INDOCTRINATION

1. What is the full meaning of NCAA?

a. Nigerian Civic Aviation Authority
b. Nigerian Citizen Aviation Authority
c. Nigerian Civil Action Authority
d. Nigerian Civil Aviation Authority

2. What is the full meaning of AIB?

a. Accident Investigation Board.
b. Accident Investigation Base
c. Accident Investigation Bureau
d. Accident Investment Bureau

3. What is the full meaning of ICAO?

a. International civil Action Organization
b. International Civil Aviation Organ
c. International Civil Aviation Organization
d. International Civil Association Organization

4. What is the full meaning of IATA?

a. International Air Transport Association
b. International Aviation Transport Association
c. International Air Transit Association
d. International Air Transfer Association

5. Active Member of IATA Operates

a. Domestic and Regional Services only.
b. Domestic Service only.
c. International Service only.
d. Domestic and International Services.

6. The meaning of APU is?

a. Auxiliary power uniform
b. Auxiliary power unit
c. Auxiliary plant unit
d. Auxiliary plant uniform

7. PSU means?
a. Passengers service union
b. Passengers service unit
c. Passengers secured unit
d. Passengers secured uniform
8. Standing on the left side of the captain is called?
a. Stars side
b. Starboard side
c. Port side
d. Portable side

9. NEMA mean?
a. Nigerian Emergency Management Agency
b. National Emergency Management Agency
c. Nigerian Emergency Management Authority
d. National Emergency Management Authority

10. NAMA mean?

a. Nigerian Airports Management Authority
b. Nigerian Airspace Management Agency
c. Nigerian Airspace Management Association
d. Nigerian Airspace Management Authority

11. The 4 Basic forces acting on an aircraft are

a. Thrust, pull, dragger, lift
b. Thrust, Lift, Weight, Drag
c. Drugs, lifter, width , lift
d. Drag , Lift , Speed , Brake

12. The major Aircraft components will include:

a. The cockpit, passenger cabin
b. The cockpit, fuselage, engines
c. The cockpit, fuselage, engines and wings
d. Cockpit, passenger cabin and cargo Holds.

13. Alternate Airport means

a. Airport other than scheduled diversion
b. Airport other than scheduled destination
c. Airport other than scheduled departure
d. Airport other than scheduled arrival

14. Gravity is the counter force to lift

a. It is the height of the aircraft
b. It is the width of the aircraft
c. It is the weight of the aircraft
d. It is the volume of the aircraft
15. No matter how tempting the offers may be
a. Overlook drug peddling
b. Check drug peddling
c. Resist drug peddling
d. Handle drug peddling

16. Membership of IATA is on

a. Active basis
b. Associate basis
c. Answer a+b
d. No idea

17. The aircraft main wheel and nose wheel are called
a. Over weight carrier
b. Under- weight carrier
c. Under carriage/landing gear
d. Fuselage carrier

18. The segment of the flight at which the aircraft is lined up with the airport and maneuvers to a landing
position is called
a. Descent
b. Climb
c. Cruise
d. Approach

19. Want is P.R.M

a. Pax with Retarded mobility
b. Pax with Reluctant movement
c. Pax with Retained movement
d. Passengers with reduced mobility

20. Crew members traveling to cover a trip but not performing flight duties are?
a. Dead crew
b. Deadheads
c. Deadheading crew
d. Deadheading forward

21. The speed at which an aircraft is operating at its maximum efficiency is?
a. Crushing speed
b. Cruising speed
c. Cruising knots
d. Cruising level meter
22. Meteorology is the study of
a. Atmosphere only
b. Atmosphere and weather science
c. Weather science only
d. Weather only

23. The changing atmospheric conditions include

a. Winds and temperature
b. Pressure and air density
c. Humidity and clouds
d. Precipitation, visibility, turbulence and all of the above

24. Over 90% of our flights operate within

a. The exosphere
b. The thermosphere
c. The troposphere
d. The tropopause

25. Clouds are visible collection of water vapor suspended in the sky. The main groups of cloud are
a. High clouds
b. High clouds, medium clouds
c. Low clouds and clouds with vertical development
d. Answers b and c
STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES

26. What is the established chain of command onboard a flight?

a. Captain, Flight Engineer, first Officer, purser, Galley Crew, CCM
b. Captain, first officer, flight Engineer, Galley Crew, purser
c. Captain, , purser first officer, flight Engineer, Galley Crew
d. Captain, first officer, purser, Galley Crew and CCM

27. What is the purpose of the safety strap when in used?

a. It guides everyone onboard not to more close to the door area during service in-flight.
b. It guides CCM as to when to close doors before take-off
c. It guides everyone (Crew, pax, ground staff) not to move close to such door for safety reason.
d. It guide pax to their seat

28. What is a security check?

a. Checks carried out on emergency security drills
b. Checks carried out on foreign objects onboard before boarding pax.
c. Checks carried out onboard before pax welcome aboard drinks
d. Checks carried out on catering item

29. Whose responsibility is it to conduct the 30 seconds Silent Review

a. Captain
b. Purser
c. First officer p
d. All Cabin Crew member

30. What is a “SILENT REVIEW”?

a. It is a personal review of a CCM evacuation duties and responsibilities prior to every take-off
and landing
b. It is the joint review of a CCM evacuation duties and responsibilities to every take- off and
landing
c. It is the personal review of a CCM to prepare for emergency call out from captain
d. It is the personal review of ccm to prepare for emergency Brace brace position.

31. What type of fire extinguisher do you have on

32. B737-300?
a) Hallon 1211
b) Water glycol
c) Automatic fire extinguisher
d) All of the above
33. How will a CCM react when “senior to flight Deck” is heard
a. CCM continue service, secure galley and take crew seat
b. CCM discontinue service, secure galley ,report at the alert station to await further instructions
or briefing from the purser
c. CCM continue service, secure galley and take crew seat and do a 30sec silent review
d. CCM continue service until brace brace

34. Purser is informed when fueling starts and finishes by the PIC and ----------------------------are
responsible to advice the passenger via the PA about the refueling with passenger on board
a. Flight Engineer
b. Ground Staff
c. Dispatcher
d. Cabin Crew Member

35. Silent Review does not include the following

a. The review of evacuation procedure / techniques
b. The review of the doors and exits operating procedures
c. The emergency equipment and operations
d. Review on Catering services

36. When do you report “cabin Secure”

a. Passenger boarding
b. During in-flight service
c. Prior to take-off and landing
d. Initial climb

37. As part of your responsibilities onboard, what are the “CRITICAL PHASES OF FLIGHTS”?
a. Period of Taxi, Take-off, welcome Aboard, Initial Climb, and during Service
b. Period of Taxi, take-off, welcome aboard, initial climb, and final approach
c. Period of Taxi, Take-off, initial climb and final approach,
d. Period of push back and safety demo

38. The safety demonstration displayed to the passengers includes?

a. Seat belt, literature magazines. Infant Oxygen, Halon
b. Seat belt Arm Rest, smoke hood, Oxygen, and Safety Card
c. Seat belt, , Oxygen mask, safety Card, Life Jack
d. Seat belt, log book. Infant Oxygen, water glycol

39. On an announcement from your purser saying “Boarding Completed” what does it mean to you as
a CCM?
a. Proceed to remove used cups from cockpit
b. Proceed to Arm slide for departure
 c. Proceed to the galley and warm pax meals for service
d. Proceed to do pax head count, check pax seat belt, arm rest and baggage are properly
secured.
40. If you find a pax with an infant occupying a seat adjacent to the over wing exit while carrying out
your checks before takeoff, what will you do?
a. Allow the pax to remain seated and change the seat after take-off
b. Allow the pax to remain seated because the mistake heard already been done.
c. Since some pax demanding, I will allow him to remain seated
d. Re-allocate them to the appropriate seat according to SOP

41. What is the full meaning of PRM?

a) Passengers with Mobility
b) People without Mobility.
c) Passenger without mobility
d) Passenger with Reduced Mobility

42. Maximum number of PRM Allowed in the B.737-300/500 A/C Is-

a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 4

43. When should we Board a Blind passenger on a commercial flight?

a) When the PIC gives command
b) Just before the Aircraft door is closed.
c) With the other passengers.
d) Before boarding the other passengers

44. Prior to accepting Stretcher Case on Board:

a) The managing Director shall give approval.
b) The Station Manager shall give medical clearance.
c) Maintenance Personnel shall install the equipment and Medical report confirms passenger
is fit to fly.
d) A&B

45. The following may be used without Restriction in-Flight.

a) Hearing Aids, Personal Life support machines, Electronic Watches.
b) Lap Top, Cell-phone, Mobile Transmitters
c) Remote control toys, Radio with small battery
d) Cell-Phone with one sim Card, Hearing aids

46. Effective Communication/Coordination will enhance.

a) Safe operation and increase chances of survival in an emergency
b) Promote in-flight Services.
c) Enhance Dialogue.
d) Promote survival Factors
DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
47. Who will you describe as a Handicapped passenger?
a) A Passenger with excellent Height
b) Passengers with Disability
c) Passengers who travel alone
d) Passenger that do not speak English on board.

48. Where should the Crew Place passengers Crutches/Walking Stick.

a) Over Head Bin
b) Toilet
c) Cargo Hold
d) Any open space in the cabin.

49. What is the Policy on accepting Drunken Passengers on Board?

a) No Policy passengers can be drunk once they have paid for their ticket.
b) Do not permit any passenger under the influence of Alcohol on Board.
c) The purser will take the final decision on drunken passenger.
d) In form the Police to avoid the aircraft from been Bombed.

50. Where should we seat a passenger with Leg Injury?

a) Aisle seat for easy Evacuation in an Emergency.
b) Window Seat.
c) Center Seat behind the Exit row.
d) Any seat in the Aircraft considering his leg injury.

51. Safety Regulations Demand that Handicapped Passengers are-----before all Departure
a) Given Individual Pre-Flight Briefing on Emergency procedures
b) Seated near the crew Seat for Easy Evacuation.
c) Evacuated First to pave way for other passengers.
d) Given their Crutches for easy evacuation.

52. Where is the most appropriate place to offload a drunken passenger?

a) When Air-bone /Cruise so that he will not complain.
b) Boarding Gate.
c) During Taxing before Take OFF.
d) At the Check in Counter when Purchasing Ticket.

53. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure for accepting Diplomatic Bag in the Cabin
a) Place the Bag/Bags on any empty seat of choice.
b) The Bag should not weigh more than 180 lbs.
c) Passengers may carry more than two bags
d) Regular passengers may not pay for the extra seat.

54. Where should the Weight and Balance of the Aircraft be recorded?
a) Aircraft Record Book
b) Aircraft Load Sheet.
c) Aircraft Logbook
d) Voyage Report sheet.
55. Except to Carry out Safety Related Duties Cabin Crew Shall-----------. During Take Off/Landing.
a) Remove Cabin Shoes so as to be smart during Service.
b) Walk around the Cabin to make the passenger comfortable.
c) Remain Seated in their Assigned seats for every Take Off/Landing.
d) Read their Manuals/Handouts

56. When Serving Flight Crew In-flight, Cabin Crew should----

a) Knock the Cockpit Door for the PIC to open the Door
b) Do Not Pass liquid over the center console?
c) Should Stand Back and make Crew aware of their Presence.
d) B&C

57. Who has the Authority to Permit Passenger in the Cockpit?

a) AOC Holder
b) Chief Pilot
c) NCAA
d) PIC.

58. Name Two Persons or group that should be accepted in the Flight Deck.
a) Aviation Experts
b) NCAA Official on duty
c) Operating Crew
d) B&C

59. All Persons Carried in the Flight Deck should be made Familiar with----
a) How the Flight is been conducted prior to Cruise.
b) The quantity and quality of fuel in the Aircraft.
c) The number of Passengers carried on Board the flight.
d) All Relevant Safety Procedures in the Flight Deck.

60. The PIC shall ensure that Admission on the flight Deck does Not----
a) Does not include Female Passengers as they often panic.
b) Cause Distraction or Interfere with the Safe Operation.
c) Passengers over the age of 18.
d) A & C.

61. Cabin Crew who is involved in a reportable incident will be required to attend (Cabin Crew
Investigation Enquiry)
a) False
b) Yes
c) If he/she is a purser
d) B & C
AVMED
62. How would you recognize an attack of coronary thrombosis?
a) Pain down right arm and across back, flushed appearance; breathing will be noisy and
gasping.
b) Persistent crushing pain in chest and left arm, great difficulty in breathing, cyanosed, may
vomit with pain, severe shock possible, sudden collapse
c) Pain down left arm and across back, pink appearance, breathing fairly normal, no shock
d) Pain down right arm and across back, flushed appearance; breathing will be noisy and
gasping shocks available

63. If a passenger is choking (because food has entered the air passage), would you:
a) Try to remove the obstruction if possible with tongs. Then use an abdominal thrust
b) Slap the passenger between the shoulder blades, commence mouth
c) Check mouth, try if possible to remove the obstruction, if not then bend passenger forward so
that the head is lower than the chest, give up five sharp blows to their back between the
shoulder blades, followed by abdominal thrust if necessary.
d) None of the above

64. Medical diversions may be likely in the following cases Except:

a) Prolonged unconsciousness, unrelieved breathing difficulties
b) Severe unrelieved pain, uncontrolled bleeding and Major injury (e.g. shock)
c) Disturbed behaviour – risk to passengers and crew, Impending birth and any uncontrolled
condition giving cause for concern.
d) None of the above

65. What is the first aid treatment for a passenger who is hyperventilating?
a) Recline seat, administer oxygen on high flow, request medical aid to meet the aircraft
b) Loosen tight clothing, reassure while advising passenger to breath in and out of paper bag
or aircraft sick bag for a few minutes to restore carbon dioxide and oxygen balance
c) Slap passenger across the face, tell them to pull himself together, treat for nervous shock,
give oxygen if necessary
d) All of the above

66. If a known diabetic passenger (INSULIN reaction) is found in a hypoglycemic condition and
appears too confused to help himself, what would you do?
a) Tell the captain to radio ahead and ask for medical assistance to meet the aircraft on
landing at normal destination
b) Dissolve one large tablespoon of sugar in a little warm water, help to administer fluid while
reassuring passenger. There is a generally a dramatic improvement in a passenger
condition within 10-15 minutes, however treatment may be repeated after 15 minutes
 c) Search in hand luggage for passengers own insulin if unable to find collect syringe and
insulin from aircraft first aid kit administer normal injection, condition improves within 10-15
minutes.
d) Leave passenger to sleep as recovery with rest very is important, condition is totally
improved on waking, no further treatment is required as passenger is now able to look
after himself

67. What is the average heartbeat and breathing rate in an Adult

a) 40-60 pulse, 10-12 breaths
b) 50-72 pulse, 8-10 breaths
c) 60-80 pulse, 18-20 breaths
d) 70-90 pulse, 20-24 breaths

68. With one person, performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), on an Adult the ratio should
be:
a) 15 inflations to 2 compressions
b) 5 compressions to 1 inflation
c) 15 compression to 2 inflations
d) 15 inflation to 1 compression

69. The “ABC” of first aid stands for:

a) Airway, breathing, consciousness
b) Alcohol, breathing, carotid pulse
c) Airway, breathing, circulation
d) All of the above

70. Calling for professional medical assistance you are advised to identify if they are
a) DOCTOR – registered medical practional (RMP)
b) NURSE – registered nurse (RN)
c) PARAMEDIC – state registered paramedic (SRPara)
d) All of the above

71. If a passenger is having an asthmatic attack, how would you treat them?
a) Advise passenger to sit down and sit uprightly learning forward on lap tray; allow passenger to
use his in hailer, have oxygen available, and remain with passenger until better.
b) Administer oxygen, place in recovery position if passenger becomes unconscious
c) Advise passenger to lean back, breathe deeply, not to smoke for remainder of flight
d) Calm passenger and seek medical advice back home
72. A passenger is suffering from a nose bleed, what should you do?
a. Sit passenger slightly leaning forward and ask him to breathe through his mouth put an ice on
the bridge of the passenger nose and instruct him to pinch the fleshy part of the nose for
approximately 10 minutes.
b. Sit passenger down and ask him to lean well back in seat. Pinch the nostrils closed instruct the
passenger to breathe through the mouth
c. Sit passenger upright, give sick bags and instruct to pinch nose for ten minutes and call cabin
crew once the nose bleed has stopped

73. What first aid treatment would you gives for a minor burn or scaled?
a. Apply ointment, treat for sick, and remove restrictive article of clothing
b. Immerse injured area in cold water for a minimum of 10 minutes, remove rings, etc., and do
not break blisters.
c. Bathe effect area with warm water, remove ring, etc., apply a tight bandage to the area
d. None of the above

74. A first-aider must commence CPR when

a. There’s no pulse and no breathing
b. The casualty is unconscious
c. Casualty has fainted
d. None of the above

75. When giving CPR to a child.

a. Ventilate gently until you see the chest rise, use only one hand above the notch to do
chest compression. The sequence for child is 5 compression and 1 breathe
b. Ventilate until you see the chest rise, use both hands above the notch to do chest
compression the sequence for child is 15 compression and 1 breathe
c. Ventilate gently until you see chest rise, use one hand above the notch to do chest
compression. The sequence for child is 1 compression and 5 breathe
d. All of the above

76. Which of the following should you not do when administering first aid?
a. Use the best judgment, keep calm and reassure other passenger.
b. Be careful when giving medicine
c. Advice commander
d. give an unconscious patient fluid by mouth

77. Which of the following is correct about protecting the sick passenger?
a. Never give an unconscious passenger anything by mouth
b. Never take out a foreign object from a wound, unless it is in the mouth
c. Observe the sick passenger closely
d. All of the above
78. To reduce risk of infection, while administering first aid, you should
a. Avoid being splashed with blood
b. Place a barrier between yourself and the victim’s blood by wearing Disposable
latex gloves and covering the wound with a dressing or plastic Wraps
c. Cover any cuts, scrapes or skin condition you have
d. All of the above

79. It is important that the captain and the first officer have different meals on board the
aircraft in case of food poisoning. What are the signs and symptoms of food poisoning?
a. Vomiting, hot touch, abdominal pain and flushed appearance
b. Nausea, dehydration, vomiting, hyperventilation
c. Vomiting, abdominal pain, cold to touch, constipation
d. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain.

80. If passenger falls to the floor while having EPILEPTIC FIT, what would you do?
a. Move other passengers, allow fit to take course, administer oxygen
b. Place protective pad in the mouth, try to keep passenger warm, offer Nil to drink
c. Protect head while fit is in progress, fad down the aisle, when the fit has ceased,
place passenger in recovery position, stay with Passenger until he is completely
recovered. Do not wake or place anything in mouth.
d. None of the above
81. If a female passenger has a mild threatened miscarriage during flight, what would the treatment
be?
a) Complete rest, if possible lying down, sanitary pad, check and record breathing and
pulse, medical aid as soon as possible, reassure
b) Give pain reliever if requested and just advice to see home doctor
c) Put passenger in recovery position, administer oxygen on high flow, divert to near
rest airfield and reassure.
d) NONE of the above
DANGEROUS GOODS & REGULATION

82. Dangerous goods by definition are goods that:-

a) Can only be transported by Air under sole permission from the chief Executive officer of the
operating Airline.
b) Are articles or substances which are capable of posing significant risk to health, safety,
property or the environment when transported by air, and which are classified in the list of DG
according to the regulations.
c) Are articles that are strictly prohibited from being transported by air due to its high level of risk
and danger to passengers, crew and the Airplane.
d) Articles that are not made in Nigeria

83. In line with Dangerous Goods regulations, passengers may bring alcohol on board provided:
a) The alcoholic beverages do not exceed 70% alcohol by volume and provided they are in
packages less than 5 litres
b) The alcoholic beverages can exceed 70% alcohol by volume provided they are in packages
less than 5 litres
c) The alcoholic beverages do not exceed 70% alcohol by volume and provided they are in
packages more than 5 litres
d) A&C

84. When a container with combustible or quickly vaporising fluid is discovered during a flight, cabin
crewmembers shall:
a) Place the container into dry ice, promptly inform the commander
b) Not touch the container, promptly inform the commander and await further instructions
c) Place the container into crushed wet ice, promptly inform the commander
d) Place container in the toilet.

85. Diplomats are permitted to have their diplomatic bags in the cabin provided that:
a) Not more than 2 bags are carried and weigh at least 75kg, bags not placed adjacent to any exit
b) Not more than 2 bags are carried and weigh at most 75kg, bags not placed adjacent to any exit
c) Maximum number of bags is 3 and weigh at least 75kg, bags are not placed adjacent to any
exit
d) Minimum number of bags should be one.

86. The following can be carried onboard by passengers;

a) Guide dogs, Passengers‘ life support machines, Passengers‘ medications
b) Guide dogs, Passengers‘ own AED, Children strollers
c) Guide dogs, Passengers‘ medications, Passenger‘s own wheelchair
d) Wheel chair and Medication

87. Dangerous goods are proclaimed as such due to the following characteristics they possess:
a) They possess multi-color containers that are sealed mechanically.
b) They undergo effervescence shortly after Airborne whenever transported by Air.
c) They posse potentially dangerous characteristic by : Change of temperature, Change of
pressure and Vibration.
d) None of the above
88. What qualities do we as cabin crew require in the transportation of dangerous goods by Air.
a) We only need to participate in crew preflight briefing.
b) We need T R A I N I N G as regards to the acceptable Quantity, packaging and Handling
Regulations governing Hazardous articles/substances transportation by air.
c) To interview all passengers travelling with D.G. and ensure they pass the interview before
boarding the flight.
d) All of the above

89. Goods classified as munitions of war with caliber of > 9 mm should not be carried on any civil
aircraft.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
c) None of the above.
d) If the PIC gives approval

90. The following are categorized as Hidden D.G.s except?

a) Aircraft Equipment, Breathing Apparatus, Diving Equipment.
b) Radioactive, Flammable gases, Explosives.
c) Automobile Parts, Instruments, Medical Supplies.
d) None of the above

91. RADIOACTIVE D.G. in the excepted package must have :-

a) The radio level at any point on the surface of an excepted package cannot exceed 5 µSv/h
( micro Sievert per hour)
b) To undergo Test before accepted for transportation by Air.
c) Must be escorted by an IAEA inspector before acceptance for transportation by Air.
d) Must be labeled Z Y Z

92. RADIOACTIVE materials belong to what class of Dangerous goods?

a) Class 6.
b) Class 7
c) Class 8.
d) Class 1

93. EXPLOSIVE belongs to what class of Dangerous goods?

a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 7
d) Class 10
 94. What class of Dangerous goods does OXIDIZING SUBSTANCE AND ORGANIC PEROXIDE
belong?
a) Class 1
b) Class 3
c) Class 5
d) Class 2

95. CORROSIVE substance belongs to :

a) Class 8.
b) Class 2.
c) Class 9.
d) Class 1

96. Safety MATCHES are a typical example of class 4 D.G. and it is under?
a) CORROSIVES.
b) FLAMMABLE SOLID
c) MISCELLANEOUS D.G.
d) Flammable liquid

CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

97. Crew resource Management is:
a) For elevation into management position.
b) The effective use of all available resources, for Flight Deck and Cabin crew personnel to
achieve the highest level of safety and efficiency.
c) A required company’s Management position.
d) A resource management position.

98. The 3 available resources to the cabin crew to manage on board a passenger airplane are:
a) HUMAN RESOURCES e.g.(pilots, fellow cabin crew & passengers), SAFETY
EQUIPMENT and IN-FLIGHT SERVICE EQUIPMENT (e.g. ovens, catering equipment etc
b) Screening of Passengers luggage by the purser before Boarding.
c) Confirming the Flight Plan with the Flight Dispatcher before Pre-Flight Briefing.
d) Reporting early for pre-flight briefing

99. At the onset of CRM curriculum into the Aviation Industry, it was known as?
a) Cabin Recruitment Movement.
b) Cockpit Resource Management.
c) Cabin Recourse Management.
d) Cabin Recurrent Management
100. In the Generational Development of CRM, at what time was Training extended to involve the
Cabin Crew Members?
a) The Third Generation.
b) The Second Generation.
c) The First Quarter
d) Eight generation

101. At what stage was the Joint Flight Crew and Cabin Crew CRM Training Instituted?
a) The Third Generation.
b) The Second Generation
c) The Fifth Generation.
d)

102. For the Crew member to achieve “MORE” positively, they must:
a) Work with some elements of envy.
b) They must make error.
c) They must work as a team.
d) They must move as a flight crew

103. The following are advantages of Team Work except:

a) Better communication.
b) Increased focus and Socialization.
c) Misunderstanding.
d) Team player

104. What are the three ingredients that a group requires to perform as a team?
a) Task , Team maintenance and Individual Needs
b) Communication, Stress and Situation Awareness
c) Error, Complacency and Socialization
d) None of the above
105. The following are Elements of CRM except?
a) Team formation and maintenance,
b) Stress management, Decision making, Problem solving, Leadership and Error/ Error
management.
c) Crew Meal, Complacency, lack of trust.
d) Lack of trust

106. The benefits accrued to a high performance team includes the following except?
a) Gain job satisfaction from the work, Cooperate and help each other.
b) The Captain quarrels with everyone on board.
c) Have high problem solving skills and well respected leaders who set. excellent examples.
d) None of the above
 107. A good role of CRM delivers the following except?
a) Effective communication.
b) Team work.
c) Conflict.
d) A & B

108. Which of the followings are requirement for CRM

a) Good food and good health.
b) Training, skills and knowledge.
c) Good food only.
d) Knowledge only

109. CRM has been conceived to prevent accidents by improving crew performance through better
co-ordination.
a) True
b) False
c) A & B are correct
d) Not in CRM.

110. The advent of technology has eliminated the human error in Aviation.
a) True.
b) False.
c) A & B are correct.
d) Only in some aircraft

111. One of the goals of CRM is?

a) Requirement for promotion.
b) To understand our roles and that of others.
c) Answers B & C plus, to be fully aware of our environment
d) To encourage envy and lack of trust

AVIATION SECURITY MASTERY TEST

112. Aviation security measures refers:-

a) All human and material impute intended to safeguard civil aviation against any act of unlawful
interference.
b) An act of omission to act any persons relating to aircraft security.
c) A way of ensuring that passengers aboard the aircraft on time to avoid unnecessary flight
delay.
d) When you secure your baggage against Hijack
113. Unlawful Interference means:-
a) Any act of omission to act by any person relating to aircraft security.
b) Any act directed against an aircraft, persons on board or goods carried, that is likely to disrupt
safety.
c) Any in-flight occurrence that could endanger the passengers on board.
d) Any act directed against airline management

114. How should you deal with a hijacker?

a) Confront him or her and tell them you are martial arts on board.
b) Antagonize or irritate the Hijacker all the time.
c) Be calm, co-operate as much as possible and stall them as long as possible
d) Confront him or her with an Axe

115. If you find a suspicious object or package on board the aircraft, what are your immediate
actions?
a) Remove it and try flushing it down the toilet.
b) Scream as loud as you can “Here is the bloody BOMB!!!”
c) Report immediately to PIC.
d) Wait until you land and report to the management

116. Fire Arms refers to …………………………………………

a) Any article that is primarily a weapon of attack
b) Any article that could be used for warfare.
c) Any article which uses an explosive propellant for the projectile.
d) Any weapon on the aircraft

117. Restricted areas are :-

a) Areas to which entry is gained only after a physical search.
b) Areas to which access control has been planted implanted for security purposes.
c) Areas which Airline has marked as “STAFF ONLY”
d) Area where only aircraft should be parked

118. Sabotage in aviation industry means:-

a) Any act intended to cause malicious destruction to property, endangering and resulting to
interference with Civil Aviation and it facilities.
b) A hijacking incident.
c) A child Airplane game.
d) Airlines that are fond of Sabotaging their passenger
119. Who must be notified when a deportee is to be carried on board an Aircraft?
a) Any of the Captains.
b) The flight purser.
c) The flight commander.
d) The Head of Operations.

120. If a passenger makes a Bomb treat in flight , first you …

a) Tell the Captain immediately.
b) Tell the passenger about it.
c) First assure the passengers then notify the Captain.
d) Initiate hijack procedure immediately.

121. Which of the following should not be a cabin crew’s objective in a Hijacking situation?
a) Land the Aircraft and passengers released.
b) Prevent take off.
c) Avoid violence.
d) Arrest the Hijacker.
122. It is to your advantage to slow down all your actions during a Hijacking
a) True
b) False.
c) Action may not be necessary
d) None of the above

123. Who must be notified when a LEO board the Aircraft?

a) No one , keep it as quiet as possible
b) Captain , F/A, GSI
c) Captain, F/As, Other Law enforcement officers.
d) Captain F/A, Catering

124. You are in flight and you need to inform the in-flight security of a treat. To whom will you
address this information?
a) Senior Flight attendant.
b) Captain
c) First officer.
d) Ground personnel.

125. What is security check?

a) A check for suspicious items.
b) A check for cabin cleanliness
c) A check for emergency equipment.
d) A check for meal safety.

126. When shall a security check be performed?

 a) When all ground personnel are on board the Airplane.
b) When all ground personnel have left the Airplane.
c) When all ground personnel have left the Airplane and post flight staff s is onboard.
d) When all pax are on board the Airplane.

SERVICE PROCEDURES

127. In General In-flight service Rules the following pair is most appropriate to achieve good and
efficient customer satisfaction:
a) Calmness ,Honesty ,Dedication
b) Politeness, Tactfulness Reassuring
c) Confidence, Finesse, Decorum
d) A,B,C.

128. Cabin Crew should always make efforts to satisfy

a) Joyous and Downcast passengers,
b) Only Downcast Passengers,
c) Only Passengers Travelling alone.
d) B & C.

129. What type of Flight are Ferry Flights?

a) Passengers Schedule operations.
b) Charter Operation
c) Flights with only Crew on Board.
d) Extra Flight Operated by AOC holder

130. What type of meal should be supplied on Ferry Flights?

a) Lunch
b) Dinner
c) Breakfast
d) Meals supplied will depend on Time of departure

131. Why is Bar documentation required on some Flights

a) To enable crew serve drinks.
b) To ensure beverages are served
c) Custom requirement in some countries.
d) It will depend on Captains decision