UPSC IES (ESE) Exam

Civil Engineering Detailed Solutions

 CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A

1. A network of pipes conveying water to a city has Hm = 14.5 m

the following specifications. The diameter of a
N = 1000 rpm
main pipe is 30 cm and it branches into two
pipes of diameters 20 cm and 15 cm respectively. 2 = 30°
If the average velocity in the main pipe is 2.5 D2 = 300 mm
m/s and the average velocity in the 20 cm pipe
is measured as 2 m/s, what is the velocity in the B2 = 50 mm
15 cm pipe? u2 = ?
(a) 8.84 m/s (b) 7.44 m/s Tangential velocity of impeller at outlet (u2)
(c) 5.84 m/s (d) 6.44 m/s
D2N  × 300 ×103 ×1000
u2 = =
Ans. (d) 60 60
Sol. = 15.7 m/s
cm
= 20 3. A 7.5 cm diameter jet of water strikes a curved
d2 /s
2m plate at its centre with a velocity of 20 m/s. The
V2 =
curved plate is moving with a velocity of 8 m/
V1 = 2.5 m/s s in the direction of the jet. The jet is deflected
V3 through an angle of 165°. By assuming the plate
d1 = 30 cm =
d3 = ? as smooth, what is the angle made by the relative
15 velocity at the outlet of the plate?
cm
From the continuity equation (a) 45° (b) 30°
2 (c) 15° (d) 0°
d12 d22 d
V1 = V2 + 3 V3
4 4 4 Ans. (c)
2
 d1 V1 = d22 V2 2
+ d3 V3 Sol.
2 2 150° u
2 2
d1 V1 – d2 V2 d  d 
 V3 = 2
=  1  V1 –  2  V2
d3  d3   d3  V2
Vr2
2 2 2
 30   20 
 V3 =   × 2.5 –   × 2 165°
 15   15  V1=20 m/s 15°
4 u
u
 V3 = 4 × 2.5 – × 2 = 6.44 m/s Vro =V1 –u
2.25
Vr3 3
V3 = 6.44 m / s
V3
2. A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net u
head of 14.5 m and a design speed of 1000 Since the jet is deflected by 165°, the relative
r.p.m. The vanes are curved back to an angle of velocity at outlet will make an angle of 15° with
30° with the periphery. The impeller diameter is the direction of plate movement. This is based
300 mm and the outlet width is 50 mm. What is on the assumption that for shockless exit, relative
the tangential velocity of impeller at outlet? velocity should be tangential to plate at outlet.
(a) 15.7 m/s (b) 13.2 m/s 4. A reservoir has a head of 40 m and a channel
(c) 9.7 m/s (d) 11.2 m/s leading from the reservoir permits a flow rate of
34 m3/s. If the rotational speed of the rotor is
Ans. (a)
150 r.p.m., what is the power of the turbine?
Sol. Centrifugal pump (Take g = 9.81 m/s2)
 (a) 14.34 MW (b) 13.34 MW Q2 = 0.36Q
(c) 12.34 MW (d) 11.34 MW At 36% of full load; d = d2
Ans. (b)  2
Q = A × V1 = d × V1
Sol. H = 40 m 4
Q = 34 m3/s As V1 = constant: Q  d2
N = 150 rpm 2 2
Q2  d2   d2 
g = 9.81 m/s2 =    0.36 =  
Q1 d
 1  150 
Power output of turbine = o × gQH d2
= 0.6  d2 = 90 mm
= 1 × 1000 × 9.81 × 34 × 40 150

= 13.34 MW 7. What is the depth of a point below water surface

in sea, where pressure intensity is 1.006 MN/
5. A stream function is given by  = 3x2 – y3. m2? (Specific gravity of sea water is 1.025)
What is the magnitude of velocity components
(a) 60 m (b) 80 m
at the point (2, 1)?
(c) 100 m (d) 120 m
(a) 8.52 (b) 9.17
Ans. (b)
(c) 10.81 (d) 12.37
Sol.
Ans. (d)
Sol.  = 3x2 – y3
h

= v = y-component of velocity = 6x
x B

– = u = x-component of velocity = 3y2 PB =  sea  h = 1.006 ×10 6 N / m2
y
 1.006 ×10 6
 V = 3y 2 ˆi + 6xjˆ
 h=
   sea
V at point (2, 1) is V = 3iˆ + 12ˆj 6 2
 1.006 ×10 N / m
 V =  3  2 + 12  2 = 12.37 m/s =
1.25 × 9810 N / m
3 = 82.04 m

6. Full load is supplied by the turbine shaft when h = 80 m

the diameter of jet issuing from the nozzle is
8. Two pressure points in a water pipe are
150 mm. If the load suddenly drops to 36% of
connected to a manometer which has the form
the full load, what diameter of the jet should be
of an inverted U-tube. The space above the water
attained by regulating the spear rod?
in the two limbs of the manometer is filled with
(a) 15 mm (b) 45 mm toluene (specific grav ity is 0.875). If the
(c) 90 mm (d) 180 mm difference of level of water columns in the two
limbs reads 12.0 cm, what is the corresponding
Ans. (c)
difference of pressure? (Take g = 9.81 m/s2)
Sol. Upon change in load: discharge is varied by (a) 110.49 N/m2 (b) 128.12 N/m2
varying the area of jet Q1 = Q
(c) 131.34 N/m2 (d) 147.15 N/m2
Velocity of jet remains constant.
Ans. (d)
At full load; d = d1 = 150 mm
Sol. 10. A semi-tubular cylinder of 75 mm radius with
G2 = 0.875 concave side upstream (drag coefficient = 2.3)
is submerged in flowing water of velocity 0.6 m/
x
s. If the cylinder is 7.2 m long and density of
water is 1000 kg/m3, what is the drag?

A B
(a) 150 N (b) 173 N

Water (c) 955 N (d) 223 N

G1 = 1 Ans. (d)

PA – PB  G2  1 2
Sol. Drag force = CD w AV
=  1– G  x 2
w  1

 G2  1 2
FD = × 2.3 ×1000  7.2 × 0.075 0.6
 (PA – PB) =  1– x  w
 G1  2
FD = 223.56 N
 0.875 
=  1–  × 0.12 × 9810
 1  11. A double acting reciprocating pump having piston
 (PA – PB) = 147.15 N/m2 area 0.1 m2 has a stroke length 0.30 m. The
pump is discharging 2.4 m3 of water per minute
9. What is the minimum size of glass tube that at 45 r.p.m. through a height of 10 m. What is
can be used to measure water level if the the slip of the pump?
capillary rise in the tube is to be restricted to 2
mm? (Take surface tension of water in contact (a) 0.005 m3/s (b) 0.015 m3/s
with air as 0.073575 N/m) (c) 0.025 m3/s (d) 0.035 m3/s
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 1.0 cm Ans. (a)
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 2.0 cm Sol. Double acting reciprocating pump
Ans. (a) A = 0.1 m2
4 cos  L = 0.30 m
Sol. Capillary rise = = h
d Q = 2.4 m3/min.
If h  2 mm N = 45 rpm
4 cos  H = 10 m
  2 mm
wd
Slip of pump = ?
4 cos 
d Slip = Qth – Qout
 w × 2 mm
4 cos  2 ALN 2 × 0.1× 0.30 × 45
dmin = Qth = =
 w × 2 mm 60 60
For water-glass contact,  = 0 = 0.045 m3/s = 2.7 m3/min
4 Slip = Qth – Qout
 dmin =  × 2 mm
w = 2.7 – 2.4 = 0.3 m3/min
4 × 0.073575 N / m
= = 0.005 m3/sec
3 –3
9810 N / m × 2 ×10 m
dmin = 0.015 m = 15 mm = 1.5 cm 12. If pressure head of water is 100 m and specific
gravity of kerosene is 0.81, what is the pressure
head of kerosene?
 (a) 123.5 m of kerosene 14. A bridge has an expected life of 25 years and is
(b) 241.3 m of kerosene designed for a flood magnitude of return period
100 years. What is the risk of this hydrologic
(c) 75.1 m of kerosene design?
(d) 52.4 m of kerosene 25 25
 100   99 
Ans. (a) (a) 1 –   (b)  
 99   100 
Sol. For equal pressure,
25 25
 99   100 
100  w = h   kerosene (c) 1 –   (d)  
 100   99 
100 ×  w 100 Ans. (c)
 h =  = = 123.46 m
kerosene 0.81 Sol. Design life (n) = 25 yr
h = pressure head of kerosene Return period (T) = 100 yr
n
13. A lake has an area of 15 km2. Observation of n n  1
Risk = 1–  q  = 1– 1– p  = 1–  1– 
hydrological variables during a certain year has  T
shown as follows: 25
 1 
= 1–  1– 
Precipitation = 700 mm/year,  100 
25
Average inflow Qin = 1.4 m3/s;  99 
= 1–  
Average outflow Qout = 1.6 m3/s  100 
Assume that there is no net water exchange 15. In a groundwater field test, a tracer took 8 hours
between the lake and the groundwater. What is to travel between two observation wells which
the evaporation during this year? are 56 m apart. The difference in water table
(a) 480 mm (b) 280 mm elevations in these wells was 0.70 m. The volume
of the void of the aquifer is 30% of the total
(c) 380 mm (d) 180 mm
volume of the aquifer. What is the hydraulic
Ans. (b) conductivity of the aquifer, if the dynamic
viscosity of water is 0.995 × 10–3 Ns/m2?
Sol. Precipitation (P) = 700 mm/yr
Avg inflow (Qin) = 1.4 m3/sec (a) 4.664 cm/s (b) 3.664 cm/hr
Avg outflow (Qout) = 1.6 m3/sec (c) 2.664 mm/s (d) 1.664 cm/hr
Lake area = 15 km2 Ans. (a)
Assuming no change in storage in a year, we Sol. The tracer records the actual velocity of water
have
 56 ×100  7
inflow-outflow = 0 (Vact) =  = cm / sec
 8 × 60 × 60  36
inflow = outflow
Discharge velocity, V = (n × Vact), where
700 ×10 –3 ×15 ×106 + 1.4 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60

= 1.6 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 + E ×10 –3 ×15 ×10 6  Volume of void 

n = Porosity =  Total volume 
(where E = evaporation in mm/yr)  
solving we get = 0.30 (given)
E = 279.52 mm/yr
 280 mm/yr  7   7 
 V =  0.3 ×  =   cm / sec
 36   120 
 .
 0.7  water logging control:
Hydraulic gradient (i) =  = 1.25 × 10–2
 56 
1. It is evident that water logging can be
Coeff icient of permeability or hydraulic controlled only if the quantity of water into
the soil below is checked and reduced.
V
conductivity of aquifer (k) =   2. Attempts should be made to reduce the
 i 
seepage of water from the canals and water
 7  courses.
=  2 
 120 ×1.25 ×10  3. The entire irrigable land should receive canal
14 water in all seasons.
= cm / sec = 4.67 cm/sec.
3 Which of the above statements are correct?

16. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
channel routing: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. In channel routing, the flood hydrograph at Ans. (a)
various sections of the reach is predicted
Sol. To control water logging
by considering a channel reach and an input
hydrograph at the upstream end.  Quantity of water into the soil below is
checked and reduced
2. As the flood wave moves down the river,
the shape of the wave does not change.  In such areas, seepage from canals should
3. Flood waves passing down a river have be minimum, hence these are generally
their peaks attenuated due to friction. lined canals.

4. The addition of lateral inflows can cause  In such areas only a small portion of irrigable
an increase of attenuation. land should be irrigated in one season and
the remaining portion may be irrigated in
Which of the above statements are not correct?
the next seasons, by rotation.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
 Hence correct answer is option (a)
(c) 1 and 1 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (d) 18. If wheat requires 7.5 cm of water after every 28
days and the base period for wheat is 140 days,
Sol. what is the value of delta for wheat?
 As the flood wave moves down the river, the (a) 7.5 cm (b) 27.5 cm
shape of the waves gets modified due to various
(c) 37.5 cm (d) 17.5 cm
factors, such as channel storage, resistance,
lateral addition or withdrawal of flow, etc. Ans. (c)

 When a flood wave passes through a reservoir, 140

its peak is attenuated due to friction if there is Sol. Delta for wheat = × 7.5 = 37.5 cm
28
no lateral inflow.
 The addition of lateral inflows can cause a 19. A tile drainage system draining 12 hectares, flows
reduction of attenuation or even amplification at a design capacity for two days, following a
of a flood wave. storm. if the system is designed using a drainage
coefficient of 1.25 cm, how much of water will
 In channel routing, the flood hydrograph at be removed during this period?
various sections of the reach is predicted by
(a) 1500 m3 (b) 4500 m3
considering a channel reach and an input
hydrograph at the upstream end. (c) 3000 m3 (d) 3500 m3
Ans. (c) 22. The chief aim of river training is
Sol. Given: Area = 12 heaters = 12 × 104 m2 (a) to protect water from loss.
D.C. = 1.25 (b) bed scouring.

 From given drainage area, 1.25 cm depth (c) to achieve ultimate stability of river with the
of water is removed in 24 hrs. aid of river training measures.
(d) pitching of banks and provision of launching
 Volume of water drained in two days =
aprons.
2 × 1.25 × 10–2 × 12 × 104 = 3000 m3
Ans. (c)
Hence, option (c) is correct answer.
23. Which one of the following conditions is correct
20. What is the hydraulic radius of a stable canal
for a channel to behave in true regime?
carrying a discharge of 27 m3/s using Lacey’s
method? (Assume silt factor is 1.0) (a) Discharge is non-uniform
(a) 1.44 m (b) 2.67 m (b) Flow is non-uniform
(c) 3.14 m (d) 4.28 m (c) Silt grade is varying

Ans. (a) (d) Silt charge is constant

1 Ans. (c)
Q 3
Sol. R = 0.47   24. What is the delta for a crop when its duty is 864
f
hectares/cumec on the field and the base period
1
of this crop is 120 days?
 27  3
R = 0.47  
 1 (a) 120 cm (b) 140 cm
R = 1.41 m (c) 160 cm (d) 172 cm
Hence, closest option is (a). Ans. (a)
Sol. Duty × Delta = 8.64 B
21. Consider the following statements regarding loss
of water in canals: 864 ×  = 8.64 × 120
1. The water lost by evaporation is generally   = 1.2 m = 120 cm
very small, as compared to the water lost
by seepage in certain channels. Hence, option ‘a’ is correct answer.

2. In percolation, there exists a zone of 25. Which one of the following is the merit of
continuous saturation from the canal to the combined sewer system?
water-table and a direct flow is established.
(a) Rain water dilutes the sewage, therefore, it
3. In absorption, a small saturated soil zone can be easily and economically treated.
exists around the canal section and is
(b) Initial cost is high as compared with separate
surrounded by a zone of decreasing
system.
saturation.
(c) If the whole sewage is to be disposed off by
Which of the above statements are correct?
pumping, it is uneconomical.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) During heavy rains, the overflowing of sewers
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 will endanger the public health.
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
Sol. All the options are correct. Sol. Combined System
 This system consists of a single sewer line of 27. Which one of the following is the process in
large diameter through which the sewage and which ammonia is oxidised to nitrites and then
storm water are allowed to flow and are carried to nitrates by aerobic bacteria?
to the treatment plant. (a) Nitrification (b) Denitrification
The following are the advantages of this system:
(c) Adsorption (d) Regeneration
(i) The storm water dilutes the sewage and
hence its strength is reduced. Ans. (a)
(ii) The self -cleansing v elocity is easily Sol. Nitrification is the biological process in which
acheived. ammonia is oxidized into nitrite, followed by a
(iii) Due to larger diameter of sewer, it can be subsequent transformation of nitrites into nitrates
easily cleaned. by aerobic bacteria.

(iv) As the single sewer line serves the double 28. A tank into which raw or partly treated sewage
function, it becomes economical. is collected, left to stay, and discharged at such
The following are the disadvantages of this a rate as may be necessary for subsequent
system: treatment, is called
(i) The treatment plant is unnecessarily loaded (a) Dosing tank (b) Sedimentation tank
with the combined volume of sewage and (c) Skimming tank (d) Settling tank
storm water. It may exceed the normal
capacity of the plant. Ans. (a)
(ii) During a heavy storm, the combined sewer Sol. Dosing tank is a tank in which sewage is collected
may be overflown and it may create trouble and later discharged at the rate required by
for the people at large. subsequent treatment processes.
(iii) It creates unnecessary pollution of storm 29. In the context of sludge conditioning, Elutriation
water. is synonymous to
26. Which one of the following is a device used for (a) Washing (b) Heating
measuring the velocity of flowing water in pipes
(c) Compacting (d) Filtering
of open channels?
Ans. (a)
(a) Pitot tube (b) Piezometer
Sol. Elutriation is a process of sludge conditioning
(c) Venturimeter (d) Venturi tube
whereby a sludge is washed either by fresh water
Ans. (a) or plant effluent, to reduce the sludge alkalinity
Sol. The basic principle used in this device is that if and fine particles, thus decreasing the amount
the velocity of flow at a particular point is reduced of required coagulant in further treatment steps
to zero, which is known as stagnation point, the or in sludge dewatering.
pressure there is increased due to the conversion 30. Sludge thickening is commonly achieved by the
of the kinetic energy into pressure energy, and following methods:
by measuring the increase in the pressure energy
at this point the velocity of flow may be 1. Gravity thickening
determined. 2. Air flotation
A single tube of this type may be used for 3. Centrifugation
measuring the velocity of flow in an open
Which of the above methods are correct?
channel.
When a pitot tube is used for measuring the (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
velocity of flow in a pipe or any other closed (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
conduit then the pitot tube may be inserted in
Ans. (d)
the pipe.
Sol. Sludge thickening of sludge can be achieved by Volatile
following methods: Water solid

 Gravity thickening Sewage heat Solid Ignition Fixed

 Air floatation sample residue @ high temp solid
1000 gm 0.952 gm 0.516 gm
 Centrifugation
Weight of water
31. Which one of the following is the process
= 1000 – 0.952
whereby chemicals are added to a wastewater
= 999.048 gm
resulting in a reduction of the forces tending to
keep suspended particles apart? = 999.048 cm3
(a) Coagulation (b) Flocculation = 0.99 lit  1lit
(c) Clarification (d) Sedimentation Weight of volatile solids
Ans. (a) = 0.952 – 0.516
Sol. Coagulation is defined as the addition of a = 0.436 cm
chemical to a colloidal dispersion which results = 436 mg
in particle destablishation by reducing the forces Concentration of volatile solids
between colloidal particles which trying to keep
436 mg
then apart. =
1lit
32. Which one of the following is a grit-removal unit = 436 mg/lit
which also removes silt as well as some organic = 436 ppm
matter along with grit?
(a) Detritus Tank (b) Skimming Tank 34. The quantity of nitrogen present in wastewater
before the decomposition of organic matter has
(c) Detention Tank (d) Suspension Tank started, is indicated by
Ans. (a) (a) Albuminoid Nitrogen
Sol. A detritus tank is a grit removal unit which (b) Free Ammonia
removes silt and some organic matter along with
(c) Organic Nitrogen
grit.
(d) Nitrate Nitrogen
33. The domestic sewage of a town was tested for
Ans. (a)
total solids and the following results were
obtained: Sol. Organic ammonia (Albuminoid) indicates quanity
Weight of sample of sewage = 1000 gm of nitrogen before decomposition of organic
matter has started.
Weight of solids after evaporation of liquid =
0.952 gm 35. Which one of the following is that (low) water
content of the soil at which plants can no longer
Weight of dry residue after ignition = 0.516 gm
extract sufficient water for their growth?
What is the value of volatile solids?
(a) Wilting point (b) Tail water
(a) 952 ppm (b) 516 ppm
(c) Irrigating head (d) Capillary water
(c) 436 ppm (d) 694 ppm
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
Sol. Wilting point is water content of the soil at which
Sol. plants can no longer extract sufficient water for
their growth.
36. Which one of the following is the advantage of (a) –0.34 (b) –0.14
using activated carbon for water treatment? (c) –0.24 (d) –2.40
(a) W hen used in powdered f orm after
Ans. (c)
coagulation, it does not aid in coagulation.
Sol. Given:
(b) It increases the chlorine demand of treated
water. W L = 90%
IP = 50
(c) It removes organic matter present in water.
W N = 28%
(d) Its overdose is harmful.
Ans. (c) WN – WP
Liquidity index, IL = W – W
L P
Sol. Because of adsorption property of activated
carbon, it is used to remove organic matter, and IP = W L – W P
color produced by phenols, H2S, Fe and Mn. 50 = 90 – W P
37. A soil has bulk density of 20.1 kN/m3
and water W P = 90 – 50 = 40%
content 15%. What is the water content if the
28 – 40
soil partially dries to a density of 19.4 kN/m3 IL =  – 0.24
and the void ratio remains unchanged? 50

(a) 10.86% (b) 10.76% 39. A concentrated load of 2000 kN is applied at the
(c) 10.68% (d) 10.66% ground surface. What is the vertical stress at a
point 6 m directly below the load?
Ans. (a)
(a) 16.42 kN/m2 (b) 26.53 kN/m2
Sol. Since the void ratio remains unchanged or
(c) 36.12 kN/m2 (d) 40.51 kN/m2
partial drying, the volume of soil remains
unchanged because Ans. (b)
Vsoil = Vsolid(1+e) Sol. Q = 2000 kN

 dry unit wt remains unchanged since The intensity of vertical stress just below the
load point is
Wsolid
d = 3Q Q
Vsoil z  6 =  0.4775 2
2
2z z
 bulk
Since,  d =
1+ w 0.4775  2000
=
bulk 1 bulk 2 62
Hence, =
1+ w1 1+ w 2 = 26.53 kN/m2

20.1 19.4 40. Which one of the following is a characteristic of

 =
1.15 1+ w2 local shear failure?
 w2 = 0.1099 (a) Failure pattern is not clearly defined.

 Moisture content of partially died soil is (b) Failure surfaces reach ground surfaces
10.99% (c) There is no bulging of soil around the footing
Answer can be aproximately taken as (a). (d) Failure is not sudden and there is no tilting of
footing.
38. A fine grained soil is found to have a liquid limit
Ans. (d)
of 90% and a plasticity index of 50. The natural
water content is 28%. What is the liquidity index? Sol.
 Modes of failure Characteristics
Ans. (c)
Local shear (Transition)  Well-defined slip surface only below Sol. Given: Dia, d = 10 cm, Length, L = 15 cm
the foundation, discontinuous either
minor heaving side. Volume of water = 160 cm3, Time, t = 1.75 min
 Large vertical displacement required
before slip surface appear at ground Head, h = 30 cm
level.
q = Discharge measured
 Some heaving occurs on both sides
Load
with no tilting and no catastrophic
160
Settlement

first 'failure' failure

'stick-slip'
= cm3/sec
 No peak value, ultimate value not 1.75  60
defined
= 1.524 cm3/sec
A = Cross-sectional area
41. A sample of silty clay has a volume of 14.88
 2 
cm3, a total mass of 28.81 gm, a dry mass of = d =  102
24.83 gm and a specific gravity of solids 2.7. 4 4
What is the void ratio? = 78.54 cm2
(a) 0.412 (b) 0.521 h
(c) 0.618 (d) 0.663 We know q = KiA = K A
L
Ans. (c) Coefficient of permeability,
Sol. Given:
qL 1.524  15
V = 14.88 cm3 K= =
Ah 78.54  30
W = 28.81 gm
= 9.702 × 10–3 cm/sec
W s = 24.83 gm
= 9.702 × 10–5 m/sec
Gs = 2.7
= (9.702 × 10–5) × 60 × 60
e=?
× 24 × 365 m/year
Air = 3059.64 m/year
V W  3060 m/year
Vs S Ws
43. W hich one of the following is the correct
assumption of Rankine’s theory?
Ws 24.83 3 (a) The soil mass is infinite
Vs = G  = 2.7 × 1 = 9.196 cm
s w (b) The soil mass is non homogeneous
Vv V – Vs V (c) The soil mass is cohesive
e= V  V  –1
s s Vs
(d) The ground surface is a plane which may be
14.88 horizontal or inclined
= – 1  0.618
9.196 Ans. (d)
Sol. Assumption of Rankine’s theory:
42. A constant head permeability test is carried out
on a cylindrical sample of sand 10 cm diameter  The soil is semi-infinite, homogeneous,
and 15 cm height. 160 cm3 of water is collected isotropic, dry and cohesionless.
in 1.75 minutes, under a head of 30 cm. What  The ground surface is a plane (although it
is the coefficient of permeability in m/year? does not necessarily need to be level).
(a) 1257 m/year (b) 2111 m/year 44. If retaining wall 5 m high is restrained from
(c) 3060 m/year (d) 3382 m/year yielding, what is the at-rest earth pressure per
 meter length of wall? (Consider the backfill is eS = wG
cohesionless soil hav ing  = 30 and
3
eS 0.5  0.7
 = 18kN m ) w=   0.13
G 2.7
(a) 108 kN/m (b) 112.5 kN/m
 G w 
(c) 115 kN/m (d) 124 kN/m  t =  d (1  w)    (1  w)
 1 e 
Ans. (b)
2.7  9.81
=  (1  0.13)
Sol. We know, 1  0.5
= 19.95 kN/m3
1
K0 = 1– sin  = 1 – sin 30° =  0.5
2 47. What is the coefficient of volume change (using
change in void ratio method) for pressure range
2
to 200kN m 2 ?
H=5m

100kN m
 = 30°
3
 = 18 kN/m (Consider 2
0 = 100kN m , e0 = 1.121,
2 2
 = 200kN m , e0 = 0.964,  = 100kN m
At rest earth pressure per meter length of wall and e = –0.157 )
1 1 (a) 0.25 m2/MN (b) 0.48 m2/MN
P0 = K 0 H2 =  0.5  18  52 = 112.5 kN/m
2 2 (c) 0.69 m2/MN (d) 0.74 m2/MN

45. Consider the f ollowing steps related to Ans. (d)

construction with the use of geotextiles : Sol. Given:
1. Start with an adequate working surface and
e = –0.157
staging area.
 = 100 kN/m2 = 0.1 MN/m2
2. Lay a geotextile sheet of proper width on the
ground surface. e0 = 1.121

3. Construction equipment must work from the Coefficient of volume change or coefficient of
soil backfill and be kept off the unprotected volume compressibility
geotextile.
av e  1 
Which of the above steps are correct? mv = 1  e    1  e 
0  0 
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 0.157  1  2
= m /MN
0.1  1  1.121 

Ans. (d)
= 0.74 m2/MN
46. The void ratio of a clay sample is 0.5 and the
degree of saturation is 70%. What is the bulk 48. Which one of the following problems is required
unit weight of the soil? to be studied in the design of earth dams?
(Assume G = 2.7) (a) The prediction of the position of the line of
(a) 10.46 kN/m3 (b) 14.32 kN/m3 seepage in the longitudinal section

(c) 17.77 kN/m3 (d) 19.95 kN/m3 (b) The computation of seepage loss

Ans. (d) (c) The seepage line should cut the down-stream
slope
Sol. Given: e = 0.5, S = 70% = 0.7, G = 2.7
(d) The seepage loss through the dam should be
We know maximum.
Ans. (c) Sol. Magnetic declination at a place is the horizontal
angle between the true meridian and the
49. Which one of the following is not an instrument magnetic meridian.
for setting out right angles?
52. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S28°30'E.
(a) Cross staff (b) Site square
What is the true bearing of line AB if the
(c) Prism square (d) Optical staff magnetic declination is 7°30' towards west?
Ans. (d) (a) S36°E (b) N21°W
Sol. Instrument used for setting out right angles (c) S21°E (d) N36°W
 Cross-staff Ans. (a)
 Site square Sol.
 Prism square/optical square MN TN
Optical staff is a levelling staff that helps to
determine the height difference between two
points on a survey.
A
50. Which one of the following is correct for Prismatic
Compass? 7°30 28°30

(a) The graduated ring rotates with line of sight. B

(b) Instrument cannot be used without tripod
True bearing of line AB = 2830  7 30
(c) The graduations are engraved inverted
= 36° or S36°E
(d) The readings can directly be taken by setting
through the top of the glass. 53. The Zeniths is/are

Ans. (c) (a) the point on the upper portion of the celestial
sphere marked by plumb line above the
Sol. Prismatic compass observer
 The graduated ring is attached with the needle (b) the point on the lower portion of the celestial
and does not rotate with line of sight. sphere marked by plumb line below the
 The instrument can be held in hand also while observer
making the observations. (c) the two points in which the Earth’s axis of
 Graduations are engraved inverted since the rotation meets the Earth’s sphere
graduated ring is read through the prism. (d) the great circle of the Earth, the plane of which
 The readings are taken with the help of a is at right angles to the axis of rotation.
prism, provided at the eye vane.
Ans. (a)
51. Magnetic declination at a place is the horizontal Sol. The point on celestial sphere vertically above
angle between the observer’s station is called zenith and the
(a) the true meridian and the arbitrary meridian point vertically below is called Nadir.

(b) the magnetic meridian and the arbitrary 54. Which one of the statements is not correct for
meridian remote sensing?
(c) the true bearing and the magnetic bearing (a) It requires energy source
(d) the true meridian and the magnetic meridian. (b) It requires propagation of energy through
atmosphere
Ans. (d)
 (c) It requires energy interaction with the Earth’s We know,
surface features
aa  = r × e
(d) It requires absorption of energy by the Earth’s
In this case,
surface
e = 30 cm = 300 mm
Ans. (d)
1
aa  =  300  1.5 mm
55. Energy in remote sensing deals with which region 200
of electromagnetic spectrum?
58. A photographic survey is carried out to a scale
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Infrared of 1:20000. A camera with a wide angle lens of
(c) X-Ray (d) Gamma Ray f = 170 mm was used with 25 cm × 25 cm plate
size for a net 65% overlap along the line of
Ans. (a) flight. What is the error in height given by an
Sol. There are several regions of the electromagnetic error of 0.15 mm in measuring the parallax of
spectrum which are useful for remote sensing. the point?
For most purposes, the ultraviolet portion of the (a) 5.15 m (b) 5.27 m
spectrum has the shortest wavelengths which
are practical for remote sensing. (c) 5.83 m (d) 6.45 m
Ans. (c)
56. Consider the following statements related to the
classification based upon the object of survey? Sol.

1. Archeological surveys for unearthing relics of f 1 170 ×103

antiquity. S = = =
H 20000 H
2. Geological surveys for determining different H = 3400 m
strata in the Earth’s crust.
The length of air base
3. Mine surveys for exploring mineral wealth
such as gold, coal, etc. B = (1  P )s
Which of the above statements are correct? = (1 – 0.65) × 25 × 10–2 × 2 × 104
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only = 1750 m
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(H – h)2
Ans. (d) We know dh = dp
Bf
Sol. All statements are correct.
34002
= × 0.15
57. In setting up of plane table at a station P, the 1750 ×170
corresponding point on the plan was not = 5.83 m
accurately centered above P. If the displacement
of P was 30 cm in a direction at right angles to 59. What is the aeroplane flying height to obtain the
the ray and scale is 1 cm = 2 m, how much on average scale of the photograph equal to 1/7200?
the plan would be the consequent displacement (Ground surface elevations vary from 160 m to
of point from its true position? 430 m and the focal length of the camera lens
is 153 mm).
(a) 0.15 mm (b) 6.0 mm
(a) 1021 m (b) 1145 m
(c) 1.5 mm (d) 0.3 mm
(c) 1284 m (d) 1397 m
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
1
Sol. r= Sol. Given:
200
 3. Thermal and moisture gradient in the vertical
1
Savg = direction of concrete slabs does not have an
7200
influence on deflection measurements.
160  430 4. Measurements taken at right or in the early
havg =  295 m
2 morning are considerably different from those
obtained in the afternoon.
f = 153 mm
Which of the above statements are not correct ?
f 1 153  10–3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Savg =  
H – havg 7200 H  295
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
 H = 1396.6 m  1397 m Ans. (b)

60. Which one of the following conditions shall be Sol.  Statement 1: Deflection measured near cracks
fulfilled when a transition curve is inserted are normally much higher than the measure-
ments in non-distressed areas.
between the tangent and circular curve?
 Statement 3: Thermal and moisture gradient
(a) It should not meet the original straight in the vertical direction of concrete slabs
tangentially. influence the deflection measurements.
(b) It should not meet the circular curv e Hence, statement 1 and 3 are not correct.
tangentially
62. Which one of the following tunneling methods is
(c) Its radius at the junction with the circular curve adopted for the situations where the metro
should be the same as that of the circular alignment passes under residential buildings or
curve. a canal?
(d) The rate of decrease of curvature along the (a) Earth pressure balance tunneling machine
transition curve should be same as that of method
increase in superelevation.
(b) Tunnel boring machine method
Ans. (c) (c) Tube tunnelling method
Sol.  It should meet the original straight tangentially. (d) Driven shield tunneling method
 It should meet the circular curve tangentially. Ans. (c)
 Its radius at the junction with the circular curve Sol. Tube tunneling method is used where the metro
should be the same as that of the circular alignment passes under residential buildings or
curve. canal.
 The rate of increase of curvature along the
63. Consider the following statements related to the
transition curve should be same as that of
advantages of concrete sleepers :
increase in superelevation.
1. Concrete sleepers can generally be mass
61. Consider the following statements related to road produced using local resources.
pavements :
2. Concrete sleepers are not suitable for beater
1. Def lections measured near cracks are packing
normally much lower than the measurements 3. Concrete sleepers have a very long life-span.
in non-distressed areas.
4. Concrete sleepers have no scrap value.
2. Deflection measurements near longitudinal
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
joints, transverse joints or corners are higher
than those measured at mid-slab concrete (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
pavements. (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (b) allel road) is a local road running parallel to a
Sol.  Concrete sleepers can generally be mass higher speed, limited-access road. A frontage
produced using local resources. road is often used to provide access to private
driveways, shops, houses, industries or farms.
 Concrete sleepers have a very long life span.
67. When properly designed traffic signals are used,
64. Which one of the following is not the method of
which one of the following is the advantage of
tunneling in hard rock? traffic signals?
(a) Full-face heading method (a) The signals allow crossing of the heavy traffic
(b) Heading and bench method flow with safety.
(c) Drift method (b) The rear-end collision may increase
(d) Shaft method (c) Improper design and location of signals may
Ans. (d) lead to violation of the control system.
(d) Failure of the signal due to electric power
Sol. Shaft method is not used for tunneling in hard
failure may cause confusion to the road users.
rock.
Ans. (a)
65. Consider the following statements related to the
advantages of uniformity of rail gauges : Sol. One of the advantages of properly designed
traffic signal is that heavy vehicles traffic flow
1. As trans shipping is not required, there is can cross the intersection safely.
breakage of goods.
2. Large sheds to store goods are not required. 68. If the ruling gradient is 1 in 150 on a particular
section of broad gauge and at the same time a
3. Labour strikes, etc. do not affect the service curve of 4 degree is situated on this ruling
and operation of trains. gradient, what is the allowable ruling gradient ?
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 in 10 (b) 1 in 72
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 in 196 (d) 1 in 245
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Grade compensation on broad gauge track
Sol. Advantages of uniformity of rail gauges are: = 0.04% per degree
 As trans shipping is not required, there is no Degree of curve = 4
breakage of goods.
Grade compensation = 4 × 0.04% = 0.0016
 Large sheds to store goods are not required. Allowable ruling gradient
 Labour strikes, etc. do not affect the service 1
and operation of trains. = – 0.0016
150
66. Which one of the followings are provided to give 1 1
= 
access to properties along an important highway 197.36 196
with controlled access to expressway or freeway?
69. What is the value of headlight sight distance for
(a) Lay-bys (b) Frontage roads
a highway with a design speed of 65 kmphs?
(c) Driveways (d) Cycle tracks [Take f = 0.36 and t = 2.5 sec.]
Ans. (b) (a) 66.5 m (b) 81.3 m
Sol. A frontage road (also known as an access road, (c) 91.4 m (d) 182.8 m
“outer road”, service road, feeder road, or par- Ans. (c)
 2
oun ng e g = . m
V
Sol. HSD = 0.278 × V × tR +   HSD = SSD  Lamp size = 6000 lumen
254f
Luminaire type = II
V = 65 kmph ; tR = 2.5 sec ; f = 0.36
Coefficient of utilization = 0.44
 HSD = 91.4 m
Maintenance factor = 0.8
70. What is the minimum stopping sight distance on
What is the spacing between lighting units to
a –3.5% grade for a design speed of 110 kmph?
produce average Lux = 6?
(Consider friction coefficient f = 0.28, t = 2.5
(a) 18 m b) 20 m
sec and G = 0.035).
(c) 23 m (d) 27 m
(a) 76.4 m (b) 194.4 m
(c) 214.6 m (d) 270.8 m Ans. (c)
Sol. Spacing between lighting units
Ans. (d)

2 Lamp lumen×Coefficient of utilization

V × maintenance factor
Sol. SSD = 0.278 × V × tR +
254  f + n% Spacing =
Average lux × Width of road
V = 110 kmph; tR = 2.5 sec; f = 0.28
n = slope% = –3.5% 6000 × 0.44 × 0.8
 Spacing =
6 ×15
110  2
SSD = 0.278 ×110 × 2.5 + = 23.47 m  23 m
254  0.28 – 0.035 
73. Consider the following for the objects of
= 270.8 m
seasoning wood :
71. The free mean speed on a roadway is found to 1. Reduce the shrinkage and warping after
be 80 kmphs. Under stopped condition, the placement in structure.
average spacing between the vehicles is 6.9 m.
2. Increase its tendency to split and decay
What is the capacity flow?
3. Decrease workability
(a) 5800 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
4. Reduce its weight
(b) 7200 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
Which of the above objects are correct?
(c) 1450 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2900 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Free mean speed (Vf) = 80 km/hr
Sol. Objectives of seasoing of wood are:
1000
jam density (Kj) =  145 veh / km Reduce the shrinkage and warping after
6.9 
placement in structure.
(As one vehicle under stopped condition occupies
6.9 m)  Decrease its tendency to split and decay.
Vf K j  Increase workability, strength and durability.
Capacity flow (C) = = 2900 veh / hr  Reduce its weight.
4
72. For a steel lighting system, having the following 74. The hardness of aggregate is tested by
conditions : (a) Impact test
Street width = 15 m (b) Crushing strength test
 (c) Abrasion test 78. Which one of the following is a product obtained
(d) Soundness test by distilling tar and is used largely as an effective
preservative for wood?
Ans. (c)
(a) Creosote (b) Solignum
Sol. Hardness of aggregate is tested by Abrasion test.
(c) Coal tar (d) Wax polish
75. Which one of the following statements is correct Ans. (a)
in respect of mild steel?
Sol. Creosote oil is prepared by the distillation of tar.
(a) It has high carbon content
It is used for preservation of timber.
(b) It is tougher than hard steel
79. Pozzolanas are
(c) It is more elastic than hard steel
(a) argillaceous materials
(d) It can be forged and welded easily
(b) calcareous materials
Ans. (d)
(c) accelerators
Sol.  Mild steel is low carbon steel, whereas hard
steel is high carbon steel. (d) siliceous materials
 Mild steel has low carbon content. Ans. (d)
 High carbon steel is tougher than mild steel. Sol. Pozzolanas consist of very fine siliceous and
 High carbon steel is more elastic than mild aluminous materials.
steel since initial slope of stress-strain curve
80. For better chemical resistance, proportion of
of high steel is more than that of mild steel.
which one of the following compounds in cement
 Mild steel can be forged and welded easily. clinker shall be increased?
76. The chemical composition ‘Silicates of iron and (a) Tricalcium Silicate
alumina’ is found in which one of the following (b) Dicalcium Silicate
minerals?
(c) Tetracalcium Aluminate
(a) Garnet (b) Serpentine
(d) Tetracalcium Aluminoferrite
(c) Olivine (d) Calcite
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Sol. For better chemical resistance, the tricalcium
Sol. Garnets are niosilicates having general formula aluminate component in cement is minimised
X3Y2(SiO4)3 and a high percentage of dicalcium silicate is
where X site is usually occupied by divalent added.
cations (Ca+2, Mg+2, Fe+2, Mn+2)
81. The finishing coat in X-ray room walls is done
and the Y site is occupied by trivalent cations
preferably with
(Al+3, Fe+3, Cr+3) in an octahedral/tetrahedral
f ramework with (SiO 4 ) –4 occupying the (a) Barium plaster (b) Cement plaster
tetrahedra. So, silicates of iron and alumina is (c) Gypsum (d) Plaster of Paris
found in Garnet minerals.
Ans. (a)
77. The drawback of electric seasoning of timber is
Sol. Barium plaster is used as a final coat for surfaces
(a) Checks (b) Splitting of X-ray room so as to protect the person working
(c) Cracks (d) Reduced Strength in and around X-ray rooms.

Ans. (b) 82. The most suitable type of cement for mass
concreting works is
Sol. The drawback of electric seasoning is that wood
may split.
 (a) Rapid Hardening Cement Sol.
(b) High Alumina Cement Copper sleeve

(c) Low Heat Portland Cement nut

(d) Quick Setting Cement 24 mm Steel rod

39 mm
18 mm
Ans. (c)
Sol. Low heat portland cement is most suitable for
mass concrete works.
 Due to tightening of nuts, tensile force will be
83. Which one of the non-destructive tests can be developed in the steel rod whereas compres-
performed on fresh concrete? sive force will get developed in the copper
(a) Ultrasonic test (b) Penetration test sleeve.

(c) Core test (d) Hammer test Tensile force in steel = Compressive force in copper
 s .A s = c .Ac
Ans. (a)
As
Sol. Ultrasonic test and maturity test are the two non  c = A × s
destructive tests, which are conducted on fresh c

concrete. 
×182
4  10
84. In a concrete mix, for given cement content and  c = 
(392 – 242 )
workability, higher proportion of fine aggregate 4
will be required if c = 3.42 N/mm2 (compressive)
(a) maximum size of aggregate is large
86. A 2m long alloy bar of 1500 mm2 cross-sectional
(b) maximum size of aggregate is small. area hangs vertically and has a collar securely
(c) rounded aggregate is used. fixed at its lower end. What is the stress induced
(d) all in aggregate is used in the bar when a weight of 2 kN falls from a
height of 100 mm on the collar? (Take E = 120
Ans. (a) GPa)
Sol. When maximum size of aggregate is large, (a) 126.5 MPa (b) 158.3 MPa
higher proportion fine aggregates should be (c) 161.2 MPa (d) 181.3 MPa
used to minimise the voids created due to
large size of maximum size aggregates. Ans. (a)
Sol.
85. A central steel rod 18 mm diameter passes
E = 120 GPa
through a copper sleeve with 24 mm inside and
39 mm outside diameter. It is provided with nuts Area = 1500 mm
2

and washers at each end and the nuts are

tightened until a stress of 10 N/mm2 is set up in 2m Weight = 2 kN
the steel. Then, the stress developed in copper
tube is 100 mm

(a) 29.1 N/mm2, Compressive

(b) 3.4 N/mm2, Compressive Case of impact loading
(c) 3.4 N/mm2, Tensile
w. (2  103 )  (2000)
static = =
(d) 29.1 N/mm2, Tensile AE 1500  (120  103 )
Ans. (b) 1
= mm
45
 2h (a) – 5.8 MPa (b) – 4.8 MPa
Impact factor (I.F) = 1+ 1+
st (c) – 3.8 MPa (d) – 2.8 MPa

2  100 Ans. (a)

1+ 1+ = 95.87
I.F = 1 Sol.
45 x = 25 MPa
 max = I.F (static )

 2  103  x
max = 95.87    = 127.83 MPa x = 100 MPa
 1500 
87. Normal stresses of 126 MN/m2 (Tensile) and 94
MN/m2 (Compressive) are acting at a point in
x  normal stress on the plane inclined at
an elastic material at right angles to each other.
If the maximum principal stress is limited to 146 15° with the tensile stress, hence normal is
MN/m2, the shear stress that may be allowed at inclined at angle 75°.
that point in the same plane is Case-I: When rotation is in anticlockwise
(a) 170 MN/m2 (b) 89 MN/m2 direction i.e.,  is positive.

(c) 69 MN/m2 (d) 96 MN/m2  x + y   x – y 

x =  +  cos2
Ans. (c)  2   2 
Sol.
+ xy sin 2
y = 94 MPa
100 100
xy x = + cos(2  15)
2 2

x +25 sin (2  75)

x = 126 MPa
x = 19.19 MPa
Case-II: When rotation is in clockwise direction
y i.e.,  is negative.
x = 126 MPa, y = – 94 MPa
100 100
x = + cos (–150)
Given, major = 146 MPa 2 2

+25 sin (–150)

2
x + y  x – y  2
major = +   + xy x = –5.8 MPa
2  2 
89. A load of 2100 N is dropped axially on a closed-
126 – 94
2 coiled helical spring from a height of 240 mm.
 126 + 94  2
 146 = +   + xy The spring has 22 coils each of mean diameter
2  2 
180 mm and wire diameter is 25 mm. If modulus
xy = 69.28 MPa of rigidity C = 84000 N/mm2 and amount of

compression  = 255mm, what is the maximum
88. A plane element in a body is subjected to a
shear stress produced in the spring?
tensile stress of 100 MPa and shear stress of 25
MPa. What is the normal stress on a plane (a) 156 N/mm2 (b) 346 N/mm2
inclined at 15° with the tensile stress? (c) 239 N/mm2 (d) 123 N/mm2
Ans. (c)
5×4
Sol.  M = = 2 kNm = 2000 Nm
10
w = 2100 N
91. A 1.4 m long laminated carriage spring has
leaves of 100 mm width and 10 mm thickness.
240 mm
The spring has to absorb 125 N-m energy when
straightened, without exceeding the bending
stress of 160 MPa. What is the number of
leaves? (Take the elastic modulus of material of
spring as 200 GPa)

Given n = 22, d = 25 mm, R = 90 mm (a) 11 (b) 9

c = 84000 MPa (c) 7 (d) 5

max = 255 mm Ans. (b)

Sol.
3
64 PR3 .n 64  2100  90  22
static = = L/2 L/2
Gd4 8400  (25)4 W/2 W/2

static = 65.69 mm 0

max 255
I.F = = = 3.88
st 65.69

16 PR 16  2100  90 W
static = =
d3   253
Given :
= 61.6 MPa b = 100 mm, t = 10 mm, L = 1.4 m
max = I.F  static E = 200 GPa, max = 160MPa
= 3.88 × 61.6 U = 125 N-m = 125 × 103 N-mm
 max = 239.02 MPa 2
f  nb 
U =  .Lt 
6E  2 
90. An I-section purlin of span 4 m is subjected to
a total uniformly distributed load of 5 kN. The 1602  100 
 3
125 ×10 = 3
 n  1400  10 
purlin will be designed for maximum bending 6  200  10  2 
moment of  n = 8.37,
(a) 2000 Nm (b) 20 kNm Hence number of leaves = 9
(c) 2500 Nm (d) 25 kNm 92. A wooden floor is required to carry a load of 12
Ans. (a) kN/m2 and is to be supported by wooden joists
of 120 mm × 250 mm in section over a span of
Sol. The maximum bending moment for purlin
4 m. If the bending stress in these wooden joists
P is not to exceed 8 MPa, what is the spacing of
M = the joists?
10
(a) 356 mm (b) 318 mm
P = Total load acting on the purlin
(c) 432 mm (d) 417 mm
 = Span of the purlin
Ans. (d)
Sol. 94. An open-coiled helical spring of wire diameter
120 mm 12 mm, mean coil radius 84 mm, helix angle
60° carries an axial load of 480 N. What is the
twisting moment?
250 mm (a) 10.22 Nm (b) 20.16 Nm
(c) 14.24 Nm (d) 24.11 Nm
Ans. (b)
cross-section Sol. Given:
Load from wooden floor = 12 kN/m2
d = 12 mm, R = 84 mm
Assuming spacing between joist = s meter
 = 60°, P = 480 N
 Load on wooden joist (w) = 12 × s kN/m2 For open-coiled helical spring with mean
w 2 2
125  4 radius R subjected to axial load P
Maximum bending moment = =
8 8 M
Mmax = 24 S kN-m T

Mmax M
max = = 2max
z bd / 

24  s  106
 8=
120 
 250 2 Torque (T) = PR cos 
6 Bending moment (M) = PR sin
 S = 0.41667 meter = 416.67 mm
T = PR cos
93. A motor driving a solid circular shaft transmits
30 kW at 500 r.p.m. What is the torque activity  T = 480 × 84 × cos 60°
on the shaft, if allowable shear stress is 42 MPa?  T = 20.16 N-m
(a) 427 MPa (b) 573 Nm
95. The stresses at a point of a machine component
(c) 180 Nm (d) 219 Nm are 150 MPa and 50 MPa, both tensile. What is
Ans. (b) the intensity of normal stress on a plane inclined
at an angle of 30° with the axis of major tensile
Sol. stress?
Power = 30 kW
(a) 25 MPa (b) 50 MPa
N = 500 rpm
(c) 75 Mpa (d) 100 MPa
per = 42 MPa
Ans. (c)
 Power = T.w = 30  103 Sol.
2N 50 MPa
 T. = 30 × 103
60
2  500 60°
 T. = 30 × 103
60 150 MPa 150 MPa
30°
T = 572.95 N-m (major stress)

 As diameter of shaft is not given, thus, torque
can’t be calculated from allowable shear
stress. 50 MPa (minor stress)

 Hence most appropriate answer is option (b)

 x  normal stress on the plane inclined at Which of the above statements are correct?
an angle 30° with the major axis. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only

x + y  x – y  (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

x = +  cos2 + xy sin2
2  2  Ans. (b)
150 + 50  150 – 50  Sol.
x = +  cos(2  60)
2  2 
x = 75 MPa 2EI
Pcr =
2
96. In case of lintel design, the load enclosed in an
Correct statement are 1 and 4.
equilateral triangle is fully transferred to the lintel
provided the height of wall above lintel is 98. A steel plate 120 mm wide and 20 mm thick is
(a) not less than 1.25 times the height of the bent into a circular arc of radius 10 m. What is
equilateral triangle. the maximum stress produced and the bending
moment which can produce this stress
(b) less than twice the height of the equilateral
respectively? (Take E = 200 GPa)
triangle.
(a) 100 MPa, 32 kN-m
(c) less than 1.25 times the height of the
equilateral triangle. (b) 200 MPa, 160 N-mm
(d) greater than twice the height of the equilateral (c) 200 MPa, 1600 N-m
triangle. (d) 20 MPa, 160 kN-m
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
Sol. Sol.
height of equilateral 120 mm
triangle

NA 20 mm
ymax = 10 mm
H 1.25h
h (H = height of wall cross-section
above lintel)
Radius of curvature = 10 m, E = 200 GPa
For bending :
lintel
E f M
= =
R y I

E 200  103

97. Consider the following statements for Euler’s f max =   ymax =  10
R 10  1000
equation to find critical load of a column:
f max = 200 MPa
1. Critical load of a column is proportional to the
fmax
flexural rigidity.  Mmax = y I
max
2. Critical load of a column depends upon yield
stress. 200 120  203
Mmax = 
3. Critical load of a column is inv ersely 10 12
Mmax = 1600000 N-mm = 1600 N-m
proportional to the length of column.
4. Critical load of a column is inv ersely 99. Consider the following statements regarding
proportional to the square of the length of shearing force and bending moment:
column.
 1. Point of contraflexure is the point where 1. A beam is said to be a continuous beam if it
bending moment changes its sign. is supported on more than two supports.
2. Shear force is the rate of change of bending 2. A continuous beam is a statically
moment. indeterminate structure.
3. For bending moment to be the maximum or 3. The degree of indeterminacy depends upon
minimum, shear force should change its sign. the number of supports and also on the nature
4. Rate of change of loading is equal to shear of the supports.
force. Which of the above statements are correct?
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) Sol. All the statements are correct,
Sol. Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Statement 4 incorrect, because 102. In case of f lexural tension or f lexural

Loading intensity = Rate of change of shear force compression, the minimum length of the bar
which must be embedded in concrete beyond
dV any section to develop its full strength is termed
i.e w = as
dx
(a) Twisted length (b) Flexural length
100. Consider the following statements:
(c) Bond length (d) Development length
Moment Area Method proves advantageous in Ans. (d)
analyzing
103. It is observed experimentally that the amplitude
1. cantilever beams.
of free vibration of a certain structure modelled
2. symmetrically loaded simply supported as a single degree of freedom system, decreases
beams. from 1.0 to 0.4 in 10 cycles. W hat is the
3. fixed beams. percentage of critical damping?
4. continuous beams. (Take ln 2 = 0.693 and ln 10 = 2.303)
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 5.21% (b) 1.46%
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2.37% (d) 3.22%
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
Sol. Damping ratio,
Sol.
1  u 
Method area moment prove advantageous for  = ln  i 
2j  ui+ j 
(1) Cantilever beam  Slope at fixed end is zero
1  1 
(2) Symmetrically simply supported beams = ln 
2  10  0.4 
 slope at mid point is zero
1 10 
(3) Fixed beam  slopes at fixed support are = ln  
20  4 
zero

101. Consider the following statements regarding 1

= [ln 10 – 2ln2]
continuous beam: 20
 (a) 60 kN (b) 120 kN
1
= [2.303  2  0.693]  0.0146 (c) 160 kN (d) 210 kN
20
 Percentage of critical damping Ans. (b)
= 0.0146 × 100 = 1.46% Sol.

104. The ultimate tensile strain in steel is in the range 3 kN/m 3 kN

P
2m
of
A B
A B C
(a) 0.012 – 0.020 (b) 0.0012 – 0.0020
4m 4m
(c) 0.12 – 0.20 (d) 0.00012 – 0.00020
Ans. (c) B = c
Sol. For mild steel,
w4 P3 P3
Strain at ultimate stress  10 to 15%  + =
8EI 3EI 48 EI
 0.1 to 0.15
Strain at fracture point  20 to 30% 3  44 3  43 P  43
+ =
 0.2 to 0.3
8 3 48

Hence, most appropriate answer is option (c).  P = 120 kN

105. Consider the following statements regarding Hence option (b) is correct answer.
statically determinate structures:
107. A beam AB of span 5 m fixed at both ends
1. Conditions of equilibrium are sufficient to fully carries a UDL of 12 kN/m over the whole span.
analyse the structure. If the right end B settles down by 12 mm, what
2. The bending moment at a section or the force are the end moments for the beam? (Take EI =
in any member is independent of the material 15000 kN/m2)
of the components of the structure. (a) Ma = 68.2 kNm (hogging) and
3. The bending moment at a section or the force Mb = 18.2 kNm (sagging)
in any member is independent of the cross- (b) Ma = 18.2 kNm (hogging) and
sectional areas of the components.
Mb = 68.2 kNm (sagging)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Ma = 68.2 kNm (hogging) and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Mb = 68.2 kNm (sagging)
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Ma = 18.2 kNm (hogging) and
Ans. (c)
Mb = 18.2 kNm (sagging)
Sol. Since in statically determinate structures,
Ans. (a)
equilibrium eq. is sufficient for analysis of
structure, hence material & X-sectional Sol. w = 12 kN/m and  = 5 m
properties are not required for analysis i.e. for A w
determining member forces. 6EI
2
106. A cantilever beam of 4 m span carries a UDL of w 2 12 mm = 
3 kN/m over its entire span and a point load of 12 6EI
3 kN at the free end. If the same beam is simply  B w 2 2
supported at two ends, what point load at the 12
centre should it carry to have same deflection
as the cantilever?
 Which of the above statements are correct?
w 2 6EI
MA =  2 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
12 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
2 3
12  5 6  15000  12  10 Ans. (d)
MA = 
12 52
Sol. Advantages of steel as construction
MA = 68.2 kN-m (hogging) materials:

w2 6EI  High strength-to weight ratio: The high

MB =  2 strength-to-weight ratio of steel results in smaller
12 
section and smaller weight of structures.
MB = 25 – 43.2 = –18.2
This fact is of great importance for long-span
MB = 18.2 kN-m (sagging)
bridges, tall buildings and structures situated
Hence, correct answer is option (a). on soil with relatively low bearing capacity.
108. A cable is suspended between two points, 75 m  Invariability of properties: Unlike reinforced
apart horizontally with its left end lower than the concrete, the properties of steel do not change
right end by 10 m. The cable supports a UDL of substantially with time in normal service.
5 kN/m along the horizontal span. What is the
horizontal tension in the cable if central sag is  Elasticity: Steel behaves closer to design
7.5 m? assumptions than most other materials because
it follows Hooke’s law up to high stresses
(a) 385.13 kN (b) 468.75 kN
 Long service life: A properly constructed and
(c) 145.2 kN (d) 528.62 kN
maintained steel structure can last indefinitely.
Ans. (b)
 Weldability: The structural steels are perfectly
Sol. weldable with welding materials having specified
w = 5 kN/m yield streingth, ultimate tensile strength and
H
10m elongation at failure.
H hc=7.5m  High toughness: The toughness of structural
steels enables the steel members to be
75
m subjected to large deformations when they are
2
bent, hammered and sheared, and holes are
75m = 
punched during fabrication and erection without
w2
Horizontal tension (H) = fracture.
8hc
Disadvantages of steel as construction
2
5(75) material:
= = 468.75 kN
8 × (7.5)
 High maintenance cost
109. Consider the following statements related to  High fire proofing cost
merits of construction in structural steel:
 Susceptibility to buckling: With an increase
1. Structural steel has high strength per unit in the length or slenderness of a compression
weight as compared to RCC. member, possibility of buckling rapidly
2. The steel members are slender or small in increases, this may require additional steel for
size as compared to RCC. enhancing the stiffness of member (impacting
3. The steel structures are useful in construction economy).
of tall buildings, long-span bridges and
airplane hangars.
110. For a laced column, the minimum width of the 1. These normally consist of f lat plates,
lacing bars when using 20 mm nominal diameter connecting the components of the built-up
rivets is columns in two parallel planes.
(a) 65 mm (b) 60 mm 2. These are used fro triaxial loading.
(c) 55 mm (d) 50 mm 3. The design of battened columns and the
design of battens are usually governed by IS
Ans. (b)
code requirements.
Sol. “For a laced column, the minimum flat width of
Which of the above statements are correct?
lacing bar should not be less than three times
the nominal diameter of end connector”. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
 Width of lacing bar = 3 × 20 mm = 60 mm
Ans. (a)
111. A beam simply supported over an effective span
of 9m, carries a uniformly distributed load of 60 Sol.
kN/m, inclusive of its own weight. What is the  Battens are plates or any other rolled sections
section modulus of the beam, if f y = 250 N/mm2 used to connect the main components of
and E = 2 × 105 N/mm2? (Assume width of compression members.
support is 200 mm)
 Battens should be placed opposite to each other
(a) 2612 ×103 mm3 (b) 3682 ×103 mm3 on two parallel faces of the compression
(c) 4682 ×103 mm3 (d) 5124 ×103 mm3 member.
Ans. (b)

batten
End
Sol.
w = 60 kN/m

9m
S'

200 mm 200 mm
Leff = 9 m
Intermediate
batten

Maximum perimissible bending stress in

compression (bc ) = 0.66 f y

 bc = 0.66 × 250 = 165 N/mm2 Fig.Batten

 IS 800:2007, clause 7.7.2 deals with the design
w2 60 × 92
Maximum BM = = = 607.5 kNm of battens.
8 8
 Batten are not used for triaxial loading.
= 607.5 × 106 Nmm
 Battens are not recommended for a column
M 607.5  10 6 subjected to an eccentric load is plane of
Section modulus (Z) =  connecting system.
bc 165
 Batten plates are designed to carry the bending
= 3681.8 × 103 mm3 moment and shear arising from the transverse
 3682.2 × 103 mm3 shear, which is equal to 2.5% of total axial
force on the whole compression member.
112. Consider the following statements related to
batten plates:
113. Consider the following statements related to 1. It increases cooperation and a feeling of
design of tension member with single structural freedom.
shapes and plates: 2. It prevents duplication of work.
1. The common single structural shapes are 3. It makes communication easier.
angle sections, tee sections and channel
sections. 4. It increases the likelihood of run-arounds.

2. Single angles are not used for bracing for light Which of the above statements are correct?
truss tension members. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Occasionally, I sections are also used as (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
tension members as they have more rigidity.
Ans. (a)
Which of the above statements are correct?
115. For design of a roof truss, if the design wind
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
velocity is 20 m/s, what is the design wind
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 pressure?
Ans. (a) (a) 400 N/m2 (b) 40 N/m2
Sol.  The common single structural shapes are (c) 240 N/m2 (d) 200 N/m2
angle sections, tee sections and channel Ans. (c)
sections.
Sol. Design wind pressure (Pz) = 0.6 Vz2

Pz = Design wind pressure in N/m2 at height Z.

 Pz = 0.6 × 202 = 240 N/m2

116. Consider the following statements:

Angle section Channel section 1. The working stress design is based on explicit
consideration of the various conditions under
which the structure may cease to fulfil its
intended function.
2. In case of working stress design, structure will
directly take into consideration the various
Tee section I section relevant modes of failure.
 Angle sections are mainly used for bracing, 3. In working stress method, regulatory bodies
for light truss tension members.
or classification societies usually specify the
 Angle sections can also resist small value of the allowable stress as some fraction
compression if reversal of stress takes place. of the mechanical properties of materials.
 Occassionally, I sections are also used as Which of the above statements is/are correct?
tension members as they have more rigidity.
I sections are used as tension members in (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
heavier building or bridge trusses with double (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
plane construction.
Ans. (d)
 When the member is required to take heavy
tensile load, built up section consisting of two Sol.  Limit state design is based on the explicit
or more plates are used. consideration of the various conditions
under which the structure may cease to
114. Consider the following statements regarding the fulfill its intended function.
advantages of a good organization:
  Struct ure can not di rectl y take i nt o  Factor of safety (FOS) may also be defined
considerations the relevant modes of as the ratio of strength of member to the
failure. For example, increase in stress expected force.
near the openings of a steel plate can not
be accounted for directly in working stress 118. A steel cantilever beam is proposed to build into
method. a concrete wall at one end and other end is
free. It supports a dead load of 20 kN/m and a
 In working stress method, regulatory live load of 10 kN/m. The length of the beam is
bodies or classification societies usually 5 m. What are the shear force and bending
specify the value of the allowable stress moment respectively? (Take yield strength of
as som e f ract ion of t he mechanical steel as 250 N/mm2)
properties of materials that is usually (a) 225 kN and 562.5 kNm
based on similar past experience.
(b) 22.5 kN and 56.25 kNm
117. Consider the following statements regarding the (c) 225 kN and 56.25 kNm
working stress design method:
(d) 22.5 kN and 562.5 kNm
1. Working stress design is based on the elastic
Ans. (a)
theory.
2. The working stress in the member should be Sol.
less than the permissible stress. DL + LL = 20 + 10
= 30 kN/m
3. The permissible stress is the ratio of the factor
of safety to the yield stress.
4. The permissible stresses for fasteners are Steel
usually based on the ultimate strength of the 5m cantilever
connection. Concrete beam
wall
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
Span of beam (L)= 5m
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
Ultmate load (wu) = (30 × 1.5) kN/m
(c) 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Shear force (Vu) = wu × L
Ans. (b) = 30 × 1.5 × 5
Sol.  Working stress design method (WSDM) is = 225 kN
based on elastic theory.
5
 Attainment of initial yielding forms the design Bending moment (Mu) = 30 × 1.5 × 5 ×
criteria for the members in this method. 2

 The working stress should be less than = 562.5 kNm.

permissible stress.
119. Consider the following for local capacity of
 Permissible stress is defined as the ratio of section:
yield stress to the factor of safety.
1. Local section failure is usually encountered
 The permissible stresses for fasteners are
in the case of short stocky beam-columns with
usually based on the ultimate strength of the
relatively smaller axial compression ratio and
connection using Factor of safety values of
beam-columns bent in reverse curvature.
about 2 and 3 for various fasteners.
2. The strength of end section reached under
Note:
combined axial force and bending, governs
 When the yield point is well defined, the failure.
Yield stress 3. The strength of the section may be governed
FOS =
Maximum expected stress by plastic buckling of plate elements in the
 case of plastic, compact and semi-compact (a) three-f ourth the eff ective depth of the
and semi-compact sections. member.
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) one-third the effective depth of the member.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) two-third the effective depth of the member.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only (d) one-fourth the effective depth of the member.
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
Sol. Check for local capacity of section: Sol. Per IS 456:2000, clause no 26.2.3.2 (b), the
 The local section f ailure is usually correct option shall be (a)
encountered in the case of short stocky beam
122. Which one of the following is not a type of
column with relativ ely smaller axial
mortar?
compression ratio and beam-column bent in
reverse curvature. (a) Lime surkhi mortar
 The strength of end section reached under (b) Cement sand mortar
combined axial force and bending, governs (c) Cement stone chips mortar
the failure.
(d) Cement lime mortar
 The strength of the section may be governed
by plastic buckling of plate elements in the Ans. (c)
case of plastic, compact and semi compact
Sol. Cement stone chips mortar is not a type of
sections or by the elastic buckling of plate
mortar
elements of slender sections.

120. A tension member of a roof truss carries a 123. The grade of concrete and reinforcement are M-
factored load of 430 kN. By considering the 20 and Fe-250 respectively. Consider 25 mm
strength in yield, what is the gross area required diameter bars and bd is 1.2. What is the
to carry this load? (Consider Fe 250 grade steel) development length at support for a simply
(a) 1892 mm2 (b) 1978 mm2 supported beam of a rectangular section?

(c) 1903 mm2 (d) 2150 mm2 (a) 1133 mm (b) 1033 mm

Ans. (a) (c) 1321 mm (d) 1232 mm

Sol. Ans. (a)

Factored load (Fu) = 430 kN 0.87 fy 

Sol. The development length Ld =
Grade of steel = 250 4 bd
Tensile strength due to gross section yeilding 0.87 × 250 × 25
A g fy = = 1132.81 mm  1133 mm
4 ×1.20
(Tdg) =
 m0
124. In a singly reinforced beam, for given grade of
concrete, permissible bond stress in deformed
Putting, Tdg = Fu and  m0 = 1.1
bars
430 ×103 (a) is lesser than that of plain bars.
 Ag = = 1892 mm2
250 (b) is equal to that of plain bars.
1.1
(c) may be greater than or smaller than that of
121. Stirrup area in excess of that required for shear plain bars.
and torsion is provided along each terminated (d) is greater than that of plain bars.
bar over a distance from the cut-off point equal
Ans. (d)
to
Sol. As per IS 456:2000, clause no 26.2.1.1, (a) shear reinforcement
permissible bond stress in deformed bars shall (b) torsion reinforcement
be increased by 60% of permissible bond stress
(c) tensile reinforcement
of plain bars.
(d) compression reinforcement
125. The safe load carried by the helically reinforced
Ans. (b)
column is
(a) 1.05 times the load carried by the similar 129. Critical section for two way shear in case of
column with ties. isolated footing design is at

(b) 2.15 times the load carried by the similar (a) the face of column.
column with ties. (b) effective depth from the face of column.
(c) 1.15 times the load carried by the similar (c) half of the effective depth from the face of
column with ties. column.
(d) 2.05 times the load carried by the similar (d) two-third of the effective depth from the face
column with ties. of column.
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
Sol. As per IS 456 : 2000, clause no 39.4, the Sol. As per IS 456:2000, clause no. 34.2.4.1 (b), the
strength of compression members with helical correct option shall be option (c).
reinforcement shall be taken as 1.05 times the
130. Accepted relationship between tread and riser in
strength of similar member with lateral ties.
case of staircase design is
126. Nominal cover to reinforcement is provided to (a) Riser × Tread = 60,000 mm2
(1) protect reinforcement against corrosion. (b) 2 × Riser + Tread = 600 mm
(2) provide shear resistance. (c) Riser + Tread = 600 mm
(3) protect reinforcement against fire. (d) 2 × Tread + Riser = 600 mm
(4) develop sufficient bond strength along surface Ans. (b)
area of reinforcement bars.
Sol. In general, 2 × Riser + Tread = 580 mm to 600
Which of the above statements are correct? mm.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
131. Loss of pre-stress is not directly related to
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) creep of concrete.
Ans. (c)
(b) shrinkage of concrete.
127. In slab design, ratio of maximum diameter of (c) grade of concrete.
reinforcing bars to the total thickness of slab
(d) slipping of steel tendons from concrete.
should not be more than
(a) 1/12 (b) 1/6 Ans. (d)

(c) 1/8 (d) 1/7 Sol. Slipping of steel tendons from concrete is not
considered as it is assumed that there will be
Ans. (c) perfect bond between steel and concrete.
Sol. As per IS 456:2000, clause no 26.5.2.2, the
132. Which one of the following statements is the
diameter of reinforcing bar shall not exceed
disadvantage of post-tensioning method?
one eight of the total thickness of the slab.
(a) The loss of pre-stress is less as compared to
128. To prevent cracking of edges, the corners in two pre-tensioning system.
way slab are provided with
 (b) Post-tensioning method is costly as compared Ans. (b)
to pre-tensioning method.
136. Which one of the following statements is not
(c) Post-tensioning can be done in factories and
correct in respect of drawing network?
at the site also.
(a) No activity can start until its tail event has
(d) Post-tensioning method is used for large
occurred.
spans and heavily loaded structures.
(b) An event cannot occur twice.
Ans. (b)
(c) Length of arrow should be in proportion to the
133. What is the main limitation of bar chart? time consumed by that activity.
(a) It does not help in material and labour (d) The number of arrows should be equal to the
planning.
number of activities in the project.
(b) It does not show all the activities of a project.
Ans. (c)
(c) It does not indicate critical activities of a
Sol. Arrows in a network diagram are not vectors.
project.
They are never used to indicate duration (or
(d) Project duration cannot be estimated. time) through its length. All arrows should be of
Ans. (c) nearly equalsize wherever possibley i.e., wide
variation in length of arrows should be avoided.
134. Graders are not suitable for
(a) levelling of earthwork. 137. A-O-N system of network
(b) cutting ditches. (a) completely eliminates the use of dummy
activities.
(c) working on steeper slopes.
(d) heavy excavation. (b) requires judicious use of dummy activities.

Ans. (d) (c) does not distinctly show pre-operation and

post-operation of the activities.
Sol.
(d) is not suitable for projects with large number
 Graders are multipurpose machines and of activities.
used for finishing, shaping, bank sloping
Ans. (a)
and ditching.
Sol. A-O-N system of network completely eliminates
 They are also used for mixing, spreading,
the use of dummy activities as it is self sufficient
side casting, leveling and crowning, light
to fulfill the grammatical and logical purpose
stripping operations, general construction,
regarding the project.
and direct road maintenance.
 A grader’s primary purpose in cutting and 138. Which one of the following types of cost-plus
moving mateial with the moldboard. contracts allows the amount of the re-
imbursement to increase if the contractor’s cost
Note: Graders are restricted to making shallow
increases
cuts in medium-hard materials; they should not
be used for heavy excavation. (a) Cost-plus award fee contract
(b) Cost-plus incentive fee contract
135. Line of Balance technique is
(c) Cost-plus fixed fee contract
(a) modified bar chart.
(b) planning of repetitive activities of a project. (d) Cost-plus percentage fee contract

(c) modified form of PERT. Ans. (d)

(d) used for planning milestones of a project. Sol. Cost-plus percentage fee contract:
  Contractor gets profit as percentage of total 141. Which one of the following statements is not
cost incurred by him. correct?

 Profit increases with an increase in total (a) The circulation area of any floor includes
entrance halls.
cost.
(b) Floor area of a building includes area of sills
139. Number of bricks required for 15 cu.m of of doors and other openings.
brickwork is approximately
(c) Cube rate estimate of a building is more
(a) 6750 (b) 7200 accurate as compared to plinth area estimate.
(c) 7500 (d) 6000 (d) The preliminary estimate for water supply and
sewerage project can be prepared on the basis
Ans. (c)
of per head of population served.
Sol. We know that,
Ans. (b)
Nominal size of brick = 20cm × 10cm × 10cm
Sol. Floor area of a building is the total area of floor
 For 1 m3 brick work, in between walls and consists of floor of all
rooms, verandals, passages, corridors, staircase
 1×106  rooms, entrance hall, kitchen, stores, bath and
Number of bricks required =  
 20 × 20 ×10  latrine (W.Cs), etc.
= 500 Notes: Sills of doors and other openings are not
included in the floor area.
 For 15 m3 of brick work,
Number of bricks required = (15 × 500) = 7500 142. Consider the following statements regarding the
advantages in Line or Military Organization of
140. The plinth area of a building does not include management technique:
area of (1) The command and control is very effective.
(a) the walls at the floor levels. (2) It is simple to work and easily understood by
(b) internal shaft for sanitary installations upto 2 the employees.
sq.m area. (3) Responsibilities in all levels are definite and
(c) lifts. fixed.

(d) cantilevered porches. (4) The organization is rigid.

Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (d)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Sol. Plinth area is the built up covered area of a
building measured at floor level of any storey. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
The following shall be included in the plinth area: Ans. (b)
(i) All floors, area of walls at the floor level 143. Project management audit consists of which of
excluding plinth offsets, if any. the following?
(ii) Internal shaft for sanitory installations (1) Project work-breakdown structure verification
provided that these do not exceed 2 m2 in and the relevance.
area.
(2) Risk identification, cost, levels and security.
(iii) Air condition ducts, lifts, etc.
(3) Measurements of risk impacts.
(iv) The area of barsati and the area of at terrace
level. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(v) Area of porches other than cantilevered.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Note: Court-yard, open areas, balconies and
cantilever projections are not included in the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
plinth area.
Ans. (c) 146. Statement (I): Spur length is kept longer than
1.5 to 2 times the depth of flow.
144. Consider the following statements regarding
inspection and quality control: Statement (II): Shorter spur length in deeper
(1) Coefficient of variation is a relative measure rivers induces swirling motion on both the
of dispersion. upstream and downstream sides of the spur.

(2) Standard deviation is the root mean square Ans. (d)

of the deviation of all the results. Sol. No general rule is formulated for selection of
(3) Standard deviation is relative measure of spur length. It depends on the position of
dispersion. existing bank line and the desired position of
(4) Lower value of standard deviation indicates bank line after the training works.
low degree of uniformity of observations. Hence Statement I is wrong, thus correct answer
Which of the above statements are correct? is option (d).
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 147. Statement (I): Both the Empirical formulae given
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only by American Insurance Association and Buston
for the determination of fire demand of water
Ans. (c)
are not suitable for Indian conditions.
Directions: Each of the next six (06) items consists
of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ Statement (II): Kuichling’s formula estimates
and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine lesser value of fire water demand.
these two statements carefully and select the answers Ans. (b)
to these items using the codes given below:
Sol.  Freeman’s formula nation board of fire under
Codes: writer’s formula (now known as American
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Insurance Association and Buston’s formula
individually true and Statement (II) is the give higher values of fire demand which are
correct explanation of Statement (I) not suitable as for as Indian conditions are
concerned.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the  Kuichling’s formula estimates lesser value of
correct explanation of Statement (I) fire water demand.

(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false. 148. Statement (I): For the design of slender column,
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true additional moments are required to be
considered.
145. Statement (I): The theoretical strength of
concrete as per Gel-Space ratio theory is less Statement (II): Lateral deflection of slender
than the actual strength of concrete. columns, under axial load, is substantial and
causes additional moments.
Statement (II): In the Gel-Space ratio theory, it
Ans. (a)
has been assumed that the concrete is perfectly
homogeneous and flawless. 149. Statement (I): To achieve maximum value for
Ans. (d) minimum radius of gyration of compression
members, without increasing the area of the
Sol. The limitation of Gel-space ratio theory is that section, a number of elements are placed away
the theoretical strength of concrete is much from the principal axis using suitable lateral
more than the actual strength of concrete. systems.
 Statement (II): Batten shall be placed at 40° to 150. Statement (I): Chain surveying is that type of
70° to the axis of built-up members. surveying in which only linear measurements
are made in the field.
Ans. (d)
Statement (II): Traversing is that type of survey
Sol. In order to increase the radius of gyration, we
need to increase the moment of inertia of the in which a number of connected survey lines
built up section and this can be done by from the framework and the directions and
placing the elements away from the principal lengths of the survey lines are measured with
axis. the help of an angle measuring instrument and
a tape respectively.
Lacing shall be placed at 40° to 70° to the
axis of built up members and batten shall be Ans. (b)
placed in the transverse direction. So this
statement is incorrect.