be managed and monitored through an online Management Information System (MIS)
platform. It will enable all the qualified entities to apply for loan under the fund.
The National, State and District level Monitoring Committees will be set up to ensure real-time monitoring and
effective feed-back.
The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding District mineral foundation (DMF).
1. DMFs are non-profit trust set up in the country’s mining districts to “work for the interest and benefit
of people and areas affected by mining-related operations”.
2. DMFs were set up under the provisions of Environment Protection Act, 1986.
3. District mineral foundation (DMF) funds can be used to supplement COVID-19 related healthcare
facilities, screening and testing requirements.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
As the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) outbreak continues to fan panic and affect thousands in India,
states are stepping up measures to curb the spread.
Finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman on March 27, 2020 directed state governments to use district mineral
foundation (DMF) funds to supplement healthcare facilities, screening and testing requirements.
DMFs are non-profit trust set up in the country’s mining districts to “work for the interest and benefit of people
and areas affected by mining-related operations”. The trusts were set up after an amendment in the Mines and
Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.
The funds are collected at the district level. There are certain high-priority areas identified in all states’ DMF
rules, where at least 60 per cent of the funds must be used. These include areas such as drinking water,
healthcare, nutrition, livelihood, sanitation etc.
Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Funds.
1. Though District Mineral Foundation’s operation is under state governments, the Central Government
retains the power to prescribe the rates of contribution.
2. DMF funds are treated as extra-budgetary resources for the States.
3. Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people
affected by mining related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Central Government retains the power to prescribe the rates of contribution, though DMF’s operation is
under state governments.
The Central Government notified on 17 September 2015, the rates of contribution payable by miners to the
DMFs. In case of all mining leases executed before 12th January, 2015 (the date on which Mines and Minerals
(Development & Regulation) Amendment Act (MMDR Amendment Act) came into force) miners will have to
contribute an amount equal to 30% of the royalty payable by them to the DMFs. Where mining leases are
granted after 12.01.2015, the rate of contribution would be 10% of the royalty payable. (Subsequent to the
enactment of MMDR Amendment Act, mining leases are given out after auctions; hence, a lower levy).
DMF funds are treated as extra-budgetary resources for the States.
Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) is meant to provide for the welfare of areas and people
affected by mining related operations, using the funds generated by District Mineral Foundations (DMFs).
Source
17) Consider the following statements regarding National Mineral Exploration Trust (MET).
1. National Mineral Exploration Trust is set up for the purposes of regional and detailed exploration of
minerals using the funds accrued to it.
2. The Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, (MMRDA) mandated the
setting up of Mineral Exploration Trust.
3. It is under the jurisdiction of Central Government.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
National Mineral Exploration Trust (MET) is a Trust set up as a non-profit body by the Central Government for
the purposes of regional and detailed exploration of minerals using the funds accrued to it and in such manner
as prescribed by the Central Government.
The Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, (MMRDA) mandated the setting up
of Mineral Exploration Trust.
The holder of a mining lease or a prospecting licence-cum-mining lease has to pay to the MET, two per cent of
the royalty paid by it. Such contributions are made to the relevant state government along with royalty
payments, and the state government, in turn, transfers the amount to MET.
MET is similar to the District Mineral Foundation set up under the same Act, but with different rate of
contribution (2% instead of 10-30%), level of operation (boosting exploration effort instead of enhancing welfare
of the mining affected) and comes under different jurisdictional authorities (central Government instead of state
governments).
MET carries out regional (inter-state) and detailed exploration for minerals including those activities deemed
necessary by the Governing Body of MET.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM).
1. National Mission for Manuscripts aims to publish rare and unpublished manuscripts for
researchers, scholars and the general public.
2. Under National Mission for Manuscripts, Ministry of Culture also undertakes reprinting of
historical literary works of other countries.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Ministry of Culture is planning to reprint 108 volumes of Mongolian Kanjur under the National Mission
for Manuscripts (NMM) by March 2022 which would help in boosting bilateral ties between the two
countries, according to the ministry.
In the Mongolian language ‘Kanjur’ means ‘Concise Orders’- the words of Lord Buddha in particular.
It is held in high esteem by Mongolian Buddhists and they worship the Kanjur at temples and recite the lines
of Kanjur in daily life as a sacred ritual.
Launched in February 2003, the NMM has the mandate of documenting, conserving and disseminating the
knowledge in manuscripts. It aims to publish rare and unpublished manuscripts for researchers, scholars
and the general public.
Source

1. Code on Wages, 2019 is an Act of the Parliament of India that seeks to regulate wage and bonus
payments in all employments where any industry, trade, business, or manufacture is carried out.
2. Minimum wages are determined both by the Centre and States.
3. While fixing minimum wages, the Government cannot take into account the skill of workers.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Code on Wages, 2019 seeks to regulate wage and bonus payments in all employments where any industry,
trade, business, or manufacture is carried out. The Code replaces the following four laws: (i) the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, (ii) the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, (iii) the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and (iv) the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976.
Coverage: The Code will apply to all employees. The central government will make wage-related decisions for
employments such as railways, mines, and oil fields, among others. State governments will make decisions for all
other employments.
Wages include salary, allowance, or any other component expressed in monetary terms. This does not include
bonus payable to employees or any travelling allowance, among others.
Floor wage: According to the Code, the central government will fix a floor wage, taking into account living
standards of workers. Further, it may set different floor wages for different geographical areas. Before fixing the
floor wage, the central government may obtain the advice of the Central Advisory Board and may consult with
state governments.
The minimum wages decided by the central or state governments must be higher than the floor wage.
The Code prohibits employers from paying wages less than the minimum wages. Minimum wages will be
notified by the central or state governments. The minimum wages will be revised and reviewed by the central
or state governments at an interval of not more than five years. While fixing minimum wages, the central or
state governments may take into account factors such as: (i) skill of workers, and (ii) difficulty of work.
Source
20) Palla floodplain project, recently seen in news is built to recharge and store flood water in the floodplains of
which river
a) Godavari
b) Palar
c) Yamuna
d) Periyar
Solution: c)

1. National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) acts as a link between intelligence and investigation agencies.
2. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) maintains an online database on FIRs and stolen vehicles.
3. National Crime Records Bureau implements the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems
(CCTNS) project.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) has signed a memorandum of understanding with the National Crime
Records Bureau (NCRB) to access the centralised online database on FIRs and stolen vehicles.
First conceptualised in 2009, NATGRID seeks to become the one-stop destination for security and intelligence
agencies to access database related to immigration entry and exit, banking and telephone details of a suspect on
a “secured platform”.
The MoU, signed will give NATGRID access to the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS)
database, a platform that links around 14,000 police stations. All State police are mandated to file First
Information Reports (FIR) in the CCTNS.
The data pertaining to FIRs of a particular police station are a State subject.
NATGRID will act as a link between intelligence and investigation agencies.

CCTNS project is implemented by National Crime Records Bureau.
Source
22) Consider the following statements regarding Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
1. Transgender person has the right to self-perceived gender identity.
2. It prohibits discrimination against a transgender person on grounds including denial or unfair
treatment in educational establishments, employment and health services.
3. Transgender person has the right to reside in the household where parent or immediate family
members reside.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Every transgender person shall have— (a) a right to reside in the household where parent or immediate family
members reside; (b) a right not to be excluded from such household or any part thereof; and (c) a right to enjoy
and use the facilities of such household in a non-discriminatory manner.
A person recognised as transgender shall have a right to self-perceived gender identity.
The District Magistrate shall issue to the applicant, a certificate of identity as transgender person after following
such procedure and in such form and manner, within such time, as may be prescribed indicating the gender of
such person as transgender.
No person or establishment shall discriminate against a transgender person on any of the following grounds,
namely: —
(a) the denial, or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment in, educational establishments and services
thereof;
(b) the unfair treatment in, or in relation to, employment or occupation;
(c) the denial of, or termination from, employment or occupation;
(d) the denial or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment in, healthcare services;
(e) the denial or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment with regard to, access to, or provision or
enjoyment or use of any goods, accommodation, service, facility, benefit, privilege or opportunity
dedicated to the use of the general public or customarily available to the public;
(f) the denial or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment with regard to the right of movement;
(g) the denial or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment with regard to the right to reside, purchase,
rent, or otherwise occupy any property;
(h) the denial or discontinuation of, or unfair treatment in, the opportunity to stand for or hold public or
private office; and
(i) the denial of access to, removal from, or unfair treatment in, Government or private establishment in
whose care or custody a transgender person may be.
23) Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
1. It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and enforce the
rights of consumers and CCPA can also conduct investigations into violations of consumer rights.
2. Prevention of unfair trade practice by e-commerce platforms and Healthcare service providers are
covered under the act.
3. Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism of Mediation has been provided in the act.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
The Consumer Protection Act,2019 comes into force from July 2020.
This new Act will empower consumers and help them in protecting their rights through its various notified Rules
and provisions like Consumer Protection Councils, Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions, Mediation,
Product Liability and punishment for manufacture or sale of products containing adulterant / spurious goods.
The Act includes establishment of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to promote, protect and
enforce the rights of consumers. The CCPA will be empowered to conduct investigations into violations of
consumer rights and institute complaints / prosecution, order recall of unsafe goods and services, order
discontinuance of unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements, impose penalties on
manufacturers/endorsers/publishers of misleading advertisements.
Prevention of unfair trade practice by e-commerce platforms is also covered under this Act. Healthcare is kept
outside the purview of the Act.
Under this act every e-commerce entity is required to provide information relating to return, refund, exchange,
warranty and guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes of payment, grievance redressal mechanism, payment
methods, security of payment methods, charge-back options, etc. including country of origin which are
necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.
E-commerce platforms have to acknowledge the receipt of any consumer complaint within forty-eight hours and
redress the complaint within one month from the date of receipt under this Act.
Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanism of Mediation has been provided in the new Act. This will simplify the
adjudication process.
As per the Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission Rules, there will be no fee for filing cases upto Rs. 5 lakh.
There are provisions for filing complaints electronically, credit of amount due to unidentifiable consumers to
Consumer Welfare Fund (CWF).
Source
24) Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
1. Financial Stability and Development Council is a statutory body setup to strengthen and
institutionalise the mechanism for maintaining financial stability and promoting financial sector development.
2. The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
3. FSDC coordinates India's international interface with financial sector bodies like the Financial Action
Task Force (FATF) and Financial Stability Board (FSB).
4. Governor of RBI and Chief Economic Advisor are the members of FSDC.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was constituted in December, 2010. The FSDC was set up
to strengthen and institutionalise the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory
coordination and promoting financial sector development.
An apex-level FSDC is not a statutory body.
Composition:
The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and its members are Governor, Reserve Bank of India;
Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs; Secretary, Department of Financial
Services; Chief Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance; Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India;
Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority and Chairman, Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority. It also includes the chairman of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board (IBBI).
Recently, the government through a gazette notification, had included ministry of electronics and information
technology (MeitY) secretary in the FSDC in view of the increased focus of the government on digital economy.
Responsibilities:
• Financial Stability
• Financial Sector Development
• Inter-Regulatory Coordination
• Financial Literacy
• Financial Inclusion
• Macro prudential supervision of the economy including the functioning of large financial conglomerates
• Coordinating India's international interface with financial sector bodies like the Financial Action Task
Force (FATF), Financial Stability Board (FSB) and any such body as may be decided by the Finance Minister
from time to time.
Source
25) Consider the following statements regarding National Anti-Profiteering Authority.

1. National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) has been constituted under the provisions of the Central
Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
2. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that any reduction in rate of GST tax on any supply of goods
or services or the benefit of input tax credit should be passed on to the recipient by way of
commensurate reduction in prices.
3. National Anti-profiteering Authority cannot impose any penalty on the defaulting business entity, as it
is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) has been constituted under Section 171 of the Central Goods
and Services Tax Act, 2017.
It is to ensure the reduction in rate of tax or the benefit of input tax credit is passed on to the recipient by way of
commensurate reduction in prices.
The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction is GST rates on goods and services
made by GST Council and proportional change in the Input tax credit passed on to the ultimate consumers and
recipient respectively by way of reduction in the prices by the suppliers.
Composition:
The National Anti-profiteering Authority shall be headed by a senior officer of the level of a Secretary to the
Government of India and shall have four technical members from the Centre and/or the States.
Powers and functions of the authority:
• In the event the National Anti-profiteering Authority confirms the necessity of applying anti-profiteering
measures, it has the power to order the business concerned to reduce its prices or return the undue benefit
availed along with interest to the recipient of the goods or services.
• If the undue benefit cannot be passed on to the recipient, it can be ordered to be deposited in the Consumer
Welfare Fund.
• In extreme cases the National Anti-profiteering Authority can impose a penalty on the defaulting business
entity and even order the cancellation of its registration under GST.
Source
26) Consider the following statements regarding Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC).
1. SFAC is an Autonomous Society promoted by Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers
Welfare.
2. SFAC was established to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalysing private investment through
Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) Scheme.
3. SFAC is the lead agency for implementing National Agriculture Market (eNAM) Electronic Trading
platform.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
• The Government established Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) as a Society in January 1994 to
facilitate agri-business ventures by catalysing private investment through Venture Capital Assistance (VCA)
Scheme in close association with financial institutions.
• SFAC is an Autonomous Society promoted by Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare,
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Govt. of India"
• It is registered under Societies Registration Act 1860.
The main functions of SFAC are:

o Promotion of development of small agribusiness through VCA scheme.
o Helping formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies
(FPCs).
o Improving availability of working capital and development of business activities of FPOs/FPCs through
Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme.
o Implementation of National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform.
Source
27) Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
1. NDRF is located in the "Public Accounts" of Government of India under "Reserve Funds not bearing
interest".
2. The relief activities for all the calamities are monitored by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and
rehabilitation.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1 only
Solution: b)
National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act) as a
fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and
rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster. NDRF is constituted to supplement the funds
of the State Disaster Response Funds (SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a
severe nature.
The DM Act defines "disaster" to mean ‘a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising
from natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence which results in substantial loss of life or human
suffering or damage to, and destruction of, property, or damage to, or degradation of, environment, and is of
such a nature or magnitude as to be beyond the coping capacity of the community of the affected area.'
NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency response, relief and
rehabilitation. For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at reducing the risk,
impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation a separate fund called National Disaster
Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
The NDRF is financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and customs duty, and
approved annually through the Finance Bill. The requirement for funds beyond what is available under the NDRF
is met through general budgetary resources.
Currently, a National Calamity Contingency Duty (NCCD) is levied to finance the NDRF and additional budgetary
support is provided as and when necessary. A provision also exists in the DM Act to encourage any person or
institution to make a contribution to the NDRF.
NDRF is located in the "Public Accounts" of Government of India under "Reserve Funds not bearing interest"
Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for
calamities associated with drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural
calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Source
28) Which of the following are the pillars of Digital India programme.
1. Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity
2. Early Harvest Programmes
3. eKranti - Electronic delivery of services
4. Information for All
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Digital India is an umbrella programme that covers multiple Government Ministries and Departments. It weaves
together a large number of ideas and thoughts into a single, comprehensive vision so that each of them can be
implemented as part of a larger goal.
Each individual element stands on its own, but is also part of the larger picture. Digital India is to be
implemented by the entire Government with overall coordination being done by the Department of Electronics
and Information Technology (DeitY).
Digital India aims to provide the much-needed thrust to the nine pillars of growth areas, namely Broadband
Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance:
Reforming Government through Technology, e-Kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services, Information for All,
Electronics Manufacturing, IT for Jobs and Early Harvest Programmes. Each of these areas is a complex
programme in itself and cuts across multiple Ministries and Departments.
4. Science and Technology

1) Glyphosate, Atrazine and Butachlor, recently seen in news is
a) Anti-malarial drug
b) Antibiotic resistant bacteria
c) Weedicide
Solution: c)
Source
2) National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully
synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs). What are the applications of gold nanoparticles (GNPs)?
1. They have greater solar radiation absorbing ability.
2. Detection and diagnosis of diseases.
3. Targeted drug delivery
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
Solution: b)
The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have successfully
synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychrotolerant Antarctic bacteria through a non-toxic, low-cost,
and eco-friendly way.
These GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer, anti-viral, anti-
diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs.
Nanoparticles (NPs) have wide variety of potential applications in the fields of biomedical, optical and
electronics research. Metallic NPs have been efficiently exploited for biomedical applications and among them
GNPs are found to be effective in biomedical research.
GNPs also have unique physicochemical properties. Their biocompatibility, high surface area, stability, and
nontoxicity make them suitable for various applications in therapeutic use including detection and diagnosis of
diseases, bio-labeling, and targeted drug delivery. As nano-carriers, GNPs are capable of transferring various
drugs made out of peptides, proteins, plasmid DNAs, small interfering RNAs, and chemotherapeutic agents to
target diseased cells of the human body.
GNPs are also found to be useful in the electronics industry. Scientists have constructed a transistor known as
NOMFET (Nanoparticle Organic Memory Field-Effect Transistor) by embedding GNPs in a porous manganese
oxide as a room temperature catalyst to break down volatile organic compound in air and combining GNPs with
organic molecules.
Source
3) Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide. Which of the following are the applications of Dry ice?
1. It is useful for preserving frozen foods where mechanical cooling is unavailable.
2. Prevent insect activity in closed containers of grains and grain products.
3. Used for cleaning industrial equipments.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide. It is used primarily as a cooling agent. Its advantages include lower
temperature than that of water ice and not leaving any residue (other than incidental frost from moisture in the
atmosphere). It is useful for preserving frozen foods where mechanical cooling is unavailable.
This extreme cold makes the solid dangerous to handle without protection due to burns caused by freezing
(frostbite). While generally not very toxic, the outgassing from it can cause hypercapnia (abnormally elevated
carbon dioxide levels in the blood) due to buildup in confined locations.
Dry ice can be used to arrest and prevent insect activity in closed containers of grains and grain products, as it
displaces oxygen, but does not alter the taste or quality of foods. For the same reason, it can prevent or retard
food oils and fats from becoming rancid.
When dry ice is placed in water, sublimation is accelerated, and low-sinking, dense clouds of smoke-like fog are
created. This is used in fog machines, at theatres, haunted house attractions, and nightclubs for dramatic
effects.
One of the largest mechanical uses of dry ice is blast cleaning.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Goldilocks zone.

1. Goldilocks zone, is the area around a star where it is not too hot and not too cold for liquid water to
exist on the surface of surrounding planets.
2. Earth is the only planet in the Sun’s Goldilocks zone.
3. If a planet is in the Goldilocks Zone of a star, it necessarily means the planet is going to have life or
liquid water.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right - not too hot
and not too cold - for liquid water to exist on a planet.
Just because a planet or moon is in the Goldilocks Zone of a star, doesn't mean it's going to have life or even
liquid water.
After all, Earth isn't the only planet in the Sun's Goldilocks Zone - Venus and Mars are also in this habitable zone,
but aren't currently habitable.
Source
5) Consider the following statements regarding Wi-Fi calling service.

1. Wi-Fi Calling is beneficial especially for areas where cellular networks are not strong.
2. It uses high speed Internet connection, available via broadband, to make and receive high definition
(HD) voice calls.
3. Users must subscribe to this service by paying the amount prescribed by the service provider.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Wi-Fi calling service uses high speed internet connection offered by broadband network to allow users make
and receive high definition (HD) voice calls. It works similar to WhatsApp calls. Similar to the voice calling apps,
Wi-Fi calling allows users to make phone calls, but it doesn’t require them to install an application for it. The
service also doesn’t charge the user and consumes very minimal data.
Source
6) Consider the following statements regarding Rare Earth elements.

1. Rare Earth elements are not radioactive in nature.
2. These elements are used in clean energy, healthcare, environmental mitigation, and national defence.
3. China’s Rare Earths deposits account for 80% of identified global reserves.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Rare Earth Elements or Rare Earth Metals are a set of 17 chemical elements in the periodic table — the 15
lanthanides, plus scandium and yttrium, which tend to occur in the same ore deposits as the lanthanides, and
have similar chemical properties.
The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd), holmium
(Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm),
scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y).
Despite their classification, most of these elements are not really “rare”. One of the Rare Earths, promethium, is
radioactive.
These elements are important in technologies of consumer electronics, computers and networks,
communications, clean energy, advanced transportation, healthcare, environmental mitigation, and national
defence, among others.
Scandium is used in televisions and fluorescent lamps, and yttrium is used in drugs to treat rheumatoid arthritis
and cancer.
Rare Earth elements are used in space shuttle components, jet engine turbines, and drones. Cerium, the most
abundant Rare Earth element, is essential to NASA’s Space Shuttle Programme.
China’s Rare Earths deposits account for 80% of identified global reserves.
Source
7) Which of the following are the Criteria for deletion of a medicine from National List of Essential Medicines
(NLEM) 2015.
1. The medicine has been banned in India.
2. A medicine with better efficacy and better cost-effectiveness is now available.
3. The disease burden for which a medicine is indicated is no longer a national health concern in India.
4. In case of antimicrobials, if the resistance pattern has rendered a medicine ineffective in Indian
context.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
Source
8) Project Kuiper, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to satellites
b) Launch of Low Earth Orbit satellites that will provide high-speed broadband connectivity
c) Computationally creating virtual humans
d) Converting multiple feedstocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels
Solution: b)
Sunil Mittal’s Bharti Enterprises bids for SoftBank-backed satellite firm OneWeb.
OneWeb makes low-Earth orbit satellites that provide high-speed communications and faces competition from
SpaceX Starlink project and Project Kuiper.
Project Kuiper is a long-term initiative to launch a constellation of Low Earth Orbit satellites that will provide
low-latency, high-speed broadband connectivity to unserved and underserved communities around the world.
Source
9) Recently WHO has formally acknowledged the possibility that the novel coronavirus can remain in the air in
crowded indoor spaces. In this context which of the following are the Airborne Diseases?
1. Measles
2. Tuberculosis (TB)
3. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
4. Chickenpox
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: b)
In the brief, the WHO has formally acknowledged the possibility that the novel coronavirus can remain in the air
in crowded indoor spaces, where “short-range aerosol transmission… cannot be ruled out”.
An airborne disease is any disease caused by pathogens that can be transmitted through the air over time and
distance by small particles.
The relevant pathogens may be viruses, bacteria, or fungi, and they may be spread through breathing, talking,
coughing, sneezing, raising of dust, spraying of liquids, toilet flushing or any activities which
generate aerosol particles or droplets.
Airborne transmission is distinct from transmission by respiratory droplets. Respiratory droplets are large
enough to fall to the ground rapidly after being produced (usually greater than 5 μm), as opposed to the smaller
particles that carry airborne pathogens. Also, while respiratory droplets consist mostly of water, airborne
particles are relatively dry, which damages many pathogens so that their ability to transmit infection is lessened
or eliminated. Thus, the number of pathogens that can be transmitted through an airborne route is limited.
Many common infections can spread by airborne transmission at least in some cases, including but not limited
to: measles morbillivirus, chickenpox virus; Mycobacterium tuberculosis, influenza
virus, enterovirus, norovirus and less commonly coronavirus, adenovirus, and possibly respiratory syncytial
virus.
Source
10) World Health Organization (WHO) recognises which of the following as the neglected tropical disease (NTD).
1. Dengue and Chikungunya
2. Leprosy
3. Snakebite
4. Soil-transmitted helminthiases
5. Lymphatic filariasis
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
Solution: c)
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs)– a diverse group of communicable diseases that prevail in tropical and
subtropical conditions in 149 countries – affect more than one billion people and cost developing economies
billions of dollars every year. Populations living in poverty, without adequate sanitation and in close contact with
infectious vectors and domestic animals and livestock are those worst affected. These include:
Buruli ulcer
Chagas disease
Dengue and Chikungunya
Dracunculiasis (guinea-worm disease)
Echinococcosis
Foodborne trematodiases
Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
Leishmaniasis
Leprosy (Hansen's disease)
Lymphatic filariasis
Mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses
Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
Rabies
Scabies and other ectoparasites
Schistosomiasis
Soil-transmitted helminthiases
Snakebite envenoming
Taeniasis/Cysticercosis
Trachoma
Yaws (Endemic treponematoses)
Source Source
11) Consider the following statements regarding Biocides, recently seen in news.
1. Biocides are used to destroy or control any harmful organism by chemical or biological means.
2. They include disinfectants or antiseptics with ingredients like alcohol and hydrogen peroxide.
3. Excessive use of biocides can be a potential threat that could drive Antimicrobial Resistance further.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
A wide-scale use of biocides for personal and environmental disinfection could be another propellant for
antimicrobial resistance (AMR) — a global public health threat and a chronic pandemic in itself.
The World Health Organization (WHO) in its most recent bulletin highlighted the risks linked with overuse of
antibiotics in the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) patients, and how the issue of AMR could be tackled.
Biocides are used to destroy or control any harmful organism by chemical or biological means. The
examples include disinfectants or antiseptics with common ingredients like alcohol, hydrogen peroxide,
surfactants, triclosan, sodium hypochlorite, chlorhexidine and quaternary ammonium compounds.
According to the authors, excessive use of biocides can be a potential threat that could drive AMR further,
since long-term exposure to sub-lethal levels of such agents — both in healthcare and non-healthcare settings —
can aid the selection of resistant bacteria.
There is emerging evidence that low level exposure of biocides in sanitisers and disinfectants could contribute to
growing drug resistant pathogens in the environment.
Source
12) Consider the following statements regarding transgenic crop.

1. In India, Bt cotton was the first transgenic crop used for commercial cultivation.
2. Transgenic crops are more toxic and always proliferate in the environment.
3. In India, transgenic crops are regulated under Environment Protection Act, 1986 and Seed Policy,
2002.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1 only
Solution: b)
Plant genetic engineering methods were developed over 30 years ago, and since then, genetically modified (GM)
crops or transgenic crops have become commercially available and widely adopted in many countries.
In India, Bt cotton was approved by Government of India in March 2002 as the first transgenic crop for
commercial cultivation.
Though, it is widely claimed that transgenic crops offers dramatic promise for meeting some of greatest
challenges but like all new technologies, it also poses certain risks, because of the fact that transgenic crops can
bring together new gene combinations which are not found in nature having possible harmful effects on health,
environmental and non-target species.
Transgenic crops are not toxic nor are likely to proliferate in the environment. However, specific crops may be
harmful by virtue of novel combinations of traits they possess.
The regulatory framework for transgenic crops in India consists of the following rules and guidelines.
a) Rules and policies
Rules, 1989 under Environment Protection Act (1986)
Seed Policy, 2002
b) Guidelines
Recombinant DNA guidelines, 1990
Guidelines for research in transgenic crops, 1998
Source
13) Perseverance Rover, Hope Mission and InSight mission, sometimes seen in news is related to
a) Studying far side of the Moon
b) Earth observation mission
c) Studying the planet Mars
d) Asteroid Impact Deflection Assessment
Solution: c)
Perseverance is a Mars rover manufactured by the Jet Propulsion Laboratory for use in NASA's Mars
2020 mission.
The Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport (InSight) mission is
a robotic lander designed to study the deep interior of the planet Mars.
The United Arab Emirates’ (UAE) Hope mission is a Mars orbiter spacecraft, which will study the thin atmosphere
of Mars.
Source
14) Consider the following statements regarding 5G mobile network.

1. 5G technology is meant to deliver higher multi-Gbps peak data speeds, ultra high latency, more
reliability and massive network capacity.
2. 5G wireless devices will connect to the Internet and telephone network by radio waves through a
local antenna.
3. At present 5G technology is available only in US, China and some European countries.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: c)
5G is the 5th generation mobile network. It is a new global wireless standard after 1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G networks.
5G enables a new kind of network that is designed to connect virtually everyone and everything together
including machines, objects, and devices.
5G wireless technology is meant to deliver higher multi-Gbps peak data speeds, ultra-low latency, more
reliability, massive network capacity, increased availability, and a more uniform user experience to more users.
Higher performance and improved efficiency empower new user experiences and connects new industries.
Like its predecessors, 5G networks are cellular networks, in which the service area is divided into small
geographical areas called cells. All 5G wireless devices in a cell are connected to the Internet and telephone
network by radio waves through a local antenna in the cell.
First generation - 1G
1980s: 1G delivered analog voice.
Second generation - 2G
Early 1990s: 2G introduced digital voice (e.g. CDMA- Code Division Multiple Access).
Third generation - 3G
Early 2000s: 3G brought mobile data (e.g. CDMA2000).
Fourth generation - 4G LTE

2010s: 4G LTE ushered in the era of mobile broadband.
1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G all led to 5G, which is designed to provide more connectivity than was ever available before.
5G is already here today, and global operators started launching new 5G networks in early 2019. In 2020, many
countries expect nationwide 5G mobile networks. Also, all major Android phone manufacturers are
commercializing 5G phones. And soon, even more people may be able to access 5G.
5G has been deployed in 35+ countries and counting.
Source
15) Consider the following statements regarding Extra Neutral Alcohol.

1. Extra Neutral Alcohol is formed from molasses that are a residue of sugarcane processing.
2. It is the primary raw material for making alcoholic beverages.
3. It is an essential ingredient in the manufacture of cosmetics and personal care products such as
perfumes, toiletries, hair spray, etc.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
What is ENA?
It is a byproduct of the sugar industry.
Formed from molasses that are a residue of sugarcane processing.
It is the primary raw material for making alcoholic beverages.
Features:
It is colourless food-grade alcohol that does not have any impurities.
It has a neutral smell and taste and typically contains over 95 per cent alcohol by volume.
Other applications of ENA:

An essential ingredient in the manufacture of cosmetics and personal care products such as perfumes, toiletries,
hair spray, etc.
Utilized in the production of some lacquers, paints and ink for the printing industry, as well as in pharmaceutical
products such as antiseptics, drugs, syrups, medicated sprays.
Source
16) Consider the following statements regarding Bacteriophages.

1. A Bacteriophage is a type of bacteria that can kill viruses.
2. Bacteriophages are among the most common and diverse entities in the biosphere.
3. They are seen as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of many bacteria.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Bacteriophages are the viruses that can kill the bacteria.

They are comprised of a protein capsule around an RNA or DNA genome.
They are ubiquitous viruses, found wherever bacteria exist.
They are seen as a possible therapy against multi-drug-resistant strains of many bacteria.
Source
17) Consider the following statements regarding Xenobots.

1. Xenobots are the world's first living, self-healing robots created using stem cells.
2. Xenobots could be used to clean up radioactive waste, collect microplastics in the oceans and carry
medicine inside human bodies.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
Scientists have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from frogs.
Named xenobots after the African clawed frog (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the
machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide -- small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can
walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups.
These are "entirely new life-forms”.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types.
Xenobots even have self-healing capabilities; when the scientists sliced into one robot, it healed by itself and
kept moving.
Xenobots don't look like traditional robots -- they have no shiny gears or robotic arms. Instead, they look more
like a tiny blob of moving pink flesh.
Xenobots could be used to clean up radioactive waste, collect microplastics in the oceans, carry medicine inside
human bodies, or even travel into our arteries to scrape out plaque. The xenobots can survive in aqueous
environments without additional nutrients for days or weeks -- making them suitable for internal drug
delivery.
Source
18) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Data Relay Satellite System (IRDSS).
1. Indian Data Relay Satellite System is the planned project by ISRO for space-to-space tracking and
communication of its space assets.
2. The IDRSS is planned to track and be constantly in touch with Indian satellites, except those in low-
earth orbits.
3. The project will aid the crew of Gaganyaan mission helping them in maintaining contact with the
mission controller throughout their travel.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
India plans to ring in its own era of space-to-space tracking and communication of its space assets this year by
putting up a new satellite series called the Indian Data Relay Satellite System.
The IDRSS is planned to track and be constantly in touch with Indian satellites, in particular those in low-earth
orbits which have limited coverage of earth.
The first beneficiary would be the prospective crew members of the Gaganyaan mission of 2022 who can be fully
and continuously in touch with mission control throughout their travel.
Older space majors such as the U.S. and Russia started their relay satellite systems in the late 1970s-80s and a
few already have around 10 satellites each. They have used them to monitor their respective space stations Mir
and the International Space Station, and trips that dock with them, as well as the Hubble Space Telescope.
While the U.S. is putting up its third-generation advanced fleet of TDRS (Tracking & Data Relay Satellites), Russia
has its Satellite Data Relay Network and Europe is building its own European Data Relay System. China is into its
second generation Tianlian II series.
Source
19) Project NETRA of ISRO, sometimes seen in news is

a) An early warning system in space to detect debris
b) Providing human-centric systems and technologies for Gaganyaan
c) Provide satellite Internet access
d) Earth observation programme
Solution: a)
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently initiated ‘Project NETRA’ – an early warning system in
space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
The project estimated to cost ₹400 crore, when in place, will give India its own capability in space situational
awareness (SSA) like the other space powers — which is used to ‘predict’ threats from debris to Indian satellites.
It also goes so far as to serve as an unstated warning against missile or space attack for the country, experts say.
Under NETRA, or Network for space object Tracking and Analysis, the ISRO plans to put up many observational
facilities: connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control centre.
Source

1. LIDAR is a method of measuring distance by illuminating the target with laser light and measuring the
reflection with a sensor.
2. LIDAR based survey technology can be used for providing fodder and water to animals in forest area.
3. LIDAR technology can be used for monitoring and tracking space debris.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
Union Environment Minister, Prakash Javadekar recently announced that his Ministry was working on a
programme to provide water and fodder to animals at the forest itself to deal with the challenge of human-
animal conflict that was causing the death of animals. For this, Lidar-based survey technology will be used for
the first time. Lidar is a method of measuring distance by illuminating the target with laser light and measuring
the reflection with a sensor.
Digiantra Research and Technology (DRT), a space tech startup is India’s first air and space surveillance company.
It has developed India’s first In-orbit Space Debris Monitoring and tracking system harnessing the technology
behind LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging).
5. International Relations and Organisations

1) Which of the following groups are correctly matched.
1. Hezbollah: Lebanon
2. Houthis: Yemen
3. Boko Haram: Nigeria
4. Al-Shabab: Somalia
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: d)
2) Consider the following statements regarding International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR).
1. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by
the United Nations General Assembly.
2. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals including rights
to due process and a fair trial.
3. The ICCPR is part of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United
Nations General Assembly. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of
individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral
rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.
The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic,
Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
The ICCPR is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee.
3) Consider the following pairs regarding the Hydroelectric power projects built/signed with India’s assistance
and the associated countries.
1. Kholongchhu Hydroelectric Project: Nepal
2. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project: Bhutan
3. Rahughat Hydroelectric Project: Bangladesh
4. Salma Dam Project: Afghanistan
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
Solution: c)
A concession agreement for the 600 MW Kholongchhu Indo-Bhutan joint venture hydroelectric project was
signed. The signing of the concession agreement will lead to commencement of construction and other works of
this first Joint Venture Hydroelectric Project between India and Bhutan. The project is expected to be completed
in the second half of 2025. The 600 MW run-of-the-river project is located on the lower course of the
Kholongchhu River in Trashiyangtse district in eastern Bhutan.
The 720 MW Mangdechhu hydroelectric project was jointly inaugurated earlier in August 2019 by the prime
ministers of India and Bhutan.
With this, four hydroelectric projects of bilateral cooperation (336 MW Chukha HEP, 60 MW Kurichhu HEP, 1,020
MW Tala HEP and 720 MW Mangdechhu HEP), totalling over 2,100 MW, are already operational in Bhutan.
State-run engineering firm BHEL has bagged an order for electro-mechanical works for 40 MW Rahughat
Hydroelectric Project in Nepal.
Afghan-India Friendship Dam (AIFD), formerly Salma Dam, is a hydroelectric and irrigation dam project located
on the Hari River in Chishti Sharif District of Herat Province in western Afghanistan.
Source
4) Consider the following statements regarding Freedom of navigation (FON).

1. Freedom of navigation (FON) is a principle of customary international law that ships flying the flag of
any sovereign state shall not suffer interference from other states, without any exceptions.
2. This right to Freedom of navigation is codified under United Nations Convention on the Law of the
Sea.
3. Not all UN member states have ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Freedom of navigation (FON) is a principle of customary international law that ships flying the flag of
any sovereign state shall not suffer interference from other states, apart from the exceptions provided for in
international law. In the realm of international law, it has been defined as “freedom of movement for vessels,
freedom to enter ports and to make use of plant and docks, to load and unload goods and to transport goods
and passengers. This right is now also codified as Article 87(1)a of the 1982 United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea. Not all UN member states have ratified the convention; notably, the United States has signed,
but not ratified the convention.
The UNCLOS introduced a number of legal concepts that allowed freedom of navigation within and outside of
the maritime jurisdictions of countries. These are right of innocent passage, right of transit passage, right of
archipelagic sea lanes passage and freedom of the high seas. The right of innocent passage allows ships to travel
in other countries territorial seas if it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of the costal state.
However, some countries like China requires warships to attain prior authorization before they enter Chinese
national waters.
Source
5) Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA), recently seen in news is the immigration policy of
a) Australia
b) United Kingdom
c) United States
d) Canada
Solution: c)
The US Supreme Court recently blocked a Trump administration order rescinding a popular Obama-era
protection from deportation for hundreds of thousands of young undocumented immigrants, including many
from India, who had been brought to this country as children.
President Barack Obama had issued the protection through an executive order in 2012 barring the deportation
of undocumented immigrants who came here as children. Called the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals
(DACA), the Trump administration rescinded it in November 2017. But it was blocked from going into effect by
lower courts, and now by the highest court in the country.
Source
6) Recently Union Ministry of Law and Justice declared United Arab Emirates as a “reciprocating territory”.
Consider the following statements regarding reciprocating territory.
1. Reciprocating territory means any country or territory outside India where orders passed by certain
designated courts in that territory can be implemented in India.
2. A country is declared as a reciprocating territory under the provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Ministry of Law and Justice issued an Extraordinary Gazette Notification, declaring the United Arab Emirates
to be a “reciprocating territory” under Section 44A of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
Essentially, orders passed by certain designated courts from a ‘reciprocating territory’ can be implemented in
India, by filing a copy of the decree concerned in a District Court here.
The courts so designated are called ‘superior Courts’.
Source
7) Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of which of
the following countries.
1. Bahrain
2. Iran
3. Oman
4. Qatar
5. Saudi Arabia
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4
Solution: b)
Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of
all Arab states of the Persian Gulf except Iraq, namely: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and
the United Arab Emirates.
Source
8) MARPOL Convention, sometimes seen in news is related to

a) Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
b) Control the use of chemical weapons and their precursors.
c) Prevention of Pollution from Ships
d) Safety, security, and sustainability of airspace.
Solution: c)
There has been a huge increase in the use of open-loop scrubbers in ships in just last one year, even as a debate
about their viability in mitigating sulphur emissions from ships has also escalated.
The International Maritime Organisation’s (IMO) adopted the International Convention for the Prevention of
Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex VI in 2008 that regulates the prevention of air pollution from ships and
prohibits deliberate emissions of ozone-depleting substances such as sulphur oxides and nitrous oxides.
Following the adoption, exhaust scrubbers have become one of the most preferred ways of reducing sulphur
exhaust as they ‘scrub’ pollutants out of emissions.
Source
9) In the recent virtual meeting between India and US, there were talks regarding India’s participation in
Accelerating CCUS Technologies (ACT). ACT is related to
a) Reduce emissions of carbon dioxide (CO2) and other pollutants when fossil fuels are burned
b) Mining of Advanced Clean Coal
c) Carbon capture, utilisation and storage
d) Pollution mitigation in coal fired power plants
Solution: c)
India and the US have announced new areas of research on transformational power generation based on
supercritical CO2 (sCO2) power cycles and advanced coal technologies, including carbon capture, utilisation, and
storage (CCUS).
This emerged at a virtual ministerial meeting of the US-India Strategic Energy Partnership (SEP) to review
progress, highlight major accomplishments, and prioritise new areas for cooperation.
Collaboration between India and the United States has grown over the years under the Programme for
Accelerating Clean Energy – Research (PACE-R).
Source
10) Which of the following are the members of BASIC countries.

1. Brazil
2. Australia
3. South Africa
4. Indonesia
5. China
a) 1, 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)
The BASIC countries are a bloc of four large newly industrialized countries – Brazil, South
Africa, India and China – formed by an agreement on 28 November 2009.
BASIC countries broadly have common position on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and raising the massive
funds that are needed to fight climate change.
11) Totalisation Agreement sometimes seen in news between India and US is related to
a) Defence Technology and Trade Agreement
b) Social Security Agreement
c) Visa for Indian Citizens
d) Free Trade Agreement
Solution: b)
Experts suggest that India and the US should sign totalisation agreement as it will provide social security to
Indian professionals in America.
The totalisation agreement is an international social security pact that eliminate dual social security taxation,
both in the home country and in the nation where an employee works.
Once it is signed, the agreement would benefit workers of both the countries and ensure equality of treatment.
It is a long pending demand of India for early conclusion of the totalisation agreement or Social Security
Agreement with the US. It aims to protect interests of professionals of Indian-origin who contribute more than $
1 billion each year to the US social security. Under this pact, professionals of both the countries would be
exempted from social security taxes when they go to work for a short period in the other country.
Source
12) The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for
international public health. In this context WHO’s work focus on
1. Support people's participation in national health policies for universal health coverage.
2. Prepare for health emergencies by identifying, mitigating and managing risks.
3. For health and well-being, prioritize health in all policies and healthy settings.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
WHO works worldwide to promote health, keep the world safe, and serve the vulnerable.
Our goal is to ensure that a billion more people have universal health coverage, to protect a billion more people
from health emergencies, and provide a further billion people with better health and well-being.
For universal health coverage, we:

• focus on primary health care to improve access to quality essential services
• work towards sustainable financing and financial protection
• improve access to essential medicines and health products
• train the health workforce and advise on labour policies
• support people's participation in national health policies
• improve monitoring, data and information.
For health emergencies, we:
• prepare for emergencies by identifying, mitigating and managing risks
• prevent emergencies and support development of tools necessary during outbreaks
• detect and respond to acute health emergencies
• support delivery of essential health services in fragile settings.
For health and well-being we:

• address social determinants
• promote intersectoral approaches for health
• prioritize health in all policies and healthy settings.
Through our work, we address:

• human capital across the life-course
• noncommunicable diseases prevention
• mental health promotion
• climate change in small island developing states
• antimicrobial resistance
• elimination and eradication of high-impact communicable diseases.
Source
6. Polity
1) As per the latest changes, who among the following can opt for postal ballot facility in the Lok Sabha and
Assembly elections. (This question was framed on 2 July 2020, now the age-related provisions have changed)
1. People with disabilities
2. Only those who are 70 years of age or above
3. COVID-19 suspect or affected persons
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
Solution: b)
In the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, the Law Ministry has reduced the age limit for senior citizens who opt
for postal ballot in the Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
In October 2019, the Law Ministry amended the Conduct of Election Rules to allow people with disabilities and
those who are 80 years of age or above to opt for postal ballot during Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.
The Election Commission, however, approached the government to change the rule as the pandemic could
continue till the end of the year.
On June 19, the Ministry notified a fresh change in the rules, allowing those aged 65 years and above to opt for
postal ballot.
While amending the rules on the suggestions of the Election Commission, the Ministry also allowed “COVID-19
suspect or affected persons” to use the postal ballot facility.
New Provision:
The Election Commission recently said the postal ballot facility for electors above the age of 65 in the Bihar
Assembly elections, which would have been the first time it would have been used since the Centre had notified
it on June 19, would not be implemented. The EC said the decision was taken for the Assembly and the by-
elections that are due soon due to logistical challenges. It said the option of postal ballots would be available to
electors over 80 years of age, persons with disabilities, essential service workers and those infected with COVID-
19 or suspected to be.
Source Source
2) What do you understand by the term ‘Classified Service Voter’?

a) A service voter who opts not to vote is called Classified Service Voter.
b) A service voter who opts for voting through postal ballot is called Classified Service Voter
c) A service voter who opts for voting through a proxy is called Classified Service Voter
d) A service voter who votes on the day of counting Electoral votes
Solution: c)
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable, has
option of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him. A service voter
who opts for voting through a proxy is called Classified Service Voter (CSV).
Source
3) Consider the following statements regarding Protection of Human Rights (Amendments) Act, 2019.
1. It reduced the tenure of chairpersons of national and state human rights bodies to three years from
the earlier five years.
2. The Act does not allow for the reappointment of members of the National Human Rights Commission
and State Human Rights Commissions.
3. A person who has been chief justice or judge of a high court is to be the chairperson of the State
Human Rights Commission.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Protection of Human Rights (Amendments) Act, 2019 provides for a reduction in tenure of chairpersons of
national and state human rights bodies to three years from the earlier five years. It amends the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993.
Further, the Act allows for the reappointment of members of the NHRC and SHRCs for a period of five years till
the age of 70 years.
The 1993 Act states that the chairperson of the SHRC is a person who should have been chief justice of a high
court. The new act amends this to provide that a person who has been chief justice or judge of a high court is to
be the chairperson of the SHRC.
4) Consider the following statements regarding Law Commission of India.

1. The Law Commission of India is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to
time.
2. The commission is re-constituted every five years.
3. The Law Commission shall suo-motu, undertake research in law and review of existing laws in India.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
Solution: a)
The Law Commission shall, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertake
research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new legislations. It
shall also undertake studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for elimination of
delay in procedures, speedy disposal of cases, reduction in cost of litigation etc.
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and is re-constituted every three years. The tenure of
twenty-first Law Commission of India was upto 31st August, 2018.
The various Law Commission have been able to make important contribution towards the progressive
development and codification of Law of the country.
The 22nd Law Commission will be constituted for a period of three years from the date of publication of its
Order in the Official Gazette.
Source
7. States
1) Consider the following statements regarding Athirapally hydro-electric project.
1. Athirapally hydro-electric project is a proposed project in Kerala on the Chalakudy river.
2. Kadar tribal community lives in the vicinity of Chalakudy river.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Nither 1 nor 2
Solution: c)
The Kerala government has issued a fresh no-objection certificate (NOC) for the state electricity board to
proceed with the implementation of the proposed Athirapally hydro-electric project, which had been shelved
several times in the past due to protests by green activists.
The vital elephant corridor between the Parambikulam Sanctuary and the Pooyamkutty forests would also be
affected. Apart from being home to hornbills, tigers and leopards, the forests also host the Nilgiri langur, the
lion-tailed macaque and the rare Cochin forest cane turtle.
A member of the Kadar tribal community fishing in the Chalakudy river near the Vazhachal forest range in
Thrissur district. A primitive hunter-gatherer tribal group, the Kadars feel the Athirappilly hydroelectric project
will affect their livelihood.
Source Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Barak River.

1. Barak River flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram and Assam.
2. Barak River drains into Bay of Bengal after flowing through Bangladesh.
3. Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the Barak River.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
The Barak River is a 900-kilometre-long river flowing through the states

of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh.
The navigable portion of Barak River in India, the 121 km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga has been
declared as National Waterway 6, (NW-6) in the year 2016.
Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the Barak River.
3) Consider the following pairs regarding the Atomic Power Plants and its location
1. Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant: Rajasthan
2. Narora Atomic Power Station: Gujarat
3. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant: Tamil Nadu
4. Kaiga Atomic Power Station: Karnataka
Which of the above are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
Solution: c)
Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat.

Almost 25 years after the last unit was commissioned at Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant, the Nuclear Power
Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) has achieved criticality of a third unit of 700 MWe at the plant in Tapi
district which is fully based on indigenous technology.
Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant located in Narora, Bulandshahar District in Uttar
Pradesh.
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the largest nuclear power station in India, situated in Koodankulam in
the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.
Kaiga Generating Station is a nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga, near the river Kali, in Uttar
Kannada district of Karnataka.
8. Reports and Indices

1) Inclusive Wealth Report (IWR), sometimes seen in news is released by
a) Germanwatch
b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
c) UN Environment
d) World Bank
Solution: c)
The Inclusive Wealth Report (IWR) is a biennial effort led by the UN Environment to evaluate the capacities
and performance of the nations around the world to measure sustainability of economy and wellbeing of their
people.
Inclusive wealth index, as part of the Inclusive Wealth Report is a tool assessing a nation’s ability to look after
its wealth in a way that is sustainable and safeguards its future generations. While GDP measures the size of a
country’s economy, inclusive wealth index focuses on stocks of manufactured, human and natural capital.
Source
2) Global Competitiveness Index, sometimes seen in news is published by

a) World Bank
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Trade Organisation
d) International Monetary Fund
Solution: b)
India has moved down 10 places to rank 68th on the annual global competitiveness index, largely due to
improvements witnessed by several other economies.
Global Competitiveness Index is compiled by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF).
3) Consider the following statements regarding Human Development Index (HDI).

1. Human Development Index is a statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in
both social and economic dimensions.
2. Between 1990 and 2018, India’s HDI value has increased by 50 per cent.
3. Long and healthy life, access to knowledge and decent standard of living are the three dimensions
which the HDI measures.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) released the annual HDI 2019 report. The focus of the 2019
Report is on ‘Inequality in Human Development’.
India’s rank- 129. 2018 rank- 130.
Between 1990 and 2018, India’s HDI value increased by 50 per cent (from 0.431 to 0.647), which places it
above the average for countries in the medium human development group (0.634) and above the average for
other South Asian countries (0.642).
What is HDI?
Published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), it is a statistical tool used to measure a
country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
The social and economic dimensions of a country are based on the health of people, their level of education
attainment and their standard of living.
HDI measures average achievement of a country in three basic dimensions of human development:
• A long and healthy life.
• Access to knowledge.
• A decent standard of living.
4) Global Forest Resources Assessment 2020, recently seen in news is released by

a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
b) UN Environment
c) Germanwatch
d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
Solution: a)
Global Forest Resources Assessment 2020 has been released by the United Nations Food and Agriculture
Organization (FAO).
The FRA 2020 has examined the status of, and trends in, more than 60 forest-related variables in 236 countries
and territories in the period 1990–2020.
Forest area has declined all across the world in the past three decades. The world lost 178 mha of forest since
1990, an area the size of Libya.
The rate of forest loss has also declined due to the growth of sustainable management.
India has ranked third among the top 10 countries that have gained in forest areas in the last decade, the latest
Global Forest Resources Assessment (FRA) has said.
FAO has brought out this comprehensive assessment every five years since 1990. This report assesses the state
of forests, their conditions and management for all member countries.
India accounts for two per cent of total global forest area.
The largest proportion of the world’s forests were tropical (45 per cent), followed by boreal, temperate and
subtropical.
More than 54 per cent of the world’s forests were in only five countries — the Russian Federation, Brazil,
Canada, the United States of America and China.
The highest per cent of plantation forests were in South America while the lowest were in Europe.
Source
9. Maps / Places
1) The countries bordering Syria are
1. Saudi Arabia
2. Iraq
3. Jordan
4. Lebanon
5. Turkey
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Solution: c)

1. Nagaland shares its border with Myanmar.
2. Nagaland is bordered by two Indian states.
3. Article 371A of the Constitution confers special provisions on Nagaland.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Nagaland is bordered by the state of Arunachal Pradesh to the north, Assam to the west, Manipur to the south
and the Sagaing Region of Myanmar to the east.
Article 371A of the Constitution, enacted in 1963, confers special provisions on Nagaland, with clause (a)
reading:
“[N]o Act of Parliament in respect of (i) religious or social practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and
procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary
law, (iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources, shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the
Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides”.
3) Consider the following statements regarding Madagascar.

1. Madagascar is the world's second largest island country, located in Indian Ocean.
2. Tropic of Capricorn passes through Madagascar.
3. Mozambique Channel is located between Madagascar and Mauritius.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2 only
d) 2, 3
Solution: a)
Mozambique Channel is an arm of the Indian Ocean located between the Southeast African countries
of Madagascar and Mozambique.
4) Lampedusa Island, sometime seen in news is located in

a) Mediterranean Sea
b) Red Sea
c) Black Sea
d) Caspian Sea
Solution: a)
Lampedusa is the largest island of the Italian Pelagie Islands in the Mediterranean Sea.
Source
5) India shares borders with several sovereign countries. Arrange the following countries in the descending order
according to the length of the border it shares with India.
1. Bangladesh
2. Pakistan
3. China
4. Nepal
5. Bhutan
6. Afghanistan
a) 1-3-2-4-5-6
b) 1-3-2-4-6-5
c) 1-2-3-4-6-5
d) 1-2-3-4-5-6
Solution: a)
India has 15,106.7 Km of land border and a coastline of 7,516.6 Km including island territories. The length of our
land borders with neighbouring countries is as under:
Name of the country Length of the border (in Km)

Bangladesh 4,096.7
China 3,488
Pakistan 3,323
Nepal 1,751
Myanmar 1,643
Bhutan 699
Afghanistan 106
Total 15,106.7
Source

1. Arunachal Pradesh shares international borders with only Bhutan, Myanmar and China.
2. Arunachal Pradesh borders the states of Assam and Manipur.
3. Pakke Tiger Reserve and Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary are situated in Arunachal Pradesh.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b)
Arunachal Pradesh borders the states of Assam and Nagaland to the south. It shares international borders
with Bhutan in the west, Myanmar in the east, and a disputed border with China in the north at the McMahon
Line.
7) Which of the following ports are located towards the West coast of India.
1. Vadinar Port
2. Mundra Port
3. Dhamra Port
4. Kakinada port
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 4
Solution: c)
Mundra Port is the largest private port of India located on the north shores of the Gulf of
Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. Mundra Port has a capacity to handle 338 MMT of cargo per annum
– the largest amongst all operational ports in India. It is the largest commercial port of India in term so volume
of cargo handled.
Vadinar is small coastal town located in Devbhoomi Dwarka district of the state of Gujarat.
The Dhamra Port is a port in Bhadrak district, Odisha, India, on the shore of the Bay of Bengal.
Kakinada Port is located at Kakinada off the east coast of India.
8) Hagia Sophia, a Unesco World Heritage site, recently seen in news is located in
a) Saudi Arabia
b) Iran
c) Tukey
d) Israel
Solution: c)
Turkey’s highest court has allowed for the conversion of the nearly 1,500 year-old Hagia Sophia from a
museum into a mosque. The centuries-old structure, listed as a Unesco World Heritage site, was originally a
cathedral in the Byzantine empire before it was turned into a mosque in 1453, when Constantinople fell to
Sultan Mehmet II’s Ottoman forces. In the 1930s, however, Mustafa Kemal Ataturk, the founder of the Republic
of Turkey, shut down the mosque and turned it into a museum in an attempt to make the country more secular.
Source
9) Vanguard Bank and Scarborough Shoal sometimes seen in news is located in

a) Mediterranean Sea
b) Caspian Sea
c) South China Sea
d) Baltic Sea
Solution: c)
Vietnam has rightfully protested Chinese aggression in Vanguard Bank in the South China Sea region.
Scarborough Shoal is also located in the South China Sea.
Source
10) The regions Lipulekh, Kalapani and Limpiyadhura have the border dispute between
a) India and China
b) Bhutan and China
c) India and Myanmar
d) India and Nepal
Solution: d)
Nepal’s Cabinet has endorsed a new political map showing Lipulekh, Kalapani and Limpiyadhura under its
territory, amidst a border dispute with India.
Nepal’s ruling Nepal Communist Party lawmakers have also tabled a special resolution in Parliament demanding
return of Nepal’s territory in Kalapani, Limpiyadhura and Lipulekh.
The Lipulekh pass is a far western point near Kalapani, a disputed border area between Nepal and India. Both
India and Nepal claim Kalapani as an integral part of their territory - India as part of Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh
district and Nepal as part of Dharchula district.
India has said that the recently-inaugurated road section in Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand lies completely
within its territory.
Nepal said, the new map was drawn on the basis of the Sugauli Treaty of 1816 signed between Nepal and then
the British India government and other relevant documents, which suggests Limpiyadhura, from where the Kali
river originated, is Nepal’s border with India.
India and Nepal are at a row after the Indian side issued a new political map incorporating Kalapani and Lipulekh
on its side of the border in October 2019. The tension further escalated after India inaugurated a road link
connecting Kailash Mansarovar, a holy pilgrimage site situated at Tibet, China, that passes through the territory
belonging to Nepal.
Source

1. Nepal shares its international boundary with India, China and Bangladesh.
2. Nepal shares boundary with 5 Indian States.
3. Uttar Pradesh shares the longest land boundary with Nepal among the Indian states.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 3
Solution: d)
Nepal is landlocked, and borders China in the north and India in the south, east and west, while Bangladesh is
located within only 27 km of its southeastern tip and Bhutan is separated from it by the Indian state of Sikkim.
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Sikkim shares boundary with Nepal with Bihar sharing
the longest boundary.
12) Seymour Island, recently seen in news is located in

a) Greenland
b) Sumatra
c) Madagascar
d) Antarctica
Solution: d)
Antarctica has exceeded 20C for the first time, after researchers logged a temperature of 20.75C on an island off
the coast of the peninsula.
This latest reading was taken at a monitoring station on Seymour Island, part of a chain of islands off the same
peninsula, at the northernmost point of the continent.
Source
10. Miscellaneous
1) Consider the following statements regarding Maternal mortality.
1. In India the maternal mortality ratio between 2016-2018 was almost 100 deaths lesser than in the
2007-2009 period.
2. All southern states in India have achieved the target of SDG set by the United Nations to reduce the
maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births.
3. As per the World Health Organization, maternal death is the death of a woman while pregnant or
within 100 days of termination of pregnancy.
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) in India has declined to 113 in 2016-18 from 122 in 2015-17 and 130 in
2014-2016, according to the special bulletin on Maternal Mortality in India 2016-18, released by the Office of the
Registrar General’s Sample Registration System (SRS).
One of the key indicators of maternal mortality is the MMR, defined as the number of maternal deaths per
1,00,000 live births. The target 3.1 of Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) set by the United Nations aims to
reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births.
The MMR of various States according to the bulletin includes Assam (215), Bihar (149), Madhya Pradesh (173),
Chhattisgarh (159), Odisha (150), Rajasthan (164), Uttar Pradesh (197) and Uttarakhand (99). The southern
States registered a lower MMR — Andhra Pradesh (65), Telangana (63), Karnataka (92), Kerala (43) and Tamil
Nadu (60).
“Maternal mortality in a region is a measure of reproductive health of women in the area. As per the World
Health Organization, maternal death is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination
of pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management,”
Source
2) Consider the following statements regarding Distribution and global adoption of Biotech Crops.
1. In 2018, USA remained as top producer of biotech crops globally, followed by China.
2. The most planted biotech crop in 2018 was soybean.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Of the 26 countries that planted biotech crops in 2018, 18 countries were considered as biotech mega-countries,
which grew at least 50,000 hectares. USA remained as top producer of biotech crops globally, which planted 75
million hectares in 2018, covering 39% of the global biotech crop plantings. Brazil landed on the second spot,
with 51.3 million hectares or 27% of the global output.
The most planted biotech crops in 2018 were soybean, maize, cotton, and canola. Although there was only 2%
increase in the planting of biotech soybean, it maintained its high adoption rate of 50% of the global biotech
crops or 95.9 million hectares. This area is 78% of the total soybean production worldwide
Source

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INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT....................................................................................................... 12

3. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ............................................................................... 30

4. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ........................................................................................................... 49

5. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS ........................................................................ 60

8. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................... 70

9. MAPS / PLACES .............................................................................................................................. 72

10. MISCELLANEOUS ........................................................................................................................ 77

2) Consider the following statements regarding Compulsory licensing.

4) Consider the following statements.

What are the services an IFSC can provide?

6) Consider the following statements regarding Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

7) Consider the following statements about prepaid payment instruments

8) Teaser loan, sometimes seen in news means

10) Zombie firms, sometimes seen in news implies

11) Consider the following statements regarding BHARAT Bond ETFs.

The Bharat Bond ETF is India’s first corporate debt ETF.

Some of the Financial entities regulated by SEBI.

14) Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.

2. Ecology and Environment

2) Polycrack technology, recently seen in news is related to

4) Stockholm Declaration 1972, sometimes seen in news is related to

7) Consider the following statements regarding Wetlands.

9) Consider the following statements regarding Black Carbon.

The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an

13) Consider the following statements.

National Wetland Committee advices are not binding.

16) Consider the following statements regarding Coalbed methane (CBM).

Coalbed methane (CBM):

18) Consider the following statements regarding Marine heatwaves.

El Nino can also lead to marine heatwaves.

21) Consider the following statements regarding UN-REDD Programme.

The UN-REDD Programme depends entirely on voluntary funds.

22) Consider the following statements regarding Methane Emissions.

23) Consider the following statements regarding Kaziranga National Park.

24) Melghat Tiger Reserve, recently in news is located in

25) Consider the following statements.

26) Consider the following statements.

30) Consider the following statements regarding Golden langur.

31) The Green Climate Fund has been established by the

32) Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

3. Government Schemes and Programmes

5) Consider the following statements.

6) Nikshay Poshan Yojana, sometimes seen in news is related to

10) Consider the following statements regarding MGNREGA.

11) Consider the following statements.

The Major Promotional Functions of BEE include:

Strengthen consultancy services in the field of energy conservation

Promote research and development

Develop testing and certification procedures and promote testing facilities

Formulate and facilitate implementation of pilot projects and demonstration projects

Promote use of energy efficient processes, equipment, devices and systems

Promote innovative financing of energy efficiency projects

Prepare educational curriculum on efficient use of energy and its conservation

14) Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.

DMF funds are treated as extra-budgetary resources for the States.

19) Consider the following statements.

21) Consider the following statements.