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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 11 – SLEEP & FATIGUE

1. How long is a free running circadian rhythm ?


a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 29 hours

2. When is the circadian cycle of temperature at its lowest ?


a) At about 0500 hrs
b) At about 0 100 hrs
c) At about 0300 hrs
d) Varies from day to day

3. What does the duration of sleep depend on ?


a) The mental and physical exercise taken prior to sleep
b) The number of hours awake prior to sleep
c) Timing i.e . when the body temperature is falling
d) The quality of the REM sleep

4. What is the maximum number of "sleep credits" that can be accumulated and what is the minimum time to
accumulate them ?
a) 24 credits and it will take 12 hours
b) 8 credits and it will take 16 hours
c) 16 credits and it will take 12 hours
d) 16 credits and it will take 8 hours

5. When does orthodox (slow wave sleep) occur and what does it restore ?
a) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the body
b) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain
c) It occurs early in the sleep cycle - stages 1 & 2 and it restores the body
d) It occurs late in the sleep cycle - stages 3 & 4 and it restores the brain

6. If the sleeper awakes early, how does this effect the next sleep pattern ?
a) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need more sleep
b) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" and will need twice the amount of sleep lost to catch up
c) They will "rebound" so that the current sleep pattern will make up those stages lost in the previous spell
of sleep
d) The sleeper goes into a "sleep deficit" which is carried forward

7. How many stages are there in a sleep cycle ?


a) 3 stages plus REM
b) 4 stages plus REM
c) 3 stages including REM
d) 4 stages including REM

8. How long is a sleep cycle?


a) 90 minutes
b) 120 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 30 minutes

9. What will an EOG trace during REM sleep ?


a) Little activity
b) A lot of activity
c) Intermittent activity
d) No activity

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

10. What is the function of REM sleep ?


a) To refresh the body after exercise
b) To refresh the body and brain following physical and mental activity
c) To assist in the organisation of memory and helping to co-ordinate and assimilate new information
learned
d) To exercise the brain so it is prepared for the next day

11. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which returns within 24 hours, should he adjust his/her
sleep pattern ?
a) Yes
b) Yes - as soon as possible
c) Yes - over the next 48 hours
d) No - stay on U.K. time

12. As a general rule, if a pilot is rostered for a flight which has 24 hours or more in a country where there is a
time zone difference, should he adjust his/her sleep pattern ?
a) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 8 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
b) Yes and try and arrange it so that the sleep pattern allows 10 hours sleep before "wakeup" call
c) No - stay on UK time
d) No - not necessary unless he/she stays for over 48 hours

13. How long does it take for the circadian rhythm to re-synchronise to local time after crossing time zones ?
a) Approximately 2 days per 1 to 2 hours of time change
b) Approximately 1 day per 1 to 2 hours of time change
c) Approximately 2 days per 1 to ½ hours of time change
d) Approximately 1 day per 1 to ½ hours of time change

14. Does it make any difference to the circadian rhythm adjusting to time zone changes if the flight is to the
East or West ?
a) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to West bound flights
b) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more quickly to East bound flights
c) No - it make no difference. West or East have the same effect
d) Yes, due to the free running of the circadian rhythm tends to adjust more slowly to West bound flights

15. What effect does drinking alcohol before sleep have to the sleep pattern ?
a) A small amount (one beer or a small whisky) is of help to relax the body prior to sleep and thus enhances
the sleep pattern
b) It lengthens REM sleep and the length of sleep
c) It shortens REM sleep and the length of sleep
d) It has not significant effect on the sleep pattern itself but does effect other systems of the body adversely

16. When suffering from sleep deprivation, will performance be further decreased by altitude ?
a) No
b) Yes
c) Sometimes
d) Under certain circumstances

17. Hypovigilance is akin to a microsleep.


a) True
b) False

18. The two forms of fatigue are


a) Mental and physical
b) Short-term and chronic
c) Mental and body
d) Psychological and physiological

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

19. Insomnia is divided into


a) Psychological and physiological
b) Mental and physical
c) Clinical and situational
d) Clinical and physiological

20. Can you fly suffering from narcolepsy ?


a) Under the strict supervision of an Aviation Medical Specialist
b) Sometimes - it depends on the degree
c) Never
d) By day only

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 12 – INDIVIDUAL DIFF. & INTE PERSONAL REL.

1. What is the most effective way of analysing personality ?


a) Group therapy
b) Written questionnaires
c) Personal interviews
d) Two Dimensional Model analysis

2. How would a person who is aggressive and changeable be described ?


a) Aggressive extravert
b) Unpredictable extravert
c) Unreliable extravert
d) Anxious extravert

3. What are the personality traits of a good pilot?


a) Reliable and stable
b) Stable and extraverted
c) Reliable and extraverted
d) Reliable, calm and extraverted

4. What characteristics will authoritarian pilots display ?


a) Are autocratic on most occasions
b) Are autocratic with the crew of the aircraft but submissive when dealing with when an emergency or
when under stress
c) Are autocratic when in command and submissive when confronted by someone of higher perceived
status
d) Tend to be authoritarian when dressed in uniform and when dealing with both air and cabin crew

5. What "P" and "G" qualities should a pilot have ?


a) G+P+
b) G++ P++
c) G++P+
d) P+P+

6. How will a person tend to react if they are confronted with a decision from someone they perceive as
having a higher status ?
a) Listen to, believe, and comply with the decision.
b) Avoid confrontation
c) Become introverted
d) Question the decision

7. If an average ability group make a decision, is it likely to be better or worse than one made by the
individual members ?
a) Worse
b) Tends to be either
c) 75% of the time better
d) Better

8. If a group - with someone who has above average ability - makes a decision, is the decision likely to be
better or worse than one made by the above average person on their own ?
a) Unlikely to be better
b) Likely to be better
c) Likely to be worse
d) It depends on the number of the member of the group

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

9. Is a group decision likely to be more or less risky than one made by the individual members ?
a) Less risky
b) Sometimes more risky
c) Sometimes less risky
d) More risky

10. What should a Captain do before making a non-urgent decision ?


a) Put his own view forward and then ask for the opinions of other members of the crew
b) Consider all the implications
c) Encourage ideas from the crew before stating his own opinion
d) Monitor his motor programme (flying)

11. Body Language is


a) Non-verbal communication
b) Sign Language
c) Aggression
d) Verbal communication which is open to cultural problems

12. Self-discipline is an essential quality of the "ideal" pilot


a) True
b) False

13. Is a constituted crew an advantage in commercial aviation


a) Always
b) Sometimes
c) Depending on the task
d) None of the above

14. What are the three types of Authority Gradients Cockpit


a) Autocratic, Subjective, Synergistic
b) Autocratic, Submissive, Synergistic
c) Laisser-Faire, Subjective, Synergistic
d) Autocratic, Laisser-Faire, Synergistic

15. There is no place at all for authoritarianism in the air


a) True
b) False

16. The Laisser-Faire cockpit may arise when


a) The Captain is suffering from stress
b) The Captain is pre-occupied
c) On a competent co-pilot's leg
d) On an incompetent co-pilot's leg

17. To counter-act an authoritarian cockpit crews should


a) Ensure that they ensure that their opinions are heard in spite of possible confrontation
b) Remain silent and sort it all out on the ground
c) Co-operate in a conciliatory form but the contents of this co-operation is firm
d) Obtain support from another crew member

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 13 – COMMUNICATION & CO-OPERATION

1. CFIT means
a) Controlled Flight in Terminal airspace
b) Controlled Flight into Terrain
c) Controlled Flying in Training
d) Controlled Flying in Taxiways (helicopters)

2. Implicit questions are


a) Is another name for closed questions
b) Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
c) Does not Require deductions to be made before an answer is possible
d) Require a quick answer

3. Good Synergy is
a) 1+1 = 2
b) l+1 = <2
c) 1 + 1 = 4
d) 1 + 1 =>2

4. Co-ordination is divided into the three following types


a) Redundant Actions, Temporal and Co-action
b) Redundant Actions, General Co-operation and Co-action
c) General Co-operation, Temporal and Co-action
d) Cognitive Co-action, General Co-operation and Temporal

5. Synchronization can be said to be divided into


a) Temporal Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.
b) Cognitive Synchronization, Temporal Synchronization, Rational Synchronization.
c) Cognitive Synchronization and Temporal Synchronization.
d) Cognitive Synchronization and Rational Synchronization.

6. One BIT of communication is the quantity of information which reduces the uncertainty of the Receiver by
a) 75%-85%
b) 65-75%
c) 55-75%
d) 50%

7. Hypertext
a) Can alter according to the situation
b) Is fixed for all situations
c) Can alter according to the tone
d) Can alter as to the meaning implied

8. The contents of a Transmitter's message will depend on


a) The Receiver's image of the Transmitter
b) The Transmitter's image of the Receiver
c) The Transmitter's image of the situation
d) The Transmitter's image of the perceived situation

9. The following is/are the first to suffer from inter-human conflicts


a) Concentration and focus on the job in hand
b) Situation Awareness
c) Communications and cockpit harmony
d) Communications and quality of work

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

10. Having interrupted your Captain for a sound reason you must
a) Attempt to establish eye contact with him/her
b) Remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption
c) Make sure there is no ATC traffic on the radio
d) You must never interrupt

11. A briefing should consist of less than


a) 7 ideas
b) 10 ideas
c) 7 sentences
d) 10 sentences

12. Among the rules to improve crew co-operation are


a) Good briefings and awareness of cultural differences
b) Good briefings and a harmonious cockpit atmosphere
c) Use professional language
d) Resist putting your opinion forward first

13. What are the five hazardous attitudes which play a leading role in the inability of an individual to cope with
a potentially dangerous situation ?
a) Anti-authority, Over confident, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
b) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned
c) Anti-authority, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Over confident
d) Over confident, Impulsive, Invulnerable, Macho and Resigned

14. Communication in the cockpit is primarily used for what purpose ?


a) It is the main tool to ensure coordination
b) It is the main tool to ensure comprehension
c) It is the main tool to ensure harmony
d) It is the main tool to ensure understanding

15. What is meant by the term "Synergy" ?


a) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance
b) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances
c) Synergy is the state where the group performance exceeds the sum of the individual performances by
50%
d) Synergy is the state where the individual performances exceeds the sum of the group performance by 5
0%

16. In co-ordinated action what does the term "redundant actions" mean ?
a) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
b) The strict duplication of actions by two individuals
c) Actions which are in the past
d) Actions which have been covered by the check list

17. What is meant by "co-action" ?


a) Individuals working in the different environments but sharing the same general objectives and working
independently in carrying out their actions
b) An action by the co-pilot
c) The strict duplication of actions by various individuals
d) Individuals working in the same environment and sharing the same general objectives but working
independently in carrying out their actions

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

18. In communications what is Hypertext ?


a) The set of implicit information contained in a written text or spoken message
b) A recommended layout for checklists
c) The set of implicit information contained in a spoken message
d) A recommended layout for checklists and emergency drills

19. What is a dialogue ?


a) A conversation between two people
b) A series of communications on different subjects between a transmitter and receiver
c) A series of communications on the same subject between a transmitter and receiver
d) A communication between two or more people or machines

20. What are the key points of a good briefing ?


a) Individual, understood and simple
b) Individual, clear and simple
c) Individual, understood and short
d) Simple, clear, understood and individual

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 14 – MAN AND MACHINE

1. What is anthropometry ?
a) The study of Man's adaption to machines
b) A branch of anthropology
c) The study of human measurement
d) The study of the adaption of machines to Man's needs

2. What percentage of the appropriate population are anthropometric data table measurements taken from ?
a) 80%, ie the tenth to the ninetieth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
b) 90%, ie the fifth to the ninety-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
c) 50%, ie the twenty-fifth to the seventy-fifth percentile, using contour, dynamic and static data
d) None of the above

3. What is the most common check-list error


a) Action slip
b) Too many capital letters are used
c) Responded to automatically
d) Missing items

4. What is the purpose of the lumbar support ?


a) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and higher neck bones
b) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine and shoulder bones
c) To allow the most comfortable position for the spine
d) To produce an even pressure of the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally

5. What are the essential characteristics of a cockpit warning ?


a) It should have the best attention-getting qualities as possible
b) It should be attention-getting but not alarming
c) It should have attention-getting qualities which do not compromise a clear indiction to the pilot of the
faulty component/system
d) Must not dazzle or possibly compromise the crew's night vision

6. What is the most important feature of flight deck design ?


a) Escape and emergency exits should be clear of obstructions
b) The Design Eye Point must be clearly marked
c) Important controls must be located in easily reached and unobstructed positions
d) Control and indicators should be standardised

7. What will the pilot lose sight of on the approach if seated below the Design Eye Point ?
a) Some of the undershoot
b) Some of the overshoot
c) Peripheral objects especially at night
d) The Sight View

8. What instrument is best for showing small change ?


a) A digital display
b) An analogue display
c) A mixed digital/analogue display
d) Ultra/high-precision gyro instrument

9. What colour should the `Alert' warning be on a CRT ?


a) Bright red and flashing
b) Steady Red
c) Flashing yellow/amber
d) Steady yellow

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

10. Which Pitot/static instrument is most likely to be misread ?


a) The ASI at night illuminated by a red light
b) The ASI at night illuminated by low intensity white light
c) The three point altimeter
d) The four point altimeter

11. A manually operated valve should be opened by


a) Turning it clockwise
b) Turning it anti-clockwise
c) Turning either way
d) Depends on the system it operates

12. The three types of Anthropometric measurements are


a) Static, Design, Contour
b) Contour, Design, Dynamic
c) Static, Dynamic, Contour
d) Static, Dynamic, Design

13. In the Shell Model L stands for


a) Latent errors
b) Long-termed errors
c) Lengthy errors
d) Liveware

14. System Tolerance can be sub-divided into


a) Protected and semi-protected systems
b) Protected and endangered systems
c) Protected and vulnerable systems
d) Protected and quasi-protected systems

15. A flashing red warning light on a CRT normally indicates


a) There is a fault in a critical system
b) Emergency
c) Alert d) Danger

16. Automation Complacency is


a) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot
b) Overconfidence in the handling capability of the pilot of computers
c) Over-reliance on automation
d) The blind belief in automation

17. Mode error is associated with


a) Automation
b) Hardware
c) INS
d) Software

18. A danger of automation is that


a) There can be greater delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect
b) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are shortened
c) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect are not appreciated
d) Delays between the performance of the crew and its ultimate effect have no effect

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

19. Automation
a) Helps with unusual and unexpected situations
b) May result in a pilot being unaware of important information when dealing with an unusual and
unexpected situation
c) Increases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations
d) Decreases reaction time when dealing with unusual and unexpected situations

20. Automation can result in


a) Lack of information being passed between crew members
b) Too much information being passed between crew members
c) Confused information being passed between crew members
d) Too much detailed information being passed between crew members

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
CHAPTER 15 – DECISION MAKING & TASK

1. What are the categories of risk ?


a) Objective/Sudden and Subjective/Gradual
b) Sudden/Impromptu and Gradual/Planned
c) External/Objective and Internal/Subjective
d) Impromptu/Objective and Planned/Subjective

2. The Commander is ultimately responsible for all decisions made in the cockpit
a) True
b) False

3. There is no difference between "deciding" and "decision-making"


a) True
b) False

4. A decision is "good" when


a) It can be implemented within the available time
b) Time is not an issue. The decision must be correct
c) Time can be an issue but the correct perception is the important factor
d) When other members of the crew agree

5. Preparation is essential for good decision-making when time is an issue


a) True
b) False

6. One of the possible problems of preparation is


a) Action Slip
b) Confirmation Bias
c) Error of Commission
d) Environment Capture

7. If a person will tend to overestimate the frequency of


a) A common but negative occurrence
b) A common but beneficial occurrence
c) A rare but beneficial occurrence
d) A are but negative occurrence

8. Negative events are tended to be overestimated when


a) They are well published
b) Obvious
c) Under published
d) The results are unclear

9. The risk of an Airprox is normally


a) Overestimated
b) Underestimated
c) Discounted
d) Accurately assessed

10. Evaluation of options in the decision-making process involve


a) Positive and negative considerations
b) Values and costs
c) Planned and impromptu considerations
d) Assigning tasks

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

11. People tend to be biased to make a


a) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is greater
b) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the former is less
c) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is greater
d) Risky loss rather than a certain loss even if the expected loss from the latter is far greater

12. "Press-on-tis" is a
a) Common dilemma faced by all pilots
b) Is only experienced by skilled pilots
c) Only happens to inexperienced pilots
d) Is rarely faced by good pilots

13. The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander's decision
a) True
b) False

14. People tend to focus on salient cues


a) True
b) False

15. Fatigue/overload
a) Sometimes affects decision-making
b) Rarely affects decision-making
c) Never affects decision-making
d) Always affects decision-making

16. In the decision-making process, what should follow "Review and feedback" ?
a) Assign Tasks
b) Decide
c) Risk assessment
d) Diagnose and define objective

17. Man is extremely capable of accurate risk assessment


a) True
b) False

18. Input from the crew is an important factor in the decision-making process
a) True
b) False

19. Lack of experience will have the following effect on the decision-making process
a) Will speed it up (leaping in at the deep end
b) Slow it down
c) Have no effect
d) Disrupt the process

20. The decision process should include the crew


a) True
b) False

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

16 (13-18) HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 1

1. The composition of the atmosphere from sea level to about 70,000ft retains proportions of.
a) 50%Nitrogen, 40%Oxygen, 10%other gases.
b) 78%Oxygen, 21 %Nitrogen, 1 %other gases.
c) 78%Nitrogen, 21 %Oxygen, 1 %other gases.
d) 76%Nitrogen, 14%Oxygen, 10%other gases.

2. Oxygen is required by the human body to:


a) clear the blood of impurities produced in the body.
b) derive energy from food by oxidation.
b) produce Carbon Dioxide to maintain the correct acidity of the blood.
c) to assure the conversion of fats and proteins to Carbohydrates required for tissue regeneration

3. Gas exchange between the air and blood takes place:


a) through the mucous lining of the Trachea and Bronchi.
b) between the interior of the alveoli and the capillaries on the alveoli walls.
c) from the whole surface of the lungs via the fluid in the thoracic cavity.
d) by means of the Pulmonary artery, linking the lungs directly to the heart.

4. Oxygen is transported in the blood:


a) dissolved in the blood plasma.
b) in chemical combination with haemoglobin in the white blood cells.
c) as microscopic bubbles linked to blood platelets.
d) in combination with haemoglobin in the red blood cells.

5. An individual who is short of Oxygen may try to compensate by increasing the rate and depth of breathing.
This process is called:
a) hypoxic compensation.
b) presbycusis.
c) hyperventilation.
d) carbonic dysrhythmia.

6. A free running circadian rhythm exhibits a periodicity of about:


a) 23 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 25 hours.
d) 26 hours.

7. Constantly seeking information to anticipate situations and to take the right decisions:
a) can be dangerous, as it may distract attention from flying the aircraft.
b) is impossible for pilots as they can only absorb a limited amount of information at any one time.
c) enables maintenance of situational awareness.
d) always carries the risk of constructing a false mental model.

8. Safety in commercial air transport:


a) is better than road safety, but not as good as rail safety.
b) though effective, lagging behind road and rail safety.
c) increasing each year, due to the increasing automation of modern aircraft.
d) better than road safety and rail safety.

9. `Slow wave' sleep occurs:


a) during low voltage high frequency Delta brain wave activity.
b) sleep stages 3 and 4.
c) as an individual first starts to fall asleep.
d) during the dreaming stage of REM sleep.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

10. Strengthening and organizing the human memory when learning new tasks is believed to occur in:
a) REM sleep.
b) slow wave sleep.
c) sleep stages 3 and 4.
d) stages 1 and 2 sleep.

11. The most common form of amnesia affects:


a) episodic memory.
b) short term or working memory,
c) semantic memory.
d) echoic and iconic memory.

12. The time of useful consciousness for a pilot, undertaking moderate activity, when exposed to progressive
decompression at 30,000 ft is:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 45 seconds.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 2 to 3 minutes.

13. Required Oxygen for an individual experiencing a moderate workload at 37,000 ft can be provided by
breathing:
a) 100% Oxygen under pressure.
b) An Oxygen/Air mixture
c) 100% Oxygen.
d) A mixture of Oxygen and helium to balance the partial pressure in the lungs.

14. The General Adaptation Syndrome has in sequence the following phases:
a) alarm phase - denial phase - acceptance phase.
b) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase.
c) stressor - resistance phase - adaptation phase.
d) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase.

15. With a large aircraft maintaining a standard 3° approach to a runway, the touchdown point will be:
a) at the visual aiming point.
b) further into the runway than the visual aiming point.
c) short or long from the visual aiming point depending on the runway slope.
d) short of the visual aiming point.

16. `Risky shift' is:


a) a flight or task undertaken at a time when the body's circadian rhythms are at their lowest point of
efficiency.
b) the process by which the central decision-maker will ignore any information which does not fit the
mental model created by the situation.
c) the tendency of a group of individuals to accept a higher risk than any individual member of the group.
d) the natural tendency of the human mind to blame outside agencies for any errors made in an emergency
situation.

17. The eye datum or design eye position in the cockpit is established:
a) so that the pilot can maintain an adequate view of all the important displays inside, and of the world
outside with minimum head or body movements.
b) to enable the pilot to see all his flight instruments within minimum scan movements of the head.
c) at the centre of the artificial horizon or flight director indicator.
d) to determine the eventual size of the flight deck and where the window frames will be positioned so as to
give minimum interference to the pilot's field of view.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

18. The most dangerous characteristic of a false mental model is that:


a) it will mainly occur under conditions of low arousal.
b) it will mainly occur under conditions of stress.
c) it is extremely resistant to change.
d) it will always be modified to meet the expectations of the individual.

19. Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 hazardous attitudes?


a) Macho.
b) Anti-authority.
c) Impulsivity.
d) Domination.

20. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long term memory, it is necessary to:
a) learn to store information in a logical way.
b) mentally rehearse information before it is needed.
c) structure the information as much as possible before committing it to memory.
d) avoid pointlessly activating information, which we know will soon be needed.

21. If a stimulus is expected and the response prepared; when an unexpected stimulus is received:
a) the prepared response is likely to be carried out.
b) the mind will `freeze' and will require a reminder a reminder from its data store before actioning the new
demand.
c) the prepared response will be transferred to the long term memory store.
d) the mind will `switch off and ignore the unexpected stimulus.

22. The area on the retina where the optic nerve receives all the information from the light sensitive cells of the
retina is:
a) the blind spot.
b) The fovea.
c) The Rod/Cone intersection point.
d) The most sensitive part of the retina with the highest visual acuity.

23. The eye can adjust to changing light intensities by varying the diameter of the pupil. This can change the
intensity of the light falling on the retina by a factor of:
a) 10:1
b) 2:1
c) 5:1
d) 20:1

24. Following a flight that transits numerous time zones, the associated shifting of Zeitgebers helps
resynchronization to the new local time at the average rate of:
a) 2.5 hours per day.
b) 1.5 hours per day.
c) 4 hours per day.
d) 1 hour per day if the flight has been westward and 2 hours per day if the flight has been eastward.

25. A man is considered to be obese if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 18 b) 25 c) 22 d) 30

26. Divided attention:


a) is a fallacy, a pilot can only concentrate on one thing at a time.
b) makes it possible to detect abnormal values for flight parameters even though they are not the pilot's
immediate concern.
c) makes it possible to increase the number of simultaneously managed tasks in safety.
d) makes it possible to carry out several cognitive processes at the same time.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

27. The human body can tolerate short duration acceleration forces of up to 45G:
a) in the vertical axis.
b) in the fore and aft axis.
c) in the lateral axis.
d) when suitable anti-G straining techniques are employed.

28. Barotrauma of the cranial sinuses is most likely to occur;


a) during the descent.
b) among elderly passengers.
c) In the climb.
d) In persons with a history of cardio-vascular problems.

29. Motor programmes:


a) are stored as working rules in long term memory.
b) require conscious thought to engage.
c) an be retained for only a few minutes.
d) the behavioural sub routines.

30. During visual scanning the eye movements should be:


a) large and frequent.
b) Small and infrequent.
c) Small and frequent.
d) Large and infrequent.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

16 (19-24) HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 2

1. The `time of useful consciousness' for an individual experiencing rapid decompression at an altitude of 25,000 ft is:
a) 45 - 75 seconds.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 12 seconds.

2. During scanning of both the instruments and the exterior, the approximate duration of a saccade is:
a) 0.1 seconds.
b) 1/3 second.
c) 1.0 second.
d) variable, depending on the angular difference between the two objects to be scanned.

3. Rule based behaviours are stored in the brain:


a) as sets of rules in long term memory.
b) as `bits' in the working memory.
c) as conditioned responses in motor programmes.
d) as rule giving automatic linkage between the semantic and working memories.

4. The cabin pressure in commercial pressurized aircraft is normally maintained at an equivalent atmospheric
pressure:
a) always equivalent to sea level.
b) normally not exceeding 2,000 to 3,000 feet.
c) normally not exceeding 6,000 to 8,000 feet.
d) normally not exceeding 10,000 to 12,000 feet.

5. `Environment capture' is the process whereby:


a) the pilot becomes fixated on the outside environment and neglects to monitor the instruments in the
cockpit.
b) the pilot keeps `head in cockpit' to an extreme degree and may therefore miss vital cues from the external
environment.
c) the pilot is unable to allocate priorities between the exterior and interior environments causing confusion
and the possibility of mistakes.
d) the fact of being at a particular stage of flight may cause an automatic response to checks when the
actions have not actually been completed.

6. At altitude the necessary oxygen requirements may be provided for normal respiration by an oxygen/air
mix up to:
a) 30,800 ft.
b) 40,000 ft.
c) 24,000 ft.
d) 33,700 ft.

7. The partial pressures of various gases in the alveoli differs from those in atmospheric air because:
a) chest muscles and diaphragm raise the lung pressure to above atmospheric pressure.
b) there is a significant increase of carbon dioxide and water vapour in the alveoli.
c) oxygen is removed at a higher rate from alveolar air than carbon dioxide replaces it.
d) the venturi effect of air passing through the trachea and bronchi causes a reduction of pressure in the alveoli.

8. In respiration the functions of the nasal passages are to:


a) enable the detection of possible noxious gases and trigger the body's defences.
b) trap harmful particles and bacteria their mucous membranes so that they will not pass into the very
dedicate lung tissue.
c) filter, warm and humidify air drawn in during inspiration.
d) sample the air to enable the respiratory mechanism to adjust the rate and depth of breathing.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

9. Any individual who has been SCUBA diving should avoid flying:
a) within 36 hours of the last dive.
b) within 24 hours or 48 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
c) only after consultation with a doctor if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.
d) within 12 hours, or 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded.

10. The major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart attack is:
a) family history.
b) smoking.
c) the amount of saturated fats in the diet.
d) hypertension (high blood pressure).

11. Loss of hearing due to damage or defects in the eardrum or auditory ossicles is;
a) presbycusis.
b) noise induced hearing loss (NIHL)
c) conductive deafness.
d) middle ear disconnection.

12. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:


a) a false banking sensation due to disturbance in the endolymph of the inner ear.
b) a combined pitch up and banking sensation.
c) a feeling of pitch up when the aircraft decelerates causing an automatic attempt to push the nose of the
aircraft down.
d) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates.

13. What means can be used to combat human error?


1) Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
2) Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.
3) Sanctions against the initiators of errors.
4) Improving recovery from error and its consequences.
The combination of correct statements is:
a) 3 and 4.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 2, 3, and 4.
d) l , 2 and 4.

14. A system can be said to be tolerant of error when:


a) its safety system is too subject to error.
b) its safety system has taken into account all statistically probable errors.
c) the consequence of error will not seriously jeopardize safety.
d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety.

15. The physiological responses to high levels of stress are:


a) fear, anxiety, depression.
b) sweating, dryness of the mouth, breathing difficulties.
c) indecision, inattention, withdrawal.
d) temporary mental confusion, restlessness.

16. The term `atmospheric perspective' in aviation means:


a) a change in the attitude of the aircraft could lead to misinterpretation of the runway length.
b) the tendency for objects to become indistinct with distance.
c) the tendency of objects of certain colours to remain in view for longer periods during differing light
conditions.
d) the presence of a sloping cloud bank may be mistaken for a horizon, causing a pilot who is flying VMC
to bank the aircraft to align it with the cloud bank.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

17. The `fight or flight' response occurs when:


a) a normal non-aggressive person suffers stress as result of shock, turns pale, trembles and chooses to flee
rather than fight.
b) in anger a person becomes red in the face, aggressive and chooses to fight rather than flee.
c) the sympathetic nervous system provides an individual with the resources to cope with a new and sudden
source of stress.
d) the parasympathetic nervous system provides extra resources for an individual to cope with a new and
sudden source of stress.

18. The working memory is limited in its capacity to store unrelated items. The number of such items that may
be stored with full attention is:
a) 7±2.
b) 7.
c) 5+2.
d) 4.

19. If information in the working memory is not rehearsed it will be lost in:
a) 1 to 2 minutes.
b) 8 to 12 seconds.
c) 5 to 10 minutes.
d) 10 to 20 seconds.

20. Anthropometry is:


a) the study of human behaviour in response to stress.
b) the study of sleep patterns and circadian rhythms.
c) the study of the relationship between man and his working environment
d) the study of human measurement.

21. In the event of a rapid decompression, the venturi effect of the airflow passing the fuselage may lead to:
a) a restriction of vision due to the sudden pressure drop causing water vapour to condense in the cabin.
b) the cabin altitude being at a higher altitude than the aircraft altitude.
c) a sudden rise in the skin temperature of the fuselage with the danger of igniting any fuel spillage.
d) a decrease in the rate at which the cabin depressurizes as the aircraft speed increases.

22. The generally accepted model for the acquisition of expertise or skill comprises three stages:
a) cognitive, associative and automatic.
b) cognitive, associative and expert.
c) associative, automatic and expert.
d) automatic, cognitive and expert.

23. According to Rasmussen's activity model, errors are of the following type in skill-based mode:
a) routine errors.
b) errors of technical knowledge.
c) handling errors.
d) creative errors.

24. Stress may be defined as:


a) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities.
b) A psychological phenomenon which affects only fragile personalities.
c) A normal phenomenon that enables an individual to adapt to situations encountered.
d) A human reaction which individuals must manage to eliminate.

25. Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution to interpersonal conflicts?
a) responding with logical counter arguments.
b) steadfastly maintaining one's own point of view.
c) active listening.
d) surrendering one's own point of view.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

26. The speed of any learning process can be increased by:


a) gradually increasing the psychological pressure on the students.
b) punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
c) reinforcing successful trials.
d) reinforcing errors made during the learning process.

27. Decision making in emergency situations requires primarily:


a) speed of reaction.
b) the distribution of tasks and crew coordination.
c) strong situational awareness.
d) the whole crew to focus on the immediate problem.

28. Sinuses in the skull are required to:


a) act as a reservoir for those fluids necessary to maintain the mucous membranes of the respiratory system
in a healthy state.
b) provide a system that allows any sudden pressure changes to be over the whole skull.
c) act as a drain system to allow cranial fluids to maintain correct pressure during altitude changes.
d) to make the skull lighter and the voice resonant.

29. The red blood cells are produced in the body by:
a) the bone marrow.
b) The spleen when triggered by hormone secretion.
c) The liver and pancreas.
d) The liver and spleen.

30. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:


a) used primarily during daylight.
b) highly sensitive to colour changes.
c) sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells.
d) concentrated in the area of the fovea.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

16 (25-30) HUMAN PERFORMANCE MC 3

1. The part of the retina with the highest visual acuity is:
a) the optic nerve entry point.
b) the fovea.
c) the retinal optical focus point.
d) the rod/cone balance point.

2. The effect on an individual of smoking 20 cigarettes a day is to increase the experienced altitude by:
a) 2 to 3 thousand feet.
b) 5 to 6 thousand feet.
c) A factor of about 20% of the ambient pressure.
d) 5 to 8 hundred feet.

3. Small amounts of carbon monoxide present in the air causes:


a) an improvement in the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
b) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to its blocking action on the diffusion of
oxygen through the walls of the alveoli.
c) A tarring and blackening of the lungs leading to a reduced ability to allow gas passage across the lung
surface.
d) A reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood due to the much greater affinity of haemoglobin to
carbon monoxide than to oxygen.

4. Breathing 100% oxygen will supply sufficient oxygen for normal respiration up to an altitude of:
a) 24,000 ft.
b) 33,700 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) 40,000 ft.

5. The effect of an increasing altitude on the gastro-intestinal tract may cause stretching of the small bowel if
gas is present. This possibility may be reduced by:
a) limiting the amounts of liquids taken during the flight to sufficient to relieve dryness of the mouth.
b) following a lifestyle which leads to regular bowel movement.
c) avoiding before flight the foodstuffs that cause the production of intestinal gases.
d) taking mild antacid tablets when the problem first arises.

6. One of the classes of effects of stress is cognitive stress. Cognitive effects can be identified as:
a) forgetfulness, lack of concentration, difficulty in `switching off
b) sleep disorders, increased heart rate and dry mouth.
c) sweating, mental block, disassociation.
d) fatigue, apathy, anxiety.

7. The composition of the atmosphere at sea level is 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1 % other gases. These
proportions will:
a) remain constant up to the tropopause.
b) remain constant up to about 70,000 feet.
c) vary as the aircraft climbs.
d) remain constant to about 20,000 feet when the proportion of oxygen will reduce considerably as more of
the oxygen will be converted to ozone.

8. The capacity of the working memory may be expanded by:


a) constant repetition of the material.
b) `chunking' the material.
c) immediate transfer of the material to the long term memory.
d) practice of the use of mnemonics as memory aids.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

9. Professional languages have certain characteristics. They:


1) use a limited vocabulary (a maximum of about 500 words)
2) are rich and adapted to the context which sometimes leads to ambiguities.
3) have technical characteristics allowing them to have a strong syntax.
4) Have a context which provides meaning and reduces the risk of ambiguities.
The correct statement(s) is/are?
a) 4.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 1 and 4.

10. Discussing private matters in the cockpit:


a) decreases the captains role in leadership
b) should be avoided in flight.
c) Can improve team spirit
d) Is appropriate at any stage of the flight.

11. Co-action is a mode of coordination that involves:


a) working in parallel to achieve individual objectives with independent and unrelated aims.
b) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations.
c) working in parallel to achieve one common objective, with independent but specified aims.
d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions.

12. A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should:


a) descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower
level.
b) decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms.
c) continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve pain in the affected site.
d) land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance.

13. A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircraft by:
a) minimising the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible:
b) moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object.
c) maximising the tim spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement.
d) maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft a relying on peripheral vision to detect any
movement from the side.

14. The temperature range of a flight deck to be comfortable should be:


a) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 40 - 60%
b) l 0°C to 25°C with a relative humidity of 20 - 30%
c) 15°C to 30°C with a relative humidity of 70 - 80%
d) 30°C to 40°C with a relative humidity of 30 - 40%

15. Confirmation bias:


a) tends to make the pilot accept information that confirms his diagnosis of a situation and reject
information that does not fit into his theory.
b) Makes the pilot look for the most probable solution to a problem to avoid using the full checklist.
c) Will cause the pilot to believe in a particular solution if the other crew members agree with him.
d) Is the reinforcement of any idea by any past experience of a similar problem.

16. The four primary flight instruments arranged in the standard `T' consists of:
a) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, T'SLIP.
b) ASI, AH/FDI, DI/RMI, RMI.
c) ASI, AH/FDI, ALT, DI/HIS.
d) ASI, ALT, DI/HIS, RMI.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

17. The sunglasses used by a pilot should have a luminance transmittance of:
a) 50 to 60%.
b) 10 to 15%.
c) 20 to 40%.
d) 5 to 8%.

18. The time of useful consciousness when suffering an explosive decompression at 40,000 ft is:
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 to 3 minutes.
c) 45 to 75 seconds.
d) about 12 seconds.

19. The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is:


a) motion sickness.
b) heart attack or circulatory problems.
c) acute gastro-enteritis.
d) spatial disorientation.

20. The heart muscle requires its own blood supply. This is provided by:
a) the pulmonary artery.
b) direct diffusion from the interior of the heart.
c) the aortic arch.
d) the coronary arteries.

21. Raised blood pressure (hypertension) is the main risk factor in the development of:
a) strokes.
b) angina.
c) coronary infarcts.
d) ferric haemoglobin poisoning.

22. A man is considered to be overweight if his Body Mass Index (BMI) is over:
a) 20.
b) 25.
c) 30.
d) 35.

23. Physical stimuli received by the sensory organs may be stored for a brief period of time after the input has
ceased. The visual and auditory sensory stores are:
a) visual - echoic memory lasting about o.5 to 1 second. auditory - iconic memory lasting up to 7 seconds.
b) auditory - echoic lasting 2 to 8 seconds. visual - iconic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
c) visual - iconic lasing 2 to 8 seconds auditory - echoic lasting 0.5 to 1 second.
d) visual - iconic lasting 3 to 4 seconds. auditory - echoic about 3 to 8 seconds.

24. Thinking on human reliability is changing. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive functions of humans and are
generally inescapable.
b) human errors can be avoided. It will however extending one's knowledge and extreme vigilance.
c) the individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view.
d) it is believed that it will be possible to eliminate all errors in the future.

25. How would one interpret the following statement; `one cannot avoid communication'?
a) every situation requires communication.
b) One can not influence one's own communications.
c) Being silent or inactive are also non-verbal behaviour patterns that are meaningful.
d) Differences in language or culture may prevent any meaningful communication.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Human Performance (ATPL/FOOL)

26. Information in the short term memory:


a) is not affected by the arrival of new information.
b) is only retained for 2 to 3 minutes.
c) can be retained for long periods.
d) must be actively rehearsed to ensure long term retention.

27. The permanent denial of a flying licence will be the be the result of the pilot suffering from:
a) depression.
b) anxiety and phobic states.
c) obsessional disorders.
d) schizophrenia or manic depression.

28. A function of the vestibular apparatus is to:


a) assist in maintaining spatial orientation.
b) control motion sickness.
c) maintain visual orientation.
d) enhance hearing ability, especially at high frequencies.

29. The amount of stress experienced with a particular task is dependent on:
a) the actual demand and the actual ability.
b) the perceived demand and the actual ability.
c) the actual demand and the perceived ability.
d) the perceived demand and the perceived ability.

30. An excessive noise level would increase reaction and performance:


a) during periods of low arousal.
b) during periods of high arousal
c) never.
d) during periods of boredom or fatigue.

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