AQA 3.4.3 Genetic Diversity Via Mutation and Meiosis

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The figure below summarises the process of meiosis.

The circles represent cells and the


1. structures within each cell represent chromosomes.

(a) Describe and explain the appearance of one of the chromosomes in cell X.

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(3)

(b) Describe what has happened during division 1 in the figure above.

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(2)

(c) Identify one event that occurred during division 2 but not during division 1.

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(1)

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(d) Name two ways in which meiosis produces genetic variation.

1. _________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

(a) Describe how mRNA is formed by transcription in eukaryotes.


2.
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(b) Describe how a polypeptide is formed by translation of mRNA.

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(6)

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(c) Define ‘gene mutation’ and explain how a gene mutation can have:

• no effect on an individual
• a positive effect on an individual.

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(4)
(Total 15 marks)

(a) Describe the appearance and behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis.


3.
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(5)

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(b) Describe and explain the processes that occur during meiosis that increase genetic
variation.

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(5)
(Total 10 marks)

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Figure 1 shows a faulty form of meiosis that can occur in some plants.
4.
Figure 1

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(a) Complete Figure 2 to show the chromosome content of the cells that would result from a
normal meiotic division of the diploid parent cell shown in Figure 1.

Figure 2

(2)

(b) If two diploid (2n) gametes fuse at fertilisation, it can result in the growth of a tetraploid
plant which has 4 copies of each chromosome.

Red clover is a plant grown to produce cattle feed. Tetraploid red clover plants produce a
higher yield than diploid red clover plants.

Whether a red clover plant produces 2n gametes is genetically controlled.

Scientists investigated the possibility of breeding red clover plants that only produced 2n
gametes.

• In breeding cycle 0, they grew red clover plants and identified plants that produced 2n
gametes.
• In breeding cycle 1, they used the plants producing 2n gametes to produce offspring.
• In breeding cycles 2 and 3, they identified plants producing 2n gametes and used
these to produce offspring.

Their results are shown in the table.

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Observed Expected

Number of plants Number of plants


Number of plants Number of plants
that did not that did not
Breeding cycle that did produce that did produce
produce 2n produce 2n
2n gametes 2n gametes
gametes gametes

0 50 4 50 4

1 14 42

2 2 44

3 0 56

The scientists used the following null hypothesis.

‘The proportion of plants that produce 2n gametes will not change from one breeding cycle
to the next.’

Complete the table to show the expected number of plants that did not produce 2n
gametes and the expected number of plants that did produce 2n gametes after 1 cycle.
Give each answer to the nearest whole number.
(2)

(c) The scientists tested their null hypothesis using the chi-squared statistical test.
After 1 cycle their calculated chi-squared value was 350
The critical value at P=0.05 is 3.841

What does this result suggest about the difference between the observed and expected
results and what can the scientists therefore conclude?

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(2)

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(d) Use your knowledge of directional selection to explain the results shown in the table.

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(3)
(Total 9 marks)

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Figure 1 shows the life cycle of a moss plant. In this life cycle, only the stalk and spore capsule
5. are diploid. All the cells in all the other stages of the life cycle of the moss are haploid.

(a) Which letter, A, B, C or D, in Figure 1, shows where meiosis occurs in the life cycle of the
moss? Write the appropriate letter in the box provided.

(1)

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(b) Explain how the chromosome number is halved during meiosis.

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(2)

(c) Figure 2 shows a cell from the moss plant.

The cell is in the second meiotic division.

What is the haploid number of chromosomes for this species of moss?

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(1)

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(d) Crossing over greatly increases genetic diversity in this species of moss.

Describe the process of crossing over and explain how it increases genetic diversity.

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(4)
(Total 8 marks)

In women, the first division of meiosis produces one daughter cell that has almost all of the
6. cytoplasm. The other daughter cell consists of a nucleus surrounded by a very small amount of
cytoplasm and a cell-surface membrane. This very small daughter cell is called a polar body.
Polar bodies do not usually divide. The same process occurs in the second division of meiosis,
resulting in one egg cell and two polar bodies.

The diagram shows the formation of an egg cell and two polar bodies during meiosis. It also
shows what happens to one pair of homologous chromosomes. This pair carries two alleles of
gene A.

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(a) Complete the diagram by putting A or a in the boxes. One box has been completed for you
with A.
(1)

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(b) ✓) in the box next to the name of the process that produced the combination of
Put a tick (✓
alleles on the chromosome in the first polar body in the diagram.

Anaphase

Crossing over

Independent assortment

Semi-conservative replication

(1)

(c) A scientist measured the diameter of a polar body and the diameter of the nucleus inside it.
The diameter of the polar body was 10.4 μm and the diameter of the nucleus was 7.0 μm.
The density of mitochondria in the cytoplasm of the polar body (outside of the nucleus) was
0.08 mitochondria per μm3.

Calculate the number of mitochondria in the polar body. You should assume polar bodies
and nuclei are spherical.

The formula for the volume of a sphere is πr3 where π = 3.14

Show your working.

Number of mitochondria =____________________


(2)

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(d) Mitochondrial diseases are caused by faulty mitochondria. All of a person’s mitochondria
are inherited from their mother via the egg cell. An egg cell contains approximately 3 × 105
mitochondria.

One proposed treatment to prevent passing on faulty mitochondria involves

• removing the nucleus from an egg cell donated by a woman with healthy
mitochondria
• replacing this nucleus with the contents of the polar body from a woman whose egg
cells are affected by mitochondrial disease.

Suggest how this treatment prevents inheritance of mitochondrial diseases.

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(2)

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(e) If most of the mitochondria in a cell are faulty, this prevents many important enzyme-
catalysed reactions taking place or slows them down.

Suggest and explain one reason why.

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

(a) Describe how mRNA is produced from an exposed template strand of DNA.
7.
Do not include DNA helicase or splicing in your answer.

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(3)

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(b) Define the term exon.

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(1)

The table below shows mRNA codons for some amino acids.

Serine Proline Glycine Threonine Alanine

UCU CCU GGA ACU GCA

UCC CCA GGG ACC GCG

(c) Figure 1 shows the DNA template nucleotide base sequence that determines the
sequence of four amino acids.

Figure 1

AGG CGT CCT GGA

Use information from the table and Figure 1 to give the amino acid sequence determined
by this sequence of nucleotides.

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(1)

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(d) A mutation in the nucleotide sequence shown in Figure 1 resulted in the following amino
acid sequence.

Figure 2

Serine Glycine Glycine Proline

A student concluded that the mutation involved the addition of one nucleotide within the
sequence shown Figure 1. Does information in this question support the student’s
conclusion? Give reasons for your answer.

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(2)
(Total 7 marks)

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Ulva lactuca is an alga that lives on rocks on the seashore. It is regularly covered by seawater.
8.
Figure 1 shows a diagram of one Ulva lactuca alga.

Figure 1

(a) Unlike plants, Ulva lactuca does not have xylem tissue.

Suggest how Ulva lactuca is able to survive without xylem tissue.

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(1)

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Ulva lactuca has a haploid and a diploid form.

Figure 2 shows the life cycle of Ulva lactuca.

Figure 2

(b) On Figure 2 complete each box with an appropriate letter to show the type of cell division
happening between each stage in the life cycle. Use ‘ T’ to represent mitosis and ‘ E’ to
represent meiosis.
(2)

(c) Ulva prolifera also produces haploid, mobile single cells that can fuse to form a zygote.

Suggest and explain one reason why successful reproduction between Ulva prolifera and
Ulva lactuca does not happen.

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(2)
(Total 5 marks)

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Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a small circular DNA molecule located in mitochondria. It is
9. 16 569 nucleotides long and contains 37 genes and a control region.

Sports scientists investigated whether a mutation in the control region of mtDNA in human males
was related to an ability to exercise for longer.

• The males in Group T had thymine at nucleotide position 16 519


• The males in Group C had a mutation resulting in cytosine at nucleotide position 16 519

(a) The control regions of Group T and Group C were the same length.

Name the type of gene mutation that is most likely to have occurred at nucleotide position
16 519

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(1)

Group T and Group C completed the same 8-week training programme. The following
measurements were taken at the start of the 8-week programme, and again at the end.

1. VO2 max (a measure of maximal oxygen uptake).


2. Citrate synthase (CS) activity (CS is an enzyme involved in the Krebs cycle).

The scientists then calculated the percentage increase in each measurement in both groups.

Figure 1 and Figure 2 show their results.

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(b) A student concluded from Figure 1 and Figure 2 that training has a positive effect on
VO2 max and CS activity.

Evaluate the student’s conclusion.

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(3)

(c) The mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) control region is an area of mtDNA that is non-coding.
This region stimulates the synthesis of both mtDNA and mitochondrial messenger RNA.

Use this information to suggest two reasons why the mutation at nucleotide position 16 519
could lead to the differences seen in Figure 2.

1 _________________________________________________________________

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2 _________________________________________________________________

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(2)

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The sports scientists investigated whether there was a correlation between the percentage
change in VO2 max and percentage change in CS activity in Group T.

Figure 3 shows their results.

Figure 3

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(d) ‘Having thymine at nucleotide position 16 519 in Group T causes an increase in ability to
exercise for longer.’

Evaluate this conclusion.

Use all the data in this question.

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(3)
(Total 9 marks)

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Trout is a type of fish, often produced commercially in trout farms.
10.
A scientist investigated the growth of farmed trout. She determined the median mass of a large
population of trout at intervals. She started measuring on the day the newly hatched fish began
feeding. Her results are shown on the graph below.

The best fit line shown on the graph is represented using this equation.

median fish mass = (m × days feeding) + 50

where m is the gradient of the best fit line.

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(a) Use the graph above and the equation to calculate the median mass of fish after 195 days’
feeding.

Show your working.

Answer _______________ mg
(2)

(b) A trout body cell contains 80 chromosomes.

The table below shows the number of chromosomes and the mass of DNA in different
nuclei. All the nuclei are from the same trout.

Complete the table below.

Mass of DNA / arbitrary


Nucleus Number of chromosomes
units

At prophase of mitosis 80

At telophase of mitosis 25

From an egg cell

(2)

(c) Give one reason why trout eggs produced by meiosis are genetically different.

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(1)

A trout body cell contains 80 chromosomes.

Farmed female trout are treated so that they produce diploid egg cells.

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(d) Give the number of chromosomes in body cells of the offspring produced from treated
farmed female trout and untreated farmed male trout.

Number of chromosomes _______________


(1)

(e) The offspring produced from farmed trout are sterile. Suggest and explain why.

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

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(a) Describe how the process of meiosis results in haploid cells.
11. Do not include descriptions of how genetic variation is produced in meiosis.

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(4)

(b) Figure 1 shows the arrangement of chromosomes in a cell during the first meiotic division.

Figure 1

A scientist observed 300 cells. All of the cells were at exactly the same stage of meiosis as
the cell shown in Figure 1.

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Use your knowledge of the independent segregation of homologous chromosomes to
calculate how many of these cells are expected to have an identical arrangement of
chromosomes to those shown in Figure 1. Assume no crossing over occurs.

Answer _______________
(2)

(c) Draw a diagram to show the chromosomes in one gamete produced by meiosis from the
cell shown in Figure 1.
(1)

(d) Figure 2 shows the life cycle of a fungus. The life cycle includes sexual reproduction.

Figure 2

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What is the name of the process shown by arrow A in Figure 2?

✓) one box.
Tick (✓

Binary fission

Fertilisation

Meiosis

Mitosis

(1)
(Total 8 marks)

(a) In taxonomy, an organism is identified by referring to the species name and the genus
12. name.

What term is used to describe this method of naming organisms?

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(1)

(b) Define the term mutagenic agent.

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(1)

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(c) Figure 1 shows how the species Spartina townsendii is produced.

The number of chromosomes in cells is shown in some of the boxes.

Figure 1

Complete Figure 1 by giving the correct number of chromosomes in each of the boxes.
(1)

A mutation in the number of chromosomes in a S. townsendii cell produced a new species,


Spartina anglica.

Figure 2 shows the number of chromosomes in leaf cells of these species.

Figure 2

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(d) Name the type of mutation that changed the number of chromosomes in S. townsendii to
produce S. anglica. Explain your answer.

Name of mutation ___________________________________________________

Explanation ________________________________________________________

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(3)

(e) Genetic variation within a species is increased during meiosis by crossing over and the
independent segregation of homologous chromosomes.

Apart from mutation, explain one other way genetic variation within a species is increased.

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

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Mark schemes
(a) 1. Chromosome is formed of two chromatids;
1. 2. (Because) DNA replication (has occurred);
3. (Sister) chromatids held together by centromere.
3

(b) 1. Chromosomes in homologous pair;


2. One of each into daughter cells / haploid number.
2

(c) Separation of (sister) chromatids / division of centromere.


1

(d) 1. Independent segregation (of homologous chromosomes);


Accept random assortment
2. Crossing over / formation of chiasmata.
2
[8]

(a) 1. Hydrogen bonds (between DNA bases) break;


2.
Ignore DNA helicase.
Reject hydrolysing hydrogen bonds.

2. (Only) one DNA strand acts as a template;

3. (Free) RNA nucleotides align by complementary base pairing;


For ‘align by complementary base pairing’, accept ‘align to
complementary bases’ or ‘align by base pairing’.

4. (In RNA) Uracil base pairs with adenine (on DNA)

OR

(In RNA) Uracil is used in place of thymine;


Do not credit use of letters alone for bases.

5. RNA polymerase joins (adjacent RNA) nucleotides;


Reject suggestions that RNA polymerase forms hydrogen bonds or
joins complementary bases.

6. (By) phosphodiester bonds (between adjacent nucleotides);

7. Pre-mRNA is spliced (to form mRNA)

OR

Introns are removed (to form mRNA);


5 max

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(b) 1. (mRNA attaches) to ribosomes

OR

(mRNA attaches) to rough endoplasmic reticulum;

2. (tRNA) anticodons (bind to) complementary (mRNA) codons;

3. tRNA brings a specific amino acid;

4. Amino acids join by peptide bonds;

5. (Amino acids join together) with the use of ATP;

6. tRNA released (after amino acid joined to polypeptide);

7. The ribosome moves along the mRNA to form the polypeptide;


6 max

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(c) (Definition of gene mutation)

1. Change in the base/nucleotide (sequence of chromosomes/DNA);


For 4 marks at least one mark must be scored in each section of
the answer.
Accept named mutation for ‘change’.

2. Results in the formation of new allele;

(Has no effect because)

3. Genetic code is degenerate (so amino acid sequence may not change);

OR

Mutation is in an intron (so amino acid sequence may not change);


Accept description of ‘degenerate’, eg some amino acids have more
than one triplet/codon.

4. Does change amino acid but no effect on tertiary structure;

5. (New allele) is recessive so does not influence phenotype;

(Has positive effect because)

6. Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes the properties (of the
protein)

OR

Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes a named protein;


For ‘polypeptide’ accept ‘amino acid sequence’ or ‘protein’.

7. May result in increased reproductive success

OR

May result in increased survival (chances);


4 max
[15]

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(a) (During prophase)
3.
1. Chromosomes
coil / condense / shorten / thicken / become visible;

2. (Chromosomes) appear as (two sister) chromatids joined at the centromere;

(During metaphase)

3. Chromosomes line up on the equator / centre of the cell;

4. (Chromosomes) attached to spindle fibres;

5. By their centromere;

(During anaphase)

6. The centromere splits / divides;

7. (Sister) chromatids / chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles / ends of the cell /
separate;

(During telophase)

8. Chromatids / chromosomes
uncoil / unwind / become longer / thinner.
No marks for naming the stages
Reject references to homologous chromosomes / pairing of
chromosomes
Ignore references to spindle formation during prophase
5 max

(b) 1. Homologous chromosomes pair up;

2. Independent segregation;

3. Maternal and paternal chromosomes are re-shuffled in any combination;

4. Crossing over leads to exchange of parts of (non-sister) chromatids / alleles between


homologous chromosomes;

5. (Both) create new combinations of alleles;


5
[10]

(a) 1. 1 long and 1 short chromosome, each made up of 2 chromatids held (by centromere),
4.
in each cell of 1st division;

2. 1 long and 1 short (separate) chromosome in each cell of 2nd division;


Allow ECF for correct chromosomes shown in each cell from
candidate’s 1 st division cells.
Ignore drawing of centromere.
2

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(b)
52 4

;;

Allow 1 mark for numbers totalling 56 except 14/42 - repetition of observed values.

If table is blank, award 1 mark for evidence of 56.


Both 52 and 4 required in table for two marks, do not credit 52 or 4
for one mark.
Award 1 max for answers not given as whole numbers.
2

(c) 1. There is a less than 0.05/5% probability that the difference(s) (between observed and
expected) occurred by chance;
Reject ‘results (without reference to difference) occurring by
chance’. Overall max 1 with this statement.
Accept ‘there is a greater than 0.95/95% probability that the
difference did not occur by chance’.
Ignore ‘difference is significant’

2. Calculated value is greater than critical value so the null hypothesis can be rejected;
Ignore ‘difference is significant’
Do not accept ‘P value’ for ‘critical value’.

3. (The scientists can conclude that) the proportion of plants that produce 2n gametes
does change from one breeding cycle to the next;
2 max

(d) 1. The scientists selected/used for breeding plants that produced 2n gametes;
Answer must be in context of the scientists selecting plants to
breed. Accept ‘artificial selection’ or ‘selectively bred’.

2. (So these plants) passed on their alleles (for production of 2n gametes to the next
generation);
Both mark points can be awarded if one correct reference is made
to alleles (in either context).

3. The frequency of alleles for production of 2n gametes increased (in the population).
Both mark points can be awarded if one correct reference is made
to alleles (in either context).
For ‘production of 2n gametes’ accept ‘abnormal meiosis’.
Do not accept ‘number’ for frequency.
Accept converse answers linked to plants that produce n gametes.
3
[9]

(a) D;
5. 1

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(b) 1. Homologous chromosomes (pair);
2. One of each (pair) goes to each (daughter) cell / to opposite poles;
Ignore descriptions of the second division of meiosis.
2

(c) 6;
1

(d) 1. Homologous pairs of chromosomes associate / form a bivalent;


2. Chiasma(ta) form;
3. (Equal) lengths of (non-sister) chromatids / alleles are exchanged;
4. Producing new combinations of alleles;
1. Accept descriptions of homologous pairs
2. Accept descriptions of chiasma(ta) e.g. chromatids /
chromosomes entangle / twist
2. Neutral Crossing / cross over
3. Reject genes are exchanged
3. Accept lengths of DNA are exchanged
4. Do not accept references to new combinations of genes
unless qualified by alleles
4
[8]

(a) Lowercase a in both boxes


6. 1

(b) Tick in box next to ‘Crossing over’;


1

(c) 32.73 / 32.7 / 32 / 33;;

Award 1 max for either

409 (409.2) for difference in volume (but incorrect number of mitochondria);

OR

Answer of 262 (261.9) (using diameter, rather than radius);


2

(d) 1. Egg (created) has nucleus / DNA / genes of (affected) woman / mother;
Accept ref. to zygote / embryo / child for egg
Accept genetic information
Ignore references to alleles
Reject if nucleus from wrong egg / woman

2. It has mostly / many / lots of normal mitochondria (of unaffected woman)


OR
There are few faulty mitochondria;
Reject ref. to production of healthy mitochondria as result of
treatment
2

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(e) 1. Not enough / little ATP produced;
One reason asked for, so list rule applies
Ignore ref. to no ATP produced

2. ATP provides energy for (enzyme) reactions


OR
ATP phosphorylates substrates / enzymes, so making them (more) reactive;
Accept (leads to) lower activation energy for reaction
Reject if mention energy produced
2 max
[8]

(a) 1. (Free RNA) nucleotides form complementary base pairs;


7.
Accept A-U, G-C OR combination of those pairs

2. Phosphodiester bonds form;


Accept linkages for ‘bonds’

3. By (action of) RNA polymerase;


3

(b) Base/nucleotide/triplet sequence coding for polypeptide/sequence of amino acids/primary


structure;
1

(c) Serine Alanine Glycine Proline;


Must be in this order Accept Ser Ala Gly Pro / S A G P
1

(d) Mark as pairs. 1 and 2 or 3 and 4.

(No)

1. G to C (in the second codon/for Glycine)

OR

CGT to CCT (in second codon/for Glycine);

2. (So), substitution (not addition mutation);


Reject if substitution of Glycine (for Alanine)

OR

3. (If addition) frameshift / all triplets moved;


4. (So), affects more than one amino acid;
2
[7]

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(a) Short diffusion pathway (to cells)
8. OR
It has a surface permeable (to water/ions into cells);
Accept the idea of not needing structural support as supported by the
water.
Ignore pores/stomata
1

(b)

Accept answers written beside the box but clearly intended for that box.

1. E in top right box; (1 mark)


Accept ‘meiosis’ for ‘E’ (spelling must be correct)
Reject anything other than ‘E/meiosis’ written in the top right box

2. 3 x T in top and bottom left and bottom right boxes; (1 mark)


Accept ‘mitosis’ for ‘T’ (spelling must be correct)
Reject anything other than ‘T/mitosis’ written in top left, bottom left and
bottom right boxes.

If 1 x E and 3 x T but written in incorrect boxes = 0 marks


2

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(c) 1. They are different species;

2. (So) if fused together they would not produce fertile offspring


OR
(So) they have named characteristics that means they are reproductively
isolated;
For ‘fuse’ Accept ‘form a zygote’.
Accept
• if they fused together meiosis could not occur
• if they fused together (chromosomes) could not form
homologous pairs
• if they fused production of gametes could not occur.
Accept a description of characteristics that would lead to reproductive
isolation, eg
• will not successfully fuse with one another
• produce single cells at different times
• description of geographical isolation.
Accept the description on its own, the phrase ‘reproductive isolation’ is
not required.
2
[5]

(a) Substitution;
9.
Accept inversion or translocation
Ignore ‘point mutation’
1

(b)
Max 2 marks for mark points 2, 3 and 4

1. (VO2 max and CS activity) increased for both groups;

2. No statistical test, so do not know if differences are significant


OR
No statistical test, so differences could be due to chance;
Ignore standard deviation
Accept correct named statistical test eg t-test

3. Only 8 weeks training


OR
Training did not last long;

4. Might not be true for all types of training/exercise/females;


3 max

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(c) In Group C:

1. Less mitochondrial replication/production;


1. and 2. Accept converse for Group T

2. Less transcription (of genes) for mitochondrial proteins/CS


OR
Less translation of (mRNA into) mitochondrial proteins;
Accept less CS/enzyme is produced
2

(d)
Max 2 marks for mark points 3, 4 and 5
Ignore any answers relating to sample size or duration of investigation
Ignore ‘correlation does not mean causation’ unless qualified

For (no mark)

1. (From Figure 2 Group T have) increased CS activity for Krebs cycle;

2. (from Figure 1 Group T have) increased VO2 max so more oxygen (available)
OR
(from Figure 1 Group T have) increased VO2 max so more aerobic respiration
OR
(from Figure 1 Group T have) increased VO2 max so delayed anaerobic
respiration;
Accept ‘less lactate’ for delayed anaerobic respiration

Against (no mark)

3. No correlation between (percentage change in) VO2 max and CS activity


OR
No correlation on Figure 3;

4. It might not be thymine causing the increase


OR
There may be other differences in the control region (of Group T) that cause the
increase;
Ignore ‘could be due to lifestyle/diet changes’

5. VO2 max/CS activity not the only measures of ability to exercise for longer;
Accept ideas that they did not measure ability to exercise for longer
3 max
[9]

(a) Correct answer of 960 to 1025 (mg) for 2 marks;;


10.
Accept for 1 mark,

m = 4.18 to 5.00
2

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(b) Mark each column;;
Number of Mass of DNA /
chromosomes arbitrary units

50

80

40 12.5
2

(c) Independent segregation


OR
Crossing over;
Accept labelled diagram
Accept (eggs produced) have different combinations of maternal
and paternal chromosomes
1

(d) 120;
1

(e) 1. Too many/extra set/three copies of chromosomes;


Accept 1 paternal, 2 maternal

2. (Homologous) chromosomes do not pair

OR

(Homologous) chromosomes do not separate (evenly);


Accept divide for separate

3. (So) no meiosis;
2 max
[8]

Peter Symonds College Page 43 of 46


(a) 1. DNA replication (during late interphase);
11.
2. Two divisions;
Accept for ‘two divisions’, meiosis I and meiosis II OR examples of
stages, e.g. anaphase I and anaphase II
Accept description that clearly indicates two divisions
Ignore references to stage names (except above)
Accept annotated diagrammatic representations

3. Separation of homologous chromosomes (in first division);


Accept annotated diagrammatic representations
Reject ‘diploid cells’ once.

4. Separation of (sister) chromatids (in second division);


Accept annotated diagrammatic representations
Reject ‘diploid cells’ once.
Accept ‘chromosomes’ for ‘chromatids’ but reject homologous
chromosomes

5. Produces 4 (haploid) cells/nuclei;


Accept ‘gametes’ for cells
4 max

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks, 18–19;;

Accept for 1 mark,

0.06–0.07 / (½)4 / (correct probability)

OR

16 (correct number of arrangements);


2

(c)

Four chromosomes shaded correctly;


Accept chromosomes in any order
Reject evidence of 2 chromatids per chromosome
1

(d) Mitosis;
1
[8]

Peter Symonds College Page 44 of 46


(a) Binomial;
12. 1

(b) (A factor that) increases (the rate of) mutations;


1

(c) Correct answer - 60, 31 and 30;

(d) Name of mutation

1. Non-disjunction;

Explanation
Ignore homologous

2. (In) meiosis;
Accept reference to first division or second division as indicating
meiosis
Ignore mitosis

3. Chromosomes not separated

OR

All chromosomes stay in one cell

OR

Chromosomes do not form (homologous) pairs;


Accept 'move to one side' OR 'move to one pole'
3

Peter Symonds College Page 45 of 46


(e) 1. Random fusion of gametes

OR

Random fertilisation;
Accept for ‘gametes’,

2. (Produces) new allele combinations

OR

(Produces) new maternal and paternal chromosome combinations;


Reproductive cells
Ignore genes
2
[8]

Peter Symonds College Page 46 of 46

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