Page 1 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Biology Class 12

Sample Paper 15
Biology (044)
Class XII Session 2023-24
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section—A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section—B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section—C has
7 questions of 3 marks each: Section—D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section—E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION - A
1. Along with nicotine, cigarette smokers also have the intake tars, phenols, hydrocarbons, arsenic and many other
chemicals. Which of the following is not an effect of smoking tobacco?
(a) Narrowing or hardening of blood vessels in the heart and brain

(b) A higher frequency of respiratory infections (e.g., colds, pneumonia)

(c) A higher risk of cancer, including cancer of the lungs, mouth, larynx, bladder and kidneys

(d) None of these

2. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a

(a) a machine
(b) a bacterium that produces methane gas
(c) a bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
(d) a fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities.

3. Fitness according to Darwin refers to

(a) number of species in a community (b) useful variation in population
(c) strength of an individual (d) reproductive fitness of an organism.

4. What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related population?

(a) Expanding Stable (b) Stable Declining

(c) Expanding Declining (d) Declining Stable

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5. In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tetR) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hind III (b) BamH I
(c) EcoR I (d) Pst I

6. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

(a) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes, spermatids
(b) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
(c) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
(d) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa, spermatids

7. The biomass available for consumption to heterotrophs and the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers are referred to as
(a) gross primary productivity and net primary productivity respectively
(b) net primary productivity and gross primary productivity respectively
(c) gross primary productivity and secondary productivity respectively
(d) net primary productivity and secondary productivity respectively.

8. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

(a) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilisation
(b) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
(c) Barrier methods Prevent fertilisation
(d) Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms

9. Refer to the given table of contrasting traits in pea plants studied by Mendel.

Which of the given traits are incorrectly placed?

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) (iii) only

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10. Study the following figures and identify the enzymes involved in steps I and II respectively.

(a) EcoR I and DNA ligase (b) Hind II and DNA ligase

(c) EcoR I and Hind II (d) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease

11. Ernst Chain and Howard Florey’s contribution was

(a) establishing the potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic

(b) discovery of streptokinase

(c) production of genetically engineered insulin

(d) discovery of DNA sequence

12. Which of the following phenomena was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl?
(a) Transformation (b) Transduction

(c) Semi-conservative DNA replication (d) Central dogma

13. Assertion : Offsite collections can be used to restock depleted populations, reintroduce species in the wild and
restore degraded habitats.
Reason : In situ conservation refers to the conservation of endangered species in their natural habitats.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

14. Assertion : The introduction of Nile perch in lake Victoria caused cichlids to become extinct.
Reason : Nile perch is an indigenous species of East Africa.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

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15. In the given diagram two plants of the same species depict different types of pollination indicated by the labellings
P1, P2 and P3. Study this diagram and comment upon the appropriateness of the Assertion and Reason.

Assertion : P1 is a type of self pollination.

Reason : In P1, complete flower is pollinated by its own pollen.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion : Biodiversity hotspots are the regions which possess low levels of species richness, high degree of
endemism and no loss to habitats.
Reason : Total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world is 34 with three of these hotspots found in India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION - B
17. Write the relationship between productivity, gross primary productivity, net primary productivity and secondary
productivity.


O
State the difference between the first trophic levels of detritus food chain and grazing food chain.

18. Tallness of pea plant is a dominant trait, while dwarfness is the alternate recessive trait. When a pure-line tall is
crossed with pure-line dwarf, what fraction of tall plant in F2 shall be heterozygous? Give reasons.

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19. Refer to the given figure and answer the following questions.

(i) Which of the labelled structures is a pre-birth structure and is not formed thereafter?
(ii) Which of the labelled structures responds to LH surge by rupturing?

20. A young boy when brought a pet dog home started to complaint of watery eyes and running nose. The symptoms
disappeared when the boy was kept away from the pet.
(a) Name the type of antibody and the chemicals responsible for such a response in the boy.

(b) Mention the name of any one drug that could be given to the boy for immediate relief from such a response.

21. State the functions of the following in the cloning vector pBR322 :
(a) ori (b) rop

SECTION - C
22. Explain the steps in the formation of an ovum from an oogonium in humans.

23. (a) Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated by pollen grains of the same species growing in New Delhi?
Provide explanations to your answer.
(b) Draw the diagram of a pistil where pollination has successfully occurred. Label the parts involved in
transferring the male gametes to their desired destination.

24. (a) What do ‘Y’ and ‘B’ stand for in ‘YAC’ and ‘BAC’ used for DNA sequencing in Human Genome Project
(HGP)? Mention their role in the project.
(b) Write the percentage of human genome that codes for proteins and the percentage of discovered genes whose
functions are unknown.

(c) Expand `SNPs’ identified by scientists in HGP.

25. (a) Explain adaptive radiation with the help of a suitable example.
(b) Cite an example where more than one adaptive radiation have occurred in an isolated geographical area.
Name the type of a evolution your example depict and state why it is so named.

26. (a) Explain the basis on which the gel electrophoresis technique works.
(b) Write any two ways by which products obtained through this technique can be utilised.

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27. Why are lymph nodes and bone marrows called lymphoid organs? Explain the functions of each one.

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(a) Name the causative organisms for the following diseases :

(i) Elephantiasis
(ii) Ringworm
(iii) Amoebiasis
(b) How can public hygiene help control infectious diseases?

28. Name and describe any three causes of biodiversity losses.

SECTION - D


DIRECTION : Question No. 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.

29. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and characterised by memory. Whenever our body encounters a pathogen
for the first time, it produces a response. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicts a highly intensified
secondary response.
(a) Name the two lymphocytes which are responsible for acquired immunity.

(b) Identify the structure shown in the figure.

(c) It is generally observed that the children who had suffered from chicken-pox in their childhood may not
contract the same disease in their adulthood. Explain giving reasons the basis of such an immunity in an
individual. Name this kind of immunity.

O

(c) Differentiate between the two lymphocytes responsible for acquired immunity.

30. The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is
mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only
a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA. Transcription mainly consists of three steps.
One of the steps of transcription is given below.

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Page 7 Sample Paper 15 CBSE Biology Class 12

(a) Identify the given step and name the labels B and C.
(b) What will happen if C is not available in the above process?
(c) What changes will take place in A after the completion of above process in eukaryotes?

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(c) Briefly explain the previous step or given figure taking place in prokaryotes.

SECTION - E
31. (a) Forelimbs of given animals have the same basic structural plan. Such organs have similar developmental
pattern and they develop in related organisms, but these do differ morphologically. What type of evolution
and structure is exhibited by the organisms given in the figure.

(b) (i) Differentiate between analogy and homology giving one example each of plant and animal.
(ii) How analogy and homology considered as an evidence in support of evolution?


O
Refer to the given information regarding human evolution given below and answer the following questions.
The fossil evidence clearly indicates that origin of man occured in Central Asia. About 15 mya, primates called
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. Among the stories of evolution, the story of evolution of modern
man appears to parallel evolution of human brain and their charactristics development.
(a) Where did Australopithecus evolve?
(b) Write the scientific name of Java man.
(c) Name the first human like hominid. Mention his food habit and brain capacity.
(d) Write the characteristics of Ramapithecus and Neanderthal man.

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32. Describe the roles of pituitary and ovarian hormones during the menstrual cycle in a human female.


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(i) Trace the development of megaspore mother cell up to the formation of a mature embryo sac in a flowering
plant.
(ii) Draw a labelled diagram of the structure of mature dicot embryo.

33. (i) What is EcoRI? How does EcoRI differ from an exonuclease?
(ii) EcoRI is used to cut a segment of foreign DNA and that of a vector DNA to form a recombinant DNA.
Show with the help of schematic diagrams.
(a) The set of palindromic nucleotide sequence of base pairs the EcoRI will recognise in both the DNA
segments. Mark the site at which EcoRI will act and cut both the segments.
(b) Sticky ends formed on both the segments where the two DNA segments will join later to form a
recombinant DNA.


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(i) (a) Identify A and B illustrations in the following:

(b) Write the term given to A and C and why?

(ii) (a) Expand PCR. Mention its importance in biotechnology.
(b) Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR.

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