C-200

Q: Strategies link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this
construct, the term "ways" is defined as:
A: A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives

Q: Which instrument of national power is the principal instrument for engaging with other
states and foreign groups in order to advance U.S. values and interests?
A: Diplomatic Instrument of Power

Q: Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the
achievement of the desired end state. In this construct, the term "ends" is defined as:
A: The objectives that must be accomplished to reach the desired end state

Q: Going to war for the right reasons, as a last resort, with a reasonable hope for
success, and with legitimate authority is an example of Jus ____
A: Jus ad Bellum, (Justice of going to war)
Q: Which instrument of national power is the principal instrument for engaging other
states and foreign groups in order to advance U.S. values, interests, and objectives?
A: Diplomatic

Q: Using national strategies as a guide, combatant commanders develop plans that execute day-to-day
campaigning that address theater objectives as well as objectives directed by global campaign plans and
functional campaign plans. Which selection describes this category of plans?
A: Combatant Command Campaign Plan

Q: Can the strategic concept be executed with the resources available is an example of

A: Feasibility

Q: What instrument of national power uses actions, words, or images to advance

national interests by engaging key audiences?
A: Informational
Q: The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is the primary system the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff uses to execute statutory
responsibilities to conduct assessments, provide military advice to the President and SecDef, and assist the President and SecDef in providing
strategic direction to the Armed Forces of the United States. Which of the following is a JSPS product?

A: The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan

Q: What is the primary benefit of understanding PMESII systems, their interaction with
each other, and how system relationships will change over time?
A: Increasing the JFC's knowledge of how actions within a system can affect other system
components

Q: Which document produced by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff translates strategic policy end
states from the Contingency Planning Guidance into military campaign and contingency plan guidance?

A: Joint Strategic Campaign Plan

Q: According to Joint Publication 1, the "instruments" of national power are:

A: Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic

Q: hat are the three key national security policy advisory councils to the President of the
United States?
A: The National Security Council (NSC), the Homeland Security Council (HSC), and the National
Economic Council (NEC)

Q: Assessment of the probable consequences of success and failure IRT strategy is an

example of ?
A: Risk

Q: Will the attainment of the objectives using the instruments of power in the manner
stated accomplish the strategic effects desired? Is an example of?
A: suitability

Q: Which branch of the US Government does the U.S. Constitution empower to declare
war?
A: Congress
Q: Which official did the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986, make the
statutory principal military advisor to the President, the Secretary of Defense, and the National Security Council?

A: The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Q: According to JP 3-0, what tool can help commanders and staffs gain a systems
perspective and develop an understanding of the operational environment?
A: Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, and Infrastructure

Q: Are the consequences of cost justified by the importance of the effect desired? IRT
strategy is an example of:
A: Acceptability

Q: Limiting who can be deliberately attacked and how war can be legitimately conducted
is an example of Jus ___
A: Jus in bello, (Justice in war)
Q: Which of the following documents is produced by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of
Staff (CJCS) as part of the Joint Strategic Planning System?
A: National Military Strategy

Q: Which statement describes the operational chain of command within the Department
of Defense?
A: Secretary of Defense to the Commanders of Combatant Commands

Q: Which document does the President approve that defines the responsibilities and
areas of responsibility for combatant commanders?
A: Unified Command Plan

Q: ____ analysis develops a thorough understanding of relevant actors and

relationships that is vital to mission success.
A: PMESII
Q: Which of the following documents is signed by the Secretary of Defense?

A: National Defense Strategy

Q: Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the
achievement of the desired end state. In this construct, the term "means" is defined as:
A: Resources that are required to accomplish a sequence of actions

Q: Strategies entail the fundamental logic of ends, ways, and means that lead to the
achievement of the desired end state. In this construct, the term "ways" is defined as
A: A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives
C-300

1
Q: ____ is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative

A: Offensive

Q: ___ is used to place an adversary or enemy in a position of disadvantage

A: Maneuver

Q: ___ expend minimum essential combat power (lethal and nonlethal) on secondary efforts to
allocate the maximum possible combat power on primary efforts.
A: Economy of Force

Q: ___ prevents the enemy from acquiring an unexpected advantage.

A: Security
2
Q: _____ is to strike at a time or place where the enemy is unprepared

A: Surprise

Q: _____ increases the probability of success in execution by preparing clear, uncomplicated

plans and concise orders
A: Simplicity

Q: ________ ensures the commitment necessary to achieve strategic objectives

A: Perserverance

Q: ________ is to maintain legal and moral authority

A: Legitimacy
3
Q: ____ is the management and application of information to support achievement of
objectives
A: Information

Q: ____ helps understanding of the OE and informs the JFC about the adversary

A: Intel

Q: ______all efforts to secure and defend the effectiveness and survivability of mission-related
military and nonmilitary personnel, equipment, facilities, information, and infrastructure
A: Protection

Q: ____ are attacks conducted to damage or destroy an objective or capability

A: Strike
4
Q: _____ operations to seize an area temporarily, usually through forcible entry, to secure information,
confuse an enemy, capture personnel or equipment, or destroy an objective or capability.

A: Raid

Q: ____ Operations to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel

A: Recovery

Q: ____ is Identification, verification, inspection, limitation, control, reduction, or elimination of

specified armaments, or reduction of a military establishment, under international agreement.
A: Arms Control, Nonproliferation, and Disarmament

Q: ___ is acts opposing terrorism

A: combat terrorism
5
Q: ___ is DoD support to federal, state and local law enforcement agencies (LEAs) to
disrupt transport and/or transfer of illegal drugs into the US.
A: Counterdrug Ops

Q: ____ ops is two or more forces or agencies of two or more allies operating together.

A: Combined

Q: ____ is responsible for planning and implementing foreign policy

A: Department of State

Q: ___ is an international organization founded in 1945 and comprised of nearly all of the
world’s nation-states.
A: United Nations
6
Q: ___ is private, self-governing, not-for-profit organization dedicated to alleviating human suffering; and/or
promoting education, health care, economic development, environmental protection, human rights, and conflict
resolution; and/or encouraging the establishment of democratic institutions and civil society.
A: NGO

Q: ___ is the ranking member of the DOS Cabinet and fourth in line of presidential
succession
A: Secretary of State

Q: ___ is the President’s personal representative to the government of the foreign

country
A: Ambassador

Q: What are the 3 types of MN HQ command structures ?

A: Integrated, Lead Nation, & Parallel command structures

7
Q: Which maritime zone extends up to 12 nautical miles from a country's baseline?

A: Territorial Sea

Q: What type of operations are conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve
military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is
no broad conventional force requirement?
A: Special Ops

Q: _________ includes the authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign

missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities to forces.
A: OPCON

Q: sanctioning body establishes a/an ______________ to prohibit specified activities in

a specific geographic area.
A: Exclusion Zone
8
Halfway

9
Q: __________ attempts to synchronize, coordinate and align military operations with the
activities of other governmental and nongovernmental entities to achieve unity of effort
A: Unity of Action

Q: ______ includes the authority for planning, programming, budgeting, and execution
process input, and directive authority for logistics
A: COCOM

Q: Which military operation, or activity, is conducted to contain armed conflict, force a change in antagonistic
behavior, create an environment of reconciliation and rebuilding, and facilitate the transition from fragile to
effective governance.
A: Peacekeeping Operation

Q: According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to

prevent the excessive use of force.
A: Restraint
10
Q: Which joint function prioritizes and allocates resources, coordinates and controls the employment of joint
lethal and nonlethal capabilities, and prepares plans and orders that include establishing appropriate command
authorities among subordinate commands and the assigning of tasks and operational areas?
A: Command and Control

Q: Which joint function encompasses tasks including providing air, space, and missile defense; providing
emergency management and response capabilities; and conducting OPSEC, cyberspace defense, and
cybersecurity?
A: Protection

Q: Which military service is considered expeditionary across all domains?

A: US marine corps

Q: The ________ should be established In a parallel command structure where

coordination, deconfliction, etc. occurs between coalition partners.
A: Coalition Coordination Center (CCC)
11
Q: National interests, the manner and extent of participation, limitations and constraints on the employment
of forces are diplomatic and military considerations for the planning and execution of:

A: Multinational Operations

Q: __________ includes the authority to organize commands and forces and to employ
those forces as the commander considers necessary to accomplish assigned missions.
A: OPCON

Q: Which joint function is responsible for coordinating Operational Contract Support

(OCS)?
A: Sustainment

Q: According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to

direct military action toward a clearly defined and achievable goal.
A: Objective
12
Q: _________ are conducted by the Department of Defense, at the direction of the Department of State, to
assist US citizens to leave a foreign nation when the security situation becomes dangerous.

A: Noncombatant Evacuation Operation

Q: A multinational partnership based upon a formal agreement and broad, long term
objectives and common interests is ___________.
A: Alliance

Q: A multinational operation made up of a group of nations that have agreed to work

together on an ad hoc basis for a narrow set of common interests is a/an _______.
A: Coalition Operation

Q: _____________ is a menu of tasks in a common language, which serves as the foundation

for joint operations planning across the range of military and interagency operations.
A:The Universal Joint Task List (UJTL)
13
Q: Which joint function uses available weapons and other systems to create a specific
effect on a target?
A: Fires

Q: Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This
is particularly important in the fires function when selecting targets. This principle is known as

A: Discrimination

Q: Which military operation or activity employs coercive measures to control the

movement of designated items into or out of a nation or specified area?
A: Enforcement of Sanctions

Q: What is the integrated structure in a foreign country comprising all US agencies, not
under the command of a US combatant commander?
A: US diplomatic mission/embassy
14
Q: Achieving shared understanding, informed decision making and unity of effort among various
agencies of the US Government at the combatant command level is done through a:
A: Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

Q: When making decisions on how to achieve an effect on a target, planners consider such factors as lethal
versus non-lethal, or the amount of force to use against the perceived military value of the target. Within just
conduct in war (jus in bello) this principle is known as:
A: proportionality

Q: According to the principles of joint operations, the purpose of ________________is to

concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time.
A: Mass

Q: ___________ is a range of DOD activities conducted outside the US and its territories
to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation.
A: Foreign Humanitarian Assistance (FHA)
15
Q: Respect, Rapport, Knowledge of Partners, Patience, Mission Focus, Trust and
Confidence are tenets of:
A: Multinational Operations

Q: Which Command Relationship is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or
maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or tasks?
A: TACON

Q: The principle US Government organization that works with countries on democratic

reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and recovery is?
A: United States Agency for International Development (USAID)

Q: Joint functions are related capabilities and activities grouped together to help Joint
Force Commander to:
A: Integrate, synchronize, and direct joint operations.
16
Q: Which organization within the United Nations is responsible for maintaining
international peace and security?
A: The Security Council

Q: ____ is the area surrounding earth at altitudes >100 KM

A: Space

Q: The direction of all forces under a single responsible commander who has the requisite
authority to direct and employ those forces.
A: Unity of Command

Q: Coordination and cooperation toward common objectives, even if the participants are not necessarily
part of the same command or organization, which is the product of successful unified action.
A: Unity of Effort
17
 C-400
(X100 Pretest & C-400 Final Exam Questions)
Q: The security area, battle handover line (BHL), main battle area (MBA), forward edge of the battle area
(FEBA), and battle positions (BP) are control measures common to what type of operation?
A: Defense

Q: As a unit transitions from an offensive to defensive focus, what, doctrinally, should its
commander do?
A: Maintain contact and surveillance of enemy forces

Q: What product developed during the military decision making process (MDMP) describes the
primary issues that may make it difficult for commanders to achieve desired end states?
A: Problem Statement

Q: Which security operation should only be undertaken by a brigade level or higher formation?

A: Cover
Q: Simultaneity, depth, phasing, and tempo are all considered during?

A: Arranging Operations

Q: Which answer describes a decision making tool and a method of recording results of
wargaming?
A: Synchronization Matrix

Q: What method does the US Government use to integrate intergovernmental organizations (IGOs),
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), as well as private sector entities and multinational partners to achieve
collaboration and synchronization of efforts during stability operations?
A: Comprehensive Approach

Q: During orders production, which member of the staff establishes and enforces timings, directs
the order type and format, and specifies the attachments each staff section publishes?
A: Executive officer or chief of staff
Q: How do commanders and staffs synchronize specific functions throughout the
operations process?
A: With integrating processes

Q: Which staff product consists of a continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the
current operation is proceeding according to the commander’s intent and if planned future operations are
supportable?
A: Running estimates

Q: Which of the following is a DSCA primary/core purpose?

A: Protect infrastructure and Property

Q: How does a shaping operation enable the decisive operation?

A: It creates and preserves conditions for success through effects on the enemy, other actors,
and terrain
Q: What organizational structure might a state use if it needed to provide unity of
command for both Soldiers and Airmen responding to an emergency?
A: Joint Task Force

Q: When conducting defensive operations commanders strive to regain the initiative from
whom?
A: Attack enemy forces

Q: In opposing force tactics, what is a battle zone?

A: A zone where the OPFOR expects to conduct decisive actions

Q: What is the principal difference between the Army design methodology and the
military decision-making process?
A: ADM is for conceptual planning, while MDMP is for detailed planning and results in an
executable order
Q: According to OPFOR tactics, what are preferred conditions for conducting an
integrated attack?
A: To take advantage of a window of opportunity to destroy or degrade a key component
of the enemy

Q: During stability operations, if there is no legitimate government to support, what

alternative governance entity might US forces support instead?
A: transitional civil or military authority

Q: In which MDMP step do commanders issue final planning guidance that

communicates acceptable risk?
A: COA approval

Q: What phase of the operations process includes exchanging of LNOs, conducting

rehearsals, and refining the plan via FRAGORDs?
A: Prepare
Q: Understanding a state’s rules for the use of force (RUF) and the federal standing rules for the use of force
(SRUF) during DSCA missions is analogous to understanding which of the following during other decisive action
operations?
A: Rules of Engagement

Q: At the tactical level, which form of maneuver focuses on seizing terrain, destroying
specific enemy forces, and interdicting enemy withdrawal routes?
A: Envelopment

Q: As part of security operations planning considerations, which formation is best suited

to conduct extensive coordination to enable a forward or rearward passage of lines?
A: Cavalry Squadron

Q: What are the two descriptors the US Agency for International Development (USAID)
uses to define the status of fragile states?
A: Crisis and vulnerable states
Q: What type of Army operation is focused on supporting foreign governments and their
ability to provide security for their people?
A: Stability

Q: What type of retrograde task would the 1/3 ABCT commander give if he/she wants the
combined arms battalion to break contact in order to prepare for a counterattack?
A: Withdrawl

Q: During the initial attack if 1/4 SBCT was able to follow up quickly to deny the enemy
an opportunity to adjust or adapt, which of the following would their actions exemplify?
A: Maintaining Momentum

Q: During planning for defensive operations, the commander describes the necessity to prioritize engineer
assets to conduct the survivability tasks of constructing combat vehicle fighting positions and protecting artillery
firing positions and radar systems. This guidance is from which warfighting function?
A: Protection
Q: What is the military decision-making process designed to do?

A: Understand the situation and mission, develop a COA, and produce an operation
order or plan

Q: What are the four elements of the commander’s reconnaissance guidance?

A: Displacement criteria, engagement/disengagement criteria (if any) both lethal and nonlethal,
focus, tempo of reconnaissance

Q: If 1/4 SBCT were to attack with the aim of gaining control of terrain, resources, or key
population centers, which doctrinal concept is best represented?
A: Purposes of Offensive operations

Q: During 1/3 ID ABCT’s defense along PL BRONZE, the S2 informs the commander that an enemy armor battalion is
attacking west towards their flank. The commander’s decision support matrix did not account for this event. Given the
situation, what is the most appropriate planning methodology for adjusting the ABCT’s course of action?

A: Rapid decision-making and synchronization process (RDSP)

Q: During defensive operations, your commander wants to maneuver to new positions prior to
enemy attack. What would you recommend the defending force do before close combat begins?
A: Maneuver to place enemy forces in a position of disadvantage

Q: How do stability operations differ from defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?

A: DSCA operations are solely executed in the US homeland and US territories

Q: During DSCA operations, what best illustrates the principle of tiered response?

A:A local mayor initiates a request to the governor for state national guard assistance

Q: If your active duty battalion/squadron is committed for a DSCA mission, this is usually
based on a disaster declaration under which act?
A: Stafford Act
Q: How does the Army apply the operational concept of Unified Land Operations (ULO)?

A: Through simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, or DSCA across multiple domains to shape operational
environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action

Q: What does a good operational approach provide the staff?

A: The basis for detailed planning and establishment of a logical framework

Q: What best describes security operations?

A: Protects a force from surprise and reduce the unknowns in any situation

Q: What does this symbol depict ?

A: Retirement
C-500
Q: What are the primary abilities essential to the accomplishment of the objective?

A: Critical Capabilities

Q: Simultaneity, depth, phasing, and tempo are all considered during?

A: Arranging Operations

Q: What is the source of power that provides moral or physical strength, freedom of
action, or will to act?
A: Center of Gravity

Q: _____ is the cognitive approach used by commanders and staffs supported by their skill, knowledge, experience,
creativity, and judgment—to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations to organize and employ military forces by
integrating ends, ways, means, and risks.
A: Operational Art
Q: _____is the analytical framework that underpins planning.

A: Operational Design

Q:____ are essential conditions, resources, and means the COG requires to employ the critical
capability.
A: Critical Requirements

Q: _______ describes a critical factor which is deficient or susceptible to direct or indirect

attack that will create decisive or significant effects?
A: Critical vulnerabilities

Q: _____ is used to assess and compare COAs (generated by staff) vs ____ which is fixed and
used to assess sutiability, feasibility, acceptability, distinguishability, and complete
A: COA Evaluation criteria; screening criteria
Q: ______ is An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to
facilitating timely decision making.
A: CCIR

Q: _____ is An intelligence requirement, stated as a priority for intelligence support, that the commander
and staff need to understand the adversary or other aspects of the operational environment.
A: PIR

Q: Information the commander and staff need to understand the status of friendly force
and supporting capabilities.
A: FFIR

Q: What are the 7 steps of JPP

A: 1. Planning initiation 2. mission analysis 3. COA Dev 4. COA Analysis & Wargaming
5. COA Comparison 6. COA approval 7. Plan or Order Dev
F-100
Q: Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the
Secretary of the Army?
A: ADCON

Q: Materiel development and acquisition are integral within the Joint Capabilities and Development System
(JCIDS), the Army Force Management Model, and Doctrine, Organization, Training, Material, Leadership,
Personnel, Facilities, and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) since they ___________.
A: Satisfy identified and validated capability gaps with rapid or deliberate materiel acquisition
solutions.

Q: Across DOTMLPF-P, the services consider materiel solutions last because

______________
A: They are generally the most expensive and take the longest to develop

Q: Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel
development based on immediacy of need?
A: Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate
Q: What represents a "Must-Do", or minimim requirements a capability?

A: KPP

Q: The Defense Acquisition System (DAS) applies to ____________.

A: All Services

Q: Within JCIDS, what construct do capability developers use to identify a wide range of
possible solutions?
A: DOTMLPF-P

Q: What is the current Army Operating Concept?

A: Multi-Domain Operations 2028

Q: The ___________ manages the Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) and
the ____________ manages the Army Requirements Oversight Council (AROC).
A: Joint Staff J-8; HQDA G-8

Q: Which organization is responsible for guiding Army modernization and capability

development?
A: Army Futures Command (AFC)

Q: _____ Assesses and determines required capabilities based on strategy, concepts, and similar
guidance & _____ Proposes multiple solution approaches across the domains of DOTMLPF-P.

A: Needs Analysis; Solutions Analysis

Q: ___ Compares required capabilities to capabilities and capacity present in the joint force to determine unmet
capability requirements & ____ is The analytic process of JCIDS that identifies requirements, which
requirements are not met, and proposes DOTMLPF-P approaches to solve them
A: Gap Analysis; Capabilities-based assessment
Q: What process does the Army use to develop organizational designs?

A: Force Development

Q: Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a __________________ to

update the TOE.
A: Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)

Q: A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is ______________________.

A: requirements document

Q: _____ is the process through which the Army develop and approves new (or
modified) organizational designs.
A: Force Design Update (FDU)
Q: How do Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) differ from DOTMLPF-P?

A: FIFAs assess friction points in integrating organizational change. DOTMLPF-P identifies

options to solve capability gaps.

Q: The ___________ represents the total force that the Senior Leaders of the Army have
identified for funding.
A: POM Force

Q: What process / decision-making forum do the Senior Leaders of the Army use to determine the best
force to meet operational requirements that they can afford within endstrength limitations?

A: Total Army Analysis (TAA)

Q: Acquisition programs are managed by ______________.

A:Program Executive Offices, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project

Managers
Q: The Senior Leaders of the Army document TAA decisions on the total force structure
in the ____________.
A: Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)

Q: MTOEs are the usual authorizations document for the operating force (including BCTs). _________ are
the usual authorizations document for the generating force (including CGSS).

A: Tables of Distribution and Allowance (TDAs)

Q: If a program is unable to spend appropriated funds, the Army can shift the funds to another
program through ____________, but only if it is less than the allowable threshold.
A: Reprogramming

Q: HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army

and CSA happens as part of ________.
A: Programming
Q: The conclusion of TAA marks the transition from ________.

A: Planning to programming

Q: Identifying DOTMLPF-P solutions is part of ________.

A: planning

Q: JCIDS can be considered part of ________.

A: planning

Q: Congress directs the Department of the Army (DA) to accomplish certain tasks
through ___________.
A: US Code Title 10
Q: Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the
Secretary of the Army?
A: ADCON

Q: Who is responsible for each of the following: NMS ____, NSS ____.

A: CJCS; POTUS

Q: _____ develops and fields capabilities that combatant commanders require to meet
the demands of the contemporary operating environment
A: Force Management

Q: Which act allows congress to exercise it’s authority to organize the military?

A: Goldwater-Nicholas Act
Q: What is the process that brings newly developed capabilities to the force?

A: Force Integration

Q: FORSCOM (the Army’s force provider) follows ________, the model used to generate
readiness to meet global demand.
A: Regionally Aligned Readiness and Modernization Model (ReARMM)

Q: _______ readiness prioritizes the readiness of specific units to keep them at a high level of readiness;
_______ readiness rotates which units are prioritized to build readiness at the time of need (employment).

A: Tiered; cyclic

Q: Who is responsible for each of the following: NDS___, & TAP___.

A: Sec of Def; Chief of Staff of the Army (CSA)

H100
Q: According to Jay Luvaas, how can the study of military history contribute to the
development of military professionals? (H101)
A:

Q: What does Luvaas say are the pitfalls or fallacies of studying military history? (H101)

A:

Q: What is the conceptual difference between a military revolution (MR) and a revolution
in military affairs (RMA)? Why is the difference important? (H101)
A:

Q: What is the purported Western Way of War? What are its key elements and how are they different from
warfare practiced by the rest of the world? How much of the contemporary operational environment is a
response to that way of war? (H101)
A:
Q: What role does finance play in the Western Way of War? (H101)

A:

Q: What were Maurice of Nassau’s military reforms, and how did they help reshape the
form and functions of European armies in the early-modern period? (H102)
A:

Q: What are the differences between citizen-soldiers, mercenaries, and professional

soldiers? (H102)
A:

Q: What factors limited warfare in eighteenth-century Europe? How did these limiting
factors complicate the era’s planning and operational design? (H103)
A:
Q: Assess and explain the effectiveness of those who waged limited warfare in finding a proper
relationship between the ends, ways, and means of war during the eighteenth century. (H102)
A:

Q: How important was discipline to the development of the Western Way of War and the
modern army? (H102)
A:

Q: Using Knox and Murray’s definitions, did warfare in the eighteenth century represent a military revolution or a
revolution in military affairs? How did Frederick the Great’s achievements transcend the limits of his time or was
he simply better than his rivals were at waging limited warfare? (H102)
A:

Q: What is the relationship between jus in bello and limited war? (H102)

A:
Q: How was Revolutionary France able to raise mass armies when Old-Regime states,
including France, were unable to do so? (H103)
A:

Q: How do the French Wars between 1792 and 1807 represent the application of theory and doctrine in
practice? How did the constant crises of the Revolution change that process? How did Napoleon bring stability
to it? (H103)
A:

Q: In what ways did warfare change because of the French Revolution? (H103)

A:

Q: Did the Napoleonic military system represent a revolution in the character of war?
(H103)
A:
Q: What abilities did Napoleon possess that enabled him to achieve decisive victory?
(H103)
A:

Q: How did the 1812 campaign in Russia illustrate the failings of Napoleon and his
system? (H104)
A:

Q: What were the major factors contributing to the decline of Napoleon’s military power
between 1808 and 1815? (H104)
A:

Q: Why did the army developed during the French Revolution have problems dealing
with the scope and scale of operations from 1808 to 1815? (H104)
A:
Q: How did Napoleon’s enemies work to prevent him from achieving victory, on the
battlefield and at the peace table? (H104)
A:

Q: Despite his successes, why was Napoleon never able to establish a permanent
peace? (H104)
A:

Q: How and why did the Napoleonic wars end as they did? (H104)

A:

Q: How did Napoleonic warfare influence succeeding generations of military personnel?

(H104)
A:
Q: According to Clausewitz, what is war? (H105)

A:

Q: Clausewitz writes, “In war the result is never final.” To what degree do recent events
substantiate this assumption? (H105)
A:

Q: According to Clausewitz, war is a “paradoxical trinity.” What are the trinity’s three
components? (H105)
A:

Q: What is friction and what is its role in war? (H105)

A:
Q: What are the attributes of a military genius? (H105)

A:

Q: Analyze Clausewitz’s claim that defense is the stronger form of waging war. (H105)

A:

Q: According to Clausewitz, what forces drive the onset of war? (H105)

A:

Q: How might Clausewitz explain that conflict termination varies from one war to
another? (H105)
A:
Q: How did Clausewitz’s study of history inform the development of his theories? (H105)

A:

Q: Who was Jomini? What were Jomini’s experiences in the Napoleonic wars? (H106)

A:

Q: What basic concepts does Jomini use in his approach to understanding warfare?
(H106)
A:

Q: Does the U.S. Army make use of Jomini’s various concepts? If so, have you
encountered them in your career? (H106)
A:
Q: Do Jomini and Clausewitz differ fundamentally in their approaches to warfare? (H106)

A:

Q: Why was Jomini so popular in his day? (H106)

A:

Q: Are Jomini’s and Clausewitz’s views contradictory or complementary? (H106)

A:

Q: Are Jomini’s principles of warfare good for all time, as he claimed they were? (H106)

A:
Q: How did Jomini’s study of history inform the development of his theories? (H106)

A:

Q: In what ways did the Industrial Revolution manifest itself in the armies of the Civil
War? (H107)
A:

Q: To what degree were Civil War armies able to adapt doctrine to new technologies?
(H107)
A:

Q: Why was decisive battlefield victory so rare in the Civil War? (H107)

A:
Q: How did the organization and leadership of Civil War forces reflect the mass politics of
the North and South? (H107)
A:

Q: In what ways can the ends, ways, and means of the American Civil War be
considered evidence of a military revolution? (H107)
A:

Q: What were the similarities and differences between the American Way of War as it
evolved through the Civil War and how war was conducted in Europe? (H107)
A:

Q: How did the 1864 Campaign planned and conducted in Virginia under the direction of Ulysses
S. Grant reflect the impact of mass politics and industrialization on warfare? (H107)
A:
Q: What moral and ethical questions are raised by the North’s decision to wage a hard war against the
South and William T. Sherman’s conduct of operations in Georgia and the Carolinas in 1864-65? (H107)

A:

Q: How did the comparative experiences of William T. Sherman and Helmuth von Moltke
demonstrate the challenges of military leadership in the Industrial Age? (H107)
A:

Q: According to Showalter, what are the components of the Prusso-German revolution in

military affairs (RMA)? (H108)
A:

Q: Between the Napoleonic wars and the Franco-Prussian War, how did Prussia achieve
effectiveness and efficiency in its strategic mobilization? (H108)
A:
Q: Why and how did Moltke attempt to concentrate on the battlefield? (H108)

A:

Q: What was Moltke’s philosophy of war and what advice might he give to a corps or
field army commander? (H108)
A:

Q: How might one consider the development of the German General Staff revolutionary?
(H108)
A:

Q: What does it mean to suggest that an army is “Clausewitzian”? Was the Prusso-
German Army “Clausewitzian” in the era of Helmuth von Moltke? (H108)
A:
Q: Despite the German General Staff’s revolutionary aspects, what type of organizational culture did it create in
the Imperial German Army, and how did this culture eventually contribute to Germany’s failure in the First World
War? (H108)
A:

Q: Why was the Prussian RMA short-lived? (H108)

A:

Q: How did technology change naval warfare between 1850 and 1914? (H109)

A:

Q: According to Alfred Thayer Mahan, what was “sea power” and how did a nation gain
and maintain “command of the seas?” (H109)
A:
Q: How did the geostrategic context of the time influence Mahan’s theories? (H109)

A:

Q: How did the geostrategic context of the time influence Mahan’s theories? (H109)

A:

Q: What foreign and domestic issues prompted the changes that occurred in the British
Navy during the Fisher Revolution? (H109)
A:

Q: How well did Fisher’s attempt to change the British Navy mirror the Kotter Model? What steps of the Kotter
Model did he bypass during the transformation and how did eliminating these steps affect its outcome? (H109)

A:
Q: What changes did Fisher make in the British navy’s doctrine, organization, training, equipment, force
structure, and command and control? Why did he make these changes? (H109)

A:

Q: Some historians, such as Archer Jones and Andrew J. Keogh, have argued that Fisher’s naval revolution rested on fielding dreadnoughts and battlecruisers
geared toward traditional fleet actions, while Nicholas Lambert maintains that Fisher intended to build a more revolutionary fleet focused “flotilla defense.” Which of
these interpretations is most persuasive? Given the geostrategic and domestic realities of the time noted by Christopher M. Bell, which interpretation of “Fisher’s
navy” offered Britain the best option for achieving its national goals and objectives? (H109)

A:

Q: In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, how did military theorists respond
to the problem of increased lethality on the tactical battlefield? (H110)
A:

Q: How did the experience of the Boer War and the Russo-Japanese War shape what
the militaries of Europe expected of their next war? (H110)
A:
Q: What assumptions did military leaders bring to war planning? (H110)

A:

Q: According to Michael Howard, what problems did the French army need to overcome
in 1914? (H110)
A:

Q: To what extent did rival commanders Moltke and Joffre shape the campaign? (H110)

A:

Q: Why did the Schlieffen Plan fail? To what extent do the principles of “mission
command” serve to explain that failure? (H110)
A:
Q: What role did Lt. Col. Richard Hentsch play in aborting the Schlieffen Plan? (H110)

A:

Q: How did technological innovations lead to the trench stalemate on the western front?
(H110)
A:

Q: Why did artillery dominate the World War I battlefield? How were other battlefield functions
(intelligence, maneuver, command and control, etc.) driven to support indirect fire battle? (H111)
A:

Q: Describe how the Germans transformed their defensive doctrine in the winter of
1916–17. What aspects of organizational culture supported the doctrinal change? (H111)
A:
Q: Summarize the German tactical methods of 1918 that eventually broke the stalemate
and restored tactical mobility to their forces on the western front. (H111)
A:

Q: Summarize the approach the British and French adopted to restore tactical mobility to
their forces on the western front in 1918. (H111)
A:

Q: Compare the Allied and German tactical methods of assault on the Western Front in 1918 with those
practiced from 1915 to 1917. How do the methods from each period compare in terms of casualties for the
attacker? (H111)
A:

Q: Other than achieving territorial advances far exceeding anything seen on the western front since 1914,
did any of the tactical developments of 1918 produce operational or strategic decisions? (H111)

A:
Q: Based upon the tenuous links between even the tactical methods of 1918 and operational decisions, what
concerns do you think military leaders carried into the interwar years from their World War I experiences? (H111)

A:

Q: Why and how did World War I end as it did? (H111)

A:

Q: Is the United States military undergoing a period of revolutionary change that will
fundamentally reshape its approach to warfighting? (H111)
A:

Q: What are some characteristics common to militaries that have successfully

implemented changes to meet emerging threats? (H111)
A:
Q: What are the characteristics common to unsuccessful attempts at military change?
(H111)
A:

Q: Is it ethical to attack civilians in the context of total war? (H111)

A:

Q: Of all the armies in the world, how is it that the German army, disarmed in 1919,
emerged with the most potent doctrine for mechanized warfare in the 1930s? (H112)
A:

Q: Was French mechanized doctrine of the 1930s as flawed as subsequent events would
indicate? (H112)
A:
Q: How do interpretations of history by military leaders affect force and doctrine
development? (H112)
A:

Q: How do national goals affect force and doctrine development? (H112)

A:

Q: How different was the German army of 1939 from its counterpart of 1918? What were
the key changes? What were the similarities? (H112)
A:

Q: How different was the French army of 1939 from its counterpart of 1918? What were
the key changes? What were the similarities? (H112)
A:
Q: What were the reasons for Germany’s victory over Poland? (H112)

A:

Q: At the theater/operational and tactical levels of war, what were the key factors in the
German victory over France in 1940? (H112)
A:

Q: How did Communist ideology affect the Soviet Union’s ability to build a formidable
army and an effective doctrine? (H113)
A:

Q: What conflicts helped to shape the Soviet understanding of success in warfare?

(H113)
A:
Q: Who were some of the influential Soviet thinkers in the interwar period, and how did
they influence the development of Soviet doctrine? (H113)
A:

Q: How successful was the Red Army during the Winter War, and how did that conflict
affect the future? (H113)
A:

Q: Why was the Soviet Union so unprepared for the German attack that came in June
1941? (H113)
A:

Q: How was the Red Army able to withstand the initial invasion in 1941, including the
loss of millions of soldiers and equipment, and turn the war around by 1943? (H113)
A:
Q: What were the tenets of the Soviet Deep Operations doctrine? (H113)

A:

Q: How did the Soviet purges, begun in 1937, affect the Red Army’s ability to build a
cohesive doctrine and field an army prepared to meet the German attack? (H113)
A: