Gateway To AIIMS2019-Solution Zoology

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Chapter 1

Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-chordates)

Hints and Solutions

6. Answer (3)
SECTION - A
 Metagenesis is alteration between
Objective Type Questions
1. Answer (2) Polyp & Medusa
 Sponge’s body wall is comprised of either  
spongin fibres or spicules or both.
Sessile, cylindrical, Motile, umbrella
 Spongin is a type of protein that provides
structural support. Asexual reproduction shaped, sexual
reproduction
2. Answer (2)
In leucon type canal system, spongocoel gets  Both are diploid only gametes are haploid.
reduced to form excurrent canal i.e. absent in
ascon & sycon type canal system. Asexual reproduction

Water  Dermal ostia  Incurrent canal 


Polyp Metagenesis Medusa
Excurrent canal  Flagellated chambers
Osculum  Outside
Sexual reproduction
3. Answer (3)
Spongilla  Fresh water sponge Example - Obelia
Euspongia  Bath sponge
7. Answer (1)
Euplectella  Venus flower basket
Cliona  Boring sponge Interstitial cells are totipotent cells in cnidarians
(Hydra), that can give rise to any other cell.
4. Answer (4)
 Endothelio - glandular cells/nutritive cells form 8. Answer (4)
digestive enzymes that aid in extracellular Metridium is sea-anemone that belongs to class
digestion. Anthozoa of phylum Cnidaria.
 Apolar neurons are used in transmission of 9. Answer (4)
signals.
 Rostellum, hooks & suckers help in
 Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage, offense &
attachment to host.
defense.
5. Answer (3)  Thick tegument protects the parasite from
 Streptoline & stereoline are used as glutinants digestive juices of host.
to get adhered to the attaching surface.  Lasso cells are present in ctenophores
 Volvent is used to get coiled around prey. (Pleurobrachia) in place of cnidoblasts.

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378 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-chordates) Solutions of Gateway to AIIMS
10. Answer (3) 18. Answer (2)
 Liver rot or Fascioliasis is caused by Fasciola Heart of arthropods is neurogenic as the action
hepatica, an Endoparasite of intestine of potential/force of contraction for pumping of blood
sheep. is generated by brain.
 In Humans, fasciolopsiasis is caused by Alary muscles check only unidirectional flow of
intestinal fluke of man. blood.
11. Answer (4) 19. Answer (2)
A muscular pharynx that helps in sucking of food Compound eyes are more sensitive to intensity of
by its rhythmic pumping action is a characteristic light rather than resolution of image so mosaic
of Aschelminthes [Ascaris] vision become possible.
12. Answer (4) 20. Answer (3)
In Ascaris lumbricoides,
Respiratory structures in different animals.
1st moulting  in soil
Buthus [Arachnida] - Book lungs
2nd & 3rd moulting  in lung alveoli
Limulus [King crab] - Book gills
4th moulting  in intestine
This gives rise to young round worm that releases Periplaneta [Insecta] - Trachea
toxin to generate symptoms of disease. Palaemon [Crustacea] - Gills
13. Answer (3) 21. Answer (3)
Amphid is a chemoreceptor & papillae are tango/ Butterfly - Siphoning type mouth parts
tactile receptor.
House fly - Sponging type mouth parts
14. Answer (2)
Dracunculus  Guinea worm Honey bee - Chewing & lapping type
Ancylostoma  Hook worm 22. Answer (3)
Trichinella  Trichinia worm Lepisma [Silver fish] - Ametabolous metamorphosis;
15. Answer (3) direct development.

In Annelida, 23. Answer (2)

 Coelomic fluid acts as a hydroskeleton as Aquaculture is culturing of edible aquatic animals


there is no specialised skeletal structure like [Fishes, Prawns, Crabs, Oeysters etc.]
in arthropods [Chitinous] & molluscs 24. Answer (2)
[calcareous]
Excretory structures in various animals :
 Blood acts as a medium of transport of gases.
Cancer [Crustacea]  Green gland
16. Answer (4)
Peripatus [Onychophora]  Nephridia
 Haemolymph of arthropods consists of W.B.Cs/
Haemocytes only. Lepisma [Insect]  Malpighian tubule

 R.B.Cs and platelets are character of Limulus [Merostomata]  Coxal gland


chordates only. Peripatus is connecting link between Annelida &
 Even, respiratory pigment is also absent in Arthropoda.
blood of arthropods unlike annelids & molluscs. 25. Answer (3)
17. Answer (1) Shell of molluscs is calcareous that acts as
Sepia  Cephalopod with myogenic heart & exoskeleton & is secreted by mantle.
internal shell.
26. Answer (1)
Octopus  Closed circulatory system, oviparous.
Malacology Study of mollusc
Limax  Gastropod with neurogenic heart.
Arthrology Study of joints
Unio  Pelecypod with ectoparasitic
Glochidium larva. Dendrology Study of trees

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27. Answer (4) 35. Answer (3)
Respiratory structures in animals :  In Echinodermata, adult is radially symmetrical
Book lungs - Aranaeus [Spider] while larva is bilaterally symmetrical.
Dermal branchiae - Asterias [Star fish]
 Radial symmetry is secondary adaptation to
Pharyngeal gills - Saccoglossus [Acorn worm]
survive sedentary mode of life.
Ctenidia - Achatina [land snail]
28. Answer (2) SECTION - B
 Haemal-perihaemal system of Echinodermata Assertion - Reason Type Questions
is coelomic in origin.
36. Answer (1)
 It is open type circulation.
 Heart & respiratory pigment are absent.  Rhagon type of canal system is found in larva of
animals of class demospongiae.
29. Answer (3)
Larval stages in different animals.  Adults of Demospongiae have leucon type of
Cydippid - Pleurobrachia [Ctenophora] canal system.
Amphiblastula - Sycon [Porifera]  Both canal system have flagellated chambers
Dipleurula - Asterias [Echinodermata] i.e. lined by choanocytes.
Glochidium - Unio [Mollusca] 37. Answer (2)
30. Answer (2)
 Some cnidarians exist in both polyp & medusa
Hyalonema [Porifera] – cell - aggregate body plan
form and there is an alteration of generation
no germ layers between polyp & medusa.
Dugesia [Platyhelminth] – coelom absent
 Like in Obelia & Physalia.
Hormiphora [Ctenophora]
Diploblastic organism with blind sac body plan.  Such an existence is known as polymorphism
31. Answer (3) [more than one life form] & alteration is known
Echinodermata is placed near to chordata due to as metagenesis.
3 affinities mainly : 38. Answer (1)
1. Deuterostomic body plan
 Platyhelminthes are acoelomate animals & the
2. Enterocoelom space is filled with parenchymal cells so their
3. Mesodermal endoskeleton mesoderm is called solid mesoderm.
32. Answer (4)
 Parenchyma acts as a medium for transport &
Schistosoma (Platyhelminthes)  Ladder like
thus helps in uniform distribution of food
ventral nerve cords
materials absorbed through general body surface.
Aurelia [Cnidaria]  Apolar neurons for [in parasitic forms]
coordination
39. Answer (1)
Balanoglossus (Hemichordata)  Both dorsal &
ventral nerve cords.  Cephalization is the property of development of
It is connecting link between non-chordata & head & locating all major sense organs at anterior
chordata. end for betterment of responses in the moving
Pheretima (Annelida)  Suprapharyngeal ganglion direction.
act as brain.  Bilateral symmetry came into origin in
33. Answer (4) Platyhelminthes & evolved with motility.
Stomochord in hemichordates is ectodermal in
40. Answer (2)
origin while notochord in chordates is mesodermal
in origin. Parasitic Platyhelminthes possess some adaptations
34. Answer (4) :
 Ophiothrix [Ophiuroidea]  Hooks & suckers for attachment.
In brittle stars, anus is absent; so blind sac  Many larval stages that reproduce by
body plan in present. Paedogenesis to increase the number of progeny
 Excretory system is absent in Echinodermata. to enhance the chances of survival.

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41. Answer (2)  Terrestrial mollusc show pulmonary respiration
 Fasciola hepatica is a digenetic parasite as it (pulmonary sac is modified mantle).
completes its life cycle in 2 hosts.  Gills are reduced or absent in terrestrial
 Primary Host  Sheep mollusc.
Secondary Host  Aquatic snail  Haemocyanin (Blue colour) pigment is
42. Answer (4) dissolved in blood plasma of molluscs.
50. Answer (2)
 Cysticercus larva develops in skeletal muscles
of pig completing life cycle in 2º host. Evisceration is removal of gut by Holothurians in
terms of defence.
It is formed from Hexacanth stage by feeding
51. Answer (3)
upon host’s blood & cells.
43. Answer (2)  Apolar/non-polar neurons of cnidarians &
ctenophores respond by bidirectional
 In Taenia saginata
transmission.
 No. of proglottids is approx. 1400-1600 as
Cell processes
compared to T. solium [850-1000]
 Only suckers are present.
44. Answer (4)
 Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate,
prostomic organisms. Cyton
Mesoderm is present in the form of scattered
pouches.
45. Answer (1)
 In insects, no respiratory pigment is present in
blood for transport of gases.  No differentiation between Dendrite (Receiver) &
Axon (transmittor)
 So, tracheal system evolved for transport of
gases through tracheoles, where tracheolar 52. Answer (2)
fluid acts as stationary medium for gaseous Schistosoma/Bilharzia is unisexual unlike bisexual
exchange & alternate relaxation and character of other platyhelminthes.
contraction of tergo-sternal muscles maintains 53. Answer (2)
pressure gradient for inspiration & expiration.
 Echinoderms [Starfishes] can loose their arm
46. Answer (3) in terms of self defence. This is called as
Chloragogen/yellow cells in earthworm are Autotomy.
analogous to liver as they help in excretion, storage
 They can regenerate their lost body part
of fat etc.
[Epimorphosis] while in some species whole
47. Answer (2) organism can be regenerated from a small
Cockroach (Insecta) is an arthoropod (non- fragment [Morphollaxis].
chordate) has dorsal & neurogenic heart. Blood/ 54. Answer (4)
Haemolymph is colorless i.e. without any
respiratory pigment.  Rhabditis is an example of free-living
Aschelminthes.
48. Answer (3)
Mantle/pallium is a delicate layer of skin that gets  Larva formed in Ascaris is rhabditiform.
folded over visceral hump & secretes calcareous 55. Answer (3)
shell. Echinococcus [Dog tape worm]
49. Answer (2) Belongs to class cestoda of platyhelminthes.
 Aquatic mollusc show ctenidial respiration i.e. Acoelomate, bilateral symmetry, protostomic
through gills. endoparasite.

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Chapter 2

Animal Kingdom (Chordates)

Hints and Solutions

4. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
Branchiostoma [Cephalochordate]
Objective Type Questions
Only chordates that retain all basic characters i.e.
1. Answer (3) notochord, post-anal tail & gill slits throughout life
so called ideal chordates.
Notochord of chordates is solid, mesodermal &
ventral to nerve cord. Urochordates
Notochord & tail present only in larval stages.
Vertebrates
Nerve Pharynx
Digestive Notochord may or may not persist in adult.
cord Notochord tube
Tail may or may not persist in adult.
Gills get replaced by lungs in higher animals.
5. Answer (4)
Given animal is Lamprey. [Cyclostomata]
Post-anal part
Mouth  Ectoparasite on fishes
Paired-gill slits
 Jawless (Agnatha) suctorial & circular mouth.
 Notochord persists along with cartilaginous
2. Answer (1) vertebrae.
Chordates have following features that differentiate  Paired fins are present in Gnathostomes only.
them from non-chordates :
6. Answer (2)
 Notochord
Ammocete larva forms a connecting link between
 Pharyngeal gill slits cephalochordata & cyclostomata.
 Post anal tail 7. Answer (2)
 Ventral heart Chimaera [Chondrichthyes]
 Hollow, single & dorsal nerve cord/CNS. Males have claspers on pelvic fin that act as
copulatory organ.
3. Answer (2)
Operculum present.
Ascidia [Urochordate]
Cloaca absent; urino-genital opening separate.
Open cirulatory system
Internal fertilization.
Tubular Heart
Chimaera is connecting link between
Blood with pigment haemovanadin chondrichthyes and osteichthyes.

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8. Answer (4) 14. Answer (2)
• Rheoreceptors help in sensing direction of Macropus and Didelphis [Marsupials]
water currents. • Viviparous and females with 2 uteri (didelphic)
• Rheoreceptors are present in all fishes (known and 2 vagina.
as neuromast organs) & aquatic amphibians. • Placenta is less developed (vitello-chorionic
9. Answer (3) placenta) & nipples are abdominal unlike
eutherians that have allanto-chorionic placenta
Ampulla of Lorenzini (thermoreceptors) is the & nipples can be abdominal or thoracic.
character of Chondrichthyes (Scoliodon)
15. Answer (3)
10. Answer (1)
Flightless birds like ostrich & kiwi
• Frog shows external fertilization but parrot
Syrinx, keel, preengland absent generally.
internal.
Bones are not pneumatic in some flightless birds
• Camel possess cutaneous glands unlike crow. like penguin but in ostrich some are solid & some
• Man has only left systemic arch while are pneumatic.
crocodile has both. Bones are solid, may be to adopt to different
habits like running, swimming etc.
11. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
Flying fish  modified pectoral fin [Not truely
flying]. (i) A, B & C are oviparous and only D is
viviparous.
Dog fish  Egg case called mermaid purse
(ii) A & B do not posses a diaphragm unlike C &
Sucker fish  Modified dorsal fin
D.
Rat fish  Placoid scales in young stage [Scales (iii) A is Ectothermic while B, C & D are
then absent]
endothermic.
12. Answer (1) (iv) A & B have monocondylic skull while C & D
• Diaphragm is present in all mammals. have dicondylic skull.
(v) Only B, C & D have 12 pairs of cranial nerves;
• Pinna is absent in aquatic & egg laying
A has 10 pairs.
mammals.
17. Answer (2)
• Testes are abdominal in aquatic & egglaying
mammals and elephants. Torpedo [Electric ray, chondrichthyes]
Electric organ is modified muscles present
• Number of cervical vertebrae is generally 7 but
between eyes & nostrils.
may vary like in Manatee  6 Sloth  9
18. Answer (1)
13. Answer (2)
All the given characters belong to Ichthyophis
(i) Air sacs are avascular so don’t participate in (limbless amphibian)
gaseous exchange.
19. Answer (2)
(ii) Air sacs act as reservoirs & take part in
movements of air during respiration, at Scroll/Spiral valve in intestine of fish is (twisted
expiration they act as bellows forcing their air ileum)
out of lungs leaving no dead space. Resposinble for increase surface area for
(iii) Lungs are non-elastic in birds & store no air absorption.
unlike other vertebrates. 20. Answer (1)
(iv) Air sacs act as cooling devices for temperature  Poison glands are modified parotid salivary
regulation to compensate for sweat glands. gland.
This is done by internal perspiration i.e. water
 Fangs of snakes are modified maxillary teeth.
diffuses from blood into cavities of air sacs &
pass out through lungs, accompanied by loss  Haemotoxins kill R.B.Cs, disrupt clotting &
of body heat. cause organ degeneration.

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21. Answer (3) 31. Answer (4)
(i) Crocodilians are exception to 3-chambered  Fishes, reptiles and birds have monocondylic
heart with partially divided ventricle condition. skull.
(ii) Gills are present in adult amphibians like  Amphibians and mammals have dicondylic
Necturus, Proteus etc. skull.
(iv) Mammary glands without teats are present in
32. Answer (1)
prototherians. (Ornithorhynchus).
Chondrichthyes have ventral while osteichthyes
22. Answer (2)
have terminal mouth.
• Chameleon and Chelone are amniotes with
33. Answer (1)
internal fertilization.
Paired appendages are a character of
• Pristis is an anamoniate with internal
Gnathostomes only.
fertilisation.
23. Answer (3) 34. Answer (2)

Flight muscles are attached to the keel of All given characters given in the table belong to
sternum. class Aves and Osteichthyes.
24. Answer (4) 35. Answer (2)
Scoliodon & Carcharadon [Chondrichthyes] have to Last 3-4 tail vertebrae of birds fuse to form
swim constantly to avoid sinking as they lack air pygostyle and at the base of tail is uropygial/preen
bladder that maintains hydrostatis. gland.
25. Answer (2)
Loreal pit  Thermoreceptor in snakes. SECTION - B
Jacobson organ  Olfactory in receptor reptiles.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
Neuromost cells  Rheoreceptor in fishes.
Cochlea  Auditory receptor in mammals. 36. Answer (1)

26. Answer (2)


Adult Anadromous Spawning
All the given characters belong to Latimeria (lobed lamprey in fresh water
migration
finned fish)
(in sea)
27. Answer (3) Parents
(i) Testudo is poikilotherm. Larva die

(ii) Teeth are absent in Testudo & Neophron.


37. Answer (2)
(iii) Neophron has feathers on its skin.
Duck billed platypus [Ornithorhynchus] is oviparous
28. Answer (3)
mammal that lacks placenta.
Lepidosiren is American lung fish & Neoceratodus
is Australian lung fish. 38. Answer (4)
29. Answer (2) Chimaera is a connecting link between
 Parthenogenesis is development of a female chondrichthyes and osteichthyes with 2-chambered
gamete into new organism without fertilisation. heart & gills covered with operculum.
Example : Drone 39. Answer (2)
 Morphollaxis is regeneration of new organism Ascidian tadpole shows retrogressive
from a small fragment. metamorphosis because it loses its tail and
Example : Hydra notochord then develops into a degenerated adult.
30. Answer (3) 40. Answer (3)
(i) Balaenoptera [Blue whale] has intra-abdominal  Branchiostoma has closed circulatory system
testes. without heart.
(ii) Aptenodytes [Penguin] has right systemic arch.
 Urochordates are the only chordates that have
(iii) Salamandra belongs to Amphibia. a primitive open type circulatory system.

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41. Answer (3) 51. Answer (2)
Axolotl larva displays paedogenesis i.e. Crop in alimentary canal of birds serves two
reproduction by larva that gives rise to an immature functions :
adult.  Storage of food
42. Answer (4)  Secretion of crop milk/pigeon milk by both
In Pipa, female shows parental care. parents.
43. Answer (3) 52. Answer (3)
Lungs of birds can’t store air like other vertebrates Only reptiles and birds have monocondylic skull,
so air sacs supplement respiration by acting as mammals have dicondylic skull.
bellows as explained in Q.13. 53. Answer (3)
44. Answer (1) Contraction of diaphragm/phrenic muscle.
Hemidactylus and Aptenodytes have cledoic eggs 
that help in successful terrestrial survival so there
increase in volume of thoracic cavity antero-
will be no need of water for fertilization as amniotic
posteriorly that leads to in volume of pulmonary
fluids acts as personal pool for developing embryo.
cavity
45. Answer (3)

Only males have pelvic claspers that act as
Decrease in pressure [Boyle’s law]
copulatory organs and can be used as a character
of sexual dimorphism. 
46. Answer (1) Inhalation of air from high partial pressure to low
partial pressure by simple diffusion.
All mammals have diaphragm and mammary
glands. 54. Answer (1)
47. Answer (1) Herdmania & Ascidia are primitive chordates
[Urochordata]
Amphibians have noncledoic eggs.
as larva loses notochord, tail & nerve cord during
48. Answer (2) metamorphosis.
Air cavities are present in long bones of birds to 55. Answer (1)
make them light as a flight adaptation.
 Testudo is a vertebrate while Branchiostoma is
49. Answer (3) a non-vertebrate but both are chordates as
Exocetus is bony fish that has swim bladder which they have notochord at some stage of their life.
helps to maintain buoyancy in water unlike sharks  But in Testudo, notochord gets replaced by
that lack air bladder. vertebral column in adult.
50. Answer (4) 56. Answer (4)
 Lung fishes have both gills & lungs for  Fishes have mesodermal scales and lines can
respiration. be used to determine age of fishes [Cycloid
 Lung fishes are connecting link between fishes scales].
& amphibians.  Reptiles have ectodermal scales.

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Chapter 3
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Tissues)

Hints and Solutions

7. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
Desmosomes & hemidesmosomes both are
Objective Type Questions adhering junctions but desmosomes facilitate the
1. Answer (4) adjoining of two adjacent cells together while
 Basement membrane underlying epithelial hemidesmosomes allow adhesion of a cell to non-
tissue is cellular underlying basal lamina of basement
membrane.
Outer layer
comprised of 2 layers 8. Answer (3)
Inner layer Gap Junction  facilitate communication between
 Outer layer is comprised of glycoproteins & 2 cells by adjoining their cytoplasm.
mucopolysaccharides [Hyaluronic acid]. 9. Answer (2)
 Inner layer is comprised of reticular fibres.  Fibroblasts are the most abundant cells in
2. Answer (1) connective tissue that secretes matrix & fibres.
Lung alveoli, blood vessels and peritoneum are  Histiocytes are macrophages of connective
lined by simple squamous epithelium (single tissue.
layered).  Plasma cells form antibodies.
3. Answer (2)  Mast cells secrete heparin, histamine &
Brunner’s gland Compound tubular serotonin.
Oil gland Branched alveolar 10. Answer (1)
Submandibular gland Compound alveolar Mast cells secrete - Heparin [Anticoagulant]
4. Answer (3) Histamine [Vasodilators]
Vas deferens and epididymis  Stereociliated Serotonin [Vasoconstrictors]
epithelium urethra of male & parotid salivary gland 11. Answer (4)
duct  Pseudostratified columnar
Ligament connects bone to bone while tendon is
Larynx & Oesophagus  Non-keratinized stratified attaching bone to muscle.
squamous.
12. Answer (1)
5. Answer (2)
White fat Brown fat
Mammary glands are a type of apocrine gland
 Comprised of  Multilocular
where a bit of cytoplasm is also released out
through cell along with the secretory product. monolocular white brown adipocyte
6. Answer (4) adipocyte
In transitional epithelium,  Produces 20 times
more heat than white
Inner layer  Cuboidal cells
fat.
Intermediate layers  2-3 layers of polygonal cells
(More number of
Outer layer  Large, flat oval cells. mitochondria)

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13. Answer (2) 23. Answer (4)
 Leptin hormone is produced by adipocytes that Lymph = Blood - [R.B.Cs + platelets + Large
help in weight management. plasma proteins]
 Lecithin is a phospholipid present in cell 24. Answer (1)
membrane.
Striated/Skeletal/Voluntary muscle firbres are
 Melanin is skin pigment.
syncytial or multinucleated.
 Melatonin is tryptophan derivative hormone
secreted by pineal gland. 25. Answer (4)
14. Answer (1)
Growth of cartilage is unidirectional while of bone I-band A-band
is bidirectional.
15. Answer (2)
Z-linc
Hyaline cartilage  Larynx, nasal septum,
tracheal rings & ribs
Yellow elastic cartilage  Eustachian tube, H-zone
epiglottis & pinna.
Joints between vertebrae  White fibrocartilage. SARCOMERE
16. Answer (4)
Nucleus pulposus is remnant of notochord present 26. Answer (1)
in intervertebral disc.
In intestine, stomach & urinary bladder single unit
17. Answer (4)
smooth muscles are present.
Pubic symphysis is present where two pubic
bones meet ventrally. [White fibro cartilage] 27. Answer (2)

18. Answer (4) Signal via motor neuron from CNS


Bone matrix consists of 65% inorganic matter 
[Calcium carbonate, Calcium phosphate, Calcium
Release of neurotransmitter [Ach] at neuromuscular
fluoride, Hydroapatite salts etc.] & 35% organic
junction
matter [Glycoproteins, mucopolysaccharide,
Ossein protein, glycosaminoglycans etc.] 
19. Answer (2) Generation of Action potential
 Haversian canal is a characteristic of compact 
bone in long bones of mammals only.
Release of Ca2+ from SR into sarcoplasm
 In Spongy bone Haversian canal & Osteon are
absent. 
20. Answer (1) Ca2+ binds with TpC of troponin
Bone when kept in dilute HCl will its inorganic 
content that provides strength so it becomes soft
& elastic. Conformational change in Tp-Tm complex
21. Answer (4) 
(i) Chondroclast  Cartilage eating cell Demasking of myosin binding site on F-actin
(ii) Chondrocyte  Cartilage forming cell 
(iii) Osteoblast  Precursor of bone forming Binding of actin & myosin actively [Formation of
cell i.e. Osteocyte. cross bridge]
22. Answer (3) 
 Megakaryocyte of bone marrow gets
Sliding of filaments
fragmented to give rise to thrombocyte platelet.
 R.B.Cs & W.B.Cs are produced by 
haemocytoblasts of bone marrow. Muscle contraction

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28. Answer (1) 35. Answer (2)
As explained in Q.25 with diagram White fat is monolocular while brown fat is
multilocular.
P  Sarcomere
Q  Z-line
 Brown adipocytes have more mitochondria so
produce large amount of energy.
R  H-zone
36. Answer (2)
S  A-band
With the help of Canaliculi, one osteocyte
T  I-band communicates with another osteocyte through gap
junction.
29. Answer (2)
37. Answer (1)
 Nissl’s Granules are present only in Cyton &
dendrites of a neuron. Growth of Bone is bidirectional i.e. forward &
downward elongation of bone as osteoblasts are
 Comprised of RER + Ribosomes; help in present towards periosteum & endosteum.
protein synthesis. 38. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3) Matrix of hyaline cartilage is apparently fibreless &
Microglial cells are a type of macrophages that glass like but translucent as it consists of very few
are derived from monocytes of blood that entered fibres in the ground substance.
into nervous tissue during embryonic period. 39. Answer (2)

SECTION - B Haversian canals are found in mammalian bone


only.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 40. Answer (3)
31. Answer (2) A bone becomes soft & flexible when kept in dil.
Basement membrane of epithelial tissue is non- HCl due to dissolution of inorganic material that
cellular in nature. provides strength & hardness to bone.

32. Answer (3) 41. Answer (4)

Pseudo (false) stratified (multilayered) epithelium is Osteoclasts are macrophages that are derived from
comprised of Single layer cells. blood cell line not through osteogenic precursors.
42. Answer (2)
 Transitional epithelium is found in urinary
bladder & ureters.  Lymph = Blood – [R.B.Cs + platelets + large
plasma proteins].
33. Answer (2)
Gap Junction facilitate rapid transfer of ions & small
 Lymph is colourless as there is no coloured
molecules by adjoining cytoplasm of adjacent respiratory pigment in W.B.Cs.
cells. 43. Answer (3)
34. Answer (2)  Cardiac muscles are functionally syncytium
Allergens/Injury in a tissue not structurally like skeletal muscles
[multinucleated].

 Cells interconnected by specialized membrane
Stimulates mast cells with gap junctions to facilitate rapid
 contractions of muscles along their entire
length.
Secretion of histamine
44. Answer (2)

Actin [in I-band] & myosin (in A-band) are
Increase in diameter & permeability of blood contractile proteins.
capillaries
45. Answer (3)

Cardiac muscle fibres have longest refractory
Inflammation [Swelling, pain, redness] period.

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46. Answer (4) 49. Answer (4)
 No neurilemma is present in CNS that brings
 Only I-band disappearance during contraction
out regeneration.
& A-band remaining constant.
 Schwann cells (a type of glial cells) are
present in PNS only & their wrapping around  Sarcomere is the contractile unit found
axons of PNS is called neurilemma. between two Z-lines.
47. Answer (3)
50. Answer (1)
Microglia are smallest glial cells.
48. Answer (2) Due to the presence of peripheral clumps of
Myelin sheath is formed by schwann cells in PNS heterochromatin, plasma cells give cart wheel
& Oligodendrocytes in CNS. appearance to nucleus.

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Chapter 4
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Morphology)

Hints and Solutions

5. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
• Location of Gizzard  8th – 9th segment
Objective Type Questions
1. Answer (3) Function  Grinding of food.

[Only (a) & (d) are correct] • Humic acid is neutralized by secretion of
Calciferous glands of stomach.
• The first segment of Earthworm that is
surrounding mouth is Peristomium. 6. Answer (1)

Around mouth (ii) Stomach in Earthworm  9th – 14th segment


• Prostomium is a flap-like st7ructure covering (iii) Typhlosole in Earthworm  26th – 95th segment
mouth and sensory in function.
(iv) Anus in Earthworm  Pygidium
2. Answer (4)
7. Answer (1)
• Body of Earthworm is metamerically segmented
[100 – 120 segments] Stomach  9th – 14th segment

3. Answer (1) Intestinal cecae  26th segment

Setae are S-shaped structures in epidermal pits 8. Answer (2)


embedded in middle of each segment except 1st, Dorsal blood vessel  From 1st – last segment
Last & Clitellar segments.
Supra oesophageal vessel  9th – 13th segment
Metameres
Lateral oesophageal vessel  1st – 13th segment
Setae
Ventral blood vessel  From 1 – last segment
Setae
9. Answer (2)

Epidermal Biting & chewing type mouth parts are present in


pit
cockroach.

10. Answer (4)

4. Answer (1) Correct sequence of segments in leg of cockroach


is :
Epidermis is single layered columnar epithelium in
Earthworm. Coxa  Trochanter  Femur  Tibia  Tarsus.

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11. Answer (4) 18. Answer (3)


Arthrodial / Articular membrane allows flexibility as • Mushroom / Utricular gland is present between
it is not covered by chitinous plates so allows 6th – 7th abdominal segment.
movements between sclerites.
12. Answer (3)
• Three layers of spermatophore :

Plantulae are small adhesive pods that are located Outermost layer  by Phallic gland
at each joint of tarsus while Arolium / Pulvillus is Middle layer  by Ejaculatory duct
present on last tarsomere called as pretarus.
Inner most layer  by long tubules of
13. Answer (2) mushroom gland.
• Anal styles & phallic gland are present in male 19. Answer (1)
cockroach only.
Phallic gland  Conglobate gland in males only.
• Anal cerci & Arthrodial membrane are present
Mushroom gland  Utricular gland in males only.
in both
Collaterial gland in females only.
• Ovipositor is present in males only.
20. Answer (4)
14. Answer (2)
(i) Female cockroach produces 9 – 10 oothecae
• Septal nephridia in Earthworm and malpighian
with 14 – 16 fertilized eggs in each.
tubule in Cockroach
(ii) Development is Paurometabolous.
absorb nitrogenous waste from body fluid & then
discharge it into intestine so that waste is removed (iii) Wings are present only in Adult.
out through Anus.
21. Answer (3)
• Probably it is a mode of conservation of water.
Prothoracic gland secretes prothoracic gland
15. Answer (3) hormone [PTGH]/Ecdysone / Moulting hormone.
Because most of the nervous system of cockroach 22. Answer (3)
is situated along the ventral side of body, so it
(i) In female cockroach, 7th sternum is boat shaped
survives for a week even when the head is cut
that forms Genital pouch along with 8th & 9th
16. Answer (2) sterna.
Periplaneta Blatta (ii) In male , Genital pouch is surrounded by 9th
• Well developed • Not so well developed. sternum & 9th and 10th terga.

Wings (iv) In male , 3 [Right, left & ventral] gonapophyses


are present in Genital pouch to help in copulation
• No invertase in • Invertase present
In female, 3 pairs of Gonapophyses are present
saliva
between female genital pore & Anus.
• Pronotum narrower • Broader. 23. Answer (4)
• Female with 34 • 48 chromosomes in Cockroach Heart pulsates about 50 times per
chromosomes females minute.
17. Answer (1) 24. Answer (1)
• If pigment sheath of all ommatidia are removed,
• Pathway followed by air during respiration in
there will be overlapping of lenses & only
cockroach :
superposition image will be formed.
Spiracles  Trachea  Tracheoles  Tissues.
• As pigment sheaths are responsible to separate
ommatidia in a compound eye so no separate • There is no respiratory pigment to carry air so
images are formed & there will be overlapping. direct transport of air occurs through trachea.

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25. Answer (4) 32. Answer (4)
(i) Junction of Gizzard & midgut is marked by the A pair of Anterior loops are present in 10th & 11th
presence of 6 – 8 blind tubules called as Hepatic segment, that connect supra – oesophageal vessel
cecae or intestinal cecae. to Lateral oesophageal vessel.
(ii) Junction of midgut - s hindgut is marked by the 33. Answer (2)
presence of 100 – 150 yellow thread like
structures called as malpighian tubules. Blood glands in Earthworm are found in 4th, 5th &
6th segments [Pharyngeal segment] produce blood
(iii) Junction of Gizzard & midgut is marked by the
cells (Leucocytes) & Haemoglobin.
presence of 6-8 blind tubules called as hepatic
cecae or intestinal cecae. 34. Answer (2)
26. Answer (1) Coelomic fluid excedes from the dorsal pores
situated along the mid dorsal line from groove of 12/
The digital formula for the forelimbs of frog is 02233.
13 segment & keeps the skin moist.
The digit formula for the Hindlimbs of frog is 22343
35. Answer (2)
27. Answer (1)
Earthworm is a bisexual animal, shows External &
Bidder’s canal present in kidney of male frog and cross fertilization as they are protandrous.
receives sperms from testes that are attached to
kidney through mesorchium. 36. Answer (1)

28. Answer (4) In Earthworm, septal nephridia endonephric


nephridia release the waste into intestine so that
Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that opens into
more water can be reabsorbed from excretory waste.
Bidder’s canal to transport sperms to urinogenital
duct. 37. Answer (2)
29. Answer (1) • Blood/Haemolymph in Periplaneta flows in open
• Phaosome is a transparent lens, in spaces so has open circulatory system.
photoreceptors of Earthworm in Epidermis. • Blood does not have any role in respiration, as
• Neurofibrillar network entering into photoreceptor there is no respiratory pigment that could act
is called as Retinella. as a medium of transport of Gases.
38. Answer (2)
SECTION - B
The Heart of cockroach is neurogenic because heart
Assertion - Reason Type Questions beat is generated by brain, there is no role of
muscle. (pacemaker)
30. Answer (2)
39. Answer (4)
The body of Earthworm can be divided into 3 regions.
Inspiration occurs due to Relaxation of tergosternal
• Pre-clitellar region [1-13 segment]
muscles.
• Clitellar region [14 –16 segment] Relaxation of tergosternal muscles
• th
Post-clitellar region [17 – last segment] 
31. Answer (3) increase in vol. of Abdominal cavity
• Spermathecal apertures situated on ventrolateral 
sides of inter-segmental grooves from 5th – 9th
decrease in pressure
segments serve to receive sperms during
copulation. 
• Ova are released into cocoon through female Air moves in from high pressure to low pressure
genital pore in 13th segment. through spiracles.

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40. Answer (2) 44. Answer (4)

Fat bodies of cockroach have different types of cells Phallic gland  Conglobate gland in males only.
that perform different functions : Mushroom gland  Utricular gland in males only.

Like urate cells [store & accumulate urate crystals Collaterial gland in females only.
& uric acid] Phallic gland in male cockroch ie also known
conglobate gland & takes part in formation of outer
Trophocytes [to store fat] layer of spermatophore.
Oenocytes [regulate internal metabolism] 45. Answer (1)

41. Answer (4) Because most of the nervous system of cockroach


is situated along the ventral side of body, so it
• Mosaic vision of cockroach has more sensitivity survives for a week even when the head is cut.
& less resolution. 46. Answer (3)

• Retinal pigment sneath covers the Rhabdome/ Prothoracic gland secretes prothoracic gland
hormone [PTGH]/Ecdysone / Moulting hormone.
Retina only.
Juvenile Hormone is secreted by corpora allata.
• Crystalline cone is surrounded by Iris pigment
47. Answer (3)
sheath
Female genital pouch has female genital pore,
42. Answer (2) spermathecal pores, Collaterial glands etc.

Pigment sheath of ommatidia keep the ommatidia 48. Answer (3)


separate so there will be no overlapping of image & Nuptial pad is found in male frog to hold female.
a bright separate images are formed. 49. Answer (4)
43. Answer (3) Bidder’s canal present in kidney of frog receives
sperms from testes that are attached to kidney
Paurometabolous development in cockroach through mesorchium.
JH Ecdysone Vasa efferentia (10 – 12 in no.) open into Bidder’s
Egg 
 Nymph  Adult
13 moultings canal

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Chapter 5
Biomolecules

Hints and Solutions

5. Answer (4)
SECTION - A
Curcumin
Objective Type Questions
A yellow pigment fromCurcuma longa.
1. Answer (3) Used as spice & food colouring agent.
Chemical analysis of living tissues Anti-oxidant & anti-inflammatory properties
6. Answer (3)
Lactose [Galactose + Glucose; ,1 4 Glycosidic
bond]

Filtrate Retentate CH2 OH CH2OH

Acid soluble fraction. Acid insoluble fraction OH


mircomolecules macromolecules OH OH OH

[Sugars, amino acids, [Carbohydrates, Proteins, OH OH


nucleotides, etc.] Lipids, nucleic acid etc.] 7. Answer (1)

Trehalose
Exception; as they have Glucose + Glucose [, 1 1 sugar]
low molecular weight but CH2OH CH2OH
are acid insoluble.
OH OH OH OH
2. Answer (4)
OH OH
Lipids are not strictly macromolecules as they have Non-reducing sugar
molecular mass less than 800 Da but found in
retentate (Acid insoluble fraction). Found in h aemolymph of insects
3. Answer (2)
8. Answer (2)
Monobasic & dibasic phosphates maintain H +
concentration in cellular fluids. H O H O
C C
4. Answer (3)
H—C—OH Deoxygenation H—C—H
Cane Sugar/Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar so from C2
will not give positive test with fehling solution. H—C—OH H—C—OH

No free adlehyde or ketonic group is present in H—C—OH H—C—OH


sucrose [Glycosidic bond is formed by
condensation of aldehyde gp. of glucose & ketone CH2OH CH 2OH
gp. of fructose] so no reduction of Cu2+  Cu+ Ribose (C5H10O 5) Deoxyribose (C5H10O4)

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9. Answer (3) 17. Answer (4)
Starch is a branched homopolymer of glucose &
inulin is a homopolymer of fructose. Enkephalin

10. Answer (2) Are pentapeptides that bind to opoid


receptors in body.
Starch -Glucose
Produced by CNS, acts as a signaling
Chitin  N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) molecules and analgesic.
Cellulose  -glucose
18. Answer (3)
Peptidoglycan  NAG + NAM (Heteropolymer)
Hyaluronic acid  D-Glucuronic acid + D-NAG Histamine is derived from decarboxylation of amino
(Heteropolymer) acid Histidine, a reaction catalyzed by enzyme
Histidine decarboxylase.
11. Answer (2)
Amylopectin is branched chain of starch with , I O
 6 Glycosidic bond between glucose molecules. N N
OH
3 2 N N
NH2 NH2
4 1 H H

5 19. Answer (4)


6 6
6
5 5 , 1  6 linkage Non-protein amino acids are those that don’t
4 1 4 1 participate in protein synthesis but can perform
3 2 3 2 other function like in urea cycle, neurotransmitters,
Antibiotics or other pharmacological compounds
, I  4 linkage etc.
12. Answer (2)
20. Answer (1)
Carboxy methyl cellulose  Added to ice
creams, cosmetics RuBisCo is an enzyme [Globular protein] involved
& medicines to in Carbon fixation by plants or other photosynthetic
emulsify & give a organisms.
smooth texture.
21. Answer (4)
13. Answer (4)
Arginine & histidine are semi-essential amino (a) Primary protein  No. and sequence of amino
acids. acid can be determined.
14. Answer (3) (b) Secondary (-pleated)  Intermolecular H-bond
OH (c) Secondary (Collagen Helix)  Intermolecular
CH2 H-bond & Locking effect.
H2N—C—COOH (d) Tertiary protein  Biological activities.
H
Serine (e) Quartenary protein  Haemoglobin

15. Answer (4) 22. Answer (2)

(i) Threonine is an alcoholic amino acid. (i) Enterokinase converts trypsinogen into trypsin.
(ii) Cysteine is a sulphur containing amino acid (ii) Antifreeze proteins [AFPs] bind to small ice
(ii) Methionine is a sulphur containing amino acid. crystals to inhibit growth & recrystallization of
16. Answer (1) ice that would other wise be fatal.

Given structure is of tyrosine amino acid. (iii) Transferases transfer functional groups.

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23. Answer (1) 30. Answer (3)
Replacement of Glutamic acid by valine results in the two strands are anti-parallel, plectonemically
sickle cell anemia. (at position 6) coiled.
Single nucleotide mutation in -globin gene & 5’3’
referred as HbS as opposed to normal adult HbA. 3’5’
24. Answer (2)
SECTION - B
GLUT (Glucose Transporter)– 4, enables glucose
transport in cells. Assertion - Reason Type Questions

25. Answer (4) 31. Answer (1)


Monobasic & dibasic phosphates maintain H+
Basic proteins like Lysine, Arginine have pH 7.4
concentration in cellular fluids.
26. Answer (3)
32. Answer (2)
(i) Inhibition of threonine deaminase by threonine Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar as there is no
is a reversible process. free aldehyde or ketonic group because they get
condensed during formation of glycosidic bond.
(ii) Glucose – ve 33. Answer (4)
ATP
Hexokinase Starch & Glycogen both are branched
ADP+Pi homopolymers of glucose.
Glucose–6–PO4
Amylose straight chain  , 1  4 linkage
Amylopectin straight chain  , 1  6 linkage
Feedback inhibition preventing excessive
stockpiling until glycolysis depletes G6P 34. Answer (3)
levels. Non-competitive inhibition can’t be reversed due to
change in conformation of enzyme.
(iii) Fructose 6-phosphate (Structural configuration)
Phospho fructo Mg
2+
35. Answer (3)
kinase
Fructose 1, 6-Bis phosphate Decarboxylase catalyze the cleavage of substrate
without use of water [Lyases].
* This is called Pacemaker step of glycolysis. A double bond is formed at the site of removal of
group.
* High/rich amount of ATP will inhibit the reaction.
to regulate its speed but ADP activates this 36. Answer (1)
reaction for synthesis of new ATP. N—————————C

27. Answer (2) Left terminal Right terminal

Beewax  Palmitic acid + myricyl alcohol H2N—CH—CONH—CH—CONH—CH—COOH

or Hexacosanol R R R

28. Answer (1) 37. Answer (1)

Oleic acid  1 double bond Tertiary structure has crevice/pocket like structure
(active site) that binds to substrate on the basis of
Linolenic acid  3 double bond structural configuration.
Linolenic acid  2 double bond 38. Answer (1)
Arachidonic acid  4 double bond Non-caloric & non-sweeteners can be used by
Diabetic patients as they are calorie free.
29. Answer (4)
39. Answer (4)
Adenine is a double ring purine base.
Small globular proteins are soluble in water & large
Thymine is a single ring pyrimidine base. globular proteins get coagulated by heat.

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40. Answer (2) 44. Answer (3)
Enzyme with EC number 5 2.1.6 belongs to class
HOH2C Adenine Isomerase. 
[–CNC–bond]
H represents class of enzyme.

OH OH 45. Answer (3)


Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Co-factor
Adenosine
41. Answer (1) Co-factor
42. Answer (2)
Co-enzyme
Competitive inhibitors blocks the active site of Inorganic Organic
enzyme there by inhibiting the formation of E-S
Prosthetic gp
complex & finally the formation of product.
By  substrate conncentration one can reverse 46. Answer (2)
this inhibition as the enzyme structure remains Xanthoproteic test gives positive test for presence
intact. of aromatic amino acids due to nitration of phenolic
43. Answer (4) groups attached to side chains of aromatic amino
acid.
Non-competitive inhibitor binds irreversibly to
enzyme. 47. Answer (1)
DFP, a nerve gas is irreversible inhibitor of Acetyl Helices formed in starch chain hold I2 molecules &
cholinesterase. thus starch gives blue-black color.

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Chapter 6

Digestion and Absorption

Hints and Solutions

8. Answer (1)
SECTION - A
z Common bite duct + Duct of wirsung or Main
Objective Type Questions
pancreatic duct = Hepatopancreatic duct.
1. Answer (4)
(i) Human teeth are Heterodont [incisor, canines, z Duct of santorini is accessory pancreatic duct
premolars and molars] that opens directly into duodenum.

(ii) Tusks of walrus are modified canines. z Stensen’s duct is duct of parotid gland.
(iii) Enamel is Ectodermal in origin and made up of
9. Answer (2)
Ameloblasts.
2. Answer (1) Loss of Gastric glands
Ascending colon is shortest and sigmoid colon is 
longest.
3. Answer (3) Loss of secretion of CIF

No digestive enzymes are secreted by large intestine 


so there will be no digestion.
No Absorption of vitamin B12
4. Answer (2)
Rectum temporarily stores faecal matter. 
5. Answer (4) No maturation of R.B.Cs (no loss of nucleus)
z Myenteric plexus present in muscularis layer

regulate peristalsis in GIT.
z Meissener’s plexus controls secretions of GIT. Macrocytic anemia/Pernicious anemia
6. Answer (1)
10. Answer (2)
Sublingual is smallest salivary gland.
Steapsin is a pancreatic lipase i.e., principal enzyme
Parotid is largest salivary gland.
for digestion of fats.
7. Answer (2)
Right hepatic lobe is divided into 3 parts. 11. Answer (4)

Quadrate lobe Cranial nerve X i.e., vagus nerve that carries


Caudate lobe parasympathetic impulse which increase secretions,
Right lobe motility and functions of GIT.

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12. Answer (2) 20. Answer (4)


Failure of closure of cardiac sphincter z Dermatitis i.e, inflammation of skin occurs by
or B6, B3, B7, B2 etc.
z Different symptoms like Dryness, rashes,
Lack of peristalsis in oesophagus
eczema, skin ulcers etc. can appear in different
 conditions.
Accumulation of food in oesophagus 21. Answer (1)
 Vitamin C[Ascorbic acid] and Vitamin E[Tocopherol
Fermentation of food or Beauty vitamin] are rich in Anti-oxidant properties.
 
Heart burn/cardia achalasia Delay ageing by preventing disruption of cell
membrane due to free radicals.
13. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
z Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted by
polypeptide cells of Islets of langerhans of Pepsin
Protein Large peptides + Peptones
pancreas.
z This hormone inhibits the secretion of pancreatic Peptidase
juice.
Dipeptides
14. Answer (1)
23. Answer (4)
Enterokinase is secreted by intestinal glands and it
activates trypsinogen into trypsin. Vitamin B12 and Vitamin K are produced by E. Coli.
15. Answer (4)
Bile juice provides bile salts [Sodium bicarbonate, For maturation For Blood
of R.B.Cs. Clotting.
Sodium taurocholate, Sodium glycocholate] that
increase alkalinity of medium in duodenum. 24. Answer (2)
16. Answer (3) Indole Acetic Acid (Auxin) is a plant hormone i.e.,
z No digestion is required for alcohol. required to stimulate cell proliferation.
z Gets absorbed in stomach and then intestine. 25. Answer (2)
z Absorption gets slowed by food digestion. Kwashiorkor
17. Answer (4) z Deficiency of protein in age group of 1-5 years.
Glucose gets absorbed by secondary active z Oedema due to movement of tissue fluid in
transport and Na+ dependent co-transport. organs.
Glucose/ Galactose/Amino acid occupy second Rickets
vacant space. z Deficiency of vitamin D.

Na
+ z Bent bones.
Primary active Marasmus
ATP transport.
z Deficiency of protein and calories in infants.

18. Answer (3) z Prominent ribs, wrinkled and thin skin, no


oedema.
Gastrin hormone secreted by G-cells of stomach,
trigger gastric secretion. Acromicria
z Hypopituitarism in adults.
19. Answer (1)
26. Answer (2)
Duocrinin secreted by small intestine stimulates.
Brunner’s glands for secretion of digestive enzymes. Reddish hair are symptom of kwashiorkor.

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27. Answer (2) 35. Answer (1)
Lack of roughage results in low motility Acrodont z When teeth are present outside socket.

Faecal matter gets accumulated in rectum
 Halitosis z Bad Breath.
Constipation
Cleft palate [Cleft  split/cleave]

z Failure of fusion of two palatine bones.
Bleedy and leaky rectal veins
36. Answer (1)

z Triglycerides  Glycerol + 3 fatty acids
Haemorrhoids.
z Cholesterol  Sterol.
Haemoptysis-the coughing up of blood.
z Phospholipid  Glycerol + 2 fatty acid +
28. Answer (3) 1 phosphate attached to N-containing group.
(i) Dorsal respiratory group in medulla regulates 37. Answer (2)
breathing normally.
Total amount taken X physiological calorific value.
(ii) Hunger centre is located in hypothalamus.
Butter  5 × 9.0 k cal/gm
(iii) Broca’s Area in cerebrum controls speech.
Pulses  20 × 4.0 k cal/gm
29. Answer (1)
Rice  100 × 4.0 k cal/gm
z ORS [Oral rehydration solution] helps to restore
water-salt balance. Total  525 k cal/gm
z Ibuprofen is pain-killer 38. Answer (2)
z Antacids reduce acidity specially in stomach. Meconium is green colored waste of foetus that
contains engulfed amniotic fluid and excreta from
z Paracetamol is anti-pyretic i.e., lowers down the
intestine.
fever.
30. Answer (2) SECTION - B
White of egg contains avidin protein that prevents
absorption of B7. Assertion-Reason Type Questions
31. Answer (2) 39. Answer (1)
z Uridyl transferase is required to convert galactose Premolars appear only in permanent teeth so they
into glucose. are monophyodont.
z Deficiency results in accumulation of galactose 40. Answer (2)
i.e., Galactosemia that causes mental z Raw fish has enzyme Thiaminase that can
retardation. destroy vitamin B 1 and can result into B 1
32. Answer (1) deficiency/Beri-beri.
Waldeyer’s Ring has following tonsils. z Raw fish has certain neurotoxins [like saxitoxin]
that attack CNS and can cause muscle paralysis
Pharyngeal tonsil
and respiratory failure.
Tubal tonsil
Eustachian tube 41. Answer (4)
Palatine tonsil CIF is secreted by oxyntic cells and vitamin
B12/CEF is absorbed by CIF
Lingual tonsil 42. Answer (1)
33. Answer (3) Single unit smooth muscles with gap junction are
Duodenum is C-shaped while Jejunum has many present in GIT.
circular folds i.e., plica circulare. 43. Answer (1)
34. Answer (4) HCN is a colorless, poisonous gas is one of the toxic
Miling and polishing of rice eliminates nutrients; thus by products present in cigarette smoke that gets
no vitamin in polished rice. metabolized to form thiocynate.

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44. Answer (4) 52. Answer (2)


z Choleretics increase secretion of bile from liver. z Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits secretion of
gastric juice.
z Cholagogues promote discharge of bile from
z Vasoactive intestinal peptide inhibits secretion
system, purging it downward.
of gastric HCl and dilates blood vessels of gut.
45. Answer (3) 53. Answer (3)
Beri-beri occurs due to consumption of raw fish or
z Pancreas is an Exocrine and Endocrine gland deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine).
54. Answer (2)
Heterocrine
or Argentaffin cells are Entero endocrine/Hormone
Mixocrine secreting cells that stimulates gastric motility and
movement of villi by secreting hormones through
z Liver is covered by Glisson’s capsule i.e., different cells.
a sheath of connective tissue. 55. Answer (2)
46. Answer (3) Vitamin E acts as Antioxidant and Anti sterility vitamin.
Gastric HCl reduces Fe3+  Fe2+ As it help to Required for
 neutralize free development of
radicals and thus Gametocyte.
for synthesis of hemoglobin. delays ageing

47. Answer (1) 56. Answer (4)


Paneth cells in crypts of Leiberkuhn in small intestine z CCK-PZ acts on gall bladder and pancreas.
secrete lysozyme i.e., Anti-bacterial agent. z Stimulates contraction of gall bladder to release
Paneth cells are phagocytic in nature. bile and pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice.
57. Answer (3)
48. Answer (3)
HCl cannot affect peptide bonds. Only enzymes can
Peristalsis helps in movement of food through GIT. do that. So for denaturation of dietary protein HCl
49. Answer (4) converts pepsinogen into pepsin that will break down
proteins to peptides.
z Brunner’s glands are located is duodenum (sub
58. Answer (2)
mucosal glands)
z Maximum water is absorbed in small intestine
z Mucus is secreted by Goblet cells in crypts of [Jejunum].
Leiberkunn of intestinal mucosa.
z Large intestine absorbs water.
50. Answer (4) 59. Answer (1)
z Peptic cells are present in stomach only. Metabolic alkalosis is a primary increase in serum
z Proteins are digested by the action of pancreatic bicarbonate conc.
proteolytic enzymes in small intestine. Chronic vomiting leads to loss of gastric secretions
that are rich in HCl.
51. Answer (2)

Since glucose is a large molecules it is difficult to
Loss of H+ will cause gain of a HCO3– in extracellular
be transported across the membrane through passive space
diffusion. So a carrier protein at the membrane binds

to glucose and alters its shape in such a way that it
can easily transported across the membrane. Causes Alkalemia (pH > 7.4)

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Chapter 7

Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Hints and Solutions


5. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
(i) Every 100 ml. of blood delivers 5 ml. of O2 to
Objective Type Questions tissues.
1. Answer (4) (iii) About 70% CO2 is transported in the form of
Nereis  Parapodia bicarbonate ions.

Pleurobrachia  Body surface (iv) CO2 combines with amino terminal of globin of
Hb of form Hb CO2.
Limulus  Book gills
6. Answer (2)
Locusta  Trachea
2. Answer (2) Alveolar ventilation rate = [TV – Dead space] 
Breathing rate
> In Birds, air sacs are thin walled, membranous
non-muscular, non-vascular structures that act = [500 – 150]  12
as accessory respiratory organs.
= 350  12
> Act as reservoir but don’t participate in exchange
of gases. = 4200 m/min

3. Answer (1) = 4.2 lit/min.

(ii) Trachea divides into primary bronchi (right and 7. Answer (4)
left) at the level of 5th thoracic vertebrae.
Vital capacity = TV + IRV + ERV
(iii) Incomplete (C-shaped) cartilaginous rings are
present in trachea, bronchi and initial > All three can be calculated on spirometer.
bronchioles. > RV can’t be calculated on spirometer so FRC
(iv) Exchange of gases occurs at respiratory and TLC can’t be calculated.
bronchioles, Alveolar sac and Alveoli.
8. Answer (3)
4. Answer (3)
> During, inspiration a negative pressure is
> CO 2 of arterial blood principally regulates maintained in pulmonary cavity (i.e. approx. 758
breathing as it acts directly on respiratory center mm Hg) as compared to atmospheric pressure
itself, causing greatly increased strength of both
(i.e. 760 mm Hg) so the air moves in from high
the inspiratory and expiratory motor signals to
pressure to low pressure by simple diffusion.
the respiratory muscles.
> O2, in contrast acts almost entirely on peripheral > At the end of inspiration vol. of air in lungs is
chemoreceptors that transmit appropriate FRC + TV i.e. 2600 – 2800 ml. While FRC is
nervous signals to respiratory centre. ERV + RV i.e. 2100 – 2300 ml.

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9. Answer (1) 15. Answer (2)
z Buffering of CO2 by oxyhaemoglobin occurs z Hyperventilation is exhaling more than you
during O2 transport [Haldane effect] into blood. inhale.

z HCO3 shift from R.B.Cs into plasma and Cl– z Low levels of CO2 causes blood pH to rise and
becomes too alkaline [Respiratory Alkalosis].
shift in R.B.C. in exchange [Chloride shift or
Hamburger phenomenon]. z Causes dizziness, muscle spasm, dry mouth,
heart palpitations, feeling short of breath.
z HCO3 binds to Na+/K+ in ECF.
16. Answer (4)
10. Answer (3)
The affinity of CO with Hb is approx. 200 times
z Diaphragm increases volume of thoracic cavity more as that of O2 so it readily combines with Hb
Antero-posteriorly. to form Hb.CO.
z Ribs and sternum increase volume of thoracic 17. Answer (4)
cavity in the dorso-ventral axis.
Recovery oxygen uptake after exercise is used to
z Phrenic and intercostal muscles generate
pressure gradient in thoracic cavity. z Restore O2 removed from Mb.

11. Answer (2) z Resynthesize creatine phosphate and ATP in


muscle fibre.
CH2  O  OC  R1
z Convert lactic acid into glycogen (to

CH  O  OC  R1 compensate fatigue).
O 18. Answer (4)


CH2  O  P  O  (CH2)2  N  (CH3)3 
 
  
CO2  H2O   H  HCO3
 H2CO3 

OH


Hb  H 
 H  Hb
Surfactant i.e. Lecithin reduces surface tension
that helps to prevent the collapsing of alveoli. All phosphoric a , carbonic a and Hb act as
12. Answer (1) buffer.

z Haemoglobin binds to the gas with higher 19. Answer (2)


partial pressure. FRC = ERV + RV
z High temperature, low pH and high pCO2 will 20. Answer (3)
cause dissociation of O2 from Hb.
13. Answer (4) TLC – FRC = IC
 
Dissociation of O2 from Hb is favoured by TV + IRV + ERV + RV
ERV + RV
z Low pO2
z High pCO2 (Hyper capnia) 21. Answer (2)

z  in H+ In lungs, when pO2 is more so it gets combined


with Hb leaving H+ and CO2 behind that ultimately
This is called as BOHR’s EFFECT move to lungs.
14. Answer (4) 22. Answer (4)
Factors affecting diffusion of gases at respiratory z p50 value  with the shifting of curve towards
member are: right.
z Thickness of member; more thickness less z Right shift occurs when O2 gets dissociate
diffusion. from Hb due to High pCO2.
z Diffusion co-efficient 23. Answer (1)
z Partial pressure difference; gas moves from 100 ml. blood supplies 15 ml. O2 during heavy
high partial pressure to low partial pressure exercise so 1 litre will supply 150 ml.

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Solutions of Gateway to AIIMS Breathing and Exchange of Gases 403
24. Answer (4) 32. Answer (3)
z Apneustic breathing is characterized by z Due to positive pressure breathing, mouth
prolonged inspiration gap with a pause at full remains closed at the time of pulmonary
inspiration. breathing to maintain high pressure in buccal
z It sends signals to DRG to delay the shut off cavity so eating and breathing cannot be
signal of pneumotaxic centre. possible at same time.

z This occurs due to sudden trauma or lesion on z In reptiles, birds and mammals where a
wall of lower pons. negative pressure is maintained in lungs as
compared to atmospheric pressure so
25. Answer (1) breathing and eating can be done at same
z Central chemoreceptors are mainly affected by time.
 H+ in CSF indirectly from  CO2 in blood. 33. Answer (1)
z Peripheral chemoreceptors affected by 
Dead space consists of the air that never passed
arterial O2.
to lungs and no exchange occurs in dead space
26. Answer (3) like [Trachea, pharynx etc.] When expired air gets
mixed with this air the partial pressure of CO2
TLC = VC + RV
decreases.
27. Answer (3)
34. Answer (1)
Cyanide causes cytotoxic hypoxia as there is
z Increase in pCO2 shifts the oxygen-dissociation
diminished cellular metabolic capacity for using O2
curve towards right. [BOHR’S EFFECT].
because of no flow of electron through ETC. and
makes the respiratory enzyme not sensitive/ HbO2 + CO2  HbCO2 + O2
receptive to substrate by binding non-competitively.
z To obtain oxygen dissociation curve pO2 has to
28. Answer (1) be increased so the value of P50 increase.
100 ml. blood carries 20 ml. of O2 but supplies 15 
ml. of O2 to tissue during strenuous exercise.
Value of pO2 at which 50% Hb gets saturated.
SECTION - B 35. Answer (2)

Assertion-Reason Type Questions O2 binds with haeme group of Hb.


CO2 binds with amine terminal of globin in Hb.
29. Answer (1)
CO binds with carboxy terminal of globin in Hb.
z Apneustic breathing is characterized by
prolonged inspiration gap with a pause at full 36. Answer (1)
inspiration. Partial pressure of N2 is nearly equal in alveolar
z It sends signals to DRG to delay the shut off air and pulmonary blood so no exchange occurs.
signal of pneumotaxic centre. 37. Answer (1)
z This occurs due to sudden trauma or lesion on Gills are the most efficient organs of breathing
wall of lower pons. because of counter current between water and
30. Answer (3) branchial circulation.

CO2 is having more solubility (in water) and more 38. Answer (1)
affinity for Hb as compared to O2.
Coelomic fluid oozes out of dorsal pores to keep
31. Answer (4) the skin of earthworm moist and it facilitates
cutaneous respiration in earthworm.
Bronchitis is inflammation of bronchi mainly caused
by environmental pollutants. 39. Answer (1)

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40. Answer (3) 44. Answer (2)

Carbonic anhydrase is present in low concentration Emphysema is a disorder characterized by


destruction of walls of alveoli, producing Abnormally
in plasma so the reaction occurs at a slow pace.
large spaces that remain filled with air.
41. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)
Pneumotaxic centre switches off inspiration. z Normally intrapleural pressure is less than the
Apneustic centre delays switching off of the pressure in the airways.
inspiration. z When air enters into this pleural space the
pressure increases that cause a damage to
42. Answer (1) chest wall or lungs.
43. Answer (1) 46. Answer (1)
Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the
z Blood-Brain Barrier is not very permeable to atmospheric pressure due to  in volume of
H+, so it does not affect rate of breathing thoracic cavity antero-posteriorly (contraction of
considerably. diaphragm) and dorso-ventrally (contraction of
z But paradoxically, more H+ are released into inter-coastal muscles.
chemosensitive area of medulla when the 47. Answer (1)
blood CO2  because CO2 (in both CSF and Nasal counter current flow occurs through nasal
interstitial fluid of medulla) combines with water turbinates, where expiring air gets warmed up by
to form new H+ ions. retaining more water.

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Chapter 8
Body Fluids and Circulation

Hints and Solutions

So, if antiserum A shows agglutination reaction, then


SECTION - A
blood group is A.
Objective Type Questions 7. Answer (4)
1. Answer (4) z During pregnancy, placenta acts as a barrier, so
z Colloidal osmotic pressure is regulated by there is no mixing of blood.
albumins. z So during 1st pregnancy no anti-Rh antibodies
z Immune responses are provided by -globulins are present in plasma of mother. & thus there
(immunoglobulins) will be no incompatibility reaction.
2. Answer (3) 8. Answer (2)
Plasma without clotting factors is called as serum.
Hemostasis / Haemostatis
3. Answer (3)
z Process which causes bleeding to stop, meaning
z Folic acid & cyanocobalamine both are required
to keep blood within a damaged blood vessel.
for synthesis of DNA.
z First stage of wound healing that involves
z Erythropoietin stimulates production of R.B.Cs
coagulation.
4. Answer (2)
Homeotasis
Basophils act as mast cells of connective tissue &
secrete histamine i.e. required during inflammatory z Maintaing constant internal environment.
& allergic reaction as it acts as a vasodilator. Thermostasis
5. Answer (3) z Maintaining constant internal body temprature.
z They are enucleated fragments of 9. Answer (2)
megakaryocytes.
z Factor -III / Thromboplastin is required to initiate
z Smallest of formed elements.
clotting.
6. Answer (1)
10. Answer (3)
z Antibodies of ABO system are IgM type (largest)
so cannot cross placenta. Capillaries are the exclusive feature of closed
z Agglutination means clumping of particles that circulatory system that are absent in open type
occurs which an Ag (antigen) is mixed with system.
corresponding Ab / isoagglutinin.
11. Answer (3)
A + Anti-a Clumping Blood flows in open spaces, so no regulated flow to
Ag Ab a specific area.

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12. Answer (1) 21. Answer (2)


Atria receives venous blood; right atrium receives Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood before
birth.
deoxygenated blood from tissues while left atrium
receives oxygenated blood from lungs. 22. Answer (2)

13. Answer (2) Hepatic portal vein = Superior mesenteric vein


+
Functional syncytium [connected through gap
junctions] i.e. atrial & ventricular syncytium. inferior mesentirc vein
+
14. Answer (1)
Hepatic vein
z 70% ventricular filling is completed in joint
23. Answer (1)
diastole.
Coronary artery arises from ascending aorta.
z Rest 30% filling occurs in atrial systole
24. Answer (2)
15. Answer (3)
z 1st heart sound Lubb is produced due to closure
At AV node, there is a delay in conduction of impulse of AV valves, it is of longer duration & low
towards ventricles to ensure that atria have ejected frequency.
all blood into ventricles before they contract. z 2nd is Dub, produced by closure of semilunar
valves, is of short duration but loud.
16. Answer (2)
25. Answer (3)
z SA node & AV node do not have fast Na+ Sympathetic stimulation is cardiac acceleratory
channels like neurons so action potential is impulse that  heart rate & contractility of cardiac
generated by slow influx of Ca2+ through voltage muscles by using Nor-adrenaline.
sensitive calcium channels. 26. Answer (4)
z Ca2+ is an effector ion that causes muscular All receptors send impulses to brain to regulate heart
contractions in contractile cells but in pacemaker activities.
cells of heart it causes depolarisation. 27. Answer (4)
17. Answer (4) Hypertension is caused by
Almost 70% of total blood is in veins at a given time z Tumor in adrenal cortex
because walls of veins are thinner and less rigid than  secretion of aldosterone
arteries.

18. Answer (3) Change in osmotic concentration of blood.
After death, there is no pumping of blood by heart so z Pheochromocytoma (A tumor of adrenal medulla)
arteries don’t remain filled with blood.  in catecholamines
19. Answer (2) 
Coronary sinus - Heart Stimulate cardiac activity & constriction
of blood vessels.
Subclavian - Arms, Neck
z Damage to renal tissue
Iliac - Pelvis, lower limbs
Change in osmotic concentration of fluid
Azygos - Arms, Neck

20. Answer (3) more renin
Capillary exchange is enhanced by following factors: 
z Slow rate of blood Flow More Angiotensin II
z Thinness of capillary wall 
z  in surface area due to extensive branching Vasoconstriction.

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Solutions of Gateway to AIIMS Biotechnology Principle and Process 407
28. Answer (2) 38. Answer (2)
Angina pectoris Frank starling Law  Already explained.

Acute chest pain due to O2 supply (ischaemia) Fick’s principle  Cardiac output =
due to atherosclerosis (blockage due to deposition Oxygen consumption per minute
of cholesterol). Concn of oxygen in – Oxygen concn.
29. Answer (2) oxygenated blood in deoxygenated blood

High Na+ intake will increase blood pressure & thus Bowditch principle  All or none Law
decreases heart rate & contractility 39. Answer (3)
Polycythemia is abnormal increase in R.B.C count
30. Answer (4)
Frank starling law states that the heart equalizes SECTION - B
the output of the right & left ventricles and keeps the
same volume of blood following to both the systemic Assertion-Reason Type Questions
& pulmonary circulation.
40. Answer (1)
31. Answer (4)
Albumins maintain high solute concentration in blood
CABG  A surgical procedure in which a blood & thus regulate flow of plasma across the membrane.
vessel from another part of body is grafted to coronary 41. Answer (2)
artery to bypass an area of blockage. Macrophages have variable names in different
PTCA  A non-surgical procedure to treat CAD tissues; clasmatocytes in connective tissue.
where a stent is a metallic, fine wire tube i.e., 42. Answer (2)
permanently placed in an artery to keep the artery Antibodies against donor’s R.B.Cs in host will perform
open & allow the blood to circulate. phagocytosis & haemolysis occurs.
32. Answer (4) 43. Answer (3)
Leaky & bleeding veins are called varicose/ Rh negative people will have antibodies against Rh
haemmorhoids. antigen only when they are exposed to Rh antigen.
44. Answer (4)
33. Answer (2)
Plasma thromboplastin (intrinsic pathway) is also
QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation
involved in blood clotting.
S-T internal represents ventricular contraction
45. Answer (3)
T wave represents ventricular repolarisation
Deficiency of factor IX-anti hemophilia-B factor causes
34. Answer (2) christmas disease / Haemophilia-B.
Myocardial infarction  Death of a part of heart due 46. Answer (1)
to interrupted blood & O2 supply. Pericardium is comprised of 2 layers:
35. Answer (3)
Lymphocytes are present in lymph.
36. Answer (4) Parietal Visceral

ADH, renin & catecholamines stimulate


Fibrous Serous Serous
vasoconstriction while ANF acts as vasodilator.
37. Answer (2) Provides
Form pericardial fluid
When the right side of heart loses pumping ability, Protection
blood backs up in body’s vein. 47. Answer (3)
This usually leads to swelling of lower limbs & Conducting tissues of heart are specialized cardiac
abdomen (peripheral oedema) muscles.
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48. Answer (4) 55. Answer (2)
Isovolumetric contraction causes closing of semilunar
volves but opening of AV valves. Blockage of LAD artery
49. Answer (1) 
Closure of semilunar valves marks the beginning of Death of heart tissue due to obstructed O2 supply
ventricular diastole.
50. Answer (2) 
Cardiac reserve = Difference b/w the rate at which Replaced by non-contractile scar tissue
heart pumps blood & its max. capacity for pumping
blood at a given time. 
51. Answer (1) Muscle loses its strength
Long Q-T segment shows  in time taken by
56. Answer (2)
ventricles to contract due to  O2 supply or blockage.
52. Answer (1) Ejection fraction is a measurement of the percentage
Ca 2+ is required to initiate action potential in of blood leaving your heart each time it contracts.
conducting tissues of heart so contractility 
57. Answer (2)
53. Answer (2)
Parasympathetic activity [Vagal tone] inhibits cardiac Marey’s Law
activity. Atrial blood pressure is inversely proportional to heart
54. Answer (2)
rate.
z Complete stoppage of heartbeat is called cardiac
arrest. 58. Answer (1)
z Ventricular fibrillation is asynchronous ventricular z Increased diastolic pressure indicated that heart
contractions.
is approaching failure so it is of great prognostic

importance.
Ventricles quiver
 z  diastolic pressure can possibly lead to
Ventricular pumping stops progression of systolic hypertension which is a
 predictor of diabetes, stroke & heart failure.
Circulatory failure
59. Answer (3)

Death Plasma content is 55-60% in blood.

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Chapter 09

Excretory Products and their Elimination

Hints and Solutions

7. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
Glomerular filtration pressure is opposed by plasma
Objective Type Questions protein pressure (i.e. Colloidal osmotic pressure)
1. Answer (3) so net pressure that favour glomerular filtration is
(50-27) 23 mm Hg.
z Ammonia is highly toxic [than urea and uric
acid] 8. Answer (1)
z Ammonia needs maximum amount of water for FW 50 mosmolL–1
its Excretion.
2. Answer (2)
300 mosmolL–1
Urea in shark and TMAO in bony fishes are used
to maintain desired osmolarity as both are non-
reactive.
3. Answer (3) Will suffer from Endosmosis
Buthus - Guanine Maintains osmoregulations by active
Uptake of ions as water is moving inside
(Scorpion) through Gills and skin by diffusion.
Ambystoma - Ammonia 9. Answer (1)
(Tiger salamander) Juxta glomerular cells that secrete renin are
Land snail - Uric acid mainly present in afferent arteriole and some in
efferent arteriole.
Carcharodon - Urea
4. Answer (1) 10. Answer (2)

Renal capsule is outer fibrous covering that An  in plasma concentration


protects kidney from injury and supports vital 
tissues of kidney
Activate JGA apparatus and thus
5. Answer (3)
secretion of renin
In given figure, X is renal column of Bertini present
between medullary pyramids. 
6. Answer (3) Activation of Angiotensin
z Macula densa are specialized cells ling the and secretion of aldosterone
wall of distal tubule, at the point where thick
ascending limb meets DCT. 
z Sensitive to conc. of sodium chloride in DCT. absorption of water.

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11. Answer (3) 18. Answer (2)
in concentration of plasma proteins z Glucose, Bicarbonates and sodium are
 absorbed in PCT so none of them is present
at the end of PCT.
plasma has lower colloidal osmotic pressure
z Creatinine has to be secreted out.

19. Answer (4)
less opposing force to GFR
Water reabsorption is obligatory in PCT while
 facultative in DCT and collecting duct.
in GFR (Under the influence of ADH).
12. Answer (3) z Parathhormone increases Ca2+ resorption from
Haemoglobin is a respiratory pigment present in bones to maintain Ca2+ in ECF and decrease
R.B.Cs that carries 4 oxygen molecules bound to phosphate reabsorption from renal tubules.
Fe2+ z 90% of the water is reabsorbed by PCT
13. Answer (1) [obligatory] and rest 10% is facultative i.e.
PCT is the site of maximum absorption; 100%. under the control of ADH.
Glucose and amino acids are absorbed in PCT; so 20. Answer (3)
they are not present in urine of a normal person. Urea gets filtered by pressure based passive
14. Answer (3) filtration through glomerulus.
Sympathetic stimulation causes relaxation of 21. Answer (1)
urinary bladder while parasympathetic stimulation z ANF (Atrial natriuretic peptides is secreted by
causes contraction of urinary bladder and Atria of heart and acts as a vasodilator and
relaxation of urethral sphincters thus facilitating. thus helps to reduce B.P.
Micturition
z It also acts as a switch off signal to RAAs.
z Diabetes insipidus means in ADH secretion
resulting in more urine output. 22. Answer (2)
z Renal arterial pressure will cause . Extrinsic / Neurogenic regulation is done Ans

in GFR and thus  in urine output. While myogenic/intrinsic regulation is done by

15. Answer (3) smooth muscle lining of blood vessels themselves.

ADH is responsible for water absorption from DCT 23. Answer (3)
and collecting duct [Facultative absorption.] z PAH [ Para - aminohippurate] passes through
16. Answer (1) kidneys and therefore, the rate at which
kidneys can clear PAH from the blood reflects
Vasa-recta  Counter current exchanger juxta total renal plasma flow.
medullary nephrons.
z Inulin is small, inert polysaceharide molecule
17. Answer (2) that readily passes through the glomeruli into
z Blood loss, dehydration and  blood urine without being reabsorbed by renal
osmolarity will cause in vol. of blood. tubules.
 z When a substance is freely filtered and not
osmoreceptor send a signal to hypothalamus reabsorbed or secreted by renal tubules, then
the rate at which that substance is excreted in
 urine is equal to the filteration rate of the
trigger pituitary substance by kidneys.
 24. Answer (3)
release of ADH (i) in plasma albumin
 
 water absorption  in blood colloidal osmotic pressure
 
blood volume becomes normal in GFR.

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(ii) dilation of afferent arterioles 32. Answer (1)
 Henle loop is responsible to make urine Hypertonic
 in GHP by reabsorption of water.

 33. Answer (4)


in GFR. Urea is metabolic waste present in blood that will
(iii) Constriction of efferent arterioles move towards dialysing fluid by simple diffusion
 along the concentration gradient so dialysing fluid
is almost isotonic to blood plasma except
 resistance to outflow from glomerular nitrogenous waste.
capillaries
34. Answer (1)

in GHP Fasting means no carbohydrates are available to
burn so fat burning (to create energy) will produce

ketone bodies.
in GFR
35. Answer (1)
25. Answer (3)
z PCT, DCT and thick part of HL are epithelial ANF acts as a vasodilator and thus helps to reduce
(cuboidal mainly) tissue that form tubular part B.P.
of nephron.
36. Answer (4)
z Macula densa is modified cells (taller and have
more prominent nuclei than surrounding cells) GFR
Filteration fraction   100
lining the wall of distal tubule. (percent) RPF
26. Answer (3)
Inulin is derived from root tubers of Dahlia and 37. Answer (2)
Artichoke is used to diagnose glomerular
functioning test as explained in Q. 23.
Cytasol Urea Mitochondria
27. Answer (4) CO2 + NH4
H+ are secreted actively in both PCT and DCT. (5)
(1)
se

28. Answer (2)


ra

Arginine Ornithine + Carbamoyal


me

Highest clearance - PAH phosphate


Fu

(4) (1)
Lowest clearance - Glucose Argino
Citrulline
succinate
Renal calculus - Oxalates
Diuresis clearance - Alcohol Aspartate
(3)
29. Answer (3)
3 ATP are required for synthesis of urea in urea 38. Answer (4)
cycle. All are ketone bodies
O
30. Answer (2)
C
z Diabetes mellitus, when glucose is not utilized CH3 CH3
by cells so there is in blood sugar.
Acetone
z Body uses fat to create energy so more ketone
OH O
bodies are released due to burning of fat.
z Presence of ketones bodies in urine represents H3C OH
ketonuria. -hydrobutyric acid
31. Answer (3) O O
Arginase is required at last step of ornithine cycle
HO CH3
when Arginine is hydrolysed into ornithine and
urea. Acetoacetic acid

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49. Answer (2)
SECTION - B
z  in blood volume due to absorption of Na+
Assertion - Reason Type Questions (influence of aldosterone) and water (influence
39. Answer (1) of ADH), atria of heart releases ANF to switch
off RAAs to maintain constant osmolarity of
Down the descending limb of loop of Henle solute blood and GFR.
concentration increases [i.e. from 300  400 
600 800 .... 1200] as water is absorbed and z Immunosuppressants can be given to inhibit
this segment is almost impermeable for exaggerated responses of immune system
electrolytes. towards body’s own cells.
40. Answer (3) 50. Answer (4)
Uric acid is insoluble in water. z Maximum urea in hepatic vein.
41. Answer (2) Minimum urea in renal vein.
All metanephric kidney [in Amniotes] have loop of z Urea is synthesized in liver.
Henle i.e. short in cortical but long in juxta- 51. Answer (1)
medullary nephrons.
z Organisms that can tolerate a wide range of
42. Answer (3) salinity are called euryhaline.
z Angiotensin II acts as a vasoconstrictor. z Organisms that live in a narrow range are
z Aldosterone stimulates absorption of Na+ in called stenohaline.
PCT and DCT. To further increase blood volume 52. Answer (2)
or GFR.
z Glomerulonephritis can be an autoimmune
z This is stimulated by a fall in RBF/GFR. condition also i.e. when antibodies attack
43. Answer (2) kidney.
Ammonia i.e. produced by deamination process in z Immunosuppressants can be given to inhibit
exaggerated responses of immune system
liver [Amino acid 
Dcamination
 glucose] is highly towards body’s own cells.
toxic and needs large amount of water for its
removal. 53. Answer (4)

44. Answer (4) z ADH acts on DCT and collecting duct for
reabsorption of water.
z Loop of Henle is short and vasa recta is
reduced or absent in cortical nephrons. z Alcohol is an inhibitor of ADH.

z Counter current arrangement helps in 54. Answer (2)


osmoregulation. Urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium
45. Answer (4) i.e. urothelium that helps in stretching of bladder.

z Sodium uptake by PCT is obligatory through 55. Answer (4)


primary active transport. z Urine that leaves the papillary ducts enters the
z It is independent of ADH. renal pelvis.

46. Answer (3) z Papillary ducts are ducts of medullary pyramids


(from rear portion of pyramid i.e. papilla)
Inulin acts as a glomerular marker.
56. Answer (2)
47. Answer (4)
Parathyroid hormone increases Ca2+ absorption but
Macula densa are specialized cells that are decreases phosphate reabsorption from PCT.
sensitive to Na + concn. and help to regulate
osmolarity by switching on RAAs. 57. Answer (4)

48. Answer (3) z Rennin is secreted by peptic cells of stomach.

ACE is responsible to convert angiotensin I to 58. Answer (3)


angiotensin ll. Sodium is absorbed by primary active transport.

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Chapter 10

Locomotion and Movement

Hints and Solutions

7. Answer (3)
SECTION - A
Calsequestrin protein holds Ca2+ in sarcoplasmic
Objective Type Questions reticulum in resting muscle.
1. Answer (4) 8. Answer (4)
Knee and elbow joint are examples of hinge joint All or None principle :
as they allow movement only in one plane.
(i) A threshold stimulus causes an excitable cell
2. Answer (2) (nervel muscle) to contract maximally.
In given diagram,
(ii) Below threshold value no contraction.
A is fascicle
Above threshold value  maximum
B is myofibril contraction.
3. Answer (3) 9. Answer (1)
Myosin itself acts as an ATPase enzyme to
H-zone
hydrolyse ATP to create energy i.e. required for
I-band
formation of cross-bridge.
4. Answer (3) A-band

Mg2+ are required for polymerisation of globular Z-line


actin into fibrous/filamentous actin. max. contraction
5. Answer (3)
In smooth muscles, troponin is absent unlike
skeletal muscles so, here
Calmodulin is Ca2+ binding protein.
 A-band remains constant.
6. Answer (2)
Sarcomere is functional unit of contraction in  Length of sarcomere reduces to half.
muscle.  H-zone disappearance.
I-band A-band  Length of myofilaments remains constant.
10. Answer (4)
Z-line Troponin has 3 subunits :
TpT Binds to tropomyosin.
H-zone
TpC Binds to Ca2+
Sarcomere TpI Masking of Myosin Binding Site on actin.

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11. Answer (1) 18. Answer (3)
Cellular membranes become leaky Autoantibodies attack Ach receptors on muscle
cells
after death


Ca2+ leak out of SR into sarcoplasm and allow Weakening of muscle due to non-binding of Ach
myosin heads to bind to actin 
 Injection of Ach E inhibitor
ATP synthesis Chases shortly after breathing 
stops.
Ach start binding to receptor

(at least some)
Cross-bridges can’t detach


Contraction.
Muscles are in state of rigidity (Rigor mortis)
19. Answer (2)
12. Answer (2)
Low Ca2+ in body fluid [due to deficiency of PTH]
 Sarcoplasmic reticulum is not high.

13. Answer (3)
More Ca2+ available for binding to troponin
Intercalated disc are a feature of cardiac muscles;
acts as booster of contraction as provided with gap 
junction
Contraction without stimulus
14. Answer (1)

Abdominal wall  Cylindrical, unbranched,
Tetany.
multinucleated muscle.
tion

Heart  involuntary striped muscle.


ris a

Biceps  Skeletal muscle.


p ola

15. Answer (3)


De

No repolarisation
One myosin filament in a myofibril is surrounded
by 6 actin filaments. One action filament in a Latent period
myofibrl is surrounded by 3 myosin filaments.
20. Answer (2)
16. Answer (1)
Phosphocreatine helps in resynthesis of ATP in
An explained in Q.9 muscle.
17. Answer (1) 21. Answer (4)
Muscle The only movable bone in skull is mandible (Lower
glycogen
jaw)
Blood
Muscle glucose 22. Answer (3)
lactic acid
Patella is a sesamoid bone that originates by
Corl's ossification of tendon
cycle
23. Answer (3)
Blood Hyoid is the only bone that does not attach to any
lactic acid other bone directly.
Liver 24. Answer (2)
lactic acid
Glenoid cavity is present in scapula to which
20% oxidised humerous gets attached to form ball and socket
to CO 2 + H2O joint.

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25. Answer (2)
Superior Border
In embryonic stages C7T12L5S5Co4 Clavicle
Supra-
(Vertebral formula) spinous Acromion process
Fossa Coracoid Process
In adult stages C7T12L5S(5)Co(4)
Glenoid Cavity
5 sacral vertebrae fused to form a synsacrum
Spine
4 coccygeal vertebrae fused to form a coccyx. Body of Scapula

26. Answer (2)


Face - 14 Fig. : Pectoral girdle (Posterior View)
Cranium - 8
Vertebral column - 26 33. Answer (3)

Wrist - 8 Pituitary gland is located in sell turcica cavity of


sphenoid bone.
27. Answer (2)
34. Answer (2)
Vertebral formula of adult is C7T12L5S(5)Co(4)
In osteoporosis, bones become fragile due to loss
28. Answer (3) of Ca2+ that is responsible to provide strength.
[60-70% of bone matrix is comprised of inorganic
Clavicle collar bone and glenoid cavity pectoral
matter.]
girdle
29. Answer (1) SECTION - B
Ileum is highly coiled, vascular part of small Assertion - Reason Type Questions
intestine.
35. Answer (2)
30. Answer (1)
As explained in Q.9
Acromian process is a character of pectoral girdle
of mammals. 36. Answer (2)
31. Answer (1) As explained in Q.19
Collarbone - 1 pair 37. Answer (2)
Salivary gland - 3 pairs Axis vertebra joined to atlas [pivot joint] helps in
‘NO’ nodding of neck.
Cranial nerve - 12 pairs
38. Answer (4)
32. Answer (4)
All muscles don’t follow ‘All or None’ law because
Coracoid process is a component of scapula in some muscles strength of contraction increases
with addition of new stimulus. (Muscle treppe)
Coracoid 39. Answer (1)
Process Acromion
Process Arthritis  Inflammation of joints due to many
reasons :
Glenoid
Spine of the (i) Autoimmune responses by I gM Ab
Cavity
Scapula
(Rheumatoid)
Lateral
border (ii) Due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
Medial
Border (gouty) due to calcification of articular cartilage
[osteoarthritis]
Inferior
Angle (iii) Inflammation results in pain, swelling and
Fig. : Components of Scapula inability to move.

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40. Answer (3) 43. Answer (2)
Bones are held together by white collagen fibres in Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that
fibrous joints/fixed joints
occurs due to deficiency of dystrophin protein [i.e.
41. Answer (2) encoded by dystrophin gene.] Which helps in
Ribs are called bicephalic because they have two repairing of wear and tear of sarcolemma.
articulating surfaces on their dorsal end.
44. Answer (3)
42. Answer (2)
Visceral/smooth muscles are unstriated, involuntary Fatigue can be due to lack of oxygen or
muscles. accumulation of lactic acid.

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Chapter 11

Neural Control and Coordination

Hints and Solutions

8. Answer (3)
SECTION - A
GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter while
Objective Type Questions adrenaline, Ach and Glutamate are excitatory
1. Answer (1) neurotransmitters
9. Answer (2)
Rhodopsin
Hypothalamus along limbic system is c/a
In photopigment, Opsin + Retinal are present. Emotional Brain.
Protein Aldehyde of Vitamin A 10. Answer (3)
Cerebellum is a part of Hind Brain.
2. Answer (3)
11. Answer (4)
Knee jerk reflex is a spinal reflex
Foramen of monro / interventricular foramen is
3. Answer (3) present between lateral ventricles & 3rd ventricles.
Nissl’s granules [RER + RNA] are present only in Lateral Ventricle
cyton & dendrites.
Interventricular Cerebrum
4. Answer (3) Foramen
Third Ventricle Diencephalon
Piamater  Arachnoidmater  Duramater
Cerebral Aqueduct Midbrain
5. Answer (2) Fourth Ventricle Pons
Cerebellum
Polarity at site A when get reversed at generation Medulla Oblongata
of action potential is called as depolarisaction. Central Canal Spinal Cord

When membrane regains its resting potential, again Fig. : Schematic representation of the Ventricles
charging polarity is called repolarisation of Human brain

6. Answer (3) 12. Answer (3)

Function controlled by cerebrum : Facial (vii) is a mixed cranial nerve which supply to
Thinking, learning muscles of the face.

Creativity, writing 13. Answer (2)

Speech, hunger and Cornea  Aqueous humor  Lens 


Photoreceptor cells  Bipolar cells 
Pain analysis, satiety, Ganglionic cells  Optic nerve  Visual
memory. cortex.
7. Answer (1) 14. Answer (4)
Depolarization  Na+ influx occurs rapidly Ocular movement will be affected by oculomotor
Repolarization  K+ efflux occurs rapidly nerve or abducens or trochlear nerve.

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15. Answer (1) 26. Answer (4)


Intelligence and creativity are controlled by frontal Wernicke’s area is located in temporal lobe on the
lobe. left side of brain and is responsible for
16. Answer (3) comprehension of speech while Broca’s area is
related to production of speech.
Arbor vitae : [Tree like branching of white matter in
gray matters] is a character of cerebellum. 27. Answer (1)
17. Answer (4) Maximum refraction of light occurs at cornea.
Alcohol is a cerebellum depressant. 28. Answer (1)
18. Answer (2) Trochlear is smallest cranial nerve.
Perikaryon/cyton and dendrites (branched Vagus has 5 branches : Superior laryngeal
processes) are characters of neuron.
Recurrent
Dendrites act as receivers and pass on the signal
Cardiac
to cyton that is comprised of nucleus, cytoplasm
and cell organelles Pneumogastric
Axon acts as transmitter, they can be myelinated Depressor
or non-myelinated. 29. Answer (2)
19. Answer (4) Many branches at the end of Axon is c/a
Dorsal root of spinal cord is sensory in nature so Telodendria.
if it gets injured no impulse will be transmitted from
Corpora quadrigemina are four colliculi located on
receptors to CNS.
dorsal aspect of midbrain.
20. Answer (1)
Crura cerebri are symmetrical tract of nerve fibres
Hind Brain : Cerebellum + Pons varolii + Medulla at the base of the midbrain, linking the pons and
oblongata cerebral hemispheres.
21. Answer (3) 30. Answer (2)
There is no blood supply is cornea so no cell- Sound waves get amplified 22 times [2.2 × 10] at
mediated response/Graft rejection comes from oval window before they enter into internal ear.
T-lymphocytes
31. Answer (1)
22. Answer (1)
Eustachian tube equalizes pressure on both sides
Vestibular apporatus is responsible for balance of
of ear drum. If it is blocked, then at high altitude
the body.
these is pain due to less pressure outside the ear
Organ of Corti in cochlea of internal ear is located drum.
above Basilar membrane
32. Answer (4)
23. Answer (3)
 in refraction when light rays are scattered, while
Epinephrine is secreted as a hormone by adrenal less refraction is required to focus light rays when
medulla and as a neurotransmitter by brain. they are parallel.
Cortisol and thyrocalcitonin are hormones secreted 33. Answer (2)
by adrenal cortex and thyroid gland respectively.
Astrocytes maintain blood-brain barrier [by tight
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter.
junction]
24. Answer (2)
34. Answer (2)
Nerve gas/nerve agents affect neuromuscular
Schwann cells form myelin sheath in PNS and
junction by inhibiting Ach E. non-competitively.
Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath in CNS.
25. Answer (4)
35. Answer (4)
Spinal cord has inner H-shaped grey matter and
outer white mater unlike brain which has outer gray Hippocampus in limbic system converts short term
matter cortex and white matter (medulla) memory into long term.

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43. Answer (2)
SECTION - B
Tympanic membrane ear drum transmits sound
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
vibrations to internal ear via ear ossicles
36. Answer (2) (M  I  S) foundin middle ear.
Cerebrum is largest part of brain i.e. divided into 44. Answer (4)
two cerebral hemispheres. Multipolar neurons have one Axon and many
Cerebellum is 2ndlargest part of brain and has dendrites. Multipolar neurons are found in adults in
highly convoluted surface. brain and spinal cord and apolar neuron’s in
37. Answer (2) embyo.
Neurons remain in G. phase and do not divide. 45. Answer (1)
They show Auxetic growth i.e. increase in cell size
Excitatory means to have ability to respond against
not in cell number.
a stimulus i.e. due to the potential difference
38. Answer (1) across the membrane mentained by Na+ – K +
In myelinated nerve fibres, impulse jumps from one pump.
node to another [Saltatory conduction] while in
46. Answer (3)
non-myelinated nerve fibres impulse travels from
one point to another. Convoluted surface is to increase the surface area.
39. Answer (2) 47. Answer (2)
Association area is present between sensory and Dorsal / posterior root  Sensory in nature
motor neurons and relay impulses between them.
Ventral / Anterior root  Motor in nature
Response is generated on the basis of previous
memory & experiences. 48. Answer (1)
40. Answer (3) Glaucoma can result into blindness due to
Organ of Corti helps in hearing while vestibular  intraocular pressure that can damage the optic
apparatus helps to maintain equilibrium. nerve.
41. Answer (1) 49. Answer (1)
Conditioned reflexes are acquired after birth unlike
Alzheimer's disease is caused dme to
unconditioned reflexes
degeneration of cholinergic neuron. It is
42. Answer (3) characterised by less of memory also known as
Maximum refraction of light occurs at cornea. dementia.

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Chapter 12

Chemical Coordination and Integration

Hints and Solutions

Grave’s disease / Hyperthyroidism


SECTION - A

Objective Type Questions
Autoimmune disease where antibodies start to mimic
1. Answer (3) TSH.
Adrenaline is an emergency hormone. Simmond’s disease
2. Answer (2) 
Thyroid hormones contain iodine and are responsible Hypopituitarism ( GH) – Premature ageing.
for physical and mental growth of child. 6. Answer (1)
3. Answer (2)
Thyroid hormone is mandatory for tissue
Vasopressin/ ADH is responsible for stimulating differentiation in metamorphosis.
absorption of water from DCT and collecting duct.
7. Answer (3)

Thymus gland regress with Age and thus decreases
Low levels of ADH allow much water to pass out in the immunity of the body.
urine without absorption in renal tubule.
8. Answer (3)
4. Answer (2)
Thymosin secreted by thymus is required for
Anterior pituitary secretes Growth hormone i.e.
maturation of T-lymphocytes (cell mediated
responsible for physical growth.
immunity)
5. Answer (4)
9. Answer (4)
Hashimoto’s disease
Melatonin, a pineal gland hormone is responsible
 for maintaining circadian rhythm/diurnal cycle.
Autoimmune disorder where anti thyroid antibodies 10. Answer (2)
attack thyroid cells
CAMP serves as a second messenger speeding up
(Have a glycoprotein muscle cell contraction in response to adrenaline in
called as thyroglobulin
heart cells.
and antibodies against it
will start destroying 11. Answer (3)
destroying thyroid gland Insulin receptors are tetrameric protein having
gradually) 2 and 2 subunits.

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12. Answer (4) 21. Answer (4)
Hormones are non-nutritive intercellular messengers Hormones are chemically steroids (Testosterone)
that are produced in trace amounts. Or
13. Answer (1) Proteins (Insulin)
Neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) does not Or
secrete any hormone. It only stores and releases
Biogenic amines (Melatonin)
hormones [ADH × Oxytocin] secreted by
22. Answer (3)
hypothalamus.
Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones,
14. Answer (1)
lipophilic and thus bind to cytoplasmic receptors.
Thyroid gland is the only gland that stores its
23. Answer (3)
secretion.
CRH decides timing of birth.
15. Answer (2)
Glucocorticoid/Cortisol mainly help in secretion of
T3/T4 (Iodothyronines) surfactant in lungs
Are derivatives of tyrosine 24. Answer (4)
Transported through blood
Exhibit calorigenic effect i.e. Heat production Relaxin, also known as uterine releasing factor is
responsible for relaxation of uterus and pubic
16.Answer (1)
symphysis at the time of parturition.
Calcitionin’/TCT is hypocalcemic hormone.
25. Answer (1)
It decreases blood calcium level by mobilizing it into
LH [Luetinizing hormone] is responsible for
bones.
development of corpus luteum from empty graafian
Collip’s hormone/PTH is hypercalcemic hormone. follicle and then ovulation by rupturing Graafian
17. Answer (4) follicle.
Decrease in PTH 26. Answer (1)
 Inhibin acts on pituitary to suppress FSH.
Hypocalcemia Enterokinase is an enzyme required for activation of
chtmo.

ANF secreted by myocytes of wall of Atria.
Delay in blood clotting as Ca2+ is an important factor
in clotting. 27. Answer (3)

18. Answer (1) Estrogen, estradiol, progesterone are secreted by


ovary.
Virilism
Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary.
Appearance of male secondary sexual characters
[like excessive hair growth, deepening of voice, breast Parathormone is secreted by parathyroid gland.
Atrophy, increase sexual desire etc.] In females due 28. Answer (4)
to increase in sex corticoid. Sodium does not act as a second messenger in
19. Answer (4) hormone action.
Glucocorticoid 29. Answer (1)
Anti-inflammatory Lipid soluble hormones transmit their information by
Decrease WBC count, increase RBC count
Stimulate proteolysis entering into cell and regulates gene expression.
20. Answer (4) They don’t need any second messenger.
Mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone) 30. Answer (2)
+
Stimulate elimination of K Estrogen is a steroid hormone that can cross cell
+
Stimulate absorption of Na and water. membrane, so does not bind to membrane bound
(maintain body fluid volume). receptors.

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31. Answer (2) 42. Answer (3)
Proteinaceous hormones are not lipophilic, so bind Hypothalamus is connected to Anterior pituitary only
to the receptors on plasma membrane of target cell.
via hypophyseal portal circulation.
32. Answer (4)
43. Answer (4)
Regulatory hormones are secreted into hypophyseal
portal system through median eminence. Failure of secretion of vasopressin leads to diabetes
33. Answer (3) insipidus in patient i.e. Loss of excess water in urine.
Glucagon is hyperglycemic hormone that promotes Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of insulin.
glycogenolysis in hepatocytes. 44. Answer (1)
34. Answer (1)
Castration leads to decrease in testosterone that
Erythropoietin promotes R.B.C production and is
will cause high pitch voice as the vocal cords don’t
secreted by JG cells of kidney.
get mature in absence of androgen to enlarge in
35. Answer (3)
length.
Alloxan is a toxic glucose analogue, which
selectively destroys insulin-producing cells in the 45. Answer (3)
pancreas. Adrenaline uses the cAMP as secondary
36. Answer (1) messenger so its concentration is increased.
Juvenile diabetes mellitus is due to no secretion of 46. Answer (1)
insulin as -cells have been destroyed or lost.
ANF acts as a vasodilator and thus helps in
decreasing blood pressure.
SECTION - B
47. Answer (1)
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
Failure of secretion of testosterone lead to failure of
37. Answer (3) development of secondary sex organs and secondary
Insulin can’t be given orally as it is a protein and will sexual characters.
get digested by gastric enzymes.
48. Answer (2)
38. Answer (1)
Pitocin/oxytocin is secreted by hypothalamus and
Decrease in secretion of Glucocorticoids and
causes contractions of smooth muscles of uterus
mineralocorticoids will results into Addison’s disease.
to facilitate birth.
[Anemia, Anorexia, Low B.P, Low BHR etc]
39. Answer (3) 49. Answer (1)

Increase in estrogen may be due to tumour of adrenal Hormone - receptor complex causes alternation in
gland or Genetic disorder (Klinefilter syndrome) can gene expression by initiating transcription of desired
be a reason for Gynaecomastia. (Breast development genes.
in ). 50. Answer (2)
40. Answer (3) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone (mainly) and
Cortisol stimulates proteolysis and lipolysis. Estrogen to maintain pregnancy after ovulation.
41. Answer (3) 51. Answer (2)
Thyrocalcitonin is hypocalcaemia hormone that
Relaxin dilates uterus and public symphysis to
decreases blood calcium level by moving it into
facilitate birth.
bones.

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Chapter 13

Reproduction in Organisms

Hints and Solutions

8. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
z Gemmulation occurs in Spongilla but not in
Objective Type Questions Hydra.

1. Answer (2) z Gemmule is an internal bud.


z Mode of asexual reproduction.
Life span is the period from birth to the natural
death of an organism. 9. Answer (3)

2. Answer (1) Sexual reproduction is mostly biparental


slow mode of reproduction
Single-celled organisms undergo binary fission &
New variations due to
get split into 2 daughter cells so they have no
crossing over
natural death.
Participate in evolution
3. Answer (4) High Adaptability
Reproduction is a means of self-perpetuation of a 10. Answer (3)
race by which an organism produces young ones
End of Juvenile phase marks the beginning of
like itself.
reproductive phase.
4. Answer (2)
11. Answer (3)
It is always uniparental [unisexual or bisexual]. z Oestrous cycle is present in non-primate
5. Answer (1) mammalian Females.

Clones are genetically & morphologically identical z Menstrual cycle is present in primate
to their parent as they are formed by mitotic mammalian females.
division; there is no crossing over & thus no mixing 12. Answer (2)
of genes. Menstrual cycle occurs in primate females i.e.
6. Answer (2) monkeys, apes & humans.

Vorticella  Longitudinal binary fission. 13. Answer (1)


z Continous breeders are reproductively active
7. Answer (4)
throughout their reproductive phase
Hydra & Sycon both possess budding z Seasonal breeders reproduce in their specific
  seasons known as breeding season.
14. Answer (3)
External External
Senescence is terminal irreversible change of
budding & internal ageing that is determined by the end of
budding reproductive phase.

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15. Answer (3) 27. Answer (1)
z Gametogenesis that is formation of Gametes & Organisms exhibiting external fertilization release a
Gamete transfer are pre-fertilization events. large number of gametes as there are chances of
z Formation of zygote & Embryogenesis are destruction of gametes due to harsh environmental
post-fertilization events. conditions.
16. Answer (2) 28. Answer (2)
Male gametes are produced in much larger number
Gametes are transferred into female body with the
in comparison to female gametes to enhance
help of copulatory organ during internal fertilization.
chances of fertilization.
17. Answer (4) 29. Answer (2)
Male gamete is motile & small while female Spermatogenesis & oogenesis
Pre-fertilisation
gamete is non-motile/stationary in majority of Gamete transfer event
organisms including humans.
18. Answer (4) Embryogenesis  Post-fertilisation event

Gametes that are morphologically similar are 30. Answer (3)


known as Isogametes/Homogametes.
Cell division [i.e. increase in number of cells by
19. Answer (3) mitosis] & cell differentiation [i.e. specialisation of
Morphologically distinct gametes are known as cells to form tissues & organs] are two key features
Heterogametes. of embryogenesis.
20. Answer (2) 31. Answer (3)
Earthworm is bisexual & having protandrous Cell division [i.e. increase in number of cells by
condition. mitosis] & cell differentiation [i.e. specialisation of
21. Answer (1) cells to form tissues & organs] are two key features
Earthworm, leech, tape worm, sponge are bisexual of embryogenesis.
while cockroach & Ascaris are unisexual. 32. Answer (3)
22. Answer (3)
z Fishes, amphibians & humans have non-
Male Honey bees  Haploid, produce gametes cledoic eggs.
[Drone] by mitosis.
z Reptiles & birds & oviparous mammals have
Female Honeybee  Diploid, produce gametes cleidoic/shelled eggs.
[Queen] by meiosis.
33. Answer (2)
Male is produced by Arrhenotoky while female is
produced by fertilized egg. Viviparous organisms that give birth to young ones
have more chances to survival of their offsprings as
23. Answer (2)
the development occurs inside the female body.
Meiocytes undergo meiotic divisions to form haploid
Gametes. 34. Answer (1)
24. Answer (4) Only in sexual reproduction gametic fusion occurs
z Bony fishes & frogs possess external to form zygote.
syngamy. 35. Answer (4)
z Cartilaginous fishes possess internal syngamy.
z The process of reproduction & associated
25. Answer (3) behavioural expressions in organisms are
Zygote is a vital link between two generations; regulated by hormones & environment both.
Zygote has 2 half sets (paternal + maternal) of z Hormones regulate development of sex organs,
chromosomes.
sexual characters, gamete formation & urge for
26. Answer (2) sexual coitus known as libido.
Typhlina  Thelytoky z Environment (Hygienic conditions, stress etc.)
Honey bee  Arrhenotoky regulate the physical & psychological fitness of
Aphide  Amphitoky organisms.

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z Formation of zygote & embryogenesis are
SECTION - B
post-fertilization events.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
z Cell division [i.e. increase in number of cells by
36. Answer (2) mitosis] & cell differentiation [i.e. specialisation
Single celled organisms get split into daughter cells of cells to form tissues & organs] are two key
so there is no natural death. features of embryogenesis.
37. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)
Individuals resulting from Asexual reproduction don’t A haploid parent (with n number of chromosomes)
exhibit any variation as there is no crossing over.
form gametes by mitosis. For example, Drone.
They are formed by mitotic divisions only.
38. Answer (3) 46. Answer (1)

On germination, each gemmule (internal bud) gives Fertilization occurs only when mature gametes
rise to single offspring. come together at the site of fertilization.
39. Answer (1) 47. Answer (3)
Sexual reproduction provides genetic variability to
an offspring due to meiotic divisions & so enhance half set of chromosomes
ability of adaptability. After meiosis, is present
40. Answer (2) (n)
The period of growth is called juvenile phase that in each gamete & diploidy is restored by fusion of
is characterized by increase in size & the end of
gametes.
Juvenile phase marks the beginning of reproductive
phase i.e. characterised by development of sex 48. Answer (4)
organs, gametogenesis and gamete transfer.
Meiocytes are diploid cells that undergo meiosis to
41. Answer (4) form Haploid gametes.
z Cyclical changes in primate females are called
49. Answer (2)
menstruation.
z Parthenogenesis [virgin birth] is development of
z Cyclical changes in non-primate females are
called Oestrous cycle. new organisms from female gamete without
fertilization/fusion.
42. Answer (1)
z Exhibited by non-vertebrates & vertebrates.
Menstrual cycle is defined as the cyclic changes
occurring in primate female’s reproductive system 50. Answer (3)
under the influence of hormones.
Embryonal protection & care is better in viviparous
43. Answer (4) organisms as development occurs inside the
Organisms that are reproductively active throughout female body so there are less chances of rejection
their, reproductive phase are called continous by harsh environments & predators.
breeders while those which are active at a
particular season are called seasonal breeders. 51. Answer (2)
44. Answer (2) Hormonal, genetic & environmental factors play an
z Gametogenesis i.e. formation of Gametes & important role in the changes during the life cycle
Gamete transfer are pre-fertilization events. of an organism.

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Chapter 14

Human Reproduction

Hints and Solutions


7. Answer (2)
SECTION - A
Secondary oocyte gets triggered by the entry of
Objective Type Questions sperm (inhibition of MPF and activation of APC) to
1. Answer (2) complete meiosis-II and form ovum for fusion of nuclei
of both gametes.
Cremaster and dartos muscles of scrotum help in
positioning to testes according to environmental 8. Answer (4)
temperature by alternate relaxation and contraction.
Total no. of days in menstrual cycle = 35
2. Answer (4)
No. of days in luteal phase = 14 [fixed]
All the given functions belong to sustentacular/sertoli
cells. Day of ovulation i.e. just before the day of starting of
luteal phase = 35-14 = 21st day
3. Answer (2)
9. Answer (2)
Bulbourethral/cowper’s gland secretion is rich in
mucus and alkaline secretion that helps in Sudden decline in progesterone is the immediate
lubrication. cause of menstruation as progesterone is required
for maintaining uterine endometrium.
4. Answer (2)
10. Answer (3)
Tertiary/Antral follicle consists of
z 1° oocyte that completes meiosis-1 here and Degeneration of corpus luteum caused by low levels
will form 2° oocyte. of LH results in menstruation.

z Antrum i.e. filled with antral fluid/liquor folliculi. Low levels of LH

z Theca layer differentiated into theca externa and 


theca interna Degeneration of corpus luteum
5. Answer (1) 
z Clitoris is homologous to penis. Decline in progesterone
z Bartholin’s gland are homologous to 
bulbourethral glands. Shedding off of uterine endometrium
z Labia minora is homologous to penile urethra. 
6. Answer (3) Menstruation
At least 60% sperms per ejaculate (200–300 million 11. Answer (4)
sperms in 2.5-5 ml of semen) must have normal
shape and size and out of it at least 40% must have Hyaluronidase – Dissolves hyaluronic acid that is
vigorous motility for a male to be fertile normally. responsible for cementing of follicle cells.

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CPE – Dissolves corona radiata 15. Answer (4)

Acrosin – Dissolves zona pellucida z When offsprings are formed by splitting of one
zygote into two are called monozygotic or
12. Answer (4)
identical twins
Sperm penetrates oolemma and acts as a stimulus.
z If 2 sperms fertilize 2 different ova then offsprings
 are called non-identical/dizygotic/Fraternal
twins.
Depolarisation of oolemma by opening of Na+
channels. 16. Answer (1)

 Trophoblast consists of 2 layers

Fast block to polyspermy z Cytotrophoblast and Syncytiotrophoblast

 z It forms chorion, amnion and foetal part of


placenta.
Exocytosis of cortical granules [cortical reaction]
17. Answer (2)

z Decidua basalis-separates Blastocyst from
Blocking of receptors on zona pellucida for sperm myometrium.
[zona reaction]
z Decidua capsularis-outgrowth of endometrium
 that covers blastocyst
Cortical + zona reaction = slow block to polyspermy z Decidua peritalis-lines entire pregnant uterus
13. Answer (1) except for the area where placenta is forming.
18. Answer (1)
Holoblastic cleavage.
Epiblast is the only source of all germ layers.
z When division line passes through the entire
egg dividing it completely, but when it remains 19. Answer (4)
confined to a part of egg it is called as meroblastic Dilation of birth canal to facilitate parturition is done
cleavage. by relaxin.
z Occurs in alecithal and microlecithal eggs and 20. Answer (4)
mesolecithal eggs. Spina bifida is a birth defect in which a developing
baby’s spinal cord fails to develop properly.
A
21. Answer (1)
z Epitheliochorial [b/w epithelium of uterus and
chorion of foetus] has all 6 barriers.
z Syndesmochorial – 5 barriers
V
Equal Holoblastic Unequal Holoblastic z Endotheliochorial –4 barriers
(like Humans) (in Fishes and Amphibians) z Haemochorial – 3 barriers
22. Answer (3)
14. Answer (2)
Capacitation is physiological maturation of sperms
in female genitalia and involves following steps:
Trophoblast .
Cells of ICM – Differentiates z Dilution of decapacitation factors
Rauber further into z Entry of Ca2+ into sperms for rapid whiplashing
Epiblast and
Hypoblast movements
Blastocoel z Removal of membrane cholesterol.

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23. Answer (1)


SECTION - B
Ca2+ is responsible for whiplasing movements of
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
sperms.
24. Answer (1) 30. Answer (3)

Pathway for sperms: Testosterone that regulates spermatogenesis is


secreted by leydig/interstitial cells.
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens  31. Answer (2)
Ejaculatory duct  Penile urethra.
As explained in Q12.
25. Answer (2)
32. Answer (2)
Steps for fertilization:
Trophoblast divides periclinally to form
Acrosomal reaction
cytotrophoblast

Sperm entry

Fast block to polyspermy & syncytiotrophoblast that further form amnion and
 chorion.

Slow block to polyspermy 33. Answer (2)


 ICM/embryoblast further differentiates to form upper
Completion of meiosis-II by 2° oocyte Epiblast (columnar cells) and lower hypoblast
(cuboidal cells) to form embryonic disc.

Amphimixis
26. Answer (4) Trophoblast
Epiblast
.

ICM
Castration: Removal of gonads
Hypoblast
Inguinal Hernia: Protrusion of abdominal tissue into Blastocoel
(Adipose tissue of intestine mainly) inguinal canal.
Embryonic disc
Hypospadias: A condition is which penile opening
is on the underside rather than the tip. 34. Answer (1)
27. Answer (4)
Foetus is most susceptible to teratogens like
Proximal centriole – First cleavage of Zygote thalidomide during first trimester so the effect is
Distal centriole – Axial filament of tail maximum.
Middle piece – Energy for sperm movement 35. Answer (2)
Tail – swimming movement.
Foetus (chorion) is attached to uterus (Blood) of
28. Answer (2) mother of placenta (Haemochorial placenta)
z Sertoli cells secrete AMF, ABP and inhibin.
Chorion is foetal part and Decidua is maternal part
z Adenohypophysis secrete Gonadotrophins i.e. of placenta that gets shed off at parturition and so
FSH and LH.
Human placenta is called. Deciduos placenta
29. Answer (2)
36. Answer (2)
z Rate of sperm movement in female genital tract
is 1.5 – 3 mm/minute. Foetal ejection reflex is the signal from full developed
foetus and placenta that induce mild uterine
z  in motility results in Asthenozoospermia can
lead to infertility. contraction and regulated by neural and hormonal
signals.
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37. Answer (3) 43. Answer (3)
Expansion of infant lungs occurs just before birth At puberty, 60-80,000 follicles are left in each ovary.
and pulmonary breathing starts i.e., stage of [number reduces due to Follicular atresia].
expulsion.
44. Answer (1)
38. Answer (1)
Hyperprolactinemia
LH reaches its peak in the middle of cycle i.e., 14th
day normally [LH surge] due to the positive feedback 
by estrogen  Rupturing of Graafian follicle  Negative feedback to hypothalamus for GnRH
Ovulation. secrection
39. Answer (3) 
+
Opening of Na channels cause depolarisation of  secretion of LH from adenohypophysis
oolemma that makes it impermeable to respond to
a new stimulates (sperm). This is called fast block 
to polyspermy. no ovulation.
40. Answer (1)
45. Answer (1)
Holoblastic cleavage.
The rate of cleavage is inversely proportional to
z When division line passes through the entire amount of yolk (Balfour’s Law).
egg dividing it completely, but when it remains
46. Answer (3)
confined to a part of egg it is called as meroblastic
cleavage. In deuterostomes, cleavage is indeterminate, so any
z Occurs in alecithal and microlecithal eggs and other cell can take over the function of a lost/
mesolecithal eggs. damaged blastomere unlike protostomes where the
fate of blastomeres is pre-decided.

A 47. Answer (4)

Allantois:

z Inner Endoderm + outer splanchnopleuric


V mesoderm
Equal Holoblastic Unequal Holoblastic z Short tube, does not participate in placenta
(like Humans) (in Fishes and Amphibians) formation in humans [Chorionic placenta].

41. Answer (2) 48. Answer (2)

Accessory glands in male reproductive system help Amniocentesis is used to diagnose genetic/
to provide nourishment, lubrication, alkalinity and chromosomal abnormality in foetus by taking out
immunity to sperms. amniotic fluid from uterus of pregnant mother.

42. Answer (2) 49. Answer (2)

z Milk secretion is triggered by prolaction that gets In cleavage, there is an increase in nucleo-
inhibited by estrogen during pregnancy. cytoplasmic ratio; nuclear content  but
cytoplasmic content  as there is little/no growth
z Milk ejection is triggered by oxytocin  milk
ejecting hormone. so the size of blastomeres decrease.

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Chapter 15

Reproductive Health

Hints and Solutions


6. Answer (1)
SECTION - A
Birth rate within a population is influenced by
Objective Type Questions
reproductive age between (15-44) age as they are
1. Answer (2) sexually mature and will contribute in adding new
Family planning in India was initiated in 1951. members to the population.
2. Answer (2)
7. Answer (4)
Amniocentesis is a technique used to determine
genetic abnormality in the embryo by injecting out a Spinnbarkeit Test
small amount of amniotic fluid which contains foetal Cervical mucus is slippery and can be drawn
tissues and then DNA is examined for genetic into a thread when stretched between two fingers.
abnormalities.
3. Answer (2) Positive spinnbarkeit test indicates the time of
Annual average growth rate of our population is 1.7 ovulation.
percent i.e. 17/100/year. ELISA Test – Used to detect HIV.
4. Answer (2)
SPIN Test
Natality is number of live births per 1000 individuals
per year. A psychological test measuring social anxiety
Mortality is number of deaths per 1000 individuals levels.
per year. TORCH Test
Total fertility rate is maximum ability to produce
For toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus
off springs.
and Herpes simplex virus.
Replacement level is number of children born per
woman at which a population exactly replaces 8. Answer (3)
it self from one generation to another, without
Hyper prolactinemia
migration.
5. Answer (2) 
Demographic transition Inhibition of GnRH

 in Gonadotropin

No ovulation and menstruation
[Lactational Amenorrhoea]
9. Answer (1)
Nonoxynol-9 is a spermicidal chemical that disrupts
the plasma membrane of sperm.

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10. Answer (2) 19. Answer (2)
Cu ions in CuT decrease sperm motility and fertilizing Tubectomy
capacity to avoid fertilization.
11. Answer (2) z Female sterilisation technique by blocking the
passage of ovum from fallopian tube by ligating
Multiload CuT 375 – Copper releasing
two cut ends of fallopian tube distantly.
LNG-20 – Hormone releasing
z Poor reversibility.
Lippe’s loop – Inert IUD
Progestasert – Progesterone IUD 20. Answer (3)

12. Answer (3) Tubectomy


Oral pills are to be taken from 5th day of menstrual z Female sterilisation technique by blocking the
cycle for next 21 days. Last 7 days are pill free passage of ovum from fallopian tube by ligating
days.
two cut ends of fallopian tube distantly.
13. Answer (4)
z Poor reversibility.
Oral pills are generally a combination of
progesterone and estrogen that inhibit ovulation as 21. Answer (3)
progesterone is anti-ovulatory hormone. Make
Polulation growth rate depends on :
uterine endometrium unsuitable for implantation.
14. Answer (1) Birth rate  New organisms added to a population.
Mala-D is a type of monophasic combined pill where Death rate  Organisms deleted from to a
the ratio of progesterone and estrogen remains population.
constant throughout the cycle, while in multiphasic
pills progesterone increase gradually. Both are calculated as number of organisms (Births/
Deaths) per 1000 individuals per year.
15. Answer (2)
Mini pills are progesterone only pills (POP). Migration  Organisms moving in or out of
population.
16. Answer (3)
Saheli Age/sex ratio  Number of organisms in pre- and
post- and reproductive age.
z Chemically a centchroman, developed by CDRI,
Lucknow. 22. Answer (4)
z For initial 3 months twice a week and then once
in a week
z High contraceptive value by inhibiting
implantation.
17. Answer (1)
Cyclofem and Mesigna are once in a month
injectable contraceptive.
Norethisterone enanthate is once in two months
injectable contraceptive. One monthly injections are
also there 23. Answer (3)
18. Answer (3) All given symptoms are related to chlamydia i.e.
z Norplant is surgically implanted under the skin. caused by bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

z Condom is a physical barrier used to cover penis 24. Answer (3)


or vagina.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae can enter into eyes of new
z CuT-7 is an IUD born while passing through birth canal and can
z Cyclofem is an injectable contraceptive cause blindness. 1% AgNO3 solution can be helpful
(progesterone + estrogen) in preventing the disease.

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25. Answer (2) 34. Answer (4)
Syphilis  By Treponema pallidum z Corpus luteum develops and matures under the
1° stage  painless, open sore, chancre at point of influence of LH before pregnancy.
contact.
z Required to secrete progesterone to thicken and
2° stage  Flu like illness (Fever, joint ache). maintain uterine endometrium to maintain
3° stage  Neurosyphilis pregnancy.
26. Answer (1) 35. Answer (2)
HSVI usually occurs on lips and not cause a STD
ICSI  Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection.
generally while HSV II causes genital herpes
characterized by painful genital blisters. Single sperm is placed in cytoplasm of egg
27. Answer (4) and then zygote embryo is transferred to
Widal test  For typhoid mother.

Dick test  For scarlet fever 36. Answer (4)


Tuberculin test  For tuberculosis z GIFT [Gamete intra fallopian transfer] is a
28. Answer (3) technique to transfer an ovum in fallopian tube of
HIV receptors recognize CD-4 marker so attack female and fertilization is in-vivo.
those cells of body that have CD-4 receptors like z Beneficial for those women who are not able to
TH cell, macrophages.
produce gamete but can provide suitable
29. Answer (3) environment for implantation.
z Azidothymidine is most common drug used for
37. Answer (2)
treatment of AIDS but if patient gets
hypersensitive drug, other drugs can also be An embryo with more than and blastomeres is always
used like DDI, DDC etc. transferred in uterus of mother.
z Drugs can give symptomatic relief but can’t kill
38. Answer (2)
or inactivate the virus.
30. Answer (4) AI will be done in case.
Trichomoniasis is a protozoan disease i.e. caused z Male has no sperm (Azoospermia)
by Trichomonas Vaginalis.
z Male has low sperm count (Oligospermia).
31. Answer (3)
39. Answer (4)
Metronidazole is generally used to treat
trichomoniasis. Gossypol is obtained from cotton and is a
32. Answer (3) testosterone inhibitor.
Primary infertility  A condition when patient has Bomykol is a sex attractant in silk worm (pheromone)
never conceived.
Atropine is anticholinergic or anti parasympathetic
Secondary infertility  When patient first drug.
conceived then failed.
33. Answer (3) Isopentenyl acetate is used in pharmacological
products.
Male infertility can be due to all given factors.
Low fructose content – Required for nourishment.
SECTION - B
High viscosity – Will decrease motility
Low volume of ejaculate (Hypospermia) Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Usually can lead to infertility when combined with 40. Answer (1)
oligospermia (Low sperm count).
Amniocentesis is done for pre-natal diagnosis of
High prostaglandin content
genetic abnormalities, but it is misused for sex
May be inhibition of testicular DNA synthesis. determination of foetus.

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41. Answer (3) 46. Answer (3)
Demographic transition explains zero growth rate of Depo-provera (progesterone based) inhibits ovulation
population. and implantation.
42. Answer (3) 47. Answer (3)
Hyper prolactinemia z Genital blisters are caused by HSV-II.

z HSV-I causes oral herpes.
Inhibition of GnRH
48. Answer (2)

 in Gonadotropin HIV recognizes CD-4 receptor/marker so enters
 through CD-4 mediated endocytosis and kill TH cells
resulting not opportunistic infections due to
No ovulation and menstruation
compromised immunity.
[Lactational Amenorrhoea]
49. Answer (1)
43. Answer (2)
GP 120 on surface of HIV interacts with CD-4
z IUDs are most accepted contraceptive devices
in India. receptor on target cell and then GP 41 gets fused
with cell memb. to allow genetic material to enter
z Act in different ways inside.
Inert IUDs  Enhance tubal motility and inhibit 50. Answer (1)
implantation.
z GIFT [Gamete intra fallopian transfer] is a
Cu-releasing IUDs  Suppress sperm motility and
technique to transfer an ovum in fallopian tube of
fertility.
female and fertilization is in-vivo.
Hormone releasing IUDs  Inhibit ovulation and
z Beneficial for those women who are not able to
implantation.
produce gamete but can provide suitable
44. Answer (2) environment for implantation.
Oral pills are generally a combination of progesterone 51. Answer (1)
and estrogen that inhibit ovulation as progesterone
is anti-ovulatory hormone. Make uterine endometrium ZIFT is zygote intra fallopian transfer that involves
unsuitable for implantation. transfer of embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) into fallopian
tube.
Mala-D is a type of monophasic combined pill where
the ratio of progesterone and estrogen remains 52. Answer (3)
constant throughout the cycle, while in multiphasic
pills progesterone increase gradually. Prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropins by
giving a negative feedback to hypothalamus.
45. Answer (2)
53. Answer (3)
Saheli
Mifepristone is anti-progestin drug and used along
z Chemically a centchroman, developed by CDRI,
with misoprosol to terminate pregnancy of less than
Lucknow.
10 weeks.
z For initial 3 months twice a week and then once
54. Answer (4)
in a week
z High contraceptive value by inhibiting Norplant is a subcutaneous implant of progesterone
implantation. that inhibits ovulation.

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Chapter 16

Evolution : Theories and Evidences

Hints and Solutions

z They developed the ability to synthesize


SECTION - A
organic molecules from inorganic raw
Objective Type Questions materials. Such a mode of nutrition is present
even now in some bacteria, like sulphur
1. Answer (4) bacteria, iron bacteria and nitrifying bacteria.
In primitive atmosphere, there was no free 7. Answer (1)
oxygen (reducing atmosphere), it was present in
combined form like H2O, CO2 etc. RNA can act as ribozyme, a special type of
enzyme (so it can perform the task of both DNA
2. Answer (4)
and enzyme), thus RNA is believed to have once
With the evolution of first photoautotrophs i.e. been capable of supporting independent life forms.
cyanobacteria, free oxygen started releasing in
8. Answer (3)
atmosphere that made the environment aerobic
gradually and formation of ozone also occured. ESR dating is used instead of Radio carbon dating
because ESR dating can date newly formed
3. Answer (3)
materials or previously heated rock.
In primitive atmosphere, there was no free
9. Answer (3)
oxygen (reducing atmosphere), it was present in
combined form like H2O, CO2 etc. Homologous Organs  They are similar in origin,
4. Answer (1) basic plan of structure but may be similar or
different in function.
Mixture of CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours
For Example: heart of vertebrates, forelimbs of
2:1:2 mammals etc.
Was taken in air tight apparatus by Miller in his 10. Answer (4)
experiment and passed electrical discharge from
electrodes (as an energy source) at 800°C. Analogous organs  They are similar in function.

5. Answer (1) For Example: Potato and sweet potato

Sequence is: 11. Answer (2)

Primordial soup  RNA  Coacervate  DNA. Homology in different animals or plants indicate
their evolution from common ancestors. Therefore,
6. Answer (3)
this helps in the study of how different groups of
z First chemoautotroph evolved were anaerobes. species have evolved from an ancestor.

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12. Answer (2) 19. Answer (3)
Development of similar adaptive functional Wallace line is an imaginary line on
structures in unrelated groups of organisms is biogeographical map that separates oriental and
called convergent evolution. Australian realms.
13. Answer (2) 20. Answer (2)
Ontogeny Recapitulates Phylogeny Jordan’s Rule  Temperature influences the
morphology of certain fishes and is found to have
Development Repeats The ancestral some relation with no. of vertebrae.
of embryo sequence
Bergmans’s Rule  Warm blooded animals
14. Answer (2)
become larger in the northern and colder parts of
Palearctic and oriental realm are separated by their range.
high mountain peak (Himalayas).
Cope’s Law  There is a tendency for animals to
15. Answer (3) increase in size during the long course of evolution.
Mullerian Mimicry  A form of mimicry in which 21. Answer (2)
two or more harmful or unpalatable animals
develop similar appearances as a shared Gause competitive exclusion principle (1934)
protective device. states that species having the same ecological
Cryptic appearance  The type of coloring or requirements cannot continue to occupy indefinitely
marking of an animal that helps to camouflage it the same habitat due to interspecific struggle.
in its natural environment. 22. Answer (1)
Aggressive mimicry  A form of mimicry in Hardy-Weinberg law states that ‘A random mating
which predators, parasites or parasitoids share population is said to be in Genetic equilibrium
similar signals using a harmless model, allowing [Frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is
them to avoid being correctly identified by their
supposed to remain fixed and even remain the
brunel or host.
same through generations] if it is not undergoing
16. Answer (1) any kind of evolutionary change.
z Monarch butterfly and queen butterfly  23. Answer (1)
Mullerian mimicry
Hardy-Weinberg law states that ‘A random mating
z Viceroy butterfly and monarch population is said to be in Genetic equilibrium
butterfly  Batesian mimicry [Frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is
z Mantis religiosa [European praying supposed to remain fixed and even remain the
mantis]  Aggressive mimicry same through generations] if it is not undergoing
z Arantia rectifolia [Leaf like any kind of evolutionary change.
grasshopper]  Protective mimicry (cryptic 24. Answer (1)
appearance)
According to Hardy-Weinberg law,
z Phyllium frondosum  Protective mimicry
(p + q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
z Dead leaf butterfly  Camouflage
where,
17. Answer (3)
z Coevolution occurs when two or more species p = frequency of occurrence of allele A
reciprocally affect each other’s evolution. q = frequency of occurrence of allele a
z It includes many forms of mutulism, Host- p+q=1
parasite, predator-prey relationships between
species as well as competition with in or p2 = Probability of occurrence of individuals AA
between species. q2 = Probability of occurrence of individuals aa
18. Answer (3) 2pq = Probability of occurrence of individuals Aa
Wallace line is an imaginary line on p2 + q2 + 2pq = 1
biogeographical map that separates oriental and
Australian realms. z This is followed by a non-evolving population.

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25. Answer (2) 34. Answer (1)

Genetic drift Change in allelic frequency of a RNA can act as ribozyme, a special type of
population over generations due to enzyme (so it can perform the task of both DNA
chance that results in evolution. and enzyme), thus RNA is believed to have once
Strongest effect in small population. been capable of supporting independent life forms.
26. Answer (4) 35. Answer (4)
Genetic drift/Sewell-Wright effect is random and Cro-magnon man was omnivorous and they were
non-directional. skilled hunter.
27. Answer (4) 36. Answer (3)
Darwin finches are an example of adaptive In Miller experiment, ratio of gases CH4, NH3 and
radiation/divergent evolution. H2 was 2 : 1 : 2.
37. Answer (1)
Fruit
If there is 1/16th of original amount is remaining,
eaters
then 14C has gone through 4 half lives.
So the age of fossil is 4  5730 years.
Cactus = 22920 years.
eaters Seed eating
birds 38. Answer (2)
z Australopithecus hunted with stone weapons
but essentially ate fruits.
Insect z Australopithecus lived in South Africa 5 mya.
eaters
z A. africanus had cranial capacity 450–600 cc.
28. Answer (1) 39. Answer (3)
Homo erectus – 900 cc. Homo sapiens fossilis is nearest ancestor of
Homo sapiens sapiens.
Homo habilis – 650 – 800 cc.
40. Answer (4)
Cro-magnon man – 1650 cc.
Lobefins evolved as first amphibian.
29. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)
Homo habilis (Handy man)
z About 65 mya, Dianosaurs suddenly
Had brain capacity (650 – 800 cc) that was disappeared from Earth.
more than Australopithecus (450 – 600 cc)
z Giant ferns were present but they all fell to
30. Answer (2) form coral deposits slowly.
z Homo sapiens neanderthalensis replaced z Some of the land reptiles went back into water
Homo erectus. to evolve into fish-like reptiles (Ichthyosaurs)
probably 200 mya.
z Homo sapiens lived aroung 1.5 mya.
42. Answer (1)
z Neanderthal man fossils found in Neanderthal
valley, Germany. z Inter breeding and merging of two species to
form single species is called as Fusion
31. Answer (3) speciation
Cave paintings came around 18,000 years ago in z Autogenous transformation of a species with
the time of cro-magnon man. passage of time due to variation is known as
32. Answer (2) Anagenesis.

Correct sequence w.r.t. human evolution is: SECTION - B


Dryopithecus  Ramapithecus  Austral-
opithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus  Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Homo sapiens.
43. Answer (2)
33. Answer (2) Photoautotrophic organisms liberated O 2 in
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita atmosphere and that free O2 oxidised CH4 and
are homologous organs with same origin. NH3 to form gases like CO2, N2 and H2O.

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44. Answer (1) 54. Answer (1)
On primitive earth, life was formed in 2-phases: Animals living in colder region have smaller
z Chemogeny: Formation of organic extremities to minimise the heat loss. [Allen’s law].
macromolecules like carbohydrates, proteins, 55. Answer (1)
nucleic acid etc. were formed by combining of
inorganic molecules. Gause competitive exclusion principle (1934)
states that species having the same ecological
z Biogeny: These macromolecules act as a raw requirements cannot continue to occupy indefinitely
material/building block for cell]. the same habitat due to interspecific struggle.
45. Answer (3) 56. Answer (2)
Coacervates were aggregates of organic molecules z Migration of individuals from one population to
surrounded by a film of water and they were not another and interbreeding with that population
able to reproduce. will result in addition of new alleles into
recepient population and deletion of these from
46. Answer (2) donor population.
First life forms on earth were anaerobic and z This migration of alleles that causes change in
atmosphere was reducing as there was no free O2. allele frequency is c/a gene migration and if it
occurs multiple time, it is c/a gene flow.
47. Answer (2)
57. Answer (4)
z RNA acts as an enzyme and perform the task
of DNA also so it is believed to support once Species is a population or series of population in
the independent life forms. which individual members can interbreed freely with
one another but reproductively isolated from
z Proteins might have taken over most of the members of other species.
enzymatic actions because they are better
58. Answer (1)
catalyst.
Lack of placental mammalian competition,
48. Answer (3)
pouched mammals survived in Australia after
Fossils of lower strata are older than those which continental drift.
are found in upper strata as they got preserved 59. Answer (2)
during sedimentation.
Darwin finches are an example of Adaptive
49. Answer (4) radiation/divergent evolution.
Preserved remains (Hard parts, excreta, whole
organism) or traces of animals, plants and other Fruit
organisms from remote past are known as fossils. eaters

50. Answer (4)


Analogous organs do not share similar origin but Cactus
eaters Seed eating
may share similar function. birds
51. Answer (1)
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita Insect
have common origin so they show homology. eaters

52. Answer (1)


60. Answer (4)
Presence of gill slits in human embryo indicate
remote aquatic history because development of an Dog fish and whale are the examples of convergent
evolution as both of them have or more less similar
embryo repeats the ancestral sequence.
characters [Streamlined body, viviparity] but belong
53. Answer (1) to totally different groups.

Parallel evolution is the development of a similar 61. Answer (3)


trait in related, but distinct, species descending Mullerian mimicry is an example of protective
from the same ancestor but from different clades. mimicry.

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62. Answer (1) 67. Answer (2)
Geographical barriers prevent interbreeding of Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were more
population and thus make them reproductively Ape-like, hairy, knuckle walker.
isolated and results in evolution of new species
like Australian marsupials. 68. Answer (1)

63. Answer (1) Chimpanzee is closest to humans (present day)


i.e. shown by similarity in chromosome mapping of
Seymouria is a connecting link between reptiles autosome 3 and 6.
and amphibians which shows common ancestory.
69. Answer (1)
64. Answer (4)
Due to industrial melanism, when tree barks got
Chimpanzee is closest to humans (present day) covered with soot, Dark Winged moth [Biston
i.e. shown by similarity in chromosome mapping of carbonaria] got advantage of dark background and
autosome 3 and 6. protection from predator.
65. Answer (2) 70. Answer (4)
Homo erectus had cranial capacity 900 cc. and The long neck of giraffe is due to better use of it
they first made use of fire. to reach upto higher vegetation. [Use and Disuse
66. Answer (2) of organs, Lamarckism].

z Homo erectus heidelbergensis [Heidelbergman] 71. Answer (2)


was connecting link between Homo erectus Branching descent and natural selection are two
and Homo sapiens. key concepts of Darwinism i.e. based upon small
z They probably ate meat. and directional variations.

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Chapter 17

Human Health and Disease

Hints and Solutions

7. Answer (3)
SECTION - A
Measles is caused by a RNA virus Rubeola.
Objective Type Questions
Varicella virus causes chickenpox.
1. Answer (2)
Widal test is diagnostic test for typhoid. Rubella virus causes rubella disease/German
measles
2. Answer (2)
Rhabdo virus causes rabies.
Koch’s postulates are applicable for bacterial
disease except disease like leprosy and viral 8. Answer (2)
diseases.
Bleeding from nose, mouth & gums are symptoms
3. Answer (1) of Haemorrhagic dengue fever.
DDS is used in treatment of leprosy.
9. Answer (1)
4. Answer (3)
Painful swelling/inflammation of parotid salivary
Mycotoxin is a toxic substance produced by glands is c/a Mumps (a viral infection).
fungus.
10. Answer (1)
Dinotoxin/saxitoxin is toxin i.e. produced by
Dinoflagellates. Given symptoms are of smallpox; As there are no
Enterotoxin is a toxin i.e. produced in or affecting pock marks in chickenpox.
the intestines, such as those causing food 11. Answer (4)
poisoning or cholera.
HBV is single dsDNA virus; Rest all Hepatitis virus
5. Answer (4)
have ssRNA genome.
Cholera (by Vibrio cholerae)
12. Answer (4)
Discharge of frequent rice water like stool
Maurer’s dot → in Plasmodium falciparum
Dehydration & electrolyte imbalance.
Vomiting & muscle cramps. Zeimann’s dot → in P. malariae

Can be treated by ORS. Schuffner dots → in P. ovale


6. Answer (2) 13. Answer (3)
DPT is a combo vaccine for diptheria, pertussis Signet ring stage is the stage of erythrocytic
& tetanus. schizogony having vacuole so that nucleus is
MMR for measles, mumps & rubella. pushed to one side.
ATS is anti-tetanus serum i.e. Anti-toxin given in Amoeboid stage is when trophozoite develops
tetanus infection. pseudopodial process.

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14. Answer (1) 22. Answer (1)
Exflagellation occurs during formation of Plasma cells × Myeloma cells = Hybridoma
microgametes (sperm) in gut lumen of mosquito
Are used to produce large amount of monoclonal
from microgametocyte that was formed in Human
antibodies.
R.B.Cs.
23. Answer (3)
15. Answer (1)
Immunosuppressants are used to suppress activity
of T-cells (cell mediated immunity) & can be used
Adult Entamoeba
to treat graft rejection, autoimmune disorders &
(Magna/trophozoite) allergies.
Excystment Binary fission 24. Answer (3)
HLA (Human Leucocyte Antigen) system is also
known as MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)
Enters into new host
i.e. encoded by genes on chromosome-6
25. Answer (4)
Tetranucleated cyst Opsonization is due to IgG (used as opsonin) to
Encystment tag the molecule for phagocytosis.
Infective Binucleated cyst
stage Mononucleated 26. Answer (2)
cyst
Recombinant vaccine i.e. formed by rDNA
16. Answer (2) technology (recombing the DNA of desired source
Microfilarial larva → Wuchereria & vector to introduce it into host cell) is Hepatis-
B vaccine i.e. prepared in yeast.
Rhabditiform larva → Ascaris
Filariform larva → Ancylostoma 27. Answer (2)

17. Answer (1) MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) is


Peyer’s patches.
There are no cells involved in complement system.
Bone marrow & thymus are primary lymphoid
18. Answer (4) organs.
Fab (Antigen binding fragment): Has paratope i.e. 28. Answer (2)
present between VH & VL and it binds with epitope
of Ag. GP-120 of HIV binds with CD4 receptor of TH cell.
H2L2 region → 2 heavy & 2 light chains. 29. Answer (3)
19. Answer (4) Macrophage acts like HIV factory.
J-chain is present only in IgA & IgM 30. Answer (4)
(pentamer) Opportunistic infections are those that infect a
person’s body who has compromised immunity like
(dimer) in HIV positive patient.
J-chain
Following are the examples in case of HIV :
z T.B.
z Cytomegalovirus
IgE, IgD & IgG are monomeric Ab. z Toxoplasmosis
20. Answer (2) z Herpes simplex virus etc.
As IgM exist in pentameric form & each monomer 31. Answer (4)
has 2 paratopes. So 10 epitopes can bind to IgM.
HIV genome consists of 2 copies of ssRNA with
21. Answer (3) Reverse transcriptase enzyme that helps in reverse
As explained in Q.19. transcription of RNA into DNA.

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32. Answer (4) 42. Answer (1)
Zovirax/Aciclovir z Interferons are glycoproteins that are secreted
by virus infected cells against viruses.
(1) Antiviral medicine i.e. primarily used for
treatment of Herpes simplex virus infections, z They make other cells less susceptible to
chicken pox & shingles. virus.
(2) It is a nucleic acid analogue made from 43. Answer (4)
guanosine. H2L2 i.e. 2 heavy & 2 light chains are comprised
(3) It acts by competitively inhibiting & inactivating of different amino acids in different antibodies that
the specific DNA polymerases preventing provides them specificity & differ in molecular wt.
further viral DNA synthesis without affecting as they have different number of amino acids.
normal cellular processes. 44. Answer (1)
33. Answer (2) Repeated encounter of an Ag generates a
secondary intensified response i.e. exhibited by
Contact inhibition is the property of normal cells to
conversion/maturation of stored/memory B-/T-cell
check uncontrolled growth & this property is not
into effector B-/T-cell.
exhibited by cancerous cells.
45. Answer (3)
34. Answer (1)
IgM is a pentamer
Carcinoma (of Epithelial tissue) are most common
46. Answer (2)
type of cancers.
One type of effector B-cells produce same kind of
35. Answer (3)
Ab [Monoclonal Ab] & different Ab produced by
Heroin/Diacetyl morphine different effector B-cells that are collectively called
White, bitter crystalline compounds obtained from as polyclonal antibodies.
Papaver somniferum (opium plant) 47. Answer (3)
36. Answer (4) Immunosuppressant drugs suppress T-cell
mediated immunity.
Crack/Cocaine
48. Answer (2)
Obtained from Erthroxylum coca.
Haplotype is a set of genetic determinants located
is a stimulant & acts on CNS. on a single chromosome, MHC is haplotype
Heavy doses acts as hallucinogen. located on chromosome 6.
Interferes with dopamine. 49. Answer (3)
37. Answer (4) T H cell secrete lymphokines that help in
proliferation of B-cell, synthesis of antibodies &
Psilocybin - Psilocybe maxicana
activity of TC cell.
38. Answer (2) 50. Answer (1)
Alcohol is a suppressant of ADH & thus acts as Antibodies such as IgG cause opsonization i.e.
a diuretic substance & ↓↓ water reabsorption from marking the antigen/microbe for phagocytosis.
renal tubules.
51. Answer (2)
39. Answer (2)
MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)
Alcoholism can result into gastric carcinoma. constitutes about 50% of total secondary lymphoid
40. Answer (3) tissue & lines the GIT & respiratory tract.
Alcoholic cirrhosis is fibrosis of liver i.e. functional 52. Answer (2)
hepatocytes are replaced with connective tissue HIV gets incorporated into Host genome by
fibres. converting its RNA into DNA through reverse
transcriptase & integrating this DNA to Host DNA
by integrase.
SECTION - B

Assertion - Reason Type Questions Macrophages act as HIV factory as the HIV
41. Answer (2) replicates to produce new viruses.

Complement system consists of no cells & a set
of 30 proteins that help in killing of antigen. HIV attacks TH cells to kill them.

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53. Answer (3) 54. Answer (4)

HIV can be transmitted through: Contact inhibition is the property of normal cells to
check uncontrolled growth of neighbouring cells i.e.
z Unprotected sex not exhibited by cancerous cells as they show
z Infected mother to foetus uncontrolled growth & result into formation of
neoplasm.
z Contaminated syringes, needles
55. Answer (2)
z No reported case of transmission through Morphine is obtained from Opium plant & used as
insect bite or sharing utensils etc. an Analgesic & sedative.

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Chapter 18

Animal Husbandry

Hints and Solutions

9. Answer (4)
SECTION - A
MOET allows selection of superior female & then
Objective Type Questions superovulating it by injecting hormone that shows
1. Answer (4) FSH-like activity. Then collection of more than 1
Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even embryo & transferred into surrogate mother.
productivity. This is called Inbreeding depression. Genetic mother is ready to ovulate again.
2. Answer (2) 10. Answer (1)
Anthrax is a bacterial disease that is caused by Artificial insemination is to inseminate the female
Bacillus anthracis. artificially. Naturally one bull inseminates one cow
3. Answer (4) but artificially more than 3000 cows are
inseminated with semen of one bull.
Plymouth rock is an American breed.
4. Answer (1) 11. Answer (1)

Coccidiosis: is a protozoan disease that results Project AI in cattle breeding was initiated at IVRI,
into bloody diarrhoea. Izzatnagar, U.P.
Brooder pneumonia (Aspergillosis) : Fungal 12. Answer (3)
respiratory disease of chickens & other birds.
Females are produced by fertilization but drones
Mycosis : Fungal infection. are produced by Arrhenotoky.
5. Answer (1) 13. Answer (4)
Pashmina is extracted from Kashmiri goats capra
Sucrose is non-reducing sugar that is present in
aegagrus.
honey.
6. Answer (1)
14. Answer (2)
Angoora wool is obtained from Rabbit.
Apis indica → Indian honeybee
Chiru Shahtoosh is obtained from Tibetian
antelope. 15. Answer (2)
7. Answer (3) Isinglass is obtained from the air bladder of perch,
Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even cat fishes, Indian salmon and used in clarification
productivity. This is called Inbreeding depression. of wine/beer & preparation of special cement.
8. Answer (1) 16. Answer (4)
Breeding between members of same breed with no Labeo, Catla and cirrhina are used in polyculture
common ancestors upto 4-6 generations is called of fresh water fishes Pomphret is a deep bodied
as out crossing. fish of open seas.

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17. Answer (2) 27. Answer (1)
Nursery ponds → For hatching Dr. Verghese Kurien is known as Father of White
revolution & architect of India’s modern dairy
Rearing ponds → Fries collected from nursery
industry.
pond & grown into fingerlings here.
Stocking ponds → Fingerlings change to fish & 28. Answer (3)
are kept for stocking. Silk is obtained from pupa by killing it in the
18. Answer (3) cocoon by dipping it in boiling water or by steam
or hot air.
Pomphret is most edible marine fish.
29. Answer (1)
19. Answer (1)
Aquaculture is culturing economically beneficial
Coppery gloss is in Tasar silk. aquatic flora & fauna.
20. Answer (4) 30. Answer (1)
Silk obtained from the silk worm cocoon has Marck’s virus causes Marck’s disease in chickens
fibroin protein is having antiparallel β pleated i.e. characterized by T-cell lymphoma.
sheet structure.
Ebola virus : can cause severe bleeding, organ
N –––––––– C failure & lead to death
C –––––––– N
Aspergillus fumigatus: Fungus that causes
21. Answer (4) disease with an immunodeficiency.
Multivoltine silk moths are not reared in Kashmir 31. Answer (1)
as their larval duration is short and adaptable to
Blue revolution refers to remarkable emergence of
warmer places.
aquaculture.
22. Answer (4)
32. Answer (3)
Degumming of silk means removal of gummy
substance i.e. sericin by boiling. It leaves the silk Murrah found in Haryana.
soft & lusturous and reduces its weight. Bhadawari found in U.P & M.P.
23. Answer (2) Nilli ravi found in Punjab.
Pebrine disease is caused by Nosema bombycis. 33. Answer (4)
24. Answer (1) Mule is formed by crossing male donkey with
Shagreen is obtained from integument/skin of female horse.
sharks. They are used by Army for mountain Artillery and
25. Answer (2) General service.
Animal dairying : The branch of Agriculture that SECTION - B
encompasses the breeding, raising & utilization of
dairy animals for the production of milk & the Assertion - Reason Type Questions
various dairy products processed from it.
34. Answer (4)
Conventional breeding : Development of new
varieties of plants by using older tools & natural Cow milk is yellowish in colour as it consists of
processes. -carotene (i.e. precursor of vitamin A) while buffalo
milk lacks it.
Mutation Breeding : Process of exposing seeds
to chemicals or radiation in order to generate 35. Answer (4)
mutants with desirable traits to be bred with other Mule is an interspecific hybrid that is produced by
cultivars. crossing male donkey and female horse.
26. Answer (3) 36. Answer (1)
Hisardale = Bikaneri ewe × Marino rams Continuous inbreeding increases homozygosity &
decreases genetic variability due to appearance of
(Cross breed) ( ) ( of Spain)
recessive traits and thus reduces fertility.

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37. Answer (1) 40. Answer (1)
Outcrossing involves mating of animals of same Drone [male honey bee] develops from an
breed but with no common ancestors for upto 4-6
unfertilized egg by Arrhenotoky (without fusion so
generations so overcomes inbreeding depression.
it is haploid (n)).
38. Answer (2)
41. Answer (1)
MOET increases herd size in short time with
desirable trait as it involves mating of a superior Mules were produced with these desirable traits
male & female of desired characters, and by i.e. to withstand adverse weather conditions.
inducing superovulation 6-8 eggs are produced per
cycle. 42. Answer (3)

39. Answer (3) Biofertilizers contain living organisms which


Degumming provides lusture & softness to silk & increase the supply or availability of primary
reduces its weight. nutrients to the host plant and promote growth.

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Chapter 19

Biotechnology-Principles and Processes

Hints and Solutions

6. Answer (1)
SECTION - A
z DNA ligase is used for ligation of DNA segments
by joining phospho-diester linkage.
Objective Type Questions
z Nuclease will cleave DNA sequence.
1. Answer (4)
z Polynucleotide kinase catalyzes the transfer of
The correct sequence of constructing a genetically phosphate from ATP to the free –OH end of 5
modified organism is: DNA or RNA.
z Identification of Gene of interest. 7. Answer (3)

z Amplification of Gene of interest. Primase is a type of RNA polymerase that


synthesizes short RNA sequences that act as
z Introduction of alien DNA into Hosts. primers and primers serve as a starting point for DNA
z Selection of transformants. synthesis.

z Maintenance of culture, proliferation of 8. Answer (2)


transformants. Southern blotting – DNA
2. Answer (1) Western blotting – protein
Northern blotting – RNA.
EtBr is used as a dye for visualizing get as DNA
can’t be seen with naked eye. 9. Answer (3)
3. Answer (2) Myeloma  Plasma cell
z Hybridoma = (Able to divide) (Able producing cell)
Non-recombinants give blue color colonies as there
is no insertional inactivation of lac Z gene and z Produce monoclonal antibodies.
recombinants get selected in single step. 10. Answer (1)
z Polylinker is present in lac Z gene. YAC [Yeast artificial chromosome] carries large
z Size of PUC 8 is 2.75 kb. fragments of DNA.

z Cannot carry more than 15 kb of DNA sequence. 11. Answer (4)


4. Answer (4) z DNA is identified and isolated by treating the
cell with lysozyme/chitinase/cellulose etc.
1 copy of DNA gives 8 copies of DNA after 3 cycles depending upon the source.
so 24 copies of DNA will be obtained at the end of 
PCR.
Separated from other cellular constituents by
5. Answer (1) adding protease/lipase/RNase etc.
Gene of interest is inserted at t-DNA of Ti plasmid 
as the sequence of t-DNA as this segment gets DNA is precipitated by adding chilled ethanol
transferred into host cell. and collected by spooling.

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12. Answer (3) 19. Answer (4)
z Shuttle vectors are used in both prokaryotic and A sparger is used in sparged stirred-tank bioreactor
eukaryotic hosts and having 2 ori and 2 through which bubbles (sterile air) are sparged to
selectable markers. increase the surface area for oxygen transfer.
z YEP and modified Ti plasmid are shuttle vectors. 20. Answer (3)
13. Answer (2) Screening of transformants is done long ago
downstream processing when host cells with
Vector  Phagemid > pBR 322 > PUCB > BAC >
recombinant DNA are selected before they put ito
YAC
culture medium.
DNA Carrying Capacity  10 kb > 5-11 kb > upto 21. Answer (2)
15 kb > 300 kb > upto 1400 kb
Foreign gene/DNA is transferrd into lacZ gene of PUC
14. Answer (2) vector.
Agrobacterium is a pathogen of dicot plants and 
causes crown gall disease in grapes, tomato, roses Insertional inactivation of lac Z gene
etc.

15. Answer (2)
Transformation into host cell
pBR 322 has sites for both restriction enzymes i.e., 
Eco RI and Pst I so we will get 2 bands after get
Add ampicillin into culture medium
electrophoresis i.e., due to the sites cleaved by both
endonucleases 

16. Answer (1) Only transformants will grow



Heat shock method is a mode of direct gene transfer
in host by making it competent for desired DNA Add X-gal (chromogenic substrate to medium)
chemically and then by heat shock without using
any biological vector.
Recombinants will Non-recombinants will
17. Answer (3)
give white colour give blue colour.
Foreign gene inserted at Pst 1 of ampr gene. as lac Z gene
has been inactivated
 so does not code
Insertional inactivation of ampr gene. for -galactorsidase.
 22. Answer (2)
Transformation into host cell. Type II restriction enzymes can cleave DNA
sequences in vitro.

23. Answer (4)
Add tetracycline to culture medium
 z Polyethylene glycol increases endocytosis of
DNA precipitates by plasmalemma to cell.
Only transformants will grow.
z CaCl2 helps to increase competency of Host

cell with foreign DNA as it is a lipophobic
Add ampicillin to medium. molecules
 z Dextran Sulphate is also an efficient facilitator
Only non-recombinants will survive. of transformation like PEG.
18. Answer (4) 24. Answer (4)
ELISA (Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay) is a As explained in Q.23 DNA is hydrophilic molecule
test that uses antibodies and colour change to identify so host cell is made competent by treating it with
a substance. divalent cation like Ca2+.

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32. Answer (3)


SECTION - B
Gene gun/Biolistics is a method of direct gene
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
transfer in host without using any biological agent.
25. Answer (2) 33. Answer (3)
Taq polymerase is a thermostable polymerase i.e., Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer used plasmid of
obtained from thermus aquaticus and used in salmonella typhimurium.
extension of nucleotides in PCR at high temperature 34. Answer (2)
(72°C).
Restriction enzymes are endonucleases that cleave
26. Answer (4) DNA sequence at specific site and Eco R1
DNA fragments are negatively charged so move recognizes a 6 nucleotide palindromic sequence
5GAATTC3, 3CTTAAG5.
towards anode on get due to sieving effect.
35. Answer (1)
27. Answer (3)
Ligases help of anneal different DNA fragments so
Ampere gene of pBR 322 consists of 2 sites for Pvu
known as molecular glue.
1 and Pst 1.
36. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1)
z Isolation of DNA from bacteria needs use of
Agitation/shaking is required to distribute O 2, RNase, protease etc.
nutrients uniform to increase bacterial reproduction
z Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
and thus product concentration also increases.
i.e., opened up by using lysozyme.
29. Answer (1)
37. Answer (3)
Staggered/cohesive ends make ligation of DNA Taq polymerase helps in extension at 72°C.
fragments with Host genome easier by H-bond.
38. Answer (2)
30. Answer (1)
z BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome) is based
Prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic i.e., it has upon F plasmid of E.Coli. It contains genes for
instructions for synthesis of more than one replication and maintenance of F factor,
polypeptide sequence while Eukaryotic mRNA is selectable marker and cloning sites.
unicistronic. z BAC can carry upto 300 kb gene sequence.
31. Answer (2) 39. Answer (2)
YEP (Yeast episomal plasmid) is a shuttle vector PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) is used for
than has 2 ori and 2 selectable marker for prokaryotic amplification of desired DNA and diagnosis of
and eukaryotic host. diseases (in plants and animals) at early stages.

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Chapter 20

Biotechnology and its Applications

Hints and Solutions



SECTION - A
Unwinding of 2 strands of mRNA
Objective Type Questions

1. Answer (4)
Sense strand gets digested and anti-sense strand gets
Replication is to double the DNA content but GMO’s
are produced by making a change in already existing incorporated in RISC.
DNA via addition, subtraction, modification, 
substitution etc.
Antisense strand generates pair with target
2. Answer (1)
m-RNA of nematode
The gene that encodes for -carotene/pro-vitamin A
in golden rice was obtained from Narcissus 
pseudonarcissus [Daffodil plant]. Hydrolyzes target – RNA
3. Answer (4)

Food production can be enhanced by cell:
No translation
z Organic agriculture
6. Answer (1)
z Agro-chemical based agriculture
z Genetically engineered crop based culture. By using Agrobacterium mediated transfer, nematode
specific genes were introduced in host plants
4. Answer (2)
Bt toxin is produced in inactive form in bacteria and 
gets activated in alkaline medium of insect gut. Viral RNA genome or modified transposons
5. Answer (1)

By using Agrobacterium mediated transfer, nematode
specific genes were introduced in host plants ds mRNA

RNase III
Viral RNA genome or modified transposons
 si RNA
ds mRNA 

RNase III si RNA(small interfering RNA) bind to RISC



si RNA
 Unwinding of 2 strands of mRNA

si RNA(small interfering RNA) bind to RISC 

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Sense strand gets digested and anti-sense strand gets 12. Answer (1)
incorporated in RISC.
Biofortification  The process by which the
 nutritional quality of food crops is improved through
Antisense strand generates pair with target agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding or
m-RNA of nematode modern biotechnology.
 Biofouling  The fouling of underwater pipes and
Hydrolyzes target – RNA other surfaces by organisms such as barnacles and
 algae.
No translation Bioconcentration  The process by which a
7. Answer (1) chemical concentration is an aquatic organism
Erythropoietin – Anemia exceeds that in water as a result of exposure to a
Interleukins – Cancer, immune disorder water borne chemical.
Factor VIII – Haemophilia 13. Answer (4)
Interferon  – Leukemia and other cancers The intensity of color is directly related to the
Interferon  – Cancer, rheumatoid arthritis. concentration of antigen or antibody.
8. Answer (4) 14. Answer (4)
As there is no C-chain in mature insulin so no
Vaccine are formed in prokaryotic/eukaryotic host
C-chain is produced in Humulin.
by introducing a recombinant DNA [i.e. combination
9. Answer (4) of desired DNA + Vector]
Growth hormone can be used to treat
For example  Recombinant Hepatitis – B vaccine
z Hypopituitarism [ in GH and can result into in yeast.
dwarfism, acromicria etc.]
15. Answer (4)
z Healing to injuries i.e. repair and regeneration of
bone, muscle, tendons and ligaments. ANDi [inserted DNA], first transgenic monkey with
z Misused by athletes and so World Anti-Doping green fluorescent protein from Jelly fish, showed
Agency [WADA] put a ban on those who are fluoroscence.
found guilty of taking it. 16. Answer (1)
10. Answer (1)
Dolly  was only a clone not transgenic animal.
Gene therapy is used to treat gene defect i.e. to
replace a defective or absent gene with a working Polly and Molly Were first transgenic and
gene so that the body can make the correct enzyme cloned mammals.
or protein and consequently eliminate the root cause Gene introduced was blood
of disease. clotting factor IX.
11. Answer (3) 17. Answer (1)
Lack of functional gene for
Dolly  was only a clone not transgenic animal.
ADA [Adenosine deaminase]
 Polly and Molly Were first transgenic and
cloned mammals.
Deficiency of enzyme ADA
 Gene introduced was blood
clotting factor IX.
No maturation of T-cells
 18. Answer (4)

No cell-mediated immunity Cryl Ac and Cry ll Ab  Against cotton boll worms.


 Cryl Ab  Against corn borer.
No Humoral immunity 19. Answer (2)
 The gene that encodes for -carotene/pro-vitamin A
SCID [Severe Combine in golden rice was obtained from Narcissus
Immunodeficiency Disorder] pseudonarcissus [Daffodil plant].

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Biofortification  The process by which the 26. Answer (4)
nutritional quality of food crops is improved through cDNA for ADA when introduced in
agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding or T-lymphocytes of host through
modern biotechnology. retro-virus mediated transfer

Biofouling  The fouling of underwater pipes and 


other surfaces by organisms such as barnacles and Patient requires periodic infusion of such
Algae. genetically engineered lymphocytes

Bioconcentration  The process by which a
chemical concentration is an aquatic organism If Gene is isolated from bone marrow and
transferred at early embryonic stages,
exceeds that in water as a result of exposure to a
it could be a permanent cure.
water borne chemical.
27. Answer (3)
20. Answer (4)
Getting insulin assembled into a mature form was
z Bioremediation is use of biological organisms to most difficult task during synthesis of Humulin.
reduce or eliminated toxic polluntants from 28. Answer (1)
atmosphere.
Bioethics  A set of standards by which a
z Virus needs a host to act upon. community regulates its behaviour and decides as
to which activity is legitimate and which is not.
21. Answer (4)
Patent  A set of exclusive rights granted by a state
GEAC [Genetic Engineering Approval Committee] to an inventor or their assignee for a limited period of
makes decisions regarding validity of GM research time in exchange for public disclosure of an invention.
and safety of introducing GMOs for public services. Bio-terrorism  The use of infections agents or
other harmful biological or biochemical substances
22. Answer (4) as weapons of terrorism.
Major bioethical concerns are: 29. Answer (4)

z Violation of integrity of species 95% of transgenic animals are mice.

z Dilution of concept of humanness. SECTION - B


z Great sufferings to the animals that are used in Assertion - Reason Type Questions
biotech. 30. Answer (2)
z Animals are reduced to a status of factory when GMOs are the organisms that have been modified
used for production of pharmaceutical proteins. genetically and are produced by gene addition,
subtraction etc.
z Risk to biodiversity.
31. Answer (1)
23. Answer (4) Cry gene isolated from
Prior art is not a criteria applicable to patent. Baccillus thuringiensis

24. Answer (2) 


Introduced into cotton through
Brazzein, produced by African berry, Pentadiplandra Agrobacterium mediated transfer
brazzein is approx. 2000 times as sweet as sugar

and patented by U.S.A.
Cotton produces Bt toxin/cry toxin
25. Answer (1) against cotton boll worms
30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved 
globally and 12 are being marketed in India. Bt cotton

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32. Answer (4) 37. Answer (3)
z Nematode resistant plant was produced by RNA cDNA for ADA when introduced in
i. T-lymphocytes of host through
retro-virus mediated transfer
z RNA i leads to inactivation of target mRNA and
thus inhibiting translation of proteins as 
explained in Q. 5. Patient requires periodic infusion of such
33. Answer (1) genetically engineered lymphocytes
Deletion of gene encoding for enzyme 
Polygalacturonase from tomato. If gene is isolated from bone marrow and
transferred at early embryonic stages,
Polygalacturonase promotes fruit  it could be a permanent cure.
 softening by degrading pectin. 
38. Answer (4)

z ELISA is based on antigen antibody interaction.
Delayed fruit ripening z ELISA has gained wide popularity especially for
 infectious disease; serum diagnosis is too
frequent as it is cheap and rapid.
 self life.
39. Answer (2)
34. Answer (1)
ANDi was first transgenic monkey with green
Interferons stimulate killing of neoplastic cells by fluoroscent protein form Jelly fish.
increasing resistance of normal cells to NK cells and
make cancer cells more vulnerable to killing by TC 40. Answer (2)
cells. Dolly  was cloned mammal, produced by somatic
35. Answer (1) cell nuclear transfer in Roslind Institute, Scotland.

Modified pBR322 with Lac Z gene are used during 41. Answer (4)
Humulin production that help in blue-white screening Tracy had the gene for alpha-1, antitrypsin.
due to color producing reaction of -galactosidase
42. Answer (1)
with chromogenic substrate.
Genetically modified microbes are designed to
36. Answer (2)
produce desired product by modifying their
CDNA for ADA when introduced in genome.
T-lymphocytes of host through 43. Answer (2)
Retro-virus mediated transfer
Green Revolution resulted in increasing the food
 supply almost 3 times by using improved crop
Patient requires periodic infusion of such varieties, agrochemicals and better management
genetically engineered lymphocytes practices.
 44. Answer (2)
If Gene is isolated from bone marrow and Because of biopiracy nations are developing laws
transferred at early embryonic stages, to prevent unauthorized exploitation of their
it could be a permanent cure. bioresources.

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