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    Maclaurin Series Problem

    Uploaded by

    asway933

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
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    Maclaurin Series Problem

    Uploaded by

    asway933
    10 views3 pages

    Original Title

    MaclaurinSeriesProblem

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    © © All Rights Reserved

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    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
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    Download as pdf or txt
    10 views3 pages

    Maclaurin Series Problem

    Uploaded by

    asway933

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
    Download as pdf or txt
    You are on page 1of 3

    Question:

    Let f (x) be a real-valued function such that:

    dn
    [ n f (x)] = sin(n)
    dx
    ​ ​

    x=0

    Evaluate:

    π csc 1
    ∫ f (x)dx
    ​

    (Proposed by Miracle Invoker ඞ)

    Solution:
    Using Maclaurin Series:
    ∞
    xn
    g(x) = ∑ g ​
    (n)
    (0) ​

    n=0
    n!

    Therefore,

    ∞
    xn
    f (x) = ∑ sin(n) ​ ​

    n=0
    n!

    Using Euler’s Formula for sin(x),


    ein − e−in
    sin(n) =
    2i
    ​

    ∞ n ∞ n
    1 ( e i x) 1 (e−i x)
    f (x) = ∑ − ∑
    2i 2i
    ​ ​ ​ ​ ​

    n! n!
    n=0 n=0

    Recalling the Infinite Series for ex :

    ∞
    xn
    e =∑ x
    ​ ​

    n!
    n=0

    i −i
    ee x − ee x
    f (x) =
    2i
    ​

    Using Euler’s Formula:

    eix = cos x + i sin x

    ei = cos 1 + i sin 1

    e−i = cos 1 − i sin 1


    Now,

    e(cos 1+i sin 1)x − e(cos 1−i sin 1)x


    f (x) =
    2i
    ​

    ex cos 1 eix sin 1 − ex cos 1 e−ix sin 1


    f (x) =
    2i

    eix sin 1 − e−ix sin 1


    f (x) = ex cos 1 ( )
    2i
    ​

    Using Euler’s Formula for sin(x):

    f (x) = sin (x sin 1) ex cos 1

    Applying Integration By Parts Twice results in:

    ∫ ex cos 1 sin (x sin 1) dx = −ex cos 1 sin (1 − x sin 1) + C

    Hence,

    π csc 1
    ∫ f (x)dx = sin (1) (1 + eπ cot 1 )
    ​ ​

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