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CHAPTER-1: GRAVITATION

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) What will be the weight of a person on earth, who weighs 9 N on the moon?
(a) 3N (b) 15 N
(c) 45 N (d) 54 N
(2) For two balls of equal masses as shown in the figure, the magnitude of
gravitational force between them is F.

In which of the conditions shown in the options below, the gravitational force
remains same i.e., F?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(3) Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between

(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and Sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only
(4) According to Newton's law of gravitation, for two objects kept at a distance d
from each other, if the distance between the objects is doubled, then the force
between the two objects
(a) increases by a factor of 4 (b) decreases by a factor of 4
(c) decreases by a factor of 2 (d) increases by a factor of 2
(5) According to Newton’s first law of motion, the higher the mass __________ is the
inertia.
(a) lower (b) higher (c) zero (d) double

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) By considering first correlation complete the second correlation:
Gravitational constant (G): ____________ :: Acceleration due to gravity : m/s2

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(2) Match the following:
Column I Column II Column III
(a) Mass (1) m/s2 (i) Zero at the centre
(b) Weight (2) kg (ii) Measure of inertia
(3) Nm2/kg2 (iii) Zero at all places
(4) N (iv) Maximum at the centre
(3) State true or false. If false, write the correct sentence.
The gravitational force acting on two bodies will be affected when they are
dipped in water.
(4) Find odd one out.
Mass, weight, gravitational constant, acceleration, gravitational force.

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Value of g is zero at the centre of the earth.

(B) Answer the followings questions.

(1) Distinguish between: mass and weight of an object.

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of its foci. The Sun’s position is
indicated as O. X1Y1 and X2Y2 are the distance covered by the planet in equal time. X1O
and X2O lines sweep equal area in equal intervals of time. Hence, areas X1OY1 and
X2OY2 are equal. Also, the time taken by the planet to complete one revolution around
the Sun depends on its mean distance (r) from the Sun.

(a) Which laws do we understand from the description given above?

(b) If shaded area X3OY3 is n times the area from X1OY1 then what will be the
relation between time taken by the planet to move from X1 to Y1, say t1 and time
taken by the planet to move from X3 to Y3, say t2?
(c) State the law explained in the description which is used to formulate inverse
square law of gravity.

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(2) A stone thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity `u' reaches a height 'h' before
coming down. Show that the time taken to go up is same as the time taken to come
down.
(3) The figure shows the elliptical orbit of a planet about the Sun S. An ellipse is the curve
obtained when a cone is cut by an inclined plane. It has two focal points. The sum of
the distances to the two focal points from every point on the curve is constant. F1 and
F2 are the two focal points of the ellipse. The shaded area CF1D is equal to the shaded
area AF1B. t1 is the time taken by the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
move from A to B.
(a) Which laws do we understand from the above diagram and description?
(b) State the law regarding areas swept by the line joining the planet and the Sun.
(c) Out of the following points P, Q, R, B; at which point will the velocity of the
planet be maximum?

(4) An object thrown vertically upwards reaches a height of 320 m. What was its initial
velocity?
How long will the object take to come back to the earth? Assume g = 10 m/s2.

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CHAPTER-2: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) In which block of the modem periodic table are the nonmetals found?
(a) s-block (b) p-block
(c) d-block (d) f-block
(2) Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of
the modern periodic table?
(a) Atomic radius (b) Metallic character
(c) Valence electrons (d) Number of shells

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Match the following:
Element Group Period
(a) Lithium (1) 1 (i) 1
(b) Aluminium (2) 3 (ii) 2
(3) 12 (iii) 3
(4) 13 (iv) 4
(2) Name the family of nonmetals having valency one.
(3) Find the odd one out and write explanation.
Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Iron

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Elements belonging to the same group have the same valency.
(2) Metallic character goes on decreasing while going from left to right in a period.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Write short note on: Position of isotopes in the Mendeleev's and the modern
periodic table.
(2) State the demerits of Mendeleev's periodic table.

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Q.3. Answer the following questions.
(1) Complete the following table:
Name of Number of
Diagram of Electronic Atomic Electronic
the valence
configuration of atom number configurations
element electrons
Carbon _________ _________ _________

_________ _________ (2, 8, 2) _________

(2) State and explain Newlands' law of octaves.

(3) Complete the following table.
Electronic Type of
Element Atomic No.
configuration element
- 13 2, 8, 3 Metal
Silicon 14 - Metalloid
Phosphorus 15 2, 8, 5 -
- 16 - Nonmetal
Chlorine 17 2, 8, 7 -

Q.4. Answer the following questions.

(1) In the following table, seven elements A, B, C, D, E, F and G (here letters are not the
usual symbols of the elements) of the modern periodic table with their atomic
numbers are given.

(a) What is the valency of element 'A'?

(b) Which of these is a halogen?
(c) Which of these are metals?
(d) Among elements 'A', and 'B', which element has smaller atomic radius?
(e) Write the electronic configuration of C and E.

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(2) The modern periodic table consists of seven horizontal rows called the periods and
eighteen vertical columns called the groups. In addition to these seven rows,
lanthanide and actinide series are shown separately at the bottom of the periodic
table. In the following modern periodic table, some elements are indicated by
alphabets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I. Based on the positions of these elements and the
periodic trends, answer the given questions below.

(a) Identify metalloids.

(b) Which elements are transition elements?
(c) Among elements 'D' and 'C', which element is more electronegative? Why?
(d) Among elements 'F', and 'H', which element has larger atomic radius?
(e) Among elements 'A', 'D' and 'I', which element has the highest nonmetallic
character?

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CHAPTER-3: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Q.1 Answer the following.

(1) Write the formula of the product formed when ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen
chloride gas.

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) It takes time for pieces of Shahabad tile to disappear in HCl, but its powder
disappears rapidly.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Define endothermic reaction. Give an example.

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) Complete the following table:
No. Reaction Type of reaction
∆
(a) 2HgO(s) → 2Hg(l) + O2(g) _______________
(b) Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s) _______________
(c) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s)  + NaNO3(aq) _______________
(2) Select the appropriate options and complete the following paragraph.
(oxygen, hydrogen, reduction, oxidation, never, always, redox, decomposition)
____________ is the process in which a substance gains ____________ or loses hydrogen.
____________ is the process in which a substance gains ____________ or loses oxygen. The
reaction in which one reactant gets oxidised and the other reactant gets reduced is
called as oxidation-reduction reaction or _______ reaction. Oxidation and reduction
reactions ____________occur simultaneously.
(3) Observe the following picture and write down the chemical reaction with
explanation.

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(4) The reaction of sodium chloride solution with silver nitrate solution is shown in the
following figure:

(a) Name the product of the reaction.

(b) Write chemical equation of the reaction involved.
(c) Does the reaction follow the law of conservation of mass? Justify your answer.
(5) Explain the term with example: Balanced equation.
(6) Explain the term reactant and product giving examples.
(7) Complete the following table:
Reaction Reductant Oxidant
CuO + H2  Cu + H2O
Mg + O2  2MgO
Fe + S  FeS

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CHAPTER-4: EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) In _______________ appliance, Fleming's left hand rule is not used.
(a) electric fan (b) mixer
(c) computer (d) electric generator
(2) When electric current is passed through the solenoid, it shows magnetic lines
of force similar to a ______________ .
(a) bar magnet (b) horse shoe magnet
(c) disk magnet (d) spherical magnet
(3) Heating effect of electric current is not observed in
(a) electric oven (b) electric iron
(c) electric motor (d) fuse

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Match the columns.
Column I Column II
(a) Electric fuse (1) Magnetic effect of electric current
(b) Electric fan (2) Heating effect of electric current
(3) Electromagnetic induction
(2) Complete the analogy.
In Fleming's right hand rule-Thumb: Motion of conductor :: In Fleming's right
hand rule-Index finger: __________ .
(3) Match the symbols of column Ito their names in column II.
Column I Column II
(a) (1) Plug key

(b) (2) Alternating current

(3) battery

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Why is tungsten metal used to make a solenoid type coil in an electric bulb?
(2) For electric power transmission, copper or aluminium wire is used.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Two tungsten bulbs of power 50 W and 60 W work on 220 V potential
difference. If they are connected in parallel, how much current will flow in the
main conductor?

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(2) An electric bulb is connected to 250 volts. If the current of 0.5 A passes through
it, what is the power of the bulb?

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) An electric iron of 1100 W is operated for 2 hrs daily. What will be the electrical
consumption expenses for that in the month of April? (The electric company
charges Rs 5 per unit of energy.)

Q.4. Answer the following questions.

(1) Explain the construction and working of an electric motor. Draw a neat diagram and
label it.
(2) Correct the diagram given below of AC electric generator. Label the corrected
diagram and explain its construction and working.

(3) Tara, after completing her exams, went to her grandmother's house along with her
younger brother Rahul. One day, Rahul came home after playing and switched on the
fan as well as air conditioner. At the same time, his grandmother was preparing a
milkshake for him using a mixer. Suddenly, there was a big sound and the electricity
of the house got shut down. Tara then called an electrician. He said the main reason
for the supply to shut down was overloading.
Both Tara and Rahul asked few questions to the electrician as given below. What
answers would the electrician had given to these questions?
(a) What is overloading?
(b) How can the effects of overloading be avoided?
(c) Is overloading and short circuiting the same? When does short circuiting take
place?
(d) What happens to the resistance of the circuit during a short circuit?
(e) What happens to the flow of electric current during a short circuit?

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Chapter-5: HEAT

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) If two ice cubes are pressed against each other, they stick together firmly after
some time because ____________.
(a) temperature of the ice cubes reduces.
(b) the melting point of ice reduces to below 0 °C due to the pressure applied.
(c) temperature around the ice cubes reduces.
(d) the melting point of ice becomes 0 °C due to pressure.
(2) Water expands on reducing its temperature below ____ °C.
(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 12 (d) 5
(3) In cold countries in winter, water carrying pipes sometimes break, because
__________ .
(a) Volume of water reduces if the temperature is reduced below 0 °C.
(b) air pressure increases.
(c) the steel pipes become brittle due to reduced temperature below 0 °C.
(d) Volume of water increases if the temperature is reduced below 4 °C.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) State true or false.
The higher the temperature of air, higher is the amount of water vapour needed
to saturate it.
(2) Match the physical quantities given in column I to units used to express them
given in column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Specific latent heat (1) cal/g °C
(b) Heat (2) cal/g
(3) J
(3) Complete the analogy:
0 °C : Melting point of ice :: 100 °C : _________ .

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) In cold regions in winter, the rocks crack due to anomalous expansion of water.

Q.2. (B) Answer the following questions.

(1) How much heat energy is necessary to raise the temperature of 10 kg of water
from 40 °C to 100 °C?
(2) Equal heat is given to two objects A and B of mass 5 g. Temperature of A
increases by 1°C and B by 3°C. Which object has more specific heat? And by
what factor?

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Q.3. Answer the following questions.
(1) Explain the role of latent heat in the change of state of a substance.
(2) If 80 g steam of temperature 97oC is released on an ice slab of temperature 0 oC, how
much ice will melt? How much energy will be transferred to the ice when the steam
will be transformed to water?
(Given: Latent heat of melting the ice = Lmelt = 80 cal/g, latent heat of vaporization of
water Lvap = 540 cal/g)
(3) Take 3 spheres of iron, copper and lead of equal mass.
Put all the 3 spheres in boiling water in a beaker for specific time.
Take 3 spheres out of the water. Put them immediately on a thick slab of wax. Note
the depth that each sphere goes into the wax.

(a) Which property of substance can be studied with this procedure?

(b) Describe that property in minimum words.
(c) Explain the rule of heat exchange with this property.

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CHAPTER-6: REFRACTION OF LIGHT

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) When a light ray makes an angle of 90° while entering a glass slab from air, it
(a) bends towards the normal.
(b) goes away from the normal.
(c) goes straight without bending at glass-air interface.
(d) returns back into the air.
(2) ______________ does not occur during the formation of rainbow.
(a) Refraction (b) Dispersion (c) Reflection (d) Induction
(3) Stars twinkle because of the
(a) explosions occurring in stars from time to time.
(b) absorption of light in the earth's atmosphere.
(c) motion of stars.
(d) changing refractive index of the atmospheric gases

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) State true or false. Rewrite the correct statement if false.
An illusion of the appearance of water on a hot road or in a desert is an example
of dispersion of light.
(2) Complete the given analogy and state the relation.

Light passes from rarer :: _______________ : Light passes from denser : _________
medium to denser medium medium to rarer medium
(3) Find the odd one out.
Red colour, Yellow colour, Violet colour, White colour

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Rainbow is the combined effect of the refraction, dispersion, and total internal
reflection.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) If the speed of light in a medium is 2  108 m/s, what is the absolute refractive
index of the medium? (Velocity of light in vacuum = 3  108 m/s)

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(2) Complete the table.

(3) Light travels with a velocity 2.8  108 m/s in a medium. On entering second
medium its velocity becomes 1.4  108 m/s. What is the refractive index of the
second medium with respect to the first medium?
(4) Write short note on given diagram.

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) Calculate the refractive index of water with respect to glass and refractive index of
glass with respect to water, if speed of light in water and glass is 2.2  108 m/s and
2  108 m/s respectively.
(2) Select the appropriate options and complete the following paragraph.
(refractive index, velocity, same, direction, ratio, different, frequency, product)
The extent of change in the __________ of light ray is different for different media and
depends upon the __________ of the medium. The value of refractive index depends on
the of the light in the medium. The refractive index (1n2) of second medium with
respect to the first is given by the __________ of the magnitude of velocity of light in
first medium (v1) to that in second medium (v2). Velocity of light in a medium depends
on the __________ of light and thus different colours travel with different velocity in a
medium. Therefore, refractive index of a medium is __________ for different colours.
(3) Complete the diagram and explain:

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Q.4. Answer the following questions.
(1) Calculate the missing terms and complete the following table.
Velocity in
Velocity in Refractive Refractive
first
second index index
medium
medium (v2) 2n
1
1n
2
(v1)
(a) 3  108m/s 1.2  108m/s ______________ ______________
(b) ______________ 2.25 108m/s ______________ 4/3
(c) 2  108m/s ______________ 1.5 0.67
(2) Explain partial reflection, critical angle and total internal reflection with the help of a
neat, labelled diagram.

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CHAPTER-7: LENSES

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) A ___________ lens always produces virtual and diminished image.
(a) biconvex (b) biconcave (c) planoconvex (d) bifocal
(2) At what distance a watch maker must hold his lens from the watch?
(a) At infinity.
(b) At a distance less than the focal length of the lens.
(c) At a distance more than the focal length of the lens.
(d) At zero distance.
(3) A student obtains a clear image of a candle on a screen with the help of a convex
lens. He now wants to focus on a distant tree and obtain a clear image. In which
direction should he move the lens in order to get a clear image?
(a) Behind the screen
(b) Away from the screen
(c) Towards the screen
(d) At a very long distance from the screen.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Name the defect of eye shown in the diagram.

(2) Write if given statement is true or false. Correct the statement if false and
rewrite.
Simple microscope is used for watch repairs.

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) We cannot clearly see an object kept at a distance less than 25 cm from the eye.
(2) Why can one sense colours only in bright light?

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Distinguish between farsightedness and nearsightedness.
(2) Complete the table below.
Magnification
Position of Size of the Nature of the
Sr. No (Negative or
object image image
Positive)
(a) Beyond 2F1 Small _________ _________
(b) Between _________ Virtual and erect _________
F1and O

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(3) Two concave lenses, each of focal length 60 cm are placed in contact with each
other. Find the power of the combination.

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) Study the diagram and answer the questions given below.

(a) Name the optical instrument shown in the diagram.

(b) Label the diagram correctly.
(c) Write the working of this instrument.
(2) Identify concept in given statements.
(a) Rays travelling parallel to principal axis falling on lens come together. Identify
the type of lens.
(b) For a given lens, ratio of height of image to the height of object is calculated.
What is the ratio defined as?
(c) Reema's eyes are black while Rahul's eyes are brown in colour. Which part of
eye decides colour of eyes?
(d) Priya's grandfather is prescribed bifocal lens as focusing power of his eye lens
has decreased with age. Name the defect of vision is he suffering from.
(e) Which optical device is used to study the gems and closely observe defects in
them?
1th
(f) Name the phenomenon that causes image to remain imprinted on retina for
16
second after the removal of object in front of the eyes.
(3) Doctor has prescribed a lens having power + 1.5 D. What will be the focal length of
the lens?
What is the type of the lens and what must be the defect of vision?
(4) Explain with neat ray diagram, the formation of image in a concave lens.

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(5) Label the parts of the following diagram of the human eye and state the functions of
those parts.

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CHAPTER-8: METALLURGY

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) Which gas is liberated when aluminium metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine (d) Hydrogen peroxide
(2) What happens when a piece of zinc metal is added to copper sulphate solution?
(a) Copper sulphide is formed.
(b) Colourless solution of zinc sulphate is formed.
(c) Copper sulphate solution is not affected at all.
(d) Hydrogen sulphide gas is evolved.
(3) Which of the following metals does not react with cold or hot water but reacts
with steam?
(a) Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Iron

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Find odd one out and write explanation.
Lead, gold, ice, iron.
(2) Name the reagent that dissolves noble metals.

Q.2. (A) Answer the following questions.

(1) Distinguish between metals and nonmetals (on the basis of their chemical
properties).

Q.2. (B) Answer the following.

(1) What are the physical properties of metals?

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) Study the following experiment set-up and answer the following questions.

(a) What changes will you observe in test tube A?

(b) What do you think will happen in test tube B?
(c) What will happen if copper sulphate solution in test tube A is replaced by
magnesium nitrate solution?
(2) Select appropriate options and complete the following paragraph:
(ores, gangue, metallurgy, electrolysis, minerals, gold, iron, platinum)

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Based on their reactivity, most of the metals are found in combined state in the earth's
crust while some metals such as silver, __________ and __________ are found in free state.
The compounds of metals which occur naturally in the earth's crust are known as
___________ . The minerals from which metals can be profitably extracted are called
_____________ . Ores mined from earth usually contain large amount of impurities like
sand, soil, etc. These impurities are called ___________. The extraction of metals from
their ores and then refining them for use is known as ___________ .
(3) Label the diagram given below and explain it.

(4) Explain Hall's process used for concentration of bauxite ore.

(5) Following diagram represents one of the methods to concentrate ores. Label 'A ', B',
'C' and ’D' in the following diagram. Explain the diagram.

(6) Label the following diagram and explain the process.

(7) What is meant by electroplating? Which other measures would you suggest to stop
the corrosion of metallic articles or not to allow the corrosion to start?
(8) Identify and name the process or method involved in each of the following
metallurgical process:
(a) A sulphide ore of a metal is converted to metal oxide by heating in excess of air.

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(b) The method used for concentration of zinc sulphide ore using water and pine
oil.
(c) A powdered ore is treated with certain reagent in which the ore is soluble due
to chemical reaction, but the gangue is not soluble.
(d) The pure alumina obtained from bauxite ore is electrolyzed to obtain metallic
aluminium.
(e) Zinc carbonate is heated strongly in limited supply of air to convert it to oxide.
(f) The method used for concentration of cassiterite, an ore of tin.

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CHAPTER-9: CARBON COMPOUNDS

Q.1. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Carbon forms a large number of compounds.

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) State the characteristics of a homologous series.
(2) Give four examples of homopolymers.
(3) Write names of first four members of the homologous series of alkenes:

(4) Identify the type of the following reactions of carbon compounds.

(a) CH3 - CH3 + Cl2  CH3 - CH2 - Cl+ HCl
(b) CH3 - COOH + CH3 – OH  CH3 - COO - CH3 + H2O

Q.3. (A) Answer the following questions.

(1) Complete the following table:
Name of the Structural formula of Name of the
compound the compound functional group
Propanone
Methanol
Methanal
(2) Select the appropriate options and complete the following paragraph.
(ethyne, ethene, ethane, propane, saturated, unsaturated, oxygen, hydrogen)
Carbon compounds contain many elements. The compounds which contain
carbon and ___________ as the only two elements are called hydrocarbons.
Hydrocarbons are the simplest and the fundamental organic compounds. The
smallest hydrocarbon is methane formed by combination of one carbon atom
and four hydrogen atoms. ___________ having molecular formula C2H6, is an
example of ___________ are hydrocarbons. ___________ (C2H4) and ___________ (C2H2)
are ___________ hydrocarbons.

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Q.4. Answer the following questions.
(1) When ethanol is heated at 170 °C with conc. H2SO4, it forms an organic compound `A'
and water. The compound 'A' reacts with hydrogen in the presence of nickel to form
'B'.
(a) Name the compound A and write its chemical formula.
(b) Name the compound B and write its chemical formula.
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction involved in formation of ‘B' from
'A'.
(d) Identify the homologous series to which A and B belongs.
(e) ‘B' undergoes combustion in presence of sufficient amount of oxygen to release
large amount of heat and light. Write its chemical equation.
(2) Carbon forms a large number of compounds because of its two unique properties
catenation and tetravalency. The compounds formed may have long straight chains
of carbon, branched chains of carbon or rings of carbon. In these compounds, carbon
atoms may form single, double or triple covalent bonds. Compounds in which the
carbon atoms are linked to each other by single bonds are called saturated carbon
compounds whereas compounds having at least one carbon-carbon double or triple
bond are called unsaturated carbon compounds. Compounds containing only carbon
and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons. Based on the above information, answer
the following questions.
(a) Why does carbon form large number of compounds?
(b) Give one example of carbon compounds which has ring structure.
(c) What are saturated hydrocarbons? Give one example.
(d) Give IUPAC name of the first member of hydrocarbon in its homologues series
which contains carbon-carbon triple bond.
(e) What is common name and molecular formula of ethyne?
(3) Draw a concept map and explain classification of hydrocarbons based on carbon-
carbon bonds with the help of examples.

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CHAPTER-10: SPACE MISSIONS

Q.1. (A) Choose the correct alternative.

(1) The IRNSS satellite is used ______________ .
(a) to get directions of any location on the earth.
(b) to study and forecast weather conditions on the earth.
(c) to establish communication between different locations in the world.
(d) in exploration and management of natural resources.
(2) Satellite revolving around the earth at a height of 400 km above the earth's
surface has a time period of about ____________.
(a) 24 hours (b) 90 minutes
(c) 2 hours (d) > 24 hours
(3) There are ____________ attached on the both sides of an artificial satellite as
wings.
(a) Solar photovoltaic panels (b) fuel tanks
(c) motors (d) cameras

(B) Answer the following questions.

(1) Identify the terms A and B in the given diagram.

(2) State true or false.

A satellite needs a specific velocity to revolve in a specific orbit.
(3) Find the odd one out.
INSAT, GSAT, EDUSAT, IRNSS
(4) Complete the analogy.
The first artificial satellite : Sputnik :: The first Indian satellite : __________

Q.2. (A) Give scientific reasons.

(1) Geostationary satellites are not useful for studies of polar regions.
(2) Why is it beneficial to use satellite launch vehicles made of more than one
stage?
(3) There is a need to manage space debris.

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 QUESTION BANK - 1
Science and Technology - 1
(B) Answer the following questions.
(1) Complete the following table for the space missions undertaken by ISRO.
Spacecraft Mission to Function/Achivement
(a) (b)
Moon
ISRO ______________ ____________________
Mangalyaan (c) (d)
______________ _____________________
(2) Write a note on space expeditions.
(3) Distinguish between: High earth orbits and low earth orbits.

Q.3. Answer the following questions.

(1) How are the satellites classified based on their functions?
(2) Complete the following table.

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