MODULE !

METAMORPH
pHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY MODULAR EXAMINATION

MODULE 1 PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

MODULAR EXAMINATION & RATIONALE

Question
Question
1.
Which of the following is an example of an intensive property? 12. If 22.5 L of nitrogen at 748 mmg are compressed to 725
A Temperature /emp mmHg at constant temperature. What the volume?
B. Mass
A. 232 L
C. Volume
vol B. 232 L
D. Both B and C
. 0.232 L

2. Elements are substances that cannot be decomposed into . D. 23.2 L

simpler substances. Each element is composed of only one 13. occupies 900.0 mL at temperature of 27.0 °C. What is
kind of atom. the volume at 132.0 °C?
A First statement is correct A. 12.15 mL
B. Second statement is correct . 1.215 mL
C. Both statements are correct C. 1215 mL
D. Both statements are incorrect D. 0.1215 mL

3.
Thisrefers when an equilibrium system is "stressed" by a 14. Calculate the decrease in temperature when 6.00 L at 20.0 'C
change in conditions, the equilibrium position will shift in the is compressed to 4.00 L.
direction that minimizes the stress.
A. 195.3 K
A. Law of Multiple Proportions B.1.953
B. Le Chatelier's Principle
C. 19.53 K
C. Law of Definite Proportion
D. 1953
D. Law of Conservation of Mass
15. A gas balloon has a volume of 106.0 liters when the
44.
This law states that a given compound always contains exactly temperature is 45.0 °C and the pressure is 740.0 mm of
the same proportion of elements by mass. mercury. What will its volume be at 20.0 °C and 780 .0 mm of
A. Law of Multiple Proportions mercury pressure?
B. Chatelier's Principle A. 9.35 L
C. Law of Definite Proportion B. 0.935 L
D. of Conservation of Mass C. 93.5 L
D. 935
It is defined as the number of equivalents per liter of solution.
A. Molality 16. The pressure of a gas is reduced from 1200.0 mmHg to 850.0
Mole fraction mmHg as the volume of its container is increased by moving
C. Normality a piston from 85.0 mL to 350.0 mL. What would the final
Molarity temperature be if the original temperature was 90.0 •C?
A 1058.75 K
6. This quantum number is related to the shape of atomic
orbitals,
B.105.875 1
C. 1.058 K
A. Azimuthal quantum number D. 0.1058 K
B. Principal quantum number
. Magnetic quantum number 17. What is the volume of 2 moles of an ideal gas at 25°C and 780
D. Spin quantum number
A. 47.65 L
7. He discovered electrons.
477 L
A. James Chadwick C. 4.76 mL
B. Marie Curie D. 47 mL
J.J. Thomson
18. The following
D. Ernest Ruther ford colligative properties, except:
8. He discovered Uranium,
A. Boiling point
B. Freezing point
A. Ernest Rutherford C. Vapor pressure lowering
B. James Chadwick D. Both A and B
C. J.J. Thomson
D. Henri Becquerel
19. The colligative properties of a solution are related to the:
A. pH of the solution
9. A negatively charged ion is called:
B. number of ions in the solution
. Cation C.
total number of solute particles in the solution
B. Anion D. number of unionized molecules in the solution
Cathode
D. Anode 20.
t is the temperature at which the solid and the liquid phases
are in equilibrium under
1o. As the pressure of the gas decreases, its solubility decreases./
pressure of 1 atmosphere (atm).
Vapor pressure
Gas solubilities in water increase with increasing temperature.
R Roiling point
A. First statement is correct C Ficezing point
B. Second statement is correct D. Osmotic pressure
C. Both statements are correct
21. It is an unstable solution that
D. Both statements are incorrect
temporarily contains more
dissolved solute than that present in a saturated solution.
11. A 40.0 L tank of ammonia has pressure of 12.7 kPa. Calculate
Unsaturated
the volume of the ammonia if its pressure is changed to 8.4
B. Saturated
kPa while its temperature remains constant.
C. Supersaturated
A. 60.5 L
D. None of the above
B. 605 1
C. 6.05 1 22. He
suggested that elements should be arranged in octaves.
D. 0.605 L
Johann Dobereiner
8. John Newlands
Lothar Meyer
D. Dmitri Mendeleev
 METAMORPY
MODULE 1
ODULAR EXAMINATION
PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

Question Question

23. It is the energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous 35. It is the most abundant isotope of hydrogen.
atom or ion. A. Tritium
A. Atomic radius B. Deuterium
B. Electron affinity C Protium

C. lonization energy None of the above

Electronegativity
36. Which of the following elements has a melting point of more
24. Most electronegative element: than 100°C?

A. Rb
B. Fluorine B. K
C. Chlorine C. Na
D. Bromine D. Li

25. Metallic elements dominate the left side and the middle of the 37. It is the most abundant metal.
periodic table. The nonmetallic elements are located on the
A. Oxygen
upper right side. B. Silicon
A. First statement is correct C. Aluminum
Second statement is correct . Hydrogen
C. Both statements are correct
38. This element is an excellent local astringent overwide
D. Both statements are incorrect
concentration ranges.
26. Group VII-A is also called as: A. Be
Noble gases B. AI
B. Halogens C. Sn

D. Icosagens
39. What is the side effect of Aluminum hydroxide?
27. Group VI-A is also called as:
A. Constipation
A. Halogens B. Milk-alkali syndrome
B. Noble gases C. Metabolic alkalosis
Coinage metals . Diarrhea
D. Chalcogens
40. Antidote for Thallium and Cesium poisoning:
28 Group V-A is also called as:
Turnbull's blue
A. Chalcogens B. Prussian blue
B. Icosagens
Halogens Calcium gluconate

41. Which of the following is a major physiological ion?

29 Which of the following elements is not a salt-former? A, Calcium
.Fluorine III. lodine
II. Helium IV. Astatine C. Magnesium
Phosphate
A. 1, 11I, I C. II only
42. Yellow phosphorus is poisonous and causes severe burns that
B. IV only D. II, IV
are slow to heal Red phosphorus is non-poisonous and non-
30. Which of the following is/are coinage metals? flammable in air.,

1. Na A. First statement is correct

B Second statement is correct
coinage {oD) cM Ag Au
• Ill. Be C. Both statements are correct
Both statements are incorrect

43. Acid former element:

B. I1, IV A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
D. I, IV C. Hydrogen
D. Helium
31. What is the common name of NaNO,?
44. Diagnostic aid for thyroid function:
A. Chile saltpeter
B Saltpeter - KN02 /copit A. lodine 131 -sodium iodide
C. Glauber's salt - N@2 8Ow B. lodine 125 -iothalamate sodium
D Mineral chameleon- KMno C. lodine 131 - sodium iodohippurate
Gallium 67
32. It is also known as mineral chameleon.

A. Na2SO4 45. It is the first element to be produced artificially.

B. CaCOs . Mn
. NaNO, B. Tc
C. At
D. As
33. Quartz:

A. SiO, 46. Noble gas that is recovered from the natural decay products
of radium.
C. CaCO; Argon
D. Na2CO3 B. Krypton
C. Helium
34. What is the mineral composition of Cinnabar?
D. Radon

B. MoS,

D. Fe.O;
MODULL
pHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY METAMORPH
MODULAR EXAMINATION
Question
Question
47, Element that can be used for
arthritis:
the treatment of rheumatoid 58.
What is the generalized linear structural designation for
ketone?
A. Ag
Cu ROH

D. Co

This element has been used for the treatment of seborrheic

dermatitis. 59. What will be the final product of primary alcahol upon
undergoing oxidation?

D. Ca
D. ROR
49. It is considered as the best antidote for
mercury poisoning. 60. What is the element that
present in Grignard reagent?
A. BAL
B. EDTA A. Mn
C
Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate
D. Deferoxamine• Ho
D.
50.
it is a component of hemoglobin and myoglobin and is 61.
What is the common name for the C4 unbranched
involved the electron transport chain. dicarboxylic acid is:
A. Co
. Malonic acid
B. Succinic acid
C. Fe
D. Ni
Adipic acid
D. Pimelic acid
51. It is water that is fit to drink
Natural water
B Potable water 62 Give the IUPAC name of the following structural formula
Heavy water
D. Purified water CH,-CH-CHECH,-CH-CH,
CH, CH,
52. These containers do not exceed the capacity of 30 mL.
A. Purified water, USP A. 2,6-dimethyl-4-heptyne:
Water for injection, USP B. 2,6-dimethyl-3-heptene
C Bacteriostatic water for injection, USP 30m C. 2.6-diethy1-3-heptyne
D. Sterile water for injection, USP 11 D. 2.6-diethyl-3-heptyne
53. Dissolved carbonate constitutes temporary hardness of water./ 63.
Give the IUPAC name of the following structural formula:
Sulfate and chloride constitute permanent hardness of water. -
A. First statement is correct
d statement is correct
C Both statements are correct A. trans-2-butene
Both statements are incorrect cis-2-butyne.
C. cis-2-butene
54. Which of the following is/are components of Oral Rehydration
Salt? D. trans-2-butyne

64. Compounds that have same bonds but different ways

which the ligands occupythe space around the metal center.
Hi. Glucose Structural isomers
IV. Sodium citrate B. Stereoisomers
V. Sodium lactate C. Isomers
D. Enantiomers

B.1, I, III, N.V 65. A mixture of two optical isomers does not rotate plane- /
polarized light andis said to be racemic. solutions af one
D. I1, IIL, N isomer that rotate the plane of polarization to the right i
called dextrorotatory.
55 Covalent bands in which the electron density lies along the
A. First statement is correct
line connecting the atoms are called sigma bonds. Bonds can B. Second statement is correct
also be formed from the sideways overlap of p orbitals and is
C. Both statements are correct
called a pl bond,
Both statements are incorrect
A First statement is correct
B. Second statement is correct 66. Phase I reactions can be categorized into the following:
Both statements are correct 4. Oxidation
D. Both statements are incorrect 41. Reduction
HOR GARM

56. What is the general formula for alkanes? 41l. Hydrolysis

A.C.H,., A. I only
B. IlI only
C. Il and III
D. None of the above
57. What is the generalized linear structural designation for a
carboxylic acid?
ROH

CORCOR
 METAMORPH
MODULE 1 MODULAR EXAMINATION
PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
Question Question

67. Phase I or 79. Which of the following is/are a characteristic of a lactone?

conjugation reaction include.
Oxidation reaction A. It is heterocyclic
I1. Methylation B. It is cyclic ester
C. It is a cyclic ketone
IIl. Acetylation
V. Hydrolytic Reaction 1 D. Both A and B

V. Reductive Reaction
80. Which of the following drugsis/are classified as macrolides?
A. I only I. Erythromycin
B. Ill only
and III. Gentamicin
D. 1. 11. 111 IV. Clarithromycin

68. What drug undergoes phase II glucuronidation? A. I, 1, 11 C. 11, 111, IV

B. I, IL, N D. 1, 111, I
A. Digoxin
B. Acetaminophen - paiactomol (alutothion) 81. Which of the following drugs is a glycopeptide?
C. Morphine
D. All of the above
Gentamicin
69. What is the toxic metabolite that builds with an acute ¢. Vancomycin
acetaminophen overdose? ). Erythromycin
Glutathione 82. Agent of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
B. NAPQI aureus:
N-acetylcysteine
Penicillin
B. Vancomycin
70. Alcohol solubility in water decreases as carbon-chain length C. Both A and B
increases. Alcohol boiling points carbon-chain None of the above
D.
length increases.
83. This drug binds irreversibly to i site on the 50S subunit of the
A. First statement is correct
bacterial ribosome, thereby inhibiting the translocation steps
B second statement is correct
of protein synthesis.
Both statements are correct
D Both statements are incorrect Doxycycline 306
cot @ 56
B. Erythromycin 50:
7. Treatment ? choice for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP):
Vancomycin
A. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole D. Streptomycin 303

B. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine inhibits folic acid metabolism by competitively

This drug
.Metronidazole and lodoquinol
inhibiting p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) utilization.
D. None of the above
A. Trimethoprim
Which of the following drugs is isolated from Streptomyces B. Tetracyclines
orientalis?

A. Cephalosporins D. Sulfonamides
B. Vancomycin
85. Drugs that inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase,
Clavulanic acid
which are critical for DNA replication

73. What is the microbial source of Gentamicin?

.Micromonospord purpured
B Streptomyces rimosus D. Tetracyclines
Penicillium griseofulvum - qinetttin
86. This drug inhibits mycobacterial arabinosyl transferase, which
D. Streptomyces mediterranei
enzyme involved in the synthesis of the mycobacterial
74. What is the microbial source of Neomycin? cell wall.

Streptomyces orientalis 3
Streptomyces fradiae B. Ethambutol
Bacillus polymyxa C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid

75. Penicillin V has a chemical name of: This drug acts to inhibit the synthesis ( mycolic acids, which
are major components of mycobacterial cell walls.
A. Benzylpenicillin
B 2.6 - dimethoxyphenyl penicillin A. Pyrazinamide
Phenoxymethyl penicillin B. Ethambutol
D. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4- isoxazolyl penicillin C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid
76. Bactrim® contains:

Ampicillin and Sulbactam

88. What is the common side effect of the antitubercular agent,
Ethambutol?
B. Piperacillin and Tazobactam
C. Imipenem and Cilastatin A. Red-orange secretions
D. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole Inhibit uric acid
C. Optic neuritis
77. Augmentin®
Peripheral neuropathy
A. Imipenem-Cilastatin
B Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid
89. This drug binds with ergosterol to disrupt the fungal plasma
membrane.
Ampicillin and Sulbactam
D. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole A. Fluconazole
B. Flucytosine
78. Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin?
A. Ceftaroline D. Amphotericin B
MODULE 1 METAMORPH
PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY MODULAR EXAMINATION

Question

90. Which of the following is/are catecholamines?

A. Adrenaline
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D Both A and B

91. Which of the following is/are intermediate-acting insulin?

½. Insulin Glulisine
M. Isophane insulin (NPH)
Ill. Insulin Detemir

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III
D. I, H, Ill

92. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Busulfan?

Constipation
B Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Conjunctivitis
D Cardiotoxicity

93. EDTA:

A. Hexadentate ligand
B. Monodentate ligand
Polydentate ligand
D. Tetradentate ligand

94 Calculate the volume of 65.0 of liquid methanol its density

is 0.791 g/mL

A. 82.3 ml
B. 82.2 mL
0.1014/m1 G5:0g
C. 82.1 mL
D. 0.82 mL

95. It is the closeness of agreement (degree of scatter) between

a series of measurements obtained from multiple sampling
of the same homogenous sample under the prescribed
conditions.

Accuracy
B. Ruggedness
C. Specificity
D. Precision

96. What is the color when the indicator phenolphthalein is

exposed to a basic pH?

A. Red
B. Yellow
Pink
D. Colorless

Enzyme that catalyze formation of bonds between carbon and

O. S, and N coupled to hydrolysis off high-energy phosphates
A. Ligase
B. Isomerase

D. Hydrolase

98. Essential fatty acids include:

I. Arachidonic acid
AI. Alpha-linolenic acid
All. Linoleic acid
IV. Beta-linolenic acid

A. I, I C. 11, IlI
B. I1I, IV D. I1, IV

99. What is the pH range of blood plasma?

A. 7.35-7.45
B. 3.25-4.75
. 10.40-11.50
D. 9.25-9.75

100. This describes the scattering of light by the colloidal particles

A. Brownian motion
B. Diffusion
C. Faraday-Tyndall effect
D. None of the above