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Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series f or Preliminary Exam 202 4

Test ID
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
0258
SUBJECT: GENERAL SCIENCE AND TECH

Time Allowed: 2 Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK


THAT THIS TEST BBOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:


THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 202 4
1. With reference to viruses, consider the 4. With reference to the vegetative
following statements: propagation of the plants, consider the
1. Viruses are obligate parasites. following statements:
2. They are surrounded by a protective 1. It helps in eliminating the virus.
protein coat, called prion. 2. It is also carried out by the humans in
3. They lack the enzymes necessary for the fields and laboratories.
the generation of energy. 3. Yeast reproduce asexually by a
method called fragmentation.
4. They can infect bacteria and fungi.
How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) Only three
(d) None
(d) All four

5. With reference to photosynthesis,


2. Consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. Fungi can be grown in synthetic 1. It is a process where oxygen is taken,
culture media. and carbon dioxide and water vapour
2. Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic are given out.
association between the plant roots 2. Green sulphur bacterium does not
and fungi. release oxygen during photosynthesis.
3. Aflatoxins are the toxins produced 3. It does take place in the green leaves
by microscopic fungi. and other green parts of the plants.
4. Fungi are made up of thread-like How many of the above statements are
structures, called mycelium. correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) Only three
(d) All four 6. With reference to the Higgs Boson
Particle, consider the following
statements:
3. Consider the following pairs:
1. It helps us understand why the
S.N. Vitamin/Mineral Deficiency elementary particles have mass.
disease 2. It is the only elementary particle with
1. Vitamin B1 Beriberi no spin.
2. Iodine Scurvy 3. Its mass is greater than that of a
proton.
3. Vitamin A Loss of vision
How many of the above statements are
How many of the above pairs are correctly correct?
matched? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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7. Consider the following statements: 10. The term ' GUSTO ' is talked about in the
1. The Pole Star appears nearest to context of:
either celestial pole at any particular (a) India’s underwater observatory to
time. scientifically study the Arctic region.
2. The Pole Star is visible in the sky due (b) an observatory that will fly on an
to optical illusions. Ultralong-Duration Balloon.
3. Thuban, a star, is a part of the (c) radio collars for wildlife tracking.
constellation Ursa Minor.
(d) a scientific establishment set up by
How many of the above statements are India in the Antarctic region.
correct?
(a) Only one
11. Which one of the following best describes
(b) Only two
the term “Splashdown”?
(c) All three
(a) It is the method of landing a
(d) None
spacecraft by parachute in a body of
water.
8. With reference to Hepatitis B, consider (b) It is a process that leads to crater
the following statements:
formation in the celestial bodies after
1. It is a viral infection that attacks the a meteorite impact.
liver.
(c) It is a drilling method used to find the
2. It can be passed from a mother to her
material composition of the Earth’s
baby.
interior.
3. It can be transmitted from one person
(d) It is the process of injecting liquid at
to another through tattooing.
high pressure into the boreholes to
How many of the above statements are
extract oil.
correct?
(a) Only one
12. Consider the following statements about
(b) Only two
the Gaganyaan Mission of India:
(c) All three
1. The Gaganyaan programme envisages
(d) None
undertaking the demonstration of
human spaceflight to the Low Earth
9. With reference to the Indian Neutrino Orbit (LEO).
Observatory (INO), consider the following
2. Vyommitra is a female-looking
statements:
spacefaring humanoid robot to
1. The goal of INO is to study of the
function on-board the Gaganyaan.
neutrinos using an iron calorimeter
(ICAL) detector. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
2. It functions under the aegis of the
Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) (a) 1 only
and the Department of Science and (b) 2 only
Technology (DST). (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 13. With reference to space environment,
(b) 2 only consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Visibility for observing the space is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 very poor due to the extensive
presence of the moving debris.

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2. Due to the presence of a vacuum, light 16. Consider the following statements about
materials and heavy materials cannot the Outer Space Treaty, 1967:
be mixed uniformly. 1. It is a binding Treaty requiring the
3. The outer space is abundant with members to use the outer space only
solar radiation, including gamma for peaceful purposes.
rays, x-rays and ultraviolet rays. 2. India is a member of the Treaty.
How many of the above statements are
3. Under it, the parties are prohibited
correct?
from placing nuclear arms on other
(a) Only one bodies in the space.
(b) Only two
How many of the above statements are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
14. Consider the following statements about
(c) All three
the Lagrange Points:
(d) None
1. These are the points where the
gravitational pull of two masses
precisely matches the centripetal force 17. Consider the following statements:
needed for an object to move with 1. NewSpace India Limited was set up to
them. commercially exploit the global space
2. There are five Lagrange Points, out of market.
which three are stable and two are 2. Antrix commercially markets the
unstable. products emanating from the Indian
3. Lagrange Point-3 of the Earth-Sun Space Programme.
system gives an uninterrupted view of 3. The Indian National Space Promotion
the Sun. and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe)
How many of the above statements are acts as a single-window, independent,
correct? nodal agency.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
15. The term “Agnibaan SOrTeD”, often heard
(d) None
in the news, corresponds to which of the
following:
18. Consider the following pairs about the
(a) An intercontinental ballistic missile
developed by the Indian Space Lander payloads of Chandrayaan-3:
Research Organization (ISRO). 1. ChaSTE To measure the
(b) A wildfire management system that thermal conductivity
provides early warnings using a and temperature.
satellite warning system. 2. ILSA To measure the
(c) A 3D-printed, single piece rocket seismicity around the
powered by a semi-cryogenic engine. landing site.
(d) A sensor-fused, fire-and-forget
3. Langmuir To estimate the plasma
artillery projectile that delivers
Probe (LP) density and its
outstanding effectiveness.
variations.

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How many of the above pairs are correctly 21. With reference to the Nancy Grace Roman
matched? Space Telescope, consider the following
(a) Only one statements:
(b) Only two 1. It is designed to settle questions in the
(c) All three areas of dark energy, exo-planets and
(d) None infrared astrophysics.
2. The primary mirror of the Roman
19. Consider the following pairs about the Telescope is ten times the size of the
payloads of Chandrayaan-3: primary mirror of the Hubble Space
1. LIBS To determine the Telescope.
elemental composition of 3. A single Roman image will hold the
the lunar soil around the equivalent detail of a hundred
lunar landing site. pictures from the Hubble.
2. APXS To derive the chemical How many of the above statements are
composition to further correct?
understanding of the
(a) Only one
lunar surface.
(b) Only two
3. SHAPE To probe into the variety
of the exo-planets which (c) All three
would qualify for (d) None
presence of life.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 22. With reference to the Low Earth Orbit
matched? (LEO), consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. It is the orbit most commonly used by
(b) Only two imaging satellites and space stations.
(c) All three 2. The satellites in the LEO must follow
(d) None an orbit along the Earth’s Equator.
3. Most commercial aeroplanes fly in the
20. With reference to the SPHEREx mission, Low Earth Orbit.
consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. It will attempt to understand how
correct?
galaxy formation began and how it
changed over time. (a) Only one

2. The mission will map galaxies and (b) Only two


stars across bands in the ultraviolet (c) All three
range of the electromagnetic (d) None
spectrum.
3. SPHEREx will produce two maps a
23. With reference to the Juno Spacecraft
year across its planned lifetime of two
launched by NASA, consider the following
years.
statements:
How many of the above statements are
correct? 1. Like all earlier spacecrafts sent to the
(a) Only one outer planets, Juno is powered by a
(b) Only two radioisotope thermoelectric generator.

(c) All three 2. After completing its mission, Juno will


(d) None intentionally collide with Jupiter's
surface.

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Which of the statements given above 2. A Ka-band radar interferometer in


is/are correct? SWOT will send and receive the return
(a) 1 only signal using a single antenna.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
24. With reference to the Europa Clipper (c) Both 1 and 2
Spacecraft, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. It is a spacecraft being developed by 27. “It will explore how the universe has
the European Space Agency.
expanded and how structure has formed
2. It will orbit Jupiter, instead of Europa over cosmic history, revealing more about
directly, spending the bulk of its time the role of gravity and the nature of dark
outside of the planet's intense energy and dark matter.” The mission in
radiation field.
question refers to which of the following?
Which of the statements given above
(a) Voyager-2
is/are correct?
(b) New Horizons
(a) 1 only
(c) Euclid
(b) 2 only
(d) OSIRIS-REx
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. ‘Messier 1’ is sometimes talked about
with reference to which one of the
25. With reference to NISAR, consider the
following?
following statements:
(a) Spacecraft of the European Space
1. It is a geostationary orbit observatory
Agency probing Saturn's moon Titan.
being jointly developed by NASA and
ISRO. (b) First probe to provide a complete
2. It will map the entire globe and picture of the Martian atmosphere
provide data for understanding and its layers.
changes in the Earth’s ecosystems. (c) Mission to change an asteroid's
3. NASA is responsible for providing the motion in the space through kinetic
S-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar impact.
payload system. (d) Pulsar wind nebula located in the
How many of the above statements are constellation of Taurus.
incorrect?
(a) Only one 29. With reference to the Reusable Launch
(b) Only two Vehicle (RLV), consider the following
(c) All three statements:
(d) None 1. It is a single stage launch vehicle that
is designed to be reused for multiple
26. With reference to the Surface Water and times.
Ocean Topography (SWOT) mission, 2. Other than the United States and
consider the following statements: Russia, India is the third country to
1. The mission is built by NASA and the develop fully Reusable Launch
European Space Agency. Vehicle.

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Which of the statements given above 33. With reference to the Parker Solar Probe,
is/are correct? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. It became the first spacecraft to fly
(b) 2 only through the outer corona of the Sun.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. It will use seven Earth flybys to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 gradually shrink its orbit around the
Sun.
30. Consider the following statements with 3. The primary science goals for the
respect to the black holes: mission are to trace the flow of energy
and understand the heating of the
1. Only electromagnetic waves can
solar corona.
escape the black holes.
How many of the above statements are
2. Only stars with very large masses can
correct?
become black holes.
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 only (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 34. With reference to Aditya L1, consider the
following statements:
1. It will be the first space-based Indian
31. ‘Wormhole’, which is often seen in the
mission to study the Sun.
news, is
2. It will be placed in a halo orbit around
(a) a central point of black hole where the
the Lagrange Point 3 (L3) of the Sun-
gravitational force becomes infinite.
Earth system.
(b) a giant cloud of dust and gas in the
3. Measuring the low-intensity
outer space formed after supernovae.
interplanetary magnetic field in the
(c) like a tunnel between two distant
space is one of its objective.
points in our universe that cuts the
How many of the above statements are
travel time from one point to the
correct?
other.
(a) Only one
(d) a neutron star which runs out of fuel
and collapses. (b) Only two
(c) All three
32. With reference to the gravitational waves, (d) None
consider the following statements:
1. They are the invisible ripples in the 35. With reference to the Small Modular
space-time caused by violent and Reactor (SMR), consider the following
energetic processes. statements:
2. Albert Einstein predicted the existence 1. It is an advanced nuclear reactor
of gravitational waves in his General which uses nuclear fusion to produce
Theory of Relativity. energy.
Which of the statements given above 2. It has relatively higher carbon
is/are correct? footprint than the conventional
(a) 1 only reactors.
(b) 2 only 3. The SMRs can be factory-built, unlike
the conventional nuclear reactors that
(c) Both 1 and 2
are built on–site.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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How many of the above statements are 1. It is primarily found in monazite


correct? sands along the coastal regions of
(a) Only one South India.
(b) Only two 2. Unlike uranium, thorium is a fertile
material and not a fissile material.
(c) All three
3. The Advanced Heavy Water Reactor
(d) None (AHWR), being developed in India, is
designed to utilize thorium as its
36. With reference to the Breeder Reactor, primary fuel.
consider the following statements: How many of the above statements are
1. It is a type of nuclear reactor which correct?
produces more fissile materials than it (a) Only one
consumes. (b) Only two
2. It only works with uranium for the (c) All three
production of power. (d) None
3. Both Fast Breeder and Thermal
Breeder Reactors require moderation 39. Consider the following statements
to achieve slower moving neutrons. regarding uranium mining and its
How many of the above statements are utilization in India:
correct? 1. The Jaduguda mine in Jharkhand is
the first uranium mine in India.
(a) Only one
2. India primarily relies on imported
(b) Only two
uranium to fuel its nuclear reactors
(c) All three due to limited domestic reserves.
(d) None 3. The Tummalapalle mine in Andhra
Pradesh is known to have one of the
37. Consider the following pairs: largest uranium reserves in the world.
How many of the above statements are
S.N. Power Location
correct?
Plant/Stations
(a) Only one
1. Kakrapar Atomic Karnataka (b) Only two
Power Station (c) All three
2. Narora Atomic Power Rajasthan (d) None
Station
3. Tarapur Atomic Maharashtra 40. Consider the following statements about
Power Station mitosis and meiosis:
4. Kaiga Nuclear Power Gujarat 1. Crossing over between homologous
chromosomes occurs during meiosis,
Plant
but not mitosis.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 2. Meiosis involves two rounds of cell
matched? division, whereas mitosis has only
(a) Only one one.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above
(c) Only three is/are correct?
(d) All four (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
38. Consider the following statements about
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
thorium and its relevance to India:

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41. CCR5 is a receptor found on the surface How many of the above statements are
of certain immune cells. Some individuals correct?
carry a mutation in the CCR5 gene that (a) Only one
results in which of the following? (b) Only two
(a) Increased susceptibility to HIV-1 (c) All three
infection (d) None
(b) Resistance to HIV-1 infection
(c) Development of auto-immune 44. Consider the following statements with
disorders reference to the CAR T-cell therapy:

(d) Impaired inflammatory response 1. The therapy involves directly


activating the patient’s immune
system against cancer.
42. With reference to the Medical Termination 2. In this therapy, the T-cells harvested
of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act of 2021, from the donor's blood are modified in
consider the following statements: the laboratory.
1. The opinion of only one provider will 3. The treatment is more than 90%
be required for the termination of effective against all types of known
pregnancy upto 20 weeks of gestation. cancers.
2. It enhanced the upper gestation limit How many of the above statements are
from 20 weeks to 22 weeks for special correct?
categories of women. (a) Only one
3. Failure of contraceptive methods, as a (b) Only two
ground for the termination of (c) All three
pregnancy, is applicable only to the (d) None
married women.
How many of the above statements are 45. With reference to CRISPR-Cas9, consider
correct? the following statements:
1. In this technique, ‘gRNA’ acts as a
(a) Only one
pair of ‘molecular scissors’ that can
(b) Only two
cut the two strands of DNA at a
(c) All three specific location.
(d) None 2. An enzyme called ‘Cas9’ is designed to
find and bind to a specific sequence in
the DNA.
43. With reference to the Assisted
Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
of 2021, consider the following
(a) 1 only
statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
(c) Both 1 and 2
(ART) services may be commissioned
by the women between 21 years and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
55 years of age.
46. With reference to the monoclonal
2. As per the Act, a woman may donate
antibodies, consider the following
eggs only once in her life.
statements:
3. Only infertile married couples or
1. Monoclonal antibodies are the
single women are eligible for accessing artificial antibodies produced by
the ART services. cloning a unique red blood cell.

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2. They can bind only to the part of an 1. It is a rare infection caused by the
antigen that is recognized by the fungi of black colour only.
antibody. 2. Fungi of these types can spread from
Which of the statements given above person to person.
is/are correct? 3. Vaccines are the most effective way to
(a) 1 only reduce the risk of mucormycosis.
(b) 2 only How many of the above statements are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
47. With reference to therapeutic cloning, (c) All three
consider the following statements: (d) None
1. It involves creating a cloned embryo
only for producing the embryonic stem 50. With reference to ‘three-parent baby’,
cells with the same DNA as the donor consider the following statements:
cell. 1. The procedure aims to eliminate
2. The tissues formed during the mitochondrial diseases, which are
fertilization stage are the richest only passed on by the mother.
source of the embryonic stem cells. 2. In this procedure, the nuclear genetic
Which of the statements given above material from the donor’s egg is
is/are correct? removed and replaced with the genetic
(a) 1 only material from the biological parents.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
48. With reference to Lymphatic Filariasis, (c) Both 1 and 2
consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a bacterial disease transmitted
through the bites of infected 51. With respect to the “Mitochondrial
mosquitos. diseases”, consider the following
2. Most infections of this type of disease statements:
are acquired in childhood itself. 1. Mitochondria are the organelle present
3. Virtually all people infected by this in the cytoplasm of the cells.
disease suffer from damages to the 2. There are same number of
lymphatic system and the kidneys. mitochondria in different cell types.
How many of the above statements are 3. A father with mitochondrial gene defect
correct? can transmit the disease to his
(a) Only one offspring.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
49. With reference to Mucormycosis, consider (c) All three
the following statements: (d) None

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52. With respect to saprotrophs, consider the Which of the statements given above
following statements: is/are correct?
1. Saprotroph organism feeds on non- (a) 1 only
living organic matter, known as (b) 2 only
detritus at a microscopic level. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Fungi are not classified as (d) Neither 1 nor 2
saprotrophs.
3. Saprotrophs feed by a process, known 55. With respect to “lysosomes”, consider the
as absorptive nutrition. following statements:

How many of the above statements are 1. It is an organelle without a membrane


that contains digestive enzymes.
correct?
2. They facilitate programmed cell death
(a) Only one
when a cell is irreversibly damaged.
(b) Only two
3. They are known as the ‘suicide bags’
(c) All three of a cell.
(d) None How many of the above statements are
correct?
53. With respect to “Nitrogen cycle”, consider (a) Only one
the following statements: (b) Only two
1. The atmospheric nitrogen can be (c) All three
taken directly by the animals. (d) None
2. Blue-green algae present in the soil
convert nitrogen into absorbable 56. With reference to Plastids, consider the
forms of nitrogen, like nitrites and following statements:
nitrates. 1. Plastids are present in both the
plants, as well as animal cells.
3. The process of nitrification removes
2. Chromoplasts are white or colourless
bioavailable nitrogen from the
plastids in which materials, such as
environment and releases it back into
starch, oils, and protein granules are
the atmosphere by converting nitrate
stored.
to nitrogen gas.
3. Unlike the mitochondria, plastids do
How many of the above statements are not have their own DNA and
correct? ribosomes.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one

(d) None (b) Only two


(c) All three
(d) None
54. With respect to “Steel slag”, consider the
following statements:
57. With respect to the symbiotic relationship
1. The steel slag produced during the
in the plants, consider the following
primary stage of steel production is
statements:
referred to as raker and ladle slags.
1. Mycorrhiza is a disease-producing
2. It can be used in the improvement of association in which the fungus
agricultural soil. invades the root to absorb nutrients.

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2. Lichen is a symbiotic association 60. With respect to “Diabetes”, consider the


between algae and fungus. following statements:
3. Amensalism can be seen in the growth 1. It is a chronic illness brought on by
of an orchid as an epiphyte on a excessive insulin production by the
mango branch. pancreas.
How many of the above statements are 2. Type 2 diabetes is less common than
correct? Type 1 diabetes.
(a) Only one 3. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes can
(b) Only two be diagnosed by a simple blood test.
(c) All three How many of the above statements are
(d) None correct?
(a) Only one
58. With respect to the cells, consider the (b) Only two
following statements: (c) All three
1. Unlike the animal cells, a cell wall is (d) None
present in a plant cell.
2. Both the plant cells and the animal 61. With respect to the “Zika Virus”, consider
cells possess a plasma membrane. the following statements:
3. Unlike the plant cells, ribosomes are 1. It is transmitted by the same
present in the animal cells. mosquito that transmits
How many of the above statements are chikungunya.
correct? 2. Zika Virus infection during pregnancy
(a) Only one can cause infants to be born with
(b) Only two microcephaly.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
59. With respect to the “gravitational lensing”,
consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is the distortion of light due to the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
gravitational pull of massive objects in
the galaxy. 62. With reference to mRNA, consider the
2. It allows the researchers to study the following statements:
details of the black holes too far away 1. mRNA stores all the genetic
to be seen with the current information in the human body.
technology. 2. mRNA is a double-stranded molecule.
3. The individual stars can also act as 3. mRNA is a rapidly degrading molecule
gravitational lenses when they pass in within the cell.
front of more distant stars. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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63. Consider the following statements: 66. Consider the following statements with
1. In eukaryotic organisms, transcription reference to Haemophilia:
and translation occur in the 1. Haemophilia is a rare genetic disorder
cytoplasm. that alters the shape of the red blood
2. The process of translation is carried cells.
out by ribosomes. 2. Haemophilia is more common in
3. Reverse transcription can occur in the males, than in females.
nucleus of the cell. Which of the statements given above
How many of the above statements are is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 only
(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
67. Consider the following statements with
64. Consider the following statements with reference to the Human
reference to ‘protein folding’: Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV):
1. The linear sequence of amino acids 1. HIV belongs to the retrovirus family
acquires its three-dimensional with RNA as its genetic material.
functional structure through protein 2. HIV primarily targets the red blood
folding. cells in the human body.
2. Improper protein folding can lead to
3. In some cases, vector transmission of
various neurodegenerative disorders.
HIV is possible.
3. Proteins may lose their three-
How many of the above statements are
dimensional structure if they undergo
correct?
denaturation.
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None 68. Consider the following:
1. Nitrogen fixation

65. With reference to the ‘Down Syndrome’, 2. Food preservation


consider the following statements: 3. Waste treatment
1. It is a progressive neurodegenerative 4. Biofuel production
disorder that primarily affects memory How many of the above are the
and cognitive function. applications of bacteria?
2. The genetic condition is caused by the (a) Only one
absence of a functional chromosome. (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above (c) Only three
is/are correct?
(d) All four
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
69. With reference to fungi, consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2 following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Fungi are prokaryotic organisms.

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2. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin. 3. Unlike Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C,
3. Fungi belong to the plant kingdom. Hepatitis A does not cause chronic
4. Fungi play a vital role in the formation liver disease.
of soil. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
73. With respect to “eDNA”, consider the
70. Consider the following: following statements:
1. Cholera 1. It is released from an organism into
2. Typhoid the environment, originates from
3. Diarrhoea sources like mucous, gametes, shed
How many of the above diseases are skin and hair.
caused by bacteria alone? 2. It can be used for detecting the
(a) Only one invasive alien species.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above
(c) All three is/are correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
71. Consider the following statements with (c) Both 1 and 2
reference to Rabies: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Rabies is a zoonotic disease that is
caused by RNA rabies virus.
74. With respect to the “Nuclear Suppliers
2. The disease infects the central
Group (NSG)”, consider the following
nervous system of the humans and
statements:
other mammals.
1. The membership in the Nuclear
3. Hydrophobia is a prominent symptom
Suppliers Group automatically entails
associated with severe progression of
the membership in the Treaty on the
the disease.
Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
How many of the above statements are
(NPT).
correct?
2. It came into being as a response to the
(a) Only one
1974 nuclear test by India.
(b) Only two
3. India is not a member of the NSG.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements are
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
72. With reference to Hepatitis, consider the
following statements: (b) Only two
1. Hepatitis C is most commonly (c) All three
transmitted from one individual to (d) None
another through air.
2. Vaccines for Hepatitis A and Hepatitis 75. With respect to the “Agni-Prime missile”,
C offer significant protection against consider the following statements:
the virus.

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1. It is a short-range nuclear capable 2. Carbon Nanotubes have high tensile


ballistic missile. strength due to the strengths of bonds
2. It is a missile with surface-to-surface between the carbon atoms.
capabilities and is powered by solid 3. Application of Carbon Nanotube can
fuel. be seen in the field of tissue
Which of the statements given above engineering.
is/are correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
76. With respect to “INS Arihant”, consider
the following statements: 79. Consider the following statements:
1. INS Arihant can carry a dozen K-15 1. Graphene, produced by oxidation or
missiles on board. reduction reactions, is known as
2. It is India’s first indigenous nuclear- ‘Pristine Graphene’.
powered ballistic missile capable 2. Graphene shows high thermal
submarine. conductivity due to its lower surface
Which of the above statements are area.
correct? 3. Graphene is a semi-metal because of
(a) 1 only the energy gap between its valence
and conduction bands.
(b) 2 only
How many of the above statements are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
77. With respect to the “Odanata species”,
(c) All three
consider the following statements:
(d) None
1. It is an order of flying insects that
includes the dragonflies.
2. They are herbivorous species. 80. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘Fullerenes’:
3. They are highly sensitive indicators of
1. Non-linear optical properties of
the state of the freshwater
Fullerenes protect the sensors from
ecosystems.
intense light.
How many of the above statements are
2. Nucleophilic addition reactions are
correct?
used to produce Fullerene containing
(a) Only one
polymers.
(b) Only two
3. Fullerenes are completely opaque to
(c) All three low-intensity light.
(d) None How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
78. With reference to ‘Carbon Nanotubes’, (a) Only one
consider the following statements: (b) Only two
1. All the Single-Walled Carbon (c) All three
Nanotubes structures exhibit high
(d) None
electrical conductivity.

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81. With reference to the recent developments How many of the above statements are
regarding ‘Gold Nanoparticles’, consider incorrect?
the following statements: (a) Only one
1. Gold Nanoparticles can be used as (b) Only two
therapeutic agent in anti-cancer drug (c) All three
development. (d) None
2. Gold Nanoparticles can be used as
colorimetric probes. 84. Which one of the following statements
3. Gold Nanoparticles have broader use best explains the “Iron Dome”, recently
in biomedicine due to the non-toxic seen in the news?
characteristic. (a) Space weapons designed to
How many of the above statements are incapacitate the satellites for strategic
purposes.
correct?
(b) Kinetic impactor technique developed
(a) Only one
by NASA to deflect the asteroids
(b) Only two approaching the Earth.
(c) All three (c) A missile defence shield to protect
(d) None against incoming short-range
weapons.
82. Consider the following statements: (d) A drone monitoring system to detect
and alert against the dangerous
1. The development of ‘core-shell
unmanned aerial vehicles.
quantum dots’ has increased the
optical quality of ‘colloidal quantum
dots’. 85. Consider the following statements:
1. A ballistic missile is launched with no
2. Core-shell nanoparticles consist of
active propulsion during its actual
narrow-bandgap shell that confine
flight.
electrons to a small-bandgap core.
2. Ballistic missiles hit the target with
Which of the statements given above
high precision, as compared to Cruise
is/are correct? missiles.
(a) 1 only 3. BrahMos is a ballistic missile system
(b) 2 only developed jointly by India and Russia.
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the above statements are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) Only one

83. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two


(c) All three
1. All nanoparticles, interacting with the
living organisms, dissolve easily and (d) None
spread within the body.
2. The shape of nanoparticles determine 86. With reference to the GPS Aided GEO
Augmented Navigation (GAGAN), consider
the health effects of the nanoparticles
the following statements:
on the living organisms.
1. It is a regional Satellite Based
3. Inducing oxidative stress in the cells
Augmentation System (SBAS),
can determine the toxicity of
developed by the Airports Authority of
nanoparticles. India.

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2. The seamless navigation services are 3. The CRISPR system allows for
limited to the Indian sub-continent targeted intervention at the genome
region. sequence.
3. GAGAN studies ionospheric behaviour How many of the above statements are
over the Indian region. correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 90. With reference to the Wassenaar
Arrangement (WA), consider the following
statements:
87. Consider the following statements:
1. It is a voluntary, multilateral export
1. Bird flu is caused by an H1N1
control regime.
influenza virus.
2. The focus of WA is to prevent the
2. The symptoms of swine flu are similar
proliferation of biological weapons.
to that of COVID-19.
3. India is a member of this
Which of the statements given above
Arrangement.
is/are correct?
How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
88. With reference to malaria, consider the
following statements: 91. With reference to the Genetic Engineering
1. The infection is caused by a parasite. Appraisal Committee (GEAC), consider
2. Plasmodium falciparum is the the following statements:
deadliest malaria. 1. It is constituted under the
3. Blood transfusion and contaminated Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
needles may transmit malaria. 2. The Environment Minister is the ex-
How many of the above statements are officio Chairman of this Committee.
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) Only one is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements:
1. Genome modification involves 92. ‘Project 15B’, sometimes seen in the
alterations of the genetic material news, is related to which of the following?
through introduction of a foreign (a) Scorpene-class attack submarines
genetic material. (b) Guided missile destroyers
2. Genome editing is a technique used to (c) Stealth guided-missile frigates
precisely and efficiently modify the (d) Wireless communication technology
DNA within a cell.

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93. Consider the following statements about (c) It refers to a frequency band which is
the Proton Therapy: not detectable through the modern
1. In the Proton Therapy, radiation is radio-telescopes.
provided only to the tumor, thus (d) It refers to a frequency band which
minimizing damage to the can be used to detect the black holes,
as they do not emit in this range.
surrounding tissues, as seen in the X-
ray based radiation therapy.
96. The Turing Test is employed to establish
2. The principle of Bragg Peak allows the
mainly the existence of which of the
release of immense amount of
following?
radiation energy to kill the cancer
(a) Artificial Intelligence
cells and disappear instantly.
(b) Quantum Computing
Which of the statements given above
(c) Black Holes
is/are correct?
(d) Blackbody
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 97. Consider the following statements about
(c) Both 1 and 2 Holobionts:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) They are an assemblage of
bacteriophages which live inside the
humans.
94. Consider the following pairs about
hormones and their key functions: (b) They are an assemblage of viruses
living inside other species, helping in
1. Melatonin: Helps relieve pain and
digestion.
stress
(c) They are an assemblage of species
2. Endorphin: Helps with circadian living inside the waterbodies, which
rhythms help in controlling pollution.
3. Dopamine: Helps in motivation (d) They are an assemblage of a host and
process many other species forming a discrete
4. Prolactin: Helps in milk production in ecological unit.
feeding mothers
How many of the above pairs are correctly 98. With reference to the Missile Technology
matched? Control Regime (MTCR), consider the
following statements:
(a) Only one
1. The MTCR seeks to limit the risks of
(b) Only two proliferation of weapons of mass
(c) Only three destruction.
(d) All four 2. The MTCR is not a treaty and does not
impose any legally binding obligations
on members.
95. Consider the following statements about
the Terahertz Gap: 3. India is not a member of the Missile
Technology Control Regime.
(a) It refers to the frequency band in
How many of the statements given above
which radiations from the outer space
are correct?
are not able to reach the planet Earth.
(a) Only one
(b) It refers to a frequency band with
(b) Only two
terahertz frequency, for which
(c) All three
practical technologies do not exist.
(d) None

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99. Consider the following statements: 100. With reference to BlueWalker3 Satellite,
1. Dark pattern is a deceptive practice consider the following statements:
employed to influence user behaviour 1. It is prototype satellite which is
in a way that benefits the company intended to deliver mobile or
implementing it. broadband services anywhere in the
2. Dark patterns are prohibited under world.
the Consumer Protection Act 2019. 2. It is the largest commercial antenna
Which of the statements given above system ever deployed in Low-Earth
is/are correct? orbit.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 0258


GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Subject: General Science and Tech

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF


Subject: GENERAL SCIENCE AND TECH
GS Paper-I: (0258)
1. Answer: (c) soluble organic matter from dead
Explanation: substrates and hence, are called
Virus means venom or poisonous fluid. saprophytes. Those that depend on the
Viruses are obligate parasites, that require living plants and animals are called
a host for the completion of their life cycle parasites. They can also live as symbionts –
and lack the necessary enzymes for the in association with algae as lichens and
generation of energy. They also contain with roots of higher plants as mycorrhiza.
genetic material, that could be either RNA Aspergillus fumigatus; Alternaria
or DNA. No virus contains both RNA and Penicillium notatum; and
DNA. Cladosporium herbarum were cultured in a
In general, the viruses that infect the pure synthetic medium. Aflatoxins are the
plants have single stranded RNA, and the mycotoxins produced by
viruses that infect the animals have either two species of Aspergillus, a fungus found
single or double stranded RNA, or double especially in the areas with hot and humid
stranded DNA. Bacterial viruses or climates, found on agricultural crops, such
bacteriophages (viruses that infect the as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed and
bacteria) are usually double stranded DNA tree nuts.
viruses.
The protein coat, called capsid, made of 3. Answer: (b)
small sub-units, called capsomeres, Explanation:
protects the nucleic acid. These Vitamin / Deficiency Symptoms
capsomeres are arranged in helical or Mineral disease /
polyhedral geometric forms. Viruses cause disorder
diseases like mumps, small pox, herpes
Vitamin A Loss of Poor vision,
and influenza. AIDS in humans is also
caused by a virus. vision loss of vision in
darkness
(night),
2. Answer: (c)
sometimes
Explanation: complete loss
The fungi constitute a unique kingdom of of vision
heterotrophic organisms. White spots, seen
Vitamin Bl Beriberi Weak muscles
on mustard leaves, are due to a parasitic
and very little
fungus. Some unicellular fungi, e.g., yeast
energy to work
are used to make bread and beer.
Vitamin C Scurvy Bleeding gums,
Fungi are cosmopolitan and occur in air,
wounds take
water, soil and on animals and plants. They
longer time to
prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
heal
Their bodies consist of long, slender
thread-like structures, called hyphae. Vitamin D Rickets Bones become
The network of hyphae is known as soft and bent
mycelium. Calcium Bone and Weak bones,
Most fungi are heterotrophic and absorb tooth decay tooth decay

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Iodine Goiter Glands in the In the green plants, H2O is the hydrogen
neck appear donor and is oxidized to O2. Some
swollen, mental organisms do not release O2 during
disability in photosynthesis. Green sulphur bacterium
children does not release oxygen during
photosynthesis.
Iron Anaemia Weakness

6. Answer: (c)
4. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Back in the 1960s, the scientists predicted
Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual the presence of a particle that is
reproduction in which new plants are responsible for giving mass to other
produced from roots, stems, leaves and particles, like electrons, quarks, neutrinos
buds. Since reproduction is through the etc. It was called the ‘Higgs Boson’. It is the
vegetative parts of the plant, it is known as Higgs Boson that gives mass to everything.
vegetative propagation. Reproduction in
It is because of the Higgs Boson that the
yeast by budding and fern by spore
‘Big-Bang’ happened and everything were
formation.
created. This is why it is aptly called the
There are 2 methods of vegetative God Particle.
propagation: ‘Natural Vegetative
The Higgs Boson has a mass of 125 billion
Propagation’ occurs without any human
electron volts, meaning it is 130 times more
intervention, driven by the inherent growth
massive than a proton, according to the
and reproductive mechanisms of the plant.
European Organization for Nuclear
Examples: Runners and stolons, suckers,
Research (CERN). It is also charge-less with
offsets etc.
zero spin a quantum mechanical equivalent
‘Artificial Vegetative Propagation’ to angular momentum. The Higgs Boson is
involves human intervention to initiate or the only elementary particle with no spin.
accelerate the vegetative propagation
process. It is also carried out by the
7. Answer: (a)
humans in the fields and laboratories.
Examples: Grafting and budding, layering, Explanation:
cuttings etc. The Pole Star is the brightest star that
appears nearest to either celestial pole at
any particular time. Owing to
5. Answer: (c)
the precession of the equinoxes, the
Explanation:
position of each pole describes a small
Green plants carry out ‘photosynthesis’, a circle in the sky over a period of 25,772
physico-chemical process, by which they years. Each of a succession of stars has,
use light energy to drive the synthesis of thus, passed near enough to the north
organic compounds. celestial pole to serve as the Pole Star.
Photosynthesis is important due to two Thuban is a binary star system in the
reasons: It is the primary source of all food northern constellation of Draco. Polaris
on the Earth. It is also responsible for the is a star in the northern circumpolar
release of oxygen into the atmosphere by constellation of Ursa Minor, commonly
the green plants. Chlorophyll (green called the North Star or the Pole Star.
pigment of the leaf), light, water vapour and
The location of the northern Pole Star has
CO2 are required for photosynthesis to
made it a convenient object for the
occur.
navigators to use in determining

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the latitude and the north-south direction 10. Answer: (b)


in the northern hemisphere. Explanation:
There is no bright star near the south Galactic / Extragalactic Ultralong-
celestial pole; the present southern Pole Duration Balloon Spectroscopic
Star, Polaris Australis (also called Terahertz Observatory (GUSTO) is an
Octantis), is only of the 5th magnitude and observatory that will fly on a Long-
is, thus, barely visible to the naked eye. Duration Balloon (LDB) to around
1,20,000 feet in the air to study the
The Pole Star appears in the North Pole
interstellar medium the matter between the
or the South Pole, depends on the
stars using far infrared detectors. This
Earth’s rotation.
mission represents a joint effort between
NASA (The National Aeronautics and Space
8. Answer: (c) Administration), the University of Arizona
Explanation: and Johns Hopkins APL (Applied Physics
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks Laboratory).
the liver, and can cause both acute and
chronic disease. The virus is most 11. Answer: (a)
commonly transmitted from a mother to Explanation:
her child during birth and delivery, in early  Yuri Gagarin from the erstwhile Soviet
childhood, as well as through contact with Union was the first human in the space.
blood or other body fluids during sex with  Unlike the early US human spaceflight
an infected partner, unsafe injections or programmes, Gagarin did not land
exposures to sharp instruments, so it can inside of capsule. Instead, he ejected
be transmitted from one person to another from the spacecraft and landed by
through tattooing. Hepatitis B can be parachute.
prevented by vaccines that are safe,  Splashdown is the method of landing
available and effective. a spacecraft by parachute in a body
of water.
9. Answer: (c)
12. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The India-based Neutrino Observatory
(INO) is an effort aimed at building a world-  The Gaganyaan programme envisages
class underground laboratory to study undertaking the demonstration of
human spaceflight to the Low Earth
fundamental issues in science. It is a mega-
Orbit (LEO) in the short-term and will
science project under the XII Five-Year Plan
lay the foundation for a sustained
of the Government of India with an
Indian human space exploration
investment of about Rs. 1,538 crores,
programme in the long run. The
jointly funded by the Department of Atomic objective of the Gaganyaan programme
Energy (DAE) and the Department of is to demonstrate indigenous capability
Science and Technology (DST). to undertake human space flight mission
The laboratory is to be located in Theni to the LEO.
(Tamil Nadu).  The Gaganyaan programme is going to
The primary goal of the laboratory is the be a major national effort. The overall
study of the neutrinos from various natural programme co-ordination, systems
and laboratory sources, using an iron engineering and implementation will be
calorimeter (ICAL) detector. carried out by the Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO).

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 Vyommitra is a female-looking to the Solar and Heliospheric


spacefaring humanoid robot being Observatory Satellite.
developed by the Indian Space Research
Organization to function on-board the 15. Answer: (c)
Gaganyaan, a crewed orbital spacecraft.
Explanation:
 Chennai-based Agnikul Cosmos is all
13. Answer: (a) set to carry out the sub-orbital test
Explanation: flight of its 3D-printed rocket
 Visibility for observing the space is Agnibaan SubOrbital Technological
excellent, since there is almost no Demonstrator (SOrTeD) from its
atmosphere and no meteorological launch pad at Sriharikota.
effects in the space close to the  The single-stage rocket, powered by
Earth. The whole Earth can be Agnilet semi-cryogenic engine, was
observed from outside of the wheeled for integration with Agnikul's
atmosphere. Abundant, constant and launch pad at Sriharikota, and carrying
high-density solar energy is also out mechanical and electrical interface
available. checks.
 Since there is almost no buoyancy in  According to the company’s statement,
the space environment, light Agnibaan SOrTeD is a single-stage
materials and heavy materials can launch vehicle driven by Agnikul's
be mixed uniformly. patented Agnilet engine - an entirely
 The space is full of ionized radiation 3D-printed, single-piece, 6 kN semi-
and solar radiation, such as gamma cryogenic engine.
rays, x-rays and ultraviolet rays. The
space radiation environment is 16. Answer: (c)
composed of various types of particles.
Explanation:
 The Outer Space Treaty (1967) is an
14. Answer: (a) international Treaty binding the parties
Explanation: to use the outer space only for peaceful
 The Lagrange Points are the points purposes. It is not a legally binding
where the gravitational pull of two large Treaty.
masses precisely matches the centripetal  In June, 1966, the United States and
force needed for a small object to move the erstwhile Soviet Union submitted
with them. draft treaties on the uses of the space to
 Of the five Lagrange Points, three are the United Nations.
unstable and two are stable.  The Treaty came into force in 1967,
o The unstable Lagrange Points – after being ratified by the United States,
labelled L1, L2 and L3 – lie along the the erstwhile Soviet Union, the United
line connecting the two large Kingdom, and several other countries.
masses.  Under the terms of the Treaty, the
o The stable Lagrange Points – parties are prohibited from placing
labelled L4 and L5 – form the apex nuclear arms or other weapons of mass
of two equilateral triangles that have destruction in orbit, on the Moon, or on
the large masses at their vertices. other bodies in the space.
 The L1 point of the Earth-Sun  Their space installations and vehicles
system affords an uninterrupted shall be open, on a reciprocal basis, to
view of the Sun and is currently home the representatives of other countries,

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and all parties agree to conduct outer- 18. Answer: (c)


space activities openly and in Explanation:
accordance with the international law. Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to
 India is a party to all the major Chandrayaan-2, to demonstrate end-to-end
international treaties/regulations related capability in safe landing and roving on the
to the outer space, including the Outer lunar surface. It consists of a Lander and
Space Treaty, the Rescue Agreement, the Rover configuration, and the propulsion
Liability Convention and the Registration
module.
Convention, and has also signed the
Lander Payloads:
Moon Treaty.
 Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical
Experiment (ChaSTE) to measure the
17. Answer: (c)
thermal conductivity and temperature.
Explanation:
 Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity
 The Union Government has already set
(ILSA) for measuring the seismicity
up NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) to
around the landing site.
commercially exploit the research and
development work of the Indian Space  Langmuir Probe (LP) to estimate the
Research Organization (ISRO) Centres plasma density and its variations.
and constituent units of the  A passive Laser Retroreflector Array
Department of Space (DOS). NSIL was from NASA is accommodated for lunar
set up to meet the ever-increasing laser ranging studies.
demands of Indian space programme
and to commercially exploit the emerging
19. Answer: (a)
global space market.
Explanation:
 Antrix Corporation Limited,
incorporated under the Companies Act, Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to
1956, is a wholly owned Government of Chandrayaan-2, to demonstrate end-to-end
India company under the administrative capability in safe landing and roving on the
control of the Department of Space. lunar surface. It consists of a Lander and
Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO. Rover configuration, and the propulsion
Antrix promotes and commercially module.
markets the products emanating from Rover Payloads:
the Indian Space Programme.
 Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope
 The Union Cabinet, led by the Prime (LIBS): Qualitative and quantitative
Minister, took the decision to open up elemental analysis, and to derive the
the space sector and facilitate private chemical composition and infer
sector participation. The government mineralogical composition to further
has created the Indian National Space
our understanding of the lunar surface.
Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-
SPACe), as a single-window,  Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer
independent, nodal agency, which (APXS): To determine the elemental
functions as an autonomous agency in composition (Mg, Al, Si, K, Ca, Ti, Fe) of
the Department of Space (DOS). the lunar soil and rocks around the
Established as a single window agency lunar landing site.
for all space sector activities of private Propulsion Payload:
entities, IN-SPACe plays an important  Spectro-polarimetry of HAbitable
role in boosting the private space sector Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future
economy in India. discoveries of smaller planets in
reflected light would allow us to probe

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into variety of exo-planets, which would exponentially in the first fraction of a


qualify for habitability (or for presence of second after its birth. SPHEREx will
life). measure the imprint of inflation on the
positions of galaxies and matter.
20. Answer: (b)
Explanation: 21. Answer: (b)
A new extraordinary NASA (The National Explanation:
Aeronautics and Space Administration) ● The Nancy Grace Roman Space
mission aims to map the sky in Telescope is a NASA (The National
unprecedented detail and colour. Aeronautics and Space Administration)
● SPHEREx is a new space-based observatory designed to settle essential
observatory that will map over 450 questions in the areas of dark energy,
million galaxies, in addition to 100 exo-planets and infrared astrophysics.
million stars in our own galaxy, Scheduled to be launched in the mid-
across 96 colour bands in the 2020s, the Nancy Grace Roman Space
infrared range of the electromagnetic Telescope will function as the Hubble’s
spectrum. wide-eyed cousin.
● Over its planned two-year lifetime, ● The telescope has a primary mirror
SPHEREx will map the entire sky, that is 2.4 metres in diameter (7.9
producing two maps a year. feet), and is the same size as the
● The observatory's three science Hubble Space Telescope's primary
missions of looking at three main mirror.
periods of the lifetime of the ● The Roman Space Telescope will have
universe are reflected in SPHEREx's two instruments, the Wide Field
full name - Spectro-Photometer for Instrument, and the Coronagraph
the History of the Universe, Epoch of Instrument technology demonstration.
Reionization, and Ices Explorer. ● As the primary instrument, the Wide
● In the nearby universe, it will search for Field Instrument will measure light
evidence of water and other molecules, from a billion galaxies over the course of
like carbon monoxide, in disks around the mission’s lifetime. While just as
forming stars within our galaxy. These sensitive as the Hubble's cameras, the
molecules, necessary for the origin of Roman Space Telescope's 300-
life as we know it, would exist as ices megapixel Wide Field Instrument will
within these systems. image a sky area 100 times larger. This
● Farther out in the very distant universe, means that a single Roman image will
SPHEREx will study when star and hold the equivalent detail of 100
galaxy formation first began and the pictures from the Hubble. The Wide
Epoch of Reionization – a time when the Field Instrument will have a field of view
first stars and galaxies emitted enough that is 100 times greater than the
energy to ionize every hydrogen atom in Hubble infrared instrument, capturing
the universe. It will look at the collective more of the sky with less observing
light of these first galaxies in an attempt time. It will perform a microlensing
to understand how galaxy formation survey of the Inner Milky Way to find
began and how it changed over time. ~2,600 exo-planets.
● And in the infant universe, SPHEREx ● The Coronagraph Instrument
will attempt to understand inflation, or technology demonstration will perform
how the universe expanded high contrast imaging and spectroscopy
of individual nearby exo-planets.

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● The Roman Space Telescope will have a However, individual LEO satellites are less
primary mission lifetime of 5 years, with useful for tasks such as
a potential 5 year extended mission. telecommunication, because they move so
fast across the sky and therefore, require a
22. Answer: (a) lot of effort to track from the ground
stations.
Explanation:
● Instead, the communications satellites
A Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is, as the name
in the LEO often work as part of a large
suggests, an orbit that is relatively close to
combination or constellation of multiple
the Earth’s surface. It is normally at an
satellites to give constant coverage.
altitude of less than 1,000 km, but could
● In order to increase coverage,
be as low as 160 km above the Earth –
sometimes constellations like this,
which is low compared to other orbits, but
consisting of several of the same or
still very far above the Earth’s surface.
similar satellites, are launched together
● By comparison, most commercial
to create a ‘net’ around the Earth.
aeroplanes do not fly at altitudes
● This lets them cover large areas of the
much greater than approximately 14
Earth simultaneously by working
km, so even the lowest LEO is more
together.
than ten times higher than that.
● Unlike the satellites in the
23. Answer: (d)
Geosynchronous Equatorial Orbit
Explanation:
(GEO), that must always orbit along
the Earth’s Equator, the LEO Juno is a NASA (The National Aeronautics
satellites do not always have to and Space Administration) space probe
follow a particular path around the orbiting the planet Jupiter. It was built by
Earth in the same way – their plane Lockheed Martin Corporation and is
operated by NASA's Jet Propulsion
can be tilted. This means there are
Laboratory.
more available routes for the satellites
in the LEO, which is one of the reasons ● Juno's mission is to measure Jupiter's
why the LEO is a very commonly used composition, gravitational field,
orbit. magnetic field and polar
magnetosphere.
LEO’s close proximity to the Earth makes it
● It will also search for clues about how
useful for several reasons.
the planet formed, including whether it
● It is the orbit most commonly used for
has a rocky core, the amount of water
satellite imaging, as being near the
present within the deep atmosphere,
surface allows it to take images of
mass distribution and its deep winds,
higher resolution.
which can reach speeds up to 620
● It is also the orbit used for the km/h (390 mph)
International Space Station (ISS), as it Juno is the second spacecraft to orbit
is easier for the astronauts to travel to Jupiter, after the nuclear powered Galileo
and from it at a shorter distance. The orbiter, which orbited from 1995 to 2003.
satellites in this orbit travel at a speed
● Unlike all earlier spacecrafts sent to
of around 7.8 km per second; at this
the outer planets, Juno is powered by
speed, a satellite takes approximately solar panels, commonly used by the
90 minutes to circle the Earth, meaning satellites orbiting the Earth and
the ISS travels around the Earth about working in the Inner Solar System,
16 times a day. whereas radioisotope thermoelectric

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generators are commonly used for mission to determine whether Europa


missions to the Outer Solar System can support life.
and beyond. ● Arriving in 2030, it is the first dedicated
● For Juno, however, the three largest mission to explore a world besides the
solar panel wings ever deployed on a Earth with a global ocean, known as an
planetary probe (at the time of ocean world.
launching) play an integral role in ● By determining whether Europa has the
stabilizing the spacecraft, as well as right conditions for life, Europa Clipper
generating power. will help us understand the prospects
During the science mission, infrared and for life on other ocean worlds in our
microwave instruments will measure the solar system and beyond.
thermal radiation emanating from deep How does the Europa Clipper work?
within Jupiter's atmosphere. ● The Europa Clipper will orbit Jupiter,
● These observations will complement instead of Europa directly, spending the
previous studies of its composition by bulk of its time outside of the planet's
assessing the abundance and intense radiation field. The spacecraft
distribution of water and therefore, will periodically dive through Jupiter's
oxygen. This data will provide insight radiation, fly by Europa for data
into Jupiter's origins. collection, and then flee the scene. This
● Juno will also investigate the convection strategy will allow the Europa Clipper to
that drives natural circulation patterns study the moon for years, rather than
in Jupiter's atmosphere. days or months.
● Other instruments aboard Juno will ○ The Europa Clipper will orbit
gather data about its gravitational field Jupiter, instead of Europa, because
and polar magnetosphere. of the danger of radiation. Jupiter
● The Juno mission was planned to has dozens of moons; the four
conclude in 2018, after completing 37 largest are known as the Galilean
orbits of Jupiter, but now has been moons.
commissioned through 2025 to do a ○ In order of their distance from
further 42 additional orbits of Jupiter, Jupiter, they are the volcanic Io
as well as close flybys of Ganymede, (which is so close that it is stretched
Europa and Io. and squeezed by Jupiter's massive
After completing its mission, Juno will gravitational grip), Europa,
be intentionally de-orbited into Jupiter's Ganymede and Callisto.
atmosphere. ○ As the second largest moon out from
The probe is intended to be de-orbited Jupiter, Europa is quite deep inside
and burnt up in Jupiter's outer Jupiter's magnetosphere, the
atmosphere to avoid any possibility of immense magnetic envelope
impact and biological contamination of generated by Jupiter's powerful
one of its moons. magnetic field. Charged particles zip
around the magnetosphere in the
form of plasma, with enough energy
24. Answer: (b)
to fry a spacecraft's electronics, if it
Explanation:
were to linger deep within the
NASA (The National Aeronautics and magnetosphere.
Space Administration)'s Europa Clipper
○ So the Europa Clipper, like NASA's
Spacecraft will be launched in 2024 on a
Juno mission before it, will adopt an
SpaceX Falcon Heavy rocket on a
elliptical orbit that takes it far out

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from Jupiter and the radiation for earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and
most of the orbit, before sailing in landslides.
for a close approach of Europa and ● It carries L and S dual band Synthetic
then back out, over and over again. Aperture Radar (SAR), which operates
○ This will allow the spacecraft to pass with Sweep SAR technique to achieve
over a different part of the moon large swaths with high resolution data.
each time to survey the entire The SAR payloads mounted on the
surface. Integrated Radar Instrument Structure
Instruments: (IRIS) and the spacecraft bus are
● Including its solar panels, the Europa together called an observatory.
Clipper spans 22 metres (72 feet), This flagship partnership would have major
longer than a basketball court. The contributions from both agencies.
spacecraft is packed with a wide range ● NASA is responsible for providing the
of science instruments to scan Europa L-Band SAR payload system, in which
from above and directly sample the the ISRO supplied the S-Band SAR
moon's tenuous atmosphere. payload, and both these SAR systems
● A radar instrument will map Europa's will make use of a large size (about
ice, while a magnetometer determines 12 m diameter) common unfurlable
the depth and salinity of the ocean. reflector antenna.
● Colour and infrared cameras will map ● In addition, NASA would provide
the surface in colour and search for hot engineering payloads for the mission,
spots where the ocean may be seeping including a Payload Data Subsystem,
up through the ice shell. High-rate Science Downlink System,
● Spectrometers will determine the GPS receivers and a Solid State
composition of the surface and scan any Recorder.
plumes spouting water into the space.
● The spacecraft also has tools to directly 26. Answer: (d)
sample Europa's atmosphere, including Explanation:
possible ocean water and surface The Surface Water and Ocean
particles shot into the space by Topography (SWOT) mission:
Jupiter's radiation. ● SWOT was built for NASA (The
National Aeronautics and Space
25. Answer: (b) Administration) and the French
Explanation: Space Agency (CNES), and also has
● NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) is a Low contributions from the Canadian
Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory being Space Agency (CSA) and the UK
jointly developed by NASA (The Space Agency.
National Aeronautics and Space ● With a prime mission of three years, the
Administration) and ISRO (The Indian SWOT satellite will measure the height
Space Research Organization). of water in freshwater bodies and the
● NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 ocean on more than 90% of the Earth’s
days, and provide spatially and surface. This data will provide new
temporally consistent data for insights into how the ocean influences
understanding changes in the Earth’s climate change; how a warming world
ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation affects lakes, rivers and reservoirs; and
biomass, sea level rise, ground water how the communities can better
and natural hazards, including prepare for disasters, such as floods.

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● SWOT will cover the entire Earth’s where it is going – the researchers can
surface between 78 degrees south and improve flood projections for the rivers
78 degrees north latitude at least once and monitor drought effects on lakes
every 21 days, sending back about one and reservoirs.
terabyte of unprocessed data per day.
● The scientific heart of the spacecraft is 27. Answer: (c)
an innovative instrument, called the Ka- Explanation:
band radar interferometer (KaRIn),
The European Space Agency (ESA)'s
which marks a major technological
Euclid mission is designed to explore the
advance.
composition and evolution of the dark
○ KaRIn bounces radar pulses off universe. The space telescope will create a
the water’s surface and receives great map of the large-scale structure of
the return signal using two the universe across the space and time by
antennas on either side of the observing billions of galaxies out to 10
spacecraft. billion light-years, across more than a third
○ This arrangement – one signal, two of the sky. Euclid will explore how the
antennas – will enable the engineers universe has expanded and how structure
to precisely determine the height of has formed over the cosmic history,
the water’s surface across two revealing more about the role of gravity and
swaths at a time, each of them 30 the nature of dark energy and dark matter.
miles (50 kilometres) wide.
● A significantly clearer picture of the 28. Answer: (d)
Earth’s freshwater bodies is among the
Explanation:
many benefits the SWOT mission will
● Better known as the Crab Nebula. The
deliver. It will provide data on more
Crab Nebula (catalogue designations
than 95% of the world’s lakes larger
M1, NGC 1952, Taurus A) is a
than 15 acres (62,500 square metres)
supernova remnant and pulsar wind
and rivers wider than 330 feet (100
nebula in the constellation of Taurus.
metres) across. Currently, freshwater
The nebula was the first astronomical
researchers have reliable measurements
object identified that corresponds with a
for only a few thousand lakes around
historically-observed supernova
the world. SWOT will push that number
explosion.
into millions.
● With an apparent magnitude of 8.4 and
● Along the coast, SWOT will provide
located 6,500 light-years from the Earth
information on the sea level, filling in
in the constellation Taurus, the Crab
observational gaps in the areas that do
Nebula can be spotted with a small
not have tide gauges or other
telescope and is best observed in
instruments that measure sea surface
January.
height. Over time, that data can help
the researchers better track sea level ● The nebula was discovered by the
rise, which will directly impact the English astronomer John Bevis in 1731,
communities and coastal ecosystems. and later observed by Charles Messier
who mistook it for Halley’s Comet.
● SWOT measurements will also help the
Messier’s observation of the nebula
researchers, policymakers and resource
inspired him to create a catalogue of
managers better assess and plan for
celestial objects that might be mistaken
things, including floods and droughts.
for comets.
By providing information on where the
water is – where it is coming from and

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29. Answer: (d) massive objects moving with extreme


Explanation: accelerations.
 A Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) is that  In the outer space that means the
which is designed to return from the objects like rapidly rotating lumpy
Earth’s orbit or the outer space to the neutron stars, or neutron stars or black
Earth substantially intact, so that it can holes orbiting around each other ever
be reused multiple times. closer at ever increasing rates and
 It is a multiple stage launch vehicle, eventually colliding, or the stars that
i.e., three stage or four stage. blow themselves up (a supernovae).
 Currently, only the United States has  These ripples travel through the space
successfully developed the Reusable at the speed of light in all directions
Launch Vehicle technology. from their source, dissipating in
Note: Inching closer to a fully Reusable strength with distance, and passing
Launch Vehicle, the Indian Space Research through everything in their paths.
Organization (ISRO) successfully carried  Albert Einstein predicted the existence
out the landing experiment of the Reusable of gravitational waves in 1916 in his
Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration
General Theory of Relativity.
(RLV-TD) programme in April 2023.
(experimenting stage).
33. Answer: (b)

30. Answer: (b) Explanation:


Explanation: NASA (The National Aeronautics and
Space Administration)’s Parker Solar
 A black hole is a region of space
Probe:
packed with so much matter that its
own gravity prevents anything from  On a mission to “touch the Sun,”
escaping — even a ray of light or NASA's Parker Solar Probe became the
electromagnetic waves. first spacecraft to fly through the corona
 Only stars with very large masses can – the Sun’s upper atmosphere – in
become black holes. Our Sun, for 2021.
example, is not massive enough to  It was the first time NASA had named a
become a black hole. mission for a living individual.
 The primary science goals for the
31. Answer: (c) mission are to trace the flow of energy
Explanation: and understand the heating of the solar
A wormhole is like a tunnel between two corona, and to explore what accelerates
distant points in our universe that cuts the solar wind.
the travel time from one point to the  Parker Solar Probe has three detailed
other. Instead of traveling for many science objectives:
millions of years from one galaxy to
(i) To trace the flow of energy that
another, under the right conditions one
heats and accelerates the solar
could theoretically use a wormhole to cut
corona and solar wind.
the travel time down to hours or minutes.
(ii) To determine the structure and
dynamics of the plasma and
32. Answer: (c)
magnetic fields at the sources of
Explanation: the solar wind.
 Gravitational waves are the ripples or (iii) To explore the mechanisms that
vibrations in the space-time (the fabled accelerate and transport energetic
“fabric” of the universe) caused by particles.

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 Launch Vehicle: Delta IV-Heavy with  Modular – making it possible for the
Upper Stage systems and the components to be
 Parker Solar Probe will use seven factory-assembled and transported as a
Venus flybys over nearly seven years unit to a location for installation.
to gradually shrink its orbit around  Reactors – harnessing nuclear fission
the Sun, coming as close as 3.83 to generate heat to produce energy.
million miles (6.16 million kilometres) to  Being mobile and agile technology, the
the Sun, well within the orbit of SMRs can be factory-built, unlike the
Mercury and about seven times closer conventional nuclear reactors that are
than any spacecraft has come before. built on–site.

34. Answer: (b) 36. Answer: (a)


Explanation: Explanation:

 Aditya L1 shall be the first space-based  Breeder Reactors are a type of nuclear
reactors which produce more fissile
Indian mission to study the Sun.
materials than they consume.
 The spacecraft shall be placed in a
 Unlike the normal reactors which
halo orbit around the Lagrange Point
only use uranium-235 as their fuel,
1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which
which is only available in scarce
is about 1.5 million km from the
concentrations of around 0.7% of
Earth. natural uranium without enrichment,
 A satellite placed in the halo orbit the Breeder Reactors also make use
around the L1 point has the major of the natural uranium-238, which is
advantage of continuously viewing the much more common.
Sun without any occultation/eclipses.  They can also use thorium-232 to
This will provide a greater advantage of breed uranium-233, another
observing the solar activities and its fissionable product.
effect on the space weather in real time.  There are two categories of Breeder
 The spacecraft carries seven payloads to Reactors, based on the speed of the
observe the photosphere, chromosphere neutrons.
and the outermost layers of the Sun  Fast Breeder Reactors which use
(the corona) using electromagnetic and uranium-238 as fuel and Thermal
particle and magnetic field detectors. Breeder Reactors which use thorium-
232 as fuel.
35. Answer: (a)  The Fast Breeders do not require
Explanation: moderation since the neutrons need
to be moving fast, whereas the
 The Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are
Thermal Breeders make use of
the advanced nuclear reactors that have
moderation to achieve slower-moving
a power capacity of upto 300 MWe neutrons.
(Megawatt electric) per unit, which is
about one-third of the generating
37. Answer: (a)
capacity of the traditional nuclear
power reactors. Explanation:

 The SMRs, which can produce a large S.N. Power Location


amount of low-carbon electricity, are: Plant/Stations
 Small – physically a fraction of the size 1. Kakrapar Atomic Gujarat
of a conventional nuclear power reactor. Power Station

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2. Narora Atomic Power Uttar on the Advanced Heavy Water


Station Pradesh Reactor (AHWR).

3. Tarapur Atomic Maharashtra o This reactor is designed to be a


Power Station thorium fuel-based, vertical
pressure tube type, heavy water
4. Kaiga Nuclear Power Karnataka
moderated and boiling light water
Plant cooled.
o It is intended as a technology
38. Answer: (c) demonstrator for thorium utilization
Explanation: and incorporates several advanced
 India's Thorium Reserves: safety features.
o India indeed has significant reserves o The AHWR is central to the third
of thorium. The Atomic Minerals stage of India's Nuclear Power
Directorate for Exploration and Programme, providing valuable
Research (AMD), a unit of the experience in using thorium fuel on
Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), a large and industrial scale.
has established 11.93 million tonnes
of in-situ resources of monazite, a
39. Answer: (c)
thorium-bearing mineral, in the
Explanation:
country, which contains about 1.07
million tonnes of thorium.  The Jaduguda mine in Jharkhand:
o India has one of the world's largest o The Jaduguda mine is indeed the
reserves of thorium, primarily found first uranium mine in India, having
in monazite sands along the coastal commenced its operations in 1967.
regions of South India. o The mine is located in Jaduguda
 Characteristics of Thorium: village in the Purbi Singhbhum
o Thorium has distinct characteristics district of Jharkhand.
that differ from uranium. It is a  Reliance on imported uranium:
fertile material, not a fissile one, o India does rely significantly on
meaning that it cannot be used imported uranium for its nuclear
directly as nuclear fuel in a reactor.
reactors, especially for the reactors
o For effective utilization, thorium under international safeguards.
needs to be used alongside either
o Fourteen reactors, with a total
uranium or plutonium, usually
installed capacity of 4,380 MWe
following the second stage of the
(Megawatt electric), currently
Fast Breeder Reactors to build a
operate on imported fuel. However,
sufficient inventory of plutonium.
domestically mined uranium fuels
o This process makes thorium a
the remaining reactors that are not
sustainable energy resource for the
under international safeguards.
long term, offering better fuel
performance characteristics in a o This shows a substantial reliance on
reactor and a lower inventory of imported uranium, although efforts
long-lived nuclear waste, compared are ongoing to reduce this
to uranium. dependence and increase domestic
 Advanced Heavy Water Reactor uranium production.
(AHWR) and Thorium Utilization:  The Tummalapalle mine in Andhra
o The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre Pradesh:
(BARC), under the Department of o The Tummalapalle mine, located in
Atomic Energy, is actively working Andhra Pradesh, is noted for having

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one of the largest uranium reserves preventing viral entry and


in the world. conferring resistance.
o As of 2011, the Atomic Energy  Development of auto-immune
Commission of India concluded that disorders:
this mine might possess some of the o The CCR5-Δ32 mutation does not
world's largest uranium reserves, cause auto-immune disease. CCR5
with initial estimates of 49,000 plays a role in inflammatory
tonnes, potentially three times responses, but the loss does not
larger, which could make it the mine lead to autoimmunity.
with the world's largest uranium
 Impaired inflammatory response:
deposits.
o While CCR5 is involved in
stimulating inflammation, the loss of
40. Answer: (c) CCR5 in those with the Δ32
Explanation: mutation does not significantly
 Crossing over between homologous impair inflammatory responses to
chromosomes occurs during meiosis, pathogens.
but not mitosis.
o Crossing over involves exchange of 42. Answer: (a)
genetic material between Explanation:
homologous chromosomes and The Medical Termination of Pregnancy
occurs during prophase I of meiosis. (Amendment) Act, 2021, is for expanding
This does not happen in mitosis. access of women to safe and legal abortion
 Mitosis produces two genetically services on therapeutic, eugenic,
identical diploid daughter cells. Meiosis humanitarian or social grounds.
produces four genetically distinct The amendments include substitution of
haploid cells. certain sub-sections, insertion of certain
 Meiosis involves two rounds of cell new clauses under some sections in the
division, whereas mitosis has only one. existing Medical Termination of Pregnancy
o Meiosis has two divisions - meiosis I Act, 1971, with a view to increasing the
separates homologous chromosomes upper gestation limit for the termination of
and meiosis II separates sister pregnancy under certain conditions and to
chromatids. Mitosis only undergoes strengthen access to comprehensive
one round of cell division. abortion care, under strict conditions,
without compromising service and quality
41. Answer: (b) of safe abortion.

Explanation: Salient features of the amendments:


● Opinion of only one provider will be
 Increased susceptibility to HIV-1
infection: required upto 20 weeks of gestation and
of two providers for the termination of
o The CCR5-Δ32 mutation confers
pregnancy of 20 weeks - 24 weeks of
HIV-1 resistance, not increased
gestation.
susceptibility. Individuals with
normal CCR5 are more susceptible. ● Enhancing the upper gestation limit
from 20 weeks to 24 weeks for
 Resistance to HIV-1 infection:
special categories of women, which
o The CCR5-Δ32 mutation results in will be defined in the amendments to
a truncated, non-functional CCR5 the MTP (Medical Termination of
receptor that cannot bind HIV-1, Pregnancy) Rules and would include

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survivors of rape, victims of incest i.e., unable to conceive after one year of
and other vulnerable women (like unprotected coitus or suffer from any
differently-abled women, minors) etc. other proven medical condition which
● Upper gestation limit not to apply in prevents conception.
cases of substantial foetal abnormalities ● Eligibility criteria for the donors: A
diagnosed by the Medical Board. The bank may obtain semen from males
composition, functions and other details between 21 years and 55 years of age,
of the Medical Board to be prescribed and eggs from females between 23 years
subsequently in the Rules under the and 35 years of age. The woman may
Act. donate eggs only once in her life.
● Name and other particulars of a woman, ● Conditions for offering services: ART
whose pregnancy has been terminated, procedures must be conducted only
shall not be revealed, except to a person with the written consent of the
authorized in any law for the time being commissioning parties and the donor.
in force. ● Rights of a child born through ART: A
● The ground of failure of child born through ART will be deemed
contraceptives has been extended to to be a biological child of the
an unmarried woman and her commissioning couple and will be
partner. entitled to the rights and privileges
available to a natural child of the
commissioning couple. A donor will not
43. Answer: (b)
have any parental rights over the child.
Explanation:
● Every ART clinic and bank must be
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) registered under the National Assisted
refer to a range of fertility treatments and Reproductive Technology and Surrogacy
techniques that seek to obtain a pregnancy Registry.
by handling the sperm or the oocyte ● Only infertile married couples or single
(immature egg cell) outside the human women (Indian or foreign) can seek ART
body and transferring the gamete or the services. Excludes same-sex couples,
embryo into the reproductive system of a live-in couples and individuals
woman. belonging to the LGBTQ+ community
These include in-vitro fertilization from accessing ARTs.
(fertilizing an egg in the lab), gamete
donation (sperm or egg) and gestational
44. Answer: (a)
surrogacy (where the child is not
Explanation:
biologically related to the surrogate
● The Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-
mother).
cell therapy is a type of cell-based gene
Important provisions of the Assisted
therapy which involves altering the
Reproductive Technology (Regulation)
genes inside the T-cells (a type of white
Act, 2021:
blood cell) to help them attack cancer
● Eligibility criteria for the cells.
commissioning parties: The ART
o In the therapy, the T-cells are
services may be commissioned by the harvested from the patient’s blood.
married couples or women where: (i)
o The researchers modify these cells
the woman is between 21 years and
in the laboratory, so that they
50 years of age, and (ii) the man is
express specific proteins on their
between 21 years and 55 years of age.
surface, known as the Chimeric
Married couples must also be infertile,
Antigen Receptors (CAR).

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o These cells are then grown and o Neurological symptoms, like severe
multiplied in the laboratory and confusion, seizures and speech
then inserted back into the patient. impairment
o This genetic modification allows CAR
T-cells to effectively bind to the 45. Answer: (d)
cancer cells and destroy them. Explanation:
About CRISPR (Clustered Regularly
Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) -
Cas9:
● CRISPR-Cas9 is a unique technology
that enables the geneticists and the
medical researchers to edit parts of the
genome by removing, adding or altering
sections of the DNA sequence.
● It is currently the simplest, most
versatile and precise method of genetic
manipulation and is, therefore, causing
a buzz in the science world.
How does it work?
● The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of
two key molecules that introduce a
change (mutation) into the DNA. These
● In CAR T-cell therapy, the immune are:
system is activated when the modified
○ An enzyme called Cas9. This acts
T-cells are reintroduced into the body,
as a pair of ‘molecular scissors’
which allows a sustained killing of
that can cut the two strands of
cancer cells.
DNA at a specific location in the
o As CAR T-cells directly activate the genome, so that bits of DNA can
patient’s immune system against then be added or removed.
cancer, it makes the treatment more
○ A piece of RNA called guide RNA
clinically effective than surgery,
(gRNA). This consists of a small
radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
piece of pre-designed RNA sequence
● Presently, CAR T-cell therapy has (about 20 bases long) located within
been approved for leukaemia (cancer a longer RNA scaffold. The scaffold
arising from the cells that produce part binds to DNA and the pre-
white blood cells) and lymphoma designed sequence ‘guides’ Cas9 to
(arising from the lymphatic system). the right part of the genome. This
For these cancers, the efficacy of the makes sure that the Cas9 enzyme
treatment is as high as 90%, cuts at the right point in the
whereas, in other types of cancers, it genome.
is significantly lower.
● The guide RNA is designed to find
● The treatment has potential side and bind to a specific sequence in the
effects: DNA. The guide RNA has RNA bases
o High fever that are complementary to those of the
o Trouble breathing target DNA sequence in the genome.
o Severe nausea, vomiting This means that, at least in theory, the
o Muscle and/or joint pain guide RNA will only bind to the target

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sequence and no other regions of the antibodies developed to target the


genome. SARS-CoV-2 spike protein.
● The Cas9 follows the guide RNA to the ● The monoclonal antibodies bind to
same location in the DNA sequence and specific parts of the spike protein,
makes a cut across both strands of the blocking its ability to infect the healthy
DNA. cells.
● At this stage, the cell recognises that ● Monoclonal antibodies are being used
the DNA is damaged and tries to repair on a clinical level for both the diagnosis
it. and therapy of several diseases. Besides
● The scientists can use the DNA repair Covid-19, monoclonal antibodies have
machinery to introduce changes to one been used in the treatment of cancers,
or more genes in the genome of a cell of as well as Ebola and HIV.
interest.
47. Answer: (a)
46. Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation: ● Therapeutic cloning involves creating a
About the Monoclonal Antibodies: cloned embryo for the sole purpose of
● To fight a viral infection, our bodies producing the embryonic stem cells
create proteins known as antibodies. with the same DNA as the donor cell.
● Monoclonal antibodies are the artificial ● These stem cells can be used in the
antibodies that mimic the activity of our experiments aimed at understanding
immune systems. They are produced disease and developing new treatments
through a process that involves for disease.
extracting specific antibodies from ● To date, there is no evidence that
human blood and then cloning them. human embryos have been produced for
● A monoclonal antibody (mAb, more therapeutic cloning.
rarely called moAb) is an antibody ● The richest source of the embryonic
produced from a cell lineage made by stem cells is the tissue formed during
cloning a unique white blood cell. All the first five days after the egg has
subsequent antibodies derived this way started to divide. At this stage of
trace back to a unique parent cell.
development, called the blastocyst, the
● Monoclonal antibodies can have embryo consists of a cluster of about
monovalent affinity, binding only to the 100 cells that can become any cell type.
same epitope (the part of an antigen The stem cells are harvested from the
that is recognized by the antibody). In cloned embryos at this stage of
contrast, polyclonal antibodies bind to development, resulting in destruction of
multiple epitopes and are usually made the embryo, while it is still in the test
by several different antibody-secreting tube.
plasma cell lineages. Bispecific
Benefits:
monoclonal antibodies can also be
engineered, by increasing the ● The researchers hope to use the
therapeutic targets of one monoclonal embryonic stem cells, which have the
antibody to two epitopes. unique ability to generate virtually all
types of cells in an organism, to grow
● These monoclonal antibodies are
healthy tissues in the laboratory that
designed to target a virus or a specific
can be used to replace injured or
part of one — for instance, REGEN-
diseased tissues.
COV2 is a cocktail of two monoclonal

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● In addition, it may be possible to learn the infection may be acquired during


more about the molecular causes of childhood, its visible manifestations,
disease by studying the embryonic stem such as limb oedema, may occur later
cell lines from the cloned embryos in life, causing temporary or
derived from the cells of animals or permanent disability. In endemic
humans with different diseases. countries, lymphatic filariasis has a
● Finally, differentiated tissues derived major social and economic impact.
from the embryonic stem cells are ● Lymphatic filariasis affects over 120
excellent tools to test new therapeutic million people in 72 countries
drugs. throughout the tropics and sub-tropics
Concerns: of Asia, Africa, the Western Pacific, and
● Many researchers think that it is parts of the Caribbean and South
worthwhile to explore the use of the America.
embryonic stem cells as a path for ● Whereas the disease was once thought
treating human diseases. to affect only adults, it now appears
● However, some experts are concerned that most infections are acquired in
about the striking similarities between childhood.
the stem cells and the cancer cells. ● Initial infection is followed by a long
● Both cell types have the ability to period of sub-clinical disease, which
proliferate indefinitely and some studies progresses in the later life to clinically
show that after 60 cycles of cell division, manifest disease. Lymphatic filariasis
the stem cells can accumulate can cause a variety of clinical
mutations that could lead to cancer. manifestations that can be grouped into
three categories: acute attacks,
● Therefore, the relationship between the
lymphoedema/elephantiasis and
stem cells and the cancer cells needs to
hydrocoele.
be more clearly understood if the stem
cells are to be used to treat human ● The vast majority of infected people are
disease. asymptomatic, but virtually all of them
suffer from damages to the lymphatic
system and the kidneys, and from an
48. Answer: (b)
altered body's immune system.
Explanation:
● People infected with filariasis, who have
● Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known micro-filaraemia or a positive antigen
as elephantiasis, is a painful and test, should receive anti-filarial drug
profoundly disfiguring disease. It is treatment to eliminate micro-filariae.
caused by infection with parasites Unfortunately, the medicines available
classified as nematodes (roundworms) have limited effect on adult worms.
of the family Filariodidea, that are Treatment also involves the morbidity
transmitted through the bites of management and disability prevention
infected mosquitos. Mosquito- (MMDP), that includes simple hygiene
transmitted larvae are deposited on the measures, such as basic skin care and
skin from where they can enter the exercise, to prevent acute attacks and
body. The larvae then migrate to the progression of lymphoedema to
lymphatic vessels, where they develop elephantiasis.
into adult worms, thus continuing the
● Preventive chemotherapy is used at the
cycle of transmission.
community level to eliminate micro-
● In the communities where filariasis is filariae from the blood of the infected
transmitted, all ages are affected. While individuals in order to interrupt

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transmission of infection by ○ take a sample from the inside of


mosquitoes. your nose or a sinus for laboratory
testing;
49. Answer: (d) ○ to see the fungus under a
Explanation: microscope or grow it using ‘fungal
culture’.
Mucormycosis:
○ Also conduct scans or camera-based
● Mucormycosis is a serious, but rare
(endoscopy) tests of the sinuses, the
fungal infection, caused by the
head or the lungs might also be
‘Mucormycetes’ group of fungi.
helpful if advised by your health
● It has been incorrectly called the
care provider.
‘Black Fungus’ recently, but the fungi
What is the treatment?
causing mucormycosis are of a
variety of colours. ● Mucormycosis needs to be treated with
anti-fungal medicines.
Who is at risk?
● These can only be used with the
● In most people, the fungi do not cause
prescription of a health care provider.
harm. There is a greater risk of infection
in the people: ● In some cases, surgery may also be
needed around the eyes and nose.
○ with diabetes;
● Do not self-medicate – these drugs can
○ who have had treatment with higher
have harmful effects if they are not used
doses or longer courses of steroids;
properly.
○ with cancer;
How can we protect ourselves?
○ with HIV/AIDS;
● Most healthy people are at very low risk
○ who have weak immune systems for
of this disease.
other reasons.
● There is no vaccine for
● Recently, many people with COVID-19
mucormycosis.
have been diagnosed with
● Those at higher risk could reduce their
mucormycosis. It is not currently
risk by protecting themselves from the
known whether this is due to COVID-19
fungi in the environment:
or some other reason.
○ Avoid areas with a lot of dust, like
How does the infection spread?
construction sites.
● The fungi are found throughout the
○ Avoid damp buildings, such as those
environment, and most people breathe
damaged by water, for example, due
them in without any effect.
to floods and cyclones.
● The people with a weak immune system
○ Avoid close contact with soil.
can develop infection in the sinuses and
lungs when the fungi enter their ○ Wear clothes that cover your arms
airways. and legs while working outdoors,
and wear shoes while for outdoor
● In rare cases, skin infection occurs,
work.
usually only affecting a skin injury.
○ If there is a cut on your skin, clean
● They do not spread from person to
the injury area with soap and water.
person.
● In some rare cases, it has been known
to affect the gastro-intestinal area. 50. Answer: (c)
How is Mucormycosis detected? Explanation:
● The usual way to confirm is for a health About a ‘three-parent baby’:
care provider to ● The baby has three parents, technically,

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deriving the mitochondria from a donor, disease, and a third, female donor with
apart from genetic material (DNA) from clear mitochondria, separately.
the biological parents. ● Then, the nuclear genetic material from
● The baby carries most of its DNA from the donor’s egg is removed and replaced
its parents, and a minor per cent from with the genetic material from the
the donor, whose mitochondria has biological parents.
been used while fertilizing the egg. ● The final product – the egg - which has
What is a Mitochondria? the genetic material (DNA) from the
● Mitochondria are basically the parents, and the mitochondria from the
powerhouses of the cells, they generate female donor, is implanted in the
the energy, and thus are also uterus, and carried to full term to yield
responsible for cell function in the a baby, who will be free from the
human body. mother’s mitochondrial disease.
● Certain defects might occur impacting ● This process is termed Mitochondrial
on the way the mitochondria produce Donation Treatment (MDT).
energy for the cells (Specially in the
‘energy-hungry’ tissues of the brain, 51. Answer: (a)
nerves, muscles, kidneys, heart, liver), Explanation:
and thereby impacting cell function.
Mitochondria are the organelle present in
● The diseases that arise out of such the cytoplasm of the cells, which are
mitochondrial mutations are called primarily responsible for energy production
mitochondrial diseases. for all cellular activities. Mitochondria
● When the mitochondria are impaired produce energy by ATP (adenosine
and do not produce sufficient energy, triphosphate). The ATP production depends
that affects how the organs function, on a series of well-regulated chemical
leading to a broad assortment of reactions under specific interaction of
symptoms across the body, including different enzymes. There are variable
brain damage, organ failure and muscle number of mitochondria in different cell
wastage. types. Cells in organs like brain, heart,
● The symptoms get more and more kidneys, muscles and liver, which are
debilitating as the child grows, and have metabolically very active, need continuous
no cure, but can be treated. Some high energy supply. These cells have a large
estimates put the incidence of number of mitochondria.
mitochondrial diseases as one in 5,000 In a defect with mitochondrial gene, if all
persons. mitochondria are affected, then it will not
What is the scientific process for a be possible for the person to survive. So, in
three-parent baby? human disease, due to mitochondrial gene
● Mitochondrial diseases are only passed defect, the symptoms and disease severity
on by the mother, and research has depends on the ratio of normal and
been attempting to find a way out of abnormal mitochondria in the cells.
protecting the infant from inheriting the Mitochondria are the organelle which
disease. contain DNA in circular form, and in the
● Here, through an advanced ‘in-vitro animals, it is the only organelle in addition
fertilization’ technique, the baby’s to nucleus which contain DNA and gene.
biological father’s sperm was used to The sperm contains very low number of
fertilize the eggs from the biological mitochondria and mitochondrial gene.
mother, who has a mitochondrial So in the offspring the mitochondrial
genes are inherited from the mother.

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Thus, a father with mitochondrial gene Once nitrogen is converted into these
defect cannot transmit the disease to usable compounds, it can be utilized by the
his offspring. plants from the soil through their root
system. Nitrogen is then used for the
52. Answer: (b) synthesis of plant proteins and other
compounds.
Explanation:
When plants and animals die, bacteria and
Saprotroph organism feeds on non-living
fungi present in the soil convert the
organic matter, known as detritus at a
nitrogenous wastes into nitrogenous
microscopic level. Saprotrophic organisms
compounds to be used by the plants again.
are considered critical to decomposition
Certain other bacteria convert some part of
and nutrient cycling, and include fungi,
them to nitrogen gas which goes back into
certain bacteria and fungus like
the atmosphere. As a result, the percentage
organisms known as water molds
of nitrogen in the atmosphere remains
(phylum oomycota).
more or less constant.
Saprotrophs feed by a process, known as
Denitrification is the process that
absorptive nutrition, in which the
converts nitrate to nitrogen gas, thus
nutritional substrate (e.g., dead organism
removing bioavailable nitrogen and
or other non-living organic matter) is
returning it to the atmosphere.
directly digested by a variety of enzymes
that are excreted by the saprotroph. The
enzymes convert the detritus into simpler
molecules, which are then absorbed by the
cells to feed the organism.

53. Answer: (a)


Explanation:
Nitrogen gas (N2) makes up nearly 80%
of the Earth's atmosphere, yet nitrogen
is often the nutrient that limits primary
production in many ecosystems.
Because plants and animals are not able
to use nitrogen gas in that form. For
nitrogen to be available to make
proteins, DNA and other biologically
important compounds, it must first be
converted into a different chemical
form. The process of converting N2 into
biologically available nitrogen is called
nitrogen fixation. 54. Answer: (b)
Certain bacteria and blue-green algae Explanation:
present in the soil fix nitrogen from the The slag is generated from a steel furnace
atmosphere and convert it into the burning at around 1,500-1,600 degree
compounds of nitrogen, like nitrites and centigrade in the form of molten flux
nitrates. Nitrification is the process that material as an impurity.
converts ammonia to nitrite and then to
There are several different types of steel
nitrate, and is another important step in
slag produced during the steel-making
the global nitrogen cycle.
process. These different types are referred

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to as furnace or tap slag, raker slag, complex substances into simpler


synthetic or ladle slags, and pit or cleanout substances.
slag. The steel slag produced during the Lysosomes are able to do this because they
primary stage of steel production is contain powerful digestive enzymes,
referred to as furnace slag or tap slag. capable of breaking down all organic
This is the major source of steel slag material. During the disturbance in cellular
aggregate. After being tapped from the metabolism, for example, when the cell gets
furnace, the molten steel is transferred in a damaged, lysosomes may burst and the
ladle for further refining to remove enzymes digest their own cell. Therefore,
additional impurities still contained within lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide
the steel. This operation is called ladle bags’ of a cell.
refining, because it is completed within the
transfer ladle. During ladle refining,
56. Answer: (d)
additional steel slags are generated by
Explanation:
again adding fluxes to the ladle to melt.
These slags are combined with any Plastids are present only in the plant
carryover of furnace slag and assist in cells. There are two types of plastids –
absorbing deoxidation products chromoplasts (coloured plastids) and
(inclusions), heat insulation and protection leucoplasts (white or colourless plastids).
of ladle refractories. The steel slags Chromoplasts containing the pigment
produced at this stage of steel making are chlorophyll are known as chloroplasts.
generally referred to as raker and ladle Chloroplasts are important for
slags. photosynthesis in the plants. Chloroplasts
Pit slag and clean out slag are other types also contain various yellow or orange
of slag commonly found in steel-making pigments in addition to chlorophyll.
operations. They usually consist of the steel Leucoplasts are primarily organelles in
slag that falls on the floor of the plant at which materials, such as starch, oils and
various stages of operation, or slag that is protein granules are stored. The internal
removed from the ladle after tapping. organization of the chloroplast consists of
numerous membrane layers embedded in a
Steel slag can be used in the agricultural
material called the stroma. These are
sector due to its ability to correct soil
similar to mitochondria in external
acidity and it has silicate fertilizer.
structure. Like the mitochondria,
plastids also have their own DNA and
55. Answer: (b) ribosomes.
Explanation:
A lysosome is a membrane-bound cell 57. Answer: (a)
organelle that contains digestive
Explanation:
enzymes. Lysosomes are involved with
A large number of fungi infect the roots of
various cell processes. They break down
the plants by forming an association with
excess or worn-out cell parts. They may be
the plants called mycorrhiza (plural
used to destroy invading viruses and
mycorrhizas or mycorrhizae). This
bacteria. If the cell is damaged beyond
association differs markedly from ordinary
repair, lysosomes can help it to self-
root infection, which is responsible for root
destruct in a process called programmed
rot diseases.
cell death, or apoptosis.
Mycorrhiza is a non-disease-producing
Foreign materials entering the cell, such as
association in which the fungus invades
bacteria or food, as well as old organelles
the root to absorb nutrients. Mycorrhizal
end up in the lysosomes, which break

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fungi establish a mild form of parasitism 59. Answer: (c)


that is mutualistic, meaning both the plant Explanation:
and the fungus benefit from the As the light emitted by the distant galaxies
association. About 90% of land plants rely passes by massive objects in the universe,
on mycorrhizal fungi, especially for mineral the gravitational pull from these objects
nutrients (i.e., phosphorus), and in return, distorts or bends the light. This is called
the fungus receives nutrients formed by the gravitational lensing.
plant.
A gravitational lens not only distorts, but
Lichens are symbiotic associations also magnifies the light from the distant
between fungi (mycobionts, commonly galaxies that are behind it, but in the same
ascomycetes) and photosynthetic line of sight. The effect is like looking
partners (photobionts) which can be through a giant magnifying glass. It allows
green algae (commonly trebouxia spp.) or the researchers to study the details of early
diazotrophic cyanobacteria (commonly galaxies and black holes too far away to be
nostoc spp.). These mycobiont-photobiont seen with the current technology and
symbioses are regarded as mutualistic. telescopes.
Commensalism: In this relationship, one Smaller objects, like individual stars, can
of the species benefits, while the other is also act as gravitational lenses when they
neither harmed nor benefited. An orchid pass in front of more distant stars. For a
growing as an epiphyte on a mango few days or weeks, light from the more
branch, and barnacles growing on the distant star temporarily appears brighter,
back of a whale benefit, while neither because it is magnified by the gravity of the
the mango tree nor the whale derives closer object. This effect is known as
any apparent benefit. gravitational microlensing.

58. Answer: (b) 60. Answer: (a)


Explanation: Explanation:
While a cell wall is present in the plant Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs
cells, it is absent in the animal cells. The either when the pancreas does not
cytoplasm and nucleus are enclosed within produce enough insulin or when the
the cell membrane, also called the plasma body cannot effectively use the insulin it
membrane. The membrane separates the produces. Insulin is a hormone that
cells from one another and also the cell regulates blood glucose.
from the surrounding medium. The plasma
Type 1 diabetes is less common than
membrane is porous and allows the
Type 2, about 5-10% of people with
movement of substances or materials both
diabetes have Type 1. A simple blood test
inward and outward. It is present in both
will let a person know if he/she has Type 1
the plant cells and the animal cells.
or Type 2 diabetes. A fasting blood sugar
Ribosomes are required for protein level from 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9
synthesis in all live cells. The plant cells mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. If it is
have ribosomes because they are 126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) or higher on two
eukaryotic. They are composed of separate tests, the person has diabetes.
ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and protein, and are
mostly found in the cytoplasm of the
61. Answer: (c)
eukaryotic cells, while some functional
ribosomes can also be found in the Explanation:
nucleus. Zika virus is transmitted primarily by
Aedes mosquitoes, which bite mostly

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during the day. This is the same mosquito 63. Answer: (a)
that transmits dengue, chikungunya and Explanation:
yellow fever. Transcription and Translation:
Most people with Zika virus infection do not ● In the prokaryotic cells (such as
develop symptoms; those who do typically bacteria), which lack a nucleus,
have symptoms including rash, fever, transcription and translation occur in
conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, the same cellular compartment, the
malaise and headache that last for 2–7 cytoplasm. In eukaryotic organisms,
days. transcription occurs in the nucleus,
Zika virus infection during pregnancy can while translation occurs in the
cause infants to be born with microcephaly cytoplasm.
and other congenital malformations, as well ● Transcription is the process of copying
as preterm birth and miscarriage. DNA into RNA. It is the first step in gene
Zika virus infection is associated with the expression, which is the process by
Guillain-Barré syndrome, neuropathy and which genes are used to make proteins.
myelitis in adults and children. Zika lacks Transcription occurs in the nucleus of
a specific vaccine or treatment. the eukaryotic cells. During
transcription, the DNA is copied into a
complementary RNA molecule. This
62. Answer: (a)
RNA molecule, called messenger RNA
Explanation:
(mRNA), then leaves the nucleus and
● ‘mRNA’ stands for ‘messenger travels to the cytoplasm, where it is
RiboNucleic Acid’. DNA stores all the used to synthesize proteins by
genetic information in our bodies. translation.
mRNA carries that genetic information ● Translation is the process of using
or set of instructions from DNA to mRNA to make a protein. It is the
ribosomes. Ribosomes read the mRNA second step in gene expression.
sequence and translate it into a Translation occurs in the cytoplasm of
sequence of amino acids, which are the the eukaryotic cells. Translation is
building blocks of proteins. carried out by ribosomes, which use the
● mRNA is a single-stranded molecule, information in the mRNA to synthesise
unlike DNA, which is double- a chain of amino acids. The chain of
stranded. mRNA is also shorter than amino acids is then folded into a
DNA, and it has a different set of bases. protein.
● mRNA is also involved in the regulation Reverse transcription:
of gene expression. The amount of ● Reverse transcription is a process in
mRNA produced from a gene can be which RNA is used as a template to
controlled by various factors. This synthesise a complementary DNA
control of mRNA levels allows the cells (cDNA) molecule. This process is carried
to fine-tune gene expression and out by an enzyme called reverse
produce the proteins they need, when transcriptase. The name "reverse
they need them. transcription" reflects the fact that it is
● mRNA is a rapidly degrading molecule. the reverse of the usual flow of genetic
After it is used to synthesize a protein, information, which is from DNA to RNA
(transcription).
it is broken down by enzymes. This
rapid degradation allows the cells to ● Transcription occurs in the nucleus
respond quickly to the changes in their of the cell, while reverse
environment by changing the levels of transcription can occur in the
mRNA for different genes. cytoplasm of the cell.

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64. Answer: (c) ● Individuals with ‘Down Syndrome’ may


Explanation: face certain cognitive challenges and
● The primary structure of a protein is the intellectual disabilities that can range
linear sequence of amino acids linked from mild to moderate. But it does not
by peptide bonds. Protein folding is the lead to progressive cognitive decline,
process by which the polypeptide chain unlike Alzheimer's disease
(linear sequence of amino acids) (progressive neurodegenerative
acquires its three-dimensional (3D) disorder that primarily affects
functional structure. memory and cognitive function).
● Improper protein folding can lead to the
formation of misfolded or aggregated 66. Answer: (b)
proteins. This is implicated in various Explanation:
diseases, including neurodegenerative
● Haemophilia is a rare genetic
disorders, such as Alzheimer's and
disorder that affects how the blood
Parkinson's diseases. The misfolded
clots. People with haemophilia have
proteins may accumulate and form
lower levels of clotting factors, which
toxic aggregates that interfere with
are the proteins in blood that help it
cellular function.
clot. This can lead to excessive
● Proteins can undergo denaturation, a
bleeding, even after a minor injury.
process in which they lose their 3D
structure due to factors like heat or ● Haemophilia is an X-chromosome
chemical exposure. In some cases, linked recessive disorder, which means
proteins can renature, meaning they that it is more common in males, than
can regain their functional 3D structure in females. Females can carry the
when the denaturing conditions are haemophilia gene, but they usually do
removed. However, not all proteins can not have symptoms unless they have
successfully renature once denatured. two copies of the gene, one from each
parent.
65. Answer: (d) ● It is a lifelong condition with no
Explanation: permanent cure. Treatment typically
● Down Syndrome is a genetic involves replacing the deficient clotting
condition caused by the presence of factor through infusions.
an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is
a lifelong condition that affects physical 67. Answer: (a)
and intellectual development, and has Explanation:
no cure currently.
● HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is
○ Chromosomes are small “packages”
an RNA virus. It belongs to the
of genes in the body. They determine
retrovirus family, which is characterised
how a baby’s body forms and
by the presence of RNA as its genetic
functions as it grows during
material.
pregnancy and after birth.
● HIV damages the immune system and
○ People with ‘Down Syndrome’
attacks the cells that help the body fight
have 47 chromosomes, instead of
infection, making a person more
the usual 46. This extra
chromosome changes how the vulnerable to other infections and
baby’s body and brain develop, diseases. If left untreated, HIV can lead
which can cause both mental and to the disease AIDS (Acquired
physical challenges. Immunodeficiency Syndrome).

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● HIV primarily targets the CD4 cells, nutrient uptake,


which are a type of white blood cells, especially
essential for the proper functioning phosphorus.
of the immune system. 3. Cyanobacteria Cyanobacteria are
● Mosquitoes or any other insect (Blue-Green photosynthetic micro-
vector cannot transmit HIV, unlike Algae) organisms that can
malaria. HIV cannot live in mosquito convert sunlight into
blood and can survive only in human chemical energy
blood. That is why it is called the through
Human Immunodeficiency Virus. The photosynthesis.
moment HIV enters the body of a
4. Lactobacillus Fermentation of
mosquito, it is killed.
various food products,
● Transmission: Contact with certain
including curd,
bodily fluids (infected blood, semen or
cheese, etc.
vaginal fluids) of a person with HIV,
Contribute to the
most commonly during unprotected sex
preservation of food,
or sharing the injection drug
and development of
equipment. It can also transmit from an
distinct flavours and
HIV-positive mother to her child during
textures.
childbirth, breastfeeding or pregnancy.
When consumed as
● Treatment: Human body cannot get rid
probiotics, they
of HIV and no effective HIV cure exists.
contribute to the
Medications like antiretroviral therapy
maintenance of a
(ART) can control the infection and
healthy gut
prevent disease progression.
microbiome.
5. E. Coli Used as a host
68. Answer: (d)
(Escherichia organism in genetic
Explanation: Coli) engineering to
Bacteria are microscopic, single-celled produce various
organisms, which are often thought of as proteins, enzymes and
harmful micro-organisms. Many types of other products, like
bacteria can be beneficial to the humans. insulin, growth
The examples include: hormones etc.
S.No. Bacteria Uses 6. Activated Anaerobic bacteria,
(species/class) Sludge Bacteria such as methanogens,
1. Rhizobium Form symbiotic are employed in the
relationships with anaerobic digestion
the leguminous processes. They break
plants and convert down the organic
atmospheric matter in the absence
nitrogen into a form of oxygen, producing
that the plants can biogas (methane and
use, promoting soil carbon dioxide) as a
fertility. by-product.

2. Mycorrhizal Form symbiotic 7. Pseudomonas Ability to break down


relationships with the a wide range of
plant roots, aiding in pollutants, including

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hydrocarbons and ● Fungi are used in various industries,


toxic chemicals. Used including food (yeast for baking and
in bioremediation brewing), medicine (antibiotics like
processes to clean up penicillin), bioremediation and
contaminated production of biofuels.
environments.
8. Cellulolytic Some bacteria are 70. Answer: (b)
Bacteria capable of breaking Explanation:
down cellulose 1. Cholera:
(complex ● Caused by the bacterium Vibrio
carbohydrates found cholerae, typically through the
in the plant cell ingestion of contaminated water or
walls), which is food.
fermented to ● Symptoms: Severe watery
produce bioethanol diarrhoea, vomiting and
and other biofuels. dehydration.
● Transmission: Highly contagious
69. Answer: (b) and can spread rapidly in the areas
Explanation: with poor sanitation and hygiene.
● Fungi are eukaryotic organisms 2. Typhoid Fever:
(consisting of a nucleus), that include ● Caused by the bacterium
micro-organisms, such as Salmonella typhi, usually through
mushrooms, yeasts, moulds and the ingestion of contaminated food
lichens. or water.
● Fungi belong to their own kingdom, ● Symptoms: The initial symptoms
separate from the plants, animals include fever, headache and
and bacteria. abdominal pain. As the disease
● Fungi can be found in almost every progresses, individuals may develop
environment on the Earth, from the sustained high fever, weakness,
Tropics to the Arctic, and from acidic to stomach pain and constipation or
alkaline situations. diarrhoea.
● Fungi have cell walls that are made of ● Transmission: Poor sanitation, and
chitin, the same material that is found contaminated food and water.
in the exoskeletons of insects and 3. Diarrhoea:
crustaceans. ● Diarrhoea is usually a symptom of
● Fungi generally reproduce asexually by an infection in the intestinal
fragmentation, budding or releasing tract, which can be caused by a
spores. However, they may also variety of bacterial, viral and
reproduce sexually. parasitic organisms, or food
● Fungi are heterotrophs, i.e., they cannot poisoning.
produce their own food. They feed on ● Symptoms: Loose or watery stools,
dead or decaying organic matter, or on three or more times a day,
living organisms. abdominal cramps, nausea and
● Fungi play a vital role in the dehydration.
decomposition of organic matter, which ● Transmission: Infection is spread
helps to recycle the nutrients back into through contaminated food or
the environment. Thus, they are drinking-water, or from person-to-
important for the formation of soil. person as a result of poor hygiene.

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71. Answer: (c) ● Early detection and treatment can


Explanation: prevent serious liver damage and
● Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, improve long-term health.
zoonotic disease, that is caused by an Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver,
RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) rabies virus, caused by the Hepatitis A virus (HAV).
which infects the central nervous ● The virus is primarily spread when an
system of the mammals, including uninfected (and unvaccinated) person
humans. ingests food or water that is
● The virus is typically transmitted contaminated with the faeces of an
through the bite of an infected animal, infected person.
but it can also be transmitted through ● The disease is closely associated with
contact with infected saliva or other unsafe water or food, inadequate
bodily fluids. Rabies can affect both sanitation, poor personal hygiene and
domestic and wild animals, and the close personal contact.
vectors include - dogs, cats, bats, ● Unlike Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C,
monkeys, foxes, skunks, raccoons, Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver
coyotes etc. disease, but it can cause debilitating
● Symptoms: The initial symptoms symptoms and rarely Fulminant
include fever and headache. As the Hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is
disease progresses, severe symptoms often fatal.
develop, including hallucinations, ● Improved sanitation, food safety and
paralysis and hydrophobia (fear of immunization are the most effective
water). ways to combat Hepatitis A.
● There is no cure for rabies once the ● Several injectable inactivated
symptoms appear, rabies is nearly Hepatitis A vaccines are available
always fatal. internationally. All provide similar
protection from the virus and have
72. Answer: (b) comparable side effects. No vaccine is
Explanation: licensed for the children younger than 1
year of age. In China, a live attenuated
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects
vaccine is also available.
the liver. It can cause both acute (short-
term) and chronic (long-term) illness. It can
be life-threatening. 73. Answer: (c)
● Hepatitis C is spread through contact Explanation:
with infected blood. This can happen Environmental DNA (eDNA) is the nuclear
through sharing needles or syringes, or or mitochondrial DNA that is released from
from unsafe medical procedures, such an organism into the environment. Sources
as blood transfusions with unscreened of eDNA include secreted faeces, mucous
blood products. and gametes; shed skin and hair; and
● The symptoms can include fever, carcasses. It is an efficient, non-invasive
fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, and easy-to standardize sampling
vomiting, abdominal pain, dark urine approach.
and yellowing of the skin or eyes The conventional methods to detect the
(jaundice). invasive species, like using nets, traps and
● There is no vaccine for Hepatitis C, visual observations, are cumbersome. The
but it can be treated with antiviral researchers are moving towards
medications. Environmental DNA-based molecular

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methods for detecting the invasive alien 76. Answer: (c)


species that provide a time and cost- Explanation:
effective alternative. This technique is INS Arihant is India’s first indigenous
increasingly being used for biodiversity nuclear-powered ballistic missile capable
monitoring as well. submarine. India has developed a range of
‘K’ family SLBMs (Submarine Launched
74. Answer: (b) Ballistic Missiles), long-range missiles that
Explanation: can be launched from submarines. It was
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a commissioned in 2016. INS Arihant is
presently armed with K-15 SLBM with a
group of nuclear supplier countries that
range of 750 km.
attempts to contribute to nuclear non-
proliferation by implementing two sets of The family of indigenously developed
Submarine Launched Ballistic Missiles
guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-
(SLBMs), sometimes referred to as K-family
related exports. The NSG was formed in
missiles, are codenamed after Dr. APJ
reaction to India's nuclear testing in 1974.
Abdul Kalam.
There is a Trigger List, and the things on it
Under the SLBM family, missiles of various
are prohibited from being exported to the
ranges have been developed, including K-
non-NPT member countries. India is not a
15, also called Sagarika, which has a range
member of the NSG.
of at least 750 km. India has also developed
The membership in the Nuclear and tested the K-4 missiles from the same
Suppliers Group does not automatically family, which have a range of 3,500 km.
confer membership in the Treaty on the
The next in the class, INS Arighat, is
Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons reported to have been launched in 2017
(NPT). and is said to have been undergoing sea
trials.
75. Answer: (b) INS Arihant can carry a dozen K-15
Explanation: missiles on board.
Agni-P or Agni-Prime is a medium-range
ballistic missile developed by the 77. Answer: (b)
Defence Research and Development Explanation:
Organization (DRDO), as a successor for Odonata is a flying insect order that has
Agni-I and Agni-II missiles, with range dragonflies and damselflies. All Odonata
capability between 1,000 and 2,000 km. have aquatic larvae, called naiads
It is a two-stage, surface-to-surface, road- (nymphs), and they are all carnivorous,
mobile and solid-fuelled missile, which is larvae and adults alike.
transported by a truck and launched via a Adults can fly, but rarely walk. Their legs
canister, like the country's first are designed to catch prey. They eat
intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), virtually completely insects. Megaloprepus
Agni-V (over 5,000 km). It is a ballistic Coerulatus, a massive Central American
missile with dual redundant navigation and Helicopter Damselfly, is the world's largest
guidance system. living odonata.

It has significant upgrades, which include The Dragonfly Festival, being conducted
across 11 States in India by WWF India
composite motor casing, manoeuvrable re-
(World Wide Fund for Nature-India), in
entry vehicle (MaRV), improved propellants,
collaboration with other organizations,
and navigation and guidance systems.
aims to create awareness for the

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conservation of these insects. The o Energy dissipation in self-organized


dragonflies and the damselflies are the best nanostructures under the influence
bio-indicators of freshwater quality. The of an electric field.
moment the water is polluted, the o Using Carbon Nanotubes for
population of these odonates declines. environmental monitoring due to
Extra information: Recently, in Wayanad their active surface area and their
(Kerala), a new species of dragonfly was ability to absorb gases.
recorded, the Epithemis Wayanadensis. o In tissue engineering, Carbon
Nanotubes have been used as
scaffolding for bone growth.
78. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
79. Answer: (d)
 A Carbon Nanotube (CNT) is a tube
Explanation:
made of carbon with a diameter in the
nanometer range (nanoscale).  Graphene is a single layer of carbon
atoms, arranged in a 2D honeycomb
 Carbon Nanotubes are one of
structure. It exhibits countless
the allotropes of carbon.
outstanding properties, which make it
 Single-Walled Carbon the candidate of choice for usage in
Nanotubes (SWCNTs) have diameters future applications, ranging from
around 0.5 nanometres – electronics to sensing and coatings.
2.0 nanometres, about 1,00,000 times
 The term “Pristine Graphene” is used
smaller than the width of a human hair.
for graphene that was not produced
 Carbon Nanotubes can exhibit by oxidation or reduction reactions.
remarkable properties, such as  Graphene is referred to as a semi-
exceptional tensile strength and thermal metal or zero-bandgap material,
conductivity because of because of lack of energy gap
their nanostructure and strength of the between its valence and conduction
bonds between the carbon atoms. bands. The discovery of graphene has
 Some SWCNT structures exhibit revolutionized the field of semi-
high electrical conductivity, while conductor electronics and very large-
the others are semi-conductors. scale integration (VLSI). It has some
 In addition, Carbon Nanotubes can be remarkable features, such as high
chemically modified. These properties carrier density and conductivity, low
are expected to be valuable in many density of states (DOS), and excellent
areas of technology, such mechanical and optical properties.
as electronics, optics, composite  Graphene has unique
materials (replacing or physicochemical properties, like high
complementing carbon surface area, good biocompatibility,
fibres), nanotechnology and other strong mechanical strength,
applications of materials science. excellent thermal conductivity and
 Applications of nanotubes in the fast electron transportation.
development in academia and industry  Graphene-based materials are utilized
include: for fabricating chemical and biological
o Utilizing Carbon Nanotubes as the sensors, like graphene-based gold
composite modified electrode, glucose
channel material of Carbon
oxidase–graphene–chitosan
Nanotube field-effect transistors.
nanocomposite film, platinum
o Using Carbon Nanotubes as a
nanoparticle ensemble-on-graphene
scaffold for diverse microfabrication
hybrid nanosheet modified electrode.
techniques.

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80. Answer: (a) 81. Answer: (b)


Explanation: Explanation:
 Fullerenes (C60) are sp2 hybridized  Nanomaterials are popularly used in
carbon allotropes that consist of 60 drug delivery, disease diagnosis and
carbon atoms arranged in a single bond therapy. Among a number of
C5-C5 (12 pentagon) and double bond functionalized nanomaterials, such as
C5C6 (20 hexagon) manner. carbon nanotubes, peptide
 Fullerene-containing polymers have nanostructures, liposomes and
been prepared using a variety of the polymers, Gold Nanoparticles (Au NPs)
above reaction types with cyclo- make excellent drug and anti-cancer
additions and nucleophilic-additions, in agent carriers in biomedical and cancer
particular, having been employed therapy application.
extensively.  Recent advances of synthetic technique
 There are many areas in which improved the surface coating of Au NPs
the Fullerenes and their derivatives may with accurate control of particle size,
be uniquely useful, as they exhibit shape and surface chemistry. These
features of both inorganic and organic make the Gold Nanomaterials a much
materials. Their electronic properties easier and safer cancer agent and drug
suggest a possible role as conducting to be applied to the patient’s tumor.
or semi-conducting  Gold Nanoparticles (Au NPs) are known
materials for batteries, transistors and for various biosensing applications
sensors. owing to their unique physicochemical
 C60 also has unique optical properties. properties, ease of synthesis, surface
It is transparent to low-intensity functionalization, tunable optical
light, but nearly opaque above a properties with size and shape, etc.
critical intensity. These non-linear  The presence of a plasmon absorbance
optical properties suggest a role as an band and their shape- and size-
optical limiter in the optical digital dependent optical properties make Gold
processors and for protecting optical NPs suitable as colorimetric probes. The
sensors from intense light. plasmon resonance spectra of free
 Other applications could come from the single particles differ significantly from
fact that various chemical species, like those of the aggregated ones.
metals or noble gas atoms, can be  It is generally accepted that plain
attached to the surface or trapped Gold Nanoparticles are toxic both in-
inside (Endohedral Fullerenes). The vitro and in-vivo in certain range of
properties of carbon suggest that concentrations. With proper surface
C60 balls could be coated with various modifications, the toxic effect can be
catalytic materials, affording a huge reduced or even eliminated.
surface area for catalytic activity. The
super-conducting and ferromagnetic 82. Answer: (a)
properties shown by some
Explanation:
C60 derivatives also suggest possible
 Quantum dots (QDs), also called semi-
applications in microelectronics devices,
conductor nanocrystals, are semi-
especially if it proves possible to
conductor particles a few nanometres in
synthesize air-stable, easy to handle
size,
metallic systems.
having optical and electronic properties
that differ from those of larger particles

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as a result of quantum mechanical  This ability of nanoparticles to


effects. have molecules “sticking” to their
 The core principle of nanoscience is surface depends on the surface
that, at the scale of nanometres, characteristics of the particles and can
materials and particles attain new, size- be relevant for drug delivery uses.
dependent properties that can be  But the interaction with the living
harnessed and controlled for novel systems is also affected by the
applications. The tools of chemistry are dimensions of the nanoparticles. For
an indispensable enabler of instance, nanoparticles, no bigger
nanotechnology, with applications in than a few nanometers, may reach
the areas as diverse as biotechnology, well inside biomolecules, which is not
catalysis, sensing, medical diagnostics, possible for larger nanoparticles.
electronics, photonics and quantum Nanoparticles may cross cell
technology. membranes. It has been reported that
 The discovery of colloidal quantum dots inhaled nanoparticles can reach the
and their controlled synthesis initiated blood and may reach other target
significant efforts to further improve the sites, such as the liver, heart or blood
quality and optical properties of cells.
colloidal quantum dots, and to explore  Key factors in the interaction with the
possible applications, such as light- living structures include
emitting diodes. nanoparticle dose, the ability of the
 A drastic increase in the optical quality nanoparticles to spread within the body,
of colloidal quantum dots was enabled as well as their solubility.
by the development of core-shell  Some nanoparticles dissolve easily
quantum dots, to realize passivation and their effects on the living
methods well known from semi- organisms are the same as the effects
conductor optics. of the chemical they are made of.
 Core-shell nanoparticles were created However, other nanoparticles do not
that consisted of a wide-bandgap degrade or dissolve readily. Instead,
shell, such as ZnS, to confine they may accumulate in the
electrons and holes to a small- biological systems and persist for a
bandgap core (such as CdSe). long time, which makes such
 In this way, the charge carriers in the nanoparticles of particular concern.
core were separated from the surface  The health effects of nanoparticles are
states, such as unsaturated bonds, that likely to depend also on their shape. A
are detrimental to optical performance. significant example is nanotubes, which
may be of a few nanometres in
diameter, but with a length that could
83. Answer: (a)
be several micrometres. A recent study
Explanation:
showed a high toxicity of carbon
 Nanoparticles can have the same nanotubes, which seemed to produce
dimensions as the biological harmful effects by an entirely new
molecules, such as proteins. mechanism, different from the normal
 In the living systems, they may model of toxic dusts.
immediately adsorb onto their surface  Because of the specific characteristics
some of the large molecules they of nanoparticles,
encounter as they enter the tissues and conventional toxicity tests may not be
fluids of the body. enough to detect all their possible

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harmful effects. Therefore, a series of o Any missile is called ‘ballistic’ when


specific tests was proposed to assess the trajectory it follows is ballistic. It
the toxicity of nanoparticles used in is used to deliver one or more
drug delivery systems. warheads on a pre-determined
 One mechanism of toxicity of target.
nanoparticles is likely to be the o A ballistic trajectory is the path of
induction of oxidative stress in the cells any object that is launched but with
and the organs. no active propulsion during its
actual flight. Thus, in such missiles
 Testing for interaction of nanoparticles
the trajectory has to be fully
with proteins and various cell types
determined by a given initial
should be considered as part of the velocity, effects of gravity, air
toxicological evaluation. resistance and the Earth's motion.
o This missile is similar to a rocket
84. Answer: (c) engine.
Explanation: o Long-range ballistic missiles leave
 Iron Dome is designed to protect the Earth’s atmosphere and re-enter
against incoming short-range it.
weapons. It operates in all weather o As it is unguided for most of its
conditions. It uses radar to track path, it requires low precision.
rockets and can differentiate between Therefore, its trajectory depends
those that are likely to hit built-up on gravity, air resistance and the
areas and those that are not. Coriolis Force.
o These missiles can have a range of
 Iron Dome was developed after the 2006
300 km to 12,000 km, as there is no
conflict between Israel and Hezbollah, a
fuel requirement after its initial
militant group based in southern
trajectory.
Lebanon. Hezbollah launched
o Examples: Prithvi I, Prithvi II, Agni
thousands of rockets into Israel,
I, Agni II and Dhanush missiles.
causing huge damage and killing
dozens of citizens.  Cruise Missile:
o It is a guided missile where the
 In response, Israel said it would develop
target is pre-set. It is basically used
a new missile defence shield. Iron Dome
against terrestrial targets. Such
was created by the Israeli firms Rafael
missiles are designed to deliver a
Advanced Defence Systems and Israel
large warhead over long distances
Aerospace Industries, with some US
with high precision.
support.
o Modern cruise missiles are capable
 It was specially designed to help combat of travelling at supersonic or high
rudimentary weapons, like the rockets subsonic speeds, are self-navigating
fired from Gaza. and are able to fly on a non-ballistic,
 The system was first used in combat in extremely low-altitude trajectory.
2011. It knocked out a missile fired o This missile is self-propelled till
from the Gaza Strip, which has been the end of its flight. It hits the
under Hamas control since 2007. targets with high precision, as it
is constantly propelled. The range
is below 500 km, as it needs to be
85. Answer: (a)
constantly propelled to hit the
Explanation:
target with high precision.
 Ballistic Missile: o Example: BrahMos missiles.

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 The BrahMos (also designated as PJ- airspace and in the adjoining area, and
10) is a medium-range ramjet applicable to safety-to-life civil
supersonic cruise missile that can be operations. GAGAN is inter-operable
launched from submarines, ships and with other international SBAS systems.
fighter aircrafts. It has been  GAGAN is the first Satellite-Based
developed as a joint venture between Augmentation System in the world
India and Russia. which has been certified for approach
with vertical guidance operating in the
86. Answer: (b) Equatorial ionospheric region.
Explanation:  GAGAN covers the area from Africa to
 GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation Australia and has expansion
(GAGAN) is a step by the Indian capability for seamless navigation
Government towards initial satellite- services across the region.
based navigation services in India. It is  One essential component of the GAGAN
a system to improve the accuracy of a project is the study of the ionospheric
Global Navigation Satellite System behaviour over the Indian region.
(GNSS) receiver by providing reference GAGAN ionospheric algorithm was
signals. developed by ISRO. This makes India
 The Airports Authority of India (AAI) the third country in the world which
and the Indian Space Research has such precision approach
Organization (ISRO) have collaborated capabilities.
to develop the GPS Aided Geo  GAGAN has been developed for aviation,
Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) as a but it will provide benefits to other
regional Satellite Based Augmentation sectors as well, like transportation,
System (SBAS). railways, surveying, maritime,
 GAGAN's goal is to provide a navigation highways, telecom industry and
system to assist the aircrafts in security agencies.
accurate landing over the Indian

87. Answer: (b)


Explanation:
Swine flu, a respiratory disease of pigs, is caused by an influenza virus. The first flu virus
isolated from pigs was influenza A H1N1 in 1930. Since the 1930s, three other sub-types of flu
viruses also have been isolated from pigs, including H1N2, H3N1 and H3N2.
Although swine influenza viruses are similar to the influenza viruses that circulate among the
humans, swine viruses possess distinct antigens (molecules that induce an immune response).
The symptoms of swine flu are similar to that of COVID -19.

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A respiratory sample (simple nose or throat swab) is required for a confirmed diagnosis of swine
flu. In the humans, these tests include the Reverse Transcriptase-Polymerase Chain Reaction
(RT-PCR) test, virus isolation test and assays to detect a 4-fold increase in influenza virus
antigens.
Avian influenza or bird flu refers to the disease caused by infection with avian (bird)
influenza (flu) Type A viruses. These viruses naturally spread among wild aquatic birds
worldwide and can infect domestic poultry, and other bird and animal species. Bird flu viruses
do not normally infect the humans.
The World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH) has approved the country's self-
declaration of freedom from Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI), commonly known as bird
flu, in specific poultry in specific poultry compartments (approved farms) or big poultry farms in
Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. As of now, 26 poultry farms in the
country have declared themselves HPAI-free.

88. Answer: (c) medicines. Treatments can stop mild cases


Explanation: from getting worse.
Malaria is a life-threatening disease spread Malaria mostly spreads to the people
in the humans by some types of through the bites of some infected female
mosquitoes. It is mostly found in the Anopheles mosquitoes. Blood transfusion
tropical countries. It is preventable and and contaminated needles may also
curable. The infection is caused by a transmit malaria.
parasite and it does not spread from person There are 5 Plasmodium parasite species
to person. that cause malaria in the humans and 2 of
Symptoms can be mild or life-threatening. these species – P. falciparum and P. vivax –
Mild symptoms are fever, chills and pose the greatest threat. P. falciparum is
headache. Severe symptoms include the deadliest malaria parasite and the most
fatigue, confusion, seizures and difficulty in prevalent on the African continent. P.
breathing. Malaria can be prevented by vivax is the dominant malaria parasite in
avoiding mosquito bites and with most countries outside of sub-Saharan

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Africa. The other malaria species which help the farmers naturally fight pink
can infect the humans are P. malariae, P. bollworm, which is the most common pest
ovale and P. knowlesi. for cotton farmers.

89. Answer: (c) 90. Answer: (b)


Explanation: Explanation:
Genome editing is a technique used to ‘The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export
precisely and efficiently modify the Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual-
DNA within a cell. It involves making cuts Use Goods and Technologies’ is a
at specific DNA sequences with enzymes voluntary, multilateral export control
called 'engineered nucleases'. Genome regime, whose member states exchange
editing can be used to add, remove or alter information on transfers of conventional
the DNA in the genome. weapons and dual-use goods and
Genome editing, a technique which allowed technologies.
them to ‘cut’ DNA strands and edit genes. The Arrangement's purpose is to
For agriculture scientists this process contribute to regional and international
allowed them to bring about desired security and stability by promoting
changes in the genome by using ‘site transparency and greater responsibility
directed nuclease’ (SDN) or ‘sequence in transfers of conventional arms and
specific nuclease’ (SSN). Nuclease is an dual-use (i.e., those having civil and
enzyme which cleaves through nucleic acid military uses) goods and technologies to
— the building block of the genetic prevent destabilizing accumulations of
material. those items.
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short The Wassenaar Arrangement establishes
Palindromic Repeat (CRISPR) -associated lists of items for which the member
proteins based systems. This system countries are to apply export controls. The
allows for targeted intervention at the member governments implement these
genome sequence. This tool has opened up controls to ensure that the transfers of the
various possibilities in plant breeding. controlled items do not contribute to the
Using this tool, the agricultural scientists development or enhancement of military
can now edit genome to insert specific capabilities that undermine the goals of the
traits in the gene sequence. Depending on Arrangement, and are not diverted to
the nature of the edit that is carried out, support such capabilities. In addition, the
the process is divided into three categories Wassenaar Arrangement imposes some
— SDN 1, SDN 2 and SDN 3. reporting requirements on its member
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) governments.
involve modification of the genetic material The US, the UK, Japan, South Korea,
of the host by the introduction of a foreign France, Germany and Australia are some
genetic material. In the case of agriculture, key members of the WA. Prominent non-
soil bacteria are the best mining source for members include China and Israel. India
such genes which are then inserted into the joined the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA) in
host genome using genetic engineering. 2017 and became its 42nd member.
For example, in case of cotton, introduction
of genes cry1Ac and cry2Ab, mined from 91. Answer: (a)
the soil bacterium Bacillus Thuringiensis Explanation:
(BT), allows the native cotton plant to
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
generate endotoxins to fight pink bollworm
Committee (GEAC), established under the
naturally. BT cotton uses this advantage to

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Ministry of Environment, Forest and other radiation treatment. The conventional


Climate Change (MoEF&CC), is an apex radiotherapy employs high energy X-rays
body, notified under Rules 1989 of the for the treatment of cancer and certain
Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, for benign tumours. In doing so, it also
approval of activities involving large-scale damages the surrounding healthy tissue by
use of hazardous micro-organisms and delivery of radiation to the healthy tissue
recombinants in research and industrial around the tumour. In contrast, the proton
production from the environmental safety beam delivers a high dosage of radiation
angle. only to the tumour, maximizing the
The GEAC is also responsible for the chances of cure and, in turn, minimizing
approval of proposals relating to the release the adverse effects to the surrounding
of genetically engineered organisms and healthy tissues. In addition, a superlative
products into the environment, including advantage is the proper dose distribution. A
experimental field trials (Biosafety Research low dosage of radiation is emanated at the
Level Trials-I and II, also known as BRL-I body surface, which is followed by a sharp
and BRL-II). burst once it hits the tumour, with
The Chairman of the GEAC is the negligible radiation travelling beyond the
Additional/Special target.
Secretary, MoEFCC, and the Co- Principle of the Proton Therapy – Bragg
chairman is a representative of the Peak: Bragg Peak is a distinct property of
Department of Bio-technology. the protons and when it reaches the cancer
tissues, after penetrating through the
normal tissues in our body, it releases an
92. Answer: (b)
immense amount of radiation energy to kill
Explanation:
the cancer cells and subsequently, it
Project 15B: The Project 15B class disappears instantly.
of guided-missile destroyers, an improved
variant of the Kolkata-class destroyers, are
94. Answer: (b)
being built by Mazagon Dock Limited
(MDL) for the Indian Navy. Explanation:
Project 17A: Project 17A frigates are the Some important hormones released in
follow-on class of Project 17 ‘Shivalik Class’ the brain are:
frigates, with improved stealth features,  Melatonin is a hormone that our
advanced weapons, sensors and platform- brain produces in response to
management systems. darkness. It helps with the timing of
Project 75: The P75 Kalvari-class diesel- our circadian rhythms (24-hour
electric/air-independent propulsion internal clock) and with sleep.
(AIP) submarines are based on  Dopamine is a hormone, which is
the Scorpene-class submarines, which were known as the “feel-good” hormone. It
designed by the French naval ship-building gives us a sense of pleasure. It also
firm, Naval Group (formerly known as gives us the motivation to do something
DCNS), in partnership with the Spanish when we are feeling pleasure. Dopamine
ship-building firm Navantia. is a part of our reward system.
 Endorphins are the chemicals
93. Answer: (c) (hormones) that our body releases
Explanation: when it feels pain or stress. They are
released during pleasurable activities,
The Proton Therapy provides targeted
such as exercise, massage, eating and
treatment and intensification, unlike any
sex too. Endorphins help relieve pain,

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reduce stress and improve our sense of and is considered by some sources as
well-being. 30 THz (a wavelength of 10 µm). Currently,
 Prolactin is a polypeptide hormone that at THz frequencies within this range, useful
is responsible for lactation, breast power generation and receiver technologies
development and hundreds of other are inefficient and unfeasible.
actions needed to maintain Mass production of devices in this range
homeostasis. The chemical structure of and operation at room temperature (at
prolactin is similar to the structure of which energy kT is equal to the energy of a
growth hormone and placental lactogen photon with a frequency of 6.2 THz) are
hormone. mostly impractical. This leaves a gap
between
95. Answer: (b) the mature microwave technologies in the
highest frequencies of the radio
Explanation:
spectrum and the well-developed optical
The Terahertz Gap: In engineering,
engineering of infrared detectors in their
the Terahertz Gap is a frequency band in
lowest frequencies. This radiation is mostly
the THz region, for which practical
used in small-scale, specialized
technologies for generating and
applications, such as submillimetre
detecting the radiation do not exist. It is
astronomy. The research that attempts to
defined as 0.1 THz to 10 THz
resolve this issue has been conducted since
(wavelengths of 3 mm to 30 µm), although
the late 20th century
the upper boundary is somewhat arbitrary

96. Answer: (a)


Explanation:
The Turing Test has been named after a British computer scientist, Alan Turing.
In 1950, Alan Turing proposed an experimental method for answering the question: Can
machines think? He suggested if a human could not tell whether he was speaking to
an artificially intelligent (AI) machine or another human after five minutes of questioning,
this would demonstrate that AI has human-like intelligence.

97. Answer: (d)


Explanation:
About Holobionts: A holobiont is an assemblage of a host and the many other species
living in or around it, which together form a discrete ecological unit, though there is
controversy over this discreteness. The components of a holobiont are individual species or
bionts, while the combined genome of all bionts is the hologenome.

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98. Answer: (b) intentionally crafted to manipulate or


Explanation: deceive users into making certain choices
The MTCR is not a treaty and does not or taking specific actions that may not be
impose any legally binding obligations on in their best interest. It is a deceptive
Partners (members). Rather, it is an practice employed to influence user
informal political understanding among behaviour in a way that benefits the
states that seek to limit the proliferation of company implementing it.
missiles and missile technology. Businesses are using various techniques
The MTCR seeks to limit the risks of and deceptive patterns to downgrade the
proliferation of weapons of mass user experience to their own advantage.
destruction (WMD) by controlling exports of Some of the common practices are —
goods and technologies that could make a creating a sense of urgency or scarcity
contribution to delivery systems (other than while online shopping; confirm shaming
manned aircraft) for such weapons. In this wherein a consumer is criticised for not
context, the Regime places particular focus conforming to a particular belief; the forced
on rockets and unmanned aerial vehicles action of signing up for a service to access
capable of delivering a payload of at least
content; advertising one product or service
500 kg to a range of at least 300 km and on
but delivering another, often of lower
equipment, software, and technology for
quality, known as the bait and switch
such systems.
technique; hidden costs where the bill is
India is a member of the Missile Technology
revised or costs are added when the
Control Regime (MTCR).
consumer is almost certain to purchase the
product; disguised advertisements of a
99. Answer: (c) particular product by way of depicting it as
Explanation: news and many more. Such deceptive
Harry Brignull, a user experience patterns that manipulate consumer choice
researcher in the U.K., introduced the and impede their right to be well-informed
phrase ‘dark pattern’ in 2010 to constitute unfair practices that are
characterise deceptive strategies used to prohibited under the Consumer Protection
trick clients. A dark pattern refers to a Act 2019.
design or user interface technique that is

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2022 by AST SpaceMobile, a U.S.-based


100. Answer: (c) company.
Explanation:  It is considered the largest commercial
BlueWalker 3 Satellite – antenna system ever deployed in low-
Earth orbit.
 It is a prototype satellite, a part of a
planned constellation of over a hundred  The satellite is among the brightest
similar satellites intended to deliver objects in the sky reaching a peak
mobile or broadband services comparable to that of Procyon and
anywhere in the world. Achernar, two of the brightest stars in
the night sky.
 It was launched into low-Earth orbit in

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