CSP CLASS 615: POINTERS TO REVIEW

EXECUTIVE PROTECTION:
1. Terrorist planning kidnapping are aware that this is their best weapon as this breeds terror:
Fear
2. Political kidnapper normally do not harm their victim and if their victim is harmed, it could
have been due to an accident. The main reason for this is: Greater Propaganda Impact
3. Considering the terrain, the community, the fences, guard system, locks and safes alarms
and electronic devices support element and other emergency unit, a security specialist
planning for the protection of an executive is: Defense In Depth
4. Ideally each company should have an executive protection program that includes the
handling of the problem. This team is: Crisis Management Team
5. The executive protection program should be planned and implemented to equip the
following with the security countermeasures to minimize exposures to dangerous
situations: The Executive and His Family / The Support Personnel (A&C)
6. This type of kidnapping is usually motivated by personal goal: Criminal Kidnapping
7. A security specialist job is to determine the weakness of the executive protection plan, such
as:
8. A security planner should study an individual who is a target of kidnapping if he invariably
exhibits an attitude of not wanting to face the reality that it could happen to him. He is
actually determining the: Psychological of Abduction
9. When you prepare the back-up cars, weapons, close-in guards, routes to be used and
evasive actions, you are in what phase of the 24Hrs protection cycle of an executive?: Phase
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10. These persons compose a special committee organized to manage crisis situations: Security
Director / Negotiator & PR Man / GM & Treasurer (All Of The Above)
11. An executive protection plan to be successful have the following elements: Good
Salesmanship / Nice Presentation / PR & Follow Through (All Of The Above)
12. This phase of the 24H protection cycle on security of the executive when he is out to eat
lunch: Phase 3
13. This phase is done before the meeting of the stockholders is held. Executive protection
planners ensures the venue has been checked of bugs and hidden cameras and tape
recorders: Phase 8
14. Protecting an executive entails the application of countermeasures. The immediate and
traditional approach to be: Use of the Body Guards
15. Phase 10 of the 24H protection cycle for planning executive vacation. It requires low-profile,
avoidance of trouble areas and: Lawn Clearing / News Paper and Mail Pick-Up (A&C)
16. It is much more important and effective among the countermeasures during dangerous
situations that endangers an executive’s life: Prevention
17. An executive and his family were attacked by would be kidnappers in his house.
Immediately, the executive gathered his family inside the center room and locked
themselves inside. Please describe the protection measures applied: 3rd Line of Defense

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18. Bodyguards before need to be rough ex-boxer or wrestler type. However, as a result of the
increased concern on kidnapping threat, there has been an escalation in the demand for
bodyguards with: Brains Not Brown
19. Prevention-oriented planning for executive protection requires the inclusion of several
concerns that may actually happen when an executive is kidnapped such as: Prevention
Phase / Vehicle Security / Kidnap Attempt (All Of The Above)
20. Terrorist for greater propaganda effect rather than in having their demands met. What
percentage does this represent?: 100%

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GUARD FORCE ADMINISTRATION:
1. Is the art of winning men to accomplish the mission: Leadership and Command
2. Effective leadership is demonstrated by one’s ability to command the: Respect and
Confidence of His Men / Loyalty and Trust of His Men (A&B)
3. Indication of effective leadership: Morale, Discipline & Esprit D’ Corps / Proficiency And
Effective Unit
4. Screening, recruitment and documentation of personnel are under: Administration
5. Reward, discipline and performance evaluation are under what function?: Administration
6. Inspectorate and post audit fall under what function?: Administration
7. Is a specialized skill derived from training experience and research through the direct output
of the security officer: Technical Service
8. Tact is a leadership trait which means: Ability To Deal With Subordinates And Superiors In
An Appropriate Manner
9. Under leadership traits, the ability to logically weigh facts and possible solutions in which to
base sound decision is: Judgment
10. In leadership principle, the following quoted words, such as, know your strength and
weaknesses fall under: Know Yourself and Seek Self-Improvement / Be Technically and
Tactically Proficient (A&B)
11. Which of the following is not a leadership indicator?: (none of the above)
12. Which of the following is a leadership indicator?: Esprit de Corp / Morale and Discipline /
Proficiency and Effective Unit (All Of The Above)
13. Physical, technical and tactical ability of the individual relate to Proficiency
14. Which of the following are the types of leadership?: Authoritative or Dogmatic / Persuasive
or Considerate (A&C)
15. Which function has impact to life and proprietary rights: Operations
16. It is an act influencing and directing men in order to obtain their willing obedience,
confident, respect and loyal cooperation to accomplish the mission. Leadership
17. Leadership exist for the following purposes: Look for the Welfare of Men / Accomplish the
Mission (B&C)
18. Administration is a function that has impact on the individual members of the unit, their
morale, proficiency, skills, discipline, welfare and integrity.
19. The underlying principle in sound and timely decision is: Better to Fail after Deciding than by
Fail by Not Deciding At All.
20. A trait which puts a leader in a high standard of appearance, conduct and discipline:
Integrity

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EMERGENCY PLANNING:
1. A good emergency plan must be in writing. It should be: Simple and Specific
2. The three primary goals of emergency planning are: 1. Protection of lives, 2. Protection of
property and third is: Restoration of Normal Activities and Operation
3.
4. The primordial consideration in a vehicular accident is: To Save Lives
5. What is considered as a classic art of terrorism: Kidnapping
6. Which of the following need not be an annex to the emergency plan: Trash
Recovery/Disposal
7. Central assembly points for employee during a strike should be: Out of the Emergency Area
8. The location of the control center to be affective must be: Inside The Facility
9. Of all reported bomb threats, it is estimated that the percentage of real threat is?: 2-5%
10. An emergency plan must be comprehensive and liaison should be affected with the
following agencies: Local Police / Fire Department / Adjacent Plants/Business Firms (All Of
The above)
11. Welfare services that should be considered and include in the emergency plan are:
12. A word or phrase which would be a signal to the listener that the speaker (victim) is under
threat is called: Duress Code
13. The civil disorder plan should be: Disseminated Widely
14. The greatest destroyer of the property is: Fire
15. The purpose of an Emergency Plan is: To Highlight to the Executive the Types of Problem to
be Considered In Advance and How To React when an Emergency Develops
16. Keeping the emergency plan up to date means, its review at least: Once Every Year
(Annually)
17. To avoid confusion, release of information to the media should be done by: Only One
Individual from the Company
18. A cooperative organization of industrial firms that arte united within an industrial
community with an agreement to assist each other by providing material, equipment and
personnel needed to ensure effective industrial disaster control during emergency is called:
Mutual Aid Association
19. One of the guiding principles for the preventive and minimization of inquiry is: Training
20. The amount of combustible materials stored in a building is called: Fire Loading
21. In planning for emergency, the security force must be: Enlarged
22. Most deaths from fire are caused by: Smoke or Heat

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SECURITY MANAGEMENT:
1. Perhaps, the most common shortcoming in the security industry is: Failure To Properly
Prepare and Equip New Supervisors with Tools to Discharge their Important Responsibilities
2. In a non-entry recruiting, the recommended technique is: Blind Ad
3. Pre-determine a course of action is: Planning
4. A plan stated in financial term is: Budget
5. A formal authority to issue commands, exact accountability and discipline for violation: Line
Authority
6. Ideally, the person who should inspect the security department is: The Security Director or
Manager
7. Discipline is primarily the responsibility of: The Supervisor
8.
9.
10.
11. When a security executive looks for better and less expensive way to do the job, he is: An
Innovator
12. Disciplining by an executive should be done: In Private as much as Possible
13. Salary expense is referred to as: Total Personnel Cost
14.
15. Spending the least possible amount consistent with required results is: Cost-Effectiveness
16. When a manager himself investigates he does: Technical Work
17. The heart of personnel selection is: The Interview
18. The right and the power to issue order but does not carry the right to discipline for violation
is: Functional Authority
19. The principle that requires one employee to be under the direct control of one and only
supervisor at a given time is: Unity of Control
20. In promoting employees, a security executive should: Consider Candidates From Within
Who Have A Good Track Record and Display Potential For Advancement

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SUBSTANCE ABUSE:
1. It is a physical condition which develops in users of certain drugs. When a person develops
this condition, he requires larger and larger amount of drugs to produce the same effect.
What is this condition?: Tolerance
2. It is the law which is otherwise known as the Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972?: R.A 6425
3. It is any chemical substance which affect a person in such a way as to bring about
physiological, emotional or behavioral change.: Drug
4. It is a value laden catchword popularly used to describe dependence on drug. Originally
associated with narcotics, this word has become a pejorative term. Because this has been
used by so many people in many different ways, it is being replaced by the term “drug
dependence” in technical aspects.: Drug Addiction
5. It is a drug that relieves pain and often induces sleep. The opiates with these characteristics
include opium, such as morphine, codeine and heroine: Narcotics
6. These are drugs to increase mental activity, relieve fatigue, increase alertness and offset
drowsiness. They are usually known as “uppers”: Stimulants
7. These are drugs that can produce changes in the mood and behavior. They can produce
delusions and hallucinations: Hallucinogens
8. Which of the following is not a stimulant?: Barbiturates
9. The following are all general affects upon a person who has taken hallucinogens except one.
Identify the effect: Increased heart and pulse rate, Elevated or increased blood pressure,
Enlarged of dilated pupils of the eye and Loss Of Appetite
10. As director of security for the ZYX Corporation, you have been advised by one of your shift
supervisors that one of his officers is suspected of using drugs. Among the symptoms
related to you are increased alertness, excitability euphoria, increased pulse rate and blood
pressure as well as insomnia and loss of appetite. These are symptoms which probably
indicate use of: Stimulants
11. The source of Cocaine is?: Coca Plant
12. The source of Marijuana is the: Cannabis Plant
13. Cannabis products are usually taken through: Smoking
14. All of the following are controlled substance grouped as stimulants except: Mescaline
15. Which of the following substance would be classified as depressant?: Miltown
16. Which of the following does not pertain to morphine?: It Taste Sweet and is Marketed In
The Form of Yellow Crystals
17. It is our most used and most abused recreational drug?: Alcohol
18. Which of the following is not a correct statement with regards to narcotics?: They Tend To
Intensify Vision and Increased Alertness
19. Cocaine is known by a number of other names. Which of the following is another name for
cocaine?: Snow
20. All of the following except one pertain to the abuse of cocaine. Indicate which of the
following does not pertain to cocaine: It has a medical use as a sedative

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PHYSICAL SECURITY:
1. The most vulnerable link to any identification system is: Failure to Enforce
2. As a general rule, between the perimeter and structure within the protected area, except
when a building is a part of the perimeter, there should be a clear zone of at least: 50ft
3. The thickness of a wire in a chain link fence is: 9 gauge
4. The security survey is a valuable tool in determining the security requirement of an
establishment. The check list should be its: Backbone
5. As a rule facilities where visitors are to be escorted by: The Person being visited
6. The fence generally used for securing facilities is the chain link fence. The chain link fence
including top guard should have a specification: 9 gauge wire and 8 ft. high
7. A “relock” is a valuable device on a vault. The vault automatically prevents the mechanism
from operating when: When there is an attack on the door or combination lock
8. The visual indicator that shows from which of several zones or buildings an alarm signal has
originated is called: Annunciator
9. The practice of at least having 2 authorized person, each capable of detecting incorrect of
unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed will be present during
any operation that affords access to sensitive is called: The two-man rule
10. When constructing a facility for security, the first to be considered is: The building site itself
11. A K-9 can normally not operate at full effectiveness at: Gasoline storage area
12. The best time to conduct a security survey is when: After an incident of loss
13. The alarm system which activates in the immediate vicinity of the protected area is known
as: Local Alarm
14. A top guard is appropriately defined as: A topping on top of the fence with 1” height with 45
degree angle
15.
16. How does a security vault differ from a safe:
17. Probably, the most important information in the business environment is: Trade Secret
18. The barbed wire fence is a common type of fencing used for industrial security. The distance
between posts is: 6ft.
19. The first line of defense in a physical security plan is the: Perimeter Barrier
20. A clear zone is an important factor in planning for security. Your clear zone around fences
outside should be: 50ft.
21. The lock and key management system are important in securing a facility. The lock
originated what country: Egypt 4,000 years ago
22. The most valuable asset of the dog is: its sense of smell
23. When conducting security patrols, it should be: Systematically Unsystematic/Irregular
24. The most common protective lighting system consist of a series of fixed luminaries arrange
to flood a given area all the time during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of
light is called: Continuous
25.
26. Top guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence post to
increase the overall height of the fence by at least: 1ft.

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PERSONNEL SECURITY:
1. The concept that an individual should be aware of the security program and persuaded that
the program is relevant to his or her own behavior is known as: Security Awareness
2. The frequency of the reinvestigation of a financial lifestyle inquiry should generally be: Every
18 months
3. The most critical security process is: Personnel
4. Which of the following is not true with regards to a resume: It is never accepted in lieu of an
application form
5. Completed background investigations: if apparently completely favorable or containing
unfavorable information, are reviewed by a responsible supervisory security employee
6. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion and integrity of an individual is:
Personnel Security Investigation
7. PNP local clearance, City/Municipal clearance and mayor’s clearance all fall under Local
Agency Check. The fourth is check with: Regional Trial Court
8. One of the motives that caused people to be disloyal: revenge/material gain/ ideological
beliefs (all of the above)
9. A possible reply to an agency check is: no derogatory information/with derogatory
information and “summary of information” attached/no information (all of the above)
10. The basic principle of Personnel Security is: Attitudes and honesty of rank and file
employees are key to minimizing losses through theft
11. The person who finds integrity tests offensive are: Sensitive person who should not be
required to take the test
12. National agency checks include: NBI/C2, PNP clearance/ISAF (all of the above)
13. One of the red flags to be identified during screening process is/are: Inadequate references
and gaps in residence
14. Management learns of problems not previously know this process: Exit interview
15. Probably the single most important safeguard in preventing internal theft is: Upgrading the
screening of new employees
16. Reminding an individual of his continuing responsibility to protect classified information is
done during the: Debriefing
17. Which of the following could not be considered a weakness that makes people susceptible
to pressure: Ideological belief
18. Security exit interview should be conducted: On the last day of employment
19. Approximately, how many percentage of professional applicants falsify some aspects of
their educational background: 5%
20. Select one of the following that can cause people to be disloyal: Ideological beliefs
21.
22. One of the red flags to be identified during the screening: Application not signed
23. The heart of personnel selection is: The Interview

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PROTECTION OF SENSITIVE INFORMATION:
1. The term eavesdropping” refers to: Both wiretapping and bugging
2. The primary toll of pre-employment screening is the: Application Form
3. In designing a proprietary information protection program, the area of greatest vulnerable
is the: Employees
4. The instrument used to monitor telephone calls by providing a record of all numbers dialed
from a particular phone is called: Pen register
5. The class of a person under duty to safeguard a proprietary secret is known as: Fiduciaries
6. Interception of a communication circuit is: Wiretapping
7. Any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information which is used in one’s business
and which gives him an opportunity to gain an advantage over competitors who do not
know or use it is: A Monopoly
8. There are only 2 methods of protection against telephone line eavesdropping that are
apparently reliable. The first method is “ don’t ‘ discuss sensitive information and the other
is: Use a quality scrambler
9. Two of the three most common method of information loses to be guarded against are
patent infringements and industrial espionage. Which of the following is the third:
Employee hiring
10. It is the interception of a communication using an electronic device: Bugging
11. The most secure scrambler in common use is the: Vocoder
12. Probably the main reason for loss of sensitive information is: Inadvertent Disclosure
13. Vital records normally constitute the following percentage of the company’s total records:
2%
14. It is a grant made by the government to an inventor, conveying and securing to him the
exclusive right for a term of 20 years: A patent
15. The process of combining a number of transmission into one-composite signal to be sent
over one link is called: Multiplexing
16. There are three basic requirements of a “trade secret”, first, it must be of competitive
advantage, two, it must be secret, and the third is: Its must be used in the business
17. Most loss of proprietary information occurs because of: Negligence
18. It is said that information loss through inadvertent disclosure about: 95%
19. The amount of information loss through industrial espionage is about: 2%
20. A controlled area established to safeguard classified material which, because of its size or
nature, cannot be adequately protected by another prescribed safeguards is termed to be:
A controlled area

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SECURITY INVESTIGATION:
1. The most expensive item of expense in an investigation budget will be: Personnel costs
2. The skillful questioning of a person who refuses to give statement to the investigation is
called: Interrogation
3. The drawing of conclusion is the function and responsibility of the: Requesting party
4. As a general rule, the number of consecutive years employment or non-employment to be
verified proceeding the date of investigation are: 7 yrs.
5. A planned and organized determination of facts concerning certain loss or damage of asset
due to threats, hazards or unsecured conditions is known: Security Investigation
6. The investigator’s best approach to questioning relies on the following: A suspect is
innocent until proven guilty
7. The skillful questioning of a person who is willing to give statement to the investigator is
called: Interview
8. The application of instruments and method of physical sciences to the detection of criminal
is called: Instrumentation
9. In investigation work, logic is necessary in drawing reasonable conclusion and it includes the
ability to see relationships between past, present and future events. A person who
possesses this is: Logical person
10. The skillful questioning of a person who refuses to give statement to the investigator is
called: Interrogation
11. Knowledge acquired by the investigator from other persons is known as: Information
12. There are two elements to a good judgment, the first is the willingness to make a decision
and the second is: Knowledge
13. In conducting a “claim” investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is
cause for doubt in connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:
Personal contact
14. Then underlying quality of a good observer is: Curiosity
15. The most important qualification of a good undercover agent is: Good contacts
16. In conducting interviews during an investigation concerning “financial lifestyle” the
investigator should more appropriately tell the person being interview that the employee is:
Being interviewed is connection with a position of trust
17. There are two types of surveillance, one is physical and the other is: Technical
18. In Handling a mentally disturbed person, one should: Assume a calm and friendly position
19. The frequency of a reinvestigation of the “financial lifestyle” inquiry should generally be: 18
months
20. The main function of a private security agent is: Ascertain and report illegal activities
21. It is simply means that the subject of the investigation knows he is under investigation:
Overt Investigation
22. See #12
23. The third steps in the systematic approach to an investigation is: Analysis and Verification of
relevant information

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RISK ANALYSIS and SECURITY SURVEY:
1. A conditioned that could lead to a loss: Hazard
2. Which of the following is one of the 3 basic functions of risk management: Loss control
3. It is the critical on-site examination and analysis to ascertain the security status, identify
deficiencies or excesses, determine protection needed, and make recommendation for
overall security is called: Security survey
4. Spotting the individual loss event that might take place is the primary step in dealing with
security vulnerability is called: Loss event profile
5. One of the risk management strategies wherein you have to strengthen your physical
security measures in order to lessen the probability or potential loss is called: Risk reduction
6. Useful definition of a security problem requires that 3 things recognized and evaluated in
quantitative terms, one is probability, criticality and the third is: Loss event profile
7. The degree of protection desired in any installation is prescribed upon an analysis of two
factors: Criticality and vulnerability
8. This includes the examinations of the vulnerability, probability and criticality of potential
threats include natural and man-made risk is called: Risk analysis
9. An action taken or a physical entity used to reduce or eliminate one or more vulnerabilities.
What is this: Countermeasures
10. The impact of a loss as measured in financial terms. What is this: Criticality
11. The system approach is made up of vulnerability analysis, countermeasure and: System test
12. The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of:
Protective services
13. When constructing a facility for security, what is the first factor to be considered: The
building site itself
14. When you move the financial impact of the potential loss over to an insurance company,
your risk management strategy is called: Risk transfer
15. A condition that could lead to a loss: Hazard
16. A test which provides an estimate of the weakness of a facility, tests the effectiveness of the
security force and alerts personnel to the techniques used by an intruder is known as:
Vulnerability test
17. Describe a simple reason why we take pictures during surveys: A picture paints a thousand
words
18. It means that when one element of the security fails, there are still back up elements that
will automatically resume the burden of protection. This is called: defense-in-depth
19. A state or condition in which an individual or a group may pursue its end without disruption,
harm or fear is called: Security
20. In designing your security program, the first step is understanding the problem and the next
is: Countermeasure design
21. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government or industrial
environment for which the risk manager has responsibility is called: Risk avoidance

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22. The effect upon the assets or upon the enterprise responsible for the assets if loss occur is
known as: Criticality

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LOSS PREVENTION:
1. According to a textbook on Security Management by Dr. Eduardo M. Fulgencio, CPP, the
most frequent mode of criminal entry into a residence is: Forcing windows or doors
inadequately protected
2. In loss prevention management, the budget is a basic management tool. What is the oldest
and simplest type of budget: Line-item or object of the expense budget
3. The most effective deterrent to show is:
4. Many experts feel that the most important deterrent to internal theft is: Fear of discovery
5. Illumination is very important in discouraging criminal activity. Or the light sources suitable
for exterior use, which is the least expensive to purchase and install: Incandescent
6. It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables
these are: Cost of claims and frequency of claims
7. What is the correct answer as to who is the typical shoplifter: There is no typical shoplifter
8. In 1972, Oscar Neuman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied
strategies from the New York public housing project to aid: Defensible Space
9. A Principal techniques which is often called the language of business: Accounting
10. There are two general accepted definitions of risk, these are most commonly known to risk
managers and security officers as: Dynamic and Pure
11. Crime analysis is a key elements in focusing the use of police and security resources to
address crime problems. Data collection and analysis are two specific steps. The other two
are: Dissemination and Feedback
12. The ability of design to counteract the perception that area is isolated and criminally
vulnerable is known as: Image and Milieu
13. The theft triangle consist of the following components: Means, Desire and Opportunity
14. The essential ingredient in all successful shoplifting efforts is: Privacy
15. A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is: The theft triangle
16. Protection for a corporation, if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain
period of time is known as: Performance bond
17. The greatest ongoing threat to any business is: Internal theft
18. Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time. The taking of
property entrusted to someone’s care is called: Peculation/Defalcation/Embezzlement (all
of the above)
19. The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with
neighborhood design is known as: Environmental Security
20. Auditing, accounting and accountability have common characteristics. These are: Each result
in Documentation

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