JEE Main – 3 (GEN 1) | JEE - 2025

Date: 12/10/2023 Maximum Marks: 300

Timing: 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM Duration : 3.0 Hours

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.
2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
4. Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be
attempted. You will NOT be allowed to attempt the sixth question. If you wish to attempt any other
question apart from the five already attempted, then you will have to delete any one response from the
five previously answered and then proceed to answer the new one.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.

6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.
2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature

Syllabus:
Physics: Dynamics of a Particle, Energy and Momentum
Chemistry: States of Matter, Thermochemistry, Thermodynamics
Mathematics: Sequence and Series, Straight Lines
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PART I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. An object is thrown vertically upwards. At its maximum height, which of the following quantity becomes
zero?
(A) Momentum (B) Potential energy
(C) Acceleration (D) Force

2. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, in the ratio of masses 1:1:2. Two smaller pieces fly
off perpendicular to each other with velocities of 30 ms −1 and 40 ms −1 respectively. The velocity of
the third piece will be:
(A) 15ms −1 (B) 25ms−1 (C) 35ms −1 (D) 50ms−1
3. A particle is moving on the inside of a smooth sphere of radius r describing a horizontal circle at a
r
distance below the centre of the sphere. What is its speed?
2
(A) 5gr (B) 4gr / 3 (C) 3gr / 2 (D) 3gr

A B
4. Potential energy as a function of r is given by U = 10 − 5 , where r is the interatomic distance, A and
r r
B are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:
1 1 1 1
 A 5  B 5  2A  5  B 5
(A) B (B)  A (C)  B  (D)  2A 
       
5. A block of mass 1 kg is in contact with a cart of mass 4 kg. The coefficient of friction between them is
0.5. Choose the possible value of acceleration of cart for which block does not fall?

(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2 (C) 15 m/s2 (D) 25 m/s2

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6. Two blocks A(1kg) and B(2kg) are connected by a string passing over a smooth pulley as shown in the
figure. The coefficient of friction between A and B is same as that between B and the horizontal surface.
The minimum horizontal force F required to move A to the left is 25N. The coefficient of friction is:
( g = 10 m/s2 )

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.67 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.25

7. A block is kept on a rough inclined plane. The angle of inclination with horizontal is  = tan −1  s . If
plane is further tilted slightly then acceleration of block will be: (Take s = 0.75, k = 0.5 and

g = 10m/s2 )

(A) 1.5 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s2 (C) 2.5 m/s2 (D) 3 m/s2
8. In the given diagram, the coefficient of friction between the two blocks is 0.5. Ground is smooth. If
horizontal force of 12N is applied on 2kg block, acceleration of 4 kg block will be: ( g = 10 m/s2 )

(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s2 (C) 5 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s2

9. Minimum force required to keep a block of mass 1 kg at rest against vertical wall is P. If a force of P / 4
is applied then the acceleration of the block will be: ( g = 10 m/s2 )

(A) 7.5 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s2 (C) 9 m/s2 (D) 5 m/s2

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10. Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m resting on the smooth horizontal floor are connected by a
light spring of natural length L and spring constant K. A third block C of mass m moving with a speed v
along the line joining A and B collides with A. The maximum compression in the spring is:

m mv mv m
(A) v (B) (C) (D)
2K K 2K 2K
11. A particle is rotated in a vertical circle by connecting it to a string of length l and keeping the other end
of the string fixed. The minimum speed of the particle when the string is horizontal for which the particle
will complete the circle is:
(A) gl (B) 2gl (C) 3gl (D) 5gl

12. A particle of mass 5 kg is subjected to a force which varies with distance as shown. If it starts its journey
from rest at x = 0 , its velocity at x = 6m is:

(A) 0 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 4 m/s (D) 10 m/s

13. Two blocks A and B, attached to each other by a massless spring, are kept on a rough horizontal surface
( = 0.1) and pulled by a force F = 100N as shown. If 10 kg mass has acceleration of 12 m/s2 at this
instant, what is the acceleration of 20 kg mass?

(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 4 m/s2 (C) 0.5 m/s2 (D) 1.2 m/s2
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14. A particle of mass 1 kg moving in a circular path of radius 1 m such that centripetal acceleration ac is

varying with time as ac = kt 2 , where k is a constant. The power delivered to the particle by the force
acting on it is:
1 4
(A) 2kt (B) 0 (C) k t (D) kt
3
15. Force acting on a particle is (2iˆ + 3 ˆj) N . Work done by this force is zero, when a particle is moved on
the line 3y + kx = 5 . Find the value of k.
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 6
16. Three particles of the same mass are placed in the x-y plane. The (x, y) coordinates of their positions are
(1, 1) , (2, 2) , and (3, 3) respectively. The coordinates of the centre of mass are:
(A) 1, 2 (B) (2, 2) (C) (4, 2) (D) (6, 6)
17. A neutron moving at a speed v undergoes a head-on elastic collision with a nucleus of mass number
A = 4 at rest. The ratio of kinetic energy of neutron before and after the collision is:
9 25 16 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25 9 9 16
18. A person is standing at one end of a long trolley moving with a speed v0 on a smooth horizontal track. If
the person starts running towards the other end of the trolley with a speed u0 relative to trolley, the
centre of mass of the system (trolley + person) will move with a speed:
(A) v0 + u0 (B) v0 − u0 (C) zero (D) v0

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19. Three blocks of masses m, M and M’ are arranged as shown in fig.

The surfaces are frictionless, pulley and strings are ideal. The mass
M’ of the hanging block which will prevent the smaller block (m)
from slipping over the wedge will be:
M+m M −m
(A) (B)
cot  − 1 cot  − 1
M +m M −m
(C) (D) tan 
cot  + 1 M +m

20. A non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length is  = C0 x 2 , where C0 is constant and x is
the distance of any point from left end. Find the distance of centre of mass from left end of rod.
L 3C0 L 3L C0 L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4 4
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. A force exerts an impulse of 100 N-s on a particle and changes its velocity from 2 m/s to 4 m/s. What is
the work done by the force (in Joule)?
2. Three persons are standing on a horizontal platform of mass 170 kg. They exchange their positions as
n
shown in the diagram. The distance moved by platform is metre. Find the value of n.
35

3. A pendulum of length 2 m consists of a wooden bob of mass 50 g. A bullet of mass 75 g is fired towards
v
the stationary bob with a speed v. The bullet emerges out of the bob with a speed and the bob just
3
completes the vertical circle. The value of v is _______ ms −1 . (Take g = 10 m / s 2 ).

4. An object of mass 1 kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 10 m and reaches a velocity of 10
m/s. Find the magnitude of work done (in joule) by air resistance. (Take g = 10 m/s2 ).

t2
5. Power supplied to a particle of mass 1 kg varies with time as P = Watts. Here t is in seconds. If
2
x
velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0 , the velocity of particle at time t = 2sec will be m/s. Find
3
value of x.
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6. A particle of mass m = 10 kg starts from rest under the action of a constant force F = 10N which acts
for 2 seconds. Find the average power (in watts) delivered.
7. A block of metal weighing 5 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. If it is struck by a jet releasing water at
a rate of 2 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s. Calculate the initial acceleration of the block (in m/s 2 ).

8. A man is standing in a lift which goes up and comes down with the same constant acceleration. If the
g
ratio of apparent weight in the two cases is 2 : 1, then the acceleration of the lift is m/s2 . Find the
n
value of n. Here ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity.
9. A particle of mass 1 kg starts moving in a straight line with an initial velocity of 4 m/s at a constant
acceleration of 2 m/s2 . Then the rate of change of kinetic energy is n times the velocity at any moment.
Find ‘n’.
10. A uniform chain of length 3 meter and mass 3 kg overhangs a smooth table with 2 meter laying on the
table. If k is the kinetic energy of the chain in joule as it completely slips off the table, then the value of k
is ________. (Take g = 10 m/s2 )

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PART II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. At STP, a container has 1 mole of H2 , 2 moles of Ne, 3 moles of O2 and 4 moles of N2 . Without
changing total pressure, if 2 moles of O2 is removed, the partial pressure of O2 will be decreased by:
(A) 26% (B) 66.66% (C) 40% (D) 58.33%

2. 1 L each of equimolar HCl(aq), H2SO4 (aq) and CH3COOH(aq) are neutralized with excess of
NaOH in separate vessels. Heat evolved during the process is x, y and z kcal respectively. Select the
correct option:
(A) y>x>z (B) x>y>z (C) x=y>z (D) z>x>y

3. Identify the incorrectly match option:

(A) C(graphite) ⎯⎯
→ C(Diamond) – Enthalpy of transition

(B) → Na + (aq) + Cl− (aq)

NaCl(s) ⎯⎯ – Enthalpy of solution
(C) CuSO4 (s) ⎯⎯
→ CuSO4  5H2O – Enthalpy of hydration
1
(D) H2O( ) ⎯⎯
→ H2 (g) + O2 (g) – Enthalpy of atomisation
2
4. Consider the following P – V curves:

If the shaded area represents magnitude of work done in each of the graphs, which of the following
options is correct?
(A) (I) is reversible expansion
(B) (II) is irreversible expansion
(C) (II) is reversible compression
(D) (III) can be reversible expansion or compression

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5. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L,
245 K) with change in internal energy, U = 30.0 L-atm. the change in enthalpy (H) of the process
in kJ is:
(A) 4458.3 (B) 44 (C) 8.92 (D) 4.46
6. Oxygen gas generated by the decomposition of potassium chlorate is collected over water. The volume of
oxygen collected at 27ºC and at pressure of 760 mm Hg is 125 mL. Calculate the mass (in gm) of oxygen
gas obtained. The pressure of the water vapour at 27ºC is 60 mm of Hg.
 1 Latm 
 Use : R = 12 mole 
 
(A) 0.147 (B) 0.163 (C) 1.36 (D) 1.47
7. Select the correct option with respect to reversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas:
(A) Temperature will decrease (B) Pressure will decrease
(C) Entropy remain same (D) Internal energy remains same

8. For the reaction, C(diamond) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯

→ CO2 (g) consider the following statements:
(I) r H = f H (CO2 , g)
(II) r H = combH (C, diamond)
(III) r H  0
Correct statements is /are:
(A) (I) and (II) only (B) (II) and (III) only
(C) (III) only (D) (I), (II) and (III)

9. For which of the following reactions, r H = 2f H of the product?

(A) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯

→ 2SO3 (g) (B) I2 (s) ⎯⎯
→ 2I(g)
(C) C(graphite) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ CO2 (g) (D) P4 (white) + 6H2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 4PH3 (g)

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10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and, the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A) : Gases cannot be liquefied above their critical temperature, even on applying high
pressure.
Reason (R) : Above the critical temperature the molecular speed is high and intermolecular attractions
cannot hold the molecules together as they escape due to high speed.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct

11. Which of the following is incorrect?

(A) r H =  f H (products) −  f H (reactants)
(B) r H =  combH (products) −  combH (reactants)
(C) r H =  Bond enthalpy(gaseous reactants) −  Bond enthalpy(gaseous products)
(D) rS = S (products) − S (reactants)

12. Which of the following statement about Maxwell Boltzmann law of distribution of molecular speed is/are
correct?
(I) As temperature increases, the most probable velocity of molecules increases but the fraction of
molecules with that velocity decreases
(II) The average speed is the arithmetic mean of the different speeds of all the molecules present in a
given sample of the gas
(III) The speed distribution curve becomes sharper and is more peaked at higher temperature as the
average speed increases
(IV) The speed distribution function is used to determine average molecular speeds.
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) II, III, IV

13. The root mean square velocity of H2 is 10 times than that of N2 . If T is the temperature of the gas,
then:
(A) TH2 = TN2 (B) TH2  TN2 (C) TH2  TN2 (D) TH2 = 14TN2

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14. A gas in open container is heated from 27ºC to 227ºC. The fraction of original amount of gas remaining
in the container will be:
3 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 5 2 4
15. Two flasks A and B have equal volumes. A is maintained at 300 K and B at 600 K, while A contains H2
gas, B has an equal mass of CO2 gas. Find the ratio of total K.E. of gases in flask A to that of B.
(A) 1:2 (B) 11 : 1 (C) 33 : 2 (D) 55 : 7

16. The sign of S for the reactions:

(i) CaCO3 (s) ⎯⎯
→ CaO(s) + CO2 (g) (ii) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 2SO3 (g)
(iii) H2O(s) ⎯⎯
→ H2O( ) (iv) CO2 (s) ⎯⎯
→ CO2 (g)
respectively are:
(A) +, −, +, + (B) −, +, +, − (C) −, +, −, − (D) +, −, −, +
17. A solution of 500 mL of 2M KOH is added to 500 mL of 2M HCl and the mixture is well shaken. The
rise in temperature T1 is noted. The experiment is then repeated using 250 mL of each solution and rise
in temperature T2 is again noted. Assuming all heat is taken up by the solution, which of the following
true?
(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 is 2 times as larger as T2
(C) T2 is twice larger as T1 (D) T1 is 4 times as larger as T2

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18. Match List-I with List-II.

List I List II
(I) CP − CV = ? (P) n g [of a chemical reaction]
x
−
(II) Keq = e RT , x=? (Q) 2 cal [for an ideal gas]

r H −  r U 2
(III) =? (R) 1+ [f : degree of freedom of ideal gas]
RT f
CP
(IV) =? (S)  r G
CV
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (I)-(R), (II)-(P), (III)-(S), (IV)-(Q) (B) (I)-(Q), (II)-(P), (III)-(S), (IV)-(R)
(C) (I)-(S), (II)-(Q), (III)-(R), (IV)-(P) (D) (I)-(Q), (II)-(S), (III)-(P), (IV)-(R)

19. Statement-I: Mixing of two non-reacting ideal gases is an spontaneous process.

Statement-II: For mixing of non-reacting ideal gases H  0 and S  0.
(A) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true. Statement-II is correct explanation of Statement-I
(B) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true. Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
(D) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true

20. A sample of Argon gas at 1 atm pressure and 27°C expands reversibly and adiabatically from 1.25dm3
to 2.5dm3. Calculate the enthalpy change in this process. CV, m for Argon is 12.48JK−1 mol−1.

[Given: (0.5)0.66 = 0.633 ]

(A) – 114.47 J (B) – 110.32 J (C) –100.42 J (D) –126.42 J
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. 180 mL of hydrocarbon diffuses through a porous membrane in 15 minutes while 120 ml of SO2 under
identical conditions diffused in 20 minutes. What is the molar mass (g mol–1) of the hydrocarbon?
2. 440 kJ of energy is released when 8.8 g of propane (C3H8 ) is subjected to combustion in excess of air at
y
298 K. The standard enthalpy of combustion of propane at 298 K is − y kJ mol−1. The value of is
100
________. [Given atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u]
3. The following reaction takes place during thermite process:
Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al(s) ⎯⎯
→ Al2O3 (s) + 2Fe(s)
If f HFe O = − 840kJ / mol & f HAl O = −1700kJ / mol, then magnitude of  r U for thermite
2 3 2 3
reaction is______.

4. The boiling point of a liquid at 1 atm pressure is 400 K. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid is
20kJ mol−1. Its entropy of vaporization (J mol−1 K−1) is ________.

5. Bond Bond Enthalpy (kJ mol −1 )

C–H 412
C–C 348
C=O 743
C–O 360
O–H 464
H–H 436
O=O 497
sub H(C, graphite) = 716kJ mol−1
From the given data, enthalpy of formation of gaseous acetic acid can be calculated as − ZkJ mol−1.
Z
The value of is ________.
7
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6. The number of fluorine atoms in 45.4 mL of fluorine gas at STP is ________ 1020.
[Given : At STP, T = 273.15 K, P = 1 bar, Vm = 22.7 L / mol and NA = 6 1023 mol−1]

7. For an ideal gas at a fixed temperature, the ratio of v2rms : vavg

2
= ______ 10−1.
[Use :  = 3.14]

8. The calorific value of ethene (C2H4 ) is − x kJ / g. Given, the standard enthalpy of formation (f H)

for C2H4 (g), CO2 (g) and H2O( ) are − 42, − 393 and − 286kJ mol−1 respectively at 298 K, the
value of x is ________. [Given atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1u, O = 16 u ]
9. Table A Table B
Temperature Work
Enthalpy Internal energy
Density Entropy
Entropy Heat
Specific heat capacity Enthalpy
Molarity Gibbs free energy
Gibbs free energy Pressure
Number of intensive properties in table A = a.
Number of path functions in table B = b.
The value of a  b is ________.

10. 10 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon is exploded with 100 mL O2 . The residual gas on cooling is found to
measure 95 mL out of which 20 mL is absorbed by KOH and the remaining volume is absorbed by
alkaline pyrogallol. If formula of the hydrocarbon is Cx H y , then value of x + y is ________.

1.

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PART III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

SECTION-1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. If a, b, c, d, e, f are in non-constant A.P. then e – c is equal to:

(A) 2(c – a) (B) 2(d – c) (C) 2(f – d) (D) d–c
2. Intercept made by a line on x-axis is double to the intercept made by it on y-axis and it passes through
(2, 1), then its equation is
(A) 2x + y = 4 (B) x + 2y = 4 (C) 2x + y + 4 = 0 (D) x + 2y + 4 = 0
3. Given three non collinear points A, B and C, how many distinct lines through A can be drawn which are
equidistant from B and C ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Data insufficient
4. If point P is symmetric to the point Q(–1, 2) with respect to the bisector of first quadrant, then the
length of PQ is:

(A) 3 (B) 5 2 (C) 5 (D) 3 2

5. If P  (1, 0) , Q  (−1, 0) and R  (2, 0) are three given points, then locus of the points satisfying

the relation SQ + SR = 2SP is:

2 2 2

(A) A straight line parallel to x-axis (B) A circle passing through origin
(C) A circle with the center at origin (D) A straight line parallel to y-axis

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6. If the perpendicular bisector of line segment joining the points P(2, 3) and Q(K, 5) has x-intercept 6,
then the value of K is :
(A) –2 (B) 6 (C) 0 (D) 3
7. Equation of the line perpendicular to 4x + y – 1 = 0 and passing through the intersection of the lines
2x – 5y + 3 = 0 and x − 3y − 7 = 0 is:
(A) x – 4y + 24 = 0 (B) x – 4y – 12 = 0
(C) x – 4y + 12 = 0 (D) –x + 4y + 24 = 0
8. Lines 2x + 3y = 7 and y + mx + 1 = 0, m  I , meet at a point whose abscissa is also an integer. The sum
of possible value of ‘m’ is __________.
(A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 4
9. If b is first term of an infinite G.P. whose sum is 5, then b lies in the interval.
(A) (−, −10) (B) (10, ) (C) (0, 10) (D) (–10, 0)

10. If the sum of the first n-terms of the series 3 + 75 + 243 + 507 + ...... is 435 3 , then n equals
(A) 18 (B) 15 (C) 13 (D) 29
1 3 7 15
11. Sum of first n – 1 terms of the series + + + + ....... is equal to.
2 4 8 16
(A) 2n−1 + n − 2 (B) 2n + n − 1 (C) 21−n + n − 2 (D) 2− n + n − 1

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12. A square of side length 1 is placed in xy-cartesian system with one vertex at origin and remaining 3

above x-axis. If one side makes (in radians) angle with positive x -axis, then equation of diagonal not
6
passing through origin is__________.

(A) y( 3 −1) + x( 3 +1) = 2 (B) y( 3 +1) + x( 3 −1) = 2

(C) y( 3 −1) + x( 3 +1) + 2 = 0 (D) y( 3 +1) + x( 3 −1) + 2 = 0
13. If A(sin , cos ) , B(− cos , sin ) and C(0, 1), then as  varies the locus of centroid of  ABC
is:

(A) 9 x2 + 9 y 2 = 6 y + 1 (B) 9 x2 + 9 y 2 = 6 y − 1

(C) 3x2 + 3 y 2 = 6 y + 1 (D) 3x2 + 3 y 2 = 6 y −1

14. The vertices of a triangle are A(8, 1), B(1, 0) and C(2, –1). The equation of internal angle bisector of
angle ABC is:
(A) x + 3y – 1 = 0 (B) 3x – y – 3 = 0 (C) x – 3y – 1 = 0 (D) 3x + y – 3 = 0
15. Intersection of three lines x + y = 0, 2x – y = 4 and x + 3y = 6 form vertices of a triangle that is:
(A) acute (B) obtuse
(C) isosceles but not equilateral (D) Equilateral
16. Let a  ABC , A = (–2, 1), B (3, 2), vertex C, lies on y = 4. Orthocenter H of  ABC lies on line
x = 2. Then the sum of abscissa of C and ordinate of H is ________.
13 49 36
(A) (B) 7 (C) (D)
7 13 7

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17. If the point (2, a) lies between the lines x + y +1 = 0 and 2(x + y) =5, then the set of values of ‘a’ is:

 1  1
(A)  −3, 2  (B) (–3, 1) (C)  −3, − 2  (D) (–3, –1)
   
18. If the pair of lines 2x2 − 7 xy + y 2 = 0 lie along diameter of a circle and divide into four sectors such
that area of one sector is thrice the other, then sum of possible values of ‘  ’ is :
(A) 3 (B) –15 (C) –12 (D) –9

The consecutive odd integers whose sum is 45 − 21 :

2 2
19.
(A) 43, 45, …….,75 (B) 43, 45, …….,85
(C) 43, 45, …….,79 (D) 43, 45, …….,89
20. First three terms of an A.G.P. are 3, –1, –1. The next term of the progression can be:
−5 −5
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) (D)
27 9
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SECTION-2
Section 2 contains 10 Numerical Value Type Questions Out of which ONLY 5 (any) questions have to be attempted.
The answer to each question should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. Let H be the orthocenter of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 1, 4y + x = 7 and 2y = x – 1. If h is

the shortest distance of H from the vertices, then 9h2 is_______.
2. Consider three lines
L1 : x + 2 y = 2 L2 : 3x − y = 10 L3 : x + ky = 1
For how many distinct values of ‘k’ above lines do not form a triangle.
80
r 6481S
3. If S =  r 4 + r 2 + 1 , then 1080
is_________________.
r =1
4. Line L : 2x + y = 2 is rotated by acute angle 45º about (1, 0), sweeping the point (100, –200) on its way
to arrive at a position given by line ax + by = 1. The value of 3(a + b) is__________.
5. Let lines x = 0, y = 1, x = 3 and y = 5 form sides of a rectangle. A line y = mx divide the rectangle in two
parts. Area of one part is thrice the other. Largest possible value of m is________.

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6. Let a, b, c > 0 and a + b + c = 2023. For what value of a, a3 b5 c9 achieves maximum value.
1 1
7. If a1, a2 , a3...... are in A.P. and a1 = and a10 = , then least positive integer n, for which an  0 ,
5 25
is _______.
8. Product of length of perpendicular from the point (0, 1) to the pair of lines x2 + 3xy + y 2 = 0 is  unit,
then (3 + 2)2 is __________.
9. A triangle is formed by the line 3x + 5y = 30 and coordinate axes. The number of points (x, y) lying
inside the triangle such that x, y  I and x  y __________.
3 5 7 k
10. If 2 + 2 + + ..... upto 20 term is , then k is equal to.
1 1 + 22 12 + 22 + 32 21

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