Common Test 1 - Two Year CRP2325
Common Test 1 - Two Year CRP2325
Common Test 1 - Two Year CRP2325
FIITJEE – (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(ii) Part-A (07-12) – Contains Six (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: − 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in − 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-B (01-06) contains Six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals to Two decimal places (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and
each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
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IT−2025 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 2
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A dipole of dipole moment p ˆi is placed at P(1, 0) in the field E = 3x 2 ˆi . The torque exerted
on dipole is
(A) F = 6piˆ (B) F = −6piˆ
(C) U = −3p (D) = 0
q q 2q y
4. Consider a system of three charges , and −
3 3 3
placed at points A, B and C, respectively, as shown in B
the figure. Take O to be the centre of the circle of
C
radius R and angle CAB = 60o O x
q 60o
(A) the electric field at point O is directed along
8 0R 2 A
the negative x-axis
(B) the potential energy of the system is zero
q2
(C) the magnitude of the force between the charges at C and B is
540R2
q
(D) the potential at point O is
120R
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5. A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric field. The electric
potential energy of the charge
(A) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
(B) increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(C) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(D) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
8. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the
plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles:
(A) The charge on the capacitor increases.
(B) The voltage across the plate increases.
(C) The capacitance increases.
(D) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases.
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10. A ring with a uniform charge distribution with a total charge Q and radius R is placed in the
yz plane with its centre at the origin then which of the following is/are correct about this
situation:
(A) The field at the origin is zero.
1 Q
(B) The potential at the origin is
40 R
1 Q
(C) The field at the point (x, 0, 0) is
40 x 2
1 Q
(D) The field at the point (x, 0, 0) is
40 R2 + x 2
11. A large insulating thick sheet of thickness 2d is charged with a uniform volume charge
density . A particle of mass m, carrying a charge q having a sign opposite to that of the
sheet, is released from the surface of the sheet. The sheet does not offer any mechanical
resistance to the motion of the particle. Find the oscillation frequency v of the particle
inside the sheet:
1 q 1 2q
(A) v = (B) v =
2 m 0 2 m 0
1 q 1 q
(C) v = (D) v =
4 m 0 3 m 0
PART – B
(Numerical Type)
1. Two equal positive point charges are separated by a distance 2a. The distance of a point
from the centre of the line joining two charges on the equatorial line (perpendicular
a
bisector) at which force experienced by a test charge q0 becomes maximum is . The
x
value of x is ________ .
Space For Rough Work
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q C
2. A stream of a positively charged particles having = 2 1011 and velocity
m kg
v 0 = 3 107 ˆi m/s is deflected by an electrons field 1.8 ˆj k V / m. The electric field exists in
a region of 10 cm along x direction. Due to the electric field, the deflection of the charge
particles in the y direction is _______ mm.
3. A particle, of mass 10–3 kg and charge 1.0 initially at rest. At time t = 0, the particle comes
under the influence of an electric field E(t) = E0 sin t ˆi , where E0 = 1.0 NC–1 and
= 103 rad s–1. Consider the effect of only the electrical force on the particle. Then the
maximum speed, in ms–1, attained by the particle at subsequent times is _________.
5. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with a charge density
= kra, where k and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If the electric field
at r = R/2 is 1/8 times that at r = R, find the value ‘a’.
z
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IT−2025 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 6
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Cl
(D) HCl
CH2 = CH − CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CH3 − CH = CH − CH2Cl
High temperature
3. CH2OH
H OH
H OH HIO
⎯⎯⎯
4
→ Products
H OH
H OH
CH3
In above reaction the following product is formed?
(A) One mole of CH3OH (B) Four moles of HCOOH
(C) One mole of HCHO (D) one moles of CH3COOH
4. C3H8 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 Cl /hv
→ Dichloro products
How many dichloro products including stereoisomers are formed in above reaction?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
HO
5. C2H5Cl + KOH ⎯⎯⎯
2
→Product
Which organic compound is formed in above reaction?
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H5OC2H5
(C) C2H5OH (D) CH3OCH3
Space For Rough Work
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6. Which of the following compound upon dehydration in presence of hot conc. H2SO4 forms
CH3CH = CH2?
(A) CH3CH2CH2Cl (B) CH 3CHCH 3
Cl
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heating
Re arrangment
→ ( X)
reaction
8. CH3 CH3
→ CH3 − C + Cl−
H O
CH3 − C − Cl ⎯⎯⎯
2
CH3 CH3
OH-
CH3
H3C C OH
CH3
A nucleophilic substitution reaction is given above. It is called SN1 reaction. Which is/are
the characteristic(s) of the reaction?
(A) It proceeds in two steps.
(B) A reaction intermediate(carbocation) is formed in the reaction.
(C) The rate determining step is formation of carbocation.
(D) The rate determining step is combination of carbocation and the nucleophile(OH–)
Space For Rough Work
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9. Alcohols undergo dehydrogenation reactions when they are passed over copper metal at
300oC. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
(A) CH3CH2OH will produce CH3CHO in the reaction.
(B) 2o-alcohols form ketones in the reaction.
(C) inspite of the presence of OH group, phenols do not undergo this reaction.
(D) tertiary(3o) alcohol do not form any product in the reaction.
OH
O- K + O- K +
CHO
(C) it reacts with CHCl3/KOH forming and in absence of acid
CHO
(D) it reacts with Br2/H2O forming 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
11. In which option(s) the left side compound undergo(es) faster unimolecular nucleophilic
substitution reaction(SN1) than the right side compound.
Cl CH 2Cl
, Br
(A) (B)
Br ,
Br
(C) (D) ,
, I Cl
Br
Space For Rough Work
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IT−2025 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 9
12. In which option(s), the given reaction(s) can be carried out by using the chemicals given in
brackets?
(A) OH OCH 3
(Na, CH3Cl)
PART – B
(Numerical Type)
1. An alkali chloride(X) forms an alcohol(Y) upon treatment with aqueous solution of KOH. (Y)
upon mild oxidation with PCC produces HCHO. What is the molar mass of (X) in g mol–1
unit?
2.
CH2 - O - CH
CH3
Conc.HI(1 eq)
(P) + (Q)
MnO2
Na/dry ether
CHO (R)
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3. Phenol undergoes reduction when treated with Zn dust. The product is a hydrocarbon. If
x
the number of C – H bonds present in the hydrocarbon is x, what is the value of ?
4
4. CH3
NaOH/H 2O
CO2 + (R ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Sodalim e
Heat
⎯ (Q)
If x = Number of Cl atoms present in (P)
y = The number of oxygen atoms present in (Q)
and z = the number of pi-electrons present in (R)
x + y + 2z
What is the value of ?
10
5. Cl
CH 2Cl
KCN
⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Cl
Cl
If the percentage of chlorine atoms out of the total number of chlorine atoms present in
above reactant undergo SN (Nucleophilic substitution) reaction is x%, what is the value of
x
?
20
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IT−2025 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 11
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1− x + x
4. Let [t] denote the greatest integer t. If for some R – {0, 1}, lim = L, then L
x →0 − x + x
is equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 1
1
(C) (D) 2
2
5. Let g(x) = |4x3 – x| cos(x) then number of points where g(x) is non-differentiable in (−,
), is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
6. Let [t] denote the greatest integer t. Then the equation in x, [x]2 + 2[x + 2] – 7 = 0 has:
(A) infinitely many solutions (B) exactly two solutions
(C) no integral solution (D) exactly four integral solutions
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1
7. The lim x8 3 (where [x] is greatest integer function) is
x →0
x
(A) a nonzero real number (B) a rational number
(C) an integer (D) zero
8. If the function f(x) = ax + b is its own inverse then the ordered pair (a, b) can be
(A) (1, 0) (B) (−1, 0)
(C) (−1, 1) (D) (1, 1)
9.
If f ( x ) = sin x + 5 + x − x − x for x 0, is invertible, where {.} and [.] represent
4
fraction part and greatest integer functions respectively, then f −1 ( x ) is
(A) sin−1 x (B) − cos−1 x
2
(C) sin−1 x (D) cos−1 x
x−2
10. Let A = R − 3,B = R − 1 . Let f : A → B be defined by f ( x ) = . Then
x−3
(A) f is bijective (B) f is one – one
(C) f is onto (D) one – to – one but not onto
e − 2
x +x
11. If f ( x ) = x then (where [.] is G.I.F)
x + x
(A) lim+ f ( x ) = −1 (B) lim− f ( x ) = 0
x →0 x →0
(C) lim+ f ( x ) does not exist (D) lim f ( x ) does not exist
x →0 x →0
12. f (x ) = x 2 − 2ax + a(a + 1), f : a, ) → (a, If one of the solutions of the equation f (x ) = f −1(x ) is
5049, then the other may be
(A) 5051 (B) 5048
(C) 5052 (D) 5050
Space For Rough Work
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PART – B
(Numerical Type)
x − x 1
1. Let f ( x ) = , x R , then the range of f is 0, where k is (where [x] is greatest
1 + x − x k
integer function)
− x12 1
e sin x0
2. Let f ( x ) = x , then f ' ( 0 ) =
x=0
0
x + x 2 + x 3 + .... + x n − n
3. If lim = 820, ( n N) then the value of n is equal to _____
x →1 x −1
6. Find the number of point of discontinuity of f ( x ) = 5x + 3x in 0, 5 where y and
y denotes G.I.F and fractional parts of y.
Space For Rough Work
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QP Code: 100685
ANSWERS
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. C
5. C 6. C 7. BCD 8. BD
9. BD 10. AB 11. AD 12. ACD
PART – B
1. 2 2. 2 3. 2 4. 6
5. 2 6. 6
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. C 6. C 7. ABCD 8. ABC
9. ABC 10. ABCD 11. ACD 12. ABD
PART – B
1. 50.5 2. 1.9 3. 1.5 4. 1.7
5. 1.25 6. 2.5
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D
5. A 6. A 7. BCD 8. ABC
9. ABC 10. ABC 11. ABD 12. BD
PART – B
1. 2 2. 0 3. 40 4. 9
5. 10 6. 30
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