Do Not Open This Booklet Until You Are Asked To Do So

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Test Booklet Series

PRELIMS FITNESS – 2024
T.B.C :P-SIA-F-UPGI
ENVIRONMENT
Serial :PFB1-232440
TEST – 40 F
Time Allowed :One Hour Maximum Marks :100
INSTRUCTIONS
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APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
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provided alongside. DO NOTwrite anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
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concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
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9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
(1-F)
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(2-F)
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1. Consider the following statements: 4. “They are present at the littoral forest
ecosystem. These forests grow in sheltered
1. Diatoms
low-lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal
2. Crustaceans
creeks, backwaters, marshes and lagoons of
3. Cyclops
the tropical and subtropical regions. They are
4. Dinoflagellates
resistant to tidal effects and tolerant to high
How many of the above are phytoplankton? temperatures. They have a special aerating
system for respiration called ?”
(a) One only
(b) Two only (a) Rhizophoraceae
(c) Three only (b) Aerenchyma
(d) All four. (c) Pneumatophore

(d) Bruguiera
2. The terms flocculation and Destratification are

5. Which of the following is the correct
related to which of the following?
descending-order sequence of nutrient
(a) Separation of biodegradable waste from richness in an ecosystem?
non-biodegradable waste.
(a) Fresh water-marine-estuaries
(b) Removal of plastic from marine ecosystem
(b) Estuaries-freshwater-marine
and freshwater ecosystem (c) Freshwater-estuaries-marine
(c) Removal of the nutrients from lakes. (d) Marine-freshwater-estuaries
(d) Separation of metallic compounds from
non-metallic compounds.
6. Which of the following are the functions of the
wetland?
3. With reference to the aquatic ecosystem, 1. They filter sediments and nutrients from
consider the following statements: the surface water and recharge
1. Some respiration and photosynthesis groundwater

2. They play a significant role in maintaining
activities take place in the photic zone.
the stream flow and flood mitigation
2. Some respiration activities take place in
3. They provide food resources for human
the euphotic zone.
beings
3. Only respiration activities take place in the
4. They are claimed to be genetic reservoirs
aphotic zone.
for various species of plants.
How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) One only (a) One only
(b) Two only (b) Two only
(c) All three (c) Three only
(d) None (d) All four
(3-F)
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7. With respect to Wetlands, consider the 9. They are produced whenever a combustion of
following: solid material takes place. They are one
1. Excessive growth of macrophytes, among those which rises with gases in
generally present in wetlands, affects the atmosphere and are oxide rich consisting of
water quality adversely and interferes with
silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium and
the utilization of the water body.
toxic heavy metals like lead, arsenic, cobalt
2. Wetlands support a high density of flora
and fauna and, therefore, have high value and copper etc. They are generally captured by
for biodiversity conservation. electrostatic precipitators. Which among the

Select the correct answer code given below: following options best describes the above
(a) 1 only statement?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Fly ash
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Smog
(d) CFCs and HCFCs

8. Consider the following:
Statement-I:
Mangrove ecosystem are evergreen ecosystem
10. With reference to national ambient Air quality
typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries and
standards consider the following,
barrier islands which require high solar
radiation for survival. 1. National ambient air quality standards are
Statement-II: prescribed for eight pollutants.
They are located mainly within the tropic of 2. Nickel and Arsenic are not among the
cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
prescribed pollutants given by national
Which one of the following is correct in respect
ambient air quality standards.
of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. The national ambient air quality standards
correct and Statement-II is the correct are notified by the Commission for Air
explanation for Statement-I quality Management (CAQM).
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Select the correct answer code:
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I (a) One only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) Two only
incorrect
(c) Three only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(d) None
correct.
(4-F)
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https://upscmaterial.online/
11. With reference to radiation pollution, consider Statement-II:

the following statements:
The chemical oxygen demand is the measure
1. The Ionizing radiations are extremely of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of
harmful radiation as it has high oxidation of total organic matter, whereas the
penetration power and can cause breakage
biological oxygen demand is the amount of
of macro molecules.
dissolved oxygen needed by the bacteria to
2. The Non-ionizing radiations are harmless
decompose only organic matter.
and have no scope of damaging any macro
molecules. Which one of the following is correct in respect
E
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of the above statements?
IN
(a) 1 only (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 2 only
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correct and Statement-II is the correct
N
(c) Both 1 and 2 .O explanation for Statement-I
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct

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12. Consider the following statements, explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

R
1. Iron cyanide and Thiocyanates

incorrect
E
2. Metal oxides and sulphide

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3. Alkaloids and chlorides (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is

A
4. Cellulose fibers and wood sugar organic correct.

M
acids.
C
Which of the above pollutants are present in

14. Consider the following statements:
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water bodies?
Wetlands States
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(a) One only

1. Kanjili wetland - Haryana
(b) Two only
2. Ropar wetland - Punjab
(c) Three only
3. Sasthamkota lake - Tamil nadu
(d) All of the above
4. Kanwartaal lake - Bihar
Which of the above pairs are correct?

13. Consider the following statements,
Statement-I: (a) One only
(b) Two only

The biological oxygen demand is the better
(c) Three only
indicator of water pollution compare to the
chemical oxygen demand. (d) Four only
(5-F)
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https://t.me/visioniastestseries2024
15. With reference to coral reefs, consider the 17. Which of the following are the symptoms of
following: coral bleaching?
1. When the bleach causes a loss of 60-90%
1. They are not circular or semi-circular reefs
of their zooxanthellae and each
that arises from sea floor.
zooxanthella may lose 50-80% of its
2. They are not linear offshore reef structures
photosynthetic pigments.
that run parallel to the coast line but they
are contiguous with the coast. 2. Photosynthesis pathways in zooxanthallae
3. Many of the reefs surrounding Srilanka are impaired at high temperatures, as this
and Thailand are characterized by this effect could activate the dissociation of
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type of reef structure. coral and algal symbiosis.
IN
Which type of reef structure has been 3. When the growth of coral animal colonies
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referenced above? is slow while the plant zooxanthellae are
N
(a) Atolls growing fast.
.O
(b) Fringing reef Select the correct answer code:
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(c) Patch reef

(a) 1 and 2 only
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(d) Barrier reef

(b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1 and 3 only

E
16. With reference to EIA 2020 notification,

T
(d) 1, 2 and 3
consider the following
A
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1. Solar photo voltaic power projects.

18. With reference to blue flag certified beaches,
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2. Coal and non-coal mineral prospecting

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3. Minor irrigation projects involving consider the following:

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culturable command area upto 2000 State/UT Beaches

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hectare 1. Kerala - Kovalam

4. Mining of minor minerals lesser than 100
2. Tamilnadu - Thundi
hectares of mining area.
3. Gujarat - Ghogla
Which of the above mentioned are exempted
from prior environment clearance or prior 4. Lakshwadweep - Kadamat
environment permission approval? How many of the above pairs are correct?
(a) One only (a) Only One
(b) Two only (b) Only Two
(c) Three only (c) Only Three
(d) All four (d) All four
(6-F)
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19. Consider the following statements: 21. Which of the following region is unique in
Pollutants Disease having species of tropical evergreen,temperate
evergreen, subtropical, coniferous and alpine
1. Cadmium - Blue baby syndrome
vegetation? On whichpart of India this region
2. Mercury - Minamata is located?

(a) Western Himalayas
3. Nitrate - Itai – Itai
(b) Eastern Himalayas
4. Arsenic - Arsenicosis (c) Western Ghats
How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) Eastern Ghats
E
matched?
IN
(a) Only One
1. Emission from waste water treatment
L
(b) Only Two
plant
N
(c) Only Three
2. Sewage effluents
.O
(d) All four
3. Pesticides and fungicides from agricultural
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fields.
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4. Leaching from garbage dumps.

20. With reference to coniferous forest, Consider
R
How many of the above are point source of

the following statements:
E
pollution?
T
1. These are the forest with high seasonal

(a) One only
A
rainfall andstrong seasonal climates. (b) Two only

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(c) Three only

2. Their soils are thin podzols rich in minerals
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(d) All four

like ironand magnesium, and they are
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acidic in nature.
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23. With reference to photochemical smog,

3. The forest is characterised by lush green consider the following:
vegetationand they are the largest 1. All atmospheric levels of ozone react with
sunlight and secondary pollutants to form
terrestrial forest ecosystem in the world.
photochemical smog.
Select the correct answer code: 2. Photo chemical smog or Los Angeles smog
requires neither smoke nor fog.
(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(d) All four
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(7-F)
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24. Consider the following statements, How many of the above pairs are correctly
Pollutants Sources matched?
(a) One only
1. NOx emissions Vehicle exhaust.
(b) Two only
2. Sulphur dioxide Thermal power plants (c) Three only
3. Carbon monoxide Burningof wood (d) None
4. CHCs and HCFCs Air conditioner and

26. With reference to solid waste management,
Refrigerator.
consider the following:
How many of the above pairs are correct?
1. Sanitary landfills are most hygienic and
(a) One only built in a methodical manner to solve the
E
(b) Two only problem of leaching.
IN
(c) Three only 2. Pyrolysis is a process of combustion of the
(d) All four solid waste material in presence of oxygen
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and the gas or liquid obtained is used as
N
25. Consider the following statements, fuel.
.O
Bioremediation definition/ 3. Composting is a biological process of
decomposing the waste into humus like
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Techniques briefing
substance in absence of oxygen.
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1. Bio-sparging - Supply of air and
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(a) One only

nutrients through
(b) Two only
E
Wells to
(c) Three only
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contaminated soil
(d) None
A
to Increase
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growth of 27. E-waste is not hazardous when it is stocked

C
indigenous safe or recycled through scientific means

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Bacteria however they are hazardous when they aren’t

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2. Bio- Microorganisms disposed properly?

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augmentation are imported to 1. Barium

Contaminated 2. Beryllium
sights to enhance 3. Hexavalent chromium
Degradation 4. Lead
process. 5. Cadmium
3. Bio-piles Processing of 6. Mercury
contaminated 7. Phosphor
solid Material or How many of the above mentioned are metal
water through an pollutants?
Engineered (a) Only four
contaminant (b) Only five
system. (c) Only six
(d) All seven
(8-F)
SIA-F-GS I
28. If you travel through western ghats, you are 30. What are the possible impacts of stubble
burning?
likely to see which of the following plants
1. Emission of volatile organic compound and
naturally growing there?
carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic
1. Red sanders compound into the atmosphere.
2. Loss of soil moisture and useful microbes.
2. Teak
3. Breathlessness and decreased lung
3. Rhododendron function.
4. Sandal wood Select the correct answer code:

(a) One only
Select the correct answer code
(b) Two only
E
(c) Three only
(a) One only
IN
(d) None
(b) Two only
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(c) Three only 31. They are found where the rainfall is about 25-
N
75cms per year, they exist in both temperate
(d) All four
and tropical regions and it depicts the
.O
conditions of adjacent ecosystem. Sometimes
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the number of species and the population

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29. Consider the following statements: density of some species in this region is
greater than the adjacent community. What is
1. This method encourages the farmer to
R
this ecosystem?
E
plant trees on their own farm by (a) Montane ecosystem

T
distributing the free or subsidized (b) Grassland ecosystem

A
(c) Alpine ecosystem

seedlings.
(d) Desert ecosystem
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2. The forest department plant wood lots

C
32. With reference to desert ecosystem, Consider

especially along road side, canal banks
S
the following statements,

P
and other public lands. 1. They are often located in the rain shadow
U
3. The community would plant wood lots in region of huge mountains where the
moisture is block off moisture from seas.
the community lands to be shared by them
2. They are located in both plains and highly
equally. mountainous regions and the rainfall is
Which of the below refers to the above- scanty and unevenly distributed.
3. To conserve water, the plants are mostly
mentioned method or technique?
shrubs with features of small or no leaves
(a) Farm forestry and in some plants even the stem contains
cholorophyll.
(b) Social forestry
(c) Community forestry (a) One only
(d) Miyawaki forestry (b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) None
(9-F)
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33. Consider the following statements, Select the correct answer code:
1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest (a) Only one

cover in India. (b) Only two
2. Keshopurmiani is the first ever (c) Only three
conservation reserve in India. (d) All four
3. Ladakh has the largest national park in
India.
36. With reference to luminescent solar
concentrators (LSC), consider the following:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 1. LSCs use thin sheet of material to trap
E
(c) All three solar radiation over large area. The thin
IN
(d) None sheets mostly consist of polymers doped
L
with quantum dots or rare earth elements.
N
2. LSCs are expensive than the solar cells but
34. With reference to Mycoremediation and
.O
there is an increases power production in
rhizodegradation technique, which of the
LSCs compared to solar cells.
following organism are involved in the
L

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process?
1. Fungi (a) 1 only

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2. Yeast (b) 2 only

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3. Bacteria (c) Both 1 and 2

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4. Virus (d) Neither 1 nor 2

A
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(a) Only one 37. Consider the following statements,

C
(b) Only two

S
Sites Energy installation/

P
(c) Only three Potential

U
(d) All four 1. Puga valley - Wind farm

2. Muppandal - Atomic power
35. Which of the following are the impacts of Acid 3. Vizhinjam - Wave energy
rain? 4. Tattapani - Geothermal
1. Prodigious production of lichens on How many of the above pairs are correctly
affected trees. matched?
2. Increase in fungal disease in aquatic life (a) Only one
and forest. (b) Only two
3. Premature senescence of older needle in
(c) Only three
conifers.
(d) All four
4. Discoloration and loss of foliar biomass
(10-F)
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38. What are the possible consequences of sand 2. Undergrowth is restricted in many areas
mining in India? by the lack of sunlight at ground level.
1. Alteration of river course. 3. Soil of tropical rainforest are red latosols
2. Depletion of groundwater table. and they are very thick.
3. Lesser availability of water for agriculture,
How many of the above are correct?
industrial and household purposes.
(a) Only one
4. Loss employment to farm workers
(b) Only two
Select the correct answer code.
(c) Only three
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
E
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IN
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only 42. Consider the followings statements:
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Wildlife sanctuaries Where they are
N
39. The term paraquat seen in news is related to .O States Located
(a) Herbicide in palm oil cultivation.

1. Point calimere WLS - Tamil Nadu
(b) Newly discovered bird species.
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(c) Pre cursor in plastic production. 2. Ralamandal WLS - Kerala

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(d) artificial sweetening agent flagged by

3. Aralam WLS - Madhya
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WHO.
Pradesh
E
T
How many of the above pairs are not correctly

40. The term “Bregoli” with respect eco-technology
A
refers to which of the following? matched?

M
(a) It is an eco friendly technology for the (a) One pair only
C
remediation of oil sludge and oil spills (b) Two pair only
S
(b) It is the latest technology developed for

P
(c) All three pairs

under sea oil exploration
U
(d) None of the above pairs.

(c) It is a genetically engineered species to
produce high yielding varieties of cotton.
(d) It is a technology to stop the invasion of
43. The R-21/ Matrix-M vaccine recently seen in
exotic species.
the news is related to which of the following
disease?
41. Which of the following are the characteristics
(a) Tuberculosis
of Tropical rain forest?
(b) Cholera
1. They are extremely dense vegetation and
(c) Measles
remains vertically stratified with tall trees
often covered with vines, creepers, lianas (d) Malaria
and epiphytic orchids
(11-F)
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44. With reference to Forest rights act, 2006, 46. Which of the following organism perform Foot
consider the following statements: flagging to attract mates as well as to ward off
1. The act concerns the rights of the forest competition?
dwelling communities which were denied (a) Western Honey bees

(b) Dancing frogs
to them over decades.
(c) Asian Hornet
2. All of the scheduled tribe community can (d) Slender Skimmer
claim forest rights across India.
3. The act is applicable in National Park, 47. With reference to International Crops
Wildlife sanctuaries and tiger reserves research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics
E
across India. (ICRISAT), Consider the following:
IN
1. It is non-profit and international research
4. The Ministry of Environment, forest and
organisation that conducts agricultural
L
climate change is mandated with research for development in sub-Saharan
N
operability and state government are .O Africa and Asia.
empowered with implementation of this 2. The headquarters of ICRISAT is located in
act. Bamako, capital of Mali in Africa.
L
IA
Select the correct answer code: Select the correct answer code:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
R
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
E
(c) Both 1 and 2

T
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A
(d) 1, 2 and 4
M
48. With reference to United Nation Forum on

C
45. “Green credit initiative” supported by Indian Forest, consider the following:
S
government is related to 1. The forum was established by United

P
Nation Economic and Social Council for

(a) It is an extension of the recently launched
U
conservation and development of all types

Carbon credit trading scheme,2023.
of forest.
(b) It is a voluntary and follow up action of the
2. The forum has Universal membership and
LiFE campaign to incentivize pro-
it consist of all members of United nations
environmental behaviour of stakeholders. and its specialised agencies.
(c) It engages sovereign green bonds in the
3. India is the founding member of this
market to finance climate change and forum.
Ecological conservation.
(d) It is a binding obligation for industries and
(a) Only one
companies to mandatorily finance climate (b) Only two
change initiatives. (c) All three
(d) None.
(12-F)
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49. Consider the following statements: 50. With reference to Comprehensive test Ban
1. The International Energy Agency releases Treaty, consider the following:
World energy Outlook report. 1. It is a multilateral treaty on banning
nuclear weapon test explosion and any

2. According to the report, India is expected
other nuclear explosion for both civilian
to have highest growth in energy demand
and military purpose in all environments.
over the next three decades.
2. All five nuclear power states recognised
3. India is not a member of International
under Non proliferation treaty has signed
E
Energy Agency.
Comprehensive test ban treaty.
IN
How many of the above statements are 3. Only India and Pakistan has neither
L
correct? ratified nor signed this treaty.
N
.O
(a) Only one 4. Recently, Russia withdrew its ratification
(b) Only two from the treaty.

L
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(c) All three How many of the above statements are
correct?
R
(d) None
E
(a) Only one

T
(b) Only two

A
(c) Only three

M
(d) All four

C
S
P
U
(13-F)
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PRELIMS FITNESS 2023-24

TEST 40 –ENVIRONMENT TEST
EXPLANATION

1. Diatoms
2. Crustaceans
3. Cyclops
4. Dinoflagellates
How many of the above are phytoplankton?
E
(a) One only
IN
(b) Two only
L
(c) Three only
N
(d) All four. .O
EXPLANATION:
➢ This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like
L
crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton) found in all aquatic ecosystems except certain swift-
IA
moving waters. The locomotory power of the planktons is limited so that their distribution is
R
controlled largely, by currents in the aquatic ecosystems. The two main classes of phytoplankton
E
are dinoflagellates and diatoms.

T
➢ Crustaceans are the most important members of the zooplankton. They are the marine
A
counterparts of insects on land; on land as in the sea, the arthropods are the most diverse and
M
numerous of all animal phyla. Hence, It thus not come under phytoplankton.
C
➢ Cyclops copepods are creatures of zooplankton, aquatic animals that drift with the currents.
S
Hence, It thus not come under phytoplankton.So, Option (b) is correct.

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2. The terms flocculation and Destratification are related to which of the following?
(a) Separation of biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable waste.
(b) Removal of plastic from marine ecosystem and freshwater ecosystem
(c) Removal of the nutrients from lakes.
(d) Separation of metallic compounds from non-metallic compounds.
EXPLANATION:
In India, natural lakes (relatively few) mostly lie in the Himalayan region, the floodplains of Indus,
Ganga and Brahmaputra. On the basis of their nutrient content, they are categorized as
Oligotrophic (very low nutrients), Mesotrophic (moderate nutrients) and Eutrophic (highly nutrient-
rich). The vast majority of lakes in India are either eutrophic or mesotrophic because of the
nutrients derived from their surroundings or the organic wastes entering them. For removal of the
(3-F)
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nutrients from lakes, techniques used are Artificial mixing / Destratification (permanent or
intermittent). On-site elimination by flocculation/flotation with water backflow or floating Plant
NESSIE with adsorbents. So, Option (c) is correct.
3. With reference to the aquatic ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. Some respiration and photosynthesis activities take place in the photic zone.
2. Some respiration activities take place in the euphotic zone.
3. Only respiration activities take place in the aphotic zone.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) One only
E
(b) Two only
IN
(c) All three
(d) None
L
EXPLANATION:
N
Photic or Euphotic zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates
.O
and within which photosynthetic activity is confined. The depth of this zone depends on the
L
transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity take place. Photic (or “euphotic”)
IA
zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where
the light level is 1% of that at the surface. So, Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
R
The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted,
E
form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place. Aphotic zone is positioned below the
T
A
littoral and photic zones to the bottom of the lake, where light levels are too low for photosynthesis.
Respiration occurs at all depths, so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep,
M
unlit region is also known as the profundal zone.So, Statement 3 is correct.

C
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(4-F)
SIA-F-GS I
4. “They are present at the littoral forest ecosystem. These forests grow in sheltered low-lying coasts,
estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks, backwaters, marshes and lagoons of the tropical and subtropical
regions. They are resistant to tidal effects and tolerant to high temperatures. They have a special
aerating system for respiration called ?”
(a) Rhizophoraceae
(b) Aerenchyma
(c) Pneumatophore
(d) Bruguiera
EXPLANATION:
Mangroves represent a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem. These forests grow
E
in sheltered low-lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks, backwaters (currentless, coastal
IN
waters held back on land), marshes and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions. They are
distributed over the east and west coasts and islands of Andaman and Nicobar. Since mangroves are
L
located between the land and sea, they represent the best example of ecotone.Characteristics of
N
mangrove ecosystem:-
.O
➢ The mangrove forests include a diverse composition of trees and shrubs.
L
➢ Plants are well adapted to high salinity(halophytic).

IA
➢ Resistant to tidal effect.

➢ Tolerant to high temperature.
R
➢ Roots bear pneumatophore ( or aerial roots ), which is an aerating system. So, Option (c) is correct.
E
T
5. Which of the following is the correct descending-order sequence of nutrient richness in an ecosystem?
A
(a) Fresh water-marine-estuaries

M
(b) Estuaries-freshwater-marine
C
(c) Freshwater-estuaries-marine
S
(d) Marine-freshwater-estuaries
P
EXPLANATION:
U
Estuaries are very dynamic and productive ecosystems since the river flow, tidal range and sediment
distribution is continuously changing in them. Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays,
tidal marshes, lagoons and deltas.
Estuaries are richer in nutrients than fresh waters or marine waters; therefore, they are highly
productive and support abundant fauna. In general, the phytoplanktons of estuaries are diatoms,
dinoflagellates, green algae, and blue-green algae. Towards the sea coast of the estuaries, there are
large algae and sea grasses. Near the mouth of the rivers and deltas, there are mangrove forests. So,
Option (b) is correct.
(5-F)
SIA-F-GS I
6. Which of the following are the functions of the wetland?

1. They filter sediments and nutrients from the surface water and recharge groundwater
2. They play a significant role in maintaining the stream flow and flood mitigation
3. They provide food resources for human beings
4. They are claimed to be genetic reservoirs for various species of plants.
(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) All four
E
EXPLANATION:
IN
A wetland is an area of land where soil is saturated with moisture either permanently or
seasonally. Such areas may also be covered partially or completely by shallow pools of water.
L
Wetlands include swamps, marshes, and bogs, among others. The water found in wetlands can be
N
saltwater, freshwater, and brackish. Most importantly, wetlands also serve as natural wastewater
.O
purification systems. Wetlands are considered biologically the most diverse of all
L
ecosystems.Functions of wetlands are

IA
➢ Wetlands can filter sediments and nutrients from surface water and recharge groundwater.
Wetlands have three important pollutant removal processes: Sediment trapping, Nutrient removal,
R
and Chemical detoxification. So, Statement 1 is correct.

E
➢ Wetlands function as natural sponges that trap and slowly release surface water, rain, snowmelt,
T
groundwater and flood waters. Trees, root mats and other wetland vegetation also slow the speed of
A
flood waters and distribute them more slowly over the floodplain.So, Statement 2 is correct.
M
➢ Natural products from wetlands, including fish and shellfish, blueberries, cranberries, timber and
C
wild rice. Some medicines are derived from wetland soils and plants. Many of the nation's fishing
S
and shellfishing industries harvest wetland-dependent species.So, Statement 3 is correct.

P
➢ Wetlands are a Genetic reservoir for various species of plants (especially rice). So, Statement 4 is
U
correct.
7. With respect to Wetlands, consider the following:

1. Excessive growth of macrophytes, generally present in wetlands, affects the water quality adversely
and interferes with the utilization of the water body.
2. Wetlands support a high density of flora and fauna and, therefore, have high value for biodiversity
conservation.
Select the correct answer code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(6-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
Macrophytes are aquatic plants growing in or near water. They may be either emergent (i.e., with
upright portions above the water surface), submerged or floating. Examples of macrophytes include
cattails, hydrilla, water hyacinth and duckweed. Excessive growth of macrophytes (both submerged
and free-floating) generally present in wetland, affects the water quality adversely and interfere with
the utilization of the water body. So, Statement 1 is correct.
E
IN
L
N
.O
Wetlands (generally less than 3 m deep over most of their area) are usually rich in nutrients (derived
from surroundings and their sediments) and have abundant growth of aquatic macrophytes.They
L
support high densities and diversity of fauna, particularly birds, fish and macroinvertebrates, and
IA
therefore, have high value for biodiversity conservation. These shallow lakes are rightfully categorized
R
as wetlands.So, Statement 2 is correct.

E
T
8. Consider the following:

A
Statement-I:
M
Mangrove ecosystem are evergreen ecosystem typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries and barrier
C
islands which require high solar radiation for survival.

S
Statement-II:
P
They are located mainly within the tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
U
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
EXPLANATION:
Mangroves are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats,
deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands. The best locations are where abundant silt is
brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches. Their physiological
(7-F)
SIA-F-GS I
adaptation to salinity stress and to water-logged anaerobic mud is high. They require high solar
radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from saline/brackish water. It produces
pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome respiration problems in anaerobic soil conditions. So,
Statement I is correct.
Mangroves are the characteristic littoral plant formation of tropical and subtropical sheltered
coastlines that provides high solar radiation for survival. Mangroves are trees and bushes growing
below the high water level of spring tides which exhibit remarkable capacity for saltwater tolerance.
Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they
cannot withstand freezing temperatures. There are about 80 different species of mangrove trees. All of
these trees grow in areas with low-oxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to
E
accumulate. So, Statement II is correct.
IN
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
L
N
9. They are produced whenever a combustion of solid material takes place. They are one among those
.O
which rises with gases in atmosphere and are oxide rich consisting of silica, alumina, oxides of iron,
L
calcium and toxic heavy metals like lead, arsenic, cobalt and copper etc. They are generally captured
IA
by electrostatic precipitators. Which among the following options best describes the above statement?
(a) Fly ash
R
(b) Carbon monoxide

E
(c) Smog
T
(d) CFCs and HCFCs

A
EXPLANATION:
M
The above given passage is about Fly Ash.Ash is produced whenever the combustion of solidmaterial
C
takes place.Fly ash is one such residue which rises with thegases into the atmosphere. Fly ash is a
S
P
very finepowder and tends to travel far in the air. The ashwhich does not rise is termed bottom ash.
Nearly 73% of India's total installed powergeneration capacity is thermal, of which 90% iscoal-based
U
generation, with diesel, wind, gas, andsteam making up the rest.The composition consists of
Aluminium silicate (in large amounts), Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO). Fly ash
particles are oxide-rich and consist ofsilica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, andmagnesium and
toxic heavy metals like lead,arsenic, cobalt, and copper.Fly ash is generally captured by
electrostaticprecipitators or other particle filtrationequipment before the flue gases reach
thechimneys of coal-fired power plants.So, Option (a) is correct.
10. With reference to national ambient Air quality standards consider the following,
1. National ambient air quality standards are prescribed for eight pollutants.
2. Nickel and Arsenic are not among the prescribed pollutants given by national ambient air
quality standards.
(8-F)
SIA-F-GS I
3. The national ambient air quality standards are notified by the Commission for Air quality
Management (CAQM).
(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)were notified in the year 1982 and duly revised
in1994 based on health criteria and land uses.The NAAQS have been revisited and revised
E
inNovember 2009 for 12 pollutants, which include: -
IN
➢ Sulphur dioxide (SO2),nitrogen dioxide (NO2),particulate matter having a size less than 10 microns
(PM10),particulate matter having a size less than 2.5microns (PM2.5),ozone, lead, carbon monoxide
L
(CO),arsenic,nickel,benzene, ammonia, and benzopyrene. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
N
The Central Government notified the National Ambient Air Quality Standards in November, 2009 with
.O
12 pollutants (Annexure-I). It includes five gaseous pollutants (SO2, NO2, O2, CO and NH3), two
L
dust-related parameters (PM10 and PM2.5), three metals (Lead, Nickel and Arsenic) and two organic
IA
pollutants (Benzene and BaP – particulate phase). Thus, both Nickel and arsenic are included in the
12 pollutants of NAAQ. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
R
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) implements the National Ambient Air Quality Monitoring
E
Programme (NAMP) through a network comprising 804 ambient air quality monitoring stations
T
covering 344 cities/towns in 28 states and 6 union territories of the country as per the mandate
A
under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 to collect, compile and disseminate
M
information on air quality. CPCB notifies the standards for NAAQ.So, Statement 3 is not correct.
C
S
P
11. With reference to radiation pollution, consider the following statements:

1. The Ionizing radiations are extremely harmful radiation as it has high penetration power and can
U
cause breakage of macro molecules.

2. The Non-ionizing radiations are harmless and have no scope of damaging any macro molecules.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Radioactivity is a phenomenon of spontaneous emission of a proton (a-particles), electrons(ß-
particles) and gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves) due to the disintegration of Atomic
nuclei of some elements. These cause radioactive pollution. They include X-rays, cosmic rays and
(9-F)
SIA-F-GS I
atomicradiations (radiations emitted by radioactive elements).Ionizing radiations have high

penetration powerand cause breakage of macromolecules.The molecular damage may produce short-
range(immediate) or long-range (delayed) effects. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Non-ionizing radiations affect only those components which absorb them and have low
penetrability.They include short-wave radiations such a sultra violet rays, which form a part of
solarradiation. They have low penetrating power and affect thecells and molecules that absorb
them.They damage eyes, which may be caused byreflections from coastal sand and snow
(snowblindness) directly looking towards the sun during an eclipse. They injure the cells of skin and
blood capillaries, producing blisters and reddening called sunburns. Thus,non-ionizing radiation is
radiation with insufficient energy to ionize atoms or molecules. However, it does have enough energy
E
for excitation, which raises electrons to higher energy states.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
IN
L
1. Iron cyanide and Thiocyanates
N
2. Metal oxides and sulphide
.O
3. Alkaloids and chlorides
L
4. Cellulose fibers and wood sugar organic acids.

IA
Which of the above pollutants are present in water bodies?

(a) One only
R
(b) Two only

E
(c) Three only

T
(d) All of the above

A
EXPLANATION:
M
The addition of certain substances to the water, such as organic, inorganic, biological, radiological,
C
and heat, degrades the quality of water so that it becomes unfit for use. Water pollution is not only
S
P
confined to surface water, but it has also spread to groundwater, sea and ocean.
The various types of water pollutants can be classified into the following major categories: 1) Organic
U
pollutants, (2) Pathogens, (3) Nutrients and agriculture runoff, (4) Suspended solids and sediments
(organic and inorganic), (5) Inorganic pollutants (salts and metals), (6) Thermal Pollution, and (7)
Radioactive pollutants.
The Various types of industries and their pollutants are as follows:-
➢ Mining Industry and its Mine Wastes are Chlorides, various metals, ferroussulphate, sulphuric acid,
hydrogen sulphide, ferrichydroxide, surface wash-offs, suspended solids,chlorides and heavy metals.
➢ Iron and Steel:Suspended solids, iron cyanide, thiocyanate, sulphides, oxides of copper, chromium,
cadmium,and mercury.
➢ Chemical Plants:Various acids and alkalies, chlorides, sulphates,nitrates of metals, phosphorus,
fluorine, silica andsuspended particles.Aromatic compounds solvents,organic acids, nitro
compounddyes, etc.
(10-F)
SIA-F-GS I
➢ Pharmaceutical:Proteins, carbohydrates, organicsolvent intermediate products,drugs and antibiotics

➢ Soap and Detergent:Tertiary ammonium compounds alkalies.Flats and fatty acids,
glycerol,polyphosphates, sulphonatedhydrocarbons.
➢ Food processing:Highly putrescible organicmatter and pathogens.
➢ Paper and Pulp: Sulphides, bleaching liquors. Cellulose fibres, bark, woodsugars, organic acids.So,
Option (d) is correct.

Statement-I: The biological oxygen demand is the better indicator of water pollution compare to the
E
chemical oxygen demand.
IN
Statement-II: The chemical oxygen demand is the measure of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of
oxidation of total organic matter, whereas the biological oxygen demand is the amount of dissolved
L
oxygen needed by the bacteria to decompose only organic matter.
N
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
.O
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
L
Statement-I
IA
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
R
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

E
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

T
EXPLANATION:
A
Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightlybetter mode used to measure pollution load inwater.It is
M
commonly expressed in the mass of oxygen consumed over a volume of solution which in SI units is
C
milligrams per litre (mg/L).

S
A Chemical oxygen demand test can be used to easily quantify the amount of organics in water. The
P
most common application of Chemical oxygen demand is in quantifying the amount of oxidizable
U
pollutants found in surface water (e.g., lakes and rivers) or wastewater. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
Chemical oxygen demand is the measure of oxygen equivalent ofthe requirement of oxidation of total
organicmatter (i.e., biodegradable and non-biodegradable)present in water. Whereas, biological
oxygen demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen neededby bacteria in decomposing the organic
wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams
of oxygen per litre of water.The higher value of biological oxygen demand indicates a low dissolved
Oxygen contentof water. Since biological oxygen demand is limited to biodegradablematerials only.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
(11-F)
SIA-F-GS I

Wetlands States
(a) Kanjili wetland - Haryana
(b) Ropar wetland - Punjab
(c) Sasthamkota lake - Tamil nadu
(d) Kanwartaal lake - Bihar
Which of the above pairs are correct?
(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
E
(d) Four only
IN
EXPLANATION:
The Convention on Wetlands [waterfowlconvention] is an intergovernmental treaty thatprovides the
L
framework for national action andinternational cooperation for the conservation andwise use of
N
wetlands and their resources.It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in1971 and came into
.O
force in 1975, and it is the onlyglobal environmental treaty that deals with aparticular
L
ecosystem.The year 2021 also commemorates the 50 thanniversary of the signing of the
IA
RamsarConvention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971 inRamsar, Iran, celebrated annually as

WorldWetlands Day.
R
On the eve of World Wetlands Day 2024, India has increased its tally of Ramsar sites (Wetlands of
E
International Importance) to 80 from the existing 75 by designating five more wetlands as Ramsar
T
sites.
A
➢ KanjliWetland is located in the District Kapurthala of Punjab. It has a catchment area of about 183
M
hectares. Kali Bein is a rivulet near Kapurthala which feeds the lake. Although the Kanjli wetland is
C
smaller in size as compared to the Harike and the Ropar wetlands, it is very important as it attracts
S
a large number of migratory birds.

P
➢ Punjab has six wetlands designated as Ramsar sites, such as Beas Conservation Reserve,Harike
U
Lake,Kanjli Lake,Keshopur-Miani Community Reserve,Nangal Wildlife Sanctuary,Ropar Lake. So,

Pair (1) is not correct.
Ropar Wetland is located in Punjab. A humanmade wetland of a lake and river formed by the 1952
construction of a barrage for the diversion of water from the Sutlej River for drinking and irrigation
supplies. The site is an important breeding place for the nationally protected Smooth Indian Otter,
Hog Deer, Sambar, and several reptiles, and the endangered Indian Pangolin (Maniscrassicaudata)
is thought to be present.So, Pair (2) is correct.
Sasthamkotta Lake is a Ramsar site located in Kerala. The largest freshwater lake in Kerala state in
the southwest of the country, spring-fed and the source of drinking water for half a million people
in the Kollam district. Some 27 freshwater fish species are present. The water contains no common
salts or other minerals and supports no water plants; a larva called "cavaborus" abounds and
(12-F)
SIA-F-GS I
eliminates bacteria in the water, thus contributing to its exceptional purity. The ancient Sastha
temple is an important pilgrimage centre.
➢ Asthamudi Wetland, Sasthamkotta Lake, and VembanadKol Wetland are three Ramsar wetland
sites from Kerala State.
So, Pair (3) is not correct.
The KanwarTaal, also known as KabarTaal Lake or Kabartal Wetland, is a remarkable natural
wonder situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar.It is a residual oxbow lake formed due to the
meandering of Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga. Covering the majority of the Indo-Gangetic
plains in northern Bihar, this lake was declared a Ramsar site in 2020, making it the first wetland
in Bihar to be included in the Ramsar convention.So, Pair (4) is correct.
E
IN
15. With reference to coral reefs, consider the following:
1. They are not circular or semi-circular reefs that arises from sea floor.
L
2. They are not linear offshore reef structures that run parallel to the coast line but they are
N
contiguous with the coast.
.O
3. Many of the reefs surrounding Srilanka and Thailand are characterized by this type of reef
L
structure.
IA
Which type of reef structure has been referenced above?

(a) Atolls
R
(b) Fringing reef

E
(c) Patch reef

T
(d) Barrier reef

A
EXPLANATION:
M
The above given statements are related to Fringing reefs. Coral reefs are the skeletons of stony
C
coral polyps cemented together. Corals grow very slowly- some grow only about 3-20mm per year.
S
P
Therefore, some reefs form over several million years. As these corals grow and die, they leave
behind their calcium carbonateskeletons. On these skeletons, other corals grow. As the years pass,
U
walls of coral begin to form: massive walls of rock. As the waves and currents beat upon these
reefs, nooks, crannies, ledges and caverns form in these walls.
➢ Fringing reefs are coral reefs that grow in shallow waters. They closely border the coastline or are
separated from it by a narrow stretch of water. Many of the reefs around Sri Lanka and Thailand
are fringing reefs. In certain parts of the world, they tend to form where volcanoes have also
formed due to the shallow sloped walls being ideal to make shore reefs.
➢ The larvae become polyps and excrete calcium carbonate, which forms their exoskeleton. The
secreted calcium carbonate sediments on the rocks provide a substrate for more polyps coming to
attach themselves. As more and more polyps attach and layer over time, they create a coral reef.
Calcareous Algae also add their sediments to the structure.
➢ Other organisms with calcareous skeletons also add their own remains to the reef as they die and
(13-F)
SIA-F-GS I
sink. Since fringing reefs are the youngest and grow onshore, they tend to have less diversity of
species within that ecosystem. So,Option (b) is correct.
16. With reference to EIA 2020 notification, consider the following

1. Solar photo voltaic power projects.
2. Coal and non-coal mineral prospecting
3. Minor irrigation projects involving culturable command area upto 2000 hectare
4. Mining of minor minerals lesser than 100 hectares of mining area.
Which of the above mentioned are exempted from prior environment clearance or prior environment
permission approval?
E
(a) One only
IN
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
L
(d) All four
N
EXPLANATION:
.O
➢ The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has published the draft
L
Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification 2020, with the intention of replacing the existing
IA
EIA Notification, 2006 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

➢ An Environment Impact Assessment makes a scientific estimate of the likely impacts of a project,
R
such as a mine, irrigation dam, industrial unit or waste treatment plant. There is also a provision for
E
public consultation in the rules, including a public hearing at which the local community and
T
interested persons can give opinions and raise objections based on the draft Environment Impact
A
Assessment report prepared by experts for the project.

M
➢ Among the major departures from existing regulations is the removal of several activities from the
C
purview of public consultation. A list of projects has been included under Category B2, expressly
S
exempted from the requirement of an EIA (Clause 13, subcl. 11).

P
The projects in this list are, under existing norms, identified on the basis of screening by Expert
U
Appraisal Committees rather than being exempted through listing in the Schedule. The following
cases shall not require prior-environment clearance or prior-environment permission, namely:-
➢ Coal and non-coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior
environmental clearance or permission in the new scheme.So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
➢ Minor Irrigation projects involving culturable command areas up to 2000 hectares. So, Statement 3
is correct.
Mining of Minor Minerals lesser than 100 hectares of mining lease area projects requiring prior
environment clearance or prior environment permission, under new EIA Rules.Mining of minor
mineral projects with a mine lease area of more than 2 hectares and up to 5 Ha shall be shall be
referred to the District Level Expert Appraisal Committee. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
(14-F)
SIA-F-GS I
17. Which of the following are the symptoms of coral bleaching?

1. When the bleach causes a loss of 60-90% of their zooxanthellae and each zooxanthella may lose 50-
80% of its photosynthetic pigments.
2. Photosynthesis pathways in zooxanthallae are impaired at high temperatures, as this effect could
activate the dissociation of coral and algal symbiosis.
3. When the growth of coral animal colonies is slow while the plant zooxanthellae are growing fast.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
E
(d) 1, 2 and 3
IN
EXPLANATION:
Bleaching, or the paling of coral colour occurs when
L
1) the densities of zooxanthellae decline and / or
N
2) the concentration of photosynthetic pigments within the zooxanthellae fall.
.O
➢ When corals bleach they commonly lose 60-90% of their zooxanthellae and each zooxanthella may
L
lose 50-80% of its photosynthetic pigments.So, Statement 1 is correct.

IA
➢ Photosynthesis pathways in zooxanthallae are impaired at temperatures above 30 degrees, this

effect could activate the disassociation of coral / algal symbiosis.So, Statement 2 is correct.
R
➢ If the stress-causing bleaching is not too severe and if it decreases in time, the affected corals
E
usually regain their symbiotic algae within several weeks or a few months.
T
➢ If zooxanthellae loss is prolonged, i.e. if the stress continues and depleted zooxanthellae
A
populations do not recover, the coral host eventually dies.

M
➢ High temperature and irradiance stressors have been implicated in the disruption of enzyme
C
systems in zooxanthellae that offer protection against oxygen toxicity.

S
➢ Low- or high-temperature shocks results in zooxanthellae low as a result of cell adhesion

P
dysfunction.
U
➢ When the growth of coral animal colonies is slow while the plant zooxanthellae are growing fast,
this statement discuss about the features of coral reefs and not the symptoms of coral bleaching.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
18. With reference to blue flag certified beaches, consider the following:
State/UT Beaches
1. Kerala - Kovalam
2. Tamilnadu - Thundi
3. Gujarat - Ghogla
4. Lakshwadweep - Kadamat
(15-F)
SIA-F-GS I

(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Kovalam Beach (Tamil Nadu), earlier known as Covelong Beach, is situated in a village named
Covelong in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu. The beach is one of the most popular Blue Flag-certified
beaches in India that offers some exhilarating water sports, surfing and great scenic
beauty.Foundation for Environment Education in Denmark (FEE) accords the globally recognized
E
eco-label - Blue Flag certification. In order to qualify for this prestigious award, a series of stringent
IN
environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria must be met and maintained.
The mission of Blue Flag is to promote sustainability in the tourism sector, through environmental
L
education, environmental protection and other sustainable development practices.So, Pair (1) is
N
not correct.
.O
The Thundi Beach is one of the most pristine and picturesque beaches in the Lakshadweep
L
archipelago where white sand is lined by turquoise blue water of the lagoon. It is a paradise for
IA
swimmers and tourists alike. This beach has designated staff for beach cleanliness and
maintenance and for safety and security of swimmers. So, Pair (2) is not correct.
R
The Ghoghla Beach is the largest beach in Diu and it is famous for its golden sands and clear water
E
throughout the year. Ghoghla has ergonomically designed bio-toilet blocks, changing rooms and
T
recreational amenities such as an open gymnasium, and parks for children. Other adventure sports
A
at the beach include parasailing, surfing, banana boat rides and water scooters. So, Pair (3) is not
M
correct.
C
The Kadmat Beach is another popular in the Lakshadweepbeach especially popular with cruise
S
P
tourists who visit the island for water sports. It is a paradise for nature lovers with its pearl white
sand, blue lagoon waters, its moderate climate and friendly locals. Both the beaches have
U
designated staff for beach cleanliness and maintenance; and for safety and security of swimmers.
Both the thundi and kadmat beaches comply with all the 33 criteria as mandated by the
Foundation for Environment Education (FEE). So, Pair (4) is correct.

Pollutants Disease
1. Cadmium - Blue baby syndrome
2. Mercury - Minamata
3. Nitrate - Itai – Itai
4. Arsenic - Arsenicosis
(16-F)
SIA-F-GS I
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Itai-itai disease is caused by cadmium (Cd) exposure, produced as a result of human activities
related to industrialisation, and this condition was first recognised in Japan in the 1960s. Itai-itai
disease is characterised by osteomalaecia with severe bone pain and is associated with renal
tubular dysfunction. Itai-itai disease mainly affects women residing in rice farming areas irrigated
E
by the contaminated Jinzu River in Toyama, Japan. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
IN
Minamata Disease is a poisoning disease that nervous system, mainly central nervous system, is
damaged by methylmercury. It is established that the disease differs from inorganic mercury
L
poisoning which damages kidneys, etc., and also, it isn't confirmed that it damages organs other
N
than nervous system. A cripling deformity called Minamata disease due to consumption of fish
.O
captured from mercury contaminated Minamata Bay in Japan was detected in 1952.
L
So, Pair (2) is correct.

IA
Presence of excess nitrate in drinking water is dangerous for human health and may be fatal for
infants. Excess nitrate in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non-functional
R
methaemoglobin, and impairs oxygen transport. This condition is called methaemoglobinemia or

E
blue baby syndrome.So, Pair (3) is not correct.

T
A
Arsenicosis has been known to be a health problem in some parts of our country. It occurs mainly
by drinking Arsenic contaminated ground water and also through contaminated food chain or
M
Industrial pollution for prolonged period. It results in skin manifestations such as Kerotosis,
C
Melanosis and may also affect lungs, liver or lead to various types of cancers. The condition is
S
P
preventable if measures are taken to provide safe drinking water to the community, promotion of
nutrition and also if diagnosed early. Arsenic contamination is a serious problem (in tube well dug
U
areas) in the Ganges Delta, west bengal causing serious arsenic poisoning to large numbers of
people. A 2007 study found that over 137 million people in more than 70 countries are probably
affected by arsenic poisoning of drinking water.
So, Pair (4) is correct.
20. With reference to coniferous forest, Consider the following statements:

1. These are the forest with high seasonal rainfall andstrong seasonal climates.
2. Their soils are thin podzols rich in minerals like ironand magnesium, and they are acidic in nature.
3. The forest is characterised by lush green vegetationand they are the largest terrestrial forest
ecosystem in the world.
(17-F)
SIA-F-GS I

(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) Only Three
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
Coniferous forest also known as Boreal forests and they are cold regions with high rainfall, strong
seasonal climates with long winters and short summers. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Boreal forest soils are characterized by thin podzols and are rather poor. Both because, the
weathering of rocks proceeds slowly in cold environments and because the litter derived from conifer
E
needle (leaf) is decomposed very slowly and is not rich in nutrients. These soils are acidic and are
IN
mineral deficient. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The word ‘conifer’ is a Latin word meaning ‘cone-bearing’.The forests in Taiga region are named so
L
because of the evergreen trees with needle shape or scale-like leaves. They are the largest terrestrial
N
forest ecosystem in the world. Coniferous trees very tough and are one of the largest living species of
.O
trees in the world. Almost all of the conifers trees have seeds on the surface of their scales, this gives
L
them cone-like appearance and not characterised by lush green vegetation.

IA
The cones look like seed cones. The male and female reproductive structures are present in the cone.
This is characterised by evergreen plant species such as Spruce, fir and pine trees, etc and by
R
animals such as the lynx, wolf, bear, red fox, porcupine, squirrel, and amphibians like Hyla, Rana,
E
etc. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

T
A
21. Which of the following region is unique in having species of tropical evergreen,temperate evergreen,
M
subtropical, coniferous and alpine vegetation? On whichpart of India this region is located?
C
(a) Western Himalayas

S
P
(b) Eastern Himalayas

(c)Western Ghats
U
(d) Eastern Ghats

EXPLANATION:
The Eastern Himalayas region, particularly in the northeastern part of India, is unique in having
species of tropical evergreen, temperate evergreen, subtropical, coniferous, and alpine vegetation.
This region encompasses a wide range of altitudes and climatic conditions, leading to the presence of
diverse ecosystems and vegetation types. In the Eastern Himalayas, the rainfall is much heavier and
therefore the vegetation is also more lush and dense. There are a large variety of broad-leaved trees,
ferns, and bamboo. Coniferous trees are also found here, some of the varieties being different from
the ones found in the South. In the eastern parts, red fir, black juniper, birch, and larch are the
common trees. Due to heavy rainfall and high humidity the timberline in this part is higher than that
in the West. Rhododendron of many species covers the hills in these parts. So, Option (b) is correct.
(18-F)
SIA-F-GS I

1. Emission from waste water treatment plant
2. Sewage effluents
3. Pesticides and fungicides from agricultural fields.
4. Leaching from garbage dumps.
How many of the above are point source of pollution?
(a) One only
(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) All four
EXPLANATION:
E
Pollution can be classified broadly two types on the basis of their sources.
IN
Point Source Pollution (PSP): According to US. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), it is any
L
single identifiable source of pollution from which pollutants are emitted. Emission of contaminants
N
in to the environment from a particular location is called PSP.
.O
For example,
➢ Emissions from waste water treatment plants.So, Statement 1 is correct.
L
➢ Toxic effluents from industries.

IA
➢ Sewage effluents.So, Statement 2 is correct.

R
Non-Point Source Pollution: It is the emission of contaminants into the environment from more
than one location over a large wide spread area. There is no specific area of source; instead it comes
E
T
from many unidentifiable areas.

A
For example,
M
➢ Toxic chemicals which have not been properly disposed off

➢ Harmful bacteria and microorganisms from cattle wastes
C
➢ Pesticides, fungicides and nutrients from agricultural fields, residential areas.So, Statement 3 is
S
P
not correct.
U
➢ Oil, grease, metals and cleaning agents washed from roads, workshops
➢ Sediments from construction sites, forests and agricultural fields
➢ Leaching from garbage dumps etc. So, Statement 4 is not correct.
23. With reference to photochemical smog, consider the following:

1. All atmospheric levels of ozone react with sunlight and secondary pollutants to form photochemical
smog.
2. Photo chemical smog or Los Angeles smog requires neither smoke nor fog.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(19-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
➢ Photochemical (summer smog) forms when pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (primary pollutant)
and organic compounds (primary pollutants) react together in the presence of sunlight. A gas called
Ozone (Secondary pollutant) is formed.
➢ Nitrogen Dioxide + Sunlight + Hydrocarbons = Ozone (Ozone in stratosphere it is beneficial, but near
the earth’s surface it results in global warming as it is a greenhouse gas)
➢ The resulting smog causes a light brownish coloration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant
damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.
➢ While, ozone is indeed a component of photochemical smog, not all atmospheric levels of ozone
contribute to its formation. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
E
Photochemical smog, which is also known as “Los Angeles smog,” occurs most prominently in urban
IN
areas that have large numbers of automobiles. It requires neither smoke nor fog. This type of smog
has its origin in the nitrogenoxides and hydrocarbon vapours emitted by automobiles and other
L
sources, which then undergo photochemical reactions in the lower atmosphere. Photochemical smog
N
occurs most prominently in urban areas that have large numbers of automobiles (Nitrogen oxides are
.O
the primary emissions). So, Statement 2 is correct.
L
IA

Pollutants Sources
R
1. NOx emissions Vehicle exhaust.

E
2. Sulphur dioxide Thermal power plants

T
3. Carbon monoxide Burningof wood

A
4. CHCs and HCFCs Air conditioner and Refrigerator.

M

C
(a) One only

S
(b) Two only

P
(c) Three only

U
(d) All four

EXPLANATION:
Nitrogen oxide (NOx) causes smog and acid rain. It is produced from burning fuels like petrol, diesel,
and coal.NOx is emitted by automobiles, trucks and various non-road vehicles (e.g., construction
equipment, boats, etc.) as well as industrial sources such as power plants, industrial boilers, cement
kilns, and turbines. Nitrogen oxide can make children susceptible to respiratory diseases in winters.
NOx often appears as a brownish gas. So, Pair (1) is correct.
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is a gas produced from burning coal, mainly in thermal power plants. Some
industrial processes, such as production of paper and smelting of metals, produce sulphur dioxide. It
is a major contributor to smog and acid rain. Sulfur dioxide can lead to lung diseases. So, Pair (2) is
correct.
(20-F)
SIA-F-GS I
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless gas that is produced by the incomplete burning of
carbon-based fuels including petrol, diesel, and wood. It is also produced from the combustion of
natural and synthetic products such as cigarettes. It lowers the amount of oxygen that enters our
blood. It can slow our reflexes and make us confused and sleepy. So, Pair (3) is correct.
Chloroflorocarbons (CFC) and Hydrochloroflorocarbons (HCFC) are gases that are released mainly
from air-conditioning systems and refrigeration. When released into the air, CFCs rise to the
stratosphere, where they come in contact with few other gases, which lead to a reduction of the ozone
layer that protects the earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun. The HCFCs have shorter
atmospheric lifetimes than CFCs and deliver less reactive chlorine to the stratosphere where the
"ozone layer" is found. So, Pair (4) is correct.
E
IN
Bioremediation definition/briefing
L
Techniques
N
1. Bio-sparging Supply of air and nutrients through
.O
Wells to contaminated soil to
L
Increase growth of indigenous

IA
Bacteria
R
2. Bio-augmentation Microorganisms are imported to

E
Contaminated sights to enhance

T
Degradation process.
A
M
3. Bio-piles processing of contaminated solid

C
Material or water through an

S
Engineered contaminant system.

P

U
(a) One only

(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Biosparging is an injection of air under pressurebelow the water table to increase groundwateroxygen
concentrations and enhance the rate ofbiological degradation of contaminants bynaturally occurring
bacteria. Hence, Bioventing means a supply of air and nutrientsthrough wells to contaminated soil to
stimulatethe growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used forsimple hydrocarbons and can be used where
the contamination is deep under the surface. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
Bioaugmentation means microorganisms areimported to a contaminated site to enhance the
(21-F)
SIA-F-GS I
degradation process. In other words, Bioaugmentation is an in situ bioremediation technique that

consists of adding indigenous or exogenous (non-indigenous) microorganisms to contaminated soil or
groundwater to enhance or supersede the existing microbial population.So, Pair (2) is correct.
Biopiles - it is a hybrid of landfarming andcomposting. Essentially, engineered cells areconstructed as
aerated composted piles.Typically used for the treatment of surfacecontamination with petroleum
hydrocarbons. Hence, Bioreactors means it involves the processing ofcontaminated solid material
(soil, sediment,sludge) or water through an engineeredcontainment system.So, Pair (3) is not
correct.
26. With reference to solid waste management, consider the following:
E
1. Sanitary landfills are most hygienic and built in a methodical manner to solve the problem of
IN
leaching.
2. Pyrolysis is a process of combustion of the solid waste material in presence of oxygen and the gas
L
or liquid obtained is used as fuel.
N
3. Composting is a biological process of decomposing the waste into humus like substance in absence
.O
of oxygen.
L

IA
(a) One only

(b) Two only
R
(c) Three only

E
(d) None
T
EXPLANATION:
A
Sanitary landfillsare more hygienic and built in amethodical manner to solve the problem ofleaching.
M
These are lined with materials that areimpermeable, such as plastics and clay, and arealso built over
C
impermeable soil. Constructingsanitary landfills is very costly. So, Statement 1 is correct.

S
P
Pyrolysisis a process of combustion in the absence of oxygenor the material burnt under a controlled
U
atmosphereof oxygen. It is an alternative to incineration. Thegas and liquid thus obtained can be
used as fuels.Pyrolysis of carbonaceous wastes like firewood,coconut, palm waste, corn combs,
cashew shells,rice husk paddy straw and sawdust yieldscharcoal along with products like tar,
methylalcohol, acetic acid, acetone and a fuel gas.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Composting is a biological process in which microorganisms,mainly fungi and bacteria,
decomposedegradable organic waste into a humus-likesubstance in the presence of oxygen.So,
Statement 3 is not correct.
(22-F)
SIA-F-GS I
27. E-waste is not hazardous when it is stocked safe or recycled through scientific means however they are
hazardous when they aren’t disposed properly?
1. Barium
2. Beryllium
3. Hexavalent chromium
4. Lead
5. Cadmium
6. Mercury
7. Phosphor
How many of the above mentioned are metal pollutants?
E
(a) Only four
IN
(b) Only five
(c) Only six
L
(d) All seven
N
EXPLANATION:
.O
The discarded and end-of-life electronic productsranging from computers, equipment used
L
inInformation and Communication Technology(ICT), home appliances, audio and video productsand
IA
all of their peripherals are popularly knownas Electronic waste (E-waste).E-waste is not hazardous
if it is stocked in safe storage, recycled by scientific methods or transported from one place to the
R
other in parts or in totality in the formal sector. The e-waste can, however, be considered hazardous
E
if recycled by primitive methods.

T
List of pollutants and theirSources:

A
➢ Barium:Barium is a soft silvery-white metalthat is used in computers in the frontpanel of a CRT to

M
protect users from radiation.

C
➢ Beryllium: Beryllium is commonly found on motherboards and finger clips. It is used as a copper-
S
beryllium alloy to strengthen connectors and tiny plugs while maintaining electricalconductivity.
P
➢ HexavalentChromium/Chromium VI 29: Chromium VI is used as a corrosionprotector of untreated

U
and galvanized steel plates and as a decorative or hardener for steel housings. Plastics (including
PVC): Dioxin is released when PVC is burned.The largest volume of plastics (26%) used in
electronics has been PVC. PVC elements are found in cabling and computer housings. Many
computer moldings are now made with somewhat more benign ABS plastics.
➢ Lead:Used in glass panels and gaskets incomputer monitors. Solder in printed circuit boards
andother Components.
➢ Cadmium: Occurs in SMD chip resistors, infrared detectors, and semiconductor chips. Some older
cathode ray tubes contain cadmium.
➢ Mercury: It is estimated that 22 % of the yearly world consumption of mercury is used in electrical
and electronic equipment. Mercury is used in thermostats, sensors, relays, switches, medical
equipment, lamps, mobile phones and in batteries Mercury, used in flat panel displays, will likely
(23-F)
SIA-F-GS I
increase as their use replaces cathode ray tubes.

➢ Phosphor and additives: Phosphor is an inorganic chemical compound (not a metal) that is applied
as a coat on the interior of the CRT faceplate.So, Option (d) is correct.
28. If you travel through western ghats, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally
growing there?
1. Red sanders
2. Teak
3. Rhododendron
4. Sandal wood
E
Select the correct answer code
IN
(a) One only
(b) Two only
L
(c) Three only
N
(d) All four
.O
EXPLANATION:
L
The Western Ghats is a mountain chain 1,600 km long running almost parallel to India’s western
IA
coast and spanning six Indian States: Gujarat, Maharashtra and Goa in the north down to
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu in the south. It is mostly comprised of tropical.
R
Evergreen and moist deciduous forests with some tropical dry thorn forest on its leeward side and
E
stunted montane evergreen forests and grasslands at higher altitudes. The mountains form a
T
continuous chain throughout the range apart from the 30 km Palghat Gap.
A
➢ Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood),the species Pterocarpussantalinus, is an Indian endemic tree

M
species with a restricted geographical range in the Eastern Ghats.The species is endemic to a
C
distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh.So, Statement 1 is not correct.

S
The Moist deciduous forests are foundin the northeastern states along the foothills of the
P
Himalayas, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghatsand Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra,mahua,
U
amla, semul, kusum, sandalwoodetc. are the main species of these forests. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
In the Nilgiris, Annamalai and Palani hills of the Western Ghats, one can find the bright red flowers
of the Rhododendron arboreum plant, the only rhododendron in the 1,600 km mountainous
stretch.Right across the subcontinent, the Himalayas are home to nearly 90 species of
rhododendrons, including a different sub-species of the one found in the Western Ghats.So,
Statement 3 is correct.
Indian Sandalwood, White Sandalwood,Sandalwood is found in the drier regions in South India, in
the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, up to 1400 m. The formation of heartwood, which is the
source of the sandalwood oil, is said to be best between 600 m and 900 m. Moderate rainfall (850-
1200 mm) spread over several months, and much sunshine are conducive to good growth. So,
(24-F)
SIA-F-GS I

1. This method encourages the farmer to plant trees on their own farm by distributing the free or
subsidized seedlings.
2. The forest department plant wood lots especially along road side, canal banks and other public
lands.
3. The community would plant wood lots in the community lands to be shared by them equally.
Which of the below refers to the above-mentioned method or technique?
(a) Farm forestry
(b) Social forestry
(c) Community forestry
E
(d) Miyawaki forestry
IN
EXPLANATION:
The above given passage is about Social forestry. Social forestry is a term used by the National
L
Commission on Agriculture in 1976 to denote tree-raising programs to supply firewood, fodder,
N
small timber and minor forest produce to rural populations. Social forestry programs have mainly
.O
three components: a) farm forestry, encouraging farmers to plant trees on their own farms, by
L
distributing trees or subsidized seedlings, b) wood lots planted by the oldest departments for the
IA
needs of the community, especially along the roadside, canal banks and other such public lands,
community wood lots planted by the communities themselves on community lands, to be shared
R
equally by them. So, Option (b) is correct.

E
T
30. What are the possible impacts of stubble burning?

A
1. Emission of volatile organic compound and carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic compound into the
M
atmosphere.
C
2. Loss of soil moisture and useful microbes.

S
3. Breathlessness and decreased lung function.

P

U
(a) One only

(b) Two only
(c) Three only
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
Stubble burning, also known as Parali in the local language, is a practice of intentionally setting fire
to the crop residue that includes stems (stubble), leaves, stalks, and seed pods of the yielded crops
such as paddy. It is usually done in the areas where combined harvesting methods are used. This
technique is still being practiced on a large scale in India.
There are some serious threats that stubble burning poses. It causes severe deterioration of the air
quality Index along with vehicular emissions. The stubble burning being practiced in Uttar Pradesh,
(25-F)
SIA-F-GS I
Haryana and Punjab contributes majorly to the life-threatening high AQI of the National Capital,
Delhi.
Crop residue burning has a number of negative consequences, including the release of greenhouse
gases (GHGs), toxic pollutants in the atmosphere containing harmful gases like carbon monoxide
(CO), methane (CH4), carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, volatile organic compounds
(VOC), higher levels of particulate matter (PM) and smog, loss of biodiversity in agricultural fields,
and deterioration of soil fertility and also impacts human wellbeing. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In addition to its effects on air quality, Stubble Burning adversely affects soil fertility as the soil
becomes less fertile and its nutrients are destroyed when the husk is burnt on the ground.So,
E
Increasing stubble burning practice contributes to emissions of harmful air pollutants, which can
IN
cause severe impacts on human health, viz. most of the respiratory symptoms including wheezing,
breathlessness on exertion, cough in the morning, cough at night, skin rashes, runny nose or
L
itchiness of eyes etc. chronic heart disease and lung cancer, as asthma, coughing; the effect is more
N
prominent, particularly affecting children, geriatrics and pregnant women. Other than these,
.O
greater threats for leukemia, blood bone marrow disease, vertigo, drowsiness, headache, nausea,
L
aplastic anemia, and pancytopenia and myelodysplastic syndrome cytopenia to benzene exposure.
IA
So, Statement 3 is correct.

R
31. They are found where the rainfall is about 25-75cms per year, they exist in both temperate and
E
tropical regions and it depicts the conditions of adjacent ecosystem. Sometimes the number of species
T
A
and the population density of some species in this region is greater than the adjacent community.
What is this ecosystem?
M
(a) Montane ecosystem

C
(b) Grassland ecosystem

S
P
(c) Alpine ecosystem

(d) Desert ecosystem
U
EXPLANATION:
The above given passage is about the Grassland ecosystem.The grasslands are found where rainfall is
about25-75 cm per year, not enough to support a forest butmore than that of a true desert. Typical
grasslands are vegetation formations that are generally found in temperate climates. In India, they
are found mainly in the high Himalayas. The rest of India’s grasslands are mainly composed of
steppes and savannas. Edge effect refers to the phenomenon when the number of species and the
population density of some of the species is much greater in the ecotone than in either community.
So, Option (b) is correct.
(26-F)
SIA-F-GS I
32. With reference to desert ecosystem, Consider the following statements,

1. They are often located in the rain shadow region of huge mountains where the moisture is block off
moisture from seas.
2. They are located in both plains and highly mountainous regions and the rainfall is scanty and
unevenly distributed.
3. To conserve water, the plants are mostly shrubs with features of small or no leaves and in some
plants even the stem contains cholorophyll.
(a) One only
(b) Two only
E
(c) Three only
IN
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
L
Desert is one of the most dried land areas on this planet that receives very little precipitation
N
annually. It is a land with very little rainfall throughout the year, measuring less than 50 cm a
.O
year. Lack of rain in the mid-latitude is often due tostable high-pressure zones; deserts in
L
temperateregions often lie in “rain shadows,” that is, wherehigh mountains block off moisture from
IA
the seas.So, Statement 1 is correct.

Deserts are formed in regions with less than 25cm of annual rainfall or sometimes in hot
R
regionswhere there is more rainfall but unevenlydistributed in the annual cycle.The climate of
E
these biomes is modified by altitudeand latitude. At high altitudes and greaterdistances from the
T
equator, the deserts are cold andhot near the equator and tropics.So, Statement 2 is correct.
A
Desert plants have developed a variety of adaptations that allow them to conserve water, and one
M
of the most effective ways to do this is by reducing the surface area of their leaves.By having fewer
C
or smaller leaves, desert plants are able to minimize the amount of water lost through
S
transpiration, the process by which water evaporates from the surface of leaves.While small or
P
absent leaves may seem like a disadvantage for plants, desert plants have evolved other ways to
U
compensate for this. For example, many desert plants have deep root systems that allow them to
access water sources deep underground.So, Statement 3 is correct.

1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in India.
2. Keshopurmiani is the first ever conservation reserve in India.
3. Ladakh has the largest national park in India.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
(27-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares which is 24.62 percent of the
geographical area of the country. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of
2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. Out of this, the increase in the forest
cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that in tree cover is 721 sq km.
➢ Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country, followed by Arunachal
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total
geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya
(76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).So, Statement 1 is correct.
KeshopurMiani is the Community Reserve, dynamic freshwater ecosystem in the district of
E
Gurdaspur, Punjab. It is the first-ever notified community reserve of India under the Wildlife
IN
Protection Act, 1972 (amended 2002).This community reserve is situated at an altitude of 245-250m.
The reserve comprises freshwater marshes (natural wetlands) that cover an area of 340ha and is an
L
important waterfowl habitat and migratory bird corridor during the winter season. The entire
N
community reserve is on two marshes owned by five village panchayats – the major ones being Miani
.O
(400 acres), Dalla (152 acres), Keshopur (136 acres) and Matwa (51 acres) as a contiguous block and
L
Magarmudian (111 acres) as a separate patch.Thus, the first conservation reserve in the nation is
IA
located near Tiruppadaimarathur, Tamil Nadu. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Hemis National Park is located in Ladakh, which is the largest notified protected area in India or in
R
simpler terms, the largest national park in India.Hemis National Park was first established as a
E
national park in 1981, with a total area of approximately 600 sq km. Slowly, the park area increased
T
to a whopping 4,400 sq km, making it the largest national park not only in India but also in the
A
whole of South Asia.

M
Hemis National Park is one of the most important natural habitats for the snow leopard. At present,
C
there are about 200 snow leopards that share this national park with other animal species like the
S
Tibetan wolf, Eurasian brown bear, red fox etc. So, Statement 3 is correct.
P
U
34. With reference to Mycoremediation and rhizodegradation technique, which of the following organism
are involved in the process?
1. Fungi
2. Yeast
3. Bacteria
4. Virus
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
(28-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
Mycoremediationis a form of bioremediation in which fungi areused to decontaminate the
area.Phytodegradation or rhizodegradation is thebreakdown of contaminants through the
activityexisting in the rhizosphere. This activity is due tothe presence of proteins and enzymes
producedby plants or by soil organisms such as bacteria,yeast, and fungi. While a virus is not
involved in this technique. So, Option (c) is correct.
35. Which of the following are the impacts of Acid rain?

1. Prodigious production of lichens on affected trees.
2. Increase in fungal disease in aquatic life and forest.
E
3. Premature senescence of older needle in conifers.
IN
4. Discoloration and loss of foliar biomass
L
(a) Only one
N
(b) Only two
.O
(c) Only three
L
(d) All four

IA
EXPLANATION:
Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic
R
components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid, that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or
E
dry forms. This can include rain, snow, fog, hail or even dust that is acidic.Acid rain results when
T
sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by
A
wind and air currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form
M
sulfuric and nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.
C
Various impacts of Acid Rain are as follows:-

S
➢ Acid rains affect trees and undergrowth in forests in several ways, causing reduced growth or
P
abnormal growth. The typical growth-decreasing symptoms are Discoloration and loss of foliar
U
biomass. Loss of feeder-root biomass, especially inConifers.

➢ Premature senescence (aging) of older needles in conifers. Increase in susceptibility of damage to
secondary root and foliar pathogens. Death of herbaceous vegetation beneath affected trees.
Prodigious production of lichens on affected trees. So, Statements 1,3 and 4 are correct.
Microorganisms: pH determines the proliferation of anymicrobial species in a particular environment
and the rate at which it can be produced. The optimum pH of most bacteria and protozoais near
neutrality; most fungi prefer an acidic environment, and most blue-green bacteria preferan alkaline
environment.
➢ So, after a long run of acid rain, microbial species in the soil and water shift from bacteria-bound to
fungi-bound and cause an imbalance in the microflora. This causes a delay in the decomposition of
soil organic material and an increase in fungal disease in aquatic life and forests. So, Statement 2
is correct.
(29-F)
SIA-F-GS I
36. With reference to luminescent solar concentrators (LSC), consider the following:
1. LSCs use thin sheet of material to trap solar radiation over large area. The thin sheets mostly
consist of polymers doped with quantum dots or rare earth elements.
2. LSCs are expensive than the solar cells but there is an increases power production in LSCs
compared to solar cells.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
E
EXPLANATION:
IN
A luminescent solar concentrator (LSC) is a devicethat uses a thin sheet of material to trap
solarradiation over a large area before directing theenergy (through luminescent emission) to
L
cellsmounted on the thin edges of the material layer.The thin sheet of material typically consists of
N
apolymer (such as polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)),doped with luminescent species such as organic
.O
dyes,quantum dots or rare earth complexes.So, Statement 1 is correct.
L
The main motivation for implementing LSCs isto replace a large area of expensive solar cells ina
IA
standard flat-plate PV panel with a cheaperalternative. Therefore, there is a reductionin both the cost
of the module (£/W) and thesolar power produced (£/kWh).A key advantage of typical
R
concentratingsystems is that luminescent solar concentrators can collect both direct anddiffuse solar
E
radiation. Therefore tracking of thesun is not required. Luminescent solar concentrators are excellent
T
candidates for buildingintegrated photovoltaics (BIPV) and for thecloudier northern climates.So,
A
Statement 2 is not correct.

M
C

S
Sites Energy installation/

P
Potential
U
1. Puga valley Wind farm

2. Muppandal Atomic power
3. Vizhinjam Wave energy
4. Tattapani Geothermal
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
(30-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
Puga Valley ( Jammu and Kashmir) is a potential site for Geothermal Energy. Geothermal
Generation refers to the harnessing of geothermal energy or the vast reservoir of heat storedin the
earth’s inner core. Below the earth’s crust,there is a layer of hot and molten rock called ‘magma.’
Heat is continually produced there, mostly from thedecay of naturally radioactive materials such
asuranium and potassium.So, Pair (1) is not correct.
Muppandal is located in Tamil Nadu, which is agreat site to install wind turbines is the geographical
location that receives uniquely powerful winds from the Arabian Sea.The large wind farm in
Muppandal features many wind turbines ranging from 200 kilowatts to 1,650 kilowatts. There are
also many wind farms scattered across different villages in the Kanyakumari, Thoothukudi and
E
Tirunelveli districts.So, Pair (2) is not correct.
IN
Waves result from the interaction of the wind withthe surface of the sea and represent a transfer
ofenergy from the wind to the sea.The first wave energy project with a capacity of150MW has been
L
set up at Vizhinjam nearTrivandrum.So, Pair (3) is correct.
N
Tattapani (Chhattisgarh) is a potential site for Geothermal energy.Tattapani is a most promising
.O
geothermal field in the Peninsular India. Geothermal activity is seen in the east of the Tattapani and
L
in the west of the Jhor, which are located 50 km apart. Thermal manifestation at Tattapani is very
IA
intense in an area of 0.05 sq. km with several hot spots, hot water pools and marshy land.So, Pair
(4) is correct.
R
E
38. What are the possible consequences of sand mining in India?

T
A
1. Alteration of river course.

2. Depletion of groundwater table.
M
3. Lesser availability of water for agriculture, industrial and household purposes.

C
4. Loss employment to farm workers

S
P
Select the correct answer code.

U
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Sand mining is the process of removal of sand andgravel, where this practice is becoming
anenvironmental issue as the demand for sand increasesin industry and construction.
Some of the Environmental consequences of sand mining are as follows:-
➢ Forcing the river to change its course: Sand and boulders prevent the river fromchanging the course
and act as a buffer for theriverbed.
➢ Depletion of groundwater tables: Sand, on a riverbed it, acts as a link between theflowing river and
the water table and is part ofthe aquifer.
(31-F)
SIA-F-GS I
➢ Lesser availability of water for industrial,agricultural and drinking purposes.

➢ Loss of employment to farm workers.
➢ Damage to coastal ecosystem
➢ Increased river erosion:When sand and boulders are removed in anunimpeded way using heavy
machines, theerosion capacity of the river increases.
➢ Adversely impacting the habitat of microorganisms: There are a lot of microorganisms that are not
visible and widely known but are critical to soil structure and fertility. When sand is dredged,literally,
it takes away their habitat.So, Option (c) is correct.
39. The term paraquat seen in news is related to
E
(a) Herbicide in palm oil cultivation.
IN
(b) Newly discovered bird species.
(c) Pre cursor in plastic production.
L
(d) artificial sweetening agent flagged by WHO.
N
EXPLANATION:
.O
Paraquat is a toxic chemical that is widely used as an herbicide (plant killer), primarily for weed and
L
grass control.Paraquat dichloride is a non-selective contact herbicide commonly used in oil palm
IA
plantations. It causes the leaves to wilt quickly, dehydrate, and eventually die.The herbicide paraquat
gives the most cause for concern, as it poses serious health hazards to the spray operators.The
R
Pesticides Action Network-Asia & the Paciﬁc has called for a ban on paraquatproduction and use on
E
numerous occasions, butto no avail.So, Option (a) is correct.

T
A
40. The term “Bregoli” with respect eco-technology refers to which of the following?
M
(a) It is an eco friendly technology for the remediation of oil sludge and oil spills
C
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under sea oil exploration
S
P
(c) It is a genetically engineered species to produce high yielding varieties of cotton.

(d) It is a technology to stop the invasion of exotic species.
U
EXPLANATION:
An oil spill is the release of a liquid petroleum hydrocarbon into the environment, especially marine
areas, due to human activity. The term is usually applied to marine oil spills, where oil is released into
the ocean or coastal waters, but spills may also occur on land. A surge in oil extraction through
offshore drilling has resulted in the spillage of oil — accidentally or due to negligence. Industrial
effluent discharge, waste burn-out and other manmade disasters polluting the marine environment
are among other concerns.
➢ The term “Bregoli”refers toeco-friendly technology for the remediation of oil sludge and oil spills. Oil
spills in water can be cleaned with the help ofbregoli – a by-product of the paper industryresembling
saw dust, oil zapper, and microorganisms.
➢ Cleaning up the oil spillage from the oceans without damaging the marine ecosystem is becoming an
(32-F)
SIA-F-GS I
increasingly challenging task. The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) has developed an
eco-friendly crude oil bioremediation mechanism technology using consortia of marine microbes wheat
bran (WB) immobilized on agro-residue bacterial cells.
➢ Bioremediation can be defined as any process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to remove
and or neutralize contaminants within the environment (i.e., within soil and water) to their original
condition.
So, Option (a) is correct.
41. Which of the following are the characteristics of Tropical rain forest?
1. They are extremely dense vegetation and remains vertically stratified with tall trees often covered
E
with vines, creepers, lianas and epiphytic orchids
IN
2. Undergrowth is restricted in many areas by the lack of sunlight at ground level.
3. Soil of tropical rainforest are red latosols and they are very thick.
L
How many of the above are correct?
N
(a) Only one
.O
(b) Only two
L
(c) Only three

IA
(d) None
EXPLANATION:
R
Tropical rainforests occur near the equator. Tropical rainforests are among the most diverseand rich
E
communities on the earth. Both temperature and humidity remain high and more or less uniform. The
T
annual rainfall exceeds 200 cm and isgenerally distributed throughout the year. The flora is highly
A
diversified. The extremely dense vegetation of the tropical rainforests remains vertically stratified with
M
tall treesoften covered with vines, creepers, lianas,epiphytic orchids and bromeliads.The lowest layer is
C
an understory of trees, shrubs, and herbs, like ferns and palms.So, Statement 1 is correct.
S
P
The high rate of leaching makes these soilsvirtually useless for agricultural purposes, but
when left undisturbed, the rapid cycling ofnutrients within the litter layer, formed due to
U
decomposition, can compensate for the natural poverty of the soil. Undergrowth is restricted in many
areas by the lack of sunlight at ground level. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The profile of the soil in the rainforest is called a Latolsol. Latosols are reddish brown, and the red
colour comes from the oxides of iron and aluminum in the soil. They are very deep soils. The heavy
rain in the rainforest leads to leaching (minerals washed out), and this is why the top layer of soil is
often light in colour. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(33-F)
SIA-F-GS I
E
IN
L
N
.O
42. Consider the followings statements:
L
Wildlife sanctuaries States where they are located

IA
1. Point calimere WLS - Tamil Nadu

R
2. Ralamandal WLS - Kerala

E
3. Aralam WLS - Madhya Pradesh

T
How many of the above pairs are not correctly matched?

A
(a) One pair only

M
(b) Two pair only

C
(c) All three pairs

S
(d) None of the above pairs.

P
EXPLANATION:
U
The Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary was created in 1967, in the Vedaranyam Block of Nagapattinam
District along the Eastern Coast of Tamil Nadu. Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary along with the
Great Vedaranyam Swamp was declared as a RAMSAR Wetland Site on August 19″ 2002. It’s a sandy
coast covered in saline swamp and thorny scrub around the backwaters. The region also boasts of the
presence of many mangroves owing to its coastal properties. Wild boar, macaque, black buck, chital
etc. are some of the animals that you find commonly in Point Calimere. So, Pair (1) is correct.
The Ralamandal WLS is located in Indore, Madhya Pradesh and was formed in 1981. Rala mandal, an
exquisite bird and wild life sanctuary situated 20 km from the city, houses an ancient palace built by
Holkers’. The sanctuary is home to a diverse range of fauna, including leopards, black bucks, sambar
deer, chital (spotted deer), blue bulls, Jarak, Bhedki (barking deer), rabbits, and more. These species
contribute to the rich biodiversity of the sanctuary. It also boasts a variety of flora, with prominent
(34-F)
SIA-F-GS I
tree species such as Teak, Saja, Chandan (sandalwood), Eucalyptus, Babul, and Bamboo. So, Pair (2)
is not correct.
It is located on the western slopes of Western Ghats, Aralam is the northern most wildlife sanctuary of
Kerala. It was established in 1984 with its headquarters near Iritty. Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary is
situated in the southeast part of Kannur District. The forest types include West Coast tropical
evergreen forest. West coast semi-evergreen forests, South Indian moist deciduous forest, Southern
hilltop evergreen forest and plantations. So, Pair (3) is not correct.
43. The R-21/ Matrix-M vaccine recently seen in the news is related to which of the following disease?
(a) Tuberculosis
E
(b) Cholera
IN
(c) Measles
(d) Malaria
L
EXPLANATION:
N
➢ The R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine, developed by Oxford University and manufactured by Serum
.O
Institute of India
L
➢ The R21 vaccine is the second malaria vaccine prequalified by WHO, following the RTS,S/AS01
IA
vaccine which had obtained prequalification status in July 2022.

➢ The prequalification means larger access to vaccines as a key tool to prevent malaria in children,
R
with it being a prerequisite for vaccine procurement by UNICEF and funding support for
E
deployment by Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance

T
A
➢ Malaria, a mosquito-borne disease, places a particularly high burden on children in the African
region, where nearly half a million children die from the disease each year.
M
So, Option (d) is correct.

C
S
P
44. With reference to Forest rights act, 2006, consider the following statements:
U
1. The act concerns the rights of the forest dwelling communities which were denied to them over
decades.
2. All of the scheduled tribe community can claim forest rights across India.
3. The act is applicable in National Park, Wildlife sanctuaries and tiger reserves across India.
4. The Ministry of Environment, forest and climate change is mandated with operability and state
government are empowered with implementation of this act.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(35-F)
SIA-F-GS I
EXPLANATION:
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 officially known as the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling
tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these
communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-
cultural needs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The act is applicable to 'forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes'' means the members or community of the
Scheduled Tribes who primarily reside in and who depend on the forests or forest lands for bona
fide livelihood needs and includes the Scheduled Tribe pastoralist communities. Not all ST
communities automatically qualify for forest rights; they need to demonstrate evidence of their
E
traditional dependence on the forests for their livelihoods and sustenance. So, Statement 2 is not
IN
correct.
The forest rights recognised under this Act in critical wildlife habitats of National Parks and
L
Sanctuaries may subsequently be modified or resettled, provided that no forest rights holders shall be
N
resettled or have their rights in any manner affected for the purposes of creating inviolate areas for
.O
wildlife conservation. So, Statement 3 is correct.
L
As per Forest Rights Act, 2006 and rules made there under, The Ministry of Tribal affairs is
IA
mandated with operability the responsibility for implementation of the Act lies with State
Governments/UT Administrations. The implementation of the Act has been carried out since its
R
inception as an ongoing process by various State Governments / UT Administrations. So, Statement

E
4 is not correct.
T
A
45. “Green credit initiative” supported by Indian government is related to

M
(a) It is an extension of the recently launched Carbon credit trading scheme,2023.

C
(b) It is a voluntary and follow up action of the LiFE campaign to incentivize pro-environmental
S
P
behaviour of stakeholders.
U
(c) It engages sovereign green bonds in the market to finance climate change and Ecological
conservation.
(d) It is a binding obligation for industries and companies to mandatorily finance climate change
initiatives.
EXPLANATION:
➢ Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the Green Credit Initiative on the side-lines of COP
28.The Green Credit Initiative has been conceptualized as a mechanism to incentivize voluntary pro-
planet actions, as an effective response to the challenge of climate change.
➢ It envisions the issue of Green Credits for plantations on waste/degraded lands and river catchment
areas, to rejuvenate and revive natural eco-systems.
➢ This global initiative aims to facilitate global collaboration, cooperation and partnership through
exchange of knowledge, experiences and best practices in planning, implementation and monitoring
(36-F)
SIA-F-GS I
of environment positive actions through programs/mechanisms like Green Credits.

➢ Green credits focus only on non-carbon benefits, as the carbon mitigation benefits are already
covered by carbon markets. The initiative essentially aligns the climate change discourse with the
sustainable development discourse. So, Option (c) is correct.
46. Which of the following organism perform Foot flagging to attract mates as well as to ward off
competition?
(a) Western Honey bees
(b) Dancing frogs
(c) Asian Hornet
E
(d) Slender Skimmer
IN
EXPLANATION:
➢ The dancing frogs that are found near the streams do a unique display to mate. The males stretch
L
up their hind legs one at a time and wave their webbed toes in the air in a rapid motion akin to a
N
dance. This is to attract mates as well as ward off competition, probably preferred because their
.O
mating calls are drowned out by the gurgling of the streams. This act is called “foot flagging” and
L
gives the species their name.

IA
➢ According to the Wildlife Trust of India the dancing frogs are the most threatened amphibian genus
of India. These are endemic to the Western Ghats. It belongs to the Micrixalus genus. It is also the
R
fifth most threatened genus in the world with 92 per cent of its species in the threatened category
E
T
A
M
C
S
P
U
47. With reference to International Crops research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), Consider the
following:
1. It is non-profit and international research organisation that conducts agricultural research for
development in sub-Saharan Africa and Asia.
(37-F)
SIA-F-GS I
2. The headquarters of ICRISAT is located in Bamako, capital of Mali in Africa.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is a pioneering non-
profit, non-political organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and
sub-Saharan Africa. The Organization is committed to developing and improving dryland farming and
E
agri-food systems to address the challenges of hunger, malnutrition, poverty, and environmental
IN
degradation affecting the 2.1 billion people residing in the drylands of Asia, Sub-Saharan Africa, and
beyond. So, Statement 1 is correct.
L
ICRISAT's headquarters are located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six
N
country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the CGIAR Consortium and the organization
.O
maintains offices across Eastern and Southern Africa, West and Central Africa. So, Statement 2 is
L
not correct.
IA
48. With reference to United Nation Forum on Forest, consider the following:
R
1. The forum was established by United Nation Economic and Social Council for conservation and
E
development of all types of forest.

T
2. The forum has Universal membership and it consist of all members of United nations and its
A
specialised agencies.
M
3. India is the founding member of this forum.

C

S
(a) Only one

P
(b) Only two

U
(c) All three

(d) None.
EXPLANATION:
In October 2000, the Economic and Social Council of the United Nations (ECOSOC), in its
Resolution established the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF), a subsidiary body with the
main objective to promote the management, conservation and sustainable development of all types
of forests and to strengthen long-term political commitment to this end. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The Forum has universal membership, and is composed of all Member States of the United Nations
and specialized agencies. The Forum meets annually at the UN Headquarters in New York. The UN
General Assembly adopted the first-ever UN Strategic Plan for Forests for the period of 2017-
(38-F)
SIA-F-GS I
2030.The eighteenth session of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF18), held in New York
from May 8-12, 2023, brought together delegates from around the world to discuss the relationship
between sustainable forest management (SFM), energy, and the achievement of the United Nations-
mandated Sustainable Development Goals. So, Statement 2 is correct.
India holds the distinction of being a founding member of UNFF. The Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change is organised a Country-Led Initiative (CLI) event as part of the United
Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) from 26-28 October, 2023 at the Forest Research Institute (FRI),
Dehradun, Uttarakhand.So, Statement 3 is correct.
E
1. The International Energy Agency releases World energy Outlook report.
IN
2. According to the report, India is expected to have highest growth in energy demand over the next
three decades.
L
3. India is not a member of International Energy Agency.
N
.O
(a) Only one
L
(b) Only two

IA
(c) All three

(d) None
R
EXPLANATION:
E
The World Energy Outlook is an annual report published by the International Energy Agency (IEA), an
T
A
autonomous agency within the framework of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD). The World Energy Outlook 2023 provides in-depth analysis and strategic
M
insights into every aspect of the global energy system. So, Statement 1 is correct.
C
According to the World Energy Outlook 2023, IEA said India will see the largest energy demand
S
P
growth of any country or region in the world over the next three decades. It projected India’s energy
U
supply to rise from 42 exajoules (EJ) in 2022 to 53.7 EJ in 2030 and 73 EJ in 2050 under stated
policies scenarios and 47.6 EJ by 2030 and 60.3 EJ by 2050 as per announced pledges. So,
The IEA is made up of 31 member countries. In addition, thanks to its successful open door policy to
emerging countries, the IEA family also includes thirteen association countries. Five countries are
seeking accession to full membership, Chile, Colombia, Israel, Latvia and Costa Rica. India, which
joined the IEA Family as an Association country in 2017, sent a formal request for full membership to
IEA ministers in October 2023. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
(39-F)
SIA-F-GS I
50. With reference to Comprehensive test Ban Treaty, consider the following:
1. It is a multilateral treaty on banning nuclear weapon test explosion and any other nuclear explosion
for both civilian and military purpose in all environments.
2. All five nuclear power states recognised under Non proliferation treaty has signed Comprehensive
test ban treaty.
3. Only India and Pakistan has neither ratified nor signed this treaty.
4. Recently, Russia withdrew its ratification from the treaty.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
E
(c) Only three
IN
(d) All four.
EXPLANATION:
L
The CTBT is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful
N
purposes. Although it was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996, it’s still in the
.O
ratification stage — 18 countries are yet to ratify (the process by which a state indicates its consent to
L
be bound to a treaty). So, Statement 1 is correct.

IA
On September 24, 1996, the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) was opened for
signature. All five nuclear weapons states recognized under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
R
(China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) signed the treaty, with 66 other
E
states following that day. Fiji became the first state to ratify the treaty on October 10, 1996. So,
T
A
The treaty was opened for signature in September 1996, and has been signed by 187 nations and
M
ratified by 178. The treaty cannot formally enter into force until it is ratified by 44 specific nations,
C
eight of which have yet to do so: India, China, Pakistan, North Korea, Israel, Iran, Egypt, and the
S
United States. India opposes CTBT because India considers it as a discriminative disarmament treaty.
P
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

U
Although Russia ratified the CTBT in 2000, it withdrew its ratification of the CTBT in 2023 to "mirror"
the posture of the United States as a treaty signatory, Russia remains obligated not to take any action
contrary to the object or purpose of the treaty, which bars all nuclear test explosions, at any yield. So,
(40-F)
SIA-F-GS I

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(d) All four. (c) Pneumatophore

2. The terms flocculation and Destratification are

1. Some respiration and photosynthesis groundwater

for biodiversity conservation. electrostatic precipitators. Which among the

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Carbon monoxide

(d) CFCs and HCFCs

11. With reference to radiation pollution, consider Statement-II:

correct and Statement-II is not the correct

12. Consider the following statements, explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

1. Iron cyanide and Thiocyanates

2. Metal oxides and sulphide

3. Alkaloids and chlorides (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is

4. Cellulose fibers and wood sugar organic correct.

Which of the above pollutants are present in

(a) One only

Which of the above pairs are correct?

(b) Two only

(c) Patch reef

(d) Barrier reef

(c) 1 and 3 only

16. With reference to EIA 2020 notification,

1. Solar photo voltaic power projects.

2. Coal and non-coal mineral prospecting

3. Minor irrigation projects involving consider the following:

culturable command area upto 2000 State/UT Beaches

hectare 1. Kerala - Kovalam

2. Mercury - Minamata is located?

4. Leaching from garbage dumps.

How many of the above are point source of

1. These are the forest with high seasonal

rainfall andstrong seasonal climates. (b) Two only

(c) Three only

(d) All four

23. With reference to photochemical smog,

(c) Only Three (a) 1 only

4. CHCs and HCFCs Air conditioner and

Select the correct answer code:

(a) One only

growth of 27. E-waste is not hazardous when it is stocked

indigenous safe or recycled through scientific means

Bacteria however they are hazardous when they aren’t

2. Bio- Microorganisms disposed properly?

augmentation are imported to 1. Barium

4. Sandal wood Select the correct answer code:

the number of species and the population

plant trees on their own farm by (a) Montane ecosystem

distributing the free or subsidized (b) Grassland ecosystem

(c) Alpine ecosystem

2. The forest department plant wood lots

32. With reference to desert ecosystem, Consider

the following statements,

1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest (a) Only one

Select the correct answer code:

1. Fungi (a) 1 only