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REVISE ENVIRONMENT THROUGH 400 MCQs
INDEX
CHAPTER - 1: ECOLOGY ........................................................................................................................... 3
CHAPTER - 2 : FUNCTION OF AN ECOSYSTEM........................................................................................... 5
CHAPTER - 3: TERRESTRIAL ECOSYSTEM .................................................................................................. 7
CHAPTER - 4 : AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM ....................................................................................................... 9
CHAPTER - 5: ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION ......................................................................................... 11
CHAPTER - 6 : RENEWABLE ENERGY ...................................................................................................... 15
CHAPTER - 7: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES ................................................................................................. 17
CHAPTER - 8: ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT .......................................................................... 19
CHAPTER - 9 : BIODIVERSITY ................................................................................................................. 21
CHAPTER - 10 : INDIAN BIODIVERSITY ................................................................................................... 24
CHAPTER - 11: SCHEDULE ANIMALS OF WPA 1972 ................................................................................. 26
CHAPTER - 12 : ANIMAL DIVERSITY OF INDIA......................................................................................... 27
CHAPTER - 13 : PLANT DIVERSITY OF INDIA ........................................................................................... 29
CHAPTER - 14 : MARINE ORGANISMS .................................................................................................... 31
CHAPTER - 15 : PROTECTED AREA NETWORK ......................................................................................... 33
CHAPTER- 16: CONSERVATION EFFORTS ............................................................................................... 37
CHAPTER - 17 : CLIMATE CHANGE ......................................................................................................... 40
CHAPTER - 18 : OCEAN ACIDIFICATION .................................................................................................. 41
CHAPTER - 19: OZONE DEPLETION ......................................................................................................... 41
CHAPTER - 20: IMPACT OF CLIMATE CHANGE - INDIA ............................................................................ 42
CHAPTER - 21 : MITIGATION STRATEGIES .............................................................................................. 43
CHAPTER - 22 : INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE ........................................................................................ 44
CHAPTER - 23: CLIMATE CHANGE ORGANISATIONS ............................................................................... 47
CHAPTER - 24 : AGRICULTURE ............................................................................................................... 51
CHAPTER- 25 : ACTS AND POLICIES ........................................................................................................ 54
CHAPTER - 26 : INSTITUTION AND MEASURES ....................................................................................... 57
CHAPTER - 27 : ENVIRONMENTAL ORGANISATIONS .............................................................................. 61
CHAPTER - 28: INTERNATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL CONVENTIONS ........................................................ 63
CHAPTER - 29 : ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES AND HEALTH IMPACTS .......................................................... 67
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CHAPTER - 1: ECOLOGY
1. Match the following pairs: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Definition/Examples Terms and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
1. Frog living in Pond : Biome Statement-I
2. Analysis of interaction of fish : Biosphere (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
with its surrounding and Statement-H is not the correct explanation
3. Community of biological : Habitat for Statement-I
organisms living in a similar (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
regional climate incorrect
4. Region on earth which : Ecology (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
supports life correct
How many above given pairs of respective terms
and their definition are correctly matched? 5. Which of the following are correct statements?
(a) Only two pair 1. Crustaceans, insects, salmon can tolerate wide
(b) Only three pair range of temperature
(c) All the four pair 2. Goldfish, haddock, sea turtle can survive on
(d) None of the pair is correct wide range of salinity
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
2. Which of the following are Saprotrophs?
(a) 1 only
1. Cyanobacteria
(b) 2 only
2. Indian pipe
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Corallorhiza
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Mycorrhizal
5. Coccolithophore
6. Which of the following are autotrophs?
6. Arthropods
1. Spirogyra
below 2. Diatom
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 3. Dinoflagellates
(c) 2, 3, 4, 6 (d) 1, 2, 5, 6 4. Nematodes
How many of the options given above are correct?
3. Consider the following statements (a) Only one
1. Only a few environments are habitat. (b) Only two
2. Habitat is part of ecosystem (c) Only three
3. Group of ecosystem is environment (d) All four
4. Every habitat is a environment
How many of the statements given above are 7. Choose the correctly matched option from
correct? ascending order
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Individual- Community- Population - Biome -
Biosphere
(c) Only three (d) All four
(b) Population - Community- Ecosystem-Biome -
Biosphere
4. Consider the following statements:
(c) Organisms - Community- Population-
Statement I: Intensity of light affects plant growth.
Biosphere- Biome
Statement II: Plants grown in green light are large
(d) Population- Community- Biome- Ecosystem -
while in ultraviolet light they are dwarf
Biosphere
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?


8. Consider the following statements regarding How many of the above pairs are correctly
“Niche”? matched?
Statement-I: Niche is unique functional role of (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
species in an ecosystem (c) Only three pairs (d) None of the pair
Statement-II: Species sharing same habitat also
share same niche 10. Consider the following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 1. Edge species emerge as a result of genetic
the above statements? drift, leading to challenges in interbreeding
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct due to the divergence in genetic makeup.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 2. Variation arises from alterations in the genetic
Statement-I makeup, contributing to differences within a
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct population.
and Statement-H is not the correct explanation 3. Mutations introduce novel genes into a
for Statement-I population by altering the genetic material,
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is facilitating evolutionary change.
incorrect How many of the statements given above are
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct?
correct (a) Only one
(b) Only two
9. Which of the following adaptation are correctly (c) All three
matched (d) None
Adaptation Example/Characteristics
1. Physiological : Giraffes evolved longer
necks as trees grew taller,
enabling them to reach
leaves higher up.
2. Morphological : The kangaroo rat relies on
internal fat oxidation to
fulfil its water needs in
arid conditions.
3. Behavioural : Siberian cranes migrate to
India during the winter
months to escape harsh
weather in Siberia.
******

CHAPTER - 2 : FUNCTION OF AN ECOSYSTEM
11. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above is/are
1. Grazing food chains can be found in both incorrect?
terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. (a) Only one
2. The major conduit of energy flow in aquatic (b) Only two ·
ecosystems is through the grazing food chain. (c) All three
3. A much larger fraction of energy flows (d) None
through the detritus food chain in terrestrial
ecosystems compared to the grazing food 14. Which of the following statements best defines the
chain. term "Homeostasis" in the function of an
How many of the statements given above are ecosystem?
incorrect? (a) This is the tendency of a biological system to
(a) Only one resist change, allowing an ecosystem to
(b) Only two maintain its stability.
(c) All three (b) Equal proportion of species richness in a
(d) None given ecosystem at a particular time of the
year.
12. Consider the following pairs with respect to the (c) Water carrying capacity of the entire
ecological successions: ecosystem in a xerarch community.
Succession Description/Characteristics (d) None of the above.
Type
1. Autogenic : Succession by abiotic 15. Consider the following pairs regarding homeostasis
succession components of the ecosystem of an ecosystem
2. Hydrarch : Succession taking place in Homeostasis Definition/Examples
succession aquatic ecosystem Terms
3. Xerarch : Succession by biotic 1. Thermoregulation : Change in body
succession components of the ecosystem temperature in
4. Allogenic : Succession in dry land response to the
succession surrounding
Match the following pairs correctly using the code temperature
given below: 2. Thermal : Maintaining internal
(a) 1- A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D Conformity body temperature
(b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A consistent with
surroundings
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
3. Seed Dormancy : Temporary halting of
(d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Suspension seed germination
4. Seasonal : Temporary movement
13. Consider the following statements regarding energy
Migration of organisms from
flow in an ecosystem
their habitat
1. The efficiency of transferring energy from one
How many of the above pairs are correctly
trophic level to another is referred to as
matched?
ecological efficiency.
(a) Only one
2. Bioaccumulation entails the progressive
(b) Only two
concentration of pollutants or toxins through
higher trophic levels. (c) Only three
3. Biomagnification describes the gradual (d) All four
accumulation of pollutants or chemicals in
organisms.


16. With regards to the energy flow in an ecosystem, 3. Amensalism :
One species is
Consider the following statements inhibited, while the
1. Energy flow in an ecosystem is represented other remains
through the different trophic levels. unaffected
2. Energy flow will be always unidirectional 4. Mutualism : Both species benefit
through trophic levels from producers. from their
3. There will be a decrease in energy at each interaction with
trophic level due to loss in the form of heat. each other
How many statements above given are correct How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) Only one (b) Only two · matched?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
17. Consider the following statements regarding the (c) Only three
food chain of an ecosystem. (d) All four
1. A food chain is often described as a linear
hierarchy of feeding, illustrating the flow of 20. With respect to the pyramids of ecology. Consider
food energy across trophic levels. the following statements.
2. Food webs attempt to portray various potential 1. The pyramid of biomass remains inverted for
paths of energy flow within an ecosystem. both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems, as
3. Food chain provides more stability to an stated.
ecosystem than the Food web . 2. The pyramid of numbers can exhibit both
How many of the statements given above are upright and inverted forms depending on the
correct? ecosystem and the specific organisms
(a) Only one (b) Only two · involved.
(c) All three (d) None 3. Pyramid of energy will always be upright for
any ecosystem.
How many of the statements given above are
18. There term " diapause " best defines which of the
following correct?
(a) It is the process of shutting down life processes (a) Only one (b) Only two ·
by maintaining a physiological state of dormancy. (c) All three (d) None
(b) it is the destruction of an ecosystem by
external invaders such as pests etc. 21. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Self-destruction of an ecosystem by allowing biogeochemical or nutrient cycle.
invasive alien species into it. 1. A nutrient cycle can be termed as a perfect or
(d) Intense forest fire happening all around imperfect cycle based on replacement period.
western Ghats. 2. Gaseous cycles are mostly perfect cycles
while sedimentary cycles are relatively
19. Consider the following pairs regarding biotic imperfect.
interactions in a Food web 3. Reservoir for Gaseous cycle is atmosphere or
Food Interaction Definition/Charact hydrosphere and for sedimentary cycle is
eristics earth's crust.
1. Commensalism : One species benefits 4. Methane cycle is an example of compound
while the other Gaseous cycle.
remains neither How many of the statements given above are
harmed nor correct?
benefited (a) Only one
2. Predation : One species benefits (b) Only two ·
from consuming (c) Only three
another, while the
(d) All Four
other is harmed

CHAPTER - 3: TERRESTRIAL ECOSYSTEM
22. Which of the following are unique characteristics 25. Consider the following biomes:
of Temperate deciduous Biome? 1. Savanna
1. Can be found in the mid-latitude region. 2. Lake
2. Subject to both warm and cold air masses 3. Taiga
3. Receives an average rainfall ranging from 750 4. Tropical rainforest
to 1,500 mm, evenly distributed throughout 5. Temperate grassland
the year
6. Tundra
4. Experiences a phenomenon where trees
change color during the autumn season. Arrange these above given biomes in terms of their
productivity, from lowest to highest.
below: (a) Tundra, Savanna, Lake, Taiga, Temperate
(a) 1 and 2 grassland, Tropical rainforest
(b) 1 and 3 (b) Tundra, Lake, Taiga, Savanna, Temperate
(c) 2, 3 and 4 grassland, Tropical rainforest
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Tundra, Lake, Savanna, Temperate grassland,
Taiga, Tropical rainforest
23. Consider the following pairs: (d) Savanna, Lake, Tundra, Taiga, Temperate
grassland, Tropical rainforest
Biome Vegetation
1. Tropical A. Oak, Elm, beech
deciduous 26. Arrange the states in terms of large forest cover in
2. Tropical B. Mahogany, Ebony, descending order
rainforest dyewood (a) Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha >
3. Temperate C. Teak, Bamboo, Maharashtra
deciduous Sandalwood (b) Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh >
4. Montane D. Silver fir, Junipers, Pine Odisha > Chhattisgarh
(c) Maharashtra > Chhattisgarh > Arunachal
Choose the correctly matched pair from the code Pradesh > Jharkhand
given below: (d) Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh >
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C Maharashtra > Odisha
(b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 27. Which of the following statements are correct
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-C, 4-D regarding the “Indian Forest and Wood
Certification Scheme” ?
24. Consider the following paragraph: 1. It is launched in India by Environment
‘This biome is renowned for its cold, harsh winters Ministry in collaboration with UN REDD
and relatively short, cool summers. The rainfall is 2. It is not applicable for trees outside forest like
around 50 mm annually. Species like moose, plantations.
wolves, bears, and lynx can be found here. The
3. It is an alternative to private foreign
productivity of the ecosystem is low. Its soil,
certification agencies.
characterised by low pH from excessive leaching,
renders it unsuitable for agriculture.’ How many of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which Ecosystem is described above?
(a) Tundra (a) Only one statement
(b) Taiga (b) Only two statement
(c) Savanna (c) All three statement
(d) Tropical deciduous (d) None of the statement


28. Which of the following are correct as per the recent 30. Consider the following statements
Indian State of Forest Report, 2021? Characteristics Vegetation
1. There is net decrease in forest cover at 1. Shed leaves in particular : Boreal
national level time of the year
2. There is net increase in forest cover at North 2. Podzol soil and trees shed : Temperate
Eastern states their leaves in cold season deciduous
3. Arunachal Pradesh shows highest gain in 3. Podzol soil and trees do not : Steppe
forest gain. shed frequently
Select the correct answer using the code given 4. Shed their leaves and have : Savanna
below stunted trees
(a) 1 and 2 only How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) 2 and 3 only matched?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) Only three
29. Consider the following statements about forest (d) All four
fires:
1. Lightning strikes are the leading cause of
forest fires worldwide.
2. Small fires are good for rainforest 31. Which of the following are incorrect regarding the
3. Chir Pine trees are susceptible to forest fires characteristics of the desert ecosystem?
How many of the statements given above are (a) Roots are long and well spaced out
correct? (b) Seeds of herbs are covered with thin layer to
(a) Only one protect them
(b) Only two (c) Leaves, and the foliage is either waxy,
(c) All three leathery or needle-shaped to reduce water loss
(d) None through transpiration.
(d) Animals have short reproductive cycle
******


CHAPTER - 4 : AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM
32. Consider the following statements with reference How many of the statements given above are
aquatic ecosystems: correct?
1. Brackish water ecosystems exclusively harbor (a) Only one
species from both freshwater and marine (b) Only two
ecosystems.. (c) All three
2. Freshwater ecosystems constitute bodies of (d) None
water on land with a continuous flow of
freshwater and low salt content (less than 5 35. With reference to the aquatic zones, Consider the
ppt). following statements
3. Running water ecosystem can be termed as 1. Photic zone is the region which extends from
lentic and static water is termed as a lotic the surface of the water body to where the
ecosystem. level of light is 1% of that surface.
How many of the statements given above are 2. Aphotic zone is the lower layers of water
incorrect? bodies where light penetration is restricted.
(a) Only one 3. Both Photosynthesis and respiration take place
(b) Only two in aphotic zone whereas only Photosynthesis
(c) All three takes place in photic zone .
(d) None How many of the statements given above are
correct?
33. Consider the following species of aquatic (a) Only one
ecosystem (b) Only two
Category Definition (c) All three
1. Plankton : Microscopic floating (d) None
organisms
2. Periphyton : Organisms attached to the 36. Which of the following statements best defines the
plant's stem or root term "Waterkill" ?
3. Benthos : Organisms living at the (a) This is a condition of an aquatic ecosystem
bottom of water mass where the dissolved oxygen gets completely
4. Nekton : Powerful swimmers depleted and fishes can no longer survive.
(b) Process of dumping of toxic chemicals into
Match the above pairs the water bodies
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) Killing of smaller fishes by the invasive alien
(b) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A species in an aquatic ecosystem
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B (d) None of the above
(d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A.
37. With regards to the mangrove ecosystem, consider
34. Consider the following statements regarding the following statements
aquatic ecosystem 1. Mangroves are characterised as small, non-
1. Turbidity limits the light penetrative capacity flowering trees or shrubs that thrive along
and affects photosynthetic activities of a water coastlines, featuring succulent leaves.
ecosystem 2. Vivipary is a distinctive trait of mangroves
2. The extent of plant distribution depends on the wherein seeds germinate while still attached
depth of the penetration of the sunlight. to the parent tree.
3. Aquatic organisms generally have a narrow 3. Mangroves possess specialised roots known as
temperature tolerance limit. breathing roots or pneumatophores.


incorrect? 40. With reference to wetland ecosystem, Consider the
(a) Only one (b) Only two following statements
(c) All three (d) None 1. Wetlands are ecotones, serving as transitional
areas between terrestrial and aquatic
38. Consider the following statements regarding corals ecosystems.
1. Corals are often referred to as the rainforests 2. Currently, India has designated 75 of its
of the seas and are marine invertebrates. wetlands as wetlands of national importance
2. Corals form mutualistic relationships with under the Ramsar Convention..
algae called zooxanthellae to survive. 3. Sundarbans are the largest Ramsar wetland
3. Black corals are filter feeders and consume site in India while Renuka wetland is the
zooplankton, thus they do not rely on sunlight. smallest one .
How many of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
39. Consider the following statements about seagrass (d) None
and seaweed.
1. Seaweed is classified as a macroalgae, while 41. Consider the following statements regarding kelp
seagrass is categorised as a marine flowering forest ecosystem
plant. 1. Kelps are terrestrial grasslands that support a
2. Seaweed does not produce flowers, whereas huge diversity of species.
seagrass does. 2. Recent studies reveal that kelp forests are
3. Seagrasses are capable of inhabiting various increasing due to the warming of the ocean as
substrates ranging from rock to mud. the result of climate change.
4. In India, seagrasses are abundant in the Palk Which of the statements given above is/are
Strait and the Gulf of Mannar. incorrect?
5. Seaweeds are often referred to as ecosystem (a) Only 1
engineers and are also known as the "lungs of (b) Only 2
the sea." (c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) Only two ·
(b) Only three ******
(c) Only four
(d) All five

CHAPTER - 5: ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION
42. Ozone layer depletion is a phenomenon with wide 45. National ambient air quality standards (NAAQS)
ranging harmful implications . Consider the and Air quality index (AQI) measures the air
following statements regarding various measures quality . Consider the following statements about
taken to mitigate these effects. the differences between NAAQS and AQI.
1. As of the present, India has not ratified the 1. NAAQS is more technical than AQI
Vienna Convention, citing concerns regarding 2. AQI has 8 major pollutants whereas NAAQS
its perceived discriminatory provisions. has 12 pollutants
2. Environment ministry has set up a national 3. Carbon dioxide is of the major pollutants in
ozone unit for effective and timely NAAQS but not in AQI
implementation of Montreal protocol Which of the above given statements are/is correct?
3. As of today, India has only phased out 50% of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141b. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one of the given statement is correct 46. Bregoli is often mentioned in the news.
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct (a) An aquatic herb having medicinal properties
(c) All statements are correct to cure cancer
(d) None of the statements is correct (b) A by product of paper industry used to treat
oil spills
43. Fly ash is unwanted unburnt residue of coal (c) An AI based software having database of 71
combustion in a coal thermal power plant. It languages
composition includes -: (d) A seaweed majorly found in tropical waters
1. Aluminium silicate
2. Silicon dioxide 47. Consider the following statements
3. Organic carbon Statement I: Non ionising radiation have low
penetration power and affect only those
4. Calcium oxide
components which absorbs them
5. Nitrogen
Statement II: Non ionising radiation include long
How many of the statements given above are wave radiations such as ultraviolet rays
correct?
(a) Only one of them the above statements?
(b) Only two of them (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) All of them and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(d) None of them Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
44. Match the following pairs: and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
Pollutants Sources for Statement-I
1. Sulphur oxides : Thermal power plants (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
2. Mercury : Acid Rain (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
3. Hydrocarbons : Fossil fuels
4. Asbestos : Lumbering Industry
1. BOD measures the amount of oxygen utilised
How many of the given pairs are correctly
by aerobic microorganisms to break down
matched?
organic matter in water.
(a) Only one pair
2. measures the amount of oxygen needed to
(b) Only two pars
oxidise total organic and inorganic pollutants
(c) Only three pairs in water chemically without the involvement
(d) All the pairs of microbes.


Which of the given statements is/are incorrect? 53. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Nitrogen pollution
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Nitrogen though occur naturally it becomes
pollutant when it escapes into environment
49. Consider the following pairs regarding noise limits: and react with other compounds
Category of area Limits in db 2. Agriculture is only sources of nitrogen
(Noise) pollution
1. Industrial area. : 75 to 70 3. International nitrogen initiative is the joint
2. Residential area. : 65 to 55 effort of UNEP and WWF
3. Educational : 55 to 45 How many of the statements given above is/are
institutions incorrect?
How many of the given pairs are correctly (a) Only one (b) Only two
matched? (c) All three (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 54. With reference to smog consider the following
(c) All three statements:
(d) None 1. Smog is a harmful mixture of fog, dust and
Air pollutants.
50. Prior informed consent procedure is part of? 2. Photochemical smog is also called as reducing
(a) Basel convention smog
(b) Stockholm convention 3. Winter smog has high concentration of
(c) Rotterdam convention sulphur dioxide in air
(d) Vienna convention 4. Los Angeles smog is produced when sunlight
reacts with nitrogen oxide and volatile organic
51. Consider the following techniques of compounds
bioremediation: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Bioventing (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
2. Biosparging (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
3. Bio reactor
4. Biopiling 55. Consider the following statements:
5. Bio augmenting Statement-I: When the pH of the normal rain
Which of the statements given above are related to increases above a certain level it is called acid rain
in-situ bioremediation? Statement-II: Acid rain contains sulfuric and
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2,4 and 5 only Nitric acid which are formed from the oxides of
(c) 1,3 and 5 only (d) 1,2 and 5 only sulphur and Nitrogen
52. Consider the following statements about the the above statements?
Gothenburg Protocol, 1999. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
1. Also known as multi-effect protocol, it was and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
adopted by members of G20. Statement-I
2. The protocol sets national emission ceilings (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
for four pollutants: Sulphur dioxide, nitrogen and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
oxides, volatile organic compounds and for Statement-I
ammonia.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
incorrect
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct

56. People suffer from byssinosis disease due to 60. Which of the following techniques is used to
exposure to? remove large diameter suspended particles from a
(a) Silica dust gas?
(b) Coal dust (a) Phytoremediation
(c) Cotton dust (b) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Asbestos (c) Gravitational setting
(d) Torrefaction
57. Consider the Following statements regarding
Central Pollution Control Board of India (CPCB) 61. Low emission (GREEN) Crackers are developed
1. The CPCB is a statutory organisation by?
established under the The Air (Prevention and
(a) IIT-Madras
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(b) CSIR-NEERI
2. It comes under the aegis of Ministry of
Environment Forest and Climate Change. (c) Innovative and Technical wing of NITI Aayog
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (d) Both A and C
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 62. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat
(c) Both 1 and 2 stage norms or Bharat stage emissions standards:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Environment ministry is responsible for
deciding the fuel standards in the country and
58. Consider the following statements regarding the Central pollution control board
Graded response action plan(GRAP). implements these standards.
1. It is a set of stratified actions to be enforced in 2. BS-6 fuel will bring down sulphur content by
the national capital region when pollution 5 times from the current BS-4 levels.
level reaches certain specified limit 3. The cost of producing BS-6 fuels will be
2. It is being implemented by Environment lesser as compared to BS-4 fuels.
Pollution (Prevention and control) authority 4. For every kilometre BS-6 car will emit 80%
(EPCA) less particulate matter.
3. It works throughout the year to implement Choose the correct Options from below:
actions related to abatement of pollution (a) Only one of the given statements is correct.
Which of the given statements Is/are incorrect? (b) Only two of the given statements are correct.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three of the given statements are correct.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the given statements are correct.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
63. Consider the following statements regarding the
Kigali amendment.
59. Which of the following statements is correct about
1. It is a legally binding agreement signed at the
India's Intended Nationally Determined
28th meeting of the parties to the Montreal
Contributions (INDCs).
protocol.
(a) Improve the emissions intensity of its GDP by
45% below 2005 levels by 2030 2. The parties are expected to phase out the
manufacturing of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
(b) Increase the share of non fossil fuels based
electricity to 50% by 2030 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Enhance forest cover which will act as a (a) 1 only
Carbon sink to 2.5 to 4.5 billion tonnes of (b) 2 only
Carbon dioxide . (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All are correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2


64. Consider the following statements regarding E- 68. As per the norms of the Comprehensive
Waste management rules, 2016: Environmental Pollution index (CEPI), which of
1. Over 21 products have been specified under the following statements are correct?
the purview of the rules including compact 1. Increasing value of the CEPI denotes the
fluorescent lamps and other mercury increasing degree of pollution from the
containing lamps. industrial sector.
2. Provision of extended producer responsibility 2. CPCB releases the Comprehensive
has been introduced for the first time. Environmental Pollution Index in India.
3. State governments have been assigned the 3. Under the new categorization, the red
duty to collect and channelise the orphan category industries and white category
products to recyclers. industries need consent to operate in some
areas.
Choose the correct Options from below:
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three (d) None
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
65. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Namami Gange Programme:
1. It is being operated under the Department of
water resources, river development and Ganga 69. Consider the following terms:
rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti . 1. Long lived
2. The program is being implemented by the 2. Soluble in fat
National Mission for Clean Ganga along with 3. Biologically inactive
NITI Aayog. 4. Mobile
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the above mentioned terms are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only prerequisite for biomagnification to occur?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 3 and 4
66. Consider the following statements with respect to
National Green Tribunal: 70. This process involves decomposition of solid waste
in the absence of oxygen. It usually occurs under
1. India became the 1st country in the world to
high pressure and temperatures of up to 430
set up a specialised Tribunal for the
degrees Celsius. This process is called as–
environment related matters.
(a) Incineration
2. As per the National Green Tribunal Act (2010),
(b) Pyrolysis
NGT is endowed with the suo-motu powers to
take up environmental issues across the country. (c) Combustion
3. The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure (d) Gravitational settling
laid down under Code of Civil Procedure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 71. What are the causes of ocean acidification?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Disposal of industrial and sewage waste in the
oceans.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 only
2. Growing rate of deforestation
3. Burning of fossil fuels such as coal,
67. Waste Minimisation Circle (WM(C) is a government-
Petroleum, etc.
supported initiative that promotes waste minimization
4. Genetically modified crop production
in India. This project is being carried out by-
(a) National productivity Council
correct?
(b) State pollution Control Boards
(a) Only one (b) Only two ·
(c) Urban local bodies
(c) Only three (d) All Four
(d) Niti Aayog

CHAPTER - 6 : RENEWABLE ENERGY
72. Consider the following statements regarding solar 75. Wind energy resource map of India is launched by?
thermal electricity (a) Indian meteorological Department
1. It utilises a method where a liquid is heated to (b) Ministry of environment, forest and climate
generate steam using mirrored surfaces that change
reflect sunlight. (c) Niti Aayog
2. The electricity produced is initially in the (d) National Institute of wind energy
form of direct current and is then converted to
alternating current using inverters.. 76. What are the variables that determine how much
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? electricity a turbine can produce?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Wind speed
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Blade radius
3. Air density
73. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
international solar alliance: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The International Solar Alliance is an action- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
oriented, member-driven, collaborative
platform for increased deployment of solar 77. Consider the following statements regarding
energy technologies. hydropower potential in India
2. Only the tropical countries are eligible to 1. Hydropower potential in India is majorly
become members of International solar located in Northern and North Eastern regions
alliance(IS(A) of India.
3. The United Nations General Assembly has 2. Arunachal pradesh has the highest unexploited
granted observer status to the international hydropower potential in India.
solar alliance 3. India has over 180 GW of pumped storage
4. All the members states of United nations are potential.
now member of ISA How many of the statements given above is/are
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?: (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three (d) None
(b) Only two 78. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three Statement-I: India lags behind major countries like
(d) All four China, USA and Canada in hydropower generation
Statement-II: India is devoid of major river systems
74. Arrange the following states in decreasing order of Which one of the following is correct in respect of
their solar power generation potential. the above statements?
1. Gujarat (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. Maharashtra and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
3. Andhra Pradesh Statement-I
4. Uttar pradesh (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
of Statement-I
below:
(c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(a) 1-3-2-4
incorrect.
(b) 1-4-3-2
(d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
(c) 2-3-1-4
correct
(d) 2-1-3-4


79. Consider the following pairs: 83. Consider the following statements regarding the
Hydropower projects. Associated National Mission on use of biomass in coal based
River thermal power plants.
1. Srisailam hydroPower : Mahanadi 1. One of the objectives of the mission is to
project. bring down the levels of biomass Co-firing
2. Rihand hydro Power : Rihand from present 20% to 5% to have a larger share
project. of Carbon neutral power generation.
2. The mission will run on a pilot basis for 10
3. Tehri hydro Project : Testa
years with further extension of 5 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Pong hydroProject : Beas
incorrect?
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
84 Consider the following advantages of
(c) 2 and 4 only GEOTHERMAL energy:
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Geothermal is the only renewable energy that
is always available to humans.
80. Consider the following statements: 2. Geothermal is a site specific source of
1. Ocean thermal energy conversion(OTE(C) is a renewable energy.
process for producing energy by harnessing 3. Geothermal is cleanest form of energy without
the temperature difference between surface air any associated pollutants
of the ocean water and surface ocean waters. 4. Generation of Geothermal energy is cheaper
2. Recently an Ocean thermal Energy than any other form of energy produced
Conversion Plant was set up in Andaman and currently.
Nicobar.. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?:
incorrect? (a) Only One (b) Only Two
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Only three (d) All four
85. What are the challenges related to waste to energy
81. It is a scientific process whereby anaerobic plants?
microorganisms in an anaerobic environment (a) Low calorific value
decompose biodegradable matter producing (b) High costs of energy production
methane rich biomass and effluent. This scientific (c) Improper assessments
process is called as- (d) All of the above
(a) Pyrolysis
(b) Anaerobic digestion 86. Consider the following statements about the
(c) Incineration Sustainable alternative to affordable transport
(d) Cogeneration (SATAT) Scheme.
1. The scheme has set the target for production
82. Coal gasification is a process in which coal is of 15 million metric tonnes of compressed
partially oxidised with air, oxygen to produce biogas(CBG) by 2023.
Syngas. Components of syngas are- 2. Under this initiative the ministry of petroleum
(a) Carbon monoxide is to set up plants and supply CBG to oil
marketing companies.
(b) Hydrogen
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) All of the above

CHAPTER - 7: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
87. Consider the following case study regarding marine 90. Match the following pairs-
organisms: Dolphin species Habitat/Status
Kanhaiya and his friends were playing in the close 1. Ganges river : State Aquatic
proximity of a nearby river where they came across dolphin animal of Assam,
a pile of dead marine organisms floating on the Uttar Pradesh and
surface of the water. With reference to the above Bihar
case study what could be the possible reasons 2. Indus river dolphin : Aquatic animal of
behind the death of those organisms? Punjab
1. Increase in the concentration of Carbon 3. Irrawaddy dolphin : Chilika lake in
dioxide in water Odisha
2. Depletion of oxygen levels in water How many of the above pairs are correctly
3. Increase in the concentration of waste matched?
materials including heavy metals in the water. (a) Only one
4. Excess algal growth in water. (b) Only two
How many of the statements given above is/are (c) All three
correct: (d) None
(c) Only three (d) All four 91. Consider the following statements about decline in
population of Ganges river Dolphin besides
88. Captivity of animal has negative consequences, as poaching?
seen in dolphins and whales, some major 1. Construction of dams and barrages in the river
consequences seen across the world due to 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in the
captivity of animals are: rivers
1. Decrease in the lifespan of animals. 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets
2. Temporary or permanent deformity in the 4. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agri
bodies of animals. chemicals in the crop fields. Lying in the close
3. Changes in the behaviour of animals and some vicinity of the rivers.
disorders like persistent depressive disorder is How many of the statements given above are
also noticed. correct?:
4. Ethical issues like social and emotional well (a) Only one
being of animals.
(b) Only two
Choose the correct options from below:
(c) Only three
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 ,3 and 4
89. Consider the following regarding Whale Shark: Electromagnetic radiation(EMR):
1. The Whale Shark is the largest fish on the 1. Electromagnetic waves travel faster than the
earth and a keystone species in the marine speed of light but slower than speed of light in
ecosystem. vacuum.
2. The whale shark in India is found only on the 2. Electromagnetic Radiation has neither mass
western coast near Lakshadweep. nor charge and travels through tiny packets of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? radiant energy called Photons.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


93. Consider the following statements regarding How many of the statements given above are
infrared radiation. correct?
1. Infrared radiation is a type of Ionising (a) Only one
radiation which has a longer wavelength than (b) Only two
visible light. (c) Only three
2. Due to their property of conducting heat, (d) All Four
infrared waves are used in physical therapy
for heating purposes.
3. Prolonged exposure to Infrared radiation can
1. Indonesia and Malaysia contribute to more
lead to a gradual and irreversible opacity of
than 80% of world palm oil production.
the lens.
2. India and China constitutes more than 30% of
How many of the statements given above is/are
world palm oil imports
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
94. Environment Protection Act of 1986 is a significant

legislation in India that focuses on the prevention,
control and abatement of environmental pollution.
This law can be related to which of the following 97. Consider the following statement about Genetically
provisions of the Indian Constitution? Engineered tree:
(a) Fundamental Duties 1. In India the first experiment with genetically
(b) Directive Principle of State Policies engineered trees was with Coconut.
(c) Preamble 2. At present, the commercial cultivation of GM
trees is not allowed in India
(d) Both 1 and 2
3. In India, the use of GM trees is regulated
under the Environment Protection Act, 1986
95. Consider the following statement regarding Bees:
1. Male honey bees, called drones, are the
correct?
primary foragers for the colony.
(a) Only one
2. The queen honeybee mates with multiple
(b) Only two
drones from other colonies to ensure genetic
diversity within her own colony.. (c) All three
3. India is one of the major producers of honey (d) None
in the world
4. Colony collapse disorder is related the death
of honey bees.
******


CHAPTER - 8: ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT
98. Consider the following statements with reference to 101. Consider the following statements with reference to
Environment Impact Assessment(EI(A) - Rapid-EIA and Comprehensive-EIA
1. EIA was introduced in 1930 to anticipate the 1. Both types of EIA require the coverage of all
effect of development activity on the significant environmental impact and their
environment. mitigation
2. Rapid EIA achieves speedier appraisal
2. EIA comes under the provisions of
through collection of data from all four
environment protection act 1986.
seasons in one sweep.
3. EIA has been mandated compulsorily for 20 3. Review of rapid EIA shows whether a
categories of projects, which requires comprehensive EIA is warranted or not.
environment clearance. How many of the statements given above are
incorrect? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
102. Consider the following statement with reference to
public hearing under Environment Impact
99. Consider the following projects with respect to Assessment:
Environment impact assessment(EIA): 1. Central pollution control board shall cause the
1. Bulk drug and pharma notice for environmental public hearing
2. Sericulture industry 2. All persons affected and not affected due to
3. Primary metallurgical industry the project can participate in public hearing.
4. Asbestos and asbestos product Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the projects given above do not (a) 1 only
require clearance under EIA? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
103. Consider the following statements with reference to
(d) All four project location under Environment Impact
Assessment Rules 2006:
100. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Industrial project can be set up in riverine
various stages of Environment Impact Assessment: floodplains
1. Screening is the first stage in the assessment 2. Project can be set up within 100 metres of the
process, where all A and B category projects Estuary boundary.
are scrutinised. 3. Near coastal area, a distance of at least 500
metres (0.5 Kms) from the High Tide Line
2. Public consultation stage is the last stage in
(HTL) must be maintained
the assessment process to ascertain the views
of the local people.
correct?
Which of the statements given is/are correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


104. Which EIA tool is used to identify action effect 107. Consider the following statements with reference to
impact relation? scoping in EIA:
(a) Checklist 1. It is a systematic exercise that establishes the
(b) Network boundaries of EIA.
(c) Interaction matrices 2. Scoping clearly indicates what is relevant and
(d) SWOT what is not relevant within EIA.
3. Scoping serves as a work plan for the entire
105. Consider the following statements: EIA process.
Statement-I: Strategic environmental impact Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
assessment is a more advanced tool in (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
environmental management. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II: Strategic environmental impact
assessment is applicable at level of policy , 108 “It Specifies qualitative and quantitative
planning and programmes information collected during the initial phase of
Which one of the following is correct in respect of EIA”. Which of the following best describes the
the above statements? above given statement?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (a) Scoping
and Statement-II is the correct explanation of (b) Screening
Statement-II (c) Baseline description
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (d) Mitigation
but Statement-II is not correct explanation of
Statement-II
incorrect
correct
106. What is the contingency plan in EIA?

(a) A plan of action to prevent an emergency and
steps to be taken when emergency occurs
(b) A set of guidelines ensuring that the
development projects will remain within its
boundaries
(c) A plan describing the measure that will be
taken to contain any waste produced by the
project
(d) A set of guidelines for carrying out EIA.
******

CHAPTER - 9 : BIODIVERSITY
109. With reference to the level of biodiversity, 112. Consider the following statements
Consider the following pairs 1. Species richness refers to the measure of
Biodiversity Feature relative abundance of different species while
1. Genetic diversity Unique genetic species evenness refers to the number of
features within a species found in a community.
species 2. Low evenness indicates the domination of few
2. Community diversity Different variety species in the community.
of living species in Which of the statements given above is/are
an area incorrect?
3. Species diversity Interacting groups (a) 1 only
of different species (b) 2 only
in a habitat (c) both 1 and 2
How many pairs above given are matched (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correctly?
(a) Only one 113. Match the following pairs regarding types of
(b) Only two biodiversity
(c) Only three Biodiversity Feature
(d) None 1. Alpha : Overall diversity of different
diversity ecosystems
110. Which of the following biodiversity services are 2. Beta diversity : Species diversity in
considered to be biological services? particular ecosystem
1. Food 3. Gamma : Change in number of species
2. Breeding stocks diversity between the ecosystems
3. Ornamental plants Select the correct answer using the code given
4. Wood products below:
5. Soil formation and protection (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
Select the correct answer by using the code given (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
below: (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-B
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 114. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 keystone species.
1. Species whose removal or addition from an
111. Consider the following statements regarding animal ecosystem can significantly alter the stability
biodiversity. and distribution of species within the
1. Insects contributes to more than 50% of the ecosystem.
total animal taxonomy biodiversity 2. The loss of keystone species can lead to
2. Fishes occupy the highest biodiversity substantial degradation of the entire
composition among the vertebrate species. ecosystem.
3. Fungi and angiosperm occupies more than 3. Generally top predators of an ecosystem
60% of global plant biodiversity occupy the position of keystone species.
correct? incorrect?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None


115. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above are
Statement I: Presence or absence of indicator correct?
species reflects the Environmental condition since (a) Only one
they are highly sensitive to changes in (b) Only two
environment. (c) All three
Statement II: Indicator species act as the early (d) None
warning mechanism for an ecosystem
Which of the following is correct in respect of the 119. With reference to conservation of Biodiversity,
above statements? Consider the following statements
(a) Both statements are correct and statement 2 is 1. Onsite conservation of genetic resources of
the correct explanation for statement 1. plants and animal species in natural
(b) Both statements 1 and2 are correct but ecosystems is called in-situ conservation.
statement 2 is not an explanation for 2. Ex-Situ conservation refers to the taking out
statement1. of species from its natural Environment and
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is placing them in a new environment with
incorrect special care.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is 3. Environment protection Act of 1986 provides
correct. for in-situ conservation of biodiversity in
India.
116. The term "Stable Community " in biodiversity best How many of the statements given above are
refers to which of the following statements? incorrect?
(a) A community in which there is minimal (a) Only one
variation in productivity from year to year. (b) Only two
(b) These are an illusionary group of polar (c) All three
ecosystems which mitigate climate change. (d) None
(c) Practically there is no such Community
existing as a stable community.
120. Which of the followings are part of in-situ
(d) None of the above conservation of biodiversity:
1. Sacred groves
117. With respect to endemism in biodiversity, consider 2. National parks
the following statements:
3. Gene sanctuary
1. This is the ecological state of a species that
4. Biosphere reserves
exclusively inhabits a narrowly defined
5. Conservation reserves
geographic location or a distinct habitat type.
6. Zoological parks
2. A particular organism demonstrating
cosmopolitan distribution signifies its Select the correct answer using the code given
capability to thrive across diverse ecosystems. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 6
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
118. Consider the following statements
1. The practice of systematically exploring 121. Consider the following statements:
biodiversity to identify commercially valuable 1. Eco Sensitive zones are acting as shock
genetic resources is known as bioprospecting.. absorbers or transition zones for ensuring
2. Traditional knowledge and genetic resources more protection to National parks and
are taken away from biodiverse countries Wildlife sanctuaries.
without their permission is called Biopiracy. 2. Wildlife protection act, 1972 provides the
3. Biopiracy in India is illegal under Wildlife legality of eco-sensitive zones in India.
protection Act, 1972.


3. Conservation reserves are land of private or 123. Match the following pairs:
Community surrounding protected area while SPECIES FEATURES
Community reserves are land owned by state 1. Flagship A. Saving the entire
government species ecosystem by
How many of the statements given above are conserving it.
correct? 2. Umbrella B. Dominant primary
(a) Only one species producer In an
(b) Only two ecosystem
(c) All three 3. Foundational C. Choose to represent an
(d) None species Environmental cause
and conservation of an
122. Arrange the following protected areas in regards to ecosystem
the degree of protection: Match the correct pair using the code given below:
1. National parks (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
2. Wildlife sanctuary (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
3. Reserved forest (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
4. Protected forest (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
below:
(a) 1<2<3<4
(b) 1>2>3>4
(c) 2>3>1>4
(d) 3>1>4>2
******

CHAPTER - 10 : INDIAN BIODIVERSITY
124 With reference to the biodiversity of India , 127. Consider the following statements with regards to
consider the following statements: the floral diversities.
1. India accounts for 17% of area of global 1. Fungi is part of the plant kingdom while
biodiversity hotspot and considered to be one Bacteria comes under the animal kingdom.
of the mega diverse countries of the world. 2. Gymnosperms are also called naked seeded
2. 8 biodiversity realms , 10 biogeographic zones plants and angiosperms are called closed
and 25 biogeographic provinces are found in seeded plants.
India 3. In terms of floral diversity, India ranks 10th in
Select the correct answer using the code given the world and accounts for nearly 11% of
below: global plants.
(a) 1 only How many of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three (d) None
125. Which of the following are part of India's 128. High level working groups headed by
biogeographic zones? Kasturirangan and Madhav Gadgil are associated
1. Deccan peninsula with which of the following?
2. Chottanagpur plateau (a) To come up with a specific conservation plan
3. Western ghats for endangered species in northeast India.
4. Eastern Himalaya (b) For recommending natural sites to list under
UNESCO's world heritage sites.
5. Gangetic plains
(c) Both are expert Committees which are
6. Kutchch
appointed to give recommendations for
western ghats conservation.
below:
(d) For the reintroduction of cheetah into the
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5 only
Indian grassland ecosystem.
(b) 1, 3, 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 only
129. Which of the following biodiversity hotspots are
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 found in India
1. Indo-burma
126. With respect to fauna diversity, Consider the 2. Central Indian
following statements
3. Western ghats and Sri lanka
1. Invertebrates contribute a small percentage of
4. Himalaya
all faunal diversity while vertebrates account
Select the correct option
for a major part of fauna.
(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 2, 3, 4 only
2. Annelids and arthropods are part of
invertebrate Animals while reptiles and aves (c) 1, 3, 4 only (d) all the above
are part of vertebrates.
3. Crustaceans have an internal skeleton made of 130. With reference to the species recovery programme
bones. of India. Consider the following statements
How many of the statements given above are 1. It is one of the 3 sub components of the
incorrect? Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats
(a) Only one scheme.
(b) Only two 2. This recovery programme for critically
endangered species in India currently there are
(c) All three
22 wildlife species under this.
(d) None


3. The National board for wildlife recently added 132. Which of the following animals are not listed under
Caracel into this list, which is found in parts species recovery programme of critically
of Gujarat and Rajasthan. endangered species.
How many of the statements given above are 1. Nilgiri tahr
correct? 2. Asian wild buffaloes
(a) Only one 3. Asiatic lion
(b) Only two 4. Clouded leopard
(c) All three 5. Nicobar megapode
(d) None 6. Humpback whale
131. Consider the following statements regarding the (a) 2, 5 and 6
National Biodiversity Act of 2002 (b) 2 and 5
1. This act provides for the establishment of a 3 (c) 2 Only
tier structure with national authority for (d) None.
biodiversity at centre and state biodiversity
boards at states.
2. Recent amendment to this act provides for the
133. Which of the following activities are prohibited in
exemption of permission for AYUSH related
eco sensitive zones under Environmental protection
research.
act, 1986
3. Provision of benefit sharing out of
1. Felling of trees
biodiversity resources are deliberately
dropped from the act for conservation related 2. Major hydroelectric projects
issues. 3. Drastic change in agricultural system
How many of the statements given above are 4. Rain water harvesting
incorrect? 5. Commercial mining
(a) Only one 6. Dairy farming
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) All three (a) 2 and 5.
(d) None (b) 1, 2 and 5.
(c) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
******


CHAPTER - 11: SCHEDULE ANIMALS OF WPA 1972
134. Consider the following regarding “WildLife landscape of Central

(Protection) Amendment Act (WLPA), 2022” and Southern Asia
1. The amendment Reduced the number of 3. Slender Loris C. Wet evergreen and
schedules for specially protected animals from mixed deciduous
4 to 3 forests
2. The amendment Removed the schedule for Select the correct answer using the code given
vermin species. below:
3. The amendment Removed the schedule for (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
protected plant species (c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-C (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
Which of the statements given above is/are 137. Consider the following paragraph about a species:
incorrect? This species is commonly observed in large flocks
(a) 1 only during the winter season at the Coringa Wildlife
(b) 2 and 3 Sanctuary. It breeds colonially, often choosing
(c) 1 and 3 expansive, exposed sand-bars and islands for
(d) 2 only nesting sites. Notably, the Chambal River serves as
a crucial nesting site for this species.
135. Which of the following species are endemic to Which of the following species described above ?
India? (a) Gangetic dolphin
1. Elvira rat (b) Vaquita porpoise
2. Namdapha flying squirrel (c) Indian skimmer
3. Pygmy hog (d) Purple frog
4. Asian elephant
5. Asiatic lion 138. Consider the following statements
6. Sangai deer 1. Sangai deer is found only in Manipur
7. Chinkara 2. Long billed Vulture is found only to the north
Select the correct answer using the code given of Ganges
below: 3. Lesser florican is endemic to Western India
(a) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 How many pairs above given are correct?
(c) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 (a) One pair only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 (b) Two pairs only
(c) All three pairs
136. Match the following pairs: (d) None
Species Habitat
1. Great
Hornbill
Indian A. Tropical scrub and
deciduous forests
******
2. Snow Leopard B. Mountainous

CHAPTER - 12 : ANIMAL DIVERSITY OF INDIA
139. Which of the following species are “Endangered”? 143. Consider the following paragraph about ‘X’
1. Lesser florican species:
2. Red crowned roofed turtle This species is insectivorous and is native to Indian
3. Sangai subcontinent. While it thrives in various regions, it
is notably absent in the elevated mountains of
4. Greater one horned Rhino
Himachal and Jammu and Kashmir, as well as the
How many of the statements given above are arid deserts of Rajasthan. Additionally, it displays a
correct? strong affinity for honey. Unlike some other
(a) Only one (b) Only two · species, it does not hibernate and is known for
(c) Only three (d) All Four carrying its offspring on its back.
Which species is described in above paragraph:
140. Consider the following regarding “ Greater One (a) Black panther
horned Rhino” (b) Asiatic black bear
1. It is Asia’s largest Rhino species (c) Chiru
2. Gestation period of the Greater One horned (d) Sloth bear
Rhino is 16 months.
3. Their horn size has reduced due to their 144. Consider the following statements:
hunting. Statement I: Diversity of coral reefs decreases in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? higher latitudes up to about 30° north and south,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 beyond which coral reefs are usually not found.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement-II: Distribution of coral reefs is
determined by temperature and the salinity (salt
141. Which of the following are nocturnal animals? content) of the water.
1. Slender loris Which one of the following is correct in respect of
2. Indian pangolin
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
3. Fishing cat
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
4. Elvira rat Statement-I
5. Black buck (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the statements given above are and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
correct? for Statement-1
(a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) Only four (d) Only five incorrect
142. Consider the following regarding Olive Ridley correct
Turtle
1. These are Smallest and most abundant of all 145. Which of the following are correct regarding
sea turtles. “Marsupial”?
2. International olive ridley turtle protection and 1. Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
rehabilitation centre will be set up in Odisha 2. Most of the marsupials reside in warmer
3. It is categorised as Endangered by IUCN climates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. For marsupials, the gestation period can be as
short as 10.5 days.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct code
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3


(c) 2 and 3
146. Which of the following birds visit India during (d) None
Winter?
1. Siberian crane 149. Which of the following is correct regarding Tiger?
2. Asian Koel 1. Tigers are social cats which live in groups
3. Black Crowned Night Heron called prides.
4. Wood Sandpiper 2. West Bengal has the maximum number of
5. Greater Flamingo tigers followed by Karnataka and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Uttarakhand.
(a) 1 and 5 (b) 1, 4 and 5 3. More than 50% of tigers in India are found
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 outside tiger reserves.
How many pairs above given are correct?
147. Match the following pairs: (a) One pair only
Period Features (b) Two pairs only
1. Second mass : Mainly affected marine (c) All three pairs
extinction life due to ocean anoxia (d) None
2. Third mass : age of dinosaurs came
extinction to an end 150. Which of the following are correct regarding the
3. Fifth mass : called Great dying and Central Asian Flyway?
extinction. most severe known 1. India has over 90% of the bird species known
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly to use this migratory route.
matched? 2. Convention on Migratory Species is the only
(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A global convention specialising in the
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B conservation of migratory species.
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
148. Consider the following regarding dolphins: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Unlike South Asian River dolphins, Irrawaddy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Dolphin lives in brackish water near coasts
2. Vikramshila sanctuary is the only sanctuary
for dolphins in India ******
3. Ganga dolphin also found in Sapta Koshi river
of Nepal
Which of the following are incorrect ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only

CHAPTER - 13 : PLANT DIVERSITY OF INDIA
151. Consider the following statements regarding plant (c) It denotes diversity of crops cultivating in a
diversity of India single hectare of land
1. India is the mega diverse country in terms of (d) It denotes diversity of genes in a single crop
having plant richness and holding tenth of an ecosystem.
position globally
2. India accounts for 9% global recorded plants 155. The term "Dieback" refers to which of the
over 18000 flowering plant species . following statements given below ?
3. Angiosperms are the most numerous plant (a) It is one of the adaptive techniques of plants to
group in India accounting for 40% of the avoid adverse conditions.
floral diversity of the country. (b) Mass dying of plants due to its inability to
How many of the statements given above are tolerate pests attacks.
correct? (c) Destruction of field crops due to the attack of
(a) Only one (b) Only two wild animals in searching of food
(c) All three (d) None (d) Predation of invasive alien species causes the
mass death of plant species.
1. Eastern ghats have the most fungi diversity, 156. Which of the following insectivorous plants can be
followed by western ghats and western found in India?
himalayas. 1. Aldrovanda
2. Lichens are rarely found in rivers and streams 2. Butterwort
but mostly found in groundwater and wetland 3. Bladderwort
3. Mosses are the most abundant species of 4. Pitcher plants
bryophyte in India . 5. Sundew
How many of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
incorrect?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
157. With reference to classification of plants. Match
153. Find the descending sequence of floral endemism the following pairs:
in India:
Plants Feature
1. Peninsular India
1. Herbs A. Plant growing on host
2. Eastern himalayas plant but not nourished by
3. North western Himalaya host plants
4. Andaman and Nicobar islands 2. Shrubs B. Plant whose stem is
Choose the correct sequence always green and height
(a) 1>2>3>4 (b) 1>3>4>2 of not more than 1 metre.
(c) 4>2>1>3 (d) 3>1>4>2 3. Climbers C. Woody perennial plants
whose height not more
154. The term " Crop Genetic Diversity " best defines than 6 metres
which of the following? 4. Epiphytes D. Herbaceous that climbs
(a) It is the variety and variability of plants and up trees by twiddling
crops used in agriculture including their rounds.
phenotypic and genotypic features. Select the correct pairs
(b) It denotes total diversity of standing crops (a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
within an ecosystem. (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A


158. With reference to the effects of abiotic components How many of the statements given above are
of plants. Consider the following statements incorrect?
1. Plants grown in violet and ultraviolet lights (a) Only one
are dwarf, while plants grown in red light (b) Only two
result in etiolated plants. (c) All three
2. Even light radiation of frost would result in (d) None
killing of young plants such as Sal seedlings . 161. Terms "Prickly Poppy , Toddy Palm, Black
3. Snow results in mechanical bending of tree Mimosa, Water Hyacinth, Lantana Camara" seen in
stems. news frequently are :
4. Death of plants due to coagulation of (a) Invasive alien floral species which are found
protoplasmic proteins will happen when plants throughout India.
expose huge temperatures. (b) Medicinal plant species used in AYUSH and
How many of the statements given above are it's research by Ministry of AYUSH
correct? (c) Invasive faunal species of India especially
(a) Only one found in the aquatic ecosystem of south India .
(b) Only two (d) None of the above.
(c) Only three
(d) All four. 162. With reference to the classification of forests,
Match the following pairs
159. Consider the following statements Forests Canopy Density
1. Barks are the number of growth rings inside 1. Thin A. Canopy density is under 0.50
the trunk of a tree, which can be used to find forests
the age of the tree. 2. Open B. Canopy density is between
2. Pith is the tiny dark spot of spongy living cells forests 0.5 to 0.75
in the centre of the tree trunk. 3. Dense C. Canopy density is 1.0
3. Annular ring is the outside layer of the trunk, forests
twigs and branches of trees. 4. Closed D. Canopy density is between
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? forests 0.75 to 1.0
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 only below:
(c) 1 and 2 (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(d) 1 and 3 (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
160. Consider the following statements regarding root (d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
system of plants
1. Stilt roots are the spike-like projection of the
roots of mangroves or swamp trees. ******
2. Pneumatophores are the adventitious roots
emerging from butt of the tree above ground
level.
3. Prop roots are the roots which are produced
from the branch and remains suspended in the
air.

CHAPTER - 14 : MARINE ORGANISMS
163. Consider the following statements regarding 166. Consider the following statements:
Plankton 1. All Phytoplankton perform photosynthesis
1. Planktons, though they can swim for hundreds 2. Some phytoplankton are fungi
of kilometres per day depend on other 3. Phytoplankton do not consume other
organisms for movement. organisms
2. They contribute more than half of the oxygen How many of the statements given above are
in the environment.
correct?
(a) One statement only
(a) 1 only
(b) Two statements only
(b) 2 only
(c) Three statements only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
164. Which of the following is correct regarding 167. Which of the following are uses of seaweeds?
“Phytoplankton”? 1. Biodegradation of methane
Statement-I: Phytoplankton can be found at the 2. Can be used as battery for energy generation
bottom of water 3. Cure for kidney disease
Statement-II: Chemosynthesis is the process by 4. Used as a drug for Goitre treatment
which food is made by bacteria or other living 5. Habitat for fish breeding ground
things using chemicals as the energy source, Which of the statements given above are correct:
typically in the absence of sunlight.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 168. Consider the following statements
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Statement-I: Highest concentrations of
for Statement-I phytoplanktons are found at low latitudes, with the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is exception of upwelling areas on the continental
incorrect shelves
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Statement-II: Phytoplankton are found more in
correct lower latitudes because the availability of nutrients,
such as nitrates, phosphates, and silicates, is higher
165. With respect to Seagrass, which of the following in these regions.
are incorrect? Which one of the following is correct in respect of
1. They are found on coastal waters of all the above statements?
continents except Antarctica (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2. In India they are found only in the Palk Strait and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
and Gulf of Mannar Statement-I
3. Seagrasses have no roots, stems, and leaves
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
and produce flowers and seeds.
incorrect
incorrect?
incorrect
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct


169. Which of the following are correct with respect to
Seaweed and Seagrass? 170. Which of the following are Zooplankton?
1. While Seaweed exhibits both sexual and 1. Jellyfish
asexual reproduction, Seagrass exhibits only 2. Larval crustaceans
sexual reproduction 3. Cyanobacteria
2. Seagrasses are highly versatile and grow on 4. Dinoflagellates
all substrates while Seaweeds need something
5. Copepods
hard to attach to.
6. protozoans
3. Seaweeds have a well-specialised vascular
system while seagrass lack a vascular system
(a) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
******


CHAPTER - 15 : PROTECTED AREA NETWORK
171. Consider the following statements regarding 174. Consider the following statements
protected areas in India. 1. State wildlife board shall advise the state
1. Both state and central governments can notify government on the management and selection
any area of adequate ecological, faunal , floral of areas to be declared as protected areas.
significance as a national park. 2. The National wildlife board can recommend
2. No alteration of boundaries of national parks the setting up of protected areas as per
shall be made except on the recommendation wildlife protection act , 1972.
of the national wildlife board . 3. Any person can enter or reside in sanctuaries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? or national parks after the approval of the
(a) 1 only State board for wildlife.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
172. With reference to the protected areas in India, (d) 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements:
1. Environmental protection Act, 1986 provides 175. Consider the following statements
for the declaration of wildlife sanctuary and 1. Community reserves and conservation
national parks in India . reserves are the outcome of amendment to the
2. Wildlife sanctuaries enjoy greater degree of wildlife protection act in 2003.
protection than National parks . 2. Community reserve is an area owned by the
3. National parks prioritise biodiversity state government adjacent to national parks
conservation across various species, while for protecting the habitat of biodiversity.
wildlife sanctuaries may be established with a 3. Conservation reserves are the area which is
specific focus on protecting certain species. owned by private individuals.
How many of the statements given above are 4. Residents of conservation reserves are not
incorrect? subject to any restrictions on their privileges.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (b) 1 and 4 only
(d) None (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
1. The Wildlife Protection Act includes 176. With regards to the maritime protected area ,
provisions for the rehabilitation of forest Consider the following statements.
dwellers in the event of notifying particular 1. Marine protected areas are declared under
areas as protected areas. Wildlife protection Act, 1972.
2. An officer appointed by the central 2. Activities such as fishing, research or other
government is tasked with inquiring into and
human activities are prohibited in protected
determining the nature and extent of rights
areas of the Marine ecosystem in India.
held by any person over the land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


177. Which of the followings are Marine national parks 180. Consider the following statements regarding
of india protected areas of India.
1. Gulf of kachchh 1. Andaman and Nicobar have the highest
2. Point calimere number of national parks, while Madhya
Pradesh has the highest number of wildlife
3. Pulicat lake sanctuaries in India.
4. Sundarbans 2. According to a recent State of Forest Report,
5. Bhitarkanika Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest cover,
Select the correct answer followed by Andhra Pradesh..
(a) 1, 4, 5 only (b) 2, 3 only Select the correct statements
(c) 1,3, 4, 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
178. With reference to the classification of Marine
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
protected areas. Match the following pairs
Marine Feature
181. With reference to the Man and the Biosphere
Protected Area
programme, Consider the following statements
1. Category 1 : Evergreen forests of 1. It is UNESCO's international programme
islands which aims to set a scientific base for the
2. Category 2 : Entire protected areas improvement of the human-environment
falls in intertidal or relationship.
mangroves , lagoons 2. India's 5 out of 18 biosphere reserves come
3. Category 3A : Major part in Marine under this programme..
and some parts in 3. In 1986, India came up with the National
Terrestrial ecosystem Biosphere Reserves Programme to ensure
local community participation in promoting
4. Category 3B : Sand beaches beyond
nature-based sustainable livelihoods..
intertidal line
Select the correct answer correct?
(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (a) Only one
(b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (b) Only two
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (c) All three
(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (d) None
179. With reference to the sacred groves, Consider the 182. Which of the following biosphere reserves in India
following statements are added into the list of UNESCO's world's
1. These are the tract of Virgin forest dedicated network for biosphere reserves:
for folk deities and protected traditionally by 1. Gulf of Mannar
indigenous local communities. 2. Simlipal
2. Legal protection for sacred groves is given 3. Manas
under the Biological diversity Act, 2002. 4. Dibru saikhowa
3. Usually Hunting and logging are prohibited 5. Agasthyamalai
strictly within these tracts of land. 6. Great Nicobar
How many of the statements given above are Select the correct option
correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 only
(a) Only one (b) 2, 3, 4 only
(b) Only two (c) 1, 2, 5, 6 only
(c) All three (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 only
(d) None


183. With reference to the Biosphere Reserves, Consider 186. Which of the following statements best defines the
the following pairs term Biodiversity Hope spots ?
Zone of Feature (a) It is the part of space where the unique
Biosphere microscopic organism exists.
reserve (b) Area within biodiversity hotspots on
1. Core zone : Kept free from all human conserving this crucial landscape we can
activities except few protect species losses.
researches (c) It is a marine area which needs special
2. Buffer zone : Outermost part of protection because of its significant
biosphere reserve having underwater habitats.
settlements and (d) None of the above
Agriculture
3. Transition : Adjoins the core zone with 187. Which of the following sites are recognized as
zone regulated human activities World natural heritage sites in India by UNESCO.
How many of the pairs given above are correct? 1. Kaziranga National park
(a) Only one 2. Nanda devi National park
(b) Only two 3. Keoladeo National park
(c) All three 4. Sundarbans
(d) None 5. Western ghats
6. Chilka lake
184. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct answer
conditions for an area to be declared as (a) 1, 2, 3 only
Biodiversity Hotspots (b) 2, 3, 4, 5 only
1. Area must contain at least 1500 vascular plant (c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only
species ( > 0.5% of world's total ) as endemic. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 only
2. It has to have lost at least 50% of its original
habitat. 188. Arrange the following national parks from south to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? north:
(a) 1 only 1. Jim Corbett
(b) 2 only 2. Bannerghatta
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Kanha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Tadoba andhari
5. Dudhwa
185. Consider the following statements related to 6. Hemis national park
Biodiversity Coldspot Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Even though an area which is low in species below:
richness, due to the presence of rare species it (a) 6-1-5-3-4-2
should be conserved (b) 2-4-3-5-1-6
2. Biodiversity Hotspots have more biodiversity (c) 1-2-3-4-5-6
than Biodiversity Coldspot. (d) 4-5-6-1-2-3
3. The new species form at a faster pace in "cold
spots" than hotspots 189. Which of the following protected areas are covered
How many of the statements given above are under Nilgiri Biosphere Reserves
correct? 1. Mukurthi National Park
(a) Only one 2. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Only two 3. Nagarhole National Park
(c) All three 4. Kalakkad Mundanthurai National Park
(d) None 5. Guindy Pational Park


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? How many Elephant reserves given above are
(a) 1, 2, 3 only covered under Mike programme
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 only (a) Two reserves only
(c) 2, 4, 5 only (b) Three reserves only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (c) Four reserves only
(d) All five reserves
190. Consider the following Elephant reserves:
1. Shivalik Elephant reserve
2. Garo Hills Elephant reserve
3. Nilgiri Elephant reserve
4. Mayurbhanj Elephant reserve
5. Deomali Elephant reserve
******


CHAPTER- 16: CONSERVATION EFFORTS
191. Consider the following statements regarding tiger 193. Consider the differences between Asian elephants
reserves: and African elephants
1. Tiger reserves are notified by the Ministry of 1. Asian elephants are larger in comparison to
Environment, Forest and Climate Change in African elephants.
consultation with the National Tiger 2. In African elephants, only male elephants
Conservation Authority (NTCA). have tusks whereas both Asian male and
2. Smallest tiger reserve in India is Bor tiger female elephants have tusks.
reserve. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Limits on Buffer zone in a tiger reserve are (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
determined on the basis of scientific criteria in (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
consultation with Gram Sabha.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
194 Vultures suffer from kidney failures when they eat
(a) Only one of the given statements
carcasses of animals which have been administered
(b) Only two of the given statements with diclofenac. Diclofenac is-
(c) All of the given statements (a) An inflammatory drug
(d) None of the given statements (b) An anti bleaching compound
(c) Anti-inflammatory drug
191 Consider the following statements regarding tiger (d) A steroid
reserves:
1. Tiger reserves are notified by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 19 The Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre
consultation with the National Tiger (VCB(C) saves three species of vulture from
Conservation Authority (NTCA). extinction. Which of the following are included in
these three species?
2. Smallest tiger reserve in India is Bor tiger reserve.
1. Red headed vulture
3. Limits on Buffer zone in a tiger reserve are
determined on the basis of scientific criteria in 2. Long billed vulture
consultation with Gram Sabha. 3. Slender billed vulture
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 4. White backed vulture
(a) Only one of the given statements 5. Egyptian vulture
(b) Only two of the given statements Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All of the given statements correct?:
(d) None of the given statements (a) 1,2 and 5 (b) 2,3 and 5
(c) 2,4 and 5 (d) 1,4 and 5
192. What are the functions of the National Tiger
Conservation strategy? 196 Indian Rhino vision 2020 is supported by the
1. To assess various aspects of sustainable International Rhino Foundation along with ?
ecology. (a) WWF India
2. To declare critical tiger habitat. (b) UNEP
3. To facilitates and support tiger reserve (c) Wildlife trust of India
management in states (d) Animal Welfare Board of India
4. To provide information on protection
measures including future conservation plans. 197 Consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above are correct?: 1. Snow leopard act as an indicator of mountain
(a) 1 and 4 ecosystem
(b) 2 and 3 2. Snow leopards are found in India only.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. They come under the near threatened category
(d) 1,3 and 4 of IUCN red list


4. Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem 3. Captive breeding and release programs can
Protection (GSLEEP. is a high level help them to expand their range.
intergovernmental alliance Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are incorrect? correct?
(a) Only one of the given statements (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two of the given statements (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three of the given statements (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the given statements (d) 1, 2 and 3
198. Consider the following statements regarding world 202 Consider the following statements:
turtle day: 1. Ganges River Dolphin is is popularly called as
1. It is being organised by the nonprofit ‘SUSU’
organisation American Tortoise Rescue.
2. They are the reliable indicator of the health of
2. The day was observed in India by the national entire river
mission for clean Ganga (NMCG), along with
the Wildlife Institute of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
203 Which authority is empowered to permit the hunting
of problematic animals under the Wildlife
199. Project crocodile was launched in 1975 by the
Government of India in association with ? Protection Act, 1972?
(a) UNDP (a) Minister of environment
(b) FAO (b) Wildlife trust of India
(c) UNEP (c) Chief wildlife Wardens of State/UTs
(d) Both A and B (d) Central Zoo Authority
200. Consider the following statements regarding 204 Consider the following statements about SAWEN
Hangul (South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network):
1. It is identified as a critically endangered 1. It is a regional network of eight countries in
species in the IUCN red list. central Asia.
2. Hangul is the only surviving species of the 2. It aims to establish a market for legal trade in
Asiatic member of the Red deer family. animal and animal products..
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
201. Captive breeding means that members of wild
species are captured, then breed and raised in a 205 Project Secure Himalaya is the collaboration
special facility. Consider the following statements between the Ministry of Environment and:
with reference to captive breeding?
(a) UNDP
1. It may be the last resort to protect the species
(b) UNEP
from extinction
(c) IUCN
2. When the habitats are under threat, captive
breeding can be the alternative until the (d) FAO
habitats are secured.


206. Consider the following pairs: 208 Consider the following statements regarding Tiger
Name of species Zoo parks census:
1. louded leopard Sepahijala zoological 1. As per the findings of the 5th Tiger census,
park there has been a notable annual growth rate of
2. Indian pangolin Nandankanan zoological 6.1% observed in the tiger population.
park 2. The state of Karnataka has the largest tiger
3. Lion tailed Sri venkateswara population followed by Madhya Pradesh.
macaque zoological park 3. The Western Ghats region has witnessed the
How many of the given pairs are correctly most significant surge in tiger population
matched? growth.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
207 Consider the following statements regarding (d) None
Hoolock Gibbon:
1. It is the only ape found in India.
2. It is native to Northeast India and Southwest
China.
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
*****


CHAPTER - 17 : CLIMATE CHANGE
209 State of Global climate report is released by ? 214. Which of the following are the causes of glacial
(a) UNEP melting?
(b) Intergovernmental panel on climate change 1. Glacial melting is reversible, and with proper
(c) World Meteorological Organization management, glaciers can recover to their
(d) G20 previous extents in around 50 years.
2. The loss of glaciers has a minimal effect on
regional weather patterns and precipitation
210 Consider the following statements regarding
distribution
Greenhouse Effect:
3. The Seabed Curtain project aims to reduce the
1. It is an anthropogenic phenomenon that keeps
effects of glacial melting in Iceland.
the earth warm.
2. The greenhouse effect only occurs during the
correct?
day when the sun is shining on the Earth's
surface (a) Only one (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) All three (d) None
(a) 1only (b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 215 Consider the following statements regarding IPCC
6th assessment report:
1. The IPCC 6th assessment report predicts that
211 Which of the following are GreenHouse gases?
global temperatures will decrease over the
1. Nitrous oxide next century..
2. Water vapour 2. The report claims that there is no consensus
3. Methane among scientists regarding the urgency of
4. Nitrogen dioxide addressing climate change.
5. Chlorofluorocarbons 3. Global warming is likely to reach 1.5°C
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? between 2030 and 2052
(a) 1, 2 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 5 Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 correct?
212 Consider the following statements with reference to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‘climate forcings’:
(a) Altering the Energy Balance 216 Which of the following are the reasons for
(b) Human induced forcings wildfires?
(c) Human generated aerosols 1. Dry weather and strong winds
(d) Volcanic eruptions 2. Lightning
How many of the above are the types of climate 3. Volcanic eruption
forcing? 4. Sea level rise
(a) Only one (b) Only two · How many of the statements given above is/are
(c) Only three (d) All Four correct?
213 Arrange the following gases in the increasing order (c) Only three (d) All four
of their global warming potential-
1. Methane 2. Perfluorocarbons 217 Consider the following statements about landslides:
3. Nitrous oxide 4. Sulphur hexafluoride 1. Falls, Topples, Slides and Spread are types of
5. Hydro fluoro carbons landslides.
Choose the correct options from below: 2. Nilgiri hills lies in a zone of high intensity of
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 1-3-5-2-4 landslides
(c) 1-5-3-2-4 (d) 1-4-3-2-5 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

CHAPTER-18 : OCEAN ACIDIFICATION
218 Which of the following are the causes of Ocean 219 Consider the following impacts of ocean
Acidification? acidification:
1. Decrease in concentration of CO2 in oceans 1. Increase in the acidity of oceans depresses
2. Eutrophication metabolic rate in some organisms.
3. Acid rains 2. The decrease in carbonate ion concentration
How many of the statements given above is/are adversely affects calcifying organisms.
correct?: 3. Ocean acidification attenuates coral bleaching.
(a) 1 and 2 only How many of the above are the impacts of ocean
(b) 2 only acidification?
(c) 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
CHAPTER - 19: OZONE DEPLETION
220. Consider the following statements with reference to 222 Which of the following is associated with the
Ozone: phasing down of the production and consumption
1. It is an isotope of oxygen of Hydrofluorocarbons?
2. It is found in stratosphere only (a) Kyoto Protocol
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Nagoya protocol
incorrect? (c) Kigali Amendment to Montreal Protocol
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Bretton Woods Conference
223 Which of the following organisations monitor the
221 What are the reasons for the Ozone hole in Ozone layer?
Antarctica? (a) World Meteorological Organization
1. Formation of Polar Stratospheric clouds over (b) World Weather Watch
Antarctica. (c) Global Ocean Observing System
2. The longevity of the Antarctic vortex. (d) All of the above
3. Increase in the concentration of pollutants due
to burning of fossil fuels. 224 The Umheher Technique is used to measure-
How many of the statements given above are (a) The amount of heat a gas can absorb
correct? (b) Total Ozone abundance
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Concentration of pollutants in the river
(c) All three (d) None (d) Soil fertility of the crop field
*****

CHAPTER - 20: IMPACT OF CLIMATE CHANGE - INDIA
225 Which of the following helps in securing food 230 Arrange the following oceans according to their size:
security in India? 1. Atlantic Ocean 2. Pacific Ocean
(a) Constitution of India 3. Indian Ocean 4. Arctic Ocean
(b) Food Corporation of India Select the correct answer from the options given
(c) Public Distribution System below:
(d) All of the above (a) Atlantic - Pacific - Indian - Arctic
(b) Pacific - Atlantic - Arctic - Indian
226 Which of the following are the impacts of Climate (c) Atlantic - Pacific - Arctic - Indian
Change on Agriculture?
(d) Pacific - Atlantic - Indian - Arctic
1. Change in rainfall patterns has led to the
reduction in crop yields in many regions.
2. High temperatures lead to an increase in the 231 Consider the following statements with respect to
nutrition value of crops. Mangroves?
3. Climate change influences the distribution of 1. Succulent leaves
pests and diseases, posing a challenge to pest 2. Pneumatophores
management. 3. Viviparous
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. Leaves covered in spines
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only How many of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?:
227 Consider the following statements regarding UN (c) Only three (d) All four
water conference 2023-
1. It was the first ever water conference held by 232 Which Zone in the Aquatic ecosystem is an open
the United Nations in the last four decades. water zone where the water is very deep and
2. Theme of the UN 2023 water conference is oxygen decreases with depth.
“Our watershed movement: Uniting the world (a) Littoral zone (b) Limnetic zone
for water. (c) Benthic zone (d) Profundal zone
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 233 India has opened a climate change and health hub in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 partnership with:
(a) WHO
228 Arrange the following reservoirs in the decreasing (b) Asian Development Bank
concentration of water in them: (c) Word Bank
1. Groundwater 2. Ice caps/glaciers (d) IPCC
3. Rivers
4. Oceans 234 Consider the following statements about impacts of
Select the correct answer using the code given climate change on health:
below: 1. The World Health Organization (WHO. has
(a) 1-4-2-3 (b) 4-2-1-3 highlighted climate change as one of the most
(c) 4-2-3-1 (d) 4-1-2-3 significant health threats facing humanity..
2. WHO has concluded that to avert catastrophic
229 The report titled “Global sea-level rise and health impacts, the world must limit
implications’ is published by ? temperature rise to 1.5 degree celsius.
(a) United Nation Convention on the law of the Which of the statements given above is/are
Sea (UNCLOS) correct?
(b) World Meteorological Organisation (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) UN Water (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both A and C

CHAPTER - 21 : MITIGATION STRATEGIES
235 Consider the following statements: 239. Consider the following with reference to the
1. Coal mined in India has high ash content , low benefits of carbon tax in India?
moisture and high impurities. 1. Increase use of alternative energy sources
2. Coal gasification, as a process, bypasses direct 2. Success of FAME India scheme
combustion, resulting in the production of 3. Decrease the demand of CO2
syngas as a primary outcome.. 4. Meet emission targets
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? How many of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
236. There are three steps in Carbon Capture and
Storage (CCS). Arrange the given steps in proper 240 Butanol is an example of which generation of
sequence . biofuel?
1. Storing CO2 from the atmosphere, either in (a) First generation
the deep ocean or underground. (b) Second generation
2. Trapping and separating Co2 from other gases (c) Third generation
3. Transporting captured CO2 to storage location (d) Fourth generation
below:
241. Which of the following are the seeding agents used
(a) 1-2-3 in cloud seeding techniques?
(b) 2-1-3 1. Silver iodide
(c) 2-3-1 2. Calcium chloride
(d) 3-2-1 3. Nitrous oxide
4. Potassium iodide
237. The Blue carbon is a combined initiative of - Which of the statements given above is/are
1. International Union for Conservation of correct?:
Nature (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Intergovernmental Oceanic Commission (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. Conservation International (c) 1 and 2 only
4. United Nations Convention on the Law of the (d) None of the above
Sea
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
238. The term ‘Common but Differentiated

responsibilities’ (CBDR. is related to-
(a) Montreal Protocol
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Biofin
(d) United Nation convention on Biological
Diversity
******


CHAPTER - 22 : INDIA AND CLIMATE CHANGE
242 Which of the following are the targets of the 246 Which of the following appliances are included in
National Solar Mission? the BEE STAR LABEL scheme?
1. Total grid connected solar power generation 1. Direct cool refrigerator
capacity of 31,696 Mw 2. Electric geysers
2. Target of 100 Gw of solar PV by 2022 3. Agriculture pump
3. To achieve net zero target by 2070 4. Electric toys
4. To promote development and use of solar 5. Air Conditioners
energy for power generation and other uses. 6. Colour TV
How many of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
(a) Only one (b) Only two · (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Only three (d) All Four (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
243 Perform Achieve and Trade was launched under- 247 Consider the following statements regarding
(a) National Mission for Enhanced Energy National Mission on Sustaining Himalayan
Efficiency Ecosystem:
(b) National Mission on Sustaining Himalayan 1. It is one of the eight missions under the
Ecosystem National Action Plan on Climate Change
(c) National Water Mission 2. It contributes to the sustainable development
(d) National Solar Mission of 4 Himalayan states and 2 Union Territories
244 Which framework protects the confidence of banks (a) 1 only
and investors in energy efficiency projects and to (b) 2 only
avoid the stalling of projects due to lack of funds? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Energy Efficiency Financing framework (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency
(c) Framework for Energy Efficient Economic 248 Which of the following are the objectives of the
Development National Mission for Green India?
(d) Perform Achieve And Trade 1. Afforestation of 10 million hectares of land
2. Increase the forest based livelihood income of
245 Consider the following Missions under the about 3 million households
Ministry of Urban Development? 3. Enhance annual CO2 sequestration by 50 to
1. Atal Mission on Rejuvenation and Urban 60 million tons by 2025.
Development (AMRUT) How many of the statements given above is/are
2. Swachh Bharat Mission correct?:
3. National Water Mission (a) Only one (b) Only two
4. FAME India Scheme (c) All three (d) None
How many of the above initiatives are not
implemented by the Ministry of Urban 249 Which of the following statements are incorrect
Development? with respect to the National Mission on Sustainable
How many of the statements given above are Agriculture?
correct? 1. Mission aims to make 60% of the country’s
(a) Only one net sown area rainfed
(b) Only two · 2. Link Panchayat-level Automatic Weather
(c) Only three station networks to existing insurance
(d) All Four mechanisms


Which of the statements given above is/are 255 Consider the following statements regarding
correct?: International Energy Agency:
(a) 1 only 1. The International Energy Agency is an
(b) 2 only organisation of the United Nations established
(c) Both 1 and 2 in 1974.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. India became its permanent member in 2017.
250 The mechanism where the household pays only for (a) 1 only
the difference between the energy units it consumes (b) 2 only
from the grid and the energy units fed into the grid (c) Both 1 and 2
is called as- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) E- Bill
(b) UPI enabled bill 256 ECO Niwas Samhita was brought in to include
(c) Net metering which type of buildings under Energy Conservation
(d) None of the above Building Code?
(a) Commercial buildings
251 Project NATCOM (National Communication. is (b) Government buildings
funded under-
(c) Residential buildings
(a) Green climate Fund
(d) Both A and C
(b) Adaptation Fund
(c) Global Environment Facility
257 Consider the following statements regarding Green
(d) Special climate change fund
Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment
(GRIHA):
252 Consider the following statements regarding 1. It is jointly set up by The Energy and
National Action Plan to Combat Desertification: Resource institute and the Ministry of
1. It is based on the centralised approach for Environment.
improving the life of local communities 2. It helps in evaluating the greenness of the
2. It strengthens self governance among the local buildings.
communities 3. Building operation and maintenance is one of
Which of the statements given above is/are the parameters used in rating.
incorrect? How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two
253 Which institution has come out with the Net Zero
Energy Buildings (NZE(B) rating system ? 258 Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a Statutory
(a) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research organisation under which Ministry?
(b) IIT Madras (a) Ministry of Power
(c) Indian Green Building Council (b) Ministry of Heavy Industries
(d) Ministry of Rural Development (c) Ministry of new and renewable energy
(d) Ministry of environment
254 The Energy Savings Certificates were introduced in
India in 2011 under which Scheme- 259 Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency GREENEX:
Scheme 1. GREENEX is India’s first Green equity index
(b) Framework For Energy Efficient Economic developed by BSE.
Development 2. The Index quantifies and assess the energy
(c) Eco Niwas Samhita Scheme efficiency of firms, based on the energy and
(d) Perform Achieve and Trade Scheme financial data..


Which of the statements given above is/are 263. Consider the following statements regarding
incorrect? National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Development (NABARD):
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a statutory body established under the
Banking Regulation Act .
2. It provides refinance support for building
260 Consider the following statements regarding infrastructure in rural areas.
FAME India Programme: 3. It supervises Cooperative Banks and Regional
1. It is implemented by Department of heavy Rural Banks (RRBs).
Industry How many of the statements given above are
2. Currently the 3rd phase of programme is in correct?
operation which aims to generate higher (a) Only one (b) Only two
demand for electric vehicles (c) All three (d) None
3. The Scheme applies only to public vehicles
and vehicles registered for commercial 264 Consider the following pairs:
purposes Mass extinction Terminology
How many of the statements given above are 1. First : Denovian
correct? 2. Second : Odovician
(a) Only one (b) Only two 3. Third : Permian
(c) All three (d) None How many of the given pairs are correctly
matched?
261 Long Term Ecological Observatories (LTEOs. is (a) Only one (b) Only two
the component of which Programme? (c) All three (d) None
(a) Indian Science and Technology innovation
system 265 Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Climate change action Programme National Policy on Biofuels:
(c) STEM Education programme 1. The Centre has decided to move ahead of its
(d) Both a and c methanol blending target of 20% of petrol
containing methanol by 2025-26, instead of
262 Consider the following statements regarding 2030.
National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change 2. Under this policy a National Biofuel
(NAFCC): Coordination Committee has been constituted
1. It aims to meet the cost of adaptation to with the Prime Minister as its head.
climate change for all states and Union 3. To promote production of biofuels,
territories in India. government under National Policy on Biofuels
2. Reserve bank of India is the custodian of the permitted the export of biofuels without the
fund and national implementing agency of prior permission of the government
adaptation projects under NAFCC. How many of the statements given above are
3. The projects related to adaptation in sectors incorrect?
such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, (a) Only one (b) Only two
forestry, tourism etc. are eligible for funding (c) All three (d) None
under NAFCC.
How many of the statements given above is/are 266 Which generation of biofuels uses genetically
incorrect? modified algae to enhance biofuel production?
(a) Only one (a) First generation
(b) Only two (b) Second generation
(c) All three (c) Third generation
(d) None (d) Fourth generation

CHAPTER - 23: CLIMATE CHANGE ORGANISATIONS
267. Consider the following statements regarding 6th 270. Which of the following are correct regarding the
Assessment report of IPCC Conference of Parties of UNFCCC?
1. Report stated that the global climate has Conference of Outcome
already risen 1.1 degree Celsius higher than Parties
pre industrial era. 1. COP 16 Doha amendment to
2. This report suggests the adaptation measures Kyoto Protocol
will be the effective measure of tackling 2. COP 8 Green Climate Fund
consequences due to global warming.
3. COP 18 Warsaw Framework for
3. There is a high possibility of surpassing the
REDD Plus
1.5 degree Celsius of global temperature by
2040. 4. COP 19 Delhi Declaration
How many of the statements given above are How many of the pairs given above are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) All three
(d) None
268. Consider the following statements regarding IPCC 1. The LEAF coalition aims to halt deforestation
1. It is a UN body for assessing the science by financing large scale tropical forest
related to climate change. protection.
2. It was jointly set up by WMO and UNEP in 2. TREES aims to mobilise at least $1 billion
1988 to assist policy makers with regular finance to support reforestation
Assessments of global climate change Which of the above given statements are correct?
scenarios.
(a) 1 only
Choose the correct statements given above:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
272. With regards to the Kyoto protocol of UNFCCC.
269. Consider the following statements regarding Consider the following pairs
flexible market mechanisms in Kyoto Protocol: 1. Countries : Features
Market Units 2. Annex 1 : Industrialised countries
mechanism and economies in
1. Emission Emission Reduction Unit transition
Trading 3. Annex 2 : Developed countries
2. Clean Assigned Amount Unit which pay to the
Development developing countries.
Mechanism 4. Non - Annex 1 : Developing countries
3. Joint Certified Emission How many of the pairs given above are correct?
Implementation Reduction (a) Only one
How many of the pairs given above are correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None


273. With regards to the UNFCCC. Consider the 277. With regards to the Global Environment facility.
following statements Consider the following statements
1. UNFCCC entered into force in 1994 and now 1. The Global Environment facility was
has universal membership. established under Rio declaration (1992. as a
2. Objective of this convention is to stabilise funding mechanism.
Greenhouse gas concentration . 2. It is the unique network of 18 agencies
Which of the above given statements are correct? including UN agencies, multilateral
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only development banks, international NGOs etc.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. GEF primarily focuses on funding projects
related to economic development and poverty
alleviation in developing countries.
274. With regards to the Global Adaptation Fund.
Consider the following statements How many of the statements given above are
1. Adaptation fund is financial mechanism to correct?
fund developing countries for effective (a) Only one (b) Only two
implementation of kyoto protocol (c) All three (d) None
2. The Adaptation Fund was initially financed
with the share of proceeds amounting to 2 % 278. With regards to the Green Climate Fund. Consider
of certified emission reductions (CERs) the following statements
3. Global Environment Facility is entrusted as 1. Green Climate Fund was established in 2013
trustee for the Adaptation fund. as part of the UNFCCC financial mechanism.
How many of the statements given above are 2. Headquarters of GCF is located in Hague,
correct?
Netherland.
3. GCF is the world's largest dedicated
(c) All three (d) None Environmental Fund aimed to finance
developing countries for reducing GHG
275. With regards to the Climate Technology Centre and emission.
Network (CTCN). Consider the following How many of the statements given above are
statements correct?
1. It is the international NGO working for (a) Only one (b) Only two
climate change mitigation
2. CTCN aims at accelerated technology transfer
for climate resilient initiatives to developing
countries 279. With regards to the Loss and Damage fund,
Which of the above given statements are correct? consider the following statements
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Cop 27 of UNFCCC provided a separate
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 funding mechanism for Loss and Damage due
to climate change.
2. This is for funding the climate vulnerable
276. Which of the following conventions are financed
countries hit hard by Climate disasters.
under Global Environment facility.
1. Minamata convention on mercury
incorrect?
2. Stockholm convention on Persistent organic
pollutants
3. CITES
4. UNFCCC
280. With regards to the Mitigation Ambition and
5. UN convention to combat desertification.
Implementation Work Program, consider the
Choose the correct option
following statements
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
1. It was launched in CoP27 at Shram El Sheik ,
(b) 2, 4, 5 only
2. The aim of this programme is urgent scaling
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 only up of mitigation ambition and
(d) 1,2, 3, 4, 5 only implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
281. With regards to the Early warning for all initiatives, (c) All three
consider the following statements: (d) None
1. The initiative aims to establish ‘early warning
system’ in vulnerable developed countries. 285. Consider the following statements:
2. Objective of this initiative is for advancing the 1. Just Energy Transition Partnership is a
universal disaster risk knowledge of the mechanism evolved under G20 under which
global communities. advanced countries enter into agreement with
Which of the above given statements are correct? developing countries to reduce coal
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only dependence.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Global shield against climate risks is the
initiative of G7 and V20 countries.
282. With regards to the Forest and Climate Leaders Which of the above given statements are correct?
Partnership, consider the following statements (a) 1 only
1. It was launched at COP 28 for sustainable (b) 2 only
forest management and conservation.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. This partnership aims to boost action to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
implement a commitment made by over 140
countries at COP 27 Glasgow.
3. India is the co founder of the initiative 286. Consider the following initiatives:
How many of the statements given above are 1. Global shield financing facility
incorrect? 2. Global alliance for food security
(a) Only one (b) Only two 3. Middle east green initiative
(c) All three (d) None 4. Global cooling pledge.
How many of the above initiatives took place under
283. Consider the following statements with respect to CoP 27 of UNFCCC.
the ‘Mangrove alliance for climate’. (a) Only one
1. Mangrove alliance for climate was launched (b) Only two
at COP27.
(c) Only three
2. India has refused to join the initiative due to
(d) All four
its effects on sovereign decision making.
incorrect? 287. With regards to the Mission LiFE . Consider the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. India gave the mantra of LiFE to the world in
2022 at CoP27 in Sharm El Sheikh.
2. The objective of the mission is to shape
284. Consider the following statements with reference to industrial supply by shaping individual
the ‘Methane alert and response system (MARS).’ demands.
1. MARS is the first global satellite detection 3. Within India, at least 80% of local bodies are
and notification system providing data on aimed to become environmentally friendly by
methane emissions around the world which 2024.
will be active by 2026. How many of the statements given above are
2. It was developed in the Framework of the correct?
global methane pledge energy pathway. (a) Only one
3. It will be implemented by the International (b) Only two
energy agency, UNEP - climate and clean air (c) All three
coalition. (d) None


288. With regards to the 28th COP of UNFCCC . (d) None
Consider the following statements
1. It was held in Dubai , United Arab Emirates ( 290. With regards to the Global Stocktake Text .
UAE. in 2023. Consider the following statements
2. An agreement to operationalize the loss and 1. The global stocktake is a periodic review
damage fund was reached in this Conference. mechanism under the Paris agreement.
3. A specified percentage of funds was 2. Under this Stocktake text, there are eight steps
earmarked to least developed and small island presented in COP 28 of UNFCCC.
states under the loss and damage fund. Which of the above given statements are correct?
How many of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
289. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Coal Climate Change Performance index
market report’: 1. It is a biennial index released by UNEP.
1. It is an biannual report released by UNEP to 2. Denmark claimed the 1st position while
predict global coal usage and demands. India’s position upgraded from 8th spot to 7th
2. There is decline in global coal demands which in climate change performance.
is attributed to increasing renewable energy 3. It indicates the climate mitigation efforts of 64
sources. countries and European union , which
3. Asia remains the primary driver of coal collectively accounts for 90% of global
demand growth in both power and non power greenhouse gases emission
sector. How many of the statements given above are
4. China , India and Indonesia are the three correct?
largest global coal producers accounting for (a) Only one
70% of world's coal production.
(b) Only two
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
******


CHAPTER - 24 : AGRICULTURE
292. Consider the following statements How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Aeroponics is the process of growing plants (a) Only one statement
without the use of soil. (b) Only two statements
2. Arboriculture is the cultivation of forest trees (c) Only three statements
3. Pomology is a cultivation, production, (d) All four
harvest, and storage of fruit.
Select the correct answer using the code given 296. Which of the following plants do not contribute to
below: nitrogen fixation?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Alfalfa
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3 2. Purslane
3. Amaranth
293. Consider the following statements with respect to 4. Chickpea
Cereal and Pulses 5. Spinach
1. Cereal is edible component of the grain of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
cultivated grass composed of endosperm,
(a) 1, 4 and 5
germ and bran
(b) 2, 3 and 5
2. Pulses are edible seeds of legume plants
(c) 3, 4 and 5
which grow in pod
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Both Cereal and Pulses are rich in
carbohydrates
Select the correct answer using the code given 297. Consider the following regarding ‘Minimum
below: Support Price’
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. MSP is based on the recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Cost of production, demand and supply,
market price trends, inter-crop price parity are
294. Match the following
considered while calculating MSP
Revolution Related with
3. Decision of Cabinet Committee on Economic
1. Grey Petroleum Affairs (CCE(A) chaired by the
2. Pink Tomato Agriculture Minister of India is final on the
3. Golden Fruit level of MSPs.
4. Silver Oilseeds Select the correct code
Which of the following pairs are incorrectly (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
matched? (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs (d) All Four 298. Which of the following crops need two seasons to
complete its life cycle?
295. Which of the following is correct regarding 1. Wheat
‘millets’ ? 2. Cotton
1. Consumption of millet can be found in Indus 3. Turmeric
Valley Civilisation 4. Guava
2. Millet is a naturally gluten free grain that can 5. Ginger
aid in addressing obesity and diabetes
3. They are resistant to climate change and
(a) 2, 3 and 5
photosensitive.
(b) 1, 2 and 4
4. UNESCO declared 2023 as ‘International year
(c) 1, 3 and 4
of Millet’
(d) 2,3, 4 and 5


299. Consider the following statements 302. Consider the following paragraph:
Cropping Type Characteristics The soil is formed under conditions of high
1. Intercropping Growing two or more temperature. Heavy rainfall promotes leaching of
crops simultaneously with soil whereby lime and silica are leached away and a
distinct row arrangement soil rich in oxides of iron and aluminium. They
on the same field at the harden greatly on losing moisture. The soils are red
same time in colour due to little clay and more gravel of red
2. Ratoon cropping Raising a crop with sand-stones.
regrowth coming out of Which of the following crops cannot be grown on
roots or stocks of the soil described above?
harvested crop (a) Cinchona
3. Sequential Growing of two or more
(b) Cashew
cropping crops simultaneously
intermingled without row (c) Wheat
arrangement is known as (d) Coffee
mixed cropping
Which of the following pairs are correctly 303. Which of the following combinations are desirable
matched? in crop rotation?
(a) Only one pair 1. Tomatoes- Potato
(b) Only two pairs 2. Chickpea - Wheat
(c) Only three pairs 3. Green gram - maize
(d) None Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
300 How is zero budget natural farming (ZBNF. (b) 2 and 3
different from organic farming?
(c) 1 and 3
1. ZBNF opposes the use of vermicompost while
(d) 1,2 and 3
it is encouraged in organic farming
2. Basic agro practices like ploughing, tilting,
mixing of manures, weeding are performed in 304. Which of the following is the most efficient crop
organic farming while it is discouraged in for bio CNG production?
ZBNF (a) Elephant grass
Select the correct code (b) Lemongrass
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Congress grass
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Nut grass
301. Which of the following is correct regarding Green 305. Consider the following regarding ‘oilseed’
Manure? 1. Seven oilseeds has been covered under MSP
1. It improves soil structure by enhancing 2. Groundnut accounts for more than half of
inorganic matter
Oilseed produced in the country
2. Decrease water holding capacity thus help in
3. The area under cultivation of niger seed is
solving water logging problem
decreasing due to low MSP
3. It decomposes rapidly and liberates large
quantities of carbon dioxide and weak acids How many of the statements given above are
which act as nutrients for plant growth. correct?
Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(c) 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3


306. Consider the following statements 310. Consider the following components:
Micronutrients Function 1. Integration of livestock
1. Potassium Storage of sugars and 2. Conservation tillage
proteins 3. Eliminate usage of pesticides
2. Magnesium Cell division and 4. Crop diversification
enlargement 5. Replacement of chemical fertilisers with
3. Calcium Activator of enzyme organic fertiliser
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many of the above are components of
matched? ‘regenerative agriculture’?
(a) Only one pair (a) Only two statement
(b) Only two pairs (b) Only three statements
(c) Only three pairs (c) Only four statements
(d) None (d) Only five statements
307. Which of the following are advantages of zero 311. Which of the following can be used as
tillage? ‘biopesticides’
1. Reduce surface runoff 1. Tricholime
2. Facilitate presence of earthworm 2. Trichoderma
3. Reduce weeds and pests occurrence 3. Bacillus Thuringiensis
4. Increase content of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
308. Consider the following statements regarding “PM (d) 1, 2 and 3
PRANAM”?
1. It is introduced in Union Budget 2023-24 to
promote the use of organic fertiliser
2. The scheme has no separate budget allocation
for the stipulated purpose.
309. Consider the following statements regarding GM

crops
1. All Transgenic crops are Genetically Modified
Crops
2. DMH 11 a Mexican variant is a Herbicide
tolerant Mustard.
3. Cotton is the only commercially cultivated
GM crop in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) None
*****

CHAPTER- 25 : ACTS AND POLICIES
312 Which Schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 317 Consider the following statements with respect to
1972 regulates the cultivation of a specified plant? Forest Survey of India:
(a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II 1. The Forest Survey of India has been
(c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV conducting biennial assessments of forest
cover since before India gained independence
in 1947.
313 Which of the following bodies is not constituted 2. As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR.
under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? 2021, the total forest and tree cover in the
(a) National Board for Wildlife country accounts for approximately one fourth
(b) Central Zoo Authority of its geographical area.
(c) Animal Welfare Board of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(d) National Tiger Conservation Authority
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
314 Which of the following Articles of Indian
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution are responsible for the implementation
of the Environment Protection Act?
318 Consider the following statements regarding
1. Article 253 National Biodiversity Authority:
2. Article 51A 1. It is a non statutory body established from
3. Article 21 time to time as per the need of the
4. Article 46 Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Recommendations of the National
Biodiversity Authority are binding on the
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 government.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
315 The roots of the enactment of the Environment (a) 1 only
Protection Act lies in which conference? (b) 2 only
(a) Bretton Woods Conference (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) United Nation Conference on Combating (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Desertification
(c) United Nation Conference on Human 319 With reference to Biodiversity management
Environment committees, consider the following statements:
(d) Both a and b 1. It shall consist of a chairperson and not more
than six persons nominated by the state
government.
316 With reference to National Forest Policy, consider
2. Out of the total members, not less than one
the following statement?
third should be women.
1. The last National forest policy was released in
3. There is a provision of casting vote in case of
1988. tie to the chairperson.
2. There has been no draft National policy since How many of the statements given above are
1988 correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


320 Which of the following is not one of the rights 325 Central Pollution Control Board is a statutory
given under Forest Rights Act, 2006? organisation under which act?
(a) Title rights (a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution.
(b) Schedule Rights Act, 1974
(c) Development Rights (b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution. Act,
(d) Forest Management Rights 1981
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
321 Which of the given criteria are required for the (d) Central Pollution Control Board Act
recognition of rights under the Forest Rights Act?
1. Must be a Scheduled Tribe in the area where 326 Producer responsibility Organisation is established
the right is claimed. under which act?
2. Must have resided in forest prior to 13-12- (a) Bio-medical waste management rules
2005. (b) E-waste management rules
3. Depend on forest land for livelihood needs. (c) Solid waste management rules
How many of the statements given above are (d) Industrial waste management rules
correct?
(a) Only one 327 Consider the following statement with respect to E -
(b) Only two Waste (Management. Rules, 2022:
(c) All three 1. The extended producer responsibility (EPR.
(d) None for each product shall be decided on the basis
of the information provided by the producers
322 Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ. Notification, 2018 on the respective portal
is based on the recommendation of which 2. The producer shall fulfil their EPR through
committee? online purchase of EPR certificate from
(a) Nachiket Mor Committee registered recyclers.
(b) Shailesh Nayak Committee 3. The CPCB shall generate extended producer
responsibility certificate
(c) Kasturirangan Committee
(d) JVP Committee
correct?
(a) Only one
323 Coastal regulation zones have been declared by the
(b) Only two
Environment Ministry under which act?
(c) All three
(a) Wildlife Protection Act
(d) None
(b) Environment Protection Act
(c) Biological Diversity Act
328 Consider the following pairs regarding
(d) Forest Right Act
classification of plastics under Plastic Waste
Management Rules 2016:
324 Consider the following statements with respect to
Category Plastics
Bio-Medical waste Rules, 2016?
1. Category 1 : Rigid plastic packaging
1. These rules are notified by the Ministry of
2. Category 2 : Flexible plastic packaging
Environment & Forests (MoEF. under the
Environment (Protection. Act, 1986. 3. Category 3 : Plastic sheets
2. Bio-Medical waste Rules, 2016 are also 4. Category 4 : Multi-layered packaging
applicable to ayush hospitals How many of the given pairs are correctly
3. The Central pollution control board is the matched?
enforcement authority of these rules. (a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are (b) Only two
correct?: (c) Only three
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) All four


329 Consider the following statements regarding India How many of the statements given above are
Plastics Pact: correct?:
1. India launched this pact in collaboration with (a) Only one (b) Only two
Confederation of Indian Industries (CII. and (c) Only three (d) All four
World wide Fund for Nature.
2. It is a collaborative initiative that is bringing 333. Consider the following statements regarding the
together businesses, governments and NGOs. powers of National Green Tribunal(NGT):
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. NGT by order can provide relief and
correct?: compensation to the victims of pollution and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only other environmental damage.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The NGT Act also provides for the procedure
of penalty of imprisonment for a term which
330 Consider the following statements: may extend to three years.
Statement-I: World Wetland Day is celebrated 3. The decision of NGT is binding and no appeal
every year on 2nd February lies to the judgement in any court of India.
Statement-II: This day marks the adoption of the Which of the Statements given above is/are
convention on wetlands on 2nd February, 1971 in correct?
Ramsar, Iran. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of the above
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation of 334 The Ozone depleting Substances rules, 2000 were
Statement-I enacted under which of the following?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
but Statement-II is not the correct explanation (b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
of Statement-I (c) National Clean Air Programme
(c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is (d) NGT act
incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is 335 Which of the following substances are restricted
correct under the Montreal Protocol?
1. Halon
331. Which of the following are included in types of
2. Carbon Tetrachloride
wetlands ?
3. Hydrobromofluorocarbons
1. Coastal Wetlands
4. Methyl chloroform
2. Marshes
5. Bromochloromethane
3. Swamps
4. Bogs
correct?:
(a) Only two ·
correct?:
(b) Only three
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only Four
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) All five
332 Which of the following laws comes under the

jurisdiction of NGT?
1. Environment Protection Act, 1986
2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
3. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
4. Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
*******


CHAPTER - 26 : INSTITUTION AND MEASURES
336. With reference to the National Wildlife Action 3. Funds collected as compensation under
Plan, Consider the following statements CAMPA are also used for the plantation
1. The latest national action plan on wildlife is purpose under the programme.
the third of its kind, which was adopted for How many statements given above are correct?
the period of 2017 to 2031. (a) Only one
2. Current action plan has increased the role of (b) Only two
private participation in wildlife conservation.
(c) All three
3. The focus of this action plan has shifted from
marine conservation to urban forest (d) None.
development.
How many statements given are incorrect? 340. Consider the following statements
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. CAMPA is the Supreme Court mandated body
(c) All three (d) None. for the efficient management of funds under
compensatory afforestation.
337. Which of the following are the components of the 2. It is a National advisory body headed by the
National Action plan on wildlife conservation Prime Minister for monitoring, technical
2017- 2031. assistance and evaluation of compensatory
1. Integrated wildlife and habitat management afforestation activities.
2. Forest title rights for tribals Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Sustainable management of aquatic (a) 1 only
biodiversity (b) 2 only
4. Wildlife research (c) Both 1 and 2
5. Ecotourism (d) Neither 1 nor 2
below: 341. With reference to the CAMPA, consider the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 following statements
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) All the above 1. Proportion of fund sharing between Union and
states is in the ratio of 90:10 respectively.
338. Consider the following statements 2. CAMPA allows for afforestation in any state
1. National afforestation and eco-development for the deforestation in other state.
board is a statutory body created under
3. National Compensatory Afforestation Fund is
Wildlife protection act, 1972.
established under consolidated fund of India.
2. Primary responsibility of this board is
Select the correct statements
promoting afforestation, tree planting,
ecological restoration. (a) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 1, 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 only
339. With reference to the National Afforestation 342. Consider the following with reference to CAMPA
Programme, Consider the following statements Fund:
1. It is a central sector scheme and has the 1. Improving quality of forests through assisted
objective of restoring ecologically damaged natural regeneration
forests. 2. creation of nurseries for multiplication of
2. Assistance such as capacity building and quality planting material
implementation of the National Afforestation 3. Soil and water conservation measures.
programme is done by TRIFED and 4. Control of forest fire.
cooperative societies.


The CAMPA funds can be utilised for how many 4. Recreational : Planting trees along the
of the above: forest sides of roads, railways ,
(a) Only one wastelands etc.
(b) Only two ·
(c) Only three Select the correct pairs
(d) All Four (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
343. Consider the following statements: (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
1. Joint Forest Management strengthens the (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
participatory governance in forest
management activities. 346. With reference to the National Bamboo Mission,
2. Joint Forest Management is an outcome of Consider the following statements.
Environment protection Act, 1972, which 1. It is a Central sector scheme under Ministry as
calls for the local communities involvement in Ministry of Environment, forests and climate
managing forest ecosystems. change
3. Joint Forest Management committees have 2. National Bamboo Mission aims at increasing
been recognized as organs of the Gram Sabha. the area under Bamboo plantation in
How many statements given are correct? traditionally growing forest lands.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
344. Which of the following statements best defines the
term ‘social forestry’? 347. Consider the following statements
(a) Forests created by private individuals in their 1. India is the richest Bamboo diverse country
own titled land. followed by China.
(b) Forest lands that are permitted to scheduled 2. Earlier Bamboo was considered as grass, the
tribes under forest rights act of 2006. recent amendment to Indian forest Act 1927
(c) Practice which involves the local communities categorises it as a tree.
in forest management aimed at meeting both 3. Bamboo is one of the minor forest products,
social and Environmental objectives. for which the Government is providing
(d) Forest area owned by the State government Minimum Support Price.
for protecting particular Species of animals or How many of the given statements above are
plants. correct
345. Match the following pairs with regards to different (c) Only three (d) None.
practices of forestry
Forestry Feature 348 Consider the following statements regarding
1. Community : Forests of individual Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index
forestry farmers on their own (CEPI)
farmland to meet their 1. It is used to characterise the quality of
domestic needs Environment at industrial areas only.
2. Farm forestry : Raising of trees on 2. Comprehensive Environmental Pollution
Community land to meet Index is developed by National green tribunal.
the demands of the entire Select the correct statements
Community.
3. Extension : Raising of trees for the
forest objective of recreation


349. With reference to the Lighting a billion lives Select the correct answer
campaign, consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. This campaign is created by the International (b) 2 only
Solar Alliance as a part of one sun, one Grid, (c) Both 1 and 2
one world. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Aim of this campaign is to replace kerosene
based lighting with solar alternatives.
353. With reference to the National Clean Energy Fund,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. This Fund is created out of cess on crude oil
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 imported or produced under the principle of
Polluter pays.
350 Consider the following statements regarding 2. Up to 40% of the total cost of clean energy
Ecomark: research and innovative projects would be
1. Ecomark is the mandatory labelling system funded under this Clean energy fund.
that allows the consumers to identify 3. This is a non - lapsable fund under
environment friendly products. Consolidated fund of India and administered
2. The ecomark certificate mark is issued by the by an inter ministerial group headed by the
Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS. for items Minister of Finance.
that are environmentally friendly and meet the How many statements given above are correct ?
standards of BIS. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None.
351. With reference to the Urban Services 354. With reference to the National mission for electric
Environmental Rating System (USERS), Consider mobility, Consider the following statements
the following statements 1. National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 2020
1. USERS is funded by UNEP and executed by lays out the goals and a plan for accelerating
the Ministry of Urban affairs . the use and production of electric vehicles.
2. It is implemented throughout the urban areas 2. Recently FAME-India scheme was launched
of India by TERI under National Electric Mobility Mission
3. It is aiming to develop an analytical tool to Plan.
assess how well local governments perform Select the correct answer
in terms of providing basic services. (a) 1 only
How many statements given above are correct ? (b) 2 only
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three
(d) None 355. Consider the following statements regarding Faster
Adoption and manufacturing of hybrid & electric
352. Consider the following statements regarding vehicles in India scheme .
Biodiversity Conservation & Rural Livelihood 1. Objective of FAME scheme is to encourage
Improvement project the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by
1. It is the central sector scheme wholly funded offering subsidy of up-to 55%.
by the Union government of India. 2. Phase 2 of this scheme is implemented for
2. The objective of BCRLIP is to improve the four years mainly aims to electrification of
rural livelihoods through public participation public and shared vehicles.
while protecting biodiversity in specific 3. This scheme is implemented by the Ministry
landscapes. of New and Renewable Energy.


How many statements given above are correct ? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two 359. With reference to the Eco- Clubs , Consider the
(c) Only three following statements
(d) None 1. It is the National Green Corps with the
objective to educate farmers about hazardous
356. Which of the following statement best defines impacts of chemical fertilisers on both
major objective of Science express - Biodiversity environment and human health.
Special 2. Eco-clubs will focus on industry-farmer
(a) Special Aircraft connecting multiple scientific linkage for development and use of organic
and environmental laboratories in the country. fertilisers, realising the goal of taking research
from ‘lab to land’.
(b) A dedicated waterway across the Indian
Rivers having huge Biodiversity richness Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Special trains connecting ports to check (a) 1 only
Invasive Alien Species from importing (b) 2 only
(d) Innovative mobile exhibition travelling (c) Both 1 and 2
acrossIndia to create awareness on unique (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Biodiversity of the country.
357 Consider the following statements regarding GLOBE initiative
Environment Education Awareness & Training 1. Global Learning and Observations to Benefit
scheme the Environment is an international Science
1. Environment Education Awareness & and education programme.
Training scheme is the central sector scheme 2. This programme unites scientists, teachers,
launched as per the recommendation of NITI students all over the world to spread
Aayog. environmental education
2. Due to its enormous potential and success, the 3. India didn't join this initiative due to the
government has decided to continue the differential curriculum of Indian education.
program. How many statements given above are correct ?
3. Objective of this scheme is to increase (a) Only one
environmental consciousness and Promote (b) Only two
environmental education among people. (c) Only three
How many statements given above are correct ? (d) None
(c) Only three (d) None. 361. Mangrove for the future is the joint initiative of
which of the following organisations
358. With reference to the National Environment (a) UNDP and IUCN
Awareness campaign, Consider the following (b) UNEP and IUCN
statements
(c) World wildlife Fund and IUCN
1. It is also known as the Nature Nurture
(d) IPCC and UNEP
campaign aimed for awareness about
Environment to school students only.
2. This campaign is launched by the Ministry of
Education and Niti Aayog.
******
Select the correct answer
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

CHAPTER - 27 : ENVIRONMENTAL ORGANISATIONS
362. With reference to the Animal Welfare Board of 3. It will impose conditions for fair and
India, consider the following statements equitable sharing of benefits arising out of
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory India’s biological resources.
body functioning under the ministry of How many statements given above are incorrect ?
environment, forests and climate change. (a) Only one
2. The board was established under the Wildlife (b) Only two
Protection Act, 1972.
(c) Only three
3. It consists of members from various
government organisations, parliamentarians (d) None.
and animal rights activists with a term of 5
years. 366. With reference to the State Biodiversity Boards,
How many statements given above are correct ? consider the following statements
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Bio survey or bio utilisation of resources by
(c) Only three (d)None. foreigners is granted by the state biodiversity
boards.
363. Consider the following statements with reference to 2. Ex-officio chairperson of state biodiversity
Central Zoo Authority: board is chief minister of the particular state.
1. Central Zoo Authority is a statutory body Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Prime minister of India acts as ex-officio (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
chairman of Central Zoo Authority.
3. Its powers include recognition of zoos,
permission for acquisition of captive or wild 367. Consider the following statements regarding
animals. biodiversity management committees
How many statements given above are correct ? 1. Biodiversity management committees are
(a) Only one created by the local bodies to document the
(b) Only two knowledge about biological diversity.
(c) Only three 2. It consists of a Chairperson and 6 people
(d) None. nominated by local bodies, including one-
third of women.
364. Which of the following bodies are created under 3. Major function of this committee is to keep a
the National Biodiversity act of 2002. register of traditional biodiversity knowledge
1. Central Zoo Authority within its jurisdiction.
2. National biodiversity authority How many statements given above are correct ?
3. Biodiversity management committees
4. State biodiversity boards (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1, 3, 4 only (c) Only three
(b) 2, 3, 4 only (d) None.
(c) 1,2 only
(d) All the above.
368 With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control
Bureau, consider the following statements
1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory
National biodiversity authority:
body created by amending the Environment
1. National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory
protection act of 1986.
and autonomous body to implement the
provisions of India’s Biodiversity Act of 2. The Bureau complements the efforts of the
2002. state government and other agencies with
2. It performs the advisory function for the regards to controlling the crimes against
government on the sustainable use of wildlife in india.
biological resources.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 371. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only 1. Wildlife Trust of India is a statutory body
(b) 2 only created under the wildlife protection act of
(c) Both 1 and 2 1972 headed by Union Environment Minister.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It works in the area to recover the endangered
species by addressing wildlife emergencies.
369. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer
1. National plan for conservation of Aquatic (a) 1 only
Ecosystems is the central sector scheme to (b) 2 only
conserve lakes and wetlands in India. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The National Plan for Conservation of Lakes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
defines lakes as standing water bodies with a
minimum depth of 10 metres.
3. This conservation plan is being implemented
by the Ministry of Jalshakti and Ministry of
Urban Affairs.
How many statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None.
370. With reference to the National Ganga Council,

consider the following statements:
1. National Ganga Council is a statutory body
established under the Environmental
protection Act of 1986.
2. Prime minister of India is the ex-officio
chairperson of the National Ganga Council..
3. National mission for clean Ganga is headed by
the Minister of Environment which is the
executive arm of National Ganga council.
How many statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
******


CHAPTER - 28: INTERNATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL CONVENTIONS
372. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct code given below
funding arrangement of ‘Global Biodiversity (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Framework Fund’ (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. It was adopted at COP 28 of UNFCCC.
2. It has a target of mobilising at least $200 375. With regards to the CITES, consider the following
billion per year until 2030 is required to fund statements
biodiversity protection programs worldwide. 1. It is an international agreement between
3. Developed countries have to contribute at governments to ensure safe and legal
least $20 billion per year by 2025 and $30 international trading of wild animals and plant
billion per year by 2030. species.
How many pairs given above are correct ? 2. CITES is legally binding on the Parties and it
(a) Only one pair take the place of national laws
(b) Only two pairs 3. CITES Secretariat is administered by IUCN
(c) Only three pairs How many statements given above are correct ?
(d) None. (a) Only one statement
373 With reference to ‘Stockholm Convention’, (c) Only three statements
consider the following statements: (d) None.
1. It is a legally binding instrument that aims to
protect human health and the environment 376. Consider the following statements regarding the
from the effects of persistent organic One Trillion Trees Initiative.
pollutants (POPs).
1. It was launched under the United Nation
2. India is yet to ratify the Stockholm Convention on Biodiversity.
Convention
2. It is aimed at uniting governments, non-
3. Ratification of the convention would enable governmental organisations, businesses and
India to access Global Environment Facility individuals in mass-scale nature restoration.
(GEF. financial resources.
3. The objective of this initiative is to conserve 1
How many statements given above are correct ? trillion trees around the world by 2050
(a) Only one 4. This will help to accelerate the nature based
(b) Only two solution of the UN decade on ecosystem
(c) Only three restoration .
(d) None. How many statements above are correct ?
(a) Only one
374 With regards to the Kunming- Montreal (b) Only two
Agreement on UN convention on biodiversity, (c) Only three
consider the following statements (d) Only four
1. This declaration calls for immediate
Comprehensive action in the areas of
377. With regards to the Convention on Migratory
economy to reflect biodiversity concerns.
Species of wild animals, consider the following
2. This Framework is to replace the existing statements:
Aichi biodiversity targets.
1. It is a treaty of the United Nation for the
3. There are 23 targets under 4 broad Goals conservation and sustainable use of migratory
under this Framework. animals and their habitat.
4. Under the agreement, World bank, Asian 2. The COP 14 of Convention on Migratory
Development bank and IMF have pledged to Species was held in India.
expedite financial and technical assistance to
3. It is only global convention specialising in the
developing countries.
conservation of migratory species


How many of the statements given above are How many statements above are incorrect ?
incorrect? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) Only three
(d) None
378 The ‘State of the World’s Forests Report’ is
released by which organisation? 382. With regards to the Basel convention, consider the
(a) United Nations Environment Programme following statements:
(b) Food and Agriculture Organisation 1. This convention aims to restrict transboundary
(c) Convention on Biological Diversity movements of hazardous wastes and
(d) United Nations Forum on Forest radioactive wastes
2. India signed but not ratified the Basel
379. With regards to the Global Forest Finance Pledge, convention on hazardous wastes.
which of the following statements are correct 3. Basel Convention directs a “Prior Consent
1. The pledge was adopted at UNFCCC COP26 Approval” method to control the
at Glasgow transboundary movements of harmful wastes.
2. It is a voluntary contribution mechanism How many statements above are correct ?
3. The intent is to collectively fund $12 billion (a) Only one
of public finance for forest related climate (b) Only two
finance between 2021-2025. (c) Only three
How many of the statements given above are (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 383 Consider the following statements regarding
(c) All three (d) None Rotterdam Convention
1. It covers pesticides and industrial chemicals
380 Consider the following statements regarding that are harmful for human health.
Nagoya Protocol: 2. It creates legally binding obligations for the
1. This is a protocol adopted at COP10 of implementation of the Prior Informed Consent
Convention on Biological Diversity. (PI(C) procedure.
2. It aims to promote the fair and equitable Select the correct code given below
sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation (a) 1 only
of genetic resources. (b) 2 only
3. This convention establishes Advance (c) Both 1 and 2
Informed Agreement Procedure for fair (d) Neither 1 nor 2
knowledge sharing about genetic resources
Which of the above given statements are correct? 384. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 TRAFFIC
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a joint initiative of WWF and IUCN with
headquarters in Geneva.
381. With regards to the Cartagena Protocol, consider 2. It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and
the following statements animals is not a threat to the conservation of
1. It is an international agreement which aims to nature.
ensure the safe handling, transport and use of 3. The report ‘Rise Of Environmental Crime’ is
living modified organisms (LMOs) published by TRAFFIC.
2. Biosafety clearing house is established to How many of the statements given above are
facilitate the exchange of information on correct?
living modified organisms. (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. India has ratified this protocol. (c) All three (d) None


385. Consider the following regarding United Nations 388. Which of the following statements best explains the
Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) term ‘Climate reparations’?
1. It is the sole legally binding international (a) It entails the establishment of international
agreement linking environment and policies aimed at reducing greenhouse gas
development to sustainable land management. emissions and mitigating the effects of climate
2. It is one of the outcomes of the Earth Summit. change on vulnerable populations.
3. It is the driving force behind Sustainable (b) It refers to the global effort to repair
Development Goal 15 and Land Degradation ecosystems damaged by climate change,
Neutrality (LDN). focusing on restoring biodiversity and natural
4. India for the first time hosted the COP-14 of habitats.
the UNCCD in 2019 (c) It is the monetary compensation that
How many statements above are correct ? developed countries give to developing
(a) Only one countries to compensate for the historical
(b) Only two contributions that the developed countries
(c) Only three have made towards climate change.
(d) Only four (d) It involves the redistribution of wealth from
high-emission industries to sustainable
386. Consider the following statements with respect to development projects in affected regions,
the “Global Wildlife Programme” ? aiming to address the socioeconomic impacts
1. It is a initiative of Coalition Against Wildlife of climate change.
Trafficking
2. It seeks to reduce both supply and demand 389. Consider the following pairs:
that drives illegal wildlife trade, and protect Flexible market Process/functioning
species and habitats through integrated
mechanism
landscape planning.
1. Joint System to buy and sell
Which of the following statements are correct?
Implementation assigned amount units
(a) 1 only
among developed
(b) 2 only countries
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Clean Project implementation
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Development between two developed
Mechanism countries
387. Consider the following statements: 3. Emission Project implementation
1. Kyoto Protocol operationalizes the United Trading by developed country in
Nations Framework Convention on Climate developing country
Change
How many of the above pairs are correctly
2. The principle of ‘common but differentiated matched?
responsibility and respective capabilities’ is
related to the Kyoto protocol.
3. The Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol (c) All three (d) None
was adopted for a second commitment period,
starting in 2015 and lasting until 2030 390. Consider the following statements with respect to
4. Kyoto Protocol sets binding emission penalties for Non-Compliance of Kyoto’s Flexible
reduction targets. Market Mechanisms:
How many of the statements given above are 1. Country loses the privilege of gaining credit
correct? through joint implementation projects
(a) Only one 2. Trade related to coal and other carbon related
(b) Only two · product will be put on sanctions
(c) Only three 3. Country could be banned from participating in
(d) All Four the 'cap and trade' program.


correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
391. Consider the following statements: 394. Consider the following statements regarding the
1. Currently, the global average of carbon Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
emissions is 4.97 metric tonnes per capita 1. It was the result of the United Nations
2. At present China is the largest emitter of CO2 Conference on the Environment, Stockholm in
3. At present India is second largest emitter of 1972.
CO2 after China 2. The Cartagena Protocol to the CBD deals with
How many of the statements given above are the safe use of living modified organisms
correct? resulting from modern biotechnology.
(a) Only one 3. The Nagoya Protocol to the CBD deals with
(b) Only two fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising
from the utilisation of genetic resources.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
Green Climate Fund: (c) All three
1. It is a mechanism to redistribute money from (d) None
the developed nations to the developing
world. 395. Invasive Species Specialist Group' ( that develops
2. GCF will help developing countries Global Invasive Species Database. belongs to
financially in adapting mitigation practices to which one of the following organisations?
counter (a) The International Union for Conservation of
climate change. Nature
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(a) 1 only (c) The United Nations World Commission for
(b) 2 only Environment and Development
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change
(NAFCC):
1. NABARD is the National Implementing
Entity (NIE. for Adaptation Fund (AF. under
Kyoto Protocol.
2. It provides subsidies to the eligible startups
engaged in developing adaptation technology
for climate change.
3. Its objectives are Human development,
poverty alleviation, livelihood security and
enhanced awareness of community
******

CHAPTER - 29 : ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES AND HEALTH IMPACTS
396.’Diethylene glycol’ and ‘Ethylene glycol’ recently 400. ‘Chlorpyrifos’ may result in a variety of nervous
in news used in which of the following: system effects depending on the amount and length
(a) Used in Petrol and Diesel blending of exposure, is most likely present in which of the
(b) Toiletries following
(c) Cough syrup 1. Pesticide
(d) Biogas production 2. Food preservative
3. Single use plastic
397. Which of the following are correct regarding Trans 4. E- cigarette
Fats ? (a) Only one of the given statements
1. They are artificially produced in industries by (b) Only two of the given statements
adding hydrogen to vegetable oils and does (c) All of the given statements
not occur naturally (d) None of the given statements
2. FSSAI mandates a maximum of 2% trans fat
content in food items.
3. WHO released REPLACE guidelines to
eliminate industrially produced trans fats.
******
correct?
398. Match the following

Disease Pollutants
1. Itai Itai Cadmium
2. Yokkaichi asthma Sulphur oxide
3. Blue baby syndrome Nitrite
How many pairs given above are correct ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) None.
399. Which of the following can cause exposure to

radiations ?
1. Diagnostic testing using X- Ray, CT Scan,
Chemotherapy
2. Cosmic rays from terrestrial body
3. Mining of thorium
correct?
(a) Only one statement
(c) Only three statements
(d) None

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Revise ENTIRE Prelims 2024 syllabus

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CHAPTER - 2 : FUNCTION OF AN ECOSYSTEM

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CHAPTER - 3: TERRESTRIAL ECOSYSTEM

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CHAPTER - 5: ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION

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CHAPTER - 6 : RENEWABLE ENERGY

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CHAPTER - 7: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

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94. Environment Protection Act of 1986 is a significant

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106. What is the contingency plan in EIA?

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CHAPTER - 10 : INDIAN BIODIVERSITY

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