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GENERAL STUDIES
(Paper-I)
CSE (P) 2024
Detailed
Explanation
DELHI CENTRE BHOPAL CENTRE: JAIPUR CENTRE: PRAYAGRAJ CENTRE:

Old Rajinder Nagar: Mukherjee Nagar: Plot No. 46 Zone - 2, A-1, Lion’s Colony, Sitabari, 31/31 Sardar Patel Marg,
27-B, Pusa Road, Metro 1422, Main Mukherjee M.P Nagar, Bhopal - 462011 Near The Theme Hotel, Civil Lines, Prayagraj,
Pillar no. 118, Near Karol Phone: 8827664612,
Nagar Road, Tonk Road, Jaipur-302018 Uttar Pradesh - 211001
Bagh Metro, 8081300200
Near Batra Cinema, Phone: 9358200511 Phone: 9958857757
New Delhi-110060 New Delhi-110009
Phone: 8081300200 Phone: 8081300200
DELHI CENTRE: Old Rajinder Nagar: 27-B, Pusa Road, Metro Pillar no. 118, Near Karol Bagh Metro, New Delhi-110060 | Phone: 8081300200
Mukherjee Nagar: 1422, Main Mukherjee Nagar Road, Near Batra Cinema, New Delhi-110009 | Phone: 8081300200 Page
BHOPAL CENTRE: Plot No. 46 Zone - 2, M.P Nagar, Bhopal - 462011 | Phone: 8827664612, 8081300200
JAIPUR CENTRE: A-1, Lion’s Colony, Sitabari, Near The Theme Hotel, Tonk Road, Jaipur-302018 | Phone: 9358200511
www.nextias.com
PRAYAGRAJ CENTRE: 31/31 Sardar Patel Marg, Civil Lines, Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh - 211001 | Phone: 9958857757
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CSE 2024 Preliminary Exam
General Studies (Paper-I): SET-D
Expected CSE 2024 Cutoff (Prelims)

Year General EWS OBC SC ST
2024 95 ± 3 88 ± 3 93 ± 3 81 ± 3 75 ± 3
Note: The cutoff is based on a comprehensive analysis of data collected from our students and the
institute's own assessment. However, please note that despite our best efforts to provide a scientifically
accurate prediction, the actual cutoff may vary.
CSE Year-wise Cutoff (Prelims)

Year General EWS OBC SC ST
2023 75.41 68.02 74.75 59.25 47.82
2022 88.22 82.83 87.54 74.08 69.35
2021 87.54 80.14 84.85 75.41 70.71
General Studies (Paper-I)

Analysis of CSE 2024 Preliminary Examination
SI. Subjects Number of Questions
1. Economy 14
2. Environment 15
3. Geography 18
4. History 12
5. Polity 15
6. Science & Technology 13
7. Miscellaneous (IR, Society Etc.) 13
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Reflections from NEXT IAS Foundation Class
1 Direct Coverage from class notes
42 questions in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2024 were directly and
verbatim covered in NEXT IAS GS Foundation classes. Additionally, numerous other
questions, particularly those related to the economy and applied concepts, could be
solved by using the concepts taught in our classes.
2 Test Series Alignment
Several questions in the NEXT IAS Prelims Test Series and Anubhav Test Series
completely or partially matched the UPSC Prelims paper. We will upload a separate
document on the website with the exact number of matches.
3 Foreseeing New Question Patterns
UPSC introduced a format of the question involving a three-statement based assertion-

reason, which we had already incorporated in Anubhav Test 5.
Similarly, the "How many" pattern of questions was anticipated and included in Anubhav
(P) 2021 prior to UPSC.
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Q.1 How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (d)
Exp. Theme: Delimitation Commission.
Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a
province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a high power body known as Delimitation
Commission. In India, Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation
Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and
in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have
the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

Class Notes_Weekly Current Affairs
Q.2 The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of
the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
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Ans. (a)
Exp. Theme: 8th Schedule
Option (a) is the correct answer: The Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992 added four languages i.e.
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali.
Additional Information: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003
which came into force in 2004.
Q.3 Consider the following pairs:
Party Its Leader

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (b)
Exp. Pair 1 is correct:
The Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS) is credited to have three founders: Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Balraj Madhok,
and Deendayal Upadhyaya. While these three individuals played a role in establishing the BJS, Shyama Prasad
Mukherjee is often given the main credit.
Pair 2 is incorrect:
The Socialist Party is an independent incarnation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) formed in 1934 within
the Congress. The CSP was founded by Jaiprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, Dr Ram Manohar Lohia. It
merged itself into the Janata Party in 1977 immediately after the independence.
Pair 3 is correct:
As the impact of emergency was felt by everyone, Babu Jagjivan Ram resigned from the Cabinet and the Congress
Party on 2 February 1977. He formed his own party, ‘Congress for Democracy’ (CFD) on 5 February 1977.
Pair 4 is incorrect:
The founder of the Swatantra Party is C. Rajagopalachari. He was a prominent figure in Indian politics, having
served as the last Governor-General of India before it became a republic.
Q.4 Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp. Theme: Urban Local Bodies
Statement 1 is correct: Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution of India. This part was
added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 and deals with the Municipalities, including their composition, powers,
and responsibilities.
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Statement 2 is correct: Emergency provisions are provided in Part XVIII of the Constitution. This part outlines
the various types of emergencies (National Emergency, State Emergency, and Financial Emergency) and the
procedures for their proclamation and effects.
Statement 3 is correct: Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the
Constitution. Article 368, which is in Part XX, details the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the
procedure for it.
5. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Ans. (c)
Exp. Theme: Schedule of Indian Constitution.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce is mentioned under entry 42 of Union List.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Inter-State migration is under Union List
Satement 3 is correct: inter-State quarantine is mentioned in entry 81 of Union list. Statement D is incorrect:
Corporation tax is placed under entry 85 of the Union list.
Additional Information: The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, outlined in Article 246, delineates the
distribution of powers and responsibilities between the Union (central government) and the States. This schedule
is divided into three lists: Union List (List I) , State List (List II), and Concurrent List (List III)
6. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right
to Privacy?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
Ans. (d)
Exp. Theme: Fundamental Right
Explanation: The right to privacy in India was recognized as a fundamental right by the Supreme Court of India in
the landmark judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs. Union of India and Ors in 2017. The Supreme
Court ruled that the right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the
right to life and personal liberty.
Key aspects of the judgment:
1. Right to Privacy: The court held that privacy is an inherent and fundamental right, essential for human dignity
and autonomy.
2. Article 21: Privacy falls within the ambit of Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and liberty.
3. Three-fold test: The court established a three-fold test to determine if a privacy violation occurs:
- Existence of a privacy interest
- Unjustified intrusion by the state or non-state actors
- Balance between individual privacy and state interests
4. Data protection: The judgment emphasized the need for data protection laws to safeguard personal information.
5. Aadhaar scheme: The court examined the Aadhaar scheme, holding that while it serves a legitimate state
interest, it must be balanced against individual privacy concerns.
6. Privacy as a fundamental right: The judgment overruled earlier decisions that had limited privacy to specific
contexts, instead establishing it as a broad, fundamental right.
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Class Notes_Polity and Weekly Current Affairs
7. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Exp. The duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:
1. To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
2. To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters. (Hence, Statement
3 is correct)
3. To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (Hence, Statement 1 is correct)
4. To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.
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5. To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
6. To function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.
7. To bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs
and maintenance, etc of the three Services.
8. To ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalise it through jointness among the Services.
9. To implement Five-Year Defence Capital Acquisition Plan and Two-Year roll-on Annual Acquisition Plans, as a
follow up of Integrated Capability Development Plan.
10. To assign inter-services prioritisation to capital acquisition proposals based on the anticipated budget.
11. To bring about reforms in the functioning of three Services with the aim to augment combat capabilities of the
Armed Forces by reducing wasteful expenditure.

Class Notes_Science & Technology
8. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing
of their basic needs is called:
(a) Operations Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madad
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer: Operation Sadbhavana is an initiative by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir
and in the North East region to address the basic needs and development requirements of the local population
in remote areas. It aims to win the hearts and minds of the people by providing them with essential amenities and
infrastructure.
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9. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
(a) Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Ans. (a)
Exp. The border between the United States and Canada is the longest border between any two countries in the world.
US and Canada - 8,891 kilometers
Argentine and Chile - 5,308 kilometers
India and China - 3488 kilometers
Kazakhstan and Russia - 7,800 kilometers (second longest border in the world)
US and Canada border is also the longest non-militarized and non-fenced border in the world.
10. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok
Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
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Exp. Theme: Parliament
Statement 1 is correct: The Committee of Privileges in the Lok Sabha had recommended the constitution of an
Ethics Committee during the 13th Lok Sabha. The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics
Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with
evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”.
If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed. The Speaker can refer to the Committee any complaint
against an MP.
Statement 3 is correct: The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters
that are sub judice. The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It makes
its recommendations after evaluating the complaint.

11. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Ans. (d)
Exp. Option (d) is the correct answer:
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Sinha was elected to the Constituent Assembly from Bihar on a Congress Party ticket. He served as interim
President of the Assembly before Rajendra Prasad was formally appointed as President. Although he did not
actively participate in the debates, he submitted important memorandums on tribal issues in Bihar to the Tribal and
Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than Assam) Sub-Committee and on the integration of Bihari territory
with West Bengal to the President.
12. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces
and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Exp. The correct answer is (a) 1 only.
Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India Act, 1935, envisioned a federal system for India. This federation
aimed to unite the British Indian provinces and princely states under a central government. However, the participation
of princely states remained partial and the Act itself wasn’t fully implemented.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Defence and Foreign Affairs remained under the control of the Viceroy, not the federal
legislature established by the Act. These crucial aspects were not delegated to the federal body.
Even though the Act laid the groundwork for an eventual federation, it didn’t grant complete autonomy or control
over essential matters like defense and foreign policy to the federal legislature.

Class Notes_History
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13. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
(a) Kavyalankara
(b) Natyashastra
(c) Madhyama vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is correct: Madhyama Vyayoga refers to a one-act play in Sanskrit. Here’s some information about it:
Authorship: Traditionally attributed to the playwright Bhasa, though there’s debate about the exact timeframe.
Some scholars believe Bhasa lived much later than originally thought.
Genre: Classified as a Vyayoga, a specific type of Sanskrit drama.
Plot: The play revolves around two key points:
A comedic misunderstanding due to a shared name - Bhima, the middle Pandava prince, and the middle son of a
priest named Keshav Das.
The reunion of Bhima with his son, Ghatotkacha. This particular event isn’t part of the traditional Mahabharata story.

Class Notes_History
14. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author
of a commentary on:
(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga
(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(d) Lalitavistara
Ans. (c)
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Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer: Sarvastivada Vinaya is the monastic code of the Sarvastivada school, a major
branch of Early Buddhism. Historical records credit Sanghabhuti with authoring a commentary on this specific
Vinaya text.
15. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (b)
Exp. Option (b) is correct answer:
1. Santiniketan: Santiniketan, West Bengal has been inscribed on UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites during
the ongoing 45th session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee in Riyadh, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia on
September 17, 2023.
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas: The Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebid, and Somanathapur in Karnataka
were declared as UNESCO World Heritage Sites on September 18, 2023.

16. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way
of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 2 and 3
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Ans. (d)
Exp. Theme: Amendment to Constitution .
Explanation: Article 368 in Constitution of India: Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in
exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution
in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.
17. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. south Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population
or declining population?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 5 only
Ans. (a)
Exp. Italy, Japan, and South Korea are frequently mentioned in the media due to their low birth rates, aging populations,
and/or declining populations.
Italy and Japan are known for having some of the oldest populations in the world, with a high proportion of elderly
people and a low fertility rate.
South Korea has seen a rapid decline in birth rates in recent years, leading to concerns about an aging population
and a shrinking workforce.
While Nigeria and South Africa face demographic challenges, they are not typically highlighted in the media for
low birth rates or aging populations. They are more often associated with rapid population growth and a young
population.

Class Notes_Indian Society
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18. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
Exp. Theme: Parlaiment
Statement 1 and 2 is correct: As per article 109, Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
- After passage in Lok Sabha, the Bill is sent to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) for recommendations within 14
days.
- Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations; it cannot amend the Bill.
Statement 3 is incorrerct: Lok Sabha can accept or reject Rajya Sabha’s recommendations.
Statement 4 is correct: If Lok Sabha accepts recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses.If Lok
Sabha rejects recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed by both Houses in its original form If Rajya Sabha
doesn’t return the Bill within 14 days, it is deemed passed by both Houses in its original form.Means Rajya Sabha
can not reject the Bill .

Class Notes_Polity
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19. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence
forces?
Army Airforce Navy

1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander
2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral
3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel Group Captain Captain
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
Exp. Brigadier (Army) - Air Commodore (Air Force) - Commander (Navy) is not correct. The correct equivalent in the
Navy is Commodore.
Major General (Army) - Air Vice Marshal (Air Force) - Vice Admiral (Navy) is not correct. The correct equivalent in
the Navy is Rear Admiral.
Major (Army) - Squadron Leader (Air Force) - Lieutenant Commander (Navy) is correct.
Lieutenant Colonel (Army) - Group Captain (Air Force) - Captain (Navy) is not correct. The correct equivalent in the
Navy is Commander.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
20. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the
amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the Correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
Exp. Option (a) is the correct answer: As per the provisions of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002, the
North Eastern Council shall consist of the following members:
(i) the person or persons for the time being holding the office of the Governor of the States (Hence, 1 is correct)
(ii) the Chief Ministers of the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland Sikkim
and Tripura; (Hence, 2 is correct)
(iii) three members to be nominated by the President (Hence, 3 is correct)
21. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the
Scheduled Castes.
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Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (c)
Exp. Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions of the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women’s Reservation Bill) are not
linked to a specific Lok Sabha. They come into effect after the bill is passed and becomes an act. [ The reservation
will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on
the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women.]
Statement 2 is correct: The act is designed to be in force for 15 years after it becomes an act. This is a sunset
clause that necessitates a review of the legislation after this period.
Statement 3 is correct: The act does include provisions for reserving seats for Scheduled Caste women within the
broader quota reserved for Scheduled Castes. This aims to ensure representation for women within this specific
marginalized group.

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22. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: Exercise Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not
Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is correct: The exercise did commence in Aundh (Pune).
Statement 3 is correct: Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was one of the goals of this exercise.
Statement 4 is correct: The Indian Air Force participated in this exercise.
23. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy
Ans. (c)
Exp. Theme: Judiciary.
Statement 1 is incorrect:. A Writ of Prohibition specifically targets judicial or quasi-judicial bodies, not individual
government officers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The writ does not direct legislative bodies to pass laws.
Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court and any High Court of India can issue a prohibition writ under Article
32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India respectively. Writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a
lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does
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not possess. This writ can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against
administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The writ is not used to direct the government regarding policies; instead, other writs like
Mandamus or Certiorari might be used for such purposes.

Class Notes_Polity
19
24. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Exp. Theme: SC/ST:
Explanation The Constitution of India in Article 366 (25) prescribe that the Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or
tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 of the Constitution to be Scheduled Tribes.
Statement 1 is incorrect: 342(1) Scheduled Tribes - the President may with respect to any State or Union Territory,
and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by a public notification, specify the tribes or
tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State
or Union Territory as the case may be.
(2) Parliament may be law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued
under clause (1) any tribe or tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community, but save as
aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.
Statement 2 is correct : The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled
Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the
House of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Exp. Theme: Union Budget.
Explanation: The Union Budget of India, also known as the Annual Financial Statement, is a comprehensive
statement of the government’s finances, including its revenue and expenditure for a particular fiscal year. The
process and requirements related to the Union Budget are enshrined in the Constitution of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India contains the following provisions with regard to the enactment
of Annual Financial Statement:
(1) The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a
statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year.
Statement 2 is correct: No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.
26. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
(a) Bhupender Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Ans. (d)
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Exp. Dr. Jaishankar, renowned for his earlier release, “The India Way” (2020), continues to captivate audiences with his
new book that picks up from where the first left off-why India is a civilisational power and its engagement with global
forces and powers.
27. Consider the following pairs:
Country Reason for being in the news

1. Argentina Worst economic crisis
2. Sudan War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3. Turkey Rescinded its membership of NATO
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
Ans. (b)
Exp. Argentina: Argentina has been experiencing a severe economic crisis, including high inflation, debt, and poverty.
(Hence, Pair 1 is correct)
Sudan: It has been in the news due to the ongoing conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the
Rapid Support Forces (RSF) paramilitary group.
Turkey: Turkey has not rescinded its membership in NATO.


Statement-I
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II
Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
21
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement I is correct: The Sumed pipeline (Suez-Mediterranean pipeline) is indeed a strategic route for
transporting crude oil from the Persian Gulf region to Europe. It bypasses the Suez Canal, offering a shorter and
more efficient route.
Statement II is correct: The Sumed pipeline does connect the Red Sea (at Ain Sukhna) to the Mediterranean
Sea (at Sidi Kerir). This geographical connection is what makes it a crucial alternative route for oil shipments, thus
explaining the strategic importance mentioned in Statement I.

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Exp. Statement 1 is correct:
The Red Sea extends from Suez, Egypt, southward for about 1,200 miles (1,930 kilometers) to the strait of Bab el-
Mandeb. The climate is of monsoon type but with greater dryness due to the sea’s location between the deserts of
North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula. The Red Sea region thus receives very little precipitation in any form,
Statement 2 is correct:
No major rivers drain into the Red Sea, so it does not receive significant inflows of freshwater from rivers. Although
occasional streams may contribute water, the amount they add is minimal. Additionally, the region experiences very
little precipitation, making the water from these streams even more insignificant.
Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct, hence Option C is correct answer
30. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur
dioxide emissions?
(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels.
Ans. (d)
Exp. According to Environment Protection Agency, The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil
fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.
Smaller sources of SO2 emissions include:
industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore;
natural sources such as volcanoes; and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment that burn fuel
with a high sulfur content.
22
Class Notes_Environment

Statement-I:
If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to
exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II:
The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: If the Treasury Department wants to change the date it repays investors, it would need
to notify Fedwire the day before a payment is due, so investors would know the government was about to default
the night before it happened.
USA treasury bond holder can put litigation against the U.S. government for missed payments. (The first thing to
know is that T-bills and U.S. bonds don’t come with complicated purchase agreements. U.S. debt is sold under the
full faith and credit of the government as a simple obligation to pay)
Statement 2 is correct: The federal government borrows money from the public by issuing securities—bills, notes,
and bonds—through the Treasury. Treasury securities are attractive to investors because they are:
1. Backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government
2. Offered in a wide range of maturities
23

Statement-l:
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II:
The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II incorrect
Ans. (c)
Exp. Syndicated lending primarily aims to distribute the risk of a borrower default across numerous lenders, banks,
or institutional investors, such as pension funds and hedge funds. Syndicated loans are also employed in the
leveraged buyout market to support significant business deals.
Statement 1 is correct: Syndicating allows lenders to spread risk and take part in financial opportunities that may
be too large for their individual capital base.
Statement 2 is not correct: Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for
a single borrower. The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government. The loan can
involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two.
33. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp. Digital currency refers to any currency that is available in electronic form. The Digital Rupee is virtual money,
serving the same purpose as physical money. It is a form of digital currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI), the country’s central bank. The Digital Rupee is a centralized digital currency directly regulated by the RBI,
maintaining the stability and trust associated with traditional currencies.
Statement 1 is correct: Reserve Bank broadly defines CBDC as the legal tender issued by a central bank in a
digital form. It is akin to sovereign paper currency but takes a different form, exchangeable at par with the existing
currency and shall be accepted as a medium of payment, legal tender and a safe store of value.
Statement 2 is correct: Digital Currency would appear as liability on a central bank’s balance sheet.
Statement 3 is not correct: It has no link with its issuance with the inflation in india.
Statement 4 is correct: The features of digital currency include:
CBDC is sovereign currency issued by Central Banks in alignment with their monetary policy
It appears as a liability on the central bank’s balance sheet
Must be accepted as a medium of payment, legal tender, and a safe store of value by all citizens, enterprises, and
government agencies.
24
Freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash
Fungible legal tender for which holders need not have a bank account
Expected to lower the cost of issuance of money and transactions

34. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Ans. (b)
Exp. The correct answer is Option (B) 2 and 3 only.
Nayaputta (1): This term is not a common epithet used for Gautama Buddha.
Shakyamuni (2): This refers to the Buddha’s origin. “Shakya” signifies his clan, and “muni” translates to “sage” or
“saint.” So, Shakyamuni literally means “sage of the Shakya clan.”
Tathagata (3): This is a prominent epithet for Gautama Buddha. It has multiple interpretations, including “Thus
Gone” or “Thus Come,” signifying his enlightened state and unique path.
Therefore, only options (2) and (3) - Shakyamuni and Tathagata - are epithets specifically associated with Gautama
Buddha.
25
Class Notes_History
35. In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Archaeological State Description

1. Chandraketugarh Odisha Trading Port town
2. Inamgaon Maharashtra Chalcolithic
3. Mangadu Kerala Megalithic
4. Salihundum Andhra Pradesh Rock-cut shrine
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
Exp. Chandraketugarh (West Bengal): Chandraketugarh is actually an ancient trading town located in West Bengal.
Inamgaon (Maharashtra): This is a correct match. Inamgaon in Maharashtra is a well-known Chalcolithic site.
Mangadu (Kerala): This is a correct match. Mangadu in Kerala is famous for its Megalithic burial structures.
Salihundam (Andhra Pradesh): This is a incorrect match. Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is known for its Buddhist
shrines, not rock-cut caves.
26
Class Notes_History
36. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
(a) Krishnadevaraya
(b) Narasimha Saluva
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah
Ans. (a)
Exp. Option (a) is the correct answer: Krishnadevaraya, the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, allowed the Portuguese
to build a fort at Bhatkal in 1510. He maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese.
37. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, statements: consider the following
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in
case of had harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before
the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Exp. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ryotwari Settlement, introduced later by Thomas Munro, fixed land revenue directly
with peasants (ryots).
Statement 2 is correct: The Permanent Settlement, introduced by Cornwallis, fixed the land revenue amount with
zamindars permanently. If a zamindar failed to pay the fixed amount on time, the British could seize their zamindari
through sale. In fact, according to the Sunset Law, if payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date, the
zamindari was liable to be auctioned.
Therefore, only statement 2 reflects a feature of the Permanent Settlement implemented by Cornwallis.
27
Class Notes_History

1. There are parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)
Exp. The correct answer is (B) 2 only.
Upanishads contain Parables: The Upanishads are known to use parables and stories to explain complex
philosophical concepts. A famous example is the parable of the two birds in the Mundaka Upanishad, which
illustrates the relationship between the individual self (Atman) and the universal self (Brahman).
Upanishads Predate Puranas: The Upanishads are generally dated to be composed between 800 BCE and 400
BCE, while the Puranas are considered much later works, ranging from 300 BCE to 1300 CE.
Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect because Upanishads do contain parables, and statement 2 is correct because
Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
28
Class Notes_History

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). The IGC is an intergovernmental
organization that seeks to further international cooperation in grains trade. India has been a member of the IGC.
Statement 2 is not correct: Membership in the International Grains Council is not a prerequisite for a country to
export or import rice and wheat. Countries can trade these grains without being members of the IGC.
Hence, the answer is (a)
29
40. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) Chhau dance
(b) Durga puja
(c) Garba dance
(d) Kumbh mela
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer: Garba of Gujarat was recently inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of
the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. A ritualistic and devotional dance performed throughout the State of
Gujarat, and across India, Garba is celebrated for nine days during the festival of Navaratri.


Statement-I:
There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II:
There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II in correct
Ans. (a)
Exp. The Sahel is a semi-arid region in Africa that stretches from the Atlantic Ocean to the Red Sea, just south of the
Sahara Desert. It is a transitional zone between the desert and the savanna and is characterized by its hot, dry
climate, sparse vegetation, and nomadic pastoralist populations.
Statement I is correct: The Sahel region has been experiencing significant instability and a worsening security
situation due to various factors, including political instability, extremist groups, poverty, and climate change.
30
Statement II is correct: There have been multiple military takeovers and coups in the Sahel region in recent years
(e.g., Mali, Burkina Faso). These coups contribute directly to the political instability and insecurity in the region, thus
explaining Statement I.

Statement-I:
India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II:
In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: In entire 2022-23 (September-August), India had imported 50,000 boxes of apple from
the US whereas prior to the additional duty levied, the annual import by India was about 5 million boxes.
Statement 2 is correct: India has specific regulations regarding the import of genetically modified (GM) food. As
of March 1, 2021, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) requires a “non-GM origin and GM-
free certificate” issued by the competent national authority of the exporting country for certain food products. This
regulation applies to 24 listed food items imported into India
43. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He She shall not preside
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak
3. He She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Exp. Theme: Parliament.
Statement 1 is correct : As per Article 96 of Constitution of India, The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not to
preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration
(1) At any sitting of the House of the People, while any resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is
under consideration, the Speaker, or while any resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker from his office is
under consideration, the Deputy Speaker, shall not, though he is present, preside, and the provisions of clause
(2) of article 95 shall apply in relation to every such sitting as they apply in relation to a sitting from which the
Speaker, or, as the case may be, the Deputy Speaker, is absent.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker shall have the right to speak in and otherwise to take part in the proceedings
of, the House of the People while any resolution for his removal from office is under consideration in the House
and shall, notwithstanding anything in article 100, be entitled to vote only in the first instance (hence statement 3 is
incorrect ) on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of
votes.
31
Class Notes_Polity
44. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting
lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (b)
Exp. Theme : Parliament When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the position w.r.t. lapsing of bills is as follows:
a. a bill pending in LS, whether originating in LS or transmitted to it by RS, lapses (. statement 1 is correct.)
b. a bill passed by LS, but pending in RS lapses. (Statement 2 is Correct.)
c. a bill not passed by the two houses die to disagreement and if the President has notified the holding of joint sitting
before the dissolution of LS, does not lapse. (Statement 3 is incorrect).
d. a bill pending in RS, but not passes by LS, does not lapse
e. a bill passed by both houses, but pending assent of President, does not lapse
f. a bill passed by both houses, but returned by President for reconsideration of houses, does not lapse
45. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the
President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so
on the advice of the Council of Ministers
32
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c)
Exp. Theme: Parliament.
Statement 1 is incorrect : The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in most matters, including
prorogation of a House. Therefore, prorogation does require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct : Prorogation typically occurs after the House has been adjourned sine die( means without
setting a date for resumption.) However, the President does have the power to prorogue a House even if it is in
session, although this is less common.
Statement 3 is correct : Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is an action taken by the President based on the advice of the
Council of Ministers. There are exceptional circumstances, such as a vote of no confidence, where the President
might act independently, but these are rare.

Statement-I:
The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II:
The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean
technology by that time.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains
Ans. (c)
Exp. Statement I is correct: The European Parliament did approve the Net-Zero Industry Act recently. This act aims to
accelerate the production of clean technologies within the EU.
Statement II is incorrect: The EU’s target for carbon neutrality is 2050, not 2040. While the Net-Zero Industry
Act is a step towards achieving this goal, the EU does not aim to develop all of its clean technology by that time.
International collaboration and technology transfer will still play a role.”

Statement-I:
Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its
people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II:
Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement I is not correct: Venezuela has not recently achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis. The
country has been facing a severe economic and humanitarian crisis for years, leading to widespread poverty,
33
hyperinflation, and shortages of basic goods. This crisis has caused millions of Venezuelans to flee the country as
refugees and migrants.
Statement II is correct: Venezuela does have the world’s largest proven oil reserves. However, despite this vast
resource, the country’s oil industry has been mismanaged and has suffered from underinvestment, leading to a
decline in production and a significant decrease in revenue. This decline in oil production has contributed to the
economic crisis in Venezuela.
48. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the
languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp. All the statements are correct: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land
Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st
April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.
Cadastral Maps digitized is more than 68% in 28 States/ UTs (2,52,51,446 maps out of total 3,69,86,358 maps)
Currently, the Records of Rights in States and Union Territories are maintained in local languages. The linguistic
barriers pose serious challenges for access of information and usage in understandable form. In order to address
the problem of linguistic barriers in land governance, the Government with the technical support of Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of
Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. Pilot test is underway
in 8 States - Bihar, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Puducherry, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nādu, Tripura and UT of Jammu &
Kashmir.

34
49. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third
trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services
at nearby government health facilities.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct : PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their
2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities. Under SUMAN Yojana or Surakshit
Matritva Aashwasan Yojana , pregnant women, sick newborns, and mothers receive zero expense access up to six
months after delivery
Statement 2 is correct: OBGY specialists/ Radiologist/physicians from private sector would be encouraged to
provide voluntary services at public health facilities where government sector practitioners are not available or
inadequate.

50. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age
of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
35
Ans. (b)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct : Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory
Pension Scheme for Unorganized Workers for entry age of 18 to 40 years with monthly income of Rs. 15000 or less.
Statement 2 is correct: The subscriber’s contributions to PM-SYM shall be made through ‘auto-debit’ facility
from his/ her savings bank account/ Jan- Dhan account. The subscriber is required to contribute the prescribed
contribution amount from the age of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years.
Statement 3 is correct : The benefit of Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan yojana is only after attaining the
age of 60 years in the form of monthly pension of Rs. 3000/-. As such no registered worker under this scheme has
attained the age of 60 years.
Statement 4 is not correct :It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme under which the beneficiary would
receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years and if the beneficiary
dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension
is applicable only to spouse.


Statement-I:
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II:
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
36
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct :
The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The atmosphere is largely transparent to short
wave solar radiation
The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface, which heats the
earth’s surface.
The earth after being heated by insolation transmits the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in long wave
form. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the long wave radiations
Thus, atmosphere is heated more by the terrestrial radiation than by the solar radiations. Hence Statement 1 is not
correct.
Statement 2 is correct :
Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (such as water vapor and carbon dioxide) absorb most of the Earth’s emitted
longwave infrared radiation, which heats the lower atmosphere.
Increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane increase the temperature
of the lower atmosphere by restricting the outward passage of emitted radiation, resulting in “global warming,” or,
more broadly, global climate change.
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct, hence Option D is the correct answer.

Class Notes_Environment, Geography and Weekly Current Affairs
37

Statement-I:
Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
38
Statement-II:
At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains
Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement 1 is correct :
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a
height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
Statement 2 is correct
Due to the intense heating at the equator, strong convection currents are generated, which transport air to greater
heights and increase the height of the troposphere.
Both Statement I and II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.

Class Notes_Geography
39
53. Consider the following

1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (d)
Exp. All are correct: In addition to lava, other materials expelled during a volcanic eruption include pyroclastic debris,
volcanic bombs, ash, dust, and gases such as nitrogen compounds, sulfur compounds, and trace amounts of
chlorine, hydrogen, and argon. Hence correct answer is option (d).

54. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder
and the isotherms bend towards the north.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
40
In general the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally
parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially
in the northern hemisphere.
In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the
effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced. In January the isotherms deviate to the north over
the ocean and to the south over the continent.
Statement 2 is not correct:
It can be seen in the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic
drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the
temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe

55. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
(a) Algeria and Morocco
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(c) Cote d’ Ivoire Coast and Ghana
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique
Ans. (c)
Exp. Côte d’Ivoire is the leading producer, accounting for one-third of the world’s cocoa production. Ghana is the
second largest cocoa producer, following Côte d’Ivoire.
41
56. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of
the following sequences is correct?
(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak
Ans. (b)
Exp. The correct sequence is - Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak and Kosi
42

Statement-I:
Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II:
Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III:
Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Ans. (a)
Exp. Rainwater contributes to the weathering process because it contains both oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are
crucial for chemical reactions that break down rocks and minerals.
As rainwater falls through the atmosphere, it absorbs carbon dioxide (CO₂), forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) when it
combines with water (H₂O).
This weak acid is effective in chemically weathering certain types of rocks, particularly those containing calcium
carbonate (like limestone).
Calcium carbonate dissolves in the acidic water, forming calcium bicarbonate, which is soluble and can be washed
away, leading to the gradual breakdown of the rock.
Rainwater also contains dissolved oxygen (O₂), which is essential for oxidation reactions. These reactions are
particularly significant for weathering rocks that contain iron. When iron-bearing minerals are exposed to oxygen
and water, they undergo oxidation to form iron oxides, commonly known as rust. This reaction forms iron hydroxide,
which further breaks down into iron oxide, weakening the rock structure and contributing to its disintegration..
58. Consider the following countries:

1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (b)
Exp.
North Sea, shallow, northeastern arm of the Atlantic Ocean, located between the British Isles and the mainland of
northwestern Europe.
The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west, the Orkney and Shetland islands to
the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and
Belgium and France to the south.
It is connected to the Atlantic by the Strait of Dover and the English Channel and opens directly onto the ocean
between the Orkney and Shetland islands and between the Shetland Islands and Norway.
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Finland and Russia do not share their border with the North Sea.

59. Consider the following information:
Waterfall Region River

1. Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada
2. Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha
3. Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
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Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct:
Dhuandhar Falls is situated in Jabalpur. It is an important place of tourism in the whole of Madhya Pradesh. The
shade of this fall falling from a height of 10 metres is unique. It originates from Narmada river. It does not fall in
Malwa region.
The Hundru Falls of Ranchi (eastern side of Chota Nagpur Plateau) is created on the course of the Subarnarekha
River, where it falls from a height of 320 feet creating the highest waterfalls of Jharkhand.
Statement 3 is not correct :
Jog Falls or Gersoppa Falls is created by the Sharavathi River falling from a height of 253 m, making it the second-
highest plunge waterfall in India.
It is located near Sagara, Shimoga District of Karnataka state, and lies in Western Ghats (Malenadu)
60. Consider the following information:
Region Name of the mountain range Type of mountain

1. Central Vosges Fold mountain
2. Europe Alps Block mountain
3. North America Appalachians Fold mountain
4. South America Andes Fold mountain
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (b)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct :
Vosges, a type of Block mountain, massif extending west of the Rhine River Valley in eastern France, not in Central
Asia.
Alps are fold mountains, a small segment of a discontinuous mountain chain that stretches from the Atlas Mountains
of North Africa across southern Europe and Asia to beyond the Himalayas.
Appalachian Mountains, classified as fold mountains, great highland system of North America, the eastern
counterpart of the Rocky Mountains.
The Andes are the world’s longest mountain chain. They stretch along the west coast of South America.
Here, the Nazca plate is moving down below the South American plate. The Andes are mostly being folded up from
the rocks of the South American plate. Hence are fold mountains.
61. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles
Ans. (c)
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Exp. Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater all are insects.
Cicada, (family Cicadidae), family of more than 3,000 species of sound-producing insects. Cicadas are found in
tropical and temperate areas worldwide and occur in deserts, grasslands, and forests.
Froghopper, (family Cercopidae), any of numerous species of small (less than 1.5 cm [0.6 inch] long) hopping
insects (order Homoptera), worldwide in distribution, that produce a frothy substance known as spittle.
Common pond skaters (family Gerridae) are predatory insects which use water repellent hairs on their feet to ‘skate’
across water surfaces to catch their prey. Sensitive hairs on their body and legs detect the vibrations caused by the
movements of other small insects upon the water surface.

Statement-I:
Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II:
Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Ans. (a)
Chewing gum doesn’t biodegrade; it can take up to 25 years to decompose naturally, causing long-lasting
environmental harm. Beyond its environmental footprint, non-sustainable gum affects aquatic ecosystems too.
Discarded gum often ends up in water bodies, where its chemicals can harm marine life and disrupt delicate
ecosystems.
Chewing gum contains plastic. The ingredient know as “gum base” in the list of ingredients in chewing gum is
largely made of polyvinyl acetate, which is not bio-degradable and remains in enviornment for a very long time.
Hence, both statement 2 and statement 1 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1
63. Consider the following pair:

Country Animal found in its natural habitat
1. Brazil Indri
2. Indonesia Elk
3. Madagascar Bonobo
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(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 not correct:
Indri indri is considered to be the largest of the surviving lemur species. It is slender, long-limbed primate found
in the forests of Madagascar. The indri is an endangered species found only in remote parts of northeastern
Madagascar
Elk, (Cervus elaphus canadensis), the largest and most advanced subspecies of red deer (Cervus elaphus),
found in North America and in high mountains of Central Asia. It is a member of the deer family, Cervidae (order
Artiodactyla).
Bonobo, (Pan paniscus), ape that was regarded as a subspecies of the chimpanzee (Pan troglodytes) until 1933,
when it was first classified separately. The bonobo is found only in lowland rainforests along the south bank of the
Congo River in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.

64. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire
action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to
achieve the end of open defecation.
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
47
Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct
World Toilet Organisation was founded on 19 November 2001. It is a global non-profit organisation committed
towards improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
Although, World Toilet Organization was granted consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social
Council in 2013, but it is not a agency of UN.
Initiatives of WTO includes -
1. World Toilet Summit
2. World Toilet Day
3. World Toilet College
World Toilet Summit has been the primary toilet-based and sanitation-driven conference in the world, It encourages
delegates to share knowledge, best practices in the Water, Sanitation and Hygiene (WASH) sector and form
potential partnerships across each summit every year.
World Toilet Day, celebrated on 19 November every year, is about inspiring action to tackle the global sanitation
crisis and reach the 3.5 billion people still living without safely managed sanitation.
Established by the World Toilet Organization in 2001, World Toilet Day was made an official United Nations
Observance in 2013.
Every year, UN-Water — the UN’s coordination mechanism on water and sanitation — sets the theme for World
Toilet Day. In 2023, the focus is on Accelerating Change.
World Toilet College was launched in 2016 in Rishikesh in partnership with local partners Global Interfaith Wash
Alliance (GIWA) and support of Reckitt Benckiser, one of the largest FMCG companies.
Statement 3 is not correct -
World Toilet Organization is a global non-profit committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
It focusses on empowering individuals through education, training and building local marketplace opportunities to
advocate for clean and safe sanitation facilities in their communities.

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Lions have no particular breeding season. they breed throughout the year. Females are receptive to mating for
three or four days within a widely variable reproductive cycle throughout the year every 16 days, remaining in estrus
for four to eight days.
Cheetahs belong to the “purring cats” subfamily and as such do not roar.
These elusive cats have excellent senses, and this is evident when it comes to the different methods used in
demarcating the boundaries of their territories. Both sexes use urine to mark their territories, and often after urinating
a male will then scrape the ground to transfer the scent of his urine onto his feet to be carried during territorial
48
boundary patrols. Leopards are also often seen rubbing their faces and necks on vegetation as they are walking
along their territory. By doing this, the Leopard is transferring secretions from a cheek gland, which then carries
olfactory messages to other Leopards.

66. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-
positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting
and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and
third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness
Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Ans. (a)
Exp. 100 Million Farmers is an initiative of World Economic Forum
100 Million Farmers is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and farmers as central
pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-
friendly agricultural practices.
100 Million Farmers supports a global agenda for the adoption of regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation
practices at the farm level, by focusing on bridging a finance gap and soil knowledge gap – key issue areas that
retroactively feed each other and which mutually bolster access to finance and improved agricultural outcomes.
67. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
49
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (d)
Exp. Distributed energy resources are small, modular, energy generation and storage technologies that provide electric
capacity or energy where you need it.
Option (d) is the correct answer: Distributed Energy Resources include -
1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.
3. Fuel cells.
4. Roof top solar photovoltaic units
5. Wind generating units
6. Batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid
7. Combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling
8 Open and closed cycle gas turbines
9. Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)
10. Hydro and mini-hydro schemes
68. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only
insect that can pollinate this tree?
(a) Fig
(b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood
(d) Silk cotton
Ans. (a)
Exp. Option (a) is the correct answer:
Fig trees have no visible flowers. A fig is actually the stem of an inflorescence, very enlarged and fleshy, that
surrounds the tiny flowers inside. The crunchy little things that you notice when eating a fig are the seeds, each
corresponding to one flower. Such a unique flower requires a unique pollinator. All fig trees are pollinated by very
small wasps of the family Agaonidae. Each specie of fig requires the services of one species of wasps for example
The strangler fig is pollinated by Pegoscapus mexicanus and the shortleaf fig by Pegoscapus tonduzi.
When the female flowers inside the immature fruit are ready for pollination the fig emits an enticing aroma that
attracts only female wasps of the specific type for that tree. The wasp finds the fig by its scent and struggles to get
inside through the small opening at the end of the fig. It is such a tight passage that the wasp usually loses its wings
and pieces of antennae. It does not matter because it will never need them again. It runs around the interior of the
fruit visiting many flowers, laying its eggs inside the future seeds that will nourish its progeny and also spreading
the pollen collected from the previous fig where it was born. This pollen will allow all seeds to grow, not just the ones
where it has deposited eggs. The ovary of some flowers is safely out of reach of the wasp, so it can’t lay its eggs in
them and those seeds can reach maturity. Having fulfilled her life’s mission the female wasp dies inside the fig.
The eggs become grubs that grow inside the seeds. After completing their full development in a few weeks they
emerge from inside the seeds. The males emerge first and start looking for females to mate with. They are smaller
than the females and don’t even have wings; they will never fly. After mating they, like their mother, die inside the
fig that was their home all their lives. When the females emerge they are already fertilized and ready to find another
fig in which to lay their eggs. At this point, the male flowers inside the fig are ripe and loaded with pollen. Before
abandoning their home the females will remember to take a supply of such pollen to carry to the next fig.
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This incredible partnership requires a very fine tuning and synchronicity on the part of the plant and of the pollinator.
It is often mentioned as a fine example of coevolution.

1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (c)
Exp. Some species of Butterfly, frogs and fish are poisonous like
eg Monarch Butterfly, Poisonous Dart Frogs,
Puffer Fish
Hence, all three are correct.

1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct:
Cashew is native to South America -Northeast Brazil
Papaya originated from southern Mexico,Central America, and northern South America.
It is now cultivated in most tropical countries.
Red sanders is native and endemic to Andhra Pradesh (India)
71. Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
51
Ans. (a)
Exp. Option (a) is correct:
A Greenfield Project is a type of project that involves creating something from scratch. It is a term used to describe
a project that has no existing infrastructure, processes, or systems in place.
Government of India has formulated a Greenfield Airports Policy, 2008 which provides detailed guidelines,
procedures and steps related to construction of Greenfield airports across the country, including in Bihar.
Under the GFA policy, Government of India has accorded ‘In-Principle’ approval for setting up of 21 Greenfield
Airports namely, Mopa in Goa, Navi Mumbai, Shirdi and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, Kalaburagi, Vijayapura,
Hassan and Shivamogga in Karnataka, Dabra (Gwalior) in Madhya Pradesh, Kushinagar and Noida (Jewar) in Uttar
Pradesh, Dholera and Hirasar in Gujarat, Karaikal in Puducherry, Dagadarthi, Bhogapuram and Orvakal (Kurnool)
in Andhra Pradesh, Durgapur in West Bengal, Pakyong in Sikkim, Kannur in Kerala and Itanagar in Arunachal
Pradesh across the country.
In a key step to boost connectivity in the Northeast, the Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport in
Arunachal Pradesh - ‘Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar’.
72. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Water is present in the atmosphere in three forms namely – gaseous, liquid and solid. Gaseous form of water is
referred to as Water Vapour. It is one of the most important Green House Gases of the atmosphere.
The amount of water vapour decreases rapidly with altitude, as with altitude the temperature drops and it results in
condensation of water vapour.
Humidity refers to the presence of water vapor in the air. As temperature rises, more water evaporates and becomes
water vapor, thereby increasing the humidity levels in the atmosphere. Because temperatures are generally higher
at the equator compared to the poles, the percentage of water vapor in the atmosphere is higher near the equator
and lower at the poles.
52
73. Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50cm - 250cm.
What is this type of climate?
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) China type climate
(c) Humid subtropical climate
(d) Marine West coast climate
Ans. (d)
Exp. The description best suitable for Marine West Coast Climate. It is also known asTemperate Maritime Climate or Cool
Temperate Western Margins (British)Climate.
The annual range of temperature is more in China Type Climate due to effect of continentality while the precipitation
range for Equatorial climate is between 150 cm to 250 cm.
53
75. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Exp.
On June 21 every year, which is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the following latitudes experience
more than 12 hours of sunlight:
55
74. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Exp. The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force. It
deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. It is
directly proportional to
1. Wind Velocity
2. angle of Latitude
Statement 1 is correct,
As Coriolis force is directly proportional to the wind velocity, it increases with increase in the wind velocity.
As Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude, hence the Coriolis force is strongest near the poles,
and absent at the Equator.
54
Latitudes north of the Equator (0°) up to the Arctic Circle (66.5°N) will experience more than 12 hours of sunlight.
The Arctic Circle (66.5°N) and areas north of it experience continuous daylight, known as the Midnight Sun.
Hence D is the correct answer

Class Notes_Indian Geography
76. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global
carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global
climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikori Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Ans. (b)
Exp. The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia. The peat
swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’
worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon
dioxide a year.
The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo,
Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
77. With reference to perfluoroalkly and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer
products, consider the following statements:
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is correct -
Perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are a large, complex group of synthetic chemicals that have
been used in consumer products around the world since about the 1950s. They are ingredients in various everyday
products. For example, PFAS are used to keep food from sticking to packaging or cookware, make clothes and
carpets resistant to stains, and create firefighting foam that is more effective. Ther
PFAS chemicals enter food products via two routes: the environment (e.g., uptake through polluted water and/
or soil) and by direct contact, e.g., packaging materials.
Statement 2 is correct - PFAS molecules have a chain of linked carbon and fluorine atoms. Because the carbon-
fluorine bond is one of the strongest, these chemicals do not degrade easily in the environment.
Statement 3 is correct :People may encounter different PFAS chemicals in various ways. Over time, people may
take in more of the chemicals than they excrete, a process that leads to bioaccumulation in bodies.
Acc. to FDA (US), Accumulation of certain PFAS has also been shown through blood tests to occur in humans and
animals.


1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Ans. (b)
57
Exp. A parasitoid is an organism that has young that develop on or within another organism (the host), eventually killing
it. Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites.
Parasitoids include species of wasps, flies (e.g. tachinid flies), beetles and worms (e.g. gordian worms).
Carabid Beetle, Flies and Wasps are parasitoid species
Centipedes and Termites do not exibit this kind of behaviour.
79. Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Ans. (c)
Exp. All three are correct
Pea Family (Fabaceae) includes -
1. Peanut or groundnut (Arachis hypogaea)
2. Macrotyloma uniflorum (horsegram)
3. soybean, soy bean, or soya bean (Glycine max)

Statement-I:
The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II:
The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Ans. (c)
Exp. The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill of 2021 reduces the number of schedules from six to four and eliminates
Schedule V, which previously allowed hunting of species like common crows, fruit bats, rats, and mice without
restrictions. Section 62 of the WLPA empowers the central government to declare any wild animal (except those in
Schedules I and II) as ‘vermin’, enabling their unrestricted hunting in specific areas and timeframes.
Statement I is correct:
Under the previous scheme, the Indian Flying Fox was categorized as a vermin species. This classification, while
not technically accurate, was considered correct under the available options.
In certain regions of India, the Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) has been designated as vermin, enabling
measures to control their impact on fruit crops.
Statement II is not correct:
Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) is a frugivore and feeds primarily on fruits, nectar, and flowers, not on the
blood of other animals.
58
Hence, in accordance with the option available in the question, statement II is absolutely wrong and statement I has
to be considered as correct one. Correct answer is Option C.

Note: Flying foxes are commonly known

as fruit bats.
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81. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
(c) the birth rate minus death rate.
(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Ans. (d)
Exp. Option D is correct:
Total fertility is therefore a period measure constructed by summing the age-specific fertility rates (ASFR) and
multiplying by the length of the age groups used. in simple terms, The total fertility rate (TFR) of a population is
the average number of children that are born to a woman over her lifetime if they were to experience the exact
current age-specific fertility rates (ASFRs) through their lifetime and they were to live from birth until the end of their
reproductive life.


1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve
Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: In India, the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) is primarily accessible to scheduled commercial banks and primary dealers. Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs) generally do not have direct access to the LAF.
However, the RBI does have other liquidity management tools and special windows that NBFCs can utilize during
times of stress or liquidity shortages. These may include special repo operations or other targeted measures aimed
at providing liquidity support to specific sectors.
60
The reason for restricting direct access to LAF for NBFCs is mainly due to their different regulatory framework and
risk profile compared to banks.
Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), and Persons of Indian
Origin (PIOs) are allowed to invest in the primary and secondary capital markets in India through the portfolio
investment scheme (PIS). Under this scheme, FIIs/NRIs can acquire shares/debentures of Indian companies
through the stock exchanges in India. Recently The Government has increased the current limit of Foreign
Institutional Investors (Fll) investment in Government Securities by US $ 5 billion raising the cap to US $ 10 billion
and the incremental limit of US $ 5 billion be invested in securities with residual maturity of over five years.
Statement 3 is correct: The Debt Market is the market where fixed income securities of various types and features
are issued and traded. Debt Markets are therefore, markets for fixed income securities issued by Central and State
Governments, Municipal Corporations, Govt. bodies and commercial entities like Financial Institutions,
Banks, Public Sector Units, Public Ltd. companies and also structured finance instruments.
NSE started offering separate trading platform for debt in 2013.
83. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp. Option D is correct:
1. Insurance Companies:
Insurance companies can invest in both corporate bonds and government securities.
These investments form part of their portfolio to manage risk and generate returns.
2. Pension Funds:
Pension funds, including the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and the National Pension System
(NPS), invest in both types of securities.
They aim for stable returns and long-term growth to meet pension obligations.
3. Retail Investors:
Retail investors, which include individual investors like you and me, can participate in the secondary market for both
corporate bonds and government securities.
Retail investors can buy these securities through brokerage accounts or mutual funds.

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
61
Ans. (d)
Exp. Financial instruments are assets that can be traded, or they can also be seen as packages of capital that may
be traded. Most types of financial instruments provide efficient flow and transfer of capital throughout the world’s
investors. These assets can be in the form of cash, a contractual right to deliver or receive cash or another type of
financial instrument, or evidence of one’s ownership in some entity. Financial instruments may be divided into two
types: cash instruments and derivative instruments.
Statement 1 is correct: Exchange traded funds are part of derivative instruments of financial instruments.
Statement 2 is not correct: Motor vehicle is not considered as a financial instrument.
Statement 3 is correct: Currency swaps is a transaction between two financial institutions that occurs in different
currencies. It is a financial instrument used by companies and institutions to secure better loan rates in foreign
currencies than they might be able to obtain directly in the foreign market.
85. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity Sector

1. Storage of agricultural produce Secondary
2. Dairy farm Primary
3. Mineral exploration Tertiary
4. Weaving cloth Secondary
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer:
A sector is an area of the economy in which businesses share the same or related business activity, product, or
service. Sectors represent a large grouping of companies with similar business activities, such as the extraction of
natural resources and agriculture.
Storage of Agriculture Produce- Tertiary Sector
Dairy Farm- Primary Sector
Mineral Exploration- Tertiary Sector
Weaving Cloth- Secondary Sector (Manufacturing Sector)
86. Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grains
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Exp. About Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF): Sustainable Aviation Fuel is a biofuel used to power aircraft that has
similar properties to conventional jet fuel but with a smaller carbon footprint. Depending on the feedstock and
technologies used to produce it, SAF can reduce life cycle GHG emissions dramatically compared to conventional
jet fuel.
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Option (d) is the correct answer: The feedstock that can be used for producing SAF includes corn grain, oil
seeds, algae, other fats, oils, and greases, agricultural residues, forestry residues, wood mill waste, municipal
solid waste streams, wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge), dedicated energy crops, etc.
87. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Items Category
1. Farmer’s plough Working capital
2. Computer Fixed capital
3. Yarn used by the weaver Fixed capital
4. Petrol Working capital
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans. (a)
Exp. Option A is correct:
Physical capital is one of what economists call the three main factors of production. It consists of tangible, human-
made goods that assist in the process of creating a product or service. The machinery, buildings, office or
warehouse supplies, vehicles, and computers that a company owns are all considered part of its physical capital.
Farmer’s Plough- Fixed capital
Computer - Fixed Capital
Yarn used by weaver- Working Capital
Petrol - Intermediate goods
88. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D
virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual
items.”?
(a) Big data analytics
(b) Cryptography
(c) Metaverse
(d) Virtual matrix
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer: Metaverse is an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed
simultaneously by millions of users who can exert property rights over virtual items. The metaverse is a digital
reality that combines aspects of social media, online gaming, augmented reality (AR), virtual reality (VR), and
cryptocurrencies to allow users to interact virtually.
89. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the
following statements:
1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans. (b)
Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: Foreign banks were permitted to establish presence by way of setting up a wholly
owned banking subsidiary (WOS) or conversion of the existing branches into a WOS. The guidelines covered,
inter alia, the eligibility criteria of the applicant foreign banks such as ownership pattern, financial soundness,
supervisory rating and the international ranking. The WOS was to have a minimum capital requirement of Rs.300
crore.
Statement 2 is correct : In order to ensure that the board of directors of the WOS of foreign bank set up in India
acts in the best interest of the local institution, RBI may, in line with the best practices in other countries, mandate
that (i) not less than 50 percent of the directors should be Indian nationals resident in India, (ii) not less than 50
percent of the directors should be non-executive directors, (iii) a minimum of one-third of the directors should be
totally independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent or associates and (iv) the directors shall
conform to the ‘Fit and Proper’ criteria as laid down in our extant guidelines contained in RBI circular dated June
25, 2004, as amended from time to time.
90. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered
as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
Exp. Corporate social responsibility (CSR) is a management concept that describes how a company contributes to the
well-being of communities and society through environmental and social measures. CSR plays a crucial role in how
brands are perceived by customers and their target audience. It may also help attract employees and investors
who prioritize the CSR goals a company has identified.
Enactment of Companies Act, 2013 by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India was one of the
world’s largest experiments of introducing the CSR as a mandatory provision by imposing statutory obligation on
Companies to take up CSR projects towards social welfare activities. This has made India the only country which
has regulated and mandated CSR for some select categories of companies registered under the Act.
Statement 1 is correct: The CSR projects or programs or activities that benefit only the employees of the company
and their families shall not be considered as CSR activities in accordance with section 135 of the Act.
Statement 2 is not correct: Every company which needs to comply with the CSR provisions have to spend 2% of
the average net profits made during the preceding 3 years as per the CSR policy. Net profit for computation CSR
Expenditure to be incurred will same as described above.
91. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
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Exp. Statement 1 is not correct: RTGs are not fission reactors. They provide electrical power using heat from the
natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238.
Statement 2 is correct: Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft
power systems that are extraordinarily reliable.
Statement 3 is correct: Currently NASA uses radioisotope thermoelectric generators, or RTGs, to provide electrical
power for certain spacecraft by converting the heat generated by the decay of plutonium-238 (Pu-238) fuel into
electricity using devices called thermocouples. Plutonium-238 is also a by-product of weapons development.

Class Notes_Science and Technology

Statement-I:
Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II:
Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but and Statement-II does not explains Statement-I
65
Ans. (d)
Exp. Statement I is not correct: Giant stars have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars because they burn their fuel
much more quickly.
Statement II is correct: The more massive a star, the greater the rate at which nuclear reactions can take place in
the core. More massive stars have a stronger gravitational force acting inwards so their core gets hotter. The higher
temperatures mean that the nuclear reactions occur at a much greater rate in massive stars.
93. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increase blood flow?
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide
Ans. (a)
Exp. Nitric oxide is produced naturally by the human body and is one of the most important molecules for blood vessel
health. Nitric oxide has earned repute as a potent vasodilator, meaning it relaxes the inner muscles of the blood
vessels, causing the vessels to widen. In this way, nitric oxide increases blood flow and lowers blood pressure
94. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans. (c)
Exp. About Radar: Radar is an electromagnetic sensor used for detecting, locating, tracking, and recognizing objects
of various kinds at considerable distances. It operates by transmitting electromagnetic energy toward objects,
commonly referred to as targets, and observing the echoes returned from them.
Statement 1 is correct: Millimeter wave radar technology can be used as part of security systems used in airports
to detect concealed items, including narcotics.
Statement 2 is correct: Weather radar is a remote sensing instrument that has been increasingly used to estimate
precipitation for a variety of hydrological and meteorological applications, including real-time flood forecasting,
severe weather monitoring and warning, and short-term precipitation forecasting.
Statement 3 is correct: Radar technology can provide information on animal movements over considerable
distances. This helps researchers understand migration patterns, behavior, and potential impacts on ecosystems
95. Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Ans. (d)
Exp. Context: Union Cabinet recently cleared a Rs 15,000 crore project to design and develop the Advanced Medium
Combat Aircraft (AMCA), India’s fifth-generation fighter multirole fighter jet.
1, 2 and 3 are not correct: Rafael and Tejas MK-1 are 4.5th generation aircrafts, whereas the MiG-29 is a fourth-
generation jet fighter aircraft. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

96. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Exp. About Hydrogel: A hydrogel is a biocompatible hydrophilic polymer that resembles soft tissue. Hydrogels can
retain a large amount of water in a swollen state within its network from surface tension and capillary forces.
1 is correct: The unique physical properties of hydrogels have sparked particular interest in their use in drug
delivery applications. Their highly porous structure can easily be tuned by controlling the density of cross-links in
the gel matrix and the affinity of the hydrogels for the aqueous environment in which they are swollen. Their porosity
also permits loading of drugs into the gel matrix and subsequent drug release at a rate dependent on the diffusion
coefficient of the small molecule or macromolecule through the gel network.
2 is correct: Due to their water-absorbing and releasing capabilities, hydrogels have the potential to be utilized in
mobile air-conditioning systems. This characteristic enables them to control temperature and humidity, thus making
them suitable for cooling purposes.
3 is correct: Hydrogels have also received extensive attention as functional lubricants because of their excellent
anti-friction and anti-wear properties.
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97. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water vapour
Ans. (d)
Exp. Option (d) is the correct answer: Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. FCEVs use a
propulsion system similar to that of electric vehicles, where energy stored as hydrogen is converted to electricity by
the fuel cell. Unlike conventional internal combustion engine vehicles, these vehicles produce no harmful tailpipe
emissions - They only emit water vapor and warm air.

Class Notes_Science and Technology
98. Recently the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which
one of the following?
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system
68
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer: Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage.
It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down
from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. The system also requires power as it pumps water
back into the upper reservoir (recharge). PSH acts similarly to a giant battery, because it can store power and then
release it when needed.
99. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
(c) Vaccine production technologies
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies
Ans. (d)
Exp. Option (d) is the correct answer: Membrane bioreactor (MBR) technology has recently emerged as a wastewater
treatment technology of choice over the activated sludge process (ASP), which has been the conventional municipal
wastewater technology over the last century. An MBR is a hybrid of a conventional biological treatment system and
physical liquid–solid separation using membrane filtration in one system.
100. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:
(a) Bond market
(b) Forex market
(c) Money market
(d) Stock market
Ans. (c)
Exp. Option (c) is the correct answer:
A collateralized borrowing and lending obligation (CBLO) is a money market instrument that represents an obligation
between a borrower and a lender concerning the terms and conditions of a loan.
CBLOs allow those restricted from using the interbank call money market in any given specific country to participate
in the short-term money markets.
In the CBLO market, financial entities can avail short term loans by providing prescribed securities as collateral. In
terms of functioning and objectives, the CBLO market is almost similar to the call money market.
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GENERAL STUDIES

DELHI CENTRE BHOPAL CENTRE: JAIPUR CENTRE: PRAYAGRAJ CENTRE:

Expected CSE 2024 Cutoff (Prelims)

CSE Year-wise Cutoff (Prelims)

2023 75.41 68.02 74.75 59.25 47.82

2022 88.22 82.83 87.54 74.08 69.35

2021 87.54 80.14 84.85 75.41 70.71

General Studies (Paper-I)

6. Science & Technology 13

7. Miscellaneous (IR, Society Etc.) 13

Reflections from NEXT IAS Foundation Class

1 Direct Coverage from class notes

2 Test Series Alignment

3 Foreseeing New Question Patterns

UPSC introduced a format of the question involving a three-statement based assertion-

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

Q.3 Consider the following pairs:

Party Its Leader

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

17. Consider the following countries:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

Army Airforce Navy

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

27. Consider the following pairs:

Country Reason for being in the news

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

28. Consider the following statements:

29. Consider the following statements:

31. Consider the following statements:

32. Consider the following statements:

33. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

Archaeological State Description

38. Consider the following statements:

39. Consider the following statements:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

41. Consider the following statements:

42. Consider the following statements:

46. Consider the following statements:

47. Consider the following statements:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

51. Consider the following statements:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

52. Consider the following statements:

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

53. Consider the following

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

NEXT IAS GS FOUNDATION CLASS REFERENCE

57. Consider the following statements:

58. Consider the following countries: