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SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMINATIONS/

NATIONAL SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMINATIONS

GEOGRAPHY P1

2019

MARKS: 225

TIME: 3 hours

This question paper consists of 15 pages and a 10-page annexure.

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INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. This question paper consists of FOUR questions.

2. Answer ANY THREE questions of 75 marks each.

3. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE.

4. Leave a line between the subsections of questions answered.

5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page.

6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this
question paper.

7. Number the answers in the centre of the line.

8. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK.

9. Draw fully labelled diagrams when instructed to do so.

10. Answer in FULL SENTENCES, except when you have to state, name, identify
or list.

11. Write neatly and legibly.

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SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY

Answer at least ONE question in this section.

QUESTION 1

1.1 Refer to FIGURE 1.1 showing a cross-section of a tropical cyclone. Choose

the correct word(s) from those given in brackets to make the statements
TRUE. Write only the word(s) next to the question numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.7) in
the ANSWER BOOK.

1.1.1 Cloud A is a (cumulus/cumulonimbus) cloud.

1.1.2 The updrafts at B are caused by (convection/advection) currents.

1.1.3 Area C is named the (eye/eye wall).

1.1.4 The atmospheric condition experienced at C is (stable/unstable)

1.1.5 D indicates an area of (divergence/convergence).

1.1.6 E will experience (light rain/thunderstorms).

1.1.7 Ocean F is likely (warm/cold). (7 x 1) (7)

1.2 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the description of a fluvial
landform in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–I) next to the question
numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.2.9 J.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
1.2.1 A meander loop that is cut off from the main A braided stream
river
B delta
1.2.2 The naturally raised banks of a river
C undercut slope
1.2.3 Forms when a river deposits its load and
blocks its own path D meander

1.2.4 Creates rough, turbulent water because of E leveé

an uneven river bed F waterfall
1.2.5 Develops at the river mouth where deposition G oxbow lake
takes place
H rapids
1.2.6 Vertical cliff where underlying soft rock is
eroded away by plunging water I slip-off slope

1.2.7 Type of slope that forms on the outer bank

of a meander

1.2.8 Refers to a curve or bend along the course

of a river
(8 x 1) (8)

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1.3 FIGURE 1.3 is a synoptic weather map.

1.3.1 Name anticyclone A. (1 x 1) (1)

1.3.2 What evidence indicates that A is an anticyclone? (1 x 2) (2)

1.3.3 Why is anticyclone A generally associated with fog along the west
coast of South Africa? (1 x 2) (2)

1.3.4 Why do anticyclones A and B migrate (move) northwards during

winter in South Africa? (2 x 2) (4)

1.3.5 How will the movement of mid-latitude cyclone C be influenced by

anticyclone B? (1 x 2) (2)

1.3.6 Explain how anticyclone B influences rainfall conditions along the

east coast of South Africa in winter. (2 x 2) (4)

1.4 Study FIGURE 1.4 showing valley climates.

1.4.1 Does wind B occur during the day or at night? (1 x 1) (1)

1.4.2 Match the types of precipitation (radiation fog and frost) with the
statements below:

(a) Formed when dew point temperature drops below freezing

point on the valley floor (1 x 1) (1)

(b) Formed when temperature drops below dew point in the lower
section of the valley (1 x 1) (1)

1.4.3 How does wind B create an inversion in the valley? (2 x 2) (4)

1.4.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, outline the negative

impact of these forms of precipitation (radiation fog or frost) on
humans. (4 x 2) (8)

1.5 Drainage patterns are indicated in FIGURE 1.5.

1.5.1 What is a drainage pattern? (1 x 1) (1)

1.5.2 Describe the dendritic drainage pattern. (1 x 2) (2)

1.5.3 State ONE visible difference between the tributaries of a dendritic

and a trellis drainage pattern. (2 x 2) (4)

1.5.4 Give the underlying rock structure of a dendritic and a trellis

drainage pattern. (2 x 2) (4)

1.5.5 Explain why a dendritic drainage pattern is more suitable for

farming. (2 x 2) (4)

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1.6 FIGURE 1.6 shows river rejuvenation.

1.6.1 What type of erosion is associated with river rejuvenation? (1 x 1) (1)

1.6.2 What evidence indicates that river rejuvenation has taken place?
(1 x 1) (1)

1.6.3 Identify the force of upliftment associated with rejuvenation. (1 x 1) (1)

1.6.4 Why is rejuvenated land not suitable for human activity? (2 x 2) (4)

1.6.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, explain how

rejuvenation could change the fluvial features downstream of the
point of rejuvenation. (4 x 2) (8)
[75]

QUESTION 2

2.1 Refer to FIGURE 2.1 showing the distribution of temperature over an urban
area. Choose the correct word(s) from those given in brackets to make each
of the statements TRUE. Write only the word(s) next to the question numbers
(2.1.1 to 2.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK.

2.1.1 The lines representing temperature on the sketch are known as

(isohyets/isotherms).

2.1.2 Area (A/B) consists of more artificial surfaces.

2.1.3 The temperature decreases from (A to B/B to A).

2.1.4 The general horizontal surface air movement will be from (A to B/

B to A).

2.1.5 The evaporation rate is higher in area (A/B).

2.1.6 There are more hygroscopic nuclei in area (A/B), therefore it will
experience a greater cloud cover.

2.1.7 Transpiration is higher in area (A/B).

2.1.8 Area (A/B) is likely to experience more precipitation. (8 x 1) (8)

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2.2 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the description of the fluvial
landform in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question
numbers (2.2.1 to 2.2.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 2.2.8 I.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
2.2.1 The point of origin of a river A watershed

2.2.2 High-lying area separating two drainage B floodplain

basins
C mouth
2.2.3 Where the tributaries join the main river
D source
2.2.4 The flat area next to river
E drainage basin
2.2.5 High-lying area between two tributaries
F catchment area
2.2.6 Point where the river flows into the ocean
G interfluve
2.2.7 The area drained by a river system
H confluence
(7 x 1) (7)

2.3 Refer to FIGURE 2.3 which illustrates two stages in the development of a
mid-latitude cyclone.

2.3.1 State the hemisphere (north or south) in which the mid-latitude

cyclone developed. (1 x 1) (1)

2.3.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.3.1. (1 x 1) (1)

2.3.3 Along which front does a mid-latitude cyclone develop? (1 x 1) (1)

2.3.4 State ONE difference between the cold sector and the warm sector.
(2 x 2) (4)

2.3.5 Describe how an occlusion occurs. (2 x 2) (4)

2.3.6 Explain why it is suitable for outdoor activities to take place after the
occlusion stage. (2 x 2) (4)

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2.4 FIGURE 2.4 is a representation of a coastal low and a berg wind.

2.4.1 Name the season represented in the diagram. (1 x 1) (1)

2.4.2 Give ONE reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.4.1. (1 x 1) (1)

2.4.3 Why is the wind visible in FIGURE 2.4, known as a berg wind?
(1 x 1) (1)

2.4.4 Refer to the air movement represented by the arrows at A and B.

(a) Name the resultant local winds associated with a coastal low at
point A and at point B. (2 x 1) (2)

(b) Why is the local wind at A associated with dry conditions?

(1 x 2) (2)

(c) In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, discuss the

impact of the air movement from the Kalahari High to the
coastal low on the physical (natural) environment of the West
Coast regions of South Africa. (4 x 2) (8)

2.5 FIGURE 2.5 illustrates types of rivers.

2.5.1 Differentiate between a permanent and an episodic river. (2 x 1) (2)

2.5.2 Describe the position of the water table in the permanent river.
(1 x 2) (2)

2.5.3 Discuss TWO factors that cause an episodic river. (2 x 2) (4)

2.5.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, suggest the impact of

deforestation (vegetation removal) on a permanent river. (4 x 2) (8)

2.6 Refer to FIGURE 2.6 which shows different activities polluting water
resources.

2.6.1 What is river management? (1 x 1) (1)

2.6.2 Name ONE way in which the factory pollutes the river. (1 x 1) (1)

2.6.3 Explain the importance of the wastewater treatment plant in river

management. (2 x 2) (4)

2.6.4 State TWO ways in which fertilisers from the crop land can impact
on the ecology of the river. (2 x 2) (4)

2.6.5 Outline the negative impact of water pollution on the economy of a

country. (2 x 2) (4)
[75]

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SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN

ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY

Answer at least ONE question in this section.

QUESTION 3

3.1 Refer to FIGURE 3.1 showing rural settlement patterns. Match the
descriptions below with the rural settlement patterns A or B. Write only A or B
next to the question numbers (3.1.1 to 3.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK,
e.g. 3.1.9 B.

3.1.1 A nucleated settlement pattern

3.1.2 Lacks privacy

3.1.3 Sharing of farming equipment

3.1.4 Safety and security risk

3.1.5 Fragmented (broken up) farm land

3.1.6 Far from basic services like shops and schools

3.1.7 Produces large yields

3.1.8 Requires large amounts of money to practise farming (8 x 1) (8)

3.2 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.
Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question
numbers (3.2.1 to 3.2.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 3.2.8 C.

3.2.1 The East London Industrial Development Zone (IDZ) is situated in

the…

A Northern Cape.
B Western Cape.
C Free State.
D Eastern Cape.

3.2.2 The main mineral mined in the Phalaborwa SDI is …

A copper.
B platinum.
C gold.
D iron ore.

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3.2.3 The spatial development initiative (SDI) situated in Limpopo is

the … SDI.

A Richards Bay
B Phalaborwa
C Saldanha Bay
D Platinum

3.2.4 In the Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage industrial region, the main industry

is …

A fish processing.
B chemical manufacturing.
C motor vehicle assembly.
D oil refining.

3.2.5 Food processing is one of the main industries in the … industrial

region.

A Western Cape
B PWV/Gauteng
C Durban-Pinetown
D Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage

3.2.6 The only landlocked industrial region is …

A the Western Cape.

B Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage.
C PWV/Gauteng.
D Durban-Pinetown.

3.2.7 The core industrial region that contributes the least to South Africaʹs
GDP is the … industrial region.

A Western Cape
B Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage
C PWV/Gauteng
D Durban-Pinetown (7 x 1) (7)

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3.3 Refer to FIGURE 3.3, an extract on service provision as an urban settlement

issue.

3.3.1 According to the FIGURE 3.3, what percentage of the population

relies on public health care services? (1 x 1) (1)

3.3.2 Quote a statement from the extract about the state of health care in
the public sector. (1 x 2) (2)

3.3.3 Explain why the provision of quality health care in urban areas is
considered to be a social injustice. (2 x 2) (4)

3.3.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, discuss how service

delivery in the public health care sector in urban areas could be
improved. (4 x 2) (8)

3.4 Refer to FIGURE 3.4 showing a model of urban structure.

3.4.1 Identify the model of urban structure. (1 x 1) (1)

3.4.2 Which land-use zone covers the largest area in the illustrated model
of urban structure? (1 x 1) (1)

3.4.3 Name ONE visible characteristic of the CBD. (1 x 1) (1)

3.4.4 Give ONE reason for the development of the outlying business
district (7) on the outskirts of the city. (1 x 2) (2)

3.4.5 Refer to land-use zones 5 and 6.

(a) Comment on the location of land-use zones 5 and 6 in relation

to each other. (1 x 2) (2)

(b) Compatibility (ability to live or to exist together) determines the

location of land-use zones in an urban area. Give reasons why
5 and 6 are not compatible. (2 x 2) (4)

3.4.6 What are the similarities between the South African city and the
model identified in FIGURE 3.4.1? (2 x 2) (4)

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3.5 Refer to FIGURE 3.5 showing the West Coast Spatial Development Initiative
(SDI).

3.5.1 What is a spatial development initiative? (1 x 1) (1)

3.5.2 Name the port associated with the West Coast SDI. (1 x 1) (1)

3.5.3 Name ONE manufacturing industry in the West Coast SDI. (1 x 1) (1)

3.5.4 Discuss TWO physical factors that favoured the development of the
SDI on the West coast. (2 x 2) (4)

3.5.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines to explain how the

West Coast SDI uplifts the local community. (4 x 2) (8)

3.6 Refer to FIGURE 3.6 showing the role of international trade in economic
development.

3.6.1 What is the purpose of international trade? (1 x 1) (1)

3.6.2 Quote from the extract why international trade is growing rapidly.
(1 x 2) (2)

3.6.3 According to the extract, global trade contributes to the reduction of

poverty. Explain this statement. (2 x 2) (4)

3.6.4 Explain how distance from major trading partners restricts South
Africa from competing in world markets. (2 x 2) (4)

3.6.5 Explain how international trade can limit local production in a

country. (2 x 2) (4)
[75]

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QUESTION 4

4.1 Match each of the descriptions below with either a high-order or a low-order
central place. Write only 'high-order central place' or 'low-order central place'
next to the question numbers (4.1.1 to 4.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g.
4.1.8 high-order central place.

4.1.1 This central place offers a wide variety of functions

4.1.2 A low threshold population is associated with this central place

4.1.3 A larger sphere of influence is evident in this central place

4.1.4 According to the urban hierarchy, this central place is in the

majority

4.1.5 A conurbation is an example of this type of central place

4.1.6 There is a smaller range in this central place

4.1.7 Specialised services, like universities and art galleries, are found in
this type of central place (7 x 1) (7)

4.2 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.
Choose the correct economic concept to answer the statements. Write down
only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (4.2.1 to 4.2.8),
e.g. 4.2.9 C.

4.2.1 Transport is an example of the … sector.

A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary

4.2.2 The … sector is linked to research and development.

A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary

4.2.3 The value of goods and services produced within the boundaries
of a country is its …

A gross domestic product.

B balance of payment.
C gross national product.
D balance of trade.

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4.2.4 Products that are sold overseas, are sold on the … market.

A import
B export
C home
D national

4.2.5 Value-added goods are produced in the … sector.

A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary

4.2.6 Sugar cane farming is an example of … farming.

A small-scale commercial
B small-scale subsistence
C large-scale commercial
D large-scale subsistence

4.2.7 When an industry is situated close to a mineral source, it is known

as a/an … industry.

A raw-material orientated
B market orientated
C break-of-bulk point
D ubiquitous

4.2.8 The process whereby industries migrate from core industrial

regions to peripheral industrial regions:

A Centralisation
B Commercialisation
C Agglomeration
D Decentralisation (8 x 1) (8)

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4.3 Read the extract in FIGURE 4.3 referring to the effects of rural depopulation.

4.3.1 Define the term rural depopulation. (1 x 1) (1)

4.3.2 Quote TWO pieces of evidence from the passage that indicates the
social effects of rural depopulation. (2 x 1) (2)

4.3.3 'Farms get bigger, while less manpower is needed'.

(a) Suggest ONE possible reason why farms get bigger.

(1 x 2) (2)

(b) Discuss how 'bigger farms' could increase rural depopulation.

(1 x 2) (2)

4.3.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, explain how land

reform could reduce rural depopulation in South Africa. (4 x 2) (8)

4.4 Study FIGURE 4.4, a photograph showing an informal settlement (A).

4.4.1 What is an informal settlement? (1 x 1) (1)

4.4.2 State TWO basic needs that people who live in most informal
settlements do not have easy access to. (2 x 1) (2)

4.4.3 State TWO ways in which the appearance of informal settlement

differs from the appearance of the formal settlement at B. (2 x 1) (2) (2

4.4.4 Name TWO factors that influenced the location of this informal
settlement. (2 x 1) (2)

4.4.5 Explain how the people living in A can benefit from settlement B.
(2 x 2) (4)

4.4.6 Discuss possible solutions that the local municipality can provide to
reduce the growth of settlement A. (2 x 2) (4)

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4.5 Refer to FIGURE 4.5, an infographic on maize farming in South Africa.

4.5.1 Why does South Africa have to export maize? (1 x 1) (1)

4.5.2 In which years did South Africa experience its lowest and highest
maize production? (2 x 1) (2)

4.5.3 Suggest a possible reason for the demand for South African maize
by foreign countries. (1 x 2) (2)

4.5.4 The trend shown in the infographic is an erratic (inconsistent)

production of maize over the years. Give a possible reason for this
trend. (1 x 2) (2)

4.5.5 Explain what impact low maize production can have on the economy
of South Africa. (2 x 2) (4)

4.5.6 Suggest possible strategies that the South African government could
adopt to ensure a more stable production of maize. (2 x 2) (4)

4.6 FIGURE 4.6 is an article about the Durban-Pinetown Industrial Region.

4.6.1 Where would you rank Durban-Pinetown in terms of industrial output

in South Africa? (1 x 1) (1)

4.6.2 Quote evidence from the passage to show that secondary economic
activities make a big contribution to the GDP. (1 x 1) (1)

4.6.3 Which word in the article describes the significant role of the
manufacturing sector in KwaZulu-Natal's economic growth? (1 x 1) (1)

4.6.4 Discuss reasons why the Durban-Pinetown Industrial Region is ideal

for the ship building and repair industry. (2 x 2) (4)

4.6.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, discuss the positive

impact of the Durban-Pinetown Industrial Region on the economic
development in KwaZulu-Natal. (4 x 2) (8)
[75]

TOTAL: 225

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