Vision IAS Prelims 2023 Test 02 Solution (WWW - Upscpdf.com)

VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3786 (2023)
Q 1.C
• A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for the civilian population in the
cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—legislation enacted
by the Central government. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It works under the administrative control of the Defence Ministry of the Central government. Thus,
a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members
hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so
long as they hold the office in that station. The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio
president of the board and presides over its meetings. The Vice-President of the board is elected by the
elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 2.A
• Recently, Professor Neena Gupta, a mathematician at the Indian Statistical Institute in Kolkata, has
been awarded the 2021 Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians. She is the fourth Indian to
receive the Ramanujan Prize. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Ritabrata Munshi (2018), Amalendu Krishna (2015), Sujatha Ramdorai (2006) - have already been
honored with the prize.
• Professor Neena Gupta has been conferred this award for her outstanding work in affine algebraic
geometry and commutative algebra.
• About the Prize
o The prize was first awarded in 2005 in memory of Mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan to promote
the young talents in the field of Mathematics from developing countries. It is awarded annually
to a researcher less than 45 years of age. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o It was instituted by The Abdus Salam International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP)
ICTP, the Niels Henrik Abel Memorial Fund, and the International Mathematical Union (IMU).
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o It is usually awarded to one person but maybe shared equally among recipients who have contributed
to the same body of work.
Q 3.A
• Recently US patient become the first women and third person to be cured of HIV after receiving
Stem Cell Transplant (SCT) from a donor who was naturally resistant to the virus that cause AIDS.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
o HIV is a virus that attacks the body’s immune system. If HIV is not treated it can lead to AIDS.
• Stem cells are special human cells that can develop into many different cell types such as muscle cells,
blood cells, and brain cells.
• Stem cells are abundant in the body, appearing in many different organs and tissues including the brain,
blood, bone marrow, muscle, skin, heart, and liver tissues.
• Apart from mammals, stem cells can be derived from insects, amphibians, plants. Hence statement
3 is not correct.
• Three main types of stem cells i.e.
o Embryonic stem cells (supply new cells for an embryo as it grows and develops into a baby),
o Adult Stem Cells (supply new cells as an organism grows and replace cells that get damaged).
o Induced Pluripotent Stem cells or iPS cells (stem cells that scientists make in the laboratory).
Hence statement 1 is correct.
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Q 4.B
• When the Governor reserves a bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any
further role in the enactment of the bill. If the bill is returned by the President for the reconsideration of
the House or Houses and is passed again, the bill must be presented again for the Presidential assent only.
• However, The President is not obliged to give assent to the bill. If the President gives his assent to the bill,
it becomes an Act. This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 5.B
• Statement 1 is correct: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
• Statement 2 is not correct: No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister
only.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire
council of minister.
Q 6.A
• The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or assembly constituency is responsible for the conduct of
elections in the Parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned. The Election Commission of India
nominates or designates an officer of the Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for
each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government / Union
Territory Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of India also appoints one or more
Assistant Returning Officers for each of the assembly and Parliamentary constituencies to assist the
Returning Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the conduct of elections.
Q 7.D
• The Parliament determines the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme
Court judges. Hence statement (a) is not correct.
• The Parliament cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the judge's disadvantage after his
appointment. Hence statement (b) is not correct.
• Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India. Hence statement (c) is not correct.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 8.C
• Art 163(1) of the Constitution empowers the Governor to act in his discretion on certain matters. Based on
various court rulings and conventions, the discretion of the Governor has been limited to:
o Exercising the powers given to Governor of Assam under para 9 of 6th Schedule
o Exercising the functions of a Governor-appointed as an administrator of a Union Territory under Art
239(2).
o Special responsibilities are assigned to the Governors of various states under the provisions of Article
371.
o Submitting a report to the President under Art 356 on the failure of Constitutional machinery
in the state.
o Reservation of bills for the consideration of the President (under Art 200).
o Appointing a Chief Minister if no single party has secured a majority in the state election.
• In all the other matters, he has to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Appointment of members
of the State Election Commission is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 9.C
• The 74th Amendment Act (Article 243ZD) provides that every state shall constitute at the district
level, a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities
in the district, and to prepare a draft development plan for the district as a whole. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The Act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee should be elected
by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst
themselves. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The representation of these members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between
the rural and urban population in the district. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 10.D
• The method of election of the Vice President is similar to that of the President. The only difference is that
members of State legislatures are not part of the Electoral College. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Vice President acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and takes over the office of the
President when there is a vacancy by reasons of death, resignation, removal by impeachment or otherwise.
• Removal of the Vice-President of India: Article 67 of the Indian Constitution states that Vice-
President can be removed from office before the completion of his term.
o A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
o He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all the then
members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution
should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple
majority. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been
given.
o No ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
Q 11.C
• Committee on Public Undertakings: This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of
the Krishna Menon Committee.
• The functions of the committee are:
o To examine the reports and accounts of public undertakings.
o To examine the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General on public undertakings.
o The committee is not to examine and investigate any of the following:
✓ Matters of major government policy as distinct from business or commercial functions of the
public undertakings;
✓ Matters of day-to-day administration;
✓ Matters for the consideration of which machinery is established by any special statute under
which a particular public undertaking is established;
✓ Technical matters as its members are not technical experts.
• The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn
from the Lok Sabha only. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The members are elected every year for a term of 1 year. The elections are done through proportional
representation using a single transferable vote. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee.
Q 12.D
• Vice-President (also acts as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha) shall hold office for a term of five years from
the date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that – Article 67(a) - Vice-President may, by
writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
Q 13.C
• With regard to the office of Supreme Court judge there are following provisions in the Constitution:
o He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. (Any question regarding his age is to be
determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament).
o He can resign his office by writing to the president.
o He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.
Hence he does not have a fixed tenure.
o The conduct of Judges cannot be discussed in the legislature except during impeachment
motions.
• Hence both the statements are correct.
Q 14.D
• India has a bicameral system i.e., two Houses of Parliament. At the state level, the equivalent of the Lok
Sabha is the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly; that of the Rajya Sabha is the Vidhan Parishad or
Legislative Council.
o Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body
and is not subject to dissolution. But, one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second
year.
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• Statement 1 is not correct: The Parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it if the
legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution
must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed
as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed as an ordinary
piece of legislation by a simple majority.
• Statement 2 is not correct: An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature. If the
assembly rejects the amendments suggested by the council or the council rejects the bill altogether or does
not take any action for three months, then the assembly may pass the bill again and transmit the same to
the council. If the council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the
assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both
the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the assembly for the second time.
o Therefore, the ultimate power of passing an ordinary bill is vested in the assembly. At most, the
council can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first
instance and one month in the second instance. The Constitution does not provide for the
mechanism of a joint sitting of both the Houses.
Q 15.D
• Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being a member of the
legislative assembly:
o if he holds any office of profit under the Union or State government (except that of a minister or any
other office exempted by state legislature).
o if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o if he is an undischarged insolvent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under
any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state and
o if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament
• The constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of
state legislature if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth
schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• If one is found guilty of an illegal practice in relation to election and being a director or managing agent of
a corporation in which government has a financial interest.
• Section 8 of the RP Act deals with disqualification on conviction for certain offences: A person convicted
of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for varying terms under Sections 8 (1) (2) and (3) shall be
disqualified from the date of conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six
years since his release.
• In 2015, Supreme Court held that even after a Returning Officer has declared the result, the election can
be nullified if candidate has not disclosed criminal records.
Q 16.B
• In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the
Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest
measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The
committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of
‘democratic decentralization, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj. It recommended
the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati raj system—gram panchayat at the village level,
panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the prime
minister on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. Rajasthan was followed by Andhra Pradesh, which also
adopted the system in 1959. Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 which came into force on 24 April 1993 gave
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the
justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constituti onal
obligation to adopt the new Panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act.
Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals
depending on the will of the state government anymore. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Q 17.B
• Article 301 of the Indian Constitution declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the
territory of India shall be free. The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is a freedom from all restrictions,
except those which are provided for in the other provisions (Articles 302 to 305) of Part XIII of the
Constitution itself. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse between the states
or within a state in public interest. But, the Parliament cannot give preference to one state over another or
discriminate between the states except in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
Q 18.B
• The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled
areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• As these areas are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward, and
special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Some of the features of administration
contained in the Fifth Schedule are
o It is the President who is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
o He can also increase or decrease its area alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make
fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
• Sixth Schedule: Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
Q 19.C
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment provides for a five-year term of office to the panchayat at every level.
However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term. Further, fresh elections to constitute a
Panchayat shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its duration of five years; or (b) in case of
dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
• But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued) is less
than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election for constituting the new panchayat for such
period. Moreover, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration
of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved
Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat
reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office
only for the remainder of the period.
Q 20.B
• Local government is a ‘State subject‘. States are free to make their own laws on this subject. But once
the Constitution was amended through the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act, the States had to
change their laws about local bodies in order to bring these in conformity with the amended Constitution.
They were given one year’s time for making necessary changes in their respective State laws in the light
of these amendments.
Q 21.C
• Statement 1 is correct. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for
the second time and not vice versa. When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and
transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or propose s
amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month,
then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the
legislative assembly for the second time.
• Statement 2 is correct. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock
applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the
legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes
dead.
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Q 22.D
• Justice R. S. Sarkaria Commission was appointed in June 1983. It stressed cooperative federalism
and noted that federalism is more a functional arrangement for cooperative action than a static
institutional concept. At the same time, it did not equate strong center with centralization of powers
because over-centralization leads to blood pressure at the center and anemia at the periphery.
• M M Punchhi Commission was set up in 2007 and it gave its recommendations in 2010. Some of the
important recommendations are as follows:
o There should be a consultation process between unions and states via Inter-state Council for
legislation on concurrent subjects.
o Regarding state bills, the President’s pocket veto should end and there should be a reasonable time (6
months) in which President communicates his decision.
o The treaty-making powers of union should be regulated and states should get greater participation in
treaties where the interests of states are involved.
o Governor should get clear guidelines for the appointment of Chief Ministers so that he does not
misuse his discretionary powers in this context. etc.
• Rajmannar committee was set in 1969. Apart from making a call for immediate constitution of the
Inter-state Council, this committee made the following recommendations:
o Union government should not take any decision without consulting the inter-state council when such a
decision can affect the interests of one or more states.
o Every bill which affects the interests of the states should be first referred to the inter-state council
before it is introduced in parliament.
o Article 356 should be used only in rare cases of a complete breakdown of law and order in the state.
etc.
• Thus all the committees made recommendations with respect to the Centre-State relations.
Q 23.B
• Recently, Germany has halted the Nord Stream 2 pipeline as nations have sanctioned Russia.
• Nord Stream 2 is a 1,200 km pipeline under the Baltic Sea, which will take gas from the Russian coast
near St Petersburg to Lubmin in Germany. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• It is a system of offshore natural gas pipelines.
• The Nord Stream projects have been fiercely opposed by the United States and Ukraine, as well as by
other Central and Eastern European countries, because of concerns that the pipelines would increase
Russia's influence in Europe.
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Q 24.A
• Article 56(1)(b) states that President may, for violation of the constitution, be removed from office by
impeachment. However Constitution does not give description of what amounts to violation of
constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the
President though they do not participate in his election.
• Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is
elected. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed
by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to
the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total
membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other
House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the
total membership, then the President stands removed from his office.
Q 25.C
• Article 163 of the Indian Constitution says that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise
Governor in the exercise of his functions except for those functions which require the discretion of the
Governor.
• Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct. The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and he
holds office during the pleasure of the governor. However, this does not mean that the governor can
dismiss him at any time. He cannot be dismissed by the governor as long as he enjoys the majority support
in the legislative assembly. But, if he loses the confidence of the assembly, he must resign or the governor
can dismiss him.
• Statement 3 is correct. He can recommend the dissolution of the legislative assembly to the governor at
any time.
Q 26.C
• Article 324 of the Indian Constitution states that the superintendence, direction, and control of the
preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature
of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice President held under this Constitution
shall be vested in the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them
recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance. The other parties are simply
declared as registered unrecognized parties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like
allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television
and radio stations, and access to electoral rolls. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• However, the ECI is not empowered to de-register parties on the grounds of violating the Constitution or
breaching the undertaking given to it at the time of registration. A party can only be de -registered if its
registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends
its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.
Q 27.D
• Prime Minister is the chairman of NITI Aayog, National Integration Council, Inter-State Council and
National Water Resources Council.
• National Institution for Transforming India, also known as NITI Aayog, was formed via an executive
resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015.
o It is a non-statutory and an extra-constitutional body.
o It is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing directional and policy inputs.
o The Governing Council of NITI Aayog, comprises of following members
✓ Prime Minister as the Chairperson, Ex-officio Members, Vice-Chairman and Full time
Members of NIIT Aayog, Chief Ministers of All States/UTs, Lt. Governor of Andaman and
Nicobar.
• The Inter-State-Council was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution of India vide Presidential
Order dated 28.5.1990. The present composition of the Council is as follows:
o Prime Minister Chairman
o Chief Ministers of all States Members
o Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly and
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o Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly and

o Governors of States under President’s Rule(Governor’s Rule in the case of J&K)
o Members: Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the
Prime Minister Members
o Four Ministers of Cabinet rank as Permanent invitees Members
• National Integration Council: It is an extra-constitutional body. It is chaired by the Prime Minister
of India.
o Composition:
✓ Council members include Cabinet ministers, Chief Ministers of states, political leaders, Chairman
of the University Grants Commission, Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes,
representatives of industry, business, and trade unions.
✓ The main task of the council is to examine the problem of national integration in all its aspects
and make necessary recommendations to deal with it.
Q 28.A
• The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:
o They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the
Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment. Hence statement 1
is correct.
o They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature while the latter are
of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special
problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.
o They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the
situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time.
o Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However,
the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
o They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other
senior Ministers.
o They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Some times other Cabinet Ministers,
particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in
case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
Q 29.A
• Recently, The United States of America and the European Union (EU) have decided to partially cut
off a number of Russian banks from the main international payment gateway, SWIFT.
• The intention of the moves is to “further isolate Russia from the international financial system”.
• Prior to this, only one country had been cut off from SWIFT, Iran. It resulted in it losing a third of
its foreign trade.
• The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT), legally S.W.I.F.T. SC, is a
Belgian cooperative society providing services related to the execution of financial transactions and
payments between banks worldwide.
• Its principal function is to serve as the main messaging network through which international payments are
initiated.
• While SWIFT does not actually move money, it operates as a middleman to verify information of
transactions by providing secure financial messaging services to more than 11,000 banks in over 200
countries.
• It is overseen by the central banks from eleven industrial countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy,
Japan, the Netherlands, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom, and the United States, besides
Belgium.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 30.A
• First Past the Post System of elections-
o The country is divided into small geographical units called constituencies. Every constituency elects
one representative.
o The winning candidate need not secure a majority of the votes i.e. (50%+1) votes. In the electoral
race, the candidate who is ahead of others, who crosses the winning post first of all, is the winner.
o This method is also called the Plurality System.
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o It is followed in India & United Kingdom.

• Hence, statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
Q 31.D
• The government of India had notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 in January 2018. As per
provisions of the Scheme, Electoral Bonds may be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or
incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly
or jointly with other individuals. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43
of 1951) and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the
House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral
Bonds. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Electoral Bonds can be issued in the denomination of Rs1000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1,00,000, Rs 10,00,000
and Rs 1,00,00,000 only. Currently, only SBI is authorized to sell these bonds. The bonds are valid only
for 15 days from the date of issue. The Electoral Bonds shall be encashed by an eligible Political Party
only through a Bank account with the Authorized Bank.
Q 32.C
• The Collective responsibility principle indicates that the ministry is an executive branch of the Parliament
and it collectively governs on behalf of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Principle also indicates that if a minister does not agree with a policy or decision of the cabinet, he or
she must either accept the decision or resign. It is binding on all ministers to pursue or agree to a policy
for which there is collective responsibility. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 33.A
• Recently, India has condemned the "motivated and misleading statement" made by the
Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), which expressed deep concerns over what it called
"continued attacks on Muslims in India" and called upon the international community to take
necessary measures.
• The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second-largest organization after the United
Nations with a membership of 57 states spread over four continents (Africa, Asia, Europe and South
America). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Organization is the collective voice of the Muslim world.
• It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting
international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
• In 2019, India made its maiden appearance at the OIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting, as a “guest of
honour”.
• India does not have an Observer Status of the OIC. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• That invitation to become an Observer of OIC for India came at the 45th session of the Foreign Ministers’
Summit in 2018, when Bangladesh, the host, suggested that India, where more than 10 per cent of the
world’s Muslims live, should be given observer status but Pakistan opposed the proposal.
Q 34.B
• In pursuance of the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, the Janata Dal Government headed by
V. P. Singh established the Inter-State Council in 1990. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• There is also a Standing Committee of the Council. Since the re-constitution of the Inter-State Council n
2016, the Standing Committee of the Council now consists of the following members:(i) Union Home
Minister as the Chairman (ii) Four Union Cabinet Ministers(iii) Seven Chief Ministers.
• The Standing Committee will:
o have continuous consultation and process matters for consideration of the Council;
o process all matters pertaining to center-state Relations before they are taken up for consideration in
the Inter-State Council.
o monitor the implementation of decisions taken on the recommendations of the Council; and
o consider any other matter referred to it by the Chairman/Council.
• The Standing Committee may, if necessary, invite experts and persons eminent in specific fields to have
the benefit of their views while deliberation upon the related subjects.
• The Council is assisted by a secretariat called the Inter-State Council Secretariat. This secretariat was set
up in 1991 and is headed by a secretary to the Government of India. Since 2011, it is also functioning as
the secretariat of the Zonal Councils. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Q 35.A
• Financial bills are of three kinds:
o Money bills—Article 110
o Financial bills (I)—Article 117 (1)
o Financial bills (II)—Article 117 (3)
• This classification implies that money bills are simply a species of financial bills. Hence, all money bills
are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills. Only those financial bills are money bills
which contain exclusively those matters which are mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution.” Hence
• There is no provision for joint sitting of both the houses in case of money bill. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the
president. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
Q 36.C
• Union List includes subjects like, War and Peace, Naval, military and air force works, Foreign
jurisdiction., Citizenship, naturalization and aliens. etc.
• State List includes subjects like Agriculture, Police, Prison, Local Government, Public Health, Land,
Liquor, etc.
• Concurrent List includes subjects like Education, Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land,
Forests, Trade Unions, etc.
• Residuary Powers include all other matters not mentioned in any of the lists such as Cyber Laws. Union
Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters.
• Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent
List. They are:
o Education
o Forests
o Weights & Measures
o Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
o Administration of Justice
• Hence only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
Q 37.B
• Of the total number of members of a legislative council:
o 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards,
etc.,
o 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,
o 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary
school,
o 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons
who are not members of the assembly, and
o The remainder are nominated by the Governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge
or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
• Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are
nominated by the Governor. The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of a single transferable vote. The bonafides or propriety of the governor‘s
nomination in any case cannot be challenged in the courts.
Q 38.B
• It is the President, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of parliament as acting speaker if the post
of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 39.A
• Recent Context: Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have recorded the presence of
White-Cheeked Macaque (Macaca leucogenys) from central Arunachal Pradesh in India. The
significance of the discovery is that it marks a new addition to mammals of India.
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• The species was discovered in 2015 by a group of Chinese scientists from the Modog region in
southeastern Tibet and this discovery was considered a significant breakthrough as far as primates are
concerned.
• White- Cheeked Macaques are distinct from other macaques found in the region by displaying
white cheeks, long and thick hairs on the neck area, and a longer tail. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They have not been yet included in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 of India. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
Q 40.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: At the state level, the Election Commission is assisted by the chief electoral
officer who is appointed by the chief election commissioner in consultation with the state government.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Returning Officer of a parliamentary or assembly constituency is
responsible for the conduct of elections in the parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned as per
section 21 of the Representation of the People Act 1951. The Election Commission of India nominates or
designates an officer of the Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the
assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government/Union Territory
Administration. In addition, the Election Commission of India also appoints one or more Assistant
Returning Officers for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies to assist the Returning
Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the conduct of elections.
Q 41.A
• Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata,
Hyderabad, Bangalore, and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state
legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India. There may be one
common act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for each municipal
corporation. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely,
o the council,
o the standing committees and
o the commissioner.
• The Council is headed by a Mayor. He is assisted by a Deputy Mayor. He is elected in a majority of the
states for a one-year renewable term. He is basically an ornamental figure and a formal head of the
corporation. His main function is to preside over the meetings of the Council.
• The Municipal Commissioner is responsible for the implementation of the decisions taken by the
council and its standing committees. Thus, he is the chief executive authority of the corporation. He is
appointed by the state government and is generally a member of the IAS. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 42.D
• Recently, the United States of America has decided to designate Qatar as a major non-NATO ally.
• Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) status is a designation under U.S. law that provides foreign partners
with certain benefits in the areas of defense trade and security cooperation. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Major Non-NATO Ally designation is a powerful symbol of the close relationship the United States
shares with those countries and demonstrates our deep respect for the friendship for the countries to which
it is extended.
• While MNNA status provides military and economic privileges, it does not entail any security
commitments to the designated country. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 43.A
• Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Even a member of
Parliament from ruling party who is not a Minister, is a Private Member. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A member who wants to introduce a Bill has to give prior notice thereof. The period of notice for
introduction of a Bill is one month.
• Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 44.A
• The retiring member of the Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and renomination for any number of
times. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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Q 45.B
• The third Schedule contains the Forms of oaths or affirmations for the supreme court judges. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 128: Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the president, request any
person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court or of the Federal Court or who has held
the office of a Judge of a High Court and is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme
Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 46.D
• The Constitution of India prescribes the following conditions for the office Supreme Court:
o Citizen of India
o A judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years.
o An advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years and distinguished jurist in
the opinion of the president.
o No Minimum age is prescribed in Constitution.
Q 47.A
• Recently, Ministry for Social Justice & Empowerment launched the Central Sector Scheme “SMILE:
Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an umbrella scheme, to provide welfare and rehabilitation to the Transgender community and the
people engaged in the act of begging.
• The two sub-schemes of SMILE are:
o Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons.
o Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of engaged in the act of Begging.
• Scheme’s components are:
o Skill Development and Livelihood under PM-DAKSH scheme.
o Composite Medical Health in convergence with PM-JAY supporting Gender-Reaffirmation
surgeries through selected hospitals.
o Housing facility in the form of ‘Garima Greh’ ensures food, clothing, recreational facilities, skill
development opportunities, recreational activities, and medical support. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
o The Provision of Transgender Protection Cell in each state under the charge of Director General of
Police to monitor cases of offenses against Transgender persons and to ensure timely registration,
investigation, and prosecution of such offenses. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 48.C
• Recently, the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India has extended the
PM Cares for Children Scheme till 28th February 2022.
• Earlier the scheme was valid till 31st December 2021.
• The scheme covers all children who have lost: i) Both parents or ii) Surviving parent or iii) legal
guardian/adoptive parents/single adoptive parent due to COVID 19 pandemic, starting from 11.03.2020
the date on which WHO has declared and characterized COVID-19 as pandemic till 28.02.2022.
• To be entitled to benefits under this scheme Child should not have completed 18 years of age on the date
of death of parents.
• The objective of the scheme is to ensure comprehensive care and protection of children who have lost
their parent(s) to COVID pandemic, in a sustained manner, enable their wellbeing through health
insurance, empower them through education and equip them for self-sufficient existence with financial
support on reaching 23 years of age. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The PM CARES for children scheme inter-alia provides support to these children through a convergent
approach, gap funding for ensuring education, health, monthly stipend from the age of 18 years, and
lump sum amount of Rs. 10 lakhs on attaining 23 years of age. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 49.D
• Original Jurisdiction: As a federal court, the Supreme Court decides the disputes between different units
of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between:
o the Centre and one or more states; or
o the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or
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o between two or more states.

• In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive
means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the
first instance, not by way of appeal.
• Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
o A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or
another similar instrument.
o A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said
jurisdiction does not extend to such a dispute.
o Inter-state water disputes.
o Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
o Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
o Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
o Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
• The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction with respect to writs because citizens can directly go to
the Supreme Court. (only with respect to enforcement of fundamental rights)
Q 50.B
• Recently, the Supreme Court asked the Centre and States to respond to a petition to enforce the
fundamental duties of citizens, including patriotism and unity of the nation, through
"comprehensive, well-defined laws”.
• The fundamental duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by The Constitution (42nd
Amendment) Act, 1976.
• Article 51(A) describes 11 Fundamental Duties. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• 10 of these duties came with the 42nd Amendment Act, 1942; the 11th was added by the 86th
Amendment in 2002. Hence statement 2 is correct
• These duties are not enforceable by law. However, a court may take them into account while
adjudicating on a matter.
Q 51.C
• The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in
the two categories of matters:
o On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise.
In this case the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the President.
o On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or
other similar instruments. In this case, the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the President.
• However, in both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a
judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the President; he may follow or may not follow the
opinion. However, it facilitates the government to have an authoritative legal opinion on a matter to be
decided by it.
Q 52.B
• The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union formally in the President. In reality, the
President exercises these powers through the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
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o if he voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately
before the election. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party ,
o if any independently elected member joins any political party . Hence, statement 3 is correct,
o if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
Q 57.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: The superintendence, direction , and control of the preparation of electoral
rolls and the conduct of elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such body , as may be provided by
the state legislature.
• Statement 2 is correct: The board shall consist of such number of directors as may be provided by the
state legislature . But , the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty -
one.
• Statement 3 is correct: The state legislature shall provide for the reservation of one seat for the
Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes and two seats for women on the board of every co-operative
society having members from such a category of persons.
Q 58.B
• The President has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills ( other than
Money Bill) passed by the Parliament . The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to
reconsider the bill. So, in the case of an ordinary bill , President has discretionary power. Hence
• The President has the discretion to appoint Prime Minister in such cases. Other ministers are appointed on
the advice of the PM . Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is not a discretionary power of the President . The Governor in a state is appointed by the President on
the advice of the central government. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 59.D
• Statement 1 is not correct: The plenary power placed of the Parliament is not absolute in nature for
whole or any part of the territory of India. The Constitution places a number of restrictions on the
same. For e.g. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a
scheduled area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions; The President can make
regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the four Union territories - the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu etc.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the
state. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is
a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. For e.g . In the State of Bombay vs RMDC case,
Supreme Court ruled that the Bombay legislature has a sufficient territorial nexus to tax the respondent
who conducted Competitions with prize money through a newspaper printed and published from
Bangalore having a wide circulation in Bombay .
Q 60.C
• Asa Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:
o The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual
memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be
questioned when produced before any court . They are recognised as legal precedents and legal
references.
o It has power to punish for contempt of court , either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six
months or with fine up to Rs.2 ,000 or with both. In 1991 , the Supreme Court has ruled that it has
power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and
tribunals functioning in the entire country .
Q 61.C
• Eleventh Schedule: It contains the following 29 functional items placed within the purview of panchayats:
o Agriculture, including agricultural extension
o Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation , and soil conservation
o Minor irrigation , water management , and watershed development
o Animal husbandry , dairying, and poultry
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oFisheries
oSocial forestry and farm forestry
o Minor forest produce
o Small -scale industries, including food processing industries
o Khadi , village, and cottage industries
o Rural housing
o Drinking water
o Fuel and fodder
o Roads , culverts, bridges , ferries , waterways, and other means of communication
o Rural electrification , including distribution of electricity
o Non-conventional energy sources
o Poverty alleviation programme
o Education , including primary and secondary schools
o Technical training and vocational education
o Adult and non -formal education
o Libraries
o Cultural activities
o Markets and fairs
o Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centers , and dispensaries
o Family welfare
o Women and child development
o Social welfare , including the welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
o Welfare of the weaker sections , and in particular , of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes
o Public distribution system
o Maintenance of community assets.
• Slum improvement and up-gradation are under the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution.
• Hence option (c ) is the correct answer.
Q 62.B
• The executive branch includes President , Vice President , Prime Ministers, Council of Ministers, Attorney
General of India.
• Members of Parliaments are part of legislative branch of the Union Government. Only those MPs, which
are ministers form part of Executive.
Q 63.D
• The members of the Departmental Standing Committees are nominated by the Speaker/chairman from
amongst the members of the concerned House. Each committee has 31 members ( 21 from Lok Sabha and
10 from Rajya Sabha). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Committees cannot make any suggestions of a nature of cuts in their reports. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• The recommendations of Departmental Standing Committees are advisory in nature and are not binding
on the parliament.
Q 64.B
• Recently , the nation celebrated 13th February as ’’ National Women 's Day " to mark the 143rd birth
anniversary of Sarojini Naidu.
• Sarojini Naidu was the second women President of the Indian National Congress (first was Annie Besant )
and the first Indian woman to preside at the INC conference in 1925.
• She was the first woman to hold the office of Governor (Governor of United Provinces ) in the Dominion
of India.
• She helped to establish the Women 's Indian Association in 1917 and the All India Women Conference in
1927.
• She supported the Lucknow Pact , and also took part in the Second Round Table Conference 1931 .
• Her literary works are Play: Maher Muneer in Persian . Poem: The Bird of Time ( 1912), The Broken
Wing ( 1917 ) , which she dedicated to Mohammad Ali Jinnah
o The Song of the Palanquin Bearers ( 1917 ) . Feather of the Dawn ( 1961 ).
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Q 65.B
• The nation marked 23rd February the birth anniversary of Sant Gadge Baba.
• Sant Gadge Baba Gadge was a social reformer from Maharashtra and a contemporary of Dr. Ambedkar.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• He belonged to the tradition of Sant Kabir and Raidas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Sant Gadge Baba contributions:
o Opposed Brahmanism, religious hypocrisy, and the caste system.
o Sant Gadge preached to the villagers on the importance of cleanliness hygiene (cleanliness). Hence
o He donated the building of his hostel to the People’s Education Society founded by Dr. Ambedkar.
Q 66.B
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for some compulsory and some voluntary
provisions. These are:
• A. Compulsory Provisions
o Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Hence option 1 is not correct.
o Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
o Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
o Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
o 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
o Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all three
levels.
o Reservation of one-third of seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in Panchayats at all
three levels.
o Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in
the event of supersession of any panchayat.
o Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
o Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of
the panchayats. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• B. Voluntary Provisions
o Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature
(both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. Hence
option 3 is correct.
o Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in Panchayats at
any level.
o Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self -
government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).
o Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic
development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh
Schedule of the Constitution.
o Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect, and appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.
Q 67.D
• The following arguments were given in the Constituent Assembly for appointing a Governor:
o To save the country from the consequences of an election run on personal issues.
o If a Governor is elected by a direct vote, he might consider himself superior to Chief Minister.
This would lead to friction between Governor and Chief. Minister
o The expenses involved in the election would be out of proportion to the powers vested in the
Governor
o Through the procedure of appointment by the President, the Union government would be able to
maintain its control over the states
o Due to his popular support, the method of election for selecting a Governor may encourage
separatist tendencies in the States.
• Hence all the statements are correct.
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Q 68.A
• Article 74 (1) says that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and
advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Hence
• The above article mentions that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such
advice. After such a reconsideration, the President has to accept such an advice.
• There shall always be a council of minister to aid and advice the President. Whenever a council of
minister resigns, it shall continue as caretaker government until the next council of ministers swears
in. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 69.B
• The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of:
o the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
o the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and
o the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.
• However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but take part in
impeachment process of the President. Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part
in election but do not take part in impeachment proceedings.
Q 70.B
• They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and40 days
after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or
preventive detention cases. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in
Parliament or its committees.
• The presiding officer of the legislature has the final powers in deciding matters of breach of privilege.
Thus Lok Sabha speaker has the final powers in deciding matters of breach of privilege by a member of
Lok Sabha. The same function is performed by the chairman of the Rajya Sabha for its members. Hence
Q 71.B
• The Constitution does not specify the strength of a High Court and leaves it to the discretion of the
President. The President determines the strength of High Court from time to time depending upon its
workload.
Q 72.D
• Recently, the Indo-Oman exercise, Eastern Bridge- VI (2022) was successfully conducted at Air
Force Station Jodhpur.
• Royal Air Force of Oman (RAFO) participated with Indian Air Force (IAF) in the exercise which was
aimed at providing operational exposure and undertaking mutual exchange of best practices, towards
enhancing operational capabilities of both the Air Forces.
• The exercise provided an opportunity for fruitful interaction between IAF and RAFO elements through
mutual exchange of experience and operational knowledge.
• It also provided avenues of cultural exchanges between the personnel of both countries.
Q 73.B
• When Vice -President is acting as President, he enjoys all the powers and Privileges of the President.
• While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice-President does not perform
the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by
the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Q 74.D
• Article 243M of the Constitution exempts the Fifth Schedule areas from Part IX of the Constitution but
the Parliament is empowered to extend its provisions to the Scheduled and Tribal Areas by law without it
being considered as an amendment to the Constitution.
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• PESA Act or The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 is called a
‘Constitution within the Constitution as it extends the Provision of Panchayati Raj (Part IX) of the
Constitution to the Fifth Schedule areas of 10 States under clause (1) of Article 244 with certain
modifications and exceptions. The 10 states: Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Rajasthan, and Telangana. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Ministry of Panchayati Raj is the nodal Ministry for the implementation of the provisions of the
PESA Act. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 75.B
• The members are not nominated, they are elected only from Loksabha according to the principles of
proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
• The committees only take up few ministries and departments every year on rotation basis. Thus it takes
years to cover all the ministries. The name continuous economic committee is given because it examines
the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament, and not before
that. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 76.C
• The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by the States
Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern,
Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. However, the North-Eastern Council
was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971. The Union Home
Minister is the common chairman of all the zonal councils. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The Broad Objective of Zonal Councils are:
o The zonal councils aim at promoting cooperation and coordination between states, union territories,
and the Centre.
o They discuss and make recommendations regarding matters like economic and social planning,
linguistic minorities, border disputes, interstate transport, and so on.
o They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
• As per Section 17(1) of the States Re-organisation Act, each Zonal Council shall meet at such time as the
Chairman of the Council may decide. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Punchhi Commission
recommended that the Zonal Councils should meet at least twice a year with an agenda proposed by states
concerned to maximize coordination and promote harmonization of policies and action having inter -state
ramifications.
Q 77.A
• Article 124(4) mentions the process for the removal of a Supreme Court judge. The same procedure is
followed for a High Court judge, as per article 218. The details of the process of the impeachment of the
judges are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
• The judge of a high court can be removed in the same manner and also on the same grounds i.e.
proved misbehavior and incapacity as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o For their removal, a motion has to be moved by either 100 Lok Sabha members of Parliament or 50
Rajya Sabha MPs.
o If the motion is admitted, the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha constitutes an
inquiry committee.
o The committee has three members: a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and an
eminent jurist.
o The Committee frames charges and asks the judge to give a written response.
o The judge also has the right to examine witnesses. After the inquiry, the committee determines
whether the charges are valid or not. It then submits its report.
• Violation of the constitution is the ground for the impeachment of the President. Hence statement 2
is not correct.
Q 78.D
• Statement 1 is not correct. The Constitution, under Article 239AA, establishes the Union Territory of
Delhi and its legislature. It does not provide for High Court of Delhi. High Court of Delhi was established
by enacting the Delhi High Court Act, 1966.
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• Statement 2 is not correct. Article 241 of the Constitution states that Parliament by law can establish
High Court of any Union Territory. Hence no Constitutional amendment is required.
Q 79.C
• Cabinet committees are an organisational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They
also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination. They are based on the
principles of division of labour and effective delegation. They sort out issues and formulate proposals for
the consideration of the Cabinet.
• However they don't impart federal character to policy making as there is no involvement of states in these
committees. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 80.C
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 bars the interference by courts in the electoral matters of
municipalities. It declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the
allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court.
• It further lays down that no election to any municipality is to be questioned except by an election petition
presented to such authority and in such a manner as provided by the state legislature.
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 contains similar provisions in relation to the panchayats.
Q 81.D
• Only the elected members of the State Assemblies elect the members of the Rajya Sabha from that
state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Every two years, one third members of the Rajya sabha complete their terms. Thus elections are held
every second year. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The number of members to be elected from each State has been fixed by the fourth schedule of the
Constitution.
Q 82.B
• The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was constituted under Article 263 of
the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India.
• Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-Government. However, the term ‘self-
government’ was found to be superfluous and hence was replaced by the term ‘government’ in the 1980s.
• Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after 1958 it has been dealing
with matters of urban local government only. The Council is an advisory body.
• It consists of the Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and the ministers for
local self-government in states. The Union minister acts as the chairman of the council. Hence option (b)
is the correct answer.
Q 83.B
• Option 1 is correct: Local governments are set up to promote the active participation of the citizenry. It
is at the level of local government that common citizens can be involved in decision-making concerning
their lives, their needs, and above all their development.
• Option 2 is correct: Local government is government at the village and district level. Local government
is about the government closest to the common people. It is convenient for the people to approach the
local government for solving their problems both quickly and with minimum cost. Also, it increases the
answerability of the administration as government officials are approachable by common people.
• Option 3 is not correct: The establishment of local government is aimed at the decentralization of
decision-making power, not centralization. People are involved in decision-making at the grassroots level.
Q 84.A
• Recently, the minutes of the National Human Rights Commission suggested that the Model laws on
asylum and refugees that were drafted by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
decades ago but not implemented by the government could be revised by an expert committee.
• Though India has not signed the United Nations Refugee Convention, 1951 but the refugees and asylum
seekers were entitled to the rights in Articles 14, 20 and 21 of the Constitution.
• The Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, also known as the 1951 Refugee Convention or the
Geneva Convention of 28 July 1951, is a United Nations multilateral treaty that defines who a refugee
is, and sets out the rights of individuals who are granted asylum and the responsibilities of nations that
grant asylum. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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• The core principle is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a
country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. This is now considered a rule of
customary international law. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India is not party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and does not have a national
refugee protection framework. However, it continues to grant asylum to a large number of refugees from
neighbouring States and respects UNHCR's mandate for other nationals, mainly from Afghanistan and
Myanmar. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 85.D
• Recently, the Indian Coast Guard’s 46th Raising Day was celebrated on February 01, 2022.
• The Indian Coast Guard is a maritime law enforcement and search and rescue agency of India with
jurisdiction over its territorial waters including its contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone.
• The Indian Coast Guard was formally established on 1 February 1977 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 of
the Parliament of India.
• Its duties are as follows:
o Safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals: Coast Guard ships and aircraft
undertake regular patrols to keep the Offshore Development Areas (ODAs), on both the Eastern and
Western seaboard under surveillance.
o Protection of Fishermen
o Assistance to Fishermen in Distress at Sea
o Preservation and Protection of Marine Environment: The Indian Coast Guard is engaged with
environmentalists for preservation and protection of the marine environment, including flora and
fauna.
o Prevention and Control of Marine Pollution: The Indian Coast Guard conducts regular training for
all stakeholders and oil agencies, and continuously validates various contingency plans to prevent
environmental damage in case of marine oil-spills. It has developed the capability to be the "first-
responder" for oil-spills in Indian waters.
o Assisting the Customs and other authorities in anti-smuggling operations
o Enforcement of Maritime Laws in Force
o Safety of Life and Property at Sea
o Collection of Scientific Data
Q 86.D
• Byanjana Dwadashi is celebrated by Vaishnavas in Odisha. Its celebration is marked on the 12th
day of the bright lunar phase of the moon in the month of Margashira of the Hindu calendar. It
symbolizes the celebration of a variety of food (Byanjana on Odisha). It signifies a balanced diet and
nutrition & cleanliness is Godliness. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Recently, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs has sanctioned ₹2.26 Crores for the festival Medaram
Jathara of Telangana. It is biennially celebrated, the second-largest fair of India, after the Kumbh Mela
and celebrated by the tribal community of Telangana- the Koya tribe for four days. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
o It is a festival with no Vedic or Brahmanic influence.
o Jampanna vagu river (a tributary to river Godavari) is being worshiped as one of the parts of rituals.
• Nyokum Yullo is a tribal festival of Arunachal Pradesh celebrated by the Nyishi tribe. It celebrates
every year from 23rd to 27th February. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o The term 'Nyokum' means 'Nyok' i.e., land and 'Kum' means togetherness. It is a festival to worship
the Nyokum Goddess so they can harvest plenty of crops and the Goddess.
o This festival marks the welcome of all the deities on mother earth and they seek their blessings for
surviving floods or droughts.
Q 87.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as the
Chief Minister of the state for six months and during this period he should be elected to the state
legislature failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister. Article 164 (4) of the Constitution of
India provides that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the
Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
• Statement 2 is not correct: He should be a citizen of India and a minimum age of 25 years. According to
the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister of a state can be a member of any of the Houses of the State
legislature. The usual practice is that Chief Minister is selected from the Lower House but he can also be
selected from the Upper House also.
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Q 88.C
• Governor is the head of the state while the Chief Minister is the head of the government. The Governor is
the chief executive head of the state. But, like the President, he is a nominal executive head (titular or
constitutional head).
• Statement 1 is correct. Office of the Governor is adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935
while the method of appointment of state governors by the Centre is borrowed from the Canadian
Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct. Usually, there is a Governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
Q 89.A
• The Commission normally announces the schedule of elections in a major press conference a few weeks
before the formal process is set in motion. The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of candidates and
political parties comes immediately into effect after such announcement.
• The formal process for the elections starts with the Notification or Notifications calling upon the
electorate to elect Members of a House. As soon as Notifications are issued, ca ndidates can start filing
their nominations in the constituencies from where they wish to contest.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 90.B
• Recently, a new species of spider is named Narsinhmehtai, in the honor of Narsinh Mehta.
o Narsinh Mehta was a 15th-century poet who was a devotee of Lord Krishna.
✓ He was a contemporary of Mira Bai.
✓ He was a Vaishnavite poet-saint, who is revered in Gujarati literature as its Adi Kavi.
✓ He was the pioneer poet of Gujarati literature.
✓ He wrote Padas called Akhyan and Prabhatiya and numerous Bhajans and Kirtans which were
preserved orally for centuries before being scripted in writing.
✓ Mahatma Gandhi’s Favourite bhajan “Vaishnav Jan to” played in all his prayer meetings
was written by Narsinh Mehta.
Q 91.A
• The Constitution states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except
under appropriation made by law’. Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the
appropriation, out of the Consolidated Fund of India. This act authorises (or legalises) the payments from
the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that the government cannot withdraw money from the
Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of the appropriation bill.
Q 92.D
• Constitutional amendment bills do not require prior assent of the President. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The President can nominate 2 members to Lok Sabha from anglo-indian Community. In January 2020, the
Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures of India were discontinued by
the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 .
• The President nominates members to Rajya Sabha amongst the person having special knowledge in
literature, science, art and social service. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 93.A
• The Constitution (Article 105) expressedly mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in
Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
• According to Article 105
o Subject to the provisions of this Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the
procedure of Parliament, there shall be freedom of speech in Parliament.
o No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of any thing said
or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in
respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House of Parliament of any report, paper,
votes or proceedings.
• Contempt of House by an individual is not a parliamentary privilege mentioned in the Constitution.
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Q 94.C
• Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination among the
states and between Centre and states. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest
would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council
and its organization and procedure.
• The council’s function to enquire and advise upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme
Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments.
• The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory
(including recommendations) unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Hence statement 2
is correct.
Q 95.A
• Zero Hour is where members are free to raise any matter that they think is important but the ministers are
not bound to reply. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• During the Question Hour, which is held every day during the sessions of Parliament, Ministers respond
to questions raised by the members. However he is bound to give oral answers only to starred questions.
In case of unstarred questions, written replies will be given. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 96.A
• Recently, the West Bengal government has revised the compensation package for those losing their
land for the Deocha Pachami coal project.
• It is located in the southwestern part of Birbhum Coalfield in West Bengal.
• It is Asia’s largest coal reserve and the world’s second-largest coal mine with an estimated reserve of
2,102 million tonnes.
• The block has a thick coal seam trapped between equally thick layers of rocks, mostly basalt. The block is
spread over 13.7 square kilometers.
Q 97.D
• Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to
exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. But this led to very large size of the Council of
Ministers.
• Besides, when no party had a clear majority, there was a temptation to win over the support of the
members of the Parliament by giving them ministerial positions as there was no restriction on the number
of the members of the Council of Ministers. This was happening in many States also. Therefore, an
amendment was made that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of
members of the House of People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 98.A
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology released National Strategy on Additive
Manufacturing. Its aim is to increase India’s share in global Additive Manufacturing (AM) to 5
percent with a target to add nearly $1 billion to the GDP by 2025. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Additive manufacturing or 3D printing is defined as the technology that constructs a three-dimensional
object from a digital 3D model or a computer-aided design (CAD) model by adding material layer by
layer.
o The addition of material can happen in multiple ways, namely power deposition, resin curing,
filament fusing.
✓ The deposition and solidification are controlled by a computer to create a three-dimensional
object.
✓ These objects can be of almost any shape or geometry.
• USA’s market share on AM is 36%, followed by EU at 26% and China as 14%, and India holding a
meager 1.4% of global market share. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Applications:
o In the field of health care, additive manufacturing is known as Bioprinting. It helps in creating
intricate internal structures of tissue and human organs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Other fields: Military, Electronics, housing, etc.
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Q 99.C
• The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president.
However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the
Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss
him. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function
when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime
Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation
or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may
or may not like to fill. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary
Convention that leader of the majority party is appointed as Prime minister.
Q 100.A
• Option 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants
(which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
• Option 2 is not correct: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in either House of
Parliament.
• Option 3 is not correct: It is the Rajya Sabha which can authorize the Parliament to create new All-India
Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312).
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