Salute Test - 3
Salute Test - 3
Salute Test - 3
Number / tpdhj;jhspd;
Question Booklet Serial
/ tpdhj;jhspd; tif
tupir vz;
A OMR Answer Sheet Number /
OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper should be opened only after receiving the instruction from the examination hall invigilator.
2. This question paper contains 80 questions in Part A (General Knowledge) and 60 questions in Part B (Tamil, English,
Psychology).
3. Answer all the questions.
4. Each correct answer has half mark.
5. Write the Enrolment No. and SL No. of the OMR answer sheet at the appropriate place in the front page of the question
paper.
6. The type of question booklet series and the correct answers to the questions (A, B, C or D) should be shaded in the
relevant circles using blue or black ball point pen. The answer sheet without shading the type of question booklet
series will not be evaluated.
7. For each question only one answer is to be chosen and shaded.
8. For wrong, multiple and improper shading in answer sheets, no marks will be given for that answer.
9. If there is any printing error, or error in Page No. in the question paper, the same should be brought to the notice of
the invigilator immediately and obtained a new question paper before the commencement of written examination.
10. All the questions are bilingual except language questions (English & Tamil).
mwpTiufs;
1. ,e;j tpdhj;jhis NjHT miw fz;fhzpg;ghsupd; mwpTWj;jy; ngw;w gpd;dNu jpwf;f Ntz;Lk;.
2. ,t;tpdhj;jhspy; gFjp „m… (nghJ mwpT) gpuptpy; 80 tpdhf;fSk; kw;Wk; gFjp „M… (jkpo;> Mq;fpyk;> cstpay;)
rk;ge;jkhd ghlq;fspy; 60 tpdhf;fSk; cs;sd.
3. midj;J tpdhf;fSf;Fk; tpilaspf;f Ntz;Lk;.
4. xt;nthU rupahd tpilf;Fk; miu kjpg;ngz; toq;fg;gLk;.
5. NrHf;if vz; kw;Wk; OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;iz mjw;Fupa ,lq;fspy; tpdhj;jhspd; Kjy; gf;fj;jpy; vOjTk;.
6. ,e;j tpdhj;jhspd; tif kw;Wk; rupahd tpilfis tpilj;jhspy; (A, B, C or D) mjw;Fz;lhd ,lj;jpy; ePyk;
(my;yJ) fUg;G epw ghy; ghapd;l; Ngdhit nfhz;L gl;il jPl;lTk;. tpdhj;jhspd; tifia gl;il
jPl;lhtpl;lhy;> me;j tpilj;jhs; kjpg;gplg;glkhl;lhJ.
7. xU tpdhtpw;F xU tpilia kl;LNk NjHT nra;J gl;il jPl;lTk;.
8. jtwhfNth> xU tl;lj;jpw;F Nky;gl;il jPl;bdhNyh> mbj;jy; jpUj;jq;fs; nra;jhNyh me;j tpilf;F kjpg;ngz;
fpilahJ.
9. tpdhj;jhspy; VNjDk; mr;Rg; gpioNah> gf;fq;fs; rupahf ,y;yhtpl;lhNyh> Nkw;ghHitahsuplk; Kiwapl;L
vOj;J NjHT njhlq;Ftjw;F Kd; rupahd kw;WnkhU tpdhj;jhisg; ngw;W nfhs;SkhW mwpTWj;jg;gLfpwJ.
10. ghlg;gFjp (Mq;fpyk; kw;Wk; jkpo;) tpdhf;fis jtpHj;J midj;J tpdhf;fSk; ,uz;L nkhopfspYk;
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd.
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
11. Aerobic respiration releases how many times more energy than anaerobic respiration?
a) 36 b) 19 c) 45 d) 54
fhw;Ws;s RthrkhdJ fhw;wpy;yh Rthrj;jpid tpl vj;jid klq;F mjpf Mw;wiy ntspg;gLj;Jk;?
a) 36 b) 19 c) 45 d) 54
15. Which one of the following organisms lack muscles and skeleton for movement?
a) Earthworm b) Snail c) Dog d) Human being
fPOs;s ve;j caphpdj;jpd; ,af;fj;jpw;F jirfs; kw;Wk; vYk;Gfs; fhzg;gLtjpy;iy?
a) kz;GO b) ej;ij c) eha; d) kdpjH
17. Which hormone is involved in the Contraction of smooth muscles of uterus during child birth?
a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin c) Luteinizing d) Estrongen
Foe;ij gpwg;gpd; NghJ jirfis RUq;fnra;J Foe;ij gpwg;ig vspjhf;Fk; `hHNkhd; vJ?
a) Mf;rpNlhrpd; b) GNuhyhf;bd; c) Y}l;bidrpq; d) <];lN; uh[d;
23. In which year wangari mathai was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?
a) 2004 b) 1977 c) 2005 d) 2006
thq;fhp khjha; mth;fSf;F mikjpf;fhd Nehgy; ghpR toq;fg;gl;l Mz;L?
a) 2004 b) 1977 c) 2005 d) 2006
27. The method in which water flows over the soil surface and allow it to infiltrate is
a) Irrigation b) Surface Irrigation c) Springler irrigation d) Drip irrigation
kz; gug;gpy; gha;e;J kz;zpDs; CLUTk; Kiw vJ?
a) ePh;g; ghrdk; b) gug;G ePH ghrdk; c) njspg;G ePHg;ghrdk; d) nrhl;L ePH ghrdk;
28. The Period at which an organism attains sexual maturity is called?
a) Puberty b) adolescence c) growth d) maturity
caphpdq;fs; ghypd KjpHr;rpailAk; fhyk;
a) gUtkiljy; b) tshpsk; gUtk; c) tsHr;rp d) KjpHr;rp
42. In which year did India came under the direct control of the British Government?
a) 1757 b) 1764 c) 1858 d) 1765
,e;jpah Mq;fpy murpd; Neub fl;Lg;ghl;bd; fPo; te;j Mz;L?
a) 1757 b) 1764 c) 1858 d) 1765
nghUj;Jf:
i) epiyahd epy tUtha; 1) tpy;ypak; ngz;bq; (i) (ii) (iii)
ii) ,uaj;Jthhp Kiw 2) fhud;thyp]; gpuG a) 1 2 3
iii) kfy;thp Kiw 3) jhk]; kd;Nwh b) 2 1 3
c) 3 2 1
d) 2 3 1
46. Which was the first Peasants revolt?
a) Indigo Revolt b) Moplah Revolt c) Santhal Rebelion d) Pabna Revolt
tptrhapfspd; vOr;rpahf fUjg;gl;;l Kjy; fyfk; vJ?
a) ,z;bNfh fyfk; b) khg;sh fyfk; c) re;jhy; fyfk; d) ghg;dh fyfk;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
47. Who was the Pioneer in Tamil Nadu to Protest against English Rule in India
a) Virapandya Kattabomman b) Maruthu Brothers c) Velu Nachiyar d) Pulithevar
,e;jpahtpy; Mq;fpy Ml;rpia vjpHg;gjpy; jkpofj;jpy; Kd;Ndhbahfj; jpfo;e;jth; ahH?
a) tPughz;ba fl;lnghk;kd; b) kUJ rNfhjuHfs; c) NtYehr;rpahH d) G+ypj;Njth;
53. what was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
a) Loss of royal Patronage b) Competition of machine made goods
c) Industrial Policy of India d) Trading Policy of British
,e;jpahtpy; njhopy;kak; mopjYf;F fhuzk; my;yhjJ vJ?
a) Ml;rpahsHfspd; Mjutpd;ik b) ,ae;jpuj;jhy; jahhpf;fg;gl;l nghUl;fspd; Nghl;b
c) ,e;jpahtpd; njhopw;Jiw nfhs;if d) gphpl;b\hhpd; th;j;jff; nfhs;if
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
59. Examine
Assertion (A) : The British set up their alternative Capitals in the hills areas.
Reason (R) : They found it difficult to live in India during summer.
a) Both (A), (R) correct b) (A) correct, (R) incorrect
c) Both (A), (R) incorrect d) (A) incorrect, (R) correct
$w;iw Muha;f.
$w;W : Mq;fpNyaHfs; jq;fsJ khw;W jiyefuq;fis kiyg;ghq;fhd gFjpfspy; mikj;;Js;sdH.
fhuzk; : mtHfs; ,e;jpahtpy; Nfhilfhyj;jpy; tho;tJ fbdk; vd vz;zpdh;.
a) $w;W> fhuzk; rhp b) $w;W rhp> fhuzk; jtW
c) $w;W fhuzk; jtW d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rhp
64. Which Article and part of the constitution of India deals with citizenship.
a) Part II Article 5-10 b) Part II Article 5-11 c) Part II Article 5-12 d) Part II Article 5-13
murpayikg;Gr; rl;lj;jpd; ve;jg; gFjp kw;Wk; gphpTfs; FbAhpikiag; gw;wpf; Fwpg;gpLfpd;wd.
a) gFjp II (tpjp - 5 Kjy; 10) b) gFjp II (tpjp - 5 Kjy; 11)
c) gFjp II (tpjp 5 Kjy; 12) d) gFjp II (tpjp 5 Kjy; 13)
65. Examine
Assertion (A) : When Pondicherry becomes the part of India in 1962, the people lived there became Indian
citizens.
Reason (R) : It was done by one of the provisions of The Act of 1955-by incorporation of Territory.
a) (R) is the correct explanation of (A) b) (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct d) Both (A) and (R) are Incorrect
$w;Wfis Muha;f.
$w;W : 1962 Mk; Mz;L ghz;br;Nrhp ,e;jpa A+dpad; gpuNjrj;Jld; ,ize;jJk; mq;F tho;e;j
kf;fs; ,e;jpa Fbkf;fshfpdH.
fhuzk; : 1955 ,e;jpaf; FbAhpikr; rl;lj;jpd; gb gpuNjrq;fis ,izj;jy; vd;gjd; mbg;gilapy;
mtHfs; ,e;jpa Fbkf;fshapdh;.
a) fhuzk; $w;Wf;F rhpahd tpsf;fk; b) fhuzk; $w;Wf;F rhpahd tpsf;fk; my;y
c) $w;W jtW> Mdhy; fhuzk; rhp d) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW
66. Who said "India will be a land of many faiths, equally honoured and respected but of one national
outlook".?
a) Gandhi b) Nehru c) Nethaji d) Ambedkar
,e;jpah gy;NtW ek;gpf;iffis rkkhf Nghw;wp kjpf;fg;gLk; ,lkhf ,Ug;gNjhL xNu Njrpa
fz;Nzhl;lj;ijf; nfhz;bUf;Fk; vd;W $wpatH ahH?
a) fhe;jp b) NeU c) Nejh[p d) mk;Ngj;fH
67. The word "secular" was incorporated in the Preamble through which amendment?
a) 40th amendment b) 41st amendment c) 42nd amendment d) 43rd amendment
ve;j murpayikg;Gr; rl;ljpUj;jj;jpd; gb 'rkarhHgw;w" vd;w nrhy; ,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy;
NrHf;fg;gl;lJ.
a) 40 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk; b) 41 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;
c) 42 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk; d) 43 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
68. Examine
Assertion (A) : A foreigner can practice is own religious faith in India.
Reason (R) : The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but also for the
aliens also.
a) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true c) A is false, but R is true d) Both A and R are true
$w;Wfis Muha;f.
$w;W : xU ntspehl;ltH ,e;jpahtpy; jdJ rkaj;ijg; gpd;gw;wyhk;.
fhuzk; : ,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy; cWjpaspf;fg;gl;Ls;s rka Rje;jpuk; ,e;jpaHfSf;F kl;Lky;yhky;
ntspehl;ltUf;Fk; cz;L.
a) $w;W rhp> fhuzk; jtW b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rhp
c) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rhp d) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW
PART - A PSYCHOLOGY
gFjp - M - cstpay;
81. Catherine gave a Masterly Performance in the Taming of the shrew.
a) Cruel b) Brilliant c) Influencing d) Crafty
82. The Children in the party were not attracted to Vapid entertainment.
a) Doll b) Grand c) Fun d) Series
86. Although the treatment was abortive the doctor Learned a lot from the Response by the medicine
a) Ineffective b) violent c) silent d) Loud
87. Due to the the rapiers she is has been undergoing, her body is too weak to combat the infection anymore.
a) Normalize b) Accord c) Retreat d) flight
88. A group of People from the society cleared up the fritters to celebrate the world environment day
a) Waste b) crowd c) wrappers d) Garden
91. 'flTr;rl P L
; " vd;w nrhy;ypd; Mq;fpyr; nrhy;iyf; fhz;f?
a) Visa b) Migration c) Immigration d) Passport
104. A, I, P, V, A, E, ?
a) E b) F c) G d) H
109. STRAIGHT is related to HTRAIGST in the same way REMEMBERis related to?
STRAIGHT vd;gJ HTRAIGST cld; njhlu;GilaJ. vdpy; REMEMBER vd;gJ vjDld; njhlu;GilaJ?
a) ERMEMBRE b) EMREBMRE c) ERMEMRBE d) EREMMBER
110. BATTLE is related to YZGGOV in the same way PARENT is related to.?
BATTLE vd;gJ YZGGOV cld; njhlu;GilaJ. vdpy; PARENT vd;gJ vjDld; njhlu;GilaJ?
a) KZMIVG b) KZIVMG c) KIZVMG d) KZIGMV
111. In a certain code language PLAYER is written as AELPRY, then how will MANAGER be written in that
language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; PLAYER vd;gij AELPRY vd;W vOjpdhy; MANAGER vd;gij vt;thW
vOjyhk;?
a) AEAGMNR b) AAGEMNR c) AAEGMNR d) AAEGNMR
112. If in a certain code language NUMBER is related to 521647, COPTER is related to 893047, then COMPUTER
is related to?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; NUMBER vd;gij 521647 vd;Wk;> COPTER vd;gij 893047vd;Wk; vOjpdhy;
COMPUTER vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 81932407 b) 89123047 c) 89132047 d) 89132407
122. In a certain code, BAT=23 and CAT=24, then how will you code BALL
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; BAT=23 kw;Wk; CAT=24 vd;W vLj;Jf;nfhz;lhy;> BALL vd;gij vt;thW
vOjyhk;?
a) 27 b) 28 c) 32 d) 120
123. If Work is coded as 4-12-9-16, then how will you code WOMAN?
Work vd;gij 4-12-9-16 vd;W vOjpdhy;> WOMAN vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 4-12-14-26-13 b) 4-26-14-13-12 c) 23-12-26-14-13 d) 23-15-13-1-14
124. If in a code language, PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL is written as 93596, then how will ACCEPT be
written in that language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; PAINT vd;gij 74128 vd;Wk;> EXCEL vd;gij 93596 vd;Wk; vOjpdhy;
ACCEPT vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 455978 b) 544978 c) 554978 d) 733961
125. If in a code language, STRING is written as % =∗ −$ ÷ and PRAISE is written as ?∗ @ − % ×, then how will
GRAPES be written in that language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; STRING vd;gij % =∗ −$ ÷ vd;Wk;> PRAISE vd;gij ?∗ @ − % × vd;Wk;
vOjpdhy; GRAPES vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) ÷∗ @ ×? % b) ÷ @ ∗?× % c) ÷∗ @?× % d) ÷∗ −?× %
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
126. Choose the option which gives the correct order of the letters as indicated by the numbers to form words.
fPo;f;fhZk; vOj;Jfis ve;j tupirapy; vOJk; NghJ nghUs; jUk; nrhy;yhf khWfpwJ?
TIRBHG
123456
a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 b) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1 c) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1
127. F J M P O W R N B E Y C K A V L D G X U H Q I S Z T
Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F and D?
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s njhlu; tupirapy; F f;Fk; D f;Fk; ,ilNa eL vOj;jhf cs;s vOj;Jf;F tyJ
gf;fk; 10tJ vOj;J vJ?
a) D b) G c) X d) U
128. Which letter will be the eight to the right of the third letter of the second half of the English alphabet?
Mq;fpy vOj;Jf;fspd; ,uz;lhk; ghjpapd; %d;whtJ vOj;Jf;F tyJGwk; cs;s vl;lhtJ vOj;J vJ?
a) V b) W c) X d) Y
129. The positions of how many letters in the word WONDERFUL will remain unchanged when the letters
within the word are arranged alphabetically?
WONDERFUL vd;w thu;j;ijapy; cs;s vOj;Jf;fis mfu tupirg;gb mikf;Fk;NghJ> mjpy; vj;jid
vOj;Jf;fspd; epiyfs; khwhky; ,Uf;Fk;?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
130. A does a work in 8 days and B does the same work in 24 days. In how many days they together will do the
same work?
a) 5 days b) 6 days c) 8 days d) 9 days
A xU Ntiyia 8 ehl;fspYk; B mNj Ntiyia 24 ehl;fspYk; nra;J Kbg;ghu;fs;. vdpy; A,B ,UtUk;
Nru;e;J mNj Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; nra;J Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 5 ehl;fs; b) 6 ehl;fs; c) 8 ehl;fs; d) 9 ehl;fs;
131. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 9, 12 and 36 days respectively. Working together, they will
complete the same work in :
1 1 1 1
a) 4 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 b) 6 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c) 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 d) 10 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
2 2 2 2
A> B kw;Wk; C MfpNahh; KiwNa 9> 12 kw;Wk; 36 ehl;fspy; xU Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;. %tUk; xd;whf
Ntiy nra;tjd; %yk;> mtu;fs; mNj Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
1 1 1 1
a) 4 ehl;fs; b)6 ehl;fs; c)9 ehl;fs; d) 10 ehl;fs;
2 2 2 2
1 1
132. X can do of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do of the work in 13 days.
4 3
Who will complete the work first?
a) X b) Y c) Z d) X and Z both
1
X xU Ntiyapy; gq;F Ntiyia 10 ehl;fspYk;> mNj Nghd;w Ntiyapy; Y vd;gtu; 40% Ntiyia
4
1
40 ehl;fspYk;> Z jdpNa Ntiyia 13 ehl;fspYk; nra;J Kbf;Fk; jpwd; ngw;wtu;fs;. vdpy; Kjypy;
3
Ntiyia Kbg;gtu; ahu;?
a) X b) Y c) Z d) X, Z ,UtUk;
133. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they
will complete the work in :
a) 5 days b) 8 days c) 10 days d) 12 days
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
xU Ntiyia A kw;Wk; B ,ize;J 12 ehl;fspYk;> B kw;Wk; C ,ize;J 15 ehl;fspYk;> C kw;Wk; A
,ize;J 20 ehl;fspYk; nra;a KbAk;. vdpy; A> B kw;Wk; C ,ize;J nray;gl;lhy;> mtu;fs;
mt;Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 5 ehl;fs; b) 8 ehl;fs; c) 10 ehl;fs; d) 12 ehl;fs;
134. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60days less than B working
together, they can do it in :
1
a) 20 days b) 22 days c) 25 days d) 30 days
2
135. A is 50% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a job which B
alone could have done in 18 days?
1 1 1
a) 7 days b) 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c) 27 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 d) 11 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
5 2 3
A Mdtu; B I tpl 50% mjpf jpwd; nfhz;ltu;. xU Ntiyia B kl;Lk; jdpNa 18 ehl;fspy; nra;J
Kbf;Fk; jpwd; ngw;wtu;. vdpy; mtu;fs; xd;whfr; Nru;e;J Ntiyia nra;J Kbf;f vt;tsT fhyk;
vLj;Jf; nfhs;thu;fs;?
1 1 1
a) 7 ehl;fs; b)9 ehl;fs; c)27 ehl;fs; d) 11 ehl;fs;
5 2 3
136. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left the
job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
1
a) 5 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
2
A xU Ntiyia 18 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;> B mNj Ntiyia 15 ehl;fspy; nra;a KbAk;. B jdpahf
xU Ntiyia njhlq;fp 10 ehl;fs; Ntiy nra;J tpl;L epd;Wtpl;lhu;. kPjpAs;s Ntiyia A kl;Lk;
vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;?
1
a) 5 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
2
137. A can do a piece of work in 10 days; B in 15 days. They work for 5 days. The rest of the work was finished
by C in 2 days. If they get Rs.1500 for the whole work, the daily wages of B and C are
a) Rs.150 b) Rs.225 c) Rs.250 d) Rs.300
A xU Ntiyia 10 ehl;fspy; nra;a KbAk;ƒ mNj Nghd;W B 15 ehl;fspy; Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;.
,UtUk; Nru;e;J Ntiyiaj; njhlq;fp 5 ehl;fs; Ntiy nra;jdu;. kPjKs;s Ntiyia C kl;Lk;
jdpNa 2 ehl;fspy; Kbj;jhu;. ,t;Ntiyf;F nkhj;jkhf ` 1500 Cjpak; epu;zapf;fg;gl;bUe;jJ. vdpy;
B kw;Wk; C apd; xU ehs; Cjpak; vt;tsT?
a) &.150 b) &.225 c) &.250 d) &.300
138. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if
he is assisted by B and C on every third days?
a) 12 days b) 15 days c) 16 days d) 18 days
A> B kw;Wk; C Mfpait KiwNa 20> 30 kw;Wk; 60 ehl;fspy; xU Ntiyiar; nra;a KbAk;. A kl;Lk;
Ntiyia njhlq;fp Ntiy nra;fpwhu;. xt;nthU %d;whtJ ehl;fspYk; B kw;Wk; C ,UtUk; A f;F
cjtpdhy; vj;jid ehl;fspy; Ntiy KbAk;?
a) 12 ehl;fs; b) 15 ehl;fs; c) 16 ehl;fs; d) 18 ehl;fs;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
139. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 and 24 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together,
then how long will it take to fill the tank?
a) 9 min 36 seconds b) 9 min 48 seconds c) 12 min d) 8 min 24 seconds
A kw;Wk; B Mfpa ,uz;L Foha;fs; KiwNa 16 kw;Wk; 24 epkplq;fspy; xU njhl;bia epug;g KbAk;.
,uz;L Foha;fisAk; xNu Neuj;jpy; jpwe;Jtpl;lhy; njhl;b epuk;g vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;?
a) 9 epkplk; 36 tpdhbfs; b) 9 epkplk; 48 tpdhbfs;
c) 12 epkplk; d) 8 epkplk; 24 tpdhbfs;
140. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 and 12 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 24 hours. If all the three
pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in :
a) 4 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 7 hours
A kw;Wk; B Foha;fs; KiwNa 8 kw;Wk; 12 kzp Neuj;jpy; xU njhl;bia epug;g KbAk;. C Foha;
mj;njhl;bia 24 kzp Neuj;jpy; fhyp nra;JtpLk;. %d;W Foha;fisAk; xd;whfj; jpwe;jhy;> njhl;b
epuk;g vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;.?
a) 4 kzp Neuk; b) 6 kzp Neuk; c) 8 kzp Neuk; d) 7 kzp Neuk;