Salute Test - 3

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TamilNadu Uniform Services Recruitment Board

jkpo;ehL rPUilg; gzpahsu; Nju;T thupak;


Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors of Police (Taluk & AR)
rhu;G Ma;thsu;fs; Nju;T (jhY}fh kw;Wk; MAjg;gil)

Written Examination for Open Candidates / nghJ tpz;zg;gjhu;fSf;fhd vOj;J Nju;T

Questions Booklet Series Enrolment No. / Nru;f;if vz;

Number / tpdhj;jhspd;
Question Booklet Serial
/ tpdhj;jhspd; tif

tupir vz;
A OMR Answer Sheet Number /
OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;

Duration : 2 hours 30 minutes fhyk; : 2 kzp 30 epkplq;fs;


Total Marks : 70 nkhj;j kjpg;ngz;fs; : 70

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper should be opened only after receiving the instruction from the examination hall invigilator.
2. This question paper contains 80 questions in Part A (General Knowledge) and 60 questions in Part B (Tamil, English,
Psychology).
3. Answer all the questions.
4. Each correct answer has half mark.
5. Write the Enrolment No. and SL No. of the OMR answer sheet at the appropriate place in the front page of the question
paper.
6. The type of question booklet series and the correct answers to the questions (A, B, C or D) should be shaded in the
relevant circles using blue or black ball point pen. The answer sheet without shading the type of question booklet
series will not be evaluated.
7. For each question only one answer is to be chosen and shaded.
8. For wrong, multiple and improper shading in answer sheets, no marks will be given for that answer.
9. If there is any printing error, or error in Page No. in the question paper, the same should be brought to the notice of
the invigilator immediately and obtained a new question paper before the commencement of written examination.
10. All the questions are bilingual except language questions (English & Tamil).
mwpTiufs;
1. ,e;j tpdhj;jhis NjHT miw fz;fhzpg;ghsupd; mwpTWj;jy; ngw;w gpd;dNu jpwf;f Ntz;Lk;.
2. ,t;tpdhj;jhspy; gFjp „m… (nghJ mwpT) gpuptpy; 80 tpdhf;fSk; kw;Wk; gFjp „M… (jkpo;> Mq;fpyk;> cstpay;)
rk;ge;jkhd ghlq;fspy; 60 tpdhf;fSk; cs;sd.
3. midj;J tpdhf;fSf;Fk; tpilaspf;f Ntz;Lk;.
4. xt;nthU rupahd tpilf;Fk; miu kjpg;ngz; toq;fg;gLk;.
5. NrHf;if vz; kw;Wk; OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;iz mjw;Fupa ,lq;fspy; tpdhj;jhspd; Kjy; gf;fj;jpy; vOjTk;.
6. ,e;j tpdhj;jhspd; tif kw;Wk; rupahd tpilfis tpilj;jhspy; (A, B, C or D) mjw;Fz;lhd ,lj;jpy; ePyk;
(my;yJ) fUg;G epw ghy; ghapd;l; Ngdhit nfhz;L gl;il jPl;lTk;. tpdhj;jhspd; tifia gl;il
jPl;lhtpl;lhy;> me;j tpilj;jhs; kjpg;gplg;glkhl;lhJ.
7. xU tpdhtpw;F xU tpilia kl;LNk NjHT nra;J gl;il jPl;lTk;.
8. jtwhfNth> xU tl;lj;jpw;F Nky;gl;il jPl;bdhNyh> mbj;jy; jpUj;jq;fs; nra;jhNyh me;j tpilf;F kjpg;ngz;
fpilahJ.
9. tpdhj;jhspy; VNjDk; mr;Rg; gpioNah> gf;fq;fs; rupahf ,y;yhtpl;lhNyh> Nkw;ghHitahsuplk; Kiwapl;L
vOj;J NjHT njhlq;Ftjw;F Kd; rupahd kw;WnkhU tpdhj;jhisg; ngw;W nfhs;SkhW mwpTWj;jg;gLfpwJ.
10. ghlg;gFjp (Mq;fpyk; kw;Wk; jkpo;) tpdhf;fis jtpHj;J midj;J tpdhf;fSk; ,uz;L nkhopfspYk;
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd.
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

fzpad; IAS mfhlkp


101, tf;fPy; GJj;njU> rpk;kf;fy; g]; ];lhg; vjpupy;> kJiu - 1
njhlu;Gf;F : 7845454747

Njjp : 12.04.2023 rhu;GMa;thsu; Nju;T - 3 Neuk; : 2 kzp 30 epkplq;fs;

PART - A GENERAL STUDIES


gFjp - m - nghJmwpT

1. Mycology is the study of


a) Virus b) Bacteria c) fungi d) Algae
ikf;fhy[p vd;Dk; mwptpay; gbg;G fPo;f;fhZk; vjid rhHe;jJ?
a) itu];; b) ghf;Bhpah c) G+Q;ir d) My;fh

2. The word Protozoa is derived from which language?


a) Latin b) Greek c) French d) English
GNuhl;NlhNrhthf;fs; vd;gJ vk;nkhopr; nrhy; MFk;?
a) ,yj;jPd; b) fpNuf;fk; c) gpnuQ;R d) Mq;fpyk;

3. Penicillin was discovered by whom?


a) Alexander b) Edward Jenner c) Robert Hooke d) Robert Brown
ngdprpypid fz;lwpe;jtH ahH?
a) mnyf;]hz;lH b) vl;;th;l; n[d;dH c) ,uhgHl; `Pf; d) ,uhgHl; gpnusd;

4. Amoebic Dysentery was caused by which microorganism?


a) Rhabdo Viridae b) Entamoeba Histolytic c) Plasmodiuam d) Vibrio Cholera
mkpgpf; rPjNgjp Nehia Vw;gLj;Jk; Ez;Zaphp vJ?
a) Nug;Nlh tpupb b) vz;lkpgh `p];Nlhiybfh c) gpsh];Nkhbak; d) tpg;upNah fhyuh

5. Which the following is a Prokaryotic microorganism?


a) Virus b) Alae c) Fungi d) bacteria
fPo;f;fz;ltw;Ws; vJ xU GNuhNfhpNahl;bf; Ez;Zaphp MFk;
a) itu]; b) My;fh c) G+Q;ir d) ghf;Bhpah

6. Iodine is Obtained From which algae?


a) Spirulina b) Chlorella c) Laminaria d) Nostoc
ve;j ghrpapypUe;J mNahbd; ngwg;gLfpwJ?
a) ];igUypdh b) FNshnuy;yh c) NykpNdupah d) eh];lhf;

7. Cell wall of fungi is made up of


a) Hyphae b) Chitin c) Haustoria d) Mycelium
G+Q;irfspd; nry;RtH vjdhy; MdJ?
a) i`ghf;fs; b) ifl;bd; c) `h];Nlhhpah d) ikrPypak;

8. The most common edible mushroom is


a) Yeast b) Penicillin c) Agaricus d) Ashbya gospii
cz;zf; $ba fhshz; vJ?
a) <];l; b) ngdprpypd; c) mfhhpf]; d) M];gpah Nfh];gP
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
9. The system of naming the plants on scientific basis was first introduced by
a) Gaspard Bauhin b) Linnaeus c) Louis Pasteur d) None of the above
,U nrhy; ngahpLjy; Kiwia Kjd;Kjypy; mwpKfk; nra;jtH ahH?
a) fh];ghHL ghfpd; b) ypd;Nda]; c) Y}ap]; gh];baH d) vtUkpy;iy

10. Largest Herbarium of India is Located in


a) Tamil Nadu b) Karnataka c) Allahabad d) Kolkatta
,e;jpahtpYs;s kpfg;nghpa cyh;jhtu njhFg;G vq;F cs;sJ?
a) jkpo;ehL b) fHehlfh c) myfhghj; d) nfhy;fj;jh

11. Aerobic respiration releases how many times more energy than anaerobic respiration?
a) 36 b) 19 c) 45 d) 54
fhw;Ws;s RthrkhdJ fhw;wpy;yh Rthrj;jpid tpl vj;jid klq;F mjpf Mw;wiy ntspg;gLj;Jk;?
a) 36 b) 19 c) 45 d) 54

12. Which layer of the eye allows light to come in?


a) Pupil b) Iris c) Cornea d) Sclera
xspia fz;zpd; cl;gFjpf;Fs; mDg;GtJ vJ?
a) fz; ghit b) Ihp]; c) fhHdpah d) ];fpspuh

13. Which makes up the coloured Portion of the eye?


a) Pupil b) Iris c) Conjunctiva d) Sclera
fz;zpd; epwKs;s gFjp vJ?
a) fz; ghit b) Ihp]; c) fQ;[q;bth d) ];fpspuh

14. In the absence of oxygen, glucose is broken down into


a) Lactic acid b) Citric acid c) Acetic acid d) Nitric acid
fhw;wpy;yh my;yJ Mf;rp[Ndw;w #oypy; FSf;Nfh]; rpijtile;J vjidf; nfhLf;Fk;?
a) yhf;bf; mkpyk; b) rpl;hpf; mkpyk; c) mrpl;bf; mkpyk; d) iel;hpf; mkpyk;

15. Which one of the following organisms lack muscles and skeleton for movement?
a) Earthworm b) Snail c) Dog d) Human being
fPOs;s ve;j caphpdj;jpd; ,af;fj;jpw;F jirfs; kw;Wk; vYk;Gfs; fhzg;gLtjpy;iy?
a) kz;GO b) ej;ij c) eha; d) kdpjH

16. External ear (Pinna) is supported by


a) Bone b) Cartilage c) tendon d) Capsule
cq;fs; ntspg;Gw fhjpid jhq;FtJ vJ?
a) vYk;G b) FUj;njYk;G c) jirehH d) fhg;];A+y;

17. Which hormone is involved in the Contraction of smooth muscles of uterus during child birth?
a) Oxytocin b) Prolactin c) Luteinizing d) Estrongen
Foe;ij gpwg;gpd; NghJ jirfis RUq;fnra;J Foe;ij gpwg;ig vspjhf;Fk; `hHNkhd; vJ?
a) Mf;rpNlhrpd; b) GNuhyhf;bd; c) Y}l;bidrpq; d) <];lN; uh[d;

18. Cockroach moves with the help of its


a) Leg b) Bone c) Muscular foot d) Whole Body
fug;ghd; G+r;rp vjd; cjtpAld; efHfpwJ?
a) fhy; b) vYk;G c) jirfs; d) KO cly;

19. Adam's apple is the growth of the


a) Pharynx b) Thyroid c) Larynx d) Parathyroid
Mlk;]; Mg;gps; vd;gJ ,jd; tsHr;rp
a) njhz;il Fop b) ijuha;L c) Fuy; tis d) ghuh ijuha;L
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
20. Androgen Production is regulated by
a) G.H Hormone b) L.H. Harmone c) TSH Hormone d) ACTH Hormone
Mz;lN ; uh[d; cw;gj;jp vtw;why; xOq;Fg;gLj;jg;gLfpwJ?
a) GH `hHNkhd; b) LH `hHNkhd; c) TSH `hHNkhd; d) ACTH `hHNkhd;

21. Food Corporation of India (FCI) was set up on 1965 at


a) New Delhi b) Chennai c) Kolkatta d) Aduthurai
,e;jpa czTf; fofk; 1965y; vq;F njhlq;fg;gl;lJ?
a) GJnly;yp b) nrd;id c) nfhy;fj;jh d) ngq;f@H

22. Chipko movement was started in


a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1985 d) 1975
rpg;Nfh ,af;fk; ve;j Mz;L njhlq;fg;gl;lJ?
a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1985 d) 1975

23. In which year wangari mathai was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?
a) 2004 b) 1977 c) 2005 d) 2006
thq;fhp khjha; mth;fSf;F mikjpf;fhd Nehgy; ghpR toq;fg;gl;l Mz;L?
a) 2004 b) 1977 c) 2005 d) 2006

24. World Nature Conservation Day?


a) September 16 b) June28 c) June 5 d) March 22
cyf ,aw;if ghJfhg;G jpdk; vg;NghJ filgpbf;fg;gLfpwJ?
a) nrg;lk;gH 16 b) [Pd; 28 c) [Pd; 5 d) khHr; 22

25. World Biodiversity Day is Celebrated in


a) March 21 b) May 22 c) October 16 d) March 3
cyf gd;Kfj;jd;ik jpdk; ve;ehspy; nfhz;lhlg;gLfpwJ?
a) khHr; 21 b) Nk 22 c) mf;Nlhgh; 16 d) khHr; 3

26. Wildilife Protection Act in which year?


a) 1972 b) 1986 c) 1976 d) 1992
tdtpyq;F ghJfhg;Gr; rl;lk; ve;j Mz;L ,aw;wg;gl;lJ?
a) 1972 b) 1986 c) 1976 d) 1992

27. The method in which water flows over the soil surface and allow it to infiltrate is
a) Irrigation b) Surface Irrigation c) Springler irrigation d) Drip irrigation
kz; gug;gpy; gha;e;J kz;zpDs; CLUTk; Kiw vJ?
a) ePh;g; ghrdk; b) gug;G ePH ghrdk; c) njspg;G ePHg;ghrdk; d) nrhl;L ePH ghrdk;
28. The Period at which an organism attains sexual maturity is called?
a) Puberty b) adolescence c) growth d) maturity
caphpdq;fs; ghypd KjpHr;rpailAk; fhyk;
a) gUtkiljy; b) tshpsk; gUtk; c) tsHr;rp d) KjpHr;rp

29. Organism that control insects and pests of plant crops is


a) Bio-pesticides b) Bio-fertilizers c) earthworms d) Neem leaves
gapHfis ghjpf;Fk; G+r;rpfisAk; rpW G+r;rpfisAk; fl;Lg;gLj;Jk; caphpdq;fs; vJ?
a) caphp-G+r;rp nfhy;ypfs; b) caphp cuq;fs; c) kz;GOf;fs; d) Ntk;G ,iyfs;

30. The amphibians plants are called as


a) Pteridophytes b) Bryophytes c) Thallophyta d) Cryptogams
jhtu cyfpd; ,Utho;tpfs; ahit?
a) nlhpNlh igl;Lfs; b) gpiuNahigl;Lfs; c) jhNyh igl;lh d) fphpg;NlhNfk;fs;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
31. Which is widely used in the treatment of tuberculosis and bronchial asthma?
a) Keezhanelli b) Thoodhuvalai c) Kuppaimeni d) Vilvam
fhrNeha; kw;Wk; M];Jkh Neha;f;F kUe;jhf gad;gLtJ vJ?
a) fPohney;yp b) J}Jtis c) Fg;igNkdp d) tpy;tk;

32. Which is the longest bone of the human skeleton?


a) Femur b) Stapus c) sternum d) stapes
kdpj vYk;Gf; $l;bd; kpf ePskhd vYk;G vJ?
a) gPkH b) ];Nlg]; c) ];nldk; d) mq;ftb vYk;G

33. Fani cyclone occured in which year?


a) 2018 b) 2019 c)2017 d) 2016
ghdp #whtsp ve;j Mz;L cUthdJ?
a) 2018 b) 2019 c) 2017 d) 2016

34. When was Guindy National Park established?


a) 1976 b) 1980 c) 1989 d) 1990
fpz;b Njrpa G+q;fh ve;j Mz;L epWtg;gl;lJ?
a) 1976 b) 1980 c) 1989 d) 1990

35. When was world wildlife Day observed?


a) February 2 b) February 4 c) March 3 d) March 24
cyf tdtpyq;Ffs; jpdk; ve;ehspy; filgpbf;fg;gLfpwJ?
a) gpg;uthp 2 b) gpg;uthp 4 c) khHr; 3 d) khHr; 24

36. When was kalakad wildlife sanctuary is located in which district?


a) Theni b) chennai c) Tirunelveli d) Kanchipuram
fsf;fhL tdtpyq;F ruzhyak; vq;F cs;sJ?
a) Njdp b) nrd;id c) jpUney;Ntyp d) fhQ;rpGuk;

37. Where is Nandadevi Biosphere situated?


a) Meghalaya b) Manas c) Uttar Pradesh d) Odisha
ee;jh Njtp capHNfhs fhg;gfk; vq;Fs;sJ?
a) Nkfyah b) kdh]; c) cj;jpugpuNjrk; d) xbrh

38. Abbreviation of WWF?


a) Zoological survey of India b) Biosphere Reserve Programme
c) Central Pollution control Board d) World wildlife Fund
WWF vd;gJ fPOs;sitfspy; vjidf; Fwpf;Fk;?
a) ,e;jpa tpyq;fpay; Ma;T b) caph;Nfhs ghJfhg;G jpl;lk;
c) kj;jpa khR fl;Lg;ghl;L thhpak; d) cyf tdtpyq;F epjp

39. Where is Carbett national Park situated?


a) Uttar Pradesh b) Uttarkand c) Gujarat d) Sunderbans
fhHngl; Njrpa G+q;fh vq;F cs;sJ?
a) cj;jugpuNjrk; b) cj;ufhz;l; c) F[uhj; d) Re;jHgd;];

40. The file for recording endangered species is called as


a) Fauna b) Red Data Book c) Flora d) Biosphere reserve Programme
mopAk; jUthapy; cs;s rpw;wpdq;fisg; gw;wpa gjpT
a) ghdh b) rptg;G juT Gj;jfk; c) g;Nshuh d) capHNfhs ghJfhg;G jpl;lk;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
41. Match the following
i) The Dutch 1) 1664 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) The British 2) 1602 a) 1 2 3 4
iii) The Danish 3) 1600 b) 2 1 4 3
iv) The French 4) 1616 c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1
nghUj;jf:
i) lr;Rf;fhuHfs; 1) 1664 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Mq;fpNyaHfs; 2) 1602 a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Nldpah;fs; 3) 1600 b) 2 1 4 3
iv) gpnuQ;Rf;fhuHfs; 4) 1616 c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1

42. In which year did India came under the direct control of the British Government?
a) 1757 b) 1764 c) 1858 d) 1765
,e;jpah Mq;fpy murpd; Neub fl;Lg;ghl;bd; fPo; te;j Mz;L?
a) 1757 b) 1764 c) 1858 d) 1765

43. Match the following


i) First Mysore war 1) Treaty of madras (i) (ii) (iii)
ii) Second Mysore war 2) Treaty of mangalore a) 1 2 3
iii) Third Mysore wae 3) Treaty of srirangapatnam b) 2 1 3
c) 3 2 1
d) 1 3 2
nghUj;Jf:
i) Kjy; ik#H NghH 1) kjuh]; cld;gbf;if (i) (ii) (iii)
ii),uz;lhk; ik#H NghH 2) kq;f@H cld;gbf;if a) 1 2 3
iii)%d;whk; ik#H NghH 3) = uq;fg;gl;bdk; cld;gbf;if b) 2 1 3
c) 3 2 1
d) 1 3 2

44. Subsidiary Alliance was intorduced by whom?


a) Dalhousie b) Cornwallis c) Wellesley d) Hasting
Jizg;gilj; jpl;lj;ij mwpKfg;gLj;jpatH ahH?
a) ly;n`srp b) fhud; thyp]; c) nty;ny];yp d) N`];bq; gpuG

45. Match the following


i) Permanent settlement 1) William Benting (i) (ii) (iii)
ii) Ryotwari System 2) Cornwallis a) 1 2 3
iii) Mahalwari system 3) Thomas munro b) 2 1 3
c) 3 2 1
d) 2 3 1

nghUj;Jf:
i) epiyahd epy tUtha; 1) tpy;ypak; ngz;bq; (i) (ii) (iii)
ii) ,uaj;Jthhp Kiw 2) fhud;thyp]; gpuG a) 1 2 3
iii) kfy;thp Kiw 3) jhk]; kd;Nwh b) 2 1 3
c) 3 2 1
d) 2 3 1
46. Which was the first Peasants revolt?
a) Indigo Revolt b) Moplah Revolt c) Santhal Rebelion d) Pabna Revolt
tptrhapfspd; vOr;rpahf fUjg;gl;;l Kjy; fyfk; vJ?
a) ,z;bNfh fyfk; b) khg;sh fyfk; c) re;jhy; fyfk; d) ghg;dh fyfk;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

47. Who was the Pioneer in Tamil Nadu to Protest against English Rule in India
a) Virapandya Kattabomman b) Maruthu Brothers c) Velu Nachiyar d) Pulithevar
,e;jpahtpy; Mq;fpy Ml;rpia vjpHg;gjpy; jkpofj;jpy; Kd;Ndhbahfj; jpfo;e;jth; ahH?
a) tPughz;ba fl;lnghk;kd; b) kUJ rNfhjuHfs; c) NtYehr;rpahH d) G+ypj;Njth;

48. Match the following


i) Delhi 1) Kanwar Singh (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) Kanpur 2) Khan Bahadur Khan a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii) Jhansi 3) Nana Saheb b) 5 4 2 3 1
iv) Bareilly 4) Lakshmi Bai c) 5 3 4 2 1
v) Bihar 5) Bahadur shah II d) 4 5 3 2 1
nghUj;Jf:
i) nly;yp 1) fd;tH rpq; (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) fhd;G+H 2) fhd; gfJ}H fhd; a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii) [hd;rp 3) ehdh rhfpg; b) 5 4 2 3 1
iv) gnua;yp 4) ,yl;Rkp gha; c) 5 3 4 2 1
v) gPfhH 5) ,uz;lhk; gfJ}H \h d) 4 5 3 2 1

49. Which major suppressed the Vellore Revolt?


a) Agnew b) Lord william c) Gillespie d) Lord Canning
NtY}H fyfj;ij mlf;fpa ,uhZt jsgjp ahH?
a) mf;dpA+ b) tpy;ypak; gpuG c) [py;ny];gp d) fhdpq; gpuG

50. Which is called as the magnacarta of Education in India?


a) 1813, Charter Act b) Hunter education Committee c) Wood's Despatch d) Macaulay report
,e;jpahtpy; Mq;fpyf; fy;tpapd; 'kfhrhrdk;" vd;W miof;fg;gLtJ ve;j rl;lk;?
a) 1813 gl;lar; rl;lk; b) `z;lH fy;tpf; FO c) cl;]; mwpf;if d) nkf;fhNy mwpf;if

51. Match the following


i) Francis Xavier 1) University of Kochi (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Wood's Despatch 2) 1854 State Education for Full Restriction a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Sarfoji II 3) Saraswathi Mahal b) 2 1 4 3
iv) Sir Thomas munroe 4) Western Education in madras c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1
nghUj;Jf:
i) gpuhd;rp]; NrtpaH 1) nfhr;rp gy;fiyf;fofk; (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) cl;]; fy;tp mwpf;if 2) 1854 khepyf; fy;tp KOikahd fl;Lg;gfhL a) 1 2 3 4
iii) ,uz;lhk; ruNgh[p 3) ru];tjp k`hy; b) 2 1 4 3
iv) rh; jhk]; kd;Nwh 4) kjuh]; Nkw;fj;jpa fy;tp c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 3 2 1

52. The woollen and Leather factories became Prominent in


a) Dacca b) Bengal c) Sourashtra d) Kanpur
fk;gsp kw;Wk; Njhy; njhopw;rhiyfs; fhzg;gLk; Kf;fpa ,lk;
a) lhf;fh b) tq;fhsk; c) nrsuh\;buh d) fhd;G+H

53. what was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
a) Loss of royal Patronage b) Competition of machine made goods
c) Industrial Policy of India d) Trading Policy of British
,e;jpahtpy; njhopy;kak; mopjYf;F fhuzk; my;yhjJ vJ?
a) Ml;rpahsHfspd; Mjutpd;ik b) ,ae;jpuj;jhy; jahhpf;fg;gl;l nghUl;fspd; Nghl;b
c) ,e;jpahtpd; njhopw;Jiw nfhs;if d) gphpl;b\hhpd; th;j;jff; nfhs;if
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

54. Who started the servants of Indian Society?


a) Periyar b) Raja Rammohan Roy c) Gopal krishna Gokhale d) Kandukuri Veeresalingm
,e;jpa CopaH rq;fj;ij njhlq;fpatH ahH?
a) nghpahH b) uh[huhk; Nkhfd; uha; c) Nfhghy fpU\;z NfhfNy d) fe;J$hp tPNurypq;fk;

55. The first women doctor in India was


a) Panditha Ramabai b) Moovalur Ramamirdham c) Dharmambal d) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
,e;jpahtpd; Kjy; ngz; kUj;JtH ahH?
a) gz;bj ukhgha; b) %tY}H uhkhkpHjk; c) jHkhk;ghs; d) Kj;Jnyl;Rkp mk;ikahH

56. Match the following


i) Devadasi Abolition Act 1) 1930 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Saradha Act 2) 1947 a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Widow Remarriage Act 3) 1856 b) 2 1 3 4
iv) Abolition of sati 4) 1829 c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3
nghUj;Jf.
i) Njtjhrp xopg;Gr; rl;lk; 1) 1930 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) rhujh rl;lk; 2) 1947 a) 1 2 3 4
iii) tpjitfs; kWkz rl;lk; 3) 1856 b) 2 1 3 4
iv) rjp xopg;G 4) 1829 c) 4 3 2 1
d) 2 1 4 3

57. Which of the following was/were the reform movements?


a) Brahma Samaj b) Prarthana Samaj c) Arya Samaj d) All of the above
gpd;tUtdtw;wpy; vit rPhj ; pUj;j ,af;fk;
a) gpuk;k rkh[k; b) gpuhh;j;jid rkh[k; c) Mhpa rkh[k; d) ,it midj;Jk;

58. Choose the correct answer


a) Women were honoured during Rig Vedic Period b) Devadasi system is a social evil
c) Raja Rammohan Roy was the pioneer of social reform in India d) All of the above
rhpahdtw;iw NjHe;njLf;f
a) hpf; Ntj fhyj;jpy; ngz;fs; nfsutpf;fg;gl;ldH b) Njtjhrp Kiw rKf jPik
c) ,e;jpahtpd; r%f rPhj; pUj;j Kd;Ndhb uh[huhk; Nkhfd; uha; d) ,it midj;Jk;

59. Examine
Assertion (A) : The British set up their alternative Capitals in the hills areas.
Reason (R) : They found it difficult to live in India during summer.
a) Both (A), (R) correct b) (A) correct, (R) incorrect
c) Both (A), (R) incorrect d) (A) incorrect, (R) correct
$w;iw Muha;f.
$w;W : Mq;fpNyaHfs; jq;fsJ khw;W jiyefuq;fis kiyg;ghq;fhd gFjpfspy; mikj;;Js;sdH.
fhuzk; : mtHfs; ,e;jpahtpy; Nfhilfhyj;jpy; tho;tJ fbdk; vd vz;zpdh;.
a) $w;W> fhuzk; rhp b) $w;W rhp> fhuzk; jtW
c) $w;W fhuzk; jtW d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rhp

60. Which is the Oldest indurstry in India?


a) Weaving b) Steel c) Acriculture d) Cattle Herding
,e;jpahtpd; goikahd njhopy; vJ?
a) nerT b) v‡F c) Ntshz;ik d) fhy;eil Nka;j;jy;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
61. The Governor of a state, is appointed by whom?
a) President b) Vice President c) Prime minister d) Chief Minister
xU khepyj;jpd; MSeH ahuhy; epakpf;fg;gLfpwhH?
a) FbauRj;jiyth; b) Jizf;FbauRj;jiytH c) gpujk ke;jphp d) Kjyikr;rH

62. Match the following


i) Governor 1) Lower House (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Chief minister 2) Nominal Head a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Legislative 3) Upper House b) 2 4 1 3
iv) Legislative council 4) Real Head c) 1 4 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
nghUj;Jf.
i) MSeH 1) fPoit (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Kjyikr;rH 2) ngausTj; jiytH a) 1 2 3 4
iii) rl;lkd;w Nguit 3) Nkyit b) 2 4 1 3
iv) rl;lkd;w Nkyit 4) cz;ikahd jiytH c) 1 4 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
63. The citizenship Act of India Prescribes how many methods to acquire citizenship?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
,e;jpaf; FbAhpikr; rl;lk; vj;jid topKiwfspy; FbAhpik ngw ghpe;Jiuf;fpwJ?
a) ,uz;L b) %d;W c) ehd;F d) Ie;J

64. Which Article and part of the constitution of India deals with citizenship.
a) Part II Article 5-10 b) Part II Article 5-11 c) Part II Article 5-12 d) Part II Article 5-13
murpayikg;Gr; rl;lj;jpd; ve;jg; gFjp kw;Wk; gphpTfs; FbAhpikiag; gw;wpf; Fwpg;gpLfpd;wd.
a) gFjp II (tpjp - 5 Kjy; 10) b) gFjp II (tpjp - 5 Kjy; 11)
c) gFjp II (tpjp 5 Kjy; 12) d) gFjp II (tpjp 5 Kjy; 13)

65. Examine
Assertion (A) : When Pondicherry becomes the part of India in 1962, the people lived there became Indian
citizens.
Reason (R) : It was done by one of the provisions of The Act of 1955-by incorporation of Territory.
a) (R) is the correct explanation of (A) b) (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct d) Both (A) and (R) are Incorrect
$w;Wfis Muha;f.
$w;W : 1962 Mk; Mz;L ghz;br;Nrhp ,e;jpa A+dpad; gpuNjrj;Jld; ,ize;jJk; mq;F tho;e;j
kf;fs; ,e;jpa Fbkf;fshfpdH.
fhuzk; : 1955 ,e;jpaf; FbAhpikr; rl;lj;jpd; gb gpuNjrq;fis ,izj;jy; vd;gjd; mbg;gilapy;
mtHfs; ,e;jpa Fbkf;fshapdh;.
a) fhuzk; $w;Wf;F rhpahd tpsf;fk; b) fhuzk; $w;Wf;F rhpahd tpsf;fk; my;y
c) $w;W jtW> Mdhy; fhuzk; rhp d) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW

66. Who said "India will be a land of many faiths, equally honoured and respected but of one national
outlook".?
a) Gandhi b) Nehru c) Nethaji d) Ambedkar
,e;jpah gy;NtW ek;gpf;iffis rkkhf Nghw;wp kjpf;fg;gLk; ,lkhf ,Ug;gNjhL xNu Njrpa
fz;Nzhl;lj;ijf; nfhz;bUf;Fk; vd;W $wpatH ahH?
a) fhe;jp b) NeU c) Nejh[p d) mk;Ngj;fH

67. The word "secular" was incorporated in the Preamble through which amendment?
a) 40th amendment b) 41st amendment c) 42nd amendment d) 43rd amendment
ve;j murpayikg;Gr; rl;ljpUj;jj;jpd; gb 'rkarhHgw;w" vd;w nrhy; ,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy;
NrHf;fg;gl;lJ.
a) 40 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk; b) 41 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;
c) 42 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk; d) 43 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

68. Examine
Assertion (A) : A foreigner can practice is own religious faith in India.
Reason (R) : The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but also for the
aliens also.
a) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true c) A is false, but R is true d) Both A and R are true
$w;Wfis Muha;f.
$w;W : xU ntspehl;ltH ,e;jpahtpy; jdJ rkaj;ijg; gpd;gw;wyhk;.
fhuzk; : ,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy; cWjpaspf;fg;gl;Ls;s rka Rje;jpuk; ,e;jpaHfSf;F kl;Lky;yhky;
ntspehl;ltUf;Fk; cz;L.
a) $w;W rhp> fhuzk; jtW b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rhp
c) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rhp d) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW

69. When is Human Rights Day Observed?


a) December 10 b) December 5 c) December 24 d) December 11
xt;nthU Mz;Lk; ve;j ehs; kdpj chpik jpdkhf nfhz;lhlg;gLfpwJ?
a) brk;gH 10 b) brk;gh; 5 c) brk;gh; 24 d) brk;gH 11

70. The National Human Rights commission was constituted in


a) 1990 b) 1993 c) 1978 d) 1979
Njrpa kdpj chpikfs; Mizak; ve;j Mz;L epWtg;gl;lJ?
a) 1990 b) 1993 c) 1978 d) 1979

71. Who is the commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed forces?


a) President b) Prime minister c) Home minister d) Minister of Defence
,e;jpa MAjg; gilfspd; jiyik jsgjp ahH?
a) FbauRj;jiyth; b) gpujkH c) cs;Jiw mikr;rH d) ghJfhg;G Jiw mikr;rH

72. Match the following


i) Nelson mandela 1) 8 members (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) National war memorial 2) field marshal a) 4 2 5 1 3
iii) manakshaw 3) Energy development b) 4 5 2 3 1
iv) SAARC 4) Apartheid c) 4 5 2 1 3
v) BCIM 5) New Delhi d) 4 2 5 3 1
nghUj;Jf.
i) ney;rd; kz;Nlyh 1) 8 cWg;gpdH (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) Njrpa NghH epidT rpd;dk; 2) gPy;L khH\y; a) 4 2 5 1 3
iii) khdf;\h 3) vhprf;jp Nkk;ghL b) 4 5 2 3 1
iv) rhHf; 4) ,dntwp nfhs;if c) 4 5 2 1 3
v) gp.rp.I.vk; 5) GJ nly;yp d) 4 2 5 3 1

73. Where is the largest high court in India?


a) Kolkatta b) Mumbai c) Allahabad d) Chennai
ehl;bd; kpfg;nghpa caHePjpkd;wk; ve;j ,lj;jpy; mike;Js;sJ?
a) nfhy;fj;jh b) Kk;ig c) myfhghj; d) nrd;id

74. E-Courts Project was established in


a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 1982 d) 2007
,-ePjpkd;wk; (E-Court) jpl;lk; ve;j Mz;L njhlq;fg;gl;lJ?
a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 1982 d) 2007
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
75. Expansion of FIR
a) First Investigation Report b) First Information Result
c) First Information Report d) All of the above
FIR vd;gjd; tphpthf;fk;?
a) Kjy; epfo;T mwpf;if b) Kjy; jfty; KbT c) Kjy; jfty; mwpf;if d) Nkw;fz;l midj;Jk;

76. Match the following


i) Supreme Court 1) Social duties (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) High Court 2) Speedy Justice a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii) Lok Adalat 3) highest court of appeal b) 5 4 3 2 1
iv) Sir Elijah Impey 4) Highest court of in the states c) 3 4 2 5 1
v) Smiritits 5) First Chief Justice d) 5 3 1 2 4
nghUj;J
i) cr;r ePjpkd;wk; 1) r%f flikfs; (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
ii) caH ePjpkd;wk; 2) tpiuthd ePjp a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii) Nyhf; mjhyj; 3) ,Wjp Nky; KiwaPL ePjpkd;wk; b) 5 4 3 2 1
iv) rH vyp[h ,k;Ng 4) khepy caH ePjp kd;wk; c) 3 4 2 5 1
v) ];kpUjp 5) Kjy; jiyik ePjpgjp d) 5 3 1 2 4

77. The word Non-Alignment was coined by


a) Nehru b) Krishna Rajan c) Krishna menon d) Lakshmana Menon
mzpNruhik vd;w nrhy; ahuhy; cUthf;fg;gl;lJ?
a) NeU b) fpU\;z uh[d; c) fpU\;zNkdd; d) ,yl;RkzNkdd;

78. With which country does India share its border?


a) China b) Afghanistan c) Bhutan d) Indonesia
,e;jpah jdJ vy;iyia ve;j ehl;Lld; gfpHe;J nfhs;stpy;iy?
a) rPdh b) Mg;fhdp];jhd; c) G+lhd; d) ,e;NjhNdrpah

79. Indian Army Day is Celebrated in


a) August 15 b) January 26 c) January 15 d) March 10
,e;jpa ,uhZt jpdk; ve;ehs; mDrhpf;fg;gLfpwJ?
a) Mf];L 15 b) [dthp 26 c) [dthp 15 d) khHr; 10

80. India's Foreign policy is based on several principles. One of which is


a) Satyameva Jayate b) Panchas sheel c) both of these d) None of these.
,e;jpa ntspAwTf; nfhs;ifahdJ gy;NtW Nfhl;ghLfis mbg;gilahf nfhz;lJ. mtw;wpy;
VNjDk; xd;iw NjHe;njL.
a) rj;jpaNkt n[aNj b) gQ;rrPyk; c) Nkw;$wpa ,uz;Lk; d) vJTk; ,y;iy

PART - A PSYCHOLOGY
gFjp - M - cstpay;
81. Catherine gave a Masterly Performance in the Taming of the shrew.
a) Cruel b) Brilliant c) Influencing d) Crafty

82. The Children in the party were not attracted to Vapid entertainment.
a) Doll b) Grand c) Fun d) Series

83. Synonym "CEASE"


a) Stop b) lapse c) close d) arrest

84. Synonym "APPEAR"


a) See b) Seem c) allow d) enter
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

85. Synonym "Effect"


a) Result b) warning c) Chance d) Purpose

86. Although the treatment was abortive the doctor Learned a lot from the Response by the medicine
a) Ineffective b) violent c) silent d) Loud

87. Due to the the rapiers she is has been undergoing, her body is too weak to combat the infection anymore.
a) Normalize b) Accord c) Retreat d) flight

88. A group of People from the society cleared up the fritters to celebrate the world environment day
a) Waste b) crowd c) wrappers d) Garden

89. Synonym "MERCY"


a) merit b) sympathy c) Loss d) Pain

90. Synonym "DENY"


a) regain b) Refuse c) Repair d) Reduce

91. 'flTr;rl P L
; " vd;w nrhy;ypd; Mq;fpyr; nrhy;iyf; fhz;f?
a) Visa b) Migration c) Immigration d) Passport

92. ehkf;fy; ftpQH vd;W miof;fg;gLgth; ahH?


a) ,uhkypq;f mbfs; b) ghujpahH c) ,uhkypq;fdhH d) Rujh

93. jpUts;Sthpd; rpwg;G ngaHfspy; nghUe;jhjJ vJ?


a) Kjw;ghtyH b) nre;ehg;NghjhH c) ngha;apy; Gyth; d) nre;jkpo; me;jzH

94. jpUts;StH 'tha;ik" vd vjidf; Fwpg;gpLfpwhH?


a) md;ghfg; NgRjy; b) jPq;F juhj nrhw;fisg; NgRjy;
c) gzpthfg; NgRjy; d) td;nrhy; NgRjy;

95. Njrpak; fhj;j nrk;ky; vd;W gRk;nghd; Kj;Juhkypq;fdhiu ghuhl;batH ahH?


a) ,uh[h[p b) nghpahH c) jp.U.tp.f. d) Nejh[p

96. vl;Lj;njhif E}y;fspy; rhpahdJ my;yhjJ vJ?


a) GwehD}W b) ew;wpiz c) mfehD}W d) kJiuf;fhQ;rp

97. fhyj;jpd; mUikiaf; $Wk; mjpfhuk; vJ?


a) fy;tp b) tpidawpjy; c) fhykwpjy; d) kbapd;ik

98. gphpj;njOJf - 'nrg;NgL"


a) nrg;+VL b) nrg; +vL c) nrg;G+VL d) nrg;G+NaL

99. eifr;Rit czHT ntspg;gLkhW tiuag;gLk; Xtpak; vJ?


a) Fif Xtpak; b) RtH Xtpak; c) fz;zhb Xtpak; d) Nfypr; rpj;jpuk;

100. jpUney;Ntyp ve;j kd;dHfNshL njhlHGilaJ?


a) NruH b) NrhoH c) ghz;baH d) gy;ytH

Find the Missing Term:


tpLgl;l vOj;ijf; fhz;f :
101. A, C, F, H,?,M
a) L b) K c) J d) I
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747

102. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT


a) LM b) MN c) MP d) OM

103. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?


a) KJA b) KTC c) LHD d) LJC

104. A, I, P, V, A, E, ?
a) E b) F c) G d) H

105. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL


a) FMI b) GMJ c) GLJ d) HLK

106. Which one is wrong : 1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR


jtwhd xd;iwf; fhz;f : 1CV, 5FU, 9IT, 15LS, 17OR
a) 5FU b) 15LS c) 9IT d) 17OR

107. Which one is wrong : HGF, XWV, OPQ, NML


jtwhd xd;iwf; fhz;f : HGF, XWV, OPQ, NML
a) HGF b) XWV c) OPQ d) NML

108. Which one is wrong : BCYX, HIRQ, EFVU, JKQP


jtwhd xd;iwf; fhz;f : BCYX, HIRQ, EFVU, JKQP
a) BCYX b) HIRQ c) EFVU d) JKQP

109. STRAIGHT is related to HTRAIGST in the same way REMEMBERis related to?
STRAIGHT vd;gJ HTRAIGST cld; njhlu;GilaJ. vdpy; REMEMBER vd;gJ vjDld; njhlu;GilaJ?
a) ERMEMBRE b) EMREBMRE c) ERMEMRBE d) EREMMBER

110. BATTLE is related to YZGGOV in the same way PARENT is related to.?
BATTLE vd;gJ YZGGOV cld; njhlu;GilaJ. vdpy; PARENT vd;gJ vjDld; njhlu;GilaJ?
a) KZMIVG b) KZIVMG c) KIZVMG d) KZIGMV

111. In a certain code language PLAYER is written as AELPRY, then how will MANAGER be written in that
language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; PLAYER vd;gij AELPRY vd;W vOjpdhy; MANAGER vd;gij vt;thW
vOjyhk;?
a) AEAGMNR b) AAGEMNR c) AAEGMNR d) AAEGNMR

112. If in a certain code language NUMBER is related to 521647, COPTER is related to 893047, then COMPUTER
is related to?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; NUMBER vd;gij 521647 vd;Wk;> COPTER vd;gij 893047vd;Wk; vOjpdhy;
COMPUTER vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 81932407 b) 89123047 c) 89132047 d) 89132407

113. Complete the series : aab_aa_bbb_aaa_bbb


njhliu epiwT nra;f : aab_aa_bbb_aaa_bbb
a) abba b) baab c) aaab d) abab
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
114. Complete the series : bc_b_c_b_ccb
njhliu epiwT nra;f : bc_b_c_b_ccb
a) cbcb b) bbcb c) cbbc d) bcbc

115. Complete the series : ab_bc_c_ba_c


njhliu epiwT nra;f : ab_bc_c_ba_c
a) baac b) aabb c) caab d) aaab

116. Complete the series : ac_cab_baca_aba_acac


njhliu epiwT nra;f : ac_cab_baca_aba_acac
a) aacb b) acbc c) babb d) bcbb

117. NOPQ : MLKJ :: HIJK : ?


a) DEFG b) EFGH c) FEDC d) GFED

118. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?


a) ADGF b) HDGE c) HDGF d) HEGF

119. WYX: ACB :: IKJ : ____


a) NMO b) NOM c) MNO d) MON

120. Choose the odd one :


khWgl;l xd;iwj; Nju;T nra;f.
a) SSTO b) OOTU c) TTOU d) USTO

121. Choose the odd one :


nghUj;jkw;w xd;iwj; Nju;T nra;f.
a) AEIO b) BFJN c) CGKO d) DHLP

122. In a certain code, BAT=23 and CAT=24, then how will you code BALL
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; BAT=23 kw;Wk; CAT=24 vd;W vLj;Jf;nfhz;lhy;> BALL vd;gij vt;thW
vOjyhk;?
a) 27 b) 28 c) 32 d) 120

123. If Work is coded as 4-12-9-16, then how will you code WOMAN?
Work vd;gij 4-12-9-16 vd;W vOjpdhy;> WOMAN vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 4-12-14-26-13 b) 4-26-14-13-12 c) 23-12-26-14-13 d) 23-15-13-1-14

124. If in a code language, PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL is written as 93596, then how will ACCEPT be
written in that language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; PAINT vd;gij 74128 vd;Wk;> EXCEL vd;gij 93596 vd;Wk; vOjpdhy;
ACCEPT vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) 455978 b) 544978 c) 554978 d) 733961

125. If in a code language, STRING is written as % =∗ −$ ÷ and PRAISE is written as ?∗ @ − % ×, then how will
GRAPES be written in that language?
xU FwpaPlL ; nkhopapy; STRING vd;gij % =∗ −$ ÷ vd;Wk;> PRAISE vd;gij ?∗ @ − % × vd;Wk;
vOjpdhy; GRAPES vd;gij vt;thW vOjyhk;?
a) ÷∗ @ ×? % b) ÷ @ ∗?× % c) ÷∗ @?× % d) ÷∗ −?× %
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
126. Choose the option which gives the correct order of the letters as indicated by the numbers to form words.
fPo;f;fhZk; vOj;Jfis ve;j tupirapy; vOJk; NghJ nghUs; jUk; nrhy;yhf khWfpwJ?
TIRBHG
123456
a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 b) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1 c) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1

127. F J M P O W R N B E Y C K A V L D G X U H Q I S Z T
Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between F and D?
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;s njhlu; tupirapy; F f;Fk; D f;Fk; ,ilNa eL vOj;jhf cs;s vOj;Jf;F tyJ
gf;fk; 10tJ vOj;J vJ?
a) D b) G c) X d) U

128. Which letter will be the eight to the right of the third letter of the second half of the English alphabet?
Mq;fpy vOj;Jf;fspd; ,uz;lhk; ghjpapd; %d;whtJ vOj;Jf;F tyJGwk; cs;s vl;lhtJ vOj;J vJ?
a) V b) W c) X d) Y

129. The positions of how many letters in the word WONDERFUL will remain unchanged when the letters
within the word are arranged alphabetically?
WONDERFUL vd;w thu;j;ijapy; cs;s vOj;Jf;fis mfu tupirg;gb mikf;Fk;NghJ> mjpy; vj;jid
vOj;Jf;fspd; epiyfs; khwhky; ,Uf;Fk;?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three

130. A does a work in 8 days and B does the same work in 24 days. In how many days they together will do the
same work?
a) 5 days b) 6 days c) 8 days d) 9 days
A xU Ntiyia 8 ehl;fspYk; B mNj Ntiyia 24 ehl;fspYk; nra;J Kbg;ghu;fs;. vdpy; A,B ,UtUk;
Nru;e;J mNj Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; nra;J Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 5 ehl;fs; b) 6 ehl;fs; c) 8 ehl;fs; d) 9 ehl;fs;

131. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 9, 12 and 36 days respectively. Working together, they will
complete the same work in :
1 1 1 1
a) 4 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 b) 6 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c) 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 d) 10 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
2 2 2 2
A> B kw;Wk; C MfpNahh; KiwNa 9> 12 kw;Wk; 36 ehl;fspy; xU Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;. %tUk; xd;whf
Ntiy nra;tjd; %yk;> mtu;fs; mNj Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
1 1 1 1
a) 4 ehl;fs; b)6 ehl;fs; c)9 ehl;fs; d) 10 ehl;fs;
2 2 2 2

1 1
132. X can do of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do of the work in 13 days.
4 3
Who will complete the work first?
a) X b) Y c) Z d) X and Z both
1
X xU Ntiyapy; gq;F Ntiyia 10 ehl;fspYk;> mNj Nghd;w Ntiyapy; Y vd;gtu; 40% Ntiyia
4
1
40 ehl;fspYk;> Z jdpNa Ntiyia 13 ehl;fspYk; nra;J Kbf;Fk; jpwd; ngw;wtu;fs;. vdpy; Kjypy;
3
Ntiyia Kbg;gtu; ahu;?
a) X b) Y c) Z d) X, Z ,UtUk;

133. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work together, they
will complete the work in :
a) 5 days b) 8 days c) 10 days d) 12 days
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
xU Ntiyia A kw;Wk; B ,ize;J 12 ehl;fspYk;> B kw;Wk; C ,ize;J 15 ehl;fspYk;> C kw;Wk; A
,ize;J 20 ehl;fspYk; nra;a KbAk;. vdpy; A> B kw;Wk; C ,ize;J nray;gl;lhy;> mtu;fs;
mt;Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 5 ehl;fs; b) 8 ehl;fs; c) 10 ehl;fs; d) 12 ehl;fs;

134. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60days less than B working
together, they can do it in :
1
a) 20 days b) 22 days c) 25 days d) 30 days
2

A vd;gtu; B iag; Nghd;W %d;W klq;Fjpwikahdtu;. NkYk; B ia tpl 60 ehl;fSf;F Kd;Ng xU


Ntiyia Kbf;Fk; jpwd; ngw;wtu;. vdpy; ,UtUk; Nru;e;J mt;Ntiyia njhlq;fpdhy; vj;jid
ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
1
a) 20 ehl;fs; b) 22 ehl;fs; c) 25 ehl;fs; d) 30 ehl;fs;
2

135. A is 50% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a job which B
alone could have done in 18 days?
1 1 1
a) 7 days b) 9 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c) 27 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 d) 11 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
5 2 3
A Mdtu; B I tpl 50% mjpf jpwd; nfhz;ltu;. xU Ntiyia B kl;Lk; jdpNa 18 ehl;fspy; nra;J
Kbf;Fk; jpwd; ngw;wtu;. vdpy; mtu;fs; xd;whfr; Nru;e;J Ntiyia nra;J Kbf;f vt;tsT fhyk;
vLj;Jf; nfhs;thu;fs;?
1 1 1
a) 7 ehl;fs; b)9 ehl;fs; c)27 ehl;fs; d) 11 ehl;fs;
5 2 3

136. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left the
job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
1
a) 5 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
2
A xU Ntiyia 18 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;> B mNj Ntiyia 15 ehl;fspy; nra;a KbAk;. B jdpahf
xU Ntiyia njhlq;fp 10 ehl;fs; Ntiy nra;J tpl;L epd;Wtpl;lhu;. kPjpAs;s Ntiyia A kl;Lk;
vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;?
1
a) 5 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
2

137. A can do a piece of work in 10 days; B in 15 days. They work for 5 days. The rest of the work was finished
by C in 2 days. If they get Rs.1500 for the whole work, the daily wages of B and C are
a) Rs.150 b) Rs.225 c) Rs.250 d) Rs.300
A xU Ntiyia 10 ehl;fspy; nra;a KbAk;ƒ mNj Nghd;W B 15 ehl;fspy; Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;.
,UtUk; Nru;e;J Ntiyiaj; njhlq;fp 5 ehl;fs; Ntiy nra;jdu;. kPjKs;s Ntiyia C kl;Lk;
jdpNa 2 ehl;fspy; Kbj;jhu;. ,t;Ntiyf;F nkhj;jkhf ` 1500 Cjpak; epu;zapf;fg;gl;bUe;jJ. vdpy;
B kw;Wk; C apd; xU ehs; Cjpak; vt;tsT?
a) &.150 b) &.225 c) &.250 d) &.300

138. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if
he is assisted by B and C on every third days?
a) 12 days b) 15 days c) 16 days d) 18 days
A> B kw;Wk; C Mfpait KiwNa 20> 30 kw;Wk; 60 ehl;fspy; xU Ntiyiar; nra;a KbAk;. A kl;Lk;
Ntiyia njhlq;fp Ntiy nra;fpwhu;. xt;nthU %d;whtJ ehl;fspYk; B kw;Wk; C ,UtUk; A f;F
cjtpdhy; vj;jid ehl;fspy; Ntiy KbAk;?
a) 12 ehl;fs; b) 15 ehl;fs; c) 16 ehl;fs; d) 18 ehl;fs;
fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
139. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 and 24 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together,
then how long will it take to fill the tank?
a) 9 min 36 seconds b) 9 min 48 seconds c) 12 min d) 8 min 24 seconds
A kw;Wk; B Mfpa ,uz;L Foha;fs; KiwNa 16 kw;Wk; 24 epkplq;fspy; xU njhl;bia epug;g KbAk;.
,uz;L Foha;fisAk; xNu Neuj;jpy; jpwe;Jtpl;lhy; njhl;b epuk;g vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;?
a) 9 epkplk; 36 tpdhbfs; b) 9 epkplk; 48 tpdhbfs;
c) 12 epkplk; d) 8 epkplk; 24 tpdhbfs;

140. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 and 12 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 24 hours. If all the three
pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in :
a) 4 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 7 hours
A kw;Wk; B Foha;fs; KiwNa 8 kw;Wk; 12 kzp Neuj;jpy; xU njhl;bia epug;g KbAk;. C Foha;
mj;njhl;bia 24 kzp Neuj;jpy; fhyp nra;JtpLk;. %d;W Foha;fisAk; xd;whfj; jpwe;jhy;> njhl;b
epuk;g vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;.?
a) 4 kzp Neuk; b) 6 kzp Neuk; c) 8 kzp Neuk; d) 7 kzp Neuk;

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